PREBOARD 2

Test 1 (1)
−10𝑡
1. A series RL circuit has 𝑅 = 10 Ω and 𝐿 = 1 𝐻. The circuit is connected across a voltage source 𝑒(𝑡) = 10𝑒
through a switch that is initially open. The switch is closed at 𝑡 = 0 𝑠. Determine the current after 0.01 second.
Assume initial current to be 0 A.

2. A series RLC circuit resonates at 1,000 rad/sec. If 𝐶 = 30 µ𝐹 and it is known that the impedance at resonance is
2.4 ohms, compute the value of Q of the circuit.

3. Two parallel circuits comprising of a coil of resistance of 20 ohms and inductance of 0.07 H and a resistance of 50
ohms in series with a condenser of a capacitance 60 microFarad are connected across 230 V, 50 Hz. Calculate the
main current and power factor of the arrangement.

4. A resistance R in series with a capacitor C is connected to 50 Hz, 240 V supply. Find the value of C so that R
absorbs 300 W at 100 V.

5. Three resistors of 2-ohm resistance are connected in delta. Inside the delta, another three 2-ohm resistors are
connected in wye. Six batteries of negligible and of different emf are inserted into each branch. Using an ammeter, the
current in one of the delta branches was found out to be 3 A. If a 4-ohm resistance is inserted into that branch, what
will be the new current?

6. A solid cylindrical aluminum conductor 25 km long has an area of 336,400 cmils. Obtain the conductor resistance at
8
a) 20 degC b) 50 degC. The resistivity of aluminum at 20 degC is 2. 8 𝑥 10 𝑜ℎ𝑚 · 𝑚.

7. A DC source of emf E volts and internal resistance R ohms is connected to a variable load and it is adjusted such
that the load absorbs maximum power from the source. What is the current drawn from the source?

8. A multi-tap resistor R is connected across a 220 V supply. A voltmeter whose internal resistance is 15 kilo-ohms is
connected across the center tap and one end of the supply terminals. If the voltmeter registers 100V, what is the value
of resistor R.

9. A three-phase, 3-wire balanced delta-connected load yields wattmeter readings 1154 W and 557 W. Obtain the load
impedance if the line voltage is 141.4 V.

10. A three-phase, 3-wire, ABC system has effective line voltage 173.2 V. Wattmeters in line A and B read -301 W and
1327 W, respectively. Find the impedance of the balanced Y-connected load.

11. A 3-phase, ABC system with 𝑉𝑏𝑐 = 294. 2 𝑉 has delta connected load.𝑍𝑎𝑏 = 5 𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑠;𝑍𝑏𝑐 = 4𝑐𝑖𝑠30 𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑠;
𝑍𝑐𝑎 = 6𝑐𝑖𝑠(− 15) 𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑠. Obtain line currents.

12. A 3-phase, ABC system, with an effective voltage 70.7 V, has a balanced delta-connected load with impedances
20cis45 ohms. Obtain the line currents.
 Test 1 (2)

1. A capacitor in series with a 200-ohm resistor draws a current of 0.3 ampere from 120 volts, 50 Hz source. What is
the value of a capacitor in microfarad?

2. A 300 KVA transformer is at full load with an overall power factor of 0.70 lagging. The power factor is improved by
adding capacitors in parallel with the transformer until the overall power factor becomes 0.90 lagging. Determine the
rating (in kilovars) of the capacitors required.

3. Two wattmeters connected to a three-phase motor indicate the total power input to be 12 kW. The power factor is
0.6. Determine the readings of each wattmeter.

4. A 3-phase circuit was designed to deliver 190.5 MVA at 220 kV over a distance of 63 km. The total transmission line
loss is not to exceed 2.5 percent of the rated line MVA. If the resistivity of the conductor material is 2.84 x 10-8
ohm-meters. Determine the required conductor diameter and the conductor size in circular mils.

5. The resistor of 6 ohms and unknown Impedance coil in series draw 12 A from a 120 V, 60 Hz line. If the real power
taken from the line is 1152 watts, what is the coil inductance?

6. Determine the ratio of powers dissipated in two resistors, each having the same length and each made of copper
wire of circular cross section, but having a diameter twice that of the other, and each being connected across the
same voltage.

7. A network of resistances is formed as follows: AB = 9 ohms, BC = 1 ohm, CA = 1.5 ohms forming a delta and AD =
6 ohms, BD = 4 ohms, and CD = 3 ohms forming a star. Compute the network resistance measured between A and B,
B and C, and C and A.

8. Two impedances A and B are connected in parallel across a 120V AC supply. The total current and the current in
each impedance are adjusted to 20A. The power drawn by A is doubled that of B and the power factor is lagging.
Determine the power factor of A.

9. Two parallel circuits comprising of a coil of resistance of 20 ohms and Inductance of 0.07 H and a resistance of 50
ohms in series with a condenser of a capacitance 60 microFarad are connected across 230 V, 50 Hz. Calculate the
main current and power factor of the arrangement.

10. A three phase motor takes 10 kVA at 0.6 pf lagging from a source of 230 V. It is in parallel with a balanced delta
load having 16 ohms resistance and 1 ohms capacitive reactance in series in each phase. Determine pf.

11. An uncharged condenser in series with a 120V voltmeter of 10,000 ohms resistance is suddenly connected to a
100 V battery. One second later, the voltmeter reads 60 volts. Determine the capacitance of the condenser.

12. A piece of wire of uniform cross section has a resistance of 0.8 ohms. If the length of the wire is doubled and its
cross section is increased four times, what is its resistance? The temperature variation of resistance may be
neglected.
 Test 2 (1)

1. What is the range of the upper guard band frequency if the center frequency of an FM station is 92.3 MHz.

2. Determine the output voltage of a full-wave center-tapped rectifier circuit if the diodes are connected in opposite
directions. Justify your answer.

3. Sketch an integrator circuit with 2 inputs, 𝑣1 = 15𝑠𝑖𝑛(3𝑡) 𝑚𝑉 connected to 1 MΩ resistor and 𝑣2 = 30𝑡 𝑚𝑉
connected to 100 kΩ resistor, that uses a 1 µF capacitor. Calculate the output voltage of this circuit.

4. Given a modulated signal 𝑣(𝑡) = 100𝑠𝑖𝑛(ω𝑐 − ω𝑚)𝑡 + 500 𝑠𝑖𝑛(ω𝑐𝑡) – 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛(ω𝑐 + ω𝑚)𝑡. What is the
modulating signal? What is the modulation index of this modulated wave?

