Haramaya University

Haramaya Institute of Technology

Department of Mechanical Engineering

2nd Round Mock Examination for 5th Year Mechanical

Engineering Students

Time Allowed: 3:00 hrs.

Prepared by
Department of Mechanical Engineering
April 2024

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1. Which of the following materials exhibits ductile behavior?
A. Glass B. Ceramics
C. Rubber D. Aluminum
Answer: D
2. Which of the following factors contributes to the high ductility of metals?
A. Strong covalent bonds between atoms
B. Brittle atomic structure
C. Slippery motion of dislocations
D. Lack of free electrons
Answer: C
3. Which of the following is an example of a point defect in a crystal lattice?
A. Dislocation B. Grain boundary
C. Vacancy D. Crack
Answer: C
4. Which of the following is NOT a main type of plastic deformation in metals?
A. Slip B. Twinning
C. Creep D. Fatigue
Answer: D
5. What type of test is commonly used to measure the hardness of metals?
A. Tensile test B. Impact test
C. Brinell test D. Creep test
Answer: C
6. At what point on a phase diagram do all phases coexist in equilibrium?
A. Eutectic point B. Eutectoid point
C. Peritectic point D. Triple point
Answer: D
7. What is the purpose of a phase diagram?
A. To illustrate the atomic structure of materials.
B. To predict the mechanical properties of alloys.
C. To depict the relationship between temperature, composition, and phases in a
material system.
D. To determine the electrical conductivity of materials.
Answer: C
8. Which method is commonly used for the extraction of iron from its ores?

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 A. Electrolysis B. Smelting
C. Solvent extraction D. Fractional distillation
Answer: B
9. What does the process of annealing involve?
A. Rapid cooling of the material to room temperature.
B. Heating the material to a high temperature and then cooling it slowly in a controlled
manner.
C. Heating the material to a high temperature and then rapidly cooling it in a quenching
medium.
D. Subjecting the material to high pressure to alter its microstructure.
Answer: B
10. Which heat treatment process involves heating the material to a high temperature,
followed by rapid cooling to achieve high hardness?
A. Annealing B. Tempering
C. Quenching D. Normalizing
Answer: C
11. What is the term used to describe the cavity in a mold into which molten metal is poured
to create a casting?
A. Core B. Sprue
C. Riser D. Mold cavity
Answer: D
12. In metal forming processes, what does the term "yield strength" refer to?
A. The stress at which plastic deformation begins
B. The maximum stress a material can withstand without breaking
C. The stress at which elastic deformation begins
D. The stress at which fracture occurs
Answer: A
13. Which of the following is a common example of non-metal forming process?
A. Forging B. Extrusion
C. Injection molding D. Rolling
Answer: C
14. What is the work done in a metal forming process if a force of 500 KN is applied to
deform a material by 10 mm?
A. 50 k B. 5 KJ

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 C. 500 kJ D. 5000 kJ
Answer: A
15. What is a crucial consideration in die design to minimize material waste and maximize
production efficiency?
A. Die material hardness B. Die lubrication method
C. Die clearance D. Die surface finish
Answer: C
16. What is the purpose of compacting metal powders in powder metallurgy?
A. To increase particle size B. To reduce porosity
C. To decrease density D. To enhance conductivity
Answer: B
17. Which tool geometry parameter primarily determines the surface finish and chip
formation in traditional turning processes?
A. Rake angle B. Relief angle
C. Cutting speed D. Tool nose radius
Answer: D
18. Which term refers to a manufacturing method where material is removed from a work
piece to achieve the desired shape?
A. Additive manufacturing B. Subtractive manufacturing
C. 3D printing D. Injection molding
Answer: B
19. What is the primary advantage of additive manufacturing over subtractive
manufacturing?
A. Higher material utilization
B. Faster production speed
C. Lower equipment cost
D. Ability to create complex geometries without tooling
Answer: D
20. Which welding process uses a non-consumable tungsten electrode and a shielding gas to
create the weld joint?
A. Stick welding B. TIG welding
C. MIG welding D. Submerged arc welding
Answer: B

