16-03-2025

9610ZMD801235240020 MD

PHYSICS

1) The electric potential at the surface of an atomic nucleus (z = 50) of radius 9 × 10–13 cm is ________
× 106 V.

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 0

2) Two charges of 5Q and –2Q are situated at the points (3a, 0) and (–5a, 0) respectively. The electric
flux through a sphere of radius '4a' having center at origin is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) An electron is moving under the influence of the electric field of a uniformly charged infinite plane
sheet S having surface charge density +σ. The electron at t = 0 is at a distance of 1 m from S and

has a speed of 1 m/s. The maximum value of σ if the electron strikes S at t = 1 s is the
value of α is : -

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 12

4) The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal
area of cross-section and same material is 2.5 . What will be the effective resistance if they are
connected in series ?

(1) 0.4

(2) 400
(3) 40
(4) 4

5) A cell of emf 4 V and internal resistance 0.5 is connected to a 3.5 external resistance. The
terminal potential difference of the cell is :-

(1) 3.75 V
(2) 3.50 V
(3) 3.05 V
(4) 0.375 V

6) If a 10V ideal EMF source is connected across terminal A and B, the charge on 6mF capacitor will
be :

(1) 3 µC
(2) 6 µC
(3) 9 µC
(4) 20 µC

7) A capacitor of capacitance C = 1000 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a).
Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of
capacitance C = 1000 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is:

(1) 2.5 × 10–6 J

(2) 2.25 × 10–6 J
(3) 1.5 × 10–6 J
(4) 4.5 × 10–6 J

8) In the given diagram mass of rod AB is 4 kg and length of rod is 2m. Calculate the tension at point

P in the rod.

(1) 4.8 N
(2) 10.4 N
(3) 8.8 N
(4) 15.2 N

9) A body of mass 10 kg rests on horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the body and
the surface is 0.4. If the body is pulled by a force of 80 N as shown in the figure, the limiting friction

between the body and surface will be :-

(1) 12 N
(2) 48 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 6 N

10) Mars has a diameter of approximately 0.5 of that of earth and mass of 0.1 of that of earth. The
surface gravitational field strength on mars as compared to that on earth is greater by a factor of :-

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 2.0
(4) 0.4

11) Fig. shows two concentric spherical shells of masses M1 and M2 and of radii R1 and R2,
respectively. Gravitational potential at a point at a distance x from centre such that R1 < x < R2 will

be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Find the amount of work done to increase to temperature of one mole of an ideal gas by 30°C, if
it is expanding under condition V ∝ T2/3 :

(1) 32R
(2) 15R
(3) 20R
(4) 25R

13) Every gas (real gas) behaves as an ideal gas :-

(1) At high temperature and low pressure

(2) At low temperature and high pressure
(3) At normal temperature and pressure
(4) None of the above

14) As the temperature of a black body increases, the wave length of the emitted radiations of
maximum intensity:

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Depends on the material of the black body

15) A simple pendulum is made by attaching 1 kg bob to a 5 m long copper wire. Its period is T.
Now, if 1 kg bob is replaced by 10 kg bob, the period of oscillations : -

(1) remains T
(2) becomes greater than T
(3) becomes less than T
(4) any of above depends on locality

16) The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation,
x = A cos(ωt) Where x = displacement at time t
ω = frequency of oscillation
Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the variation of a with t?
Here, a = acceleration at time, T = time period

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

17) The equation of a progressive wave is given by y = 5sin(100πt – 0.4πx) where y and x are in
metre and t is in second.
(i) The amplitude of the wave is 5 m.
(ii) The wavelength of the wave is 5 m.
(iii) The frequency of the wave is 50 Hz.
(iv) The velocity of the wave is 250 m s–1.
Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) All are correct

18) A person standing at a distance of 6m from a source of sound receives sound wave in two ways,
one directly from the source and other after reflection from a rigid boundary as shown in figure. The
maximum wavelength for which, the person will receive maximum sound intensity, is : -

(1) 4m

(2)

(3) 2cm

(4)

19) A vernier callipers has 20 divisions on the vernier scale which coincide with n divisions on main
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm and one main scale division are of 0.5 mm. Then
value of n is : -

(1) 19
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) 14

20) If p is momentum and c the speed of light, then the dimensions of pc are same as those of : -

(1) power
(2) force
(3) angular momentum
(4) energy

21) The logic circuit given in the figure performs the logic operation : -

(1) A ⋅ B ⋅ C
A⋅B⋅
(2)

(3) A ⋅ ⋅C
(4) ⋅B⋅

22) Assuming that the silicon diode (having negligible resistance), the current through the diode is :

- (knee voltage of silicon diode is 0.7 V)

(1) 0 mA
(2) 7 mA
(3) 2.3 mA
(4) 23 mA

23) The graph shows the variation of v with change in u for a mirror. Points plotted above the point

P on the curve are for values of v

(1) smaller than f

(2) smaller than 2f
(3) larger than 2f
(4) larger than f

24) In the figure shown here, the angle made by the light ray with the normal in the medium of
refractive index is (Region of medium are parallel).

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) None of these

25) The amplitude of light depends upon the distance of the point from the axis of a cylinderical
source as follows -

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

26) Two projectiles are fired with same initial speed from same point on ground at angles of (45° –
) and (45° + ), respectively, with the horizontal direction. The ratio of their maximum heights
attained is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A stone falls freely such that the distance covered it in the last second of its motion is equal to
the distance covered by it in first 5 seconds. Then the value of following quantities in their
respective S.I unit is.

(A) Time of flight (P) 845

(B) Velocity with which it reaches the ground (Q) 130

(C) Distance covered during motion (R) 250

(S) 13
(1) A-S, B-Q, C-P
(2) A-R, B-P, C-S
(3) A-P, B-S, C-Q
(4) A-Q, B-R, C-P

28) The amount of force needed to pull out a regular hexagonal figure made of wire, perpendicular
to its plane from liquid of surface tension 'T' will be:- (assume mass of wire is m, side = a)

(1) 12 aT + mg
(2) aT – mg
(3) 12 aT
(4) 6aT + mg

29) Viscosity of liquids :-

(1) increases with increase in temperature

(2) is independent of temperature
(3) decreases with decrease in temperature
(4) decreases with increase in temperature

30) In a series circuit, R = 300Ω, L = 0.9 H, and ω = 1000 rad/sec. The impedance of the
circuit is

(1) 1300 Ω
(2) 900 Ω
(3) 500 Ω
(4) 400 Ω

31) The values of L, C and R for a circuit are 1 H, 9 F and 3Ω. What is the quality factor for the
circuit at resonance ?

