STATEWIDE GRAND TEST - I M2 - MPL

STATEWIDE GRAND TEST - I

Max.Marks : 720 M
Class : M2 MPL NEET MODEL Time: 3 Hrs
Subjects : Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology. Date : 23.04.2025

SYLLABUS
Physics : Oscillations
Mechanical properties of fluids : Upto Archemede's principale and its applications
Chemistry : Ionic equilibrium
Thermodynamics
Botany : Biomolecule (Complete)
Plant Growth and Development (Complete)
Zoology : Neural control and coordination (Complete)
Chemical coordination and integration (Complete)

Instructions :
i) Each question consists of Four options with single correct answer.
ii) The test is of 3 hours duration and this question paper contains 180 questions.

iii) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum
marks are 720.
iv) Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on OMR page / marking responses..

Name of the Student ...................................................................... Roll No .......................................

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PHYSICS
1. The displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is given by y  4 cos(2 t   / 4) m . Then
velocity of the oscillator at t = 2 seconds is
4 2 4 2 1
1) 4 2 ms 1 2) ms 1 3) ms 1 4) ms
2 4 
2. A flat horizontal board moves in SHM up and down. A small coin is placed on it. The maximum
permissible amplitude of the board such that the coin does not separate from the board if its
frequency of oscillation is f
g g 2g 4g
1) 2 2 2) 2 2 3) 4)
4 f 2 f 2 f 2 2 f 2
3. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing SHM of amplitude 0.1m. When the particle passes through
the mean position, its kinetic energy is 8 × 10–3 J. Then the equation of its motion when the
initial phase is 45° is
1) 0.2 sin(4t   / 4) 2) 0.1sin(4t   / 4) 3) 0.1sin(2t   / 4) 4) 0.1sin(t   / 4)
4. Four massless springs each of force contant K are attached to a mass m kept on a smooth plane
as shwon. If the mass is displaced in the horizontal direction and released, it frequency of
oscillation is
k
k k
k m

1 K 1 4K 1 2K 1 5K
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4m 2 m 2 5m 2 2m
5. Two simple pendulums of lengths 100cm and 1600cm are in phase at the mean position at a
certain instant of time. If T is the time period of first pendulum, then the minimum time after
which they will be in phase again is
3T 4T
1) 2) 3) 3T 4) 4T
4 3
6. A pendulum clock of length l is moving up with deceleration g/3. Then the number of oscilla-
tions made by that pendulum in 2 seconds is
1 2g 1 2g 1 3g 1 3g
1) 2) 3) 4)
 3l 2 3l  2l 2 2l
7. If two simple harmonic motions of same amplitude and frequency with a phase difference  / 2
are superimposed, the resulting motion is
1) Linear 2) Circular 3) Simple harmonic 4) Rolling
8. The seconds pendulum is taken from earth to moon, to keep the time period constant
1) Length of the seconds pendulum should be reduced
2) The length of the seconds pendulum should be raised
3) The amplitude should increase
4) The amplitude should decrease

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9. When the length of a simple pendulum is increased by 36cm, its time period of oscillation is
found to increase by 25%. The initial length of the simple pendulum is (Acceleration due to
gravity = 9.8 ms–2)
1) 36 cm 2) 25 cm 3) 64 cm 4) 46 cm
10. The potential energy of a particle of mass 5mg executing simple harmonic motion along x-axis
is given by V(x) = (1.23) + (4.84)x2, where V(x) is in joules and x is in metres. The frequency of
oscillation of the particle is Hz.
1) 77 2) 7 3) 22 4) 2.2
11. The time period of a simple pendulum of length ‘ L ’ is T 1. Time period of a uniform rod of same
length ‘L’ suspended from one end and oscillationg in a vertical plane is T2. Amplitude of
T1
oscillation is small in both cases. Then, T is
2

4 3 2
1) 2) 1 3) 4)
3 2 3
12. An object undergoing simple harmonic motion takes 0.5s to travel from one point of zero
velocity to the next such point. The angular frequency of the motion is
 1
1)  rad s 1 2) 2 rad s 1 3) 3 rad s 1 4) rad s
2
13. A body starting at t = 0 from origin and oscillates simple harmonically with a period of 4s. After
what time will its kinetic energy be 75% of its total energy
1) 1/2s 2) 1/3s 3) 1/4s 4) 1s
14. The displacement of a particle in simple harmonic motion (SHM) is given by
 100  
y  3 sin  t   . What will be the displacement of the particle from the mean position
  4
when its kinetic energy is eight times that of its potential energy ?
 2
1) 2) 3)  4) 3
3 3
15. A mass ‘M’ is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled down a little and
then released so that the mass executes simple harmonic oscillations of a time period T. If the
mass attached is increased by ‘m’, the time period was observed to become 9T/4. Find the ratio
m : M.
1) 9 : 16 2) 65 : 16 3) 16 : 9 4) 16 : 65
16. Two identical springs are connected to mass m as shown (K = spring constatn). If the period of
the configuration in (i) is 2s. the period of the configuration (ii) is :
1) 2s
K
2) 1 s
K K
1 K
3) s
2 m
m
4) 2 2 s
(i) (ii)

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17. The average energy in one period of a simple harmonic motion is

