FINAL COACHING

High School Entrance Exam Reviewer (Science)

Direction: Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. A student conducted an experiment to see the effect of light intensity on the growth of a
certain plant. Which could be the independent, dependent, and control variables of his
experiment?

A. height of the plant, light intensity, weight of the plant

B. height of the plant, light intensity, color of light used
C. light intensity, height of the plant, the amount of nutrients the plant
receives
D. light intensity, size of leaves, the size of flower pots used

The correct answer is C. light intensity, height of the plant, the amount of nutrients the
plant receives.
Rationale:
• Independent variable: This is the factor that is deliberately changed or manipulated by
the experimenter. In this case, the student is investigating how light intensity affects
plant growth, so light intensity is the independent variable.
• Dependent variable: This is the factor that is measured or observed in the experiment.
It depends on the independent variable. Since the student is studying plant growth, the
height of the plant is the dependent variable, as it will be measured to determine the
effect of light intensity.
• Control variables: These are the factors that must be kept constant to ensure that the
results are due to the independent variable and not other factors. The amount of
nutrients the plant receives is an example of a control variable, as it needs to be the
same for all plants to avoid influencing the growth apart from light intensity. Other
control variables might include water, temperature, and soil type, which are not listed
here but would be kept constant in a well-designed experiment.
2. Which Fahrenheit temperature is twice the Celsius temperature?
A. 64°𝐹
B. 200°𝐹
C. 320°𝐹
D.546°𝐹

3. Arrange in increasing order: 1.2 m, 123 cm, 1180 mm

A. 1180 mm, 123 cm, 1.2 m

B. 1180 mm, 1.2 m, 123 cm
C. 1.2 m, 123 cm, 1180 mm
D. 1.2 m, 1180 mm, 123 cm
For questions 4 and 5, refer to the table below.

Table 1. Effect of Temperature on the Volume of Gas X

Temperature (℃) Volume (mL)
0 56
12 68
67 123
89 145
4. Based on table 1, which is the appropriate conclusion?

A. Temperature and volume have a direct relationship.

B. Temperature and volume have an inverse relationship.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

The correct answer is A. Temperature and volume have a direct relationship.

From the table, as the temperature increases, the volume of the gas also increases. This shows a
direct relationship, where higher temperatures lead to higher volumes.

For example:

• At 0°C, the volume is 56 mL.

• At 12°C, the volume is 68 mL.
• At 67°C, the volume is 123 mL.
• At 89°C, the volume is 145 mL.

Since the volume increases as the temperature increases, the relationship is direct.
 5. If you are to show the relationship between the temperature and the volume of gas X,
which graph best suits your purpose?

A. bar graph
B. pie graph
C. pictograph
D. line graph

The correct answer is D. Line graph.

Rationale:

To show the relationship between temperature and volume, a line graph is the best choice. A
line graph helps visualize how one variable (temperature) affects the other (volume), especially
when both are changing in a consistent way. A line graph makes it easier to observe trends or
patterns, such as the direct relationship between temperature and volume in this case.

Here's why:

A table provides data in rows and columns, which is useful for organizing and comparing
values. However, to visually show the relationship between two variables (in this case,
temperature and volume), a line graph is more effective.

A line graph can help you see the trend more clearly: as the temperature increases, the volume
increases, which is a direct relationship. By plotting the data points on the graph and connecting
them with a line, you can easily observe the pattern of how volume changes with temperature.

While a table shows the values, it doesn't show the trend as clearly as a graph would.

So, the line graph best suits the purpose of showing the relationship between temperature and
volume.

6. In the pulmonary circuit, veins carry oxygen-____ blood, and in the systemic circuit, veins
carry oxygen-_____ blood.

A. rich, rich
B. poor, poor
C. rich, poor
D. poor, rich
The correct answer is C. poor, rich.
Rationale:
• Pulmonary circuit: In this circuit, veins carry oxygen-poor blood from the body back
to the heart to be pumped to the lungs for oxygenation.
• Systemic circuit: In this circuit, veins carry oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the
heart, which is then pumped out to the rest of the body.
 7. Arteries are thicker and more elastic than veins. Why is this so?