(1) 1
(2) 9

(3)

(4)

32) The figure here gives the electric field of an electromagnetic wave at a certain point and a
certain instant. The wave is transporting energy in the negative x-direction. The direction of the
magnetic field of the wave at that point and instant is :

(1) + ve x-direction
(2) – ve x-direction
(3) + ve z-direction
(4) – ve z-direction

33) Radiations of intensity 0.5 Wm–2 are striking a non reflecting metal plate. The pressure on the
plate is :

(1) 0.66 × 10–8 Nm–2

(2) 0.332 × 10–8 Nm–2
(3) 0.166 × 10–8 Nm–2
(4) 0.083 × 10–8 Nm–2

34) A cylindrical wire of radius R carrying uniformly distributed current i over its cross section. It a

circular loop of radius r is taken as amperian loop then the variation value of over this loop
with radius 'r' of loop will be best represented by

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) A uniform field exist in region of space. A semicircular wire of radius 1m carrying
current 1A having center at (2, 2,0) is placed in x - y plane as shown. The force on semicircular wire

will be -

(1) N
(2) N
(3) N
(4) N

36) Two short magnets of equal dipole moments M are fastened perpendicularly at their centres as

shown below (point P is in the plane of the magnets) The magnetic field
(magnitude) at P, distance d from the centre on the bisector of the right angle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) In a coil of resistance 10Ω, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it,
is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in weber is
(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 4

38) If given arrangement is moving towards left with speed v, then potential difference between B

and D and current in the loop are respectively :-

(1) BvR and non-zero

(2) 2BvR and zero
(3) 4BvR and non-zero
(4) 4BvR and zero

39) A uranium reacter develops thermal energy at a rate of 300 MW. Calculate the amount of U235
being consumed per sec.

(1) 5 mg
(2) 3.7 mg
(3) 5.7 mg
(4) 2 mg

40) An electron is moving through a field. It is moving (i) opposite an electric field (ii) perpendicular
to a magnetic field as shown. For each situation the de-Broglie wave length of electron :-

(1) Increasing, increasing

(2) Increasing, decreasing
(3) Decreasing, same
(4) Same, Same
41) A semicircular ring is kept on two rods as shown, then find y-cordinate of the centre of mass of

the system if mass of each rod and semicircular ring is m :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

42) A massless string is wrapped round a disc of mass M and radius R. Another end is tied to a mass
m which is initially at height h from ground level as shown in the fig. If the mass is released, then its

velocity while touching the ground level will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The angular momentum of a projectile projected at an angle θ with the horizontal with speed
u about the point of projection when it is at the highest point of its trajectory is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
44) Find the ratio of angular velocity and angular momentum of A with respect to O at the instant

shown in the figure. (mass of A = 1kg)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) As shown in the figure, a particle is released from rest from highest point of curved smooth path.
Find the distance from A of point where particle strikes the horizontal surface passing through A

after leaving point B horizontally. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 15 m

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion (A):- According to Mendeleev, periodic properties of elements is a function of their

atomic masses.
Reason (R):- Atomic number is equal to number of protons.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

2) Choose the correct order for acidic strength :

(1) Na2O < MgO

(2) NO < N2O
(3) SiO2 > P2O5
(4) HClO2 > HClO3

3) Which one of the following arrangements does not give the correct picture of the trends indicated
against it?

(1) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 : Bond length

(2) Cl > F > Br > I : Electron gain enthalpy
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Bond dissociation energy
(4) F > Cl > Br > I : Electronegativity

4) Match the column-I with Column-II and Column-III :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(a) A reactive non-metal, the atom has a large electron gain enthalpy (i) Antimony (q) ns1
(b) A soft metal, the atom has low ionisation enthalpy (ii) Sodium (r) ns2np5
(c) A chemically unreactive gas (iii) Chlorine (s) ns2np6
(d) A metalloid that forms an oxide R2O3 (iv) Argon (t) ns2np3
(1) (a-iii-r); (b-ii-q); (c-iv-s); (d-i-t)
(2) (a-ii-r); (b-iii-s); (c-i-q); (d-iv-t)
(3) (a-i-s); (b-iii-t); (c-ii-q); (d-iv-p)
(4) (a-iv-q); (b-iii-r); (c-i-t); (d-ii-s)

5) Energy is released during the formation of

(1) H–
(2) O2–
(3) Na+
(4) Mg2+

6) Consider ‘n’ is the number of lone pair of electrons present in the equatorial position of the most
stable structure of ClF3. The ions from the following with ‘n’ number of unpaired electrons are :
A. V3+ B. Ti3+ C. Cu2+ D. Ni2+ E. Ti2+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A and C only

(2) A, D and E only
(3) B and C only
(4) B and D only

7) NO2 and N2O4 are two forms of nitrogen dioxide. One exists in gaseous state while other in liquid
state. The nature of NO2 and N2O4 forms are :

(1) both are paramagnetic

(2) both are diamagnetic
(3) NO2 is paramagnetic while N2O4 is diamagnetic
(4) NO2 is diamagnetic while N2O4 is paramagnetic

8) The oxidation state of iron in Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)] is :

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) +3
(4) zero

9) IUPAC name of H2[PtCl6] is :

(1) Hydrogen hexachloroplatinate (IV)

(2) Dihydrogen hexachloroplatinate (IV)
(3) Hydrogen hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid
(4) Hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid.

10) Select correct statement for Cr·6NH3·Cl3 and Cr·5NH3·Cl3

(1) In both complex compounds secondary valency is satisfied by only NH3

(2) In both complex compounds Cl¯ are satisfying only primary valency
(3) In both complex compounds primary valency is satisfied by only Cl¯
(4) In both complex compounds all Cl¯ are ionizable.

11) In which case, the order of acidic strength is not correct ?

(1) HI > HBr > HCl

(2) HIO4 > HBrO4 > HClO4
(3) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2
(4) HF > H2O > NH3

12) Which compound is soluble in NH4OH

(1) PbCl2
(2) PbSO4
(3) AgCl
(4) CaCO3

13) What is the chemical formula of the potash alum?

(1) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)324H2O
(2) KHSO4.Al2(SO4)324H2O
(3) K2SO4Al2(SO4)321H2O
(4) None of the above

14) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Cr+2 act as reducing agent and Mn+3 act as oxidising agent.
 0
Statement-II : E (M+2/M) value for all 3d-series element's are negative.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.