1 3
1) m 2 a 2 2) m 2 a 2 3) m 2 a 2 4) 2m 2 2 a 2
2 2
18. A physical pendulum consists of two thin rods of equal mass, each of length 1 meter. The rods
are joined together at point P as shown in the figure below. The angular frequency of the
pendulum about pont P (which is at the center of horizontal rod) is (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
1) 2 3 rad / s P

2) 3 2 rad / s 1/2m 1/2m

1m
3) 4 rad / s
4) 3 5 rad / s
19. A particle is exhibiting simple harmonic motion has its displacement (x) and velocity (v) related
as 4v2 = 25 – x2. The time period of SHM is
1)  sec 2) 2 sec 3) 3 sec 4) 4 sec
20. For a particle executing SHM, determine the ratio of average acceleraton of the particle between
extreme position and equilibrium position w.r.t the maximum acceleration.
4 2 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
   2
21. A spring is stretched 0.40 m when a mass of 0.6 kg is suspended from it. The period of oscilations
of the spring loaded by 225 gm and put to oscillations close to ______ (g = 10 ms–2)
1) 11 s 2) 48.6s 3) 0.82 s 4) 4.86 s
22. A simple pendulum is vibratring in an evacuated chamber. It will oscillate with
1) Constant amplitude
2) Decreasing amplitude
3) Increasing amplitude
4) Amplitude, the variation of which cannot be predicted
23. Ratio of maximum acceleration to the maximum velocity of a simple harmonic oscillator is

1)  2) 3)  2 4) 2
2
24. A simple pendulum, suspended from the celling of a lift, has a period of oscillatoin T when the
lift is at rest. If the lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration a = 3g, then the new period
will be
T T
1) 2T 2) 4T 3) 4)
3 2
25. On a smooth inclined plane, a mass M is attached between two massless springs of force constant
k each, as shown in the figure. The other ends of the springs are fixed to firm supports. The
period of oscillation of the mass M is
1/ 2 1/ 2
M   2M 
1) 2   2) 2  
 2k   k  M
1/ 2
 Mg sin    2Mg 
3) 2   4) 2   
 2k   k 

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26. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x   A and x   A . If it takes a time T1 to
A A
go from x  0 to x  and T2 to go from x  to x  A . Then
2 2
1) T1 < T2 2) T1 > T2 3) T1 = T2 4) T1 = 2T2
27. The tension in a string holding a solid block below the surface of a liquid (density greater than
that of solid) is T0 when the system is at rest. If the system has upward acceleration ‘a’, tension
in the string would be

 a  a
1) T0 2) T0(a – g) 3) T0  1   4) T0  1  
 g  g
28. A cube of wood supporting a 200gm mass just floats in the water. When the mass is removed,
the cube rises by 2cm. Then length of side of the cube is
1) 8 cm 2) 12 cm 3) 6 cm 4) 10 cm
29. When a body is weighed in a liquid the apparent loss in its weight is equal to
a) The up thrust of liquid on the body
b) Weight of the liquid displaced by the body
c) The difference in weights of the body in air and liquid
d) Weight of water displaced by the body
1) a, b, c are correct 2) a, b are correct 3) a, b, d are correct 4) b, d are correct
30. A block of wood floats in a liquid with four-fifths of its volume submerged. If the relative
density of wood is 0.8, what is the density of the liquid in units of kg m–3 ?
1) 750 2) 1000 3) 1250 4) 1500
31. A cubical block is floating in a liquid with half of its volume immersed in the liquid. When the
g
whole system accelerates upwards with acceleration of , the fraction of volume immersed in
3
the liquid will
1 3 2 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 8 3 4
32. A vessel contains oil of density 0.8 gm cm–3 floating over mercury of density 13.6 gm cm–3. A
homogeneous sphere floats with half its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil.
The density of the sphere in gm cm–3 is
1) 3.3 2) 6.4 3) 7.2 4) 12.8
33. An ice bag is floating in sea water. The density of ice is 0.92 gm cm–3 and that of sea water is
1.03 gm cm–3. The percentage of ice bag below surface of water is
1) 3% 2) 11% 3) 89% 4) 92%
34. A metal sphere of volume V, having a cavity inside it, floats on water completely submerged. If
the relative density of the metal is 1.5, the volume of the cavity is
V V V 2V
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 3 2 3

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35. The three vessels shown in figure have same base area. Equal volumes of a liquid are poured in
the three vessels. The force on the base will be
1) Maximum in vessels A
2) Maximum in vessels B
3) Maximum in vessels C C
A B
4) Equal in all the vessesls
36. Figure shows a siphon. The liquid shown is water. The pressure difference PB – PA between the
points A and B is
A

10 cm
B

1) 400 N/m2 2) 3000 N/m2 3) 1000 N/m2 4) Zero

37. Assertion (A) : A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of same material are floating in a liquid.
Radius of both the spheres are same. Percentage of volume immersed of both
the spheres will not be same.
Reason (R) : Upthrust depends on volume of liquid displaced.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
38. The density of the atmosphere at sea level is 1.29 kg/m3. Assume that it does not change with
altitude. Then how high would the atmosphere extend ?
1) 3 km 2) 7 km 3) 8 km 4) 9 km
39. Figure shows a U-tube of uniform cross sectional area A accelerated with acceleration a as
sown. If d is the separation between the limbs, then the difference in the levels of the liquid in
the U-tube is
ad
1)
g
g h1 a
2) h1
ad
3) adg
d
4) ad + g
40. The area of cross section of the two arms of a hydraulic press are 1 cm2 and 10 cm2 respectively
(figure). A force of 5 N is applied on the water in the thinner arm. What force should be applied
on the water in the thicker arm so that the water may remain in equilibrium ?

