PRACTICE TEST