15) Match the column :

Column I (Catalysis) Column II (Process)

Ni in the presence of
(i) (a) Zieglar-Natta catalyst
Hydrogen

(ii) CuCl2 (b) Contact process

(iii) V2O5 (c) Vegetable oil to vegetable ghee

(iv) TiCl4+Al(C2H5)3 (d) Decon process

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(4) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

16)
A and B are

(1) Identical
(2) Enantiomers
(3) Diastereomers
(4) None of these

17) Which of the following compounds responds to both iodoform test and Fehling's test ?

(1) Acetone
(2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Propionaldehyde
(4) Ethyl alcohol

18) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide composed of only

(1) D-glucose units joined by α-glucosidic linkage

(2) D-glucose units joined by β-glucosidic linkage
(3) D-galactose units joined by α-glucosidic linkage
(4) D-galactose units joined by β-glucosidic linkage

19) Most reactive compound among the following towards Nucleophilic substitution reaction (SN1):-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound (D) ;

What is the structure of (D)

(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2
(2) CH3CH2CONH2
(3) CH3CH2NHCH3
(4) CH3CH2NH2

21) The final product C, obtained in this reaction would be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) For the reaction :-

The major product is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23)
The final product is :>

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–CH3

24) In the following sequence of reactions the compound A is,

A B C CH3CHO + HCHO

(1) Ethylene
(2) Acetic acid
(3) Propene
(4) 1-Butene

25)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) Order of stability of following compound

(1) III > I > IV > II

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) II > IV > I > III
(4) IV > III > II > I

27) The correct statement regarding ethane conformation is.

Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane molecule is not possible, because ethane
(1) molecule contains both sigma(σ) bond and pi(π) bond between the carbon and carbon and
ethane has very high boiling point.
Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane molecule is not possible, because ethane
(2) molecule contains a pi(π) bond between the carbon and carbon and ethane has very low melting
point.
Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane molecule is not possible, because ethane
(3)
molecule contains both sigma(σ) bond and pi(π) bond between the carbon and carbon.
Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane molecule is possible because of cylindrical
(4)
symmetry of sigma(σ) bond between carbon-carbon atoms.

28) In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule, to give a
product 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is:

(1)

(2)

(3) (1) and (2)

(4)
29) The stability of Me2C=CH2 is more than that of MeCH2–CH=CH2 due to :

(1) Inductive effect of the Me group

(2) Resonance effect of the Me group
(3) Hyperconjugative effect of the Me group
(4) Resonance as well as inductive effect of the Me group

30) The reaction of C6H5—CH=CH—CH3 with HBr produces :

(1)

(2) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br

(3)

(4)

31) Equilibrium concentration of B if initial moles of 'A', ‘B' and 'C' are 8, 16 and 16 respectively in 1
litre container, is :
Given :

(1)

(2)

(3) 2 × 103 M
(4) 2 × 10–3 M

32) What is the pH of a 0.200 M solution of C6H5COONa? (The Ka of C6H5COOH is 6.4 x 10–5)

(1) 5.25
(2) 5.40
(3) 8.60
(4) 8.75

33) The enthalpy of vaporization of water at 100° C is 40.63 kJ mol–1. The value of ΔU° for this
process would be :

(1) 37.53 kJ mol–1

(2) 39.08 kJ mol–1
(3) 42.19 kJ mol–1
(4) 43.73 kJ mol–1

34)

In above balanced reaction, value of will be :

(1) 1.3
(2) 1.2
(3) 8
(4) 5

35) The radii of two of the first four Bohr's orbits of the hydrogen atom are in the ratio 1 : 4. The
energy difference between them may be :

(1) either 12.09 eV or 3.4 eV

(2) either 2.55 eV or 10.2 eV
(3) either 13.6 eV or 3.4 eV
(4) either 3.4 eV or 0.85 eV

36) 0.01 mole of iodoform (CHI3) reacts with Ag to produce a gas whose volume at NTP is :-
2CHI3 + 6Ag → C2H2(g) + 6Ag I(s)

(1) 224 mL
(2) 112 mL
(3) 336 mL
(4) 56 mL

37) The indicator which is not added in titration flask but kept on a spot plate is

(1) Self indicator

(2) External indicator
(3) Internal indicator
(4) None of these

38) E.M.F. of the cell 2Ag+ + Cu → Cu+2 + 2Ag

[Given: = –0.8 V ; = 0.3 V]

(1) –0.5 V
(2) 0.5 V
(3) –1.1 V
(4) 1.1 V

39) For a reaction , rate of disappearance of 'A' is related to the rate of appearance of 'B' by
the expression :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) For a first order reaction, t99% = y × t99.90%, Find value of y.

(1)

(2)

(3) 3

(4)

41) The concentration of pollutant in ppm (w/w), that has been measured at 450 mg per 150 kg of
sample is:

(1) 3 ppm
(2) 6 ppm
(3) 3000 ppm
(4) 330 ppm

42) Assuming each salt to be 90% dissociated which of the following will have highest osmotic
pressure?

(1) Decimolar Al2(SO4)3

(2) Decimolar BaCl2
(3) Decimolar Na2SO4
(4) A solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of (2) and (3) and filtering.

43) The standard reduction potentials at 25° C for the following half reactions are given against each
:
Zn2+ (aq) + 2e– → Zn(s), E°= –0.762 V
Cr3+ (aq) + 3e– → Cr(s), E°= –0.740 V
2H+ + 2e– → H2(g), E° = 0.00V
Fe3++e– → Fe2+ , E° = 0.77 V
Which is the strongest reducing agent?

(1) Zn
(2) Cr
(3) H2(g)
(4) Fe3+(aq)
44) The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities ?

(1) Entropy
(2) Internal energy
(3) Enthalpy
(4) Activation energy

45) A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into
electrical energy is known as :-

(1) Electrolytic cell

(2) Dynamo
(3) Ni-Cd cell
(4) Fuel Cell

BIOLOGY

1) Mycorrhizae a relationship between fungi and roots of higher plants is ?

(1) Parasitic relationship

(2) Saprophytic relationship
(3) Symbiotic relationship
(4) Epiphytic relationship

2) How many statement are correct ?

(a) Female mosquito is considered as true parasite.
(b) Galapagos island was inhabited by Abingdon tortoise and those were eliminated by goats.
(c) Calotropis produces cardiac glycoside hence are poisonous plants.
(d) Clown fish are benefitted when present around sea anemone.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

3) Which is the example of Sexual Deceit ?