A. Veins return blood to the heart against gravity.

B. Arteries contain a greater volume of blood.
C. Arteries have less smooth muscles than veins.
D. Arteries are under great pressure.
The correct answer is D. Arteries are under great pressure.
Rationale:
Arteries are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the
body. Because the heart pumps blood at high pressure, arteries need to be thicker and
more elastic to handle this pressure without rupturing. The elasticity helps the arteries
stretch and then return to their normal size as the blood flows through, maintaining blood
pressure and flow.
Veins, on the other hand, carry blood back to the heart under much lower pressure, so
they do not need to be as thick or elastic.

8. Which of the following parts of a neuron is correctly matched?

A. cell body – short extensions that receive impulses

B. axon – conducts nerve impulses
C. dendrite – contains the nucleus and other organelles
D. nucleus – transmits electric signals
The correct answer is B. axon – conducts nerve impulses.
Rationale:
• Axon: This part of the neuron conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body to
other neurons, muscles, or glands.
• Cell body: Contains the nucleus and organelles, but it does not specifically deal with
receiving impulses (that’s the role of dendrites). So, A is incorrect.
• Dendrites: They are the short extensions that receive impulses, not contain the
nucleus (that’s the cell body’s job), so C is incorrect.
• Nucleus: It contains the cell’s genetic material and controls the cell’s activities, but it
doesn’t transmit electrical signals. That role belongs to the axon, so D is incorrect.

9. Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?

A. receive sensory input

B. cushion and protect soft tissue
C. perform information processing
D. generate motor output

The correct answer is B. cushion and protect soft tissue.

Rationale:
The nervous system has four main functions:
1. Receive sensory input – The nervous system collects information from the
environment through sensory organs.
 2. Perform information processing – The brain and spinal cord process sensory input
and make decisions.
3. Generate motor output – The nervous system sends signals to muscles and glands to
produce movement or responses.
Cushioning and protecting soft tissue is a function of structures like bones (e.g., skull and
vertebrae) and meninges (membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord), not the nervous
system itself. Hence, B is not a function of the nervous system.

10. What do inspiration and expiration have in common?

A. They both use the same pathways.

B. The air travels in the same direction in both.
C. They both conduct air from the outside.
D. They both remove waste from the tissues.

The correct answer is A. They both use the same pathways.

Rationale:
• Inspiration (inhalation) and expiration (exhalation) are both parts of the respiratory
cycle, and they involve the movement of air in and out of the lungs. The pathways
involved in both processes are the same: air enters through the nose or mouth, travels
down the trachea, and into the lungs.
• B is incorrect because, during inspiration, air moves into the lungs, while during
expiration, air moves out of the lungs, so the direction is opposite.
• C is incorrect because only inspiration brings air from the outside into the lungs, while
expiration removes air from the lungs to the outside.
• D is incorrect because the respiratory system removes carbon dioxide (a waste
product of metabolism) during expiration, not directly removing waste from tissues.

11. Which part of the respiratory system carries out gas exchange?

A. bronchus
B. larynx
C. nasal cavity
D. lungs
The correct answer is D. lungs.
Rationale:
The lungs are the primary organs responsible for gas exchange in the respiratory
system. Inside the lungs, oxygen from the air is exchanged for carbon dioxide in the
blood through tiny air sacs called alveoli.
• Bronchus: This is a passageway that carries air to the lungs but does not directly
participate in gas exchange.
• Larynx: Known as the voice box, it helps produce sound but is not involved in gas
exchange.
 • Nasal cavity: It filters, moistens, and warms the air, but it does not perform gas
exchange.

12. When does the reproductive system begin to function fully?

A. at birth
B. before puberty
C. when puberty is complete
D. when there has been sexual intercourse
The correct answer is C. when puberty is complete.

Rationale:

The reproductive system begins to function fully after puberty is complete. Puberty is a period
of physical and hormonal changes that leads to the development of secondary sexual
characteristics and the maturity of the reproductive organs. This process generally starts around
the ages of 10-14 for females and 12-16 for males and continues until the reproductive system
reaches full maturity, which is typically when puberty is complete.

• A. at birth: At birth, the reproductive system is not fully functional.

• B. before puberty: Before puberty, the reproductive system is immature.
• D. when there has been sexual intercourse: Sexual intercourse is not the factor that
triggers full reproductive system function; it's the completion of puberty.

13. Which is a necessary condition for the testes to manufacture healthy sperm cells?

A. Temperature must be below 37 degrees Celsius.

B. Temperature must be 37 degrees Celsius.
C. Temperature must be above 37 degrees Celsius.
D. Temperature must be below 100 degrees Celsius.