5. Determine the emitter voltage and emitter current of Q2 of the circuit shown in Figure 1.

6. What is four octaves above the bandwidth of a TV station

7. For a first order active low pass filter shown in Figure 2, calculate the closed loop gain (a) at 𝑓 = 0 𝐻𝑧 and (b) at
𝑓 = 100 𝑀𝐻𝑧.

8. An SSB generator has a 10-MHz carrier and is used to pass voice frequencies in the 300 Hz to 3300 Hz range. The
lower sideband is selected using the filter method. What is the approximate center frequency of the transmitted
signal?

9. A taxi company uses a central dispatcher, with an antenna at the top of a 15 m tower, to communicate with
taxicabs. The taxi antennas are on the roofs of the cars, approximately 1.5 m above the ground. Calculate the
maximum communication distance: (a) between the dispatcher and a taxi, and (b) between two taxis.

10. The data sheet for an E-MOSFET gives 𝐼𝐷 (𝑜𝑛) = 3 𝑚𝐴 at 𝑉𝐺𝑆 = 10𝑉 and 𝑉𝐺𝑆(𝑡ℎ) = 3𝑉. Determine the resulting
value of K for the device.

11. A band freqs of 1374 KHz and 1385 Khz are mixed in a nonlinear device with B band freqs of 856 KHz and 863
KHz. All have peak amplitudes of 10V while their 2nd order freqs voltages are 3, 3, 1, 1, 3, & 3 Vrms. Determine the
noise due to this system.

12. Determine the current passing through the Si diode and the current passing through the 2 kΩ resistor in Figure 3.
 Test 2 (2)

1. Develop an op-amp circuit that will provide an output voltage, 𝑉0 = 5𝑉1 − 3𝑉2 − 𝑉3 + 𝑉4

2. Which one has a higher power savings R3E with 92% modulation or J3E with 90% modulation?

3. Determine the average output voltage shown below if 𝑉𝑖 = 15𝑠𝑖𝑛ω𝑡.

4. If there are four cascaded amplifiers, what is the total voltage gain in dB if the voltage gain of the different amplifiers
are as follows: 𝐴1 = 20𝑑𝐵; 𝐴2 = 100; 𝐴3 = 12 𝑑𝐵 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴4 = 20.

5. Determine the current coming from the +5V source if the beta for both transistors is 50.

6. It is 3 decades above the maximum bandwidth of AM. Determine the voltage across RD if the beta of the bipolar
junction transistor is 100.

7. Develop a circuit that will clip the + half cycle half of its original amplitude and will clip the negative cycle to 2/3 of its
original amplitude.

8. Determine the radio horizon distance for a 625 ft transmitting antenna and receiving antenna of 25 ft. Find the
required height increase for the receiving antenna if a 20% increase in radio horizon were required.

9. Given a modulated signal 𝑣(𝑡) = 200𝑠𝑖𝑛(ω𝑐 − ω𝑚)𝑡 + 500 𝑠𝑖𝑛(ω𝑐𝑡) – 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛(ω𝑐 + ω𝑚)𝑡. What is the
modulating signal?

10. How many FM stations can be accommodated from 86.3 MHz to 102.3 MHz

11. Using the figure below, sketch the frequency spectrum of the signal if the first five harmonics are considered. Label
your drawing.

πτ 2πτ 3πτ
𝑉τ 2𝑉τ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑇
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑇
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑇
𝑣(𝑡) = 𝑇
+ 𝑇
( πτ 𝑐𝑜𝑠ω𝑡 + 2πτ 𝑐𝑜𝑠2ω𝑡 + 3πτ 𝑐𝑜𝑠3ω𝑡 + . . .)
𝑇 𝑇 𝑇

12. For efficient radiation of the transmitting antenna and proper reception of the receiving antenna, what should be
the height of the antenna if the frequency utilized is 600 KHz.
 Test 3 (1)

1. A separately excited dc generator has a constant loss of PC in watts, and operates a voltage V and armature current
la, The armature resistance Ra. At what value of la is the generator efficiency a maximum?

2. A 10-turn square coil of side 200 mm is mounted a cylinder 200 mm in diameter. The cylinder rotates at 1800 rpm in
a uniform 1.1 T field. Determine the maximum value of the voltage induced in the coil.

3. A permanent magnet DC motor drives a mechanical load requiring a constant torque of 25 N-m. The motor
produces 10 N-m. with an armature current of 10 A. The resistance of an armature circuit is 0.2 ohm. A 200 V DC
supply is applied to the armature terminals. Determine the speed of the motor in RPM at 25 N-m.

4 A 250 V series motor draws a current of 40 A. The armature resistance is 0.15 ohm and the field resistance is 0.05
ohm. Determine the maximum efficiency of the motor.

5. The synchronous speed of an induction motor is 900 rpm. Under a blocked-rotor condition, the input power to the
motor is 45 kW at 193.6 A. The stator resistance per phase is 0.2 ohm and the transformation ratio is 𝑎 = 2. Calculate
the motor starting torque. The stator and rotor are wye-connected.

6. Two identical 3-phase, wye-connected synchronous generators share equally a load of 10 MW at 33 kV and 0.8
lagging power factor. The synchronous reactance of each machine is 6 ohms per phase and armature resistance is
negligible. If one of the machines has its field excitation adjusted to carry 125 A lagging current, what is the current
supplied by the second machine? The prime mover inputs to both machines are equal.

7. A 13.8 kV Y-connected 60-Hz 12 pole three-phase synchronous generator has 180 stator slots with a double-layer
winding and eight turns per coil. The coil pitch in the stator is 12 slots. The conductors from all phase belts (or groups)
in a given phase are connected in series. What is this machine's winding factor?

8. A three-phase, 6-pole, 50 Hz induction motor develops maximum torque at 940 rpm. The rotor resistance per phase
is 0.1 ohm. What is the standstill rotor reactance?

9. Tappings in on-load tap changing transformers are provided on _____.

10. A transformer has a reactance of 0.04 pu. if the secondary of the transformer is short circuited with nominal
voltage applied to the primary, the symmetrical short circuit current will be _____.
 Test 3 (2)

1. A three-phase, four-pole, 50 Hz star-connected alternator has 60 slots with two conductors per slot and has
armature winding of the double-layer type. Coils are short-pitched; that is, if one coil side lies in slot number 1, the
other coil side lies in slot number 13. Find the useful flux per pole required to induce a line voltage of 6.6 kV.