(1) Fig & Wasp

(2) Ophrys & Bee
(3) Cuckoo & Crow
(4) Parasite & Host

4) In a given food chain suppose the amount of energy at the fourth tropic level is 6 KJ, what will be
the energy at producer level ?

(1) 0.6 KJ
(2) 60KJ
(3) 600KJ
(4) 6000KJ

5) Assertion (A) :- Herbivores are also called as second order consumers.

Reason (R) :- Herbivores obtain their food directly from plants.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

6) Assertion : The magnitude of net primary productivity is less than gross primary productivity.
Reason : The net primary productivity is the available productivity left after consumed in respiration
and maintenance.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

7) Identify the correct description about the given figure:

(1) Species-Area relationships given by Paul Ehrlich.

(2) On log scale the relationship becomes hyperbola.
 The relation between species richness and area for angiosperm plants turns out to be a
(3)
rectangular hyperbola.
On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line described by the equation log S = log A
(4)
+ Z log C.

8) Assertion : The most dramatic examples of habitat loss come from tropical rain forest.
Reason : They are being destroyed fast for cultivation of soybean and grassland for beef cattle.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

9) Statement I : Initial development stages of embryo in monocot and dicot is same.

Statement II : Embryo is formed opposite to the micropylar region in embryo sac of ovule.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

10) With respect to this diagram select the correct option related to it.

(1) A- is diploid and covered by coleoptile.

(2) B- is fleshy structure which reserve food used for embryo development.
(3) C- shows outgrowth during hypogeal germination.
(4) D- is diploid from where primary root arises.

11) Number of microspores, pollen grains and male gametes develop from 20 pollen mother cells is :

(1) 20, 40, 60

(2) 40, 80, 120
(3) 80, 160, 240
(4) 80, 80, 160
12) In the given four statements (a-d) select the option which includes all the incorrect ones only.
(a) Fimbrae, helps in collection of the ovum after ovulation
(b) Estrogen and progesterone produce women only during pregnancy
(c) The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menopause
(d) LH acts on sertoli cells

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (d) only
(3) (b), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (d)

13) How many of the following structures are involved in the formation of vulva ?
Mons pubis, Labia Majora, Labia minora, Clitoris, Vestibule, Vagina, Cervix

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

14) Assertion :- After ovulation the graafian follicle transform into corpus luteum.
Reason :- The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
After one month of
A. (i) Major organ system formation
pregnancy

End of 2nd month of Body covered with fine hairs and eye
B. (ii)
pregnancy lashes are formed

At end of 12 week of
C. (iii) Embryo heart formation
pregnancy

D. End of second trimester (iv) Foetus develops limbs and digits

(1) A-ii B-iii C-iv D-i

(2) A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii
(3) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(4) A-iii B-ii C-i D-iv

16) Weekly oral pills for females are :-

(1) Mala-D
(2) Mala-N
(3) Saheli
(4) Gossypol

17) Assertion: As long as mother breast feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
Reason: Menstrual cycle and ovulation do not occur during the period of intense lactation.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

18) Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) T-cells help the B-cells to produce antibody

(2) T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also stimulate B-cells to produce the same.
(3) Health is affected by genetic factors, life style, infection
(4) Gambusia is used to control diseases like malaria, elephantiasis and dengue.

19) Which is the "Allergic antibody" ?

(1) IgE
(2) IgA
(3) IgD
(4) IgM

20)

Read the following

a. Interferon
b. Skin
c. PMNLs
d. Mucus coat
e. Acid in stomach
f. Tears from eye
How many of the given barriers are not of physiological barrier type?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

21) Marijuana is obtained from :

(1) Ergot
(2) Cannabis
(3) Papaver
(4) Coffae

22) Which cells undergo meiosis ?

(1) Male Honey Bee

(2) Queen Bee
(3) Diploid somatic cells
(4) All of the above

23) A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the
same species, has :-

(1) Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA

(2) Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA
(3) Four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
(4) Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA

24) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is

(1) Diploid, and each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid

(2) Diploid, and each chromosome is composed of two chromatids
(3) Haploid, and each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid
(4) Haploid, and each chromosome is composed of two chromatids

25) During cell division when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which
___(A)___ condition arises leading to the formation of ___(B)___ .

(1) A – Polyploidy ; B – Polytene chromosomes

(2) A – Multinucleated ; B – Syncytium
(3) A – Multinucleated ; B – Polyploidy
(4) A – Polytene chromosomes ; B – Syncytium

26) The mitochondria contain :-

(1) Site for photophosphorylation

(2) Site for aerobic respiration
(3) Pigment located at their cristae
(4) ds DNA in their outer compartment

27) Cilia and flagella are similar in :-

(1) Size or length

(2) Number per cell
(3) Type of movement
(4) Arrangement and number of microtubule
28) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) SER – Synthesis of protein

(2) RER – Synthesis of steroidal hormone
(3) Golgi body – Formation of nuclear membrane
(4) Lysosome – Digestion of Nucleic acid

29) Several ribosomes attach to a single m-RNA & form a chain called as :-

(1) Polysome
(2) Microsome
(3) Axoneme
(4) Mesosome

30) How many statements are correct?

(a) In open circulatory system blood is circulated through series of vessels of varying diameter
(b) Sponges are bilaterally symmetrical
(c) When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the animal into two identical
halves such symmetry is called bilateral symmetry.
(d) In Platyhelminthes digestive system is incomplete type.

(1) Zero
(2) ONE
(3) Two
(4) Three

31) Identify the incorrect match

(1) Porifera ----ostia---choanocytes---indirect development----Sycon

(2) Porifera ----ostia---choanocytes---indirect development----Euspongia
(3) Coelenterata -----gastrovascular cavity---Cnidoblasts----direct development---Obelia
(4) Ctenophora ----comb plates----diploblastic----indirect development---Ctenoplana

32) Match the columns and choose the correct answer from the options given below

Phylum Common name of animal Scientific name of animal

a Platyhelminthes i) roundworm u) Taenia
b Aschelminthes ii) earthworm v) Pheretima
c Annelida iii) tapeworm w) Ascaris

a b c
1 ii,v i,w iii,u
2 iii,u ii,w i,v
3 iii,u ii,v i,w
4 iii,u i,w ii,v
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Which of the following type of tissue is being described by the given statements?
(a) They are named because of their special functions of linking and supporting.
(b) They include cartilage, bone, adipose and blood.
(c) They provide strength and elasticity to the tissues.