The correct answer is A. Temperature must be below 37 degrees Celsius.

Rationale:

For the testes to produce healthy sperm cells, the temperature must be slightly lower than the
normal body temperature (which is about 37°C). This is why the testes are located outside the
body in the scrotum, where the temperature is kept at about 34-35°C, which is optimal for
sperm production.

• B. 37°C: This is the normal body temperature, which is too high for optimal sperm
production.
• C. above 37°C: Higher temperatures would impair sperm production and motility.
• D. below 100°C: This is too broad and not specific to the temperature range needed for
sperm production.
Therefore, the ideal temperature for sperm production is below 37°C, which is why the testes
are located outside the body.

14. What is the correct order of the components of the digestive tract?

A. mouth, esophagus, pharynx, small intestine, stomach, large

intestine, rectum, anus
B. mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small
intestine, rectum, anus
C. mouth, pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, rectum, large
intestine, anus
D. mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large
intestine, rectum, anus

The correct answer is D. mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large
intestine, rectum, anus.
Rationale:
The correct order of the components of the digestive tract is as follows:
1. Mouth: Where digestion begins (chewing and mixing food with saliva).
2. Pharynx: The throat that connects the mouth to the esophagus.
3. Esophagus: The tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach.
4. Stomach: The organ where food is mixed with digestive juices and broken down.
5. Small intestine: The site where most digestion and absorption of nutrients occur.
6. Large intestine: Absorbs water and salts and forms solid waste.
7. Rectum: Stores solid waste before it is eliminated.
8. Anus: The opening through which waste is expelled from the body.

15. Where does absorption occur?

A. stomach
B. small intestine
C. large intestine
D. liver

The correct answer is B. small intestine.

Rationale:
The small intestine is the primary site where absorption occurs. Nutrients from the
digested food, such as vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and glucose, are absorbed
through the walls of the small intestine into the bloodstream.
• Stomach: The stomach is involved in the breakdown of food, but absorption is not its
primary function.
• Large intestine: While water and some minerals are absorbed here, the majority of
nutrient absorption takes place in the small intestine.
• Liver: The liver processes nutrients but does not absorb them directly.
 16. The difference between weather and climate is

A. weather is a local phenomenon, climate is regional

B. weather is a day-to-day phenomenon, climate is a long-term average
C. weather is the non-scientific term for climate
D. there is no difference between the two

The correct answer is B. weather is a day-to-day phenomenon, climate is a long-

term average.
Rationale:
• Weather refers to the day-to-day atmospheric conditions, such as temperature,
humidity, precipitation, and wind, in a specific location.
• Climate refers to the long-term average of weather conditions over a much longer
period (usually 30 years or more) for a specific region.

17. Most of the earthquakes, volcanoes, and mountain belts of the Earth occur

A. within tectonic plates far from the edges

B. in ocean basins
C. at the edges of tectonic plates
D. at zones where tectonic plates slide horizontally past each other

The correct answer is C. at the edges of tectonic plates.

Rationale:
Most of the Earth's earthquakes, volcanoes, and mountain belts occur along the edges of
tectonic plates. This is because the movement and interactions of tectonic plates—such as
converging, diverging, or sliding past each other—lead to the formation of geological
features like mountains, volcanoes, and earthquake activity.
• A. within tectonic plates far from the edges: Most geological activity is concentrated
at the edges, not in the interior of tectonic plates.
• B. in ocean basins: While some tectonic activity happens in ocean basins (like mid-
ocean ridges), most earthquakes and volcanoes are at the boundaries of tectonic
plates.
• D. at zones where tectonic plates slide horizontally past each other: This
describes transform boundaries, which can cause earthquakes, but volcanic activity
and mountain formation are more commonly associated with convergent and
divergent boundaries.

18. The gravitational attraction between the Moon, Sun, and the Earth will have the greatest
effect on the tides of the ocean during a

A. full moon
B. blue moon
 C. new moon
D. A and C

The correct answer is D. A and C.

Rationale:
Tides are influenced by the gravitational attraction of the Moon and the Sun. The
greatest effect on the ocean tides occurs when the Earth, Moon, and Sun are aligned,
causing spring tides, which result in higher high tides and lower low tides.
• Full moon (A): During a full moon, the Earth, Moon, and Sun are aligned, which leads
to spring tides.
• New moon (C): During a new moon, the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun, and
they are also aligned, causing spring tides as well.
• Blue moon (B): A blue moon is simply the second full moon in a calendar month and
does not significantly affect tides more than a regular full moon.
Thus, A and C are the correct answers because both the full moon and new moon
produce the highest tidal effects.