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21. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is
called
A. Centre of gravity B. Centre of pressure
C. Centre of buoyancy D. Metacenter
Answer: C
22. Euler's equation in the differential form for the motion of liquids is given by

A. B.

C. D.
Answer: A
23. Which of the following is NOT a type of force considered in the Navier-Stokes
equation?
A. Gravity force B. Pressure force
C. Surface tension force D. Viscous force
Answer: A
24. Equation of continuity is based on the principle of conservation of
A. Mass B. Energy C. Momentum D. None of the above
Answer: A
25. An ideal fluid is
A. One which obeys Newton’s law of viscosity
B. Frictionless and incompressible
C. Very viscous
D. Frictionless and compressible
Answer: B
26. The velocity distribution for laminar flow through a circular tube
A. Is constant over the cross-section
B. Varies linearly from zero at walls to maximum at centre
C. Varies parabolically with maximum at the centre
D. None of the above
Answer: C
27. A uniform metal bar has a cross-sectional area of 0.6m2 and length of 2m. If tensile load
of 60KN is suddenly applied to the metal bar. Find the modulus of resilience.
Take E = 2*105 N/m2
A. 25 N/m2 B. 18 Nm
C. 50 N/m2 D. 36 Nm
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 Answer: A
28. An equipment or structure fails when its ______
A. Ultimate stress is greater than the maximum permissible stress
B. Factor of safety is equal to 1
C. Ultimate stress is greater than the working stress
D. Maximum permissible stress is greater that the yield stress
Answer: D
29. A cantilever beam of length 4m carries a uniformly distributed load of intensity 2KN/m
over the whole length and the bending moment at the fixed end is____
A. -4KNm B. -16KNm
C. 4KNm D. 16KNm
Answer: B
30. _________ measures the deformation of a material in the directions perpendicular to the
specific direction of loading
A. Poisson’s ratio B. Flexural rigidity
C. Factor of safety D. Section modules
Answer: A
31. A bar of length 3m is tapered uniformly from diameter 0.16m to 0.08m and subjected to
10N axial load. Then the extension of the bar will be _____ take E= 2*-10^5 N/m2
A. 0.047m B. 0.147m
C. 0. 015m D. 0.009m
Answer: C
32. A column of length L and flexural rigidity EI is built in at its base and free at the top,
the Euler’s critical buckling load is given by

A. B.

C. D.

Answer: C
33. Maximum stress generated due to suddenly applied load is equal to ___________
produced when the same load is applied gradually
A. One third of the stress B. Half of the stress
C. The stress D. Twice of the stress
Answer: D