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscle tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

34) Assertion: Non-striated muscles are said to be voluntary in nature.

Reason: Non-striated muscles can be moved according to will.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

35) In cockroach a pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment which open into the which type
of structure :-

(1) Male gonopore

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Genital chamber

36) The above figure is related with female reproductive system of frog. Identify A to D.
(1) A-Ovary; B-Ureter; C-Oviduct ; D-Ovisac
(2) A-Ovary; B-Urinogenital duct; C-Bidder's canal; D-Ovisac
(3) A-Ovary; B-Ureter; C-Cloaca, D-Cloacal aperture
(4) A-Ovary; B-Urinogenital duct; C-Bidder's canal; D-Oviduct

37) Devries believed mutation caused speciation, Devries mutations are -

(1) Sudden and directional

(2) Small and directionless
(3) Random and directionless
(4) gradual and directional

38) Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(a) Some land reptiles went back into water to evolve into fish like reptiles (eg. Ichthyosaurs)
(b) The first mammals were like shrew.
(c) Seals and sea cows are some examples of small sized reptiles.
(d) Due to continental drift, North American fauna was overridden by South American animals.

(1) a & c
(2) b & c
(3) c & d
(4) a & d

39) Match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

(a) Homo habilis (i) Cave paintings, agriculture

(b) Neanderthal man (ii) Large brain around 900 cc, ate meat

(c) Homo sapiens (iii) 1400 cc brain size, east and central Asia

(d) Homo erectus (iv) First human like being, did not eat meat
(1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
(3) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)

40) Which of the following molecular diagnosis method is not used for detection of mutation :-

(1) Probe
(2) PCR
(3) ELISA
(4) Both (1) and (2)

41) Indian Patents Bill take issues into consideration such as :

(1) Patent terms emergency provisions
(2) Research
(3) Development initiative
(4) All of these

42) Assertion :- Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not a permanent cure for ADA deficiency.
Reason : Lymphocytes are immortal.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

43) March column I with column II :

Column I Column II

(a) Ribonuclease (i) Bacterial cell wall

(b) Protease (ii) RNA

(c) Chilled Ethanol (iii) Plant cell wall

(d) Lysozyme (iv) Protein

(e) Cellulase (v) Fungal cell wall

(f) Chitinase (vi) Precipitation of DNA

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv), e-(v), f-(vi)
(2) a-(vi), b-(v), c-(iv), d-(iii), e-(ii), f-(i)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(vi), e-(iii), f-(v)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(vi), d-(i), e-(iii), f-(v)

44) Assertion : DNA fragments move towards anode under an electric field.
Reason : DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

45) Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to plasmids :-

Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972 constructed the first recombinant DNA using a native
(1)
plasmid of E.coli.
(2) It is an autonomously replicating circular extra chromosomal DNA.
(3) Plasmid DNA acts as vector to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with help of
(4)
DNA ligase.
46) ______________ is the most abundant protein in animal world and _______________ is the most
abundant protein in the whole biosphere.

(1) RuBisCO, Collagen

(2) Antibodies, RuBisCO
(3) Carbonic anhydrase, Cellulose
(4) Collagen, RuBisCO

47) Read the following :

(a) Low temperature preserves the enzyme.
(b) Enzyme activity increases above optimum temperature.
(c) Enzymes get denatured at high temperature.
(d) Competitive inhibitor competes with the product formed.
Which of the following statements are true?

(1) (a) & (c)

(2) (b) & (d)
(3) (c) & (d)
(4) (a) & (b)

48) Which of the following enzyme is used to join two compounds together ?

(1) Oxidoreductase
(2) Isomerase
(3) Ligase
(4) Transferase

49) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

a DCT i Minimum reabsorption

b Henle's loop ii Secretion of H+ and K+ ions

c PCT iii Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water

d Collecting duct iv 70-80% of electrolytes and water reabsorbed

(1) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i
(2) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
(3) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
(4) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

50) All of the following substances are reabsorbed actively by renal tubules except -

(1) Glucose
(2) Na+
(3) Amino acids
(4) Nitrogenous waste

51) Statement-I : Calvin along with J.A. Bassham studied reactions in green plants forming sugar
and other substances from raw materials like carbon dioxide, water and minerals by labelling the
carbon dioxide with C14.
Statement-II : Calvin earned Nobel Prize in 1961 by the mapping of the pathway of
carbon assimilation in photosynthesis.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

52) Select the incorrect statement :

The ‘Photochemical’ phase include light absorption, water splitting, oxygen release, and the
(1)
formation of high-energy chemical intermediates, ATP and NADPH.
In PS II the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an absorption peak at 700 nm, hence is called
(2)
P700, while in PS I it has absorption maxima at 680 nm, and is called P680.
(3) The splitting of water is associated with the PS II; water is split into 2H+, [O] and electrons.
Photophosphorylation is the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate in the
(4)
presence of light.

53) Assertion : Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the Calvin cycle where CO2 is utilised for
the carboxylation of RuBP.
Reason : Regeneration of the CO2 acceptor molecule RuBP is crucial if the cycle is to continue
uninterrupted.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

54) Statement-I : Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria of the cell and is present in all
living organisms.
Statement-II : In glycolysis process, glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form two molecules of
pyruvic acid.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

55) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a cycle present in mitochondrial matrix identify the
chemical labelled A, B, C and D.
(1) A - Acetyl coenzyme A, B - Succinic acid, C - Oxaloacetic acid, D - CO2,
(2) A - Succinic acid, B - CO2, C - Acetyl coenzyme A, D - Oxaloacetic acid
(3) A - Succinic acid, B - Acetyl coenzyme A, C - CO2, D - Oxaloacetic acid
(4) A - Oxaloacetic acid, B - CO2, C - Acetyl coenzyme A, D - Succinic acid,

56) Read the given below statements -

A. The compounds that are oxidised during respiration process are known as respiratory substrates.
B. Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose by the enzyme, protease, and these two
monosaccharides readily enter the glycolytic pathway.
C. Both lactic acid and alcohol fermentation are hazardous – either acid or alcohol is produced.
D. NADH is oxidised to NAD+ rather very vigorous in fermentation, however the reaction is slowly in
case of aerobic respiration.
E. When tripalmitin is used in respiration, the RQ is more than 1.
Select the option which have incorrect statements :

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, B, E
(3) B, D, E
(4) A, C, D

57) Observe the figure given below.