19. Rocks formed from material that melted deep in the Earth and crystallized at or just below
the surface are known as

A. sedimentary rocks
B. metamorphic rocks
C. faulted rocks
D. igneous rocks

The correct answer is D. igneous rocks.

Rationale:
Igneous rocks are formed from the cooling and solidification of molten rock material,
either magma (beneath the surface) or lava (on the surface). When magma rises to the
surface or cools just beneath it, it forms extrusive igneous rocks, such as basalt.
When magma cools deep within the Earth, it forms intrusive igneous rocks, such as
granite.
• A. sedimentary rocks: These form from the deposition and compaction of sediments,
not from molten material.
• B. metamorphic rocks: These are formed from existing rocks (either igneous,
sedimentary, or other metamorphic rocks) that undergo changes due to heat, pressure,
or chemical processes.
• C. faulted rocks: This term refers to rocks that have been displaced due to faulting, but
it's not a classification of rock type.
 20. Which of the following figures shows the correct position of the sun, earth, and the moon
in a lunar eclipse and a solar eclipse?

A.

S E M S M E
B.

S E M E S M
C.

M S E S M E
D.

E M S S M E
Correct answer: A

21. The two most abundant elements in the sun are

A. hydrogen and helium

B. hydrogen and plutonium
C. helium and neptunium
D. helium and uranium

The correct answer is A. hydrogen and helium.

Rationale:
The Sun is primarily composed of hydrogen (about 75%) and helium (about 24%). These two
elements make up almost the entire mass of the Sun. The process of nuclear fusion in the
Sun's core converts hydrogen into helium, which releases the energy that powers the Sun and
produces sunlight.

22. What does the milky way look like on the night sky?

A. A spiral-shaped region of nebulosity.

B. A pale band of light scattered with stars that stretches across the sky.
C. A uniform scattering of stars throughout the sky.
D. The Milky Way is not visible from Earth without a telescope.
 The correct answer is B. A pale band of light scattered with stars that stretches across
the sky.
Rationale:
When viewed from Earth, the Milky Way appears as a faint, milky band of light that stretches
across the night sky. This light is made up of billions of stars and cosmic dust from within our
own galaxy, seen from our vantage point in the spiral arms of the Milky Way.

23. It is the interaction between abiotic factors and biotic factors of an environment

A. symbiosis
B. mutualism
C. ecosystem
D. commensalism

The correct answer is C. ecosystem.

Rationale:
An ecosystem refers to the interaction between abiotic factors (non-living elements like
temperature, water, and soil) and biotic factors (living organisms like plants, animals, and
microorganisms) within a specific environment. This relationship creates a functioning system
where energy flows and matter cycles.
• A. symbiosis: Symbiosis refers to a close and often long-term relationship between
two different species, but it doesn't describe the entire interaction of abiotic and biotic
factors.
• B. mutualism: Mutualism is a type of symbiotic relationship where both organisms
benefit, but it does not encompass all the interactions in an ecosystem.
• D. commensalism: Commensalism is another type of symbiotic relationship, where
one species benefits and the other is unaffected, but it doesn't represent the full scope
of ecosystem interactions.

24. Which star color is the hottest?

A. red
B. yellow
C. blue
D. orange

The correct answer is C. blue.

Rationale:
In terms of star temperature, blue stars are the hottest, followed by white stars, yellow
stars, orange stars, and finally red stars, which are the coolest.
• Blue stars have the highest temperatures, typically over 10,000°C, because their
wavelengths are shorter and contain more energy.
• Red stars are the coolest, with temperatures around 3,000°C.
• Yellow stars like our Sun are in the middle, with temperatures around 5,500°C.
 25. Of the following types of interaction, which one is least likely to limit population size?

A. predation
B. commensalism
C. competition
D. parasitism

The correct answer is B. commensalism.

Rationale:
Commensalism is a type of symbiotic relationship where one species benefits and the other is
neither helped nor harmed. Since there is no significant negative impact on the other species,
commensalism is less likely to limit population size compared to other interactions.
• A. predation: Predation can directly reduce the population size of prey species, thus
limiting their numbers.
• C. competition: Competition for resources like food, water, and shelter can limit the
population size of species as they struggle to survive and reproduce.
• D. parasitism: Parasitism involves one organism benefiting at the expense of another,
often harming the host and potentially limiting its population.