2. A 4-pole, lap-connected DC machine has an armature resistance of 0.15 ohm. Find the armature resistance of the
machine if rewound for wave-connection.

3 A shunt generator has a full-load current of 196 A at 220 V. The stray losses are 720 W and the shunt field coil is 55
ohms. If it has a full-load efficiency of 88%, find the load current corresponding to maximum efficiency.

4. A 3-phase, 11-kVA, 10-MW, Y-connected synchronous generator has synchronous impedance of (0.8 + j8.0) ohms
per phase. If the excitation is such that the open circuit voltage is 14 kV, determine in kW the maximum power output
of the generator.

5. Find the no-load line voltage in Volts of a star-connected 3-phase, 6-pole alternator which runs at 1200 rpm, having
flux per pole of 0.1 Weber sinusoidally distributed. Its stator has 54 slots having double layer winding. Each coil has 8
turns and the coil is chorded by one slot. Do not round off intermediate steps. Keep all calculations in full precision
until the final step.

6. Two 3-phase, Y-connected, synchronous generators have a per-phase generated voltages of 120cis10 V and
120cis22 V under no load, and reactances of j5 ohms per phase and j8 ohms per phase, respectively. They are
connected in parallel to a load impedance of (4 + j3) ohms per phase. Determine the power supplied by each
generator in Watts

7. An 8-pole lap-wound DC generator has 70 slots in its armature with 22 conductors per slot. The ratio of pole arc to
pole pitch is 0.64. The diameter of the bore of the pole shoe is 0.48 m. The length of the pole shoe is 0.28 m. The air
gap flux density is 0.32 Tesla and the generated emf in the armature is 400 V. Find the speed of the generator.

8. A self-excited shunt DC generator has a constant loss of PC in watts and operates a voltage V and an armature
current la, and field current It. The armature resistance Ra and field resistance Rf. At what value of la is the generator
efficiency a maximum? Show your complete solution.

9. It works on the principle of electromagnetic induction, producing a secondary current that is proportional to the
primary current but at a lower magnitude.

10. This connection is used to transform a 3-phase system to 2-phase system or vice-versa. It consists of two identical
single phase transformers.
 Test 4 (1)

1. A separate portion of a conduit or tubing system that provides access through a removable cover(s) to the interior of
the system at a junction of two or more sections of the system or at a terminal point of the system. Conduit Body

2. A unit of an electrical system, other than a conductor, that is intended to carry or control but not utilize electric
energy. Device

3. Surrounded by a case, housing, fence, or wall(s) that prevents persons from accidentally contacting energized
parts. Enclosed

4. Without live parts exposed to a person on the operating side of the equipment. Dead-Front

5. An accessory such as a locknut, bushing, or other part of a wiring system that is intended primarily to perform a
mechanical rather than an electrical function. Fitting

6. The conductive path(s) that provides a ground-fault current path and connects normally non-current-carrying metal
parts of equipment together and to the system grounded conductor or to the grounding electrode conductor, or both.
Equipment Grounding Conductor

7. An accommodation combining living, sleeping, sanitary, and storage facilities within a compartment. Guest Room

8. It is the metal mounting structure for such items as receptacles, switches, switches with pilot lights, and
switch/receptacles to name a few. Yoke/Strap

9. The width of the working space shall be the width of the equipment enclosure or a minimum of _____ inches,
whichever is greater. 30 inches

10. The space equal to the width and depth of the equipment and extending from the floor to a height of _____ mm
above the equipment or to the structural ceiling, whichever is lower, shall be dedicated to the electrical installation. No
piping, ducts, leak protection apparatus, or other equipment foreign to the electrical installation shall be located in this
zone. 1800 mm

11. GFCI protection is not required for a refrigerator receptacle outlet unless it is located within _____ feet from the top
inside edge of the bowl of a kitchen sink. 6 feet

12. At least one receptacle outlet shall be installed in bathrooms within _____ mm of the outside edge of each basin.
The receptacle outlet shall be located on a wall or partition that is adjacent to the basin or basin countertop, located on
the countertop, or installed on the side or face of the basin cabinet. 900 mm

13. Receptacle must not be installed more than 12 inches below the countertop or work surfaces. Those installed
below a countertop or work surface must not be located where the countertop or work surface extends more than
_____ inches beyond its support base. 6 feet

14. For field installations, if tap conductors (taps not over 3000 mm long) leave the enclosure or vault in which the tap
is made, the ampacity of the tap conductors is not less than _____ of the rating of the overcurrent device protecting
the feeder conductors. 1/10

15. The ampacity of the tap conductors (taps not over 7500 mm long) is not less than _____ of the rating of the
overcurrent device protecting the feeder conductors. 1/3

16. What is the typical method used for vertical power distribution in high-rise buildings to minimize voltage drop and
improve efficiency? Bus Duct System

17. Which system is used to maintain electrical power for essential loads in a high-rise building during both short-term
and long-term outages? UPS and Generator

18. This type of power distribution system uses a single path for electricity to flow from the substation to the loads.
Radial Distribution System

19. A device that encloses circuit breakers, fuses, and protective equipment within an electrical distribution network.
Switchgear

20. A protective device that interrupts excessive current flow using air as the arc extinguishing medium. It provides
overcurrent, short circuit, and earth fault protection for feeders and transformers in medium-and-low-voltage electrical
systems. Air Circuit Breaker

21. The system that ensures electrical supply continuity by connecting multiple sources and loads in a loop
configuration. Loop Distribution System
22. These systems are implemented to comply with building codes and guarantee power supply to life safety
equipment, including exit lighting, fire alarms, and elevators. Legally Required

23. Provides seamless transfer with no power interruption, used for critical systems requiring continuous power.
Closed Transition ATS

24. Monitor electrical conditions and signal the circuit breakers to trip in case of abnormal conditions like short circuits
or overloads. Protective Relays

25. A piece of paper lies 2 m away from the point directly below a bulb of 100 cd and 4 m above the table. Calculate
the illumination on the center of the paper in lux.

26. A school classroom with a general dimension of 24 ft by 30 ft is lighted with 10 fluorescent fixtures each containing
4 40 W rapid start lamps. Calculate the initial and maintained illumination in foot candles and lux. Assuming the CU is
0.35 and DF is 0.70.

27. Which lighting phenomenon occurs when excessive brightness causes discomfort or reduces visibility in an
illuminated space? Glare

28. What is the term for the ratio of luminous flux emitted by a light source to the electrical power consumed, indicating
its efficiency? Efficacy

29. What is the unit of measurement for illuminance, representing the amount of light falling on a surface? Lux

30. Which photometric quantity measures the total visible light emitted by a source in all directions? Luminous Flux
 Test 4 (2)

1. GFCI protection is not required for a refrigerator receptacle outlet unless it is located within _____ feet from the top
inside edge of the bowl of a kitchen sink. 6 feet

2. At least receptacle outlets shall be installed in bathrooms within _____ mm of the outside edge of each basin. The
receptacle outlet shall be located on a wall or partition that is adjacent to the basin or basin countertop, located on the
countertop, or installed on the side or face of the basin cabinet. 900 mm

3. Receptacle must not be installed more than 12 inches below the countertop or work surfaces. Those installed below
a countertop or work surface must not be located where the countertop or work surface extends more than _____
inches beyond its support base. 6 inches

4. For field installations, if tap conductors (taps not over 3000 mm long) leave the enclosure or vault in which the tap is
made, the ampacity of the tap conductors is not less than _____ of the rating of the overcurrent device protecting the
feeder conductors. 1/10

5. The ampacity of the tap conductors (taps not over 7500 mm long) is not less than _____ of the rating of the
overcurrent device protecting the feeder conductors. 1/3

6. According to PEC 2017, Article 2.10.3.3 (C)(5), what is the maximum height in mm allowed for receptacle outlets
installed above countertops or work surfaces? 500 mm

7. According to PEC 2017, Article 6.95.1.17 (A), what is the maximum permissible voltage drop allowed at the fire
pump controller line terminals during motor starting conditions? 15% or less

8. The portion of a lightning protection system extending into the earth, such as a ground rod, ground plate or the
conductor itself, serving to bring the lighting protection system into electrical contact with the earth? Grounding
Electrode

9. The height of air terminals shall be such as to bring the tip not less than ____ mm above the object to be protected
for 6000 mm maximum intervals and not less than 600 mm above the object to be protected for 7600 mm maximum
intervals. 254 mm

10. Flat or gently sloping roofs which exceed 15 meters in width or span shall have additional air terminals at intervals
not exceeding _____ meters on the flat or gently sloping areas. 15 m

11. What device is used to measure and monitor current and voltage levels for protection in high-voltage switchgear
systems? Relay

12. What type of distribution system has multiple substations connected in series but operates independently in each
station? Interconnected Distribution System

13. What component in a substation transforms high voltage from transmission lines to a lower voltage suitable for
building distribution? Step-down Transformer

14. What term describes the primary point in a system where electrical power is divided and directed to multiple
circuits? Substation

15. What type of emergency power source uses renewable energy stored in batteries? Battery Energy Storage
System (ES)

16. What component in electrical distribution is responsible for directing power flow and preventing unauthorized
access to live circuits? Switchgear

17. What type of lighting is specifically used to reduce panic by illuminating open areas during an emergency? Open
Area (Anti-panic) Lighting

18. What component in emergency systems can operate without refueling for an extended period due to natural gas
supply? Natural Gas Generators

19. Which lighting design method is commonly used for calculating general lighting in large indoor spaces? Lumen
method

20. What factor is used to measure the ability of a light source to reproduce the colors of objects accurately compared
to natural light? Color Rendering Index

21. Which component in a lighting system helps regulate voltage and current in discharge lamps? Ballast
22. What is the recommended illuminance level for office workstations according to standard lighting guidelines? 500
lux

23. What is the unit of luminous flux? Lumen

24. Assume that all of the light emitted by a 150 W incandescent lamp (2850 lm) illuminates a 100 sq. ft. (9.29 sq. m.)
surface. Determine the average illumination of the surface in a foot candle.

25. A 500 candela light source (a source that gives off 500 lm of luminous flux in one direction) emits a beam of light.
Determine the illuminance (E) in foot candles, on a surface held perpendicular to and in line with the light beam at 10
ft distance.
 Test 5 (1)

1. A full wave center-tapped C-filtered power supply has a transformer with 5:1 turn ratio, with a supply of 110 Vac,
60Hz. What capacitance would be required to maintain a 10 V minimum voltage across a 1000 load? (Answer should
be whole number)

2. Calculate the voltage at TP3 and TP4.

3. What are the different triggering modes of a TRIAC? Sketch it.

4. Determine the approximate firing voltage and frequency of oscillation of the circuit shown below. Stand off ratio is
0.63.

5. Determine the minimum and maximum time to trigger the DIAC into conduction. The breakover voltage of the DIAC
is 32 volts.

6, The measured voltage across a resistor is 30.3 ± 0.1 Volts. The measured current through that resistor is 10.1 ± 0.3
Amperes. What is the value of resistance with its error percentage?

7. If the ammeter's resistance (Ra) is 150 in the diagram below, what is the minimum value of R that avoids loading
effects (make at least 95% of the voltage be across resistor R)?

8. What will the controller output be for a PD controller (a) initially and (b) 3 s after the error begins to change from the
zero error at the rate of 3 %/ss. The controller has 𝐾𝑝 = 4, and 𝑇𝑑 = 0. 8 𝑠𝑒𝑐.
−1
9. The PI controller has a value of 𝐾𝑖, of 0. 40 𝑠 , and 𝐾𝑝 = 6. What will be the output after times of (a) 1 s, and (b) 2
s? The % error is as illustrated:

10. What is the force produced by the piston with a radius of 55 mm if the pressure difference in a pneumatic cylinder
is 230 kPa? What is the hydraulic fluid flow if the speed of the piston is 85 dm/s?
5
11. Given 𝐹(𝑠) = 𝑠+3
, find 𝑓(𝑡).

2
12. Convert 𝑓(𝑡) = 5𝑡 to s-domain.
5
13. A first-order system is given by the transfer function: 𝐺(𝑠) = 2𝑠+1
. Find the rise time and delay time of the system.

𝑠+3
14. A unity feedback system has an open-loop transfer function: 𝐺(𝑠) = 3 2 . Determine the range of KKK for
𝑠 +4𝑠 +5𝑠+𝐾
which the system is stable using the Routh-Hurwitz Criterion.
4
15. A system has a closed-loop transfer function: 𝑇(𝑠) = 2 . Find the steady-state error for a unit step input.
𝑠 +2𝑠+4
 Test 5 (2)

1. What is the minimum number of tracks that an Absolute Encoder should have to gain a resolution that is better than
1.5°?

2. The resolution of a potentiometer (wire-wound coil with a rotatable sliding contact) is 40 µm; In the specification
sheet, it is written as ± 0.04% of full range. What is the full range? How many turns per mm should that sensor have?

3. What is the output span of a temperature controller with an 80% PB if its controller gain is 0.5 mA/°C and its input is
5-60 °C?

4. What is the pressure difference in a hydraulic cylinder having an internal diameter of 15 cm and a piston producing
a 10 kN force? What is the speed of the piston if the hydraulic fluid flow of 8000 cm3/s?

5.Determine the minimum and maximum time to trigger the DIAC Into conduction if its breakover voltage is 32 volts.

6.Determine the range of the output voltage of the circuit shown below.

7. What is the rms ripple voltage of a half-wave rectifier with output voltage 8 V dc?

8. In Figures a and b, the circults start conducting when exposed to light. Explain what happens when the circuit is
returned to a dark environment.9.If a full-wave rectifier is used in the circuit, will the ripple factor of the circuit be
greater than 2%? All inductors are identical with a value of 100 mH and also all capacitors are identical with a value of
22 uF. Justify your answer.

9. If a full-wave rectifier is used in the circuit, will the ripple factor of the circuit be greater than 2%? All inductors are
identical with a value of 100 mH and also all capacitors are identical with a value of 22 uF. Justify your answer.

10.Find the transfer function, G(s)=C(s)/R(s), corresponding to the differential equation

11.Determine the damping factor of the system.

(𝑠+1)(𝑠+2)
12. Given the transfer function: 𝐺(𝑠) = (𝑠+3)(𝑠+4)(𝑠+5)(𝑠+2−4𝑗)(𝑠+2+4𝑗)
, what is/are the poles of the function?

𝑠+3
13. A unity feedback system has an open-loop transfer function: 𝐺(𝑠) = 3 2 . Determine the range of KKK for
𝑠 +4𝑠 +5𝑠+𝐾
which the system is stable using the Routh-Hurwitz Criterion.
 Test 6 (1)

1. The simple solution to protecting workers when access to moving parts, such as belts and drive chains is not
required during operation. Guards

2. A serious workplace hazard that exposes workers to burns, electrocution, shock, arc flash/arc blast, fire, or
explosions. Electrical Hazard

3. The prime objective of accident investigation is: Prevention

4. Means that business owners, managers, and supervisors make worker safety and health a core organizational
value. Management, Management Leadership

5. The integrated system of transmission, distribution network and generating plants for the supply of electricity.
Power System

6. The high voltage backbone system of interconnected transmission lines, substations, and related facilities, located
in each of Luzon, Visayas, and Mindanao, or as may be determined by the ERC in accordance with Section 45 of the
Act. Grid

7. The process of automatically and deliberately removing pre-selected loads from a power system in response to an
abnormal condition in order to maintain the integrity of the power system. Automatic Load Dropping

8. The aggregate of the energy lost due to pilferage, meter reading errors, meter tampering, and any loss that is not
related to the physical characteristics and functions of the electric system. Technical Loss

9. The goal of this organization is to unite and enhance the electrical engineering profession development, ethics, and
the advancement of electrical engineering knowledge and technology. Institute of Integrated Electrical Engineers
of the Philippines, Inc.

10. It refers to the choice of electrical systems, including planning and detailing of requirements for protection, control,
monitoring, coordination and interlocking of electrical systems among others. Electrical System Design

11. Administers, implements, and enforces the regulatory laws and policies of the country with respect to the
regulation and licensing of the various professions and occupations under its jurisdiction, including the enhancement
and maintenance of professional and occupational standards and ethics and the enforcement of the rules and
regulations relative thereto. Professional Regulation Commission

12. A decision of suspension, revocation of the certificate of registration, delisting from the roll by the Board as
provided herein, may be appealed initially to the Commission within _____ days from receipt thereof. 15 days

13. It refers to the subsidized rate given to low-income captive market end-users who cannot afford to pay at full cost.
Lifeline Rate

14. Shall refer to the amount to be charged to the person concerned for the unbilled electricity illegally consumed as
determined through the use of methodologies outlined in Section 6 of RA 7832. Differential Billing

15. What test demonstrates that an embedded generating unit can start independently, synchronize with the grid
through the distribution system, and carry load without external power supply? Black Start Capability Test

16. What is the standard system that distributors must establish to uniquely identify substations, switchyards,
transformers, distribution lines, and other high-voltage equipment in all electrical diagrams and operational
documents? Site and Equipment Identification System

17. What type of test ensures that an embedded generating unit meets the required generation scheduling and
dispatch parameters by measuring synchronization time, ramp rates, and load reduction accuracy? Embedded
Generating Unit Capability Test

18 The system for numbering or naming equipment at connection points may not be standardized or consistently
followed, leading to confusion in maintenance, operation, and troubleshooting. Equipment Identification Issues

19. If a Grid Owner or User does not update or provide the correct electrical diagrams and equipment identification, it
can lead to operational inefficiencies, disputes, and safety concerns. Inaccurate or Outdated Connection Point
Drawings

20. The lack of a unified standard for identifying sites and equipment across different documents (such as electrical
diagrams and grid operation instructions) may cause miscommunication among stakeholders and delays in grid
operations. Site and Equipment Identification Discrepancies
21. What is the minimum vertical clearance required for overhead service conductors crossing a public street, as per
NEC and PEC? 5.5 meters, 18 feet

22. What is the required color coding for grounded (neutral) conductors in a 480/277 V system? White, Gray

23. What test is performed to check a transformer’s insulation resistance? Insulation Resistance Test

24. What is the minimum depth for a ground rod in a standard electrical grounding system? 2.4 meters, 8 feet

25. What is the minimum bending radius for a 2-inch rigid metal conduit? 10 inches

26. What is the maximum distance allowed between supports for PVC conduit in a horizontal run? 1.5 meters, 5 feet

27. What is the minimum cover requirement for a direct-buried metallic conduit under sidewalk? 150 mm, 6 inches

28. What hazardous area classification is given to an environment with flammable gas present under normal operating
conditions? Class 1, Division 1

29. What is the flash protection boundary for an arc flash hazard of 8 cal/cm2? 18 inches

30. What is the minimum battery backup duration required for emergency lighting systems in commercial buildings?
90 minutes

31. Who is the current chairman of the PRC-BEE? Engr. Francis V. Mapile

32. The official seal of the Professional Electrical Engineer as provided in RA 7920 has a horizontal diametral space of
_____ mm across the inner circle for the name of the registrant. 6 mm

33. RA 7920 contains how many sections all in all? 45 sections

1. What is the required maximum transfer time for an emergency generator to restore power? 10 seconds

2. What electrical test is used to detect insulation failure before it causes equipment breakdown? Insulation
Resistance Test

3. What is the required frequency of infrared thermography inspection for electrical panels in industrial facilities? At
least Annually

4. What test is performed to check the phase sequence of a three-phase motor? Phase Sequence Test, Phase
Rotation Test

5. What is the standard maximum length of a structured Ethernet cable run in a commercial building? 90 meters

6. What is the required separation distance between power cables and data cables in a cable tray? 12 inches

7. What type of grounding is required for telecommunications equipment to prevent signal interference? Single Point
Grounding

8. According to NEC and PEC, what is the minimum working clearance required in front of a 600V-rated electrical
panel where live parts are exposed and servicing is required? 3 feet

9. What is the maximum allowable resistance of a grounding electrode system for a building's electrical service,
according to NEC and IEEE? 25 ohms

10. What section of R.A. 7920 defines the scope of practice for Professional Electrical Engineers, Registered
Electrical Engineers, and Registered Master Electricians? Section 32

11. Which specific article and section of R.A. 7920 outlines the qualifications required for a Professional Electrical
Engineer (PEE) applicant, including the submission of a technical report? Article III (Examination and Registration,
Section 16

12. Under R.A. 7920, what is the required number of years of practical electrical engineering experience before an
applicant can qualify for the Professional Electrical Engineer (PEE) licensure? 4 years or more

13. What section of R.A. 7920 specifies the powers and duties of the Professional Regulatory Board of Electrical
Engineering (PRC Board of Electrical Engineering)? Section 4

14. According to R.A. 7920, what specific act is considered a violation when a person uses the title "Professional
Electrical Engineer" without being duly registered and licensed? Title Misrepresentation

15. According to R.A. 7832, what is the minimum and maximum imprisonment penalty for a person found guilty of
intentionally altering or tampering with an electric meter to reduce electricity consumption? 6 years and 1 day to 12
years (Prision Mayor)

16. What specific section of R.A. 7832 outlines the liability of business establishments found with illegal electrical
connections, and what is the consequence if the illegal act is committed by an officer or employee? Section 7, 1
degree higher the penalty

17. What formula is used under R.A. 7832 to estimate unregistered electric consumption in cases where an electric
𝑊𝑁𝐻
meter has been tampered with or bypassed? 𝑘𝑊ℎ = 1000

18. The official seal of the Professional Electrical Engineer as provided in RA7920 has a horizontal diametral space of
mm across the inner circle for the name of the registrant. 6 mm

19. RA 7920 contains how many sections all in all? 45 sections

20. What center of DOLE in the Philippines requires BOSH training for safety officers in workplaces? Occupational
Safety and Health Center (OSHC)

21. Under the DOLE Occupational Safety and Health Standards (OSHS), what is the minimum number of training
hours required for BOSH certification? 40 hours

22. In BOSH training, what is the term used for identifying workplace hazards, assessing risks, and implementing
control measures? Hazard Identification, Risk Assessment, and Control (HIRAC)

23. According to BOSH principles, what is the hierarchy of controls used to eliminate or reduce workplace hazards?
Elimination
24. Under the OSH Law (R.A. 11058), what is the required safety officer designation for a company with more than 50
employees? Safety Officer II (SO2) or 1 full-time
 Test 7 (1)

1. A 100 MW hydroelectric station is supplying a full load for 10 hrs in a day. Calculate the volume of water, which has
been used. Assume the effective head of the water as 200 m and the overall efficiency of the station as 80%. Assume
1 m3 of water is 100kg.

2. A natural waterfall, 50 meters high, consistently discharges 1.3 m3 per second. A mini hydroelectric plant is to be
constructed at the bottom of the waterfalls. Calculate the annual energy in kWh that can be generated by the power
plant. Assume the turbine generator efficiencies equal to 70% and 90% respectively.

3. An industrial plant has an aggregate load of 100 kW. The demand factor is 60%. If the average total energy
consumption of the plant in one year is 186 MWh, what is the annual load factor of the plant?

4. A power plant has two 75 MW generator sets each operating at 7200 hours per year and 50 MW generator sets
operating at 3000 hours per year. If the plant output is 800 x 106 kWh per year, solve for plant use factor.

5. If the power plant has a peak demand of 15 MW, capacity factor of 52.5%, use factor 85% and 70% load factor, find
the maximum energy that could be produced daily when the plant operation is fully loaded?

6. A distribution transformer has a connected toad of 300 Hp motor operating at 70% load factor and 50% demand
factor. The energy cost is 4 pesos per kW-Hr. What is the average kW load if the efficiency is 80%?

7. A 100 MW coal fired power plant has an average heat rate of 9, 500 BTU/kW-hr. The plant load factor is 75% and
the heating value of coal is 12,000 BTU/lb. calculate the amount of coal usage for one day?

8. Each core or conductor is provided with a suitable thickness of insulation, the thickness of layer depending upon the
voltage to be withstood by the cable. The commonly used materials for insulation are impregnated paper, varnished
cambric or rubber mineral compound.In order to protect armoring from atmospheric conditions, a layer of fibrous
material is provided over the armoring. Insulation

9. In order to protect the cable from moisture, Conductor gases or other damaging liquids (acids or alkalis) in the soil
and atmosphere, a metallic sheath of lead or aluminium is provided over the insulation. Metallic Sheath

10. Over the metallic sheath is applied a layer of bedding which consists of a fibrous material like jute or hessian tape.
Bedding

11. Its purpose is to protect the cable from mechanical injury while laying it and during the course of handling.
Armouring may not be done in the case of some cables. Armouring

12. In order to protect armouring from atmospheric conditions, a layer of fibrous material (like jute) similar to bedding
is provided over the armouring. Serving
 Test 8 (1)

1. A 69-kV three phase transposed line is composed of one ACSR 336,400 cmil, 36/7 Linnet conductor per phase with
a horizontal configuration of D125ft, D235ft and D31-10 ft. the conductors have a diameter of 0.721-inch, resistance of
0.306 ohm per mile and gmr of 0.0244 ft. What is the reactance for the 12 miles line?

2. A transmission line with an impedance of 4 + j7.5 ohms is supplying a load of 1000 kW at 80% lagging. What is the
sending end power factor for a receiving end voltage equal to 13.2 kV?

3. The ABCD constants of a 60 Hz, 3-phase long transmission line are as follows: A = D = 0.877 @ 1.57°; B = 191.62
@ 79.10°; C = 0.0012 @ 90.4°. This supplies 100 MW load at 230 kV with 90% power factor. What is the magnitude of
the sending voltage?

4. A three-phase double circuit line has horizontal spacing of 40 ft and vertical spacing between adjacent levels of 25
ft Determine the mutual GMD of the line?

5. A 34.5 kV feeder line 5 miles long. The conductors are spaced 4 feet horizontally. The conductor is 4/0 copper GMR
of 0.01668 ft. What is the reactance?

6. A 100 MW power station delivers 100-MW for 2 hours, 50 MW for 8 hours and is shut down for the rest of each day.
It is also shut down for maintenance for 60 days each year. Calculate its annual load factor.

7. The metering of a power customer was read and gave the following data:
kW-Hr —--------------------------------------- 200,000;
KVar-Hr —------------------------------------- 180,000;
Maximum demand —---------------------- 380 kW;
Billing days —-------------------------------- 30;

What is the load factor?

8. A consumer requires 2 x 106 kW-hr per year and its yearly load factor is 30 percent. What is its maximum demand?

9. A power plant gets water from a dam from a height of 122.45 m at the rate of 1000 cubic meters per minute. If the
output of the plant is 15,000kW, what is the plant efficiency?

10. A hydroelectric station has a turbine efficiency of 80% and generator efficiency of 85%. Determine the volume of
water required when delivering load of 40 MW for 6 hours if its effective head is 120 m. Water weighs 1200 kg/m3.
 Test 9 (1)

Circuits 1

1. The specific resistance p depends upon the nature of the material of the conductor only

2. For a given line voltage, four heating coils will produce maximum heat when connected: All in parallel

3. In any closed loop in a network, the algebraic sum of the voltage drops (i.e., products of current and resistance)
taken around the loop is equal to the resultant e.m.f. acting in that loop. This is known as: Voltage Law

4. If a complex circuit is reduced to an equivalent circuit consisting of a single current source in parallel with a single
resistor, this is an example of: Norton’s Theorem

5. Four wires of the same material, same cross-sectional area, and same length, when connected in parallel, give a
resistance of 0.5 ohms. If the same four wires are connected in series, their effective resistance will be: 8 Ω

Circuits 2

If two waves have the same frequency and the same amplitude, but opposite phase, the composite wave is: Zero

What will happen to the susceptance of a capacitor if the frequency is doubled, all other things being equal? It will
double

Calculate the effective value of v(t) = 100 sin400t + 50 sin 800t + 10 cos 1200t V. 79.4 V

A wire carries a current, i = 3 cos 314t A. What is the average current over 6 s? 0 A

A source of 100 Vrms is supplying resistance 80 ohms in parallel with a 200 mH inductor. What angle is the current lag
or lead? 46.7° lagging

Electronic Circuits: Devices and Analysis

A semiconductor in an extremely pure form is called an: Intrinsic Semiconductor

The contact surface when a P-type semiconductor is joined with an N-type semiconductor is called a: PN Junction

The application of an external DC voltage to the junction in a direction such that it cancels the potential barrier is
called: Forward biasing

The circuit often referred to as DC restorers because they are used to restore a DC level to a signal that has been
processed through capacitively coupled amplifiers is called: Clamping Circuit

The maximum efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is ____. 81.2 %

Fundamentals of Electronic Communication

Communication equipment that incorporates circuits that both send and receive signals is called a: Transceiver

A two-way communication use to transmit and receive data simultaneously in both directions: Full Duplex

The frequency range of Ultra High Frequency (UHF) is: 300 MHz-3 GHz

The portion of the electromagnetic spectrum occupied by a signal is called: Bandwidth

The process of imposing information contained in a lower-frequency electronic signal onto a higher-frequency signal is
called: Modulation

Electrical Circuits 1: DC Machinery

How would you determine, from visual observation of the armature winding, whether a generator is lap or wave
wound? the direction of the end connection
The shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both the series field and the armature. This connection
is known as: long shunt

Which loss in dc generator varies with load? copper loss

The torque of a motor is the product of tangential force on the rotor and its radius

What will happen if the supply terminals of a dc shunt motor are interchanged? Motor will run at its normal speed in
the same direction as it was running

Electrical Circuits 2: AC Machinery

When the speed of an alternator increases, the frequency increases

A winding is short pitched by 60 degrees electrical. Its pitch factor is 0.866

The method most commonly used for synchronizing the alternators in a power house is: bright lamp method and a
synchroscopе

The rotor speed of an induction motor is slower than the synchronous speed

Short circuit test on the induction motor can be used to find out

​ - the transformation ratio of the induction motor

​ - power scale of circle diagram

​ - copper losses in the induction motor

Electrical Apparatus and Devices

Ideal transformer assumptions do not include zero reactance of windings

Eddy current losses in transformer core are reduced by decreasing the thickness of laminations

At every instant, the direction of secondary current in a transformer must be such as to oppose any change in flux.
This is in accordance with Lenz’s law

If in a transformer the secondary turns are doubled and as the same time the primary voltage is reduced by half, then
the secondary voltage will not change

If we increase the flux density in the case of a transformer the size of the transformer will reduce

Illumination Engineering Design

Visible light that passes through, emits from, or reflects off an object is called: Luminance

The primary function of capacitor across the supply to the fluorescent tube is to Improve the supply power factor

Which of the following lighting control methods uses a special blue tinted glass for filament lamps to reduce unwanted
radiation? Absorption

Refers to the control of shadows cast by light. It is the degree to which light is shadowless. Diffuseness

Is the difference in brightness or the brightness ratio between an object and its background. Contrast

Electrical System Design

The ampacity of the tap conductors (taps not over 7500 mm long) is not less than _ of the rating of the overcurrent
device protecting the feeder conductors. 1/3
The width of the working space shall be the width of the equipment enclosure or a minimum of ___ inches, whichever
is greater. 30 inches

What is the minimum height of receptacle for outdoor outlets? 2000 mm

A device intended for the protection of personnel that function to energize a circuit or portion thereof within the
established period of time when current to the ground exceeds the values established for class A device. GFCI

What is the allowable voltage drop from the farthest outlet to the lighting panel? 3%

High Rise Building Design

What is the recommended system for maintaining power supply to computer systems during outages?

​ Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) System

These are electrically controlled switches used to control power to large motors or lighting systems.

​ Contactors

Provides seamless transfer with no power interruption, used for critical systems requiring continuous power.

​ Closed Transition ATS

What component in emergency systems can operate without refueling for an extended period due to natural gas
supply?

​ Natural Gas Generator

A high-rise building power supply requirement that includes intrusion and hold-up control systems, fire suppression,
background music, paging, video facilities, and noise masking is called:

​ Auxiliaries

Feedback Control System

The transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of:

Output to input

A feedback system with negative feedback:

​ Improves accuracy and reduces noise

Which of the following elements provides the actual correction in a feedback system?

​ Actuator

The Laplace transform is primarily used in control systems to:

​ Simplify time-domain equations

Which time-domain specification measures how fast a system responds?

​ Rise time

Industrial Electronics

A type of voltage regulator for providing stable reference voltages for use in power supplies, voltmeters, and other
instruments is called a:

​ Zener Diode

High-current diodes used primarily in high-frequency and fast-switching applications are called:
​ Schottky Diodes

A device constructed with three doped semiconductor regions (base, collector, emitter) separated by two PN junctions
(base-emitter junction and collector-base junction) is called a:

​ Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT)

The gate of the _____ is insulated from the channel by a silicon dioxide (SiO₂) layer instead of a PN junction structure.

​ Metal Oxide Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor (MOSFET) ​

A device that can be turned on by a pulse of gate current and does not require the breakover voltage to initiate
conduction is called a:

​ TRIAC

Instrumentation and Control

Changes in liquid level cause the float to move and hence move the slider over the potentiometer resistance.

​ Float

In a Power Steering position control system, the input to the system is the angular position of the steering wheel.

​ Angular Position

The term regulator is sometimes used for a control system for maintaining a plant output constant in the presence of
external disturbances.

​ Regulator

In PLCs, there are elements, called internal relays, that behave like relays, being able to be switched on or off and, in
turn, switch other devices on or off.

​ Internal Relay

The feedback signal changes because the room temperature changes and so is fed back to modify the input to the
system. This type of system control is called _____.

​ Closed Loop

Electrical Standards and Practices

What organization is responsible for setting electrical installation codes in the Philippines?

​ Philippine Electrical Code (PEC)

The National Electrical Manufacturers Association (NEMA) is known for creating standards related to:

​ Electrical manufacturing products and equipment

Which of the following standards is not primarily concerned with electrical safety?

​ Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)

The NEMA rating NEMA 1 is suitable for:

​ Indoor use in dry locations

The NFPA 70E standard is focused on:

​ Electrical safety in the workplace

EE Laws, Codes, and Professional Ethics

​ Philippine Electricity Market Corporation

In the Philippine Distribution Code, the utility requires the consumer to operate at a power factor not less than percent.

​ 85%

Sec 17 b of Article 3 of RA 7920. Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for REE, states that an
applicant is at least how many years old?

​ 21

The overall energy program formulated and updated yearly by the DOE and submitted to congress pursuant to RA
7638.

​ Philippine Energy Plan (PEP)

PRC Renewal Law

​ RA 8981

Basic Occupational Safety and Health

Rule 1080 of the Occupational Safety and Health Standards (OSHS) pertains to:

​ Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

The inspection for the purpose of safety determination of boilers, pressure vessels, internal combustion engines,
electrical installations, elevators, hoisting equipment, and other mechanical equipment is called:

​ Technical Safety Inspection

In a highly hazardous workplace, for 51 to 200 workers, the required number of supervisors or technical personnel in
occupational safety and health is:

​ 1 full-time and 1 part-time safety officers

The best type of fire extinguisher for an electrical fire is a:

​ Dry chemical extinguisher

An electrician should always consider the circuit to be "hot" unless he definitely knows otherwise. The main reason is
to avoid _____.

​ Personal Injury

Fundamentals of Power Plant Engineering Design

Converts energy of water to mechanical energy

​ Turbine

For economy in generation power

​ Plant Utilization Factor should be HIGH

The ratio (maximum demand of the installation) / (sum of individual maximum demand) is known as

​ Diversity Factor

A gas turbine power plant usually suits for

​ Peak Load Operation

During load shedding

High Voltage Underground Cable Design

____ is capable of carrying current under standard working settings, overload situations, and short-circuit conditions.
Conductor

The concentration of electric current flow near the conductors' edges is known as the ____. Skin effect

____ provides mechanical protection from various stresses the cable may get exposed to during its installation and
operational life. Armouring

____ is a class of nominal system voltages equal to or greater than 100 kV and equal to or less than 230 kV. High
Voltage (HV)

____ is also used to locate earth faults or short-circuit faults in underground cables. This test also employs the
Wheatstone bridge principle. Varley Loop Test

Distribution Systems and Substation Design

What is the ratio of the average load over a period of time to the peak load occurring in that period? Load Factor

What is the ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands to the maximum demand of the whole system? Diversity
Factor

What is the ratio of the maximum demand of a system to the total connected load? Demand Factor

What is the ratio of the actual output of a power plant over a period of time to its potential output if it had operated at
full capacity the entire time? Capacity Factor

What is the ratio of the maximum demand on a device to the rated capacity of that device? Utilization Factor

Power System Analysis

What is the term for the equivalent radius of a conductor that accounts for the effect of its internal distribution of
current in inductance calculations? Geometric Mean Radius

What is the term used to define the equivalent spacing between conductors in a transmission line when calculating
inductance? Geometric Mean Distance

What is the typical range of a long transmission line in terms of length? More than 250 km

Which transmission line model is used to represent a long line where shunt capacitance is divided equally at both
ends of the line? Nominal π Model

What is the phenomenon where the receiving-end voltage of a transmission line becomes greater than the
sending-end voltage under no-load or light-load conditions? Ferranti Effect