Identify: (a) The figure
(b) Nature of protoxylem
(c) Order of development of primary xylem

a b c

1 Monocot Root Exarch Centripetal

2 Dicot stem Exarch Centripetal

3 Dicot stem Endarch Centrifugal

4 Monocot stem Endarch Centrifugal

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) What is true about bulliform cells

(1) All the adaxial epidermal cells in grass are modified into bulliform cells in the leaves
(2) They are empty cells
(3) The bulliform cells in the leaves absorb water from air
(4) When water stress the leaves curl outwards to minimize water loss.

59) Identify the correct option :

A = This type of flower is hypogynous

(1) B = This type of flower is seen in mustard
C = This type of flower is with inferior ovary
A = This type of flower is seen in plum, rose and peach
(2) B = This is epigynous flower with inferior ovary
C = In this type of flower gynoecium occupies the highest position
A = This type of flower is seen in plum, rose and peach
(3) B = This is epigynous flower with Superior ovary
C = In this type of flower gynoecium occupies the highest position
 A= This type of flower is perigynous
(4) B = This type of flower is epigynous
C = This type of flower possess inferior ovary

60) Identify the type of placentation which is given below as well as the related plant of its

occurrence, and select the right option.

Placentation Example
(1) Axile China rose
(2) Free central Dianthus
(3) Parietal Argemone
(4) Basal Sunflower
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61)

The given floral formula belong to -

Ebr ⊕ K2+2 C4x A2+4G(2)

(1) Pisum
(2) Mustard
(3) Chilli
(4) China rose

62) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :-

Column I Column II

A. Natural auxin (i) NAA

B. Synthetic auxin (ii) Zeatin

C. Bakane disease of rice (iii) IAA

D. Natural cytokinin (vi) GA

(v) Kinetin
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(v)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(v)
(4) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(v), D-(ii)

63) On spraying Gibberellins on sugarcane crops what major change will be bring?

(1) Increase sweetness

(2) Increase length of stem
(3) Increase root strength
(4) Increase the number of fruits

64) The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to :-

(1) Growth of LAB

(2) Production of O2 & ethanol
(3) Production of CO2
(4) Growth of Monascus yeast

65) Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?

(i) Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison
to species of other genera.
(ii) Three different genera such as Solanum, Datura and Petunia are placed in the family solanaceae.
(iii) In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called
phylum.

(1) Both (i) and (ii)

(2) Only (iii)
(3) Both (ii) and (iii)
(4) All of these

66) Which one one of the following matches is correct ?

(1) Alternaria Sexual reproduction absent Ascomycetes

(2) Mucor Reproduction by conjugation Ascomycetes

(3) Agaricus Mushroom Basidiomycetes

(4) Phytophthora Aseptate mycelium Basidiomycetes

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Which of the following group of kingdom protista is being described in the statements given
below?
(i) This group includes diatoms and golden algae.
(ii) They are microscopic and float passively in water currents (plankton).
(iii) Diatoms are chief producers in the ocean.
(iv) They have deposits in their habitat; this accumulation over billion of years is referred to as
‘diatomaceous earth’.
(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Chrysophytes
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Slime moulds

68) Assertion : The viruses are non-cellular organism.

Reason : TMV has RNA as genetic material.

If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
(1)
Assertion.
If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

69) Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements :-
(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.
(B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte
(C) In red algae usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation.
(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on
sporophyte

(1) (B), (C) and (D)

(2) (A), (C), (D) and (E)
(3) (B), (C) and (E)
(4) (A), (C) and (D)

70) Which of the following statements is incorrect about gymnosperms ?

(1) They are heterosporous

(2) Male and female gametophytes are free living
(3) Most of them have narrow leaves with thick cuticle
(4) Gymnosperms include cycas, pinus and ginkgo

71) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Natural system of classification separated closely related species.
Reason (R) : Artificial system of classification was based on a few characterstics. In the light of the
above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

72) Refer to the given figure showing meiosis and germ cell formation in a cell with four
chromosomes. Which of the Mendel's law can effectively be explained by this figure?

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) All of the above

73) The numbers of phenotypes and genotypes in F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross are

(1) Phenotypes 4 : genotypes 16

(2) Phenotypes 4 : genotypes 8
(3) Phenotypes 9 : genotypes 4
(4) Phenotypes 4 : genotypes 9

74) Assertion: Morgan coined the term linkage to describe the physical association of genes on a
chromosome.
Reason: Linkage shows more non-parental type combination of genes.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

75) Which gene in lac operon synthesizes mRNA all the time, i.e. constitutively?

(1) z gene
(2) a gene
(3) i gene
(4) y gene

76)

Which of the following statements with respect to features of human genome is/are not true ?
(i) The average gene consists of 30000 bases.
(ii) Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins.
(iii) Chromosome X has most genes and the Y has the fewest genes.
(iv) There are about 1.4 million locations where SNPs are found.

(1) (i), (iii) & (iv)

(2) (iii) only
(3) (i) & (iv)
(4) (i) & (iii) only

77) Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by:

(1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

(2) Avery, Macleod and McCarty
(3) Wilkins and Franklin
(4) Frederick Griffith

78) Which of the following RNAs plays both structural and catalytic role during translation ?

(1) mRNA
(2) rRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) hnRNA

79) Identify the correct sequence of events in a cardiac cycle:

(1) Diastole, atrial systole, ventricular diastole

(2) Atrial systole, ventricular diastole, ventricular systole
(3) Atrial systole, ventricular systole, joint diastole
(4) Ventricular diastole, diastole, ventricular systole, atrial systole

80) SA node is called the pace maker of the heart. Why?

(1) It can change contractile activity generated by AV node.

(2) It delays the transmission of impulse between the atria and ventricles.
(3) It gets stimulated when it receives neural signal.
(4) It initiates and maintains the rhythmic contractile activity of heart.

81) Recognise the figure and find out the number of bones in specified regions a, b, c, d, e and f :-

(1) a–126, b–80, c–14, d–6, e–8, f–3

(2) a–80, b–126, c–29, d–14, e–1, f–3
(3) a–80, b–126, c–29, d–8, e–1, f–6
(4) a–126, b–80, c–29, d–14, e–2, f–6

82) Which of the following is false about hind-brain?

(1) Pons, a part of it consist of fibre tracts that interconnects different regions of brain.
(2) The cerebellum part of it has very convoluted surface to accommodate many neurons.
(3) Medulla of this part is connected to the spinal cord.
(4) The hind-brain is known for regulation of excitement, pleasure, rage and fear.

83) Which of the following is true about neural membrane?

(1) Different type of ion channels are present.