26. A food web is more realistic than a food chain for showing the feeding relationships in
ecosystems because

A. it compares the number of consumers to the number of

microorganisms in an ecosystem
B. food chains use only a small sampling of organisms
C. a food web explains why there are more producers than consumers
D. producers are usually eaten by many different consumers and most
consumers are eaten by more than one predator
The correct answer is D. producers are usually eaten by many different consumers
and most consumers are eaten by more than one predator.
Rationale:
A food web is a more realistic model than a food chain because it shows the complex
network of feeding relationships between organisms. In nature, producers (plants, algae)
are eaten by various consumers (herbivores, omnivores, etc.), and most consumers
(herbivores, carnivores) are preyed upon by multiple predators. This interconnectedness
and overlap of feeding relationships is better represented by a food web.
• A. it compares the number of consumers to the number of microorganisms in an
ecosystem: This is not the main reason why a food web is more realistic.
• B. food chains use only a small sampling of organisms: While true that food chains
are simplified, it is not the main reason a food web is more realistic.
• C. a food web explains why there are more producers than consumers: This is a
true statement but does not address why a food web is more realistic in showing
feeding relationships.
 27. Which level in the food chain has the highest energy?

A. producer
B. first order consumer
C. second order consumer
D. third order consumer

The correct answer is A. producer.

Rationale:

In a food chain, producers (such as plants and algae) have the highest energy. They are the
primary source of energy for all other organisms in the ecosystem because they capture
energy from the sun through photosynthesis and convert it into chemical energy stored in their
tissues.

As energy moves up the food chain from producers to consumers (first, second, and third
order), energy is lost at each level due to processes like metabolism and heat. Therefore,
producers have the most energy available, while energy decreases as you go up to
consumers.

• B. first order consumer: These are herbivores that eat producers. They have less
energy than producers.

• C. second order consumer: These are carnivores that eat herbivores. They have
even less energy.

• D. third order consumer: These are top predators and have the least energy because
they are at the top of the food chain.

28. Which is NOT an example of a chemical change?

A. water turning into ice

B. rust forming on an iron nail
C. a match burning
D. using baking soda and vinegar to simulate a volcanic eruption

The correct answer is A. water turning into ice.

Rationale:
A. water turning into ice is a physical change, not a chemical change. In a physical
change, the substance retains its chemical composition; water remains H₂O whether it's
in liquid or solid form, just changing from a liquid to a solid due to temperature.
• B. rust forming on an iron nail is a chemical change because the iron reacts with
oxygen in the air to form iron oxide (rust), which is a new substance.
• C. a match burning is a chemical change because the chemicals in the match undergo
combustion, producing new substances like ash, gases, and heat.
• D. using baking soda and vinegar to simulate a volcanic eruption is a chemical
change because the reaction between baking soda and vinegar produces carbon
dioxide gas and new substances.
For question 29, refer to the diagram below

29. Arrange A, B, and C in terms of the distance between molecules (decreasing).

A. C, A, B
B. C, B, A
C. A, B, C
D. A, C, B

The correct answer is B. C, B, A.

Rationale:

In terms of the distance between molecules:

• C. Gas: Molecules in a gas are farthest apart because gas molecules have high energy
and move freely in all directions.

• B. Liquid: Molecules in a liquid are closer together than in a gas but are still able to
move around each other. Liquids have more energy than solids but less than gases.

• A. Solid: Molecules in a solid are tightly packed and vibrate in place, making the
distance between them the smallest.

Thus, the order of the distance between molecules, from greatest to least, is: Gas (C), Liquid
(B), Solid (A).

In a phase change of matter, energy (specifically heat energy) is typically decreasing.

Here’s why:

• During freezing (liquid to solid), energy is lost to the surroundings. The particles slow
down and arrange into a more ordered structure (solid form).

• During condensation (gas to liquid), energy is released as gas molecules lose kinetic
energy and form liquid.

• During deposition (gas to solid), energy is also released as gas particles transition
directly into a solid without becoming liquid first.