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34. A thick cylinder is subjected to internal fluid pressure develops a principal stress in the
wall of the cylinder. Which stress type is not developed inside the cylinder due to the applied
pressure
A. Hoop tensile stress B. Longitudinal tensile stress
C. Radial tensile stress D. Circumferential tensile stress
Answer: C
35. Find the torque transmitted by a solid shaft of 0.2m diameter if the maximum shear
stress induced is 40KN/m2
A. 12.57Nm B. 62.83Nm
C. 31.42Nm D. 15.71Nm
Answer: B
36. A tensile load of 60KN is suddenly applied to a circular bar of diameter 0.05m and 4m
long. The strain energy stored in the bar is ____ when the value of E = 1.5*105 MN/m2
A. 24.45Nm B. 23.56Nm
C. 94.25 Nm D. 48.89Nm
Answer: A
37. Suppose we have a cool glass that is poured with boiling hot water. We lift it up with
our bare hands. Which one is not true with the scenario?
A. Heat has flowed from water through the glass.
B. The process of transferring heat in solids is conduction
C. It does not involve movement or flow in the matter itself
D. None
Answer: D
38. A 30 cm thick wall of 5 𝑚 X 3 𝑚 size is made of red brick (𝑘 = 0.3 W⁄𝑚 ). It is
covered on both sides by layers of plaster, 2 cm thick (𝑘 = 0.6 W⁄ ). The wall has a window
size of 1 𝑚 X 2 𝑚. The window door is made of 12 mm thick glass (𝑘 = 1.2 W⁄ ). If the inner
and outer surface temperatures are 15 and 40 Find the rate of heat flow through the wall.
A. 4.55 𝑘W B. 5.30𝑘W
C. 6.25 𝑘W D. 7.35 𝑘W
Answer: B
39. All are true to increase the convective heat transfer except;
A. Increase the temperature difference between the surface and the fluid.
B. Increase the fluid flow velocity.
C. Increase the convection coefficient
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 D. Decrease the contact surface area.
Answer: D
40. Which one of the following is true about the effectiveness of the fin in heat transfer;
A. If the fin is used to improve heat dissipation from the surface, and then the fin
effectiveness must be greater than unity.
B. To improve the effectiveness of the fin, the fin should be made from high-conductive
material
C. A high value of film coefficient has an adverse effect on effectiveness.
D. Effectiveness of the fin can also be increased by decreasing the ratio of the perimeter
to the cross-sectional area.
Answer: D
41. Which one of the following dimensional analyses is not correct;
A. Fluid viscosity =
B. Heat transfer coefficient =
C. Thermal conductivity =
D. Specific heat =
Where; M = mass, L = length, T = time and = temperature
Answer: A
42. A frequently used quantity in the analysis of combustion processes to quantify the
amounts of fuel and air is the________.
A. Equivalence Ratio B. Air – fuel Ratio
C. Fuel- air Ratio D. Theoretical Air Ratio
Answer: B
43. In the absence of any work interactions and any changes in kinetic or potential energies,
the chemical energy released during a combustion process either is lost as heat to the
surroundings or is used internally to raise the temperature of the combustion products. As the
case if we limit the heat loss to the surroundings to be zero, the temperature of the products
reaches a maximum. So, the resulted reaction temperature is called?
A. Critical temperature B. Dew point temperature
C. Adiabatic flame temperature D. Dry bulb temperature
Answer: C
44. In combustion chambers, the highest temperature to which a material can be exposed is
limited by metallurgical considerations. Therefore, what will be an important consideration for
example in the design of combustion chambers, gas turbines, and nozzles.
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 A. Adiabatic flame temperature B. Equivalence Ratio
C. Thermal efficiency D. Dry bulb temperature
Answer: B
45. It is impossible to construct a device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect
other than the transfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a higher-temperature body.
A. Kelvin -Plank statement
B. Perpetual motion of the first kind
C. Perpetual motion of the second kind
D. Clausius statement
Answer: D
46. A Haramaya University campus has 400 classrooms and 300 faculty offices. The
classrooms are equipped with 8 fluorescent tubes, each consuming 120 W, including the electricity
used by the ballasts. The faculty offices, on average, have half as many tubes. The campus is open
240 days a year. The classrooms and faculty offices are not occupied an average of 4h a day, but
the lights are kept on. If the unit cost of electricity is $0.12/kWh, determine how much the campus
will save a year if the lights in the classrooms and faculty offices are turned off during unoccupied
periods.
A. $60,825.6/year B. $55,757/year
C. $67,556/year D. $57,678/year
Answer: A
47. Clausius inequality expression is

A. ∮ B. ∮

C. ∮ D. ∮

Answer: B
48. During an interaction between a system and its surroundings, the amount of energy gained
by the system must be exactly equal to the amount of energy lost by the surroundings. Which of
the following law express this statement?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics D. Third law of thermodynamics
Answer: B
49. The point where three phases of a pure substance co-exist is indicated by:
A. Sublimation point B. Vaporization point C. Triple point D. None
Answer: C