(2) Ion channels are selectively permeable.
(3) Impermeable to negatively charged protein present in axoplasm.
(4) All the above

84) Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective development and maturation of growing
baby leading to -

(1) Addison’s disease

(2) Cretinism
(3) Creatinine
(4) Grave's disease

85) Select the correct statement:

A. Melatonin influences menstrual cycle and our defence capability.
B. In adult women, hypothyroidism may cause menstrual cycle to become irregular.
C. Protein hormone secreted by thyroid, TCT (Thyrocalcitonin) regulates the blood calcium level.
D. Maintenance of water and electrolytes balance is also influenced by thyroid hormone.
E. Oxytocin causes milk ejection from mammary gland.
Select the correct statement:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, B, C and E only
(3) All except D
(4) All statements are correct

86) The hormone produced by α cells of pancreas does not :

(1) Acts on liver cells

(2) Stimulate gluconeogenesis
(3) Stimulate glycogenesis
(4) Reduces glucose uptake and utilization

87)
Match the column I and II :-

Column-I Column-II

a True ribs I 1st 7 pairs

b Floating ribs II 8th, 9th ,10th Pairs

Vertebrochondral
c III 11th, 12th Pairs
ribs
(1) a–I, b–II, c–III
(2) a–I, b–III, c–II
(3) a–II, b–I, c–III
(4) a–II, b–III, c–I

88) Which event does not happen during muscle contraction ?

(1) Actin filaments move towards H-zone

(2) Decrease length of myosin filament
(3) Decrease length of sarcomere
(4) Length of A-band remains unchanged.

89)

What is true about RBCs in humans ?

(1) They do not carry CO2 at all

(2) They carry about 20-25 per cent of CO2
(3) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2
They transport about 80 percent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in
(4)
dissolved state in blood plasma.

90) Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a-d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes and
capacities of a normal human adult :

Respiratory volumes and capacities Magnitudes

(a) Residual volume 2500 mL

(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL

(c) Inspiratory reserve volume 1200 mL

(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL

Which one of the following is the correct matching of the two

(1) (a) 4500 mL,(b) 3500 mL
(2) (b) 2500 mL,(c) 4500 mL
(3) (c) 1200 mL, (d) 2500 mL
(4) (d) 3500 mL, (a) 1200 mL
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 3 2 4 1 2 3 4 4 3 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 3 1 4 3 1 1 4 3 3 4 3 2 2 4 2 4 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 4 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 1 1 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 4 3 2 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 2 2 2 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 1 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 4 3 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 2 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 2 4 2 2 4 4 1 2 3 4 2 4 4 3 3 3 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 4 1 1 4 1 3 4 4 1 2 2 4 3 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 3 4 1 2 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 4 2 4 3 2 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Potential

2)

5Q charge is inside the spherical region flux through sphere =

3)

S = –1 m

Using

4)
5)
TPD = 4 – 1 × 0.5 = 4 – 0.5
TPD = 3.5 volt

6)

7) Common potential

= 50 Volt
Electrostatic energy stored

= 1000 × 10–12 × 50 × 50
= 25 × 10–7 J
= 2.5 × 10–6 J

8)

20 – TP = 9.6 ⇒ TP = 10.4 N

9) Normal reaction
R = mg – P sin 30°

∴ Limiting friction between body and surface

=

10)

11)

12) V ∝ T2/3
V3/2 ∝ T

= const.
–3/2
TV = const. [for a polytropic process TVn–1 = constant]

then n – 1 = –

WPoly =

=
WPoly = 20 R

13) Basics

14) (by wein's law)

15) Time period of a simple pendulum,

It is independent of the mass of the bob. Therefore, time period of the pendulum will remain T.

16) Here, x = A cosωt

∴ Velocity,

Acceleration,
Hence, the vibration of a with t is correctly shown by graph (3)

17) A = 5m,
k = 0.4π ⇒ = 0.4π ⇒ λ = 5 m

= 250 m/sec

18)
Δx = 10 – 6 = 4m = nλ

For maximum value of λ

n = 1 (minimum)
λ = 4m

19) 20 VSD = n MSD & L.C. = 0.1 mm

1VSD = MSD & 1MSD = 0.5 mm

So, LC = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

0.1 mm = 0.5 mm – (0.5 mm)

(0.5 mm) = 0.4 mm

n = 16

20)

E = pc
Energy

21)

22)

23) where u = v so u = 2f = v

24) μ1 sin i = μ3 sin r

1 (sin 60) = sin r ⇒ sin r = ⇒ r = 30

25)

For Cylindrical source

Intensity , I =
where I = kA2 P → power

kA2 =

⇒A∝

26)

27) n time taken by stone to reach grand.

= S (distance covered in first 5sec)

2n – 1 = 25
2n = 26
n = 13
Time of flight = 13sec

Distance covered =
= 845 m
Velocity with which it hit the ground,
v = u + gt
v = 0 + 10 × 13
v = 130 m/s

28) Each side of hexagon, when it is lifted will experiences force = 2 × a × T due to surface
tension. So net pulling force required
= force due to surface tension + Mg
F = 6 × 2aT + Mg

29) Since cohesive force decrease with increase in temperature. Viscosity of liquids decreases
with a rise in temperature.
30)

31)

32) Direction of energy progration of EM-waves is given by

or
Clearly direction of magnetic field is along negative z-axis

33)

Intensity or power per unit area of the radiations

P= =

= Nm–2

34) = μ0 Ienclosed

Ienclosed = r<R
I r>R

35)

So,
36) Point is on the axis of effective magnetic dipole so

37) The charge through the coil = area of current-time (i -t) graph

38) Induced emf = B × v × effective length ⊥r to velocity

= Bv (ℓBD) = Bv(4R) = 4BvR
Since B is uniform & Area is fixed, then' change in flux is zero in the loop so current flow will
be zero.

39) P = ×

t = 1 sec
m = 3.7 mg

40)

(i) KE of e– will increase due to electric field. So, λ will decrease

(ii) KE will not change due to magnetic field. So, λ will remain same.

41)
y position of COM of semicircular ring is

= y1 + ℓ = +ℓ= +ℓ

y position of COM of each rod =

For system ycm =

⇒ ycm = = (1 + 2π)

42) mgh = mv2 + Iω2

mgh = mv2 + ×

v=

43)
At heighest point v = u cos θ

44)

ω=
L = mvd = vd (m = 1)

45) For point O and B,

By energy conservation-

⇒ v = 10 m/s
⇒ Now from B to C -
 time of flight, T
Range ,

CHEMISTRY

47)

Acidic strength ∝ Oxidation state

48)

Bond dissociation energy order : Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

Fluoride has a very low bond dissociation energy because of its small size and high
electronegativity.