5N F

1) 50 N 2) 60 N 3) 70 N 4) 80 N

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41. Two solids A and B float in water. It is observed that A floats with half of its volume immersed
and B floats with 2/3 of its volume immersed. The ratio of their densities is
1) 4 : 3 2) 3 : 4 3) 2 : 3 4) 3 : 2
42. A block of solid insoluble in water wieghs 24 gm in air and 21 gm when completely immersed
in water. Its weight when completely immersed in liquid of specific gravity 1.1 is
1) 20.7 gm 2) 27.3 gm 3) 24 gm 4) 3.3 gm
43. In a u-tube as shown in figure, water and oil are in the left side and right side of the tube
respectively. The heights form the bottom for water and oil columns are 15 cm and 20 cm
respectively. The density of the oil is : [take  water  1000kg / m 3 ]

20 cm
15 cm

oil
water
1) 1200 kg/m3 2) 750 kg/m3 3) 1000 kg/m3 4) 1333 kg/m3
44. A metal sphere weighting 60 gm in air is suspended by a thread in an oil of specific gravity 0.6.
If the tension in the thread is 55gmwt , the specific gravity of the metal sphere is
1) 9.4 2) 4.5 3) 6.3 4) 7.2
45. Two spheres of volume 250 cc each but of relative densities 0.8 and 1.2 are connected by a string
and the combination is immersed in a liquid find tension in the string (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 0.5 N 2) 1 N 3) 3 N 4) 2.5 N

CHEMISTRY
46. The number of H3O+ ions present in 10 ml of water at 25°C is
1) 6.023 × 10–14 2) 6.023 × 1014 3) 6.023 × 10–19 4) 6.023 × 1019
47. The [OH–] of 0.005 M H2SO4 is
1) 2 × 10–12 M 2) 5 × 10–3 M 3) 10–2 M 4) 10–12 M
48. The enthalpy change of a reaction does not depend on
1) The state of reactants and products 2) Nature of reactants and products
3) Different intermediate reaction 4) Initial and final enthalpy change of a reaction
49. 1g sample of NH4NO3is decomposed in a bomb calorimeter .The temperature of the calorimeter
increases by 6.12K.The heat capacity of the system is 12.3J/g / deg. What is the molar heat of
decomposition for NH4NO3?
1) – 7.53kJ/ mol 2) – 398.1kJ / mol 3) – 16.1kJ /mol 4) – 6.2kJ/ mol
50. Which of the following pair of solutions does not form a buffer solution ?
1) NaH2PO4 and Na2HPO4 2) H2CO3 and NaHCO3
3) NH4OH and NH4Cl 4) KOH and K2SO4
51. The solubility of calcium phosphate in water is x mol L–1 at 25°C. Its solubility product is equal
to
1) 108 x2 2) 36x3 3) 36 x5 4) 108 x5

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52. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid water using the data

H2(g) +1/202(g)  H2O( l ); H  285.77kJ / mole
H2(g) +1/202(g)  H2O(g); H  241.84kJ / mole is
1) + 43.93 kJ/ mol 2) – 43.93kJ/ mole 3) + 527.61 kJ/mol 4) – 527.61kJ/mol
53. If order to decompose 9g water , 142.5kJ heat is required .Hence the enthalpy of formation of
water is
1) + 285 kJ 2) – 285 kJ 3) + 142.6kJ 4) – 142.5kJ
54. For a weak acid, the concentration of H + ions is given by
1) K a .C 2) K a / C 3) Ka / C 4) C / Ka

55. For H3PO4, H3PO4  H2PO4– + H+ (K1) ; H2PO4–  HPO42– + H+ (K2) ; HPO42–  PO43– + H+ (K3),
then
1) K1 > K2 > K3 2) K1 < K2 < K3 3) K1 < K2 > K3 4) K1.K2.K3 = KW
56. Assertion (A) : Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 shows pH > 7.
Reason (R) : Salt of strong base and weak acid undergoes anionic hydrolysis.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
57. Ionic product of water depends on
1) Volume of the water 2) Amount of salt in water
3) Temperature 4) All the above
58. Which of the following is relatively stronger acid ?
1) H2S 2) HCl 3) HF 4) CH3COOH
59. Which of the following species acts as Bronsted base but not as acid ?
1) CH3COOH 2) HCO3– 3) H2PO2– 4) H2PO3–
60. Which of the following is a buffer solution ?
1) 500 mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.1 N NaOH
2) 500 mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.1 N HCl
3) 500 mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.2 N NaOH
4) 500 mL of 0.2 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.1 N NaOH
61. Hess’s law states that
1) The standard enthalpy of an overall reaction is the sum of the enthalpy changes in individual
reactions
2) Enthalpy of formation of a compound is same as the enthalpy of decomposition of the
compound into constituent elements, but with opposite sign
3) At constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume
4) The mass of a gas dissolved per litre of a solvent is proportional to the pressure of the gas in
equilibrium with the solution
62. Under the same conditions, how many mL of 1M KOH and 0.5M H2SO4 solutions, respectively, when
mixed to form a total volume of 100 mL produces the highest rise in temperature?
1) 67, 33 2) 33, 67 3) 40, 60 4) 50,50
63. If at 298K, the bond energies C – H, C – C, C = C and H – H bonds are respectively 414,347,615
and 435 kJ mol–1, the value of enthalpy change for the reaction
H2C = CH2(g) + H2(g)  H3C – CH3(g) at 298 K will be
1) –125 kJ 2) +250 kJ 3) –250 kJ 4) + 125 kJS