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50. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible
A. Throttling B. Free expansion
C. Constant volume and constant pressure D. Isothermal and adiabatic.
Answer: D
51. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration
A. Brayton cycle B. Joule cycle
C. Carnot cycle D. Reversed-Brayton cycle.
Answer: D
52. Except one, the following gear trains have fixed axes on which the gears are mounted.
Which one is it?
A. Simple gear train
B. Compound gear train
C. Epicycliodal gear train
D. Reverted gear train
Answer: C
53. What will be the height of the Watt governor if the speed of the spindle is doubled?
A. Increase by a factor of four.
B. Decrease by a factor of four.
C. Increase by a factor of two.
D. Decrease by a factor of two.
Answer: B
54. An offset provided in radial cam translating follower mechanism serves to:
A. Decrease the pressure angle during ascent or rise of the follower.
B. Increase the pressure angle during ascent or rise of the follower.
C. Decrease the pressure angle during descent or lower of the follower.
D. Avoid possible obstruction due to some machine parts.
Answer: A
55. Which of the following statements about the instantaneous center of velocity is NOT
TRUE?
A. It is a common point to two bodies in plane motion.
B. It is a point where the body has the same instantaneous velocity.
C. It is a point where the two bodies have NO relative velocity.
D. It is a point where the two bodies have relative velocity.
Answer: D

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56. A cam is used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which of the
follower motion will produce the least jerk or sudden movement to the system?
A. Simple harmonic B. Constant velocity
C. Cycloidal D. Simple harmonic
Answer: C
57. Which strength of the material is to be considered for design of a ductile component
under cyclic load?
A. Ultimate strength B. Yield strength
C. Endurance strength D. Fracture strength
Answer: C
58. Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable for the following type of materials
A. Ductile B. Brittle
C. Plastic D. Elastic
Answer: B
59. If the thickness of the cylinder is less than 1/10 of the diameter of the cylinder, then it is
treated as
A. Tick cylinder B. Thin cylinder
C. Longitudinal cylinder D. Intermediate cylinder
Answer: B
60. Which one of the following is not a friction clutch?
A. Disc or plate clutch B. Cone clutch
C. Centrifugal clutch D. Jaw clutch
Answer: D
61. Which of the following theory of failure is mostly used for ductile materials?
A. Maximum principal stress theory B. Maximum shear stress theory
C. Distortion energy theory D. Haigh’s theory
Answer: B
62. Which is useful when pulley or hub has to slide axially on the shaft to some distance?
A. Circular taper key B. Feather key
C. Flat saddle key D. Round key
Answer: B

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63. Lewis’s equation in spur gear design applied to:
A. Gear B. Stronger of the pinion or gear
C. Weaker of the pinion or gear D. Pinion
Answer: C
64. The inner and outer radius of friction surface of a plate clutch is 50 mm and 100 mm
respectively. What is the ratio of maximum intensity of pressure to minimum intensity of
pressure on clutch plate if magnitude of axial force is 4 KN? Assume uniform wear theory.
A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8
Answer: B
65. The most suitable bearing for carrying very heavy loads with slow speed is
A. Hydrodynamic bearing B. Ball bearing
C. Roller bearing D. Hydrostatic bearing
Answer: D
66. Which of the following is antifriction bearing?
A. Needle bearing B. Pedestal bearing
C. Collar bearing D. Hydrostatic bearing
Answer: A
67. Match the items in columns I and II.
Column I Column II
P. Centrifugal compressor 1. Axial flow
Q. Centrifugal pump 2. Surging
R. Pelton wheel 3. Priming
S. Kaplan turbine 4. Pure impulse