49)

Fact based.

50)

Energy is released during the formation of H–.

51)

ClF3

n = 2 (No. of lone pair present in equitorial plane)

unpaired e–
3+ 2
V : d 2
3+ 1
Ti : d 1
Cu2+ : d9 1
Ni2+ : d8 2
2+ 2
Ti : d 2

52)

NO2 is odd e– species. So it is paramagnetic in nature.

53) Na+[Fe+2(CN)5(NOS)]4–

54) H2[PtCl6] is an acid, not salt hence its name : Hexachlorooplatinic (IV) acid.

55)

Cr·6NH3·Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
Secondary valency '6' satisfied by only NH3, all Cl¯ satisfy only primary valency.
Cr·5NH3·Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
Secondary valency '6' satisfied by five NH3 and one Cl¯ while all three Cl¯ satisfy primary
valency.

56) HClO4 > HBrO4 > HIO4 ⇒ acidic strength has been decided on the basis of
electronegativity or charges density on central atom.

57) AgCl is soluble in NH4OH

58)

Chemical formula of Potash Alum is

K2SO4·Al2(SO4)3·24H2O

59)

Statement-I :-

Statement-II :- Positive only for Cu among 3d elements because hydration energy of Cu+2 is not
enough to compensate for sublimation energy, IE1 and IE2 for Cu.

60)

(i) Ni in the presence of Hydrogen → (c) Vegetable oil to vegetable ghee (Hydrogenation of oil)
(ii) CuCl2 → (d) Decon process (Manufacture of Cl2)
(iii) V2O5 → (b) Contact Process (Manufacture of H2SO4)
(iv) TiCl4+Al(C2H5)3 → (a) Zieglar-Natta catalyst

61) Both have same configuration (2S, 3R)

62) CH3–CHO shows both iodoform test and Fehling's test.

63) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide composed of only of β-D-glucose units joined
by β-glucosidic linkage

64)

Reactivity of compound depends upon the stability of the carbocation.

65)

66)
67)

68)

69) CH3—CH=CH2 CH3—CH(Br)—CH3 CH3—CH=CH2

CH3CHO + HCHO

70)

71) Stability of Alkene ∝ Number of hyperconjugating structure of ∝ Number of a hydrogen.

II > IV > I > III

72) Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane molecule is possible because of cylindrical
symmetry of sigma(σ) bond between carbon-carbon atoms as ethane does not have π-bond.
73)

75)

76)

Since, KC value is very high, reaction is favoured predominantly in forward direction.

A + 3B ⇌ C
8 16 16

~0

77)

pH = [pkw + pka + log c]

78) H2O(ℓ) → H2O(g); ΔH = ΔU + ΔnRT

⇒ ΔU = 40.63 – = 37.53 kJ/mol

79)

80)

Either or
ΔE = 13.6 – 3.4 or ΔE = 3.4 – 0.85
= 10.2 eV = 2.55 eV

81)

2 mole CHI3 ≡ 1 mole C2H2

0.01 mole CHI3 forms = × 0.01 mole C2H2
= 0.005 mole
V = 0.005 × 22.4
= 112 × 10–3 L

82) External indicator are not added to the titer they are used outside to determine the end
point. External indicator is placed on a white tile in the form of small drops.

83)

84)

85) ∵ (log100 = 2)

= ...(1)

...(2)
∵ (log1000 = 3)

y=

86) 150 × 103 → 450 × 10–3

⇒ 106 → × 106 = 3 ppm

87) π = iCRT
Highest i is of Al2(SO4)3 = (1 + 4) × (0.9)

88)

Minimum value of SRP, Strongest reducing agent

reducing power ∝ SOP ∝

89)

When catalyst added to a chemical reaction, its activation energy decreases.

90)
 Fuel cell converts combustion energy of fuels like H2 & CH4 directly into electrical energy.

BIOLOGY

99) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 14-15

100) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 19

102)

NCERT XII Page # 27,29,33

103)

NCERT XII Page # 30

104)

NCERT XII, Page # 35

105)

NCERT XII Page # 38

106)

NCERT XII Page # 43

107)

NCERT XII Page # 44

108)

NCERT XII Page # 130-135

109)

NCERT XII Page # 137

110)

NCERT XII Page # 134

111)

NCERT XII Page # 145

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 122

113)

114)

NCERT Pg # 169

115) NCERT XI Pg.#124

116) NCERT Pg. # 135

117) NCERT XI Pg. # 99

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 133,134

119) NCERT, Pg. # 91

120)

NCERT XI, Page #38,40,42

121)

NCERT XI, Page # 40,41

122)

NCERT XI, Page # 42,43

Platyhelminthes (Flatworms):
• Common name: Tapeworm
• Scientific name: Taenia
b) Aschelminthes (also called Nematoda, includes roundworms):
• Common name: Roundworm
• Scientific name: Ascaris

123) Old NCERT XI, Page # 100,103

124)
Old NCERT XI, Page # 104,105

125)

Old NCERT XI, Page # 114

126)

NCERT XI, Page # 83

127) NCERT Page # 119

128) NCERT Page # 124

129) NCERT Page # 20

130)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182-183

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 185

132)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

133) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171

Ribonuclear - RNA
Protease - Protein
Chilled ethanol - Precipitation of DNA
Lysozyme - Bacterial cell wall
Cellulase - Plant cell wall
Chitinase - Fungal cell wall

134) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 168

DNA is negatively charged it moves towards positive electrode i.e. anode.

135) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 164-165

First recombinant DNA was constructed using a native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.

136)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 110

137)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 116-117

138)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117

139) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209-210

140) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

147) NCERT pg- 75

148) NCERT_11_PG_95_2021-22

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 73

150)

NCERT (XI) Page # 75

151) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 78

163) NCERT Page no. 79

164) NCERT Page no. 85

165) NCERT Page no. 117

166)

NCERT Page no. 120

167) NCERT/P–85 (NEET 2023)

168) NCERT Page no. 109

169) NCERT XI PG 199

170) NCERT XI PG 201

171)

NCERT Page no. 309, 310, 311

172) NCERT XI PG 236

173) NCERT XI PG233

174) NCERT XI PG 243

175) NCERT XI PG 242,243

176) NCERT XI PG 244

177) NCERT XI Pg. # 310

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 189

180)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 187