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64. Which one of the following has S 0 positive

1) CaO(s)  CO2 ( g)  CaCO3 (s) 2) NaCl (aq )  NaCl (s)
3) NaNO3 (s) + H 2 O(1)  Na + (aq) +NO3 ( aq ) 4) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)  2NH 3 (g )

65. For a reaction at 250C , enthalpy change ( H ) and entropy change ( S ) are – 11.7 kJ mol–1 and
–105J mol–1 K–1 respectively .The reaction is
1) Spontaneous at this temperature 2) non - spontaneous at this temperature
3) At 1000C 4) None of these
66. Which has the highest entropy per mol of the substance?
1) H2 at 250C at 1 atm 2) H2 at STP
3) H2 at 100K at 1 atm 4) H2 at 0 K at 1 atm
67. Consider following reactions
I : N 2  O2  2 NO H  x1 II : 2CO  O2  2CO2 H  x2
III : 2 H 2O  O2  2 H 2O2 H  x3 IV : PCl3  Cl2  PCl5 H  x4
H
In which case (s) , H f  ?
2
1) I,II,III 2) IV 3) II,III 4) I
68. At 25°C, for an acid
1) [H+] > 10–7 M 2) [OH–] < 10–7M 3) [H+] = 10–7 4) 1 and 2
69. What is the pH of a solution obtained by dissolving 0.0005 mole of the strong electrolyte,
calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2 to form 100 ml of a saturated solution (aqueous)?
(Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 mole2 litre–2)
1) 9.8 2) 11.7 3) 12.0 4) 3.0
70. Ksp of AgCl is 1 × 10–10. Its solubility in 0.1 M KNO3 will be :
1) 10–5 moles/litre 2) > 10–5 moles/ litre 3) < 10–5 moles/ litre 4) None of these
71. A system undergoes a process in which U  300J while absorbing 400 J of heat energy and
undergoing an expansion against 0.5 bar. What is the change in the volume (in L) ?
1) 4 2) 5 3) 2 4) 3
72. When 0.1 mole of an acid is added to 2 lit of a buffer solution, the pH of the buffer decreases by
0.5. The buffer capacity of the solution is
1) 0.6 2) 0.4 3) 0.2 4) 0.1
73. Bond - energies of N  N bond , H– H bond and N – H bond are respectively x1,x2 and x3 kJ
mol–1. Hence, H 0f ( NH 3 ) is
x1 3
1) x1 + 3x2 – x3 2) x1 + x2 – x3 3)  x 2  3 x3 4) x1  3 x2  6 x3
2 2
74. Following reaction occurs at 250C : 2NO(g, 1 × 10–5 atm ) +
Cl2 (g , 1 × 10–2 atm)  2NOCl (g, 1 × 10–2 atm) G 0is
1) – 45.65 kJ 2) – 28.53kJ 3) – 22.83kJ 4) – 57. 06 kJ
75. An endothermic reaction is spontaneous if :
1) H  T S 2) H  T S 3) H  T S 4) T S  0

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76. One lit. of aqueous solution of H2SO4 contains 4.9 g of the acid. 100 ml of this solution is taken
in a 1 lit. Flask and diluted with water upto the mark. The pH of the dilute solution is
1) 2.0 2) 2.301 3) 1.699 4) 3.699
77. Let the solubilities of AgCl in H2O, 0.01M CaCl2, 0.01M NaCl and 0.05M AgNO3 be S1, S2, S3
and S4 respectively. What is the correct relationship between these quantities ?
1) S1 > S2 > S3 > S4 2) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4 3) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4 4) S4 > S2 > S3 > S1
78. The pKa of weak acid HA is 4.80 and the pKb of a weak base BOH is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
solution of corresponding salt BA will be :
1) 9.22 2) 9.58 3) 4.79 4) 7.01
79. Hydrolysis constants of two salts KA and KB of weak acids HA and HB are 10–8 and 10–6. If the
dissociation constant of third acid HC is 10–2. The order of acidic strengths of three acids will be
1) HA > HB > HC 2) HB > HA > HC 3) HC > HA > HB 4) HA = HB = HC