In phase changes like melting (solid to liquid) or vaporization (liquid to gas), energy is
absorbed instead of decreasing.
 30. Troy once went to the Moon to light a match there, but to his disappointment, it didn’t light.
Which of the following best explains why the match didn’t light?

A. There is no oxygen in the moon.

B. The heat generated by the friction between the match and the
matchbox was insufficient
C. The moon is a windy heavenly body.
D. The moon’s atmosphere is too humid for fire to start.

The correct answer is A. There is no oxygen in the moon.

Rationale:
Fire needs three things to start: heat, fuel, and oxygen (this is called the fire triangle). On
Earth, we have plenty of oxygen in the atmosphere, which supports combustion. However, the
Moon has no atmosphere and, therefore, no oxygen to sustain a fire. This is why Troy’s match
didn’t light.
• B. The heat generated by the friction between the match and the matchbox was
insufficient: This could be true on Earth under certain conditions, but it's not the main
reason in this scenario.
• C. The moon is a windy heavenly body: The Moon has no atmosphere, so there is no
wind.
• D. The moon’s atmosphere is too humid for fire to start: There is no atmosphere on
the Moon, so there is no humidity.

31. Ken left his glass of cold water outside for a few minutes. When he came back, there were
water droplets on the glass. Where did the water droplets come from?

A. from the water inside the glass

B. from the glass
C. from the air outside the glass
D. from the Ken’s sweaty palms

The correct answer is C. from the air outside the glass.

Rationale:
When Ken left his glass of cold water outside, the cold temperature of the glass caused the
water vapor in the air to cool down and condense into water droplets. This process is called
condensation. The air around the glass contains moisture, and when it comes into contact
with the cold surface of the glass, the temperature of the air drops, causing the water vapor to
turn back into liquid droplets.
32. A ball was released and let to roll on the floor; after some time, it stopped. What was
responsible for this?

A. insufficient kinetic energy

B. friction
 C. too much potential energy
D. gravity

The correct answer is B. friction.

Rationale:
When the ball rolls on the floor, it loses energy over time due to friction, which is the force that
opposes the motion of the ball. This friction could be from the surface of the floor or air
resistance, and it causes the ball to gradually slow down and eventually stop.
• A. insufficient kinetic energy: The ball initially has kinetic energy when it starts
moving, so this is not the reason it stops.
• C. too much potential energy: The ball’s potential energy doesn't play a significant
role in its stopping; it’s the kinetic energy that causes motion and friction that slows it
down.
• D. gravity: While gravity is responsible for the ball staying on the floor, it doesn't
directly cause the ball to stop unless it’s causing it to move in a specific direction (like
rolling down a hill), but the stopping is mainly due to friction.

33. Car is moving in a circular path at a constant speed, while car B is moving in a straight
line at a constant speed also. Which statement is correct about cars A and B?

A. Cars A and B are not accelerating.

B. Car A is accelerating, car B is not.
C. Cars A and B are accelerating.
D. Car A is not accelerating, car B is.

The correct answer is B. Car A is accelerating, car B is not.

Rationale:
• Car A is moving in a circular path at a constant speed. While the speed (magnitude of
velocity) remains constant, the direction of the velocity vector is continuously changing
as the car moves along the circle. This change in direction constitutes acceleration,
known as centripetal acceleration, which always points towards the center of the
circle.
• Car B is moving in a straight line at a constant speed, meaning neither its speed nor
its direction is changing. Since there is no change in velocity, Car B is not
accelerating.

For question 34, refer to the figure below.

Direction of the bus’ motion

 34. Einstein is carrying a glass of raspberry juice when the bus suddenly moves forward.
Which of the following diagrams most accurately depicts the raspberry juice during the
movement of the bus?
A B. C. D.

CORRECT ANSWER: D

The correct diagram should show the raspberry juice tilting backward in the glass, as the bus
moves forward beneath it. This is the result of inertia.

35. A bicycle and a truck are racing against each other with the same speed. They reached
the corner of the street at the same time. After that, they have to turn right to reach the
finish line which lies just some meters away the corner. Predict which will win.

A. The bicycle because it has less inertia.

B. The bicycle because it runs on simpler hinges and pivots.
C. The truck because it has less inertia.
D. The truck because it runs on complex machinery.

The correct answer is:

A. The bicycle because it has less inertia.
Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion. Since the bicycle is
smaller and lighter than the truck, it has less inertia. This means it can change direction
(turn) more easily and quickly. On the other hand, the truck, being larger and heavier,
has more inertia, so it will resist turning and take longer to navigate the corner, giving the
bicycle an advantage in this race.