A. P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 B. P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

C. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 D. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
Answer: A
68. For a Pelton wheel revolving at 770 rpm, the bucket peripheral speed is 60 m/s while the
actual jet velocity at the inlet is 137.27 m/s. The Pelton wheel has to develop 15 MW under a net
head of 1000 m and a jet ratio of 16. If the overall efficiency is 0.85, then the number of jets
required is:
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Answer: B
69. What does the operating characteristic curve of a turbine mean?
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 A. Curve drawn at constant head B. Curve drawn at constant efficiency
C. Curve drawn at constant speed D. Curve drawn at constant Load
Answer: C
70. In air compressor performance curve, a surge line represents
A. Limit of compressor discharge B. Limit of compressor efficiency
C. Limit of stable operation D. Lower critical speed of shaft
Answer: C
71. Which of the following are typical characteristics of a Pelton wheel?
A. It works under a low head and requires large quantity of water
B. It works under a low head and requires small quantity of water
C. It works under a high had and requires large quantity of water
D. It works under a high head and requires small quantity of water.
Answer: C
72. What type of response does a stable system exhibit when subjected to small
disturbances?
A. Oscillatory response B. Unstable response
C. Damped response D. Stable response
Answer: D
73. Which component is commonly used for digitizing analog signals in signal acquisition?
A. Digital-to-analog converter (DAC) B. Transducer
C. Analog-to-digital converter (ADC) D. Operational amplifier (Op-amp)
Answer: C
74. Which of the following types of actuators is commonly used for linear motion?
A. Electric motor B. Hydraulic cylinder
C. Pneumatic actuator D. Rotary solenoid
Answer: B
75. Which of the following programming languages is commonly used for PLC
programming?
A. C++ B. Python
C. Ladder logic D. HTML
Answer: C
76. Which of the following is a common output device controlled by a PLC?
A. Microcontroller B. Servo motor
C. Pressure sensor D. LCD display

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 Answer: B
77. Lift trucks are used in industries generally for the transportation of
A. Non-ferrous Materials B. Batches of Materials
C. Castings Only D. Heavy Equipment
Answer: B
78. Which of the following has lubricating action?
A. Cotton Seed B. Saw Dust
C. Graphite D. Rubber Scrap
Answer: C
79. Chains for material handling equipment are generally made of
A. Carbon steel B. Cast iron
C. Wrought iron D. Mild steel
Answer: A
80. Which one of the following shovel excavators is considered most efficient in loading
carriers?
A. Clam shell B. Back hoe
C. Dipper shovel D. Drag line
Answer: C
81. Pneumatic tyres are not used for providing
A.
A. Friction B. Traction
C. Comfort D. Speed
Answer: A
82. A heat engine having an efficiency of 70% is used to drive a refrigerator having a
coefficient of performance of 5. The energy absorbed from low temperature reservoir by the
refrigerator for each kJ of energy absorbed from high temperature source by the engine is
A. 0.14 KJ B.0.71 kJ C. 3.5 kJ D. 7.1 kJ
Answer: C
83. Pick up the correct statement about Equipment’s Used in an Air Conditioning system
A. Air conditioning unit: a unit that consists of cooling and dehumidification processes
for winter air conditioning or heating and humidification processes for summer air
conditioning.
B. Supply duct: directs the conditioned air from the circulating fan to the space to be air
conditioned at proper point.

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 C. Supply outlet: it openings in the room surface which allow the room air to enter the
return duct.
D. Return outlet: distributes the conditioned air in the room.
Answer: B
84. The most common type of absorption system used in industrial application is based on
the refrigerant absorbent combination of
A. Air water B. Lithium bromide air
C. Carbon dioxide air D. Ammonia water
Answer: B
85. In central air conditioning system
A. Entire equipment is placed in the air conditioned space
B. There is only one machine which performs the function of air conditioning
C. All the major equipment is located in one central space removed from the air to be
conditioned
D. Is used when small area is to air conditioned
Answer: B
86. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of the water is higher than the dry bulb
temperature of the entering air, then the air is
A. Heated and dehumidified B. Heated and humidified
C. Cooled and humidified D. Cooled and dehumidified
Answer: B
87. Which management function involves coordinating and directing the efforts of
individuals and groups to achieve organizational goals?
A. Planning B. Organizing
C. Leading D. Controlling
Answer: C
88. Which type of layout arranges production equipment in a sequence according to the
steps involved in manufacturing?
A. Process layout B. Product layout
C. Cellular layout D. Fixed-position layout
Answer: B
89. Which material management technique focuses on reducing waste and improving
efficiency by synchronizing production with customer demand?
A. Just-in-time (JIT) B. Kanban