80. H f 298 K of methanol is given by the chemical equation

1
1) CH 4 (g )  O2 ( g)  CH3OH ( g)
2
1
2) C ( graphite)  O2 ( g )  2 H 2 ( g )  CH 3OH (l )
2
1
3) C (diamond )  O2 ( g )  2 H 2 ( g )  CH 3OH (l )
2
4) CO( g )  2 H 2 ( g )  CH 3OH (l )
81. Heat absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in figure is :
1) 10 7  J
30
V (in L)

2) 10 6  J

3) 10 2  J 10 30
10
4) 10 4  J
P(in kPa)
82. Enthalpy of neutralisation of the reaction between CH3COOH (aq) and NaOH(aq) is – 13.2 kcal
Eq–1 and that of the reaction between H2SO4 (aq) and (KOH) (aq) is – 13.7 kcal Eq–1 . The
enthalpy of dissociation of CH3COOH(aq) is
1) – 0.5 kcal Eq–1 2) + 0.5kcal Eq–1 3) – 26.9 kcal Eq–1 4) + 13.45kcal Eq–1

83. Given  i H  (HCN) = 45.2kJ mol–1and  i H  (CH3 COOH) = 2.1kJ mol–1. Which one of the
following facts is true ?
1) pK a ( HCN )  pK a (CH3COOH )
2) pK a ( HCN )  pK a (CH3COOH )
3) pK a ( HCN )  pK a (CH3COOH )
4) pK a ( HCN )  (45.17 / 2.07) pK a (CH 3COOH )
84. Adiabatic reversible expansion of a gas is represented by :
 1   1    1
 T1   P2   T1   P1   T1   P2 
1)      2)      3)      4) all are correct
 T2   P1   T2   P2   T2   P1 

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85. Melting point of a solid is x K and its latent heat of fusion is 600 cal mol–1 .The entropy change
for fusion of 1 mol solid is 2 cal mol–1 K–1.The value of x will be
1) 100K 2) 200 K 3) 300 K 4) 400 K
86. In an equilibrium reaction, for which G  0 , the equilibrium constant K should be equal to:
1) zero 2) 10 3) 1 4) 2

87. For a spontaneous reaction G , equilibrium K and Ecell will be , respectively
1) ve,  1,  ve 2) ve,  1, ve 3) ve,  1, ve 4) ve,  1, ve

88. For the reaction at 298 K, 2A + B  C H  100 kcal and S  0.020 kcalK 1 . If H and S
are assumed to be constant over the temperature range, at what temperature will the reaction
become spontaneous ?
1) 1000K 2) 3500 K 3) 6000 K 4) 1500 K
89. Which among the following statements is/ are incorrect ?
1) pH = – log10 (H3O+)
2) pH decreases with increase of temperature
3) pH cannot be zero, negative or more than 14
4) If a solution is diluted ten times, its pH increased by 1
90. The degree of hydrolysis of which of the following salt is independent of the concentration of
salt solution ?
1) CH3COONa 2) NH4Cl 3) CH3COONH4 4) NaCl

BOTANY
91. Which of the following is not a macromolecule ?
1) Nucleic acid 2) Polysaccharides 3) Lipids 4) Proteins
92. ____________ of the total cell mass is formed by ions.
1) 1% 2) 2% 3) 3% 4) 4%
93. Which is the correct representation of ribose ?
CH2OH
HOCH2 O
O

OH
1) HO OH OH 2)

OH OH
OH

NH2 O
N
N HN

3) 4) O
N
N N H

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94. Select the correct matching regarding following diagram :
O
O
HO P OCH2 Adenine

OH

OH OH
1) Purine – Nitrogen base of nucleic acids
2) Uracil – Exclusively found in RNA only
3) Adenylic acid – Monomer of both RNA and DNA
4) Cholesterol – Forms part of cell membrane
95. Protein is
1) Homopolymer 2) Heteropolymer 3) Monomer 4) All
96. Match the column :
Column – I Column – II
A) Collagen – 1) Hormone
B) Trypsin – 2) Enzyme
C) Insulin – 3) Fight infectious agent
D) Receptro – 4) Enable glucose transport into cells
E) GLUT – 4 – 5) Sensory reception (smell, taste hormone)
F) Antibody – 6) Intercellular ground substance
1) A – 3, B – 2, C – 4, D – 1, E – 6, F – 5 2) A – 6, B – 2, C – 1, D – 5, E – 4, F – 3
3) A – 1, B – 4, C – 2, D – 5, E – 3, F – 6 4) A – 2, B – 4, C – 5, D – 3 , E – 1, F – 6
97. __________ of an enyme is a crevices or pocket into which substrate fit.
1) Inactive site 2) Active site 3) Allosteric site 4) Any of the above
98. The correct order of chemical composition of living tissues / cells in terms of % of the total of
the total cellular mass is
1) Lipid > Ions > Carbohydrate > H2O > Proteins > Nucleic acid
2) H2O > Proteins > Carbohydrate > Nucleic acid > Lipid > Ions
3) H2O > Proteins > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate > Lipid > Ions
4) Nucleic acid > Proteins > H2O > Carbohydrate > Ions > Lipid
99. Given structural formula is correctly identified along with its related funciton by which of the
following options ? O
||
O CH 2  O  C  R1
|| |
R2  C  O  CH O
| ||
CH 2  O  P  O  CH 2  CH 2
| |
OH N
/ \
CH 3 | CH 3
1) Lecithin – A component of cell membrane CH 3
2) Cholesterol – A component of animal cell membrane
3) Adenosine – A component of nucleic acids
4) Triglyceride – An energy source