For question 36, refer to the diagram below.

 36. What is the best description of the pendulum as it swings through the point marked B?

A. minimum kinetic energy; maximum gravitational potential energy

B. minimum kinetic energy; minimum gravitational potential energy
C. maximum kinetic energy; maximum gravitational potential energy
D. maximum kinetic energy; minimum gravitational potential energy

The correct answer is:

D. maximum kinetic energy; minimum gravitational potential energy
At point B (typically the lowest point in a pendulum swing), the pendulum has its highest speed,
so the kinetic energy is at its maximum. Meanwhile, the height is at its lowest, which means the
gravitational potential energy is at its minimum

37. In a nuclear power plant, in what order is energy produced and changed from one form to
another?

A. heat energy nuclear energy electrical energy

B. electrical energy nuclear energy heat energy
C. nuclear energy heat energy electrical energy
D. nuclear energy electrical energy heat energy

The correct answer is:

C. nuclear energy → heat energy → electrical energy

In a nuclear power plant, nuclear energy from the splitting of atoms (nuclear fission) is first
converted into heat energy. This heat is used to produce steam, which drives turbines to
generate electrical energy.

38. Which form of energy is renewable and does not pollute the Earth’s environment?

A. solar energy
B. hydroelectric energy
C. nuclear energy
D. geothermal energy

The correct answer is:

A. solar energy
Solar energy is renewable and does not pollute the Earth’s environment, making it a clean and
sustainable source of energy.
Rationale:
Solar energy is considered a renewable and clean energy source because it is derived from
the Sun, which is constantly available and will continue to produce energy for billions of years.
Unlike fossil fuels (such as coal, oil, and natural gas), solar energy does not release harmful
pollutants like carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. Additionally,
solar energy systems such as solar panels do not create air or water pollution during their
operation. This makes solar energy an environmentally friendly and sustainable choice for
power generation. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

39. What energy do gasoline and rocket fuel store?

A. heat energy
B. chemical energy
C. mechanical energy
D. radiant energy

Answer: B. Chemical energy

Rationale: Gasoline and rocket fuel store chemical energy, which is the energy held within
the chemical bonds of the fuel molecules. When these fuels are burned or react chemically, the
energy is released as heat, which can then be used to produce mechanical energy, such as
propelling a vehicle or rocket.

40. What causes magma to rise to the surface?

A. Magma is less dense than rock.

B. Magma is more dense than rock.
C. The rock forces the magma upward.
D. A force pulls the magma upward.

Answer: A. Magma is less dense than rock.

Rationale: Magma rises to the surface because it is less dense than the surrounding solid
rock. This difference in density creates a buoyant force, causing the magma to move upward
toward the Earth's surface, where it may eventually erupt as lava during a volcanic event.

41. Which of the following is least likely to be a volcano?

A. a vent where magma and other volcanic material is erupted

B. a hill with a crater formed at the site of an eruption
C. a hill capped by volcanic rocks
D. a fissure that erupts hot, molten lava
Answer: D. A fissure that erupts hot, molten lava.
Rationale: A fissure that erupts hot, molten lava is typically not considered a volcano
on its own. Instead, it is more accurately described as a type of volcanic activity or vent
 where lava can flow out. The other options (A, B, and C) describe characteristics of a
volcano—a vent, a crater, and a hill formed by volcanic material. A fissure eruption can
lead to the formation of volcanic features, but it is not a distinct volcano by itself.

42. What happens when an oceanic plate converges with a continental plate?

A. The less dense oceanic plate slides under the denser continental
plate.
B. The denser oceanic plate slides under the less dense continental
plate.
C. The denser oceanic plate slides on top of the less dense continental
plate.
D. The less dense oceanic plate slides past the denser continental
plate.

Answer: B. The denser oceanic plate slides under the less dense continental plate.
Rationale: When an oceanic plate converges with a continental plate, the oceanic plate,
which is denser, subducts (slides beneath) the less dense continental plate. This process
creates a subduction zone, where the oceanic plate is forced down into the mantle, often
causing volcanic activity and earthquakes. The less dense continental plate is not subducted
but instead may be pushed upwards, forming mountain ranges.

43. Seasons are caused by

A. earth’s tilted axis

B. earth’s rotation
C. the distance between the earth and the sun
D. the changing weather

Answer: A. Earth's tilted axis

Rationale: Seasons are caused by the tilt of Earth's axis relative to its orbit around the Sun.
This tilt causes different parts of the Earth to receive varying amounts of sunlight throughout
the year, leading to the changing seasons. As Earth orbits the Sun, the Northern and Southern
Hemispheres tilt toward and away from the Sun, causing different seasons at different times of
the year. The Earth's rotation and distance from the Sun also play a role, but the tilt is the
primary factor in determining seasons.

44. The Northern Hemisphere experiences __________ when it's tilted __________ the sun.

A. winter, toward
B. summer, away from
C. spring, away from
D. summer, toward
Answer: D. summer, toward
Rationale: The Northern Hemisphere experiences summer when it is tilted toward the
Sun. During this time, the Northern Hemisphere receives more direct sunlight, and the
 days are longer, which leads to warmer temperatures. Conversely, when the Northern
Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun, it experiences winter because the sunlight is
spread out over a larger area and the days are shorter.

45. Why doesn't air in the mountains absorb heat as well as air found at sea level?

A. The atmosphere and air is thinner.

B. The winds carry all the heat away.
C. The air is thicker and has more molecules.
D. The air is made of different kinds of molecules than the air at sea
level.

Answer: A. The atmosphere and air is thinner.

Rationale: At higher altitudes, such as in the mountains, the atmosphere is thinner, meaning
there are fewer air molecules to absorb and retain heat. This is why temperatures in the
mountains tend to be cooler compared to sea level, where the air is denser and better able to
absorb and retain heat from the Sun. The thinner atmosphere at high altitudes also means less
pressure, which contributes to cooler air temperatures.

46. Energy produced by the sun reaches the Earth through

A. convection
B. convection and radiation
C. radiation
D. conduction

Answer: C. radiation
Rationale: The energy produced by the sun reaches the Earth through radiation. This is the
transfer of energy via electromagnetic waves, including visible light, infrared, and ultraviolet
radiation. Unlike convection and conduction, which require a medium (such as air or water),
radiation can travel through the vacuum of space, allowing the Sun's energy to reach Earth.

47. It is the process that creates energy in the sun.

A. fission
B. parallax
C. blue shift
D. fusion

Answer: D. fusion
Rationale: The process that creates energy in the Sun is nuclear fusion. In the Sun's core,
hydrogen atoms fuse to form helium, releasing a tremendous amount of energy in the process.
This energy is what powers the Sun and provides the heat and light that we receive on Earth.
Fusion is the opposite of fission, which is the splitting of atoms and typically occurs in nuclear
reactors.
 48. The North Star,___________, is positioned almost directly over the North Pole.

A. Betelgeuse
B. Orion
C. Sirius
D. Polaris

Answer: D. Polaris
Rationale: The North Star, Polaris, is located nearly directly above the North Pole,
making it a crucial reference point for navigation in the Northern Hemisphere. It has
historically been used to determine direction because of its relatively fixed position in the
sky. The other options listed, such as Betelgeuse, Orion, and Sirius, are also stars but
are not positioned in the way that Polaris is.

49. Why is Venus hot?

A. because of the volcanoes

B. because of its closeness to the Sun
C. because of its position in the solar system
D. because of the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Answer: D. because of the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Rationale: Venus is extremely hot due to the greenhouse effect, where the carbon dioxide in
its thick atmosphere traps heat from the Sun. This causes temperatures to rise dramatically,
even though Venus is not the closest planet to the Sun. The greenhouse gases, particularly
carbon dioxide, are responsible for the extreme heat on Venus, making it hotter than Mercury,
despite Venus being farther from the Sun.

50. Earthquakes are more likely to occur in

A. every location equally

B. northern Africa
C. northern Russia
D. western South America

Answer: D. western South America

Rationale: Earthquakes are more likely to occur in regions along tectonic plate boundaries,
particularly at convergent boundaries where one plate is forced under another, as is the case
in western South America. This region is part of the Ring of Fire, a zone around the Pacific
Ocean where frequent earthquakes and volcanic activity occur due to plate tectonics.
Countries like Chile, Peru, and Ecuador experience significant seismic activity due to their
location along the boundary between the South American plate and the Nazca plate.

Prepared By: Jessie F. Peralta Jr., LPT

(MAJOR IN SCIENCE)