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 C. Material requirements planning (MRP) D. Total Quality Management (TQM)
Answer: A
90. Which of the following is NOT a component of effective material management?
A. Inventory control B. Production planning
C. Quality control D. Customer service
Answer: D
91. Which project management tool is commonly used to visualize project tasks, their
dependencies, and the project timeline?
A. Gantt chart B. PERT chart
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS) D. Critical path method (CPM)
Answer: A
92. One is incorrect about Maintenance planning and scheduling.
A. Maintenance planning and scheduling are two similar functions that, when used
together, form a maintenance program.
B. Maintenance Planning and Scheduling focuses on the planning and scheduling of
routine, day-in and day-out maintenance.
C. A planner writes instructions on completing a job, and even determines and gathers
the necessary parts and/or tools before a job is assigned.
D. Planners should not file on a system level but rather on an individual component
level.
Answer: A
93. Installation of machinery is the process of assembling parts of equipment and mounting or
erecting the whole system of machines, apparatus, and accessories in its place and setting up or
arranging it for practical work as per the layout/drawing, etc. whereas, Commissioning of
machinery is the process of carrying out all necessary tests and procedures required by industry
standards to show that the plant is able to deliver the result for the purpose for which it was
installed. The proper installation and commissioning of engineering equipment are critical in
preventing later failure. One is wrong about the installation procedure of these systems:
A. Site accessibility, utility availability, installation consumables, and document
availability are some of the Pre-installation activities
B. Noticing risk assessments, Safety procedures and other pertinent safety standards,
having the necessary permission to complete installation activities, providing safe
access and working arrangements, isolating services in a safe manner, disposing of

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 waste in a safe and environmentally responsible manner, and leaving the work area in a
safe condition.
C. A sufficient number of standby units
D. None
Answer: C
94. The maintenance function of a modern industry faces a number of challenges attributable
to:
A. The rapid growth of technology results in current technology becoming obsolete and
requirements of keeping both outdated and modern machines in service
B. Effective maintenance of the old equipment for higher availability
C. Development of indigenous sources for parts for import substitution.
D. All
Answer: D
95. In the context of the industrial sector, one is incorrect about the maintenance
A. The actions to control the deterioration process leading to the failure of a system,
“preventive maintenance”,
B. Keep all equipment available in an organization in as-built condition, so that it
continues to have its original productive capacity.
C. The act of maintaining or the state of being maintained; the work of keeping
something in proper condition; “upkeep.”
D. The restoration of the system to its operational stage through corrective action after
the occurrence of failure, “corrective maintenance”
Answer: C
96. A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum torque which is
A. Equal to the maximum engine torque
B. 80 per cent of the maximum engine torque
C. 150 per cent of the maximum engine torque
D. 100 per cent of the maximum engine torque
Answer: C
97. The main function of intake manifold is that it
A. Promotes the mixture of air and fuel
B. Reduces intake noise
C. Cools the intake air to a suitable temperature
D. Distributes intake air equally to the cylinders

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 Answer: D
98. The firing order for an in-line four cylinder I.C. engine is
A. 1-2-3-4 B. 1-3-4-2
C. 1-2-4-3 D. 1-3-2-4
Answer: B
99. Which of the following indicates multi grade oil?
A. SAE 30 B. API SF
C. SAE 20 W-50 D. API 50
Answer: C
100. The function of a first compression ring (top ring) is that it
A. Increases the combustion temperature
B. Creates swirl
C. Maintains a seal and prevents the fuel leakage
D. Maintains a seal and prevents escape of burned gases and loss of pressure in the
combustion chamber
Answer: D

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