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100. The most abundant chemical in living organisms could be

1) Protein 2) Water 3) Sugar 4) Nucleic acid
101. Which is ture about the macromolecules or biomacromolecules ?
1) These are found in acid insoluble fraction or retentate
2) With the exception of lipids these are polymeric substance
3) They have molecular weight in the range of ten thoushands daltons and above (exception is
lipid whose molecular weight do not exceed 800 Da)
4) All of the above
102. Study the given statements and select the correct answer.
i) Cellulose is a homopolymer of glucose
ii) Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose
iii) Starch gives blue black colour and glycogen gives red colour with iodine solution
iv) Cellulose gives no colour with iodine solution.
1) Statements i, ii and iii are correct 2) Statemetns i, ii and iv are correct
3) Statements ii and iii are correct 4) All statements are correct

First Last
Amino acid Amino acid

103.

X Y

1) Both X and Y are N-terminal amino acid

2) X is N - terminal amino acid and Y is C - terminal amino acid
3) Both X and Y are C - terminal amono acid
4) X is C - terminal amino acid and Y is N - terminal acid
104. Rubber is
1) Primary metabolite 2) Secondary metabolite
3) Polymeric substance 4) 2 and 3
105. Match colums I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column – I (Category) Column – II (Secondary metabolites)
A) Pigments i) Concanavalin A
B) Terpenoides ii) Monoterpenes, diterpenes
C) Alkaloids iii) Morphine, codeine
D) Lectins iv) Carotenoids, anthocyanins
1) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i 2) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
3) A – i, B – iv, C – iii, D – ii 4) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv
106. Which is wrongly matched ?
1) ATP – Nucleotide derivative 2) Fungi – Chitin
3) Phospholipid – Plasma membrane 4) Enzyme – Lipopolysaccharide
107. Glycogen is a homopolymer made of
1) Glucose units 2) Galactose units 3) Ribose units 4) Amino acids
108. Adult human haemoglobin consists of
1) 2 subunits (  ,  ) 2) 2 subunits (  ,  ) 3) 4 subunits ( 2 , 2  ) 4) 3 subunits ( 2 ,1 )

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109. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement I : Low temperature destroys enzymes by causing their denaturation
Statement II : High temperature preserves the enzymes in their inactive stage.
1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
110. Lysine is _______ amino acid
1) Acidic 2) Basic 3) Neutral 4) Aromatic
111. Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of
1) Non – competitive inhibition 2) Competitive inhibition
3) Allosteric inhibition 4) Negative feedback
112. Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis,
and addition of groups to double bonds, are called
1) Ligases 2) Lyases 3) Hydrolases 4) Dehydrogenases
113. Dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are interconvertible. The
enzyme responsible for this interconversion belongs to the category of
1) Isomerases 2) Ligases 3) Lyases 4) Hydrolases
114. Which of the following is an example of plasticity ?
1) Heterophylly in cotton, coriander and larkspur
2) Heterophylly in buttercup
3) Bolting in beet and cabbage
4) Both 1 and 2
115. ABA acts as an antagonist to
1) IBA 2) NAA 3) IAA 4) GA
116. Gibberellin was first of all isolated from
1) Fungus 2) Lichen 3) Virus 4) Bacteria
117. The development of an embryo displays
1) Geometric growth only
2) Arithmetic growth only
3) Arithmetic growth followed by geometric growth
4) Geometric growth followed by arithmetic growth
118. Re-differentiation results in fomration of
1) Secondary vascular tissue 2) Apical meristems
3) Intercalary meristems 4) All the above
119. During the development process in a plant cell, a mature cell is derived form a meristematic cell
through
1) Differentation 2) Plasticity 3) Sensecence 4) Redifferentiation
120. Development is the sum of two processes
1) Growth and cell-divison 2) Dedifferentiation and redifferentiation
3) Differentiation and dedifferentiation 4) Growth and differentiation

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121. The following figure shows

1) Heterophylly in cotton, coriander and larkspur

2) Heterophylly in cotton and coriander
3) Heterophylly in larkspur
4) Heterophylly in buttercup
122. Recognise the figure and find out the correct labelling

1) b – elongation, c – differentiation, a – plasmatic growth, e – senescence, d – maturation

2) a – elongation, d – differentiation, b – plasmatic growth, e – senescence, c – maturation
3) b – elongation, e – differentation, e – differentiation, a – plasmatic growth, c – senescence,
d – maturation
4) a – elongation, c – differentiation, b – plasmic growth, d – senscence, e maturation
123. Functions of auxins include
1) Use as herbiciides to kill dicot weeds 2) Inducting parthenocarpy in tomato
3) Promoting flowering in pineapple 4) All of these
124. Which accelerates the abscission in flower and fruit like thinning of cotton, cherry and walnut ?
1) ABA 2) GA 3) Ethephon 4) Auxin
125. Which of the following physiological effects is caused in plants by gibberellic acid ?
1) Rooting in stem cuttings 2) Elongation of genetically dwarf plants
3) Shortening of genetically tall plants 4) Yellowing of young leaves
126. Size of grapes increases in application of
1) Cytokinin 2) Gibberellin 3) Auxin 4) All the above

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127. Ethylene is used for

1) Slowing down swelling of plant axis 2) Retarding ripening of tomatoes
3) Hastening ripening of fruits 4) Both 1 and 3
128. The most widely used compound as a source of C2H4 is\
1) IBA 2) Zeatin 3) Ethaphon 4) Kinetin
129. Which of the following plant hormones stimulates the germination of seed.
1) Auxin 2) Gibberellin 3) Abscisic acid 4) Ethylene
130. Which one of the PGRs would you use if you are asked to ?
a) Induce rooting in a twig b) Quickly leaf senescence
c) Delay leaf senescence
1) a-auxin, b-ABA, c-cytokinin 2) a-auxin, b-ethylene, c-GA
3) a-cytokinin, b-GA, c-auxin 4) a-cytokinin, b-ethylene, c-GA
131. Match the following
A) IAA i) Herring sperm DNA
B) ABA ii) Bolting
C) Ethylene iii) Stomatal closure
D) GA iv) Weed-free lawns
E) Cytokinins v) Ripening of fruits
1) A – v, B – iii, C – ii, D – i, E – iv 2) A – iv, B – iii, C – v, D – ii, E – i
3) A – v, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii, E – i 4) A –iv, B – i, C – iv, D – iii, E – ii
132. The affects of apical dominance can be overcomed by which of the following hormone
1) Cytokinin 2) Gibberellin 3) IAA 4) Ethylene
133. Assertion (A) : The gardeners cut the top of stems of the shrubs to make them dense.
Reason (R) : The auxin found in the terminal bud inhibits growth of lateral bud.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
134. Assertion (A) : In pineapple, the auxin promote flowering.
Reason (R) : Auxins generally inhibit flowering.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
135. Coconut milk contains
1) Gibberellin 2) ABA 3) Auxin 4) Cytokinin

ZOOLOGY
136. The functions of the organs / organ systems in our body must be coordinated to maintain ___.
1) Haemostasis 2) Homeostasis 3) Epistasis 4) Metastasis
137. The PNS is divided into two divisons called ________ and ___________ neural system
1) Central and Peripheral 2) Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
3) Cranial and spinal 4) Somatic and autonomic
138. Somatic neural system relays impulses from the CNS to _____ muscles
1) Visceral 2) Skeletol 3) Smooth 4) Involuntary
139. Visceral nervous system is the part of the ________ nervous system
1) Central 2) Peripheral 3) Somatic 4) Both 1 and 3

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140. Branches that project out of the cell body also contain Nissls granule’s and are called ___. These
fibres transmit impulses towards the _______.
1) Axon, Cellbody 2) Nerve fibre, Gland 3) Dendrite, Soma 4) Dendrite, Axon
141. Axon’s distal end is branched, and each branch terminates as a bulb like structure called ___.
1) Sympathetic knob 2) Synaptic knob 3) Synapse 4) Synaptic cleft
142. Bipolar neuron is with ___ axon and ___ dendrite, found in the ____ of eye.
1) 1, many, retina 2) 2, 2, cornea
3) Many, 1, choroid layer 4) 1, 1, retina
143. Myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped with _____ cells which formes sheath around axon
1) Schwann 2) Microglia 3) Astrocytes 4) Ependymal
144. Neurons are excitable cells because their membranes are in a _________.
1) Polarised state 2) Non polarised state 3) Depolarised state 4) Repolarised state
145. At resting state axonal membrane is comparatively more permiable to ______ ions and nearly
impermiable to ______ ions respectively.
1) K+, Na+ 2) Na+, K+ 3) Na+, PO4– 4) Ca++, K+
146. Ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the active transport of ions by the
_____.
1) Na+ K+ pump 2) Na+ Cl– pump 3) Fe2+, Mg2+ 4) Na+ Fe2+
147. Na-K pump transports ____ Na+ outwards for ____ K+ into the cell as result outer surface of
axonal membrane possesses a ____ charge while its inner surface becomes _____ charged
1) 2, 3, +ve, – ve 2) 3, 2, +ve, –ve 3) 3, 2, +ve, +ve 4) 2, 3, – ve, – ve
148. Rapid imflux of Na+ followed by the _____ of the polarity at that site is called ____.
1) Reversal, depolarization 2) Reversal, Repolarization
3) Reversal, hyper polarization 4) No change, depolarization
149. The rise in the stimulus-induced permeability to Na+ is extremely _____ it is quickly followed
by rise in permeability to ______ ions. And _____ ions diffuses outside the membrane and
restores the resting potential
1) Long lived, k+, k+ 2) Short lived, Na+, Na+3) Long lived, Na+, k+ 4) Short lived, k+, k+
150. Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always ____ and electrical synapses are ___
in our system
1) Faster, Rare 2) Faster, Common 3) Slower , Rare 4) Slower, Common
151. Two cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called
1) Corpus callosum 2) Corpora quadrigemina
3) Corpora striata 4) Corpus spongiosum
152. The layer of cells which covers the cerebral hemisphere is called
1) Cerebellar cortex 2) Cerebral medulla 3) Aorburvitae 4) Cerebral cortex
153. Fibres of the tracts are covered with myelin sheath which constitute the inner part of cerebral
hemisphere is called ____
1) White matter 2) Grey matter 3) Neoplasm 4) Neopallium
154. The dorsal portion of the mid brain consists of four round swellings called as ____.
1) Corpora quadrigemina 2) Optic lobes
3) Corpora striata 4) Both 1 and 2
155. Among liver, thymus, kidney and heart, an organized endocrine structure in our body
1) Liver 2) Kidney 3) Thymus 4) Heart

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156. Hypothalamus is the basal part of ________ of the forebrain

1) Diencephalon 2) Cerebrum 3) Olfactory lobe 4) Both 1 and 2
157. Synthesis and secretion of pituitary hormones is regulated by the hormones of ___
1) Cerebrum 2) Hypothalamus 3) Midbrain 4) Pons
158. Hypothalamic hormone which stimulates the synthesis and release of gonadotropines is ____
1) GRH 2) GIH 3) GnRH 4) Somatostatin
159. Hypothalamic hormones reach the anterior pituitary through ____
1) Portal circulatory system 2) Lymphatic system
3) Artcrial blood circulatory system 4) Both 2 and 3
160. _____ pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus
1) Anterior 2) Intermediate 3) Posterior 4) Infundibulum
161. Among ADH, MSH, PTH, PRL hormones, the one secreted by pars distalis is ___
1) PRL 2) ADH 3) MSH 4) RTH
162. During nerve impulse conduction, current flows

1) From site A to site B on the inner surface 2) From site B to site A on the outer surface
3) A to B on both sides 4) Both 1 and 2 are correct
163. Hypersecretion of GH in adults does not used further increase in height, due to the closure of
____.
1) Plate 2) Sclerotic plaque 3) Epiphyseal plates 4) Tectonial membrane
164. Synthesis and secretion of glucocorticoids from adrenal cortex is stimulated by ____
1) ACTH 2) FSH 3) LH 4) STH
165. Hormone that induces ovulation of graafinan follicle and maintains corpus luteum is ___
1) FSH 2) LH 3) PRL 4) ACTH
166. MSH which regulated pigmentation of the skin is secreted by ____ of the pituitary
1) Pars distalis 2) Pars nervosa 3) Pars intermedia 4) Pars tabularis
167. Hormones released by pars nervosa are actually synthesized in _____
1) Hypothalamus 2) Adenohypophysis 3) Mid brain 4) Thalamus
168. Hormone that stimulates reabsorption of water by distal tubules in the kidney is _____
1) Oxytocin 2) ADH 3) Vasopressin 4) Both 2 and 3
169. Melatonin is derived from the amino acid ____
1) Tyrosin 2) Tryptophan 3) Metheonine 4) Phenylalamine
170. Largest endocrine gland in human body is ___
1) Liver 2) Pancreas 3) Thyroid 4) Thymus

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171. Identify A to D and choose the correct option.

1) A-Hormone, B-Receptor, C-Cell membrane, D-Second messenger

2) A-Hormone, B-Receptor, C-Cell membrane, D-Primary messenger
3) A-Receptor, B-Hormone, C-Cell membrane, D-Primary messenger
4) A-Receptor, B-Hormone, C-Cell membrane, D-Second messenger
172. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective development of the baby leading to the
disorder ______
1) Cretinism 2) Goitre 3) Diabetes 4) Dwarfism
173. Thyroxine is derived from the amino acid ____
1) Tryptophan 2) Tyrosine 3) Methyonine 4) Serine
174. Growth of axial hair, public hair and facial h air during puberty is stimulated by ___
1) Gluco corticoids 2) Mineralo corticoids 3) Androgenic steroids 4) Epinephrine
175. Glucagon is antagonistic to ___
1) MSH 2) Insulin 3) PTH 4) TCT
176. Identify A – E in the given figure.

1) A - Hypothalamus, B - Hypothalamic neurons, C - Portal circulation, D - Posterior pituitary,

E - Anterior pituitary
2) A - Portal circulation, B - Hypothalamic neurons, C - Hypothalamus, D - Anterior pituitary,
E - Posterior pituitary
3) A - Anterior pituitary, B - Portal circulation, C - Hypothalamus, D - Posterior pituitary,
E - Hypothalamic neurons
4) A - Hypothalamic neurons, B - Posterior pituitary, C - Anterior pituitary, D - Portal circulation,
E - Hypothalamus

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177. Erythropoiethin is secreted by _____ cells of kidney

1) JG cells 2) Chromatin cells 3) MALT 4) Parafollicular cells
178. Hormones secreted by heart, kidney and gastrointestinal tract are chemically ____ hormones
1) Amine 2) Peptide 3) Protein 4) Steriod

Impulses
179. Central neural system 
  Viscera (NCERT)

In which peripheral neural system involve transmition of impulses about above equation
1) Autonomic Neural system 2) Somatic Neural system
3) Sympathetic neural system 4) Visceral neural system
180. Which among the following is not a part of a system that regulate sexual behaviour, excitement,
pleasure, rage, etc
1) Amygdala 2) Pons varoli 3) Hypothalamus 4) Hippocampal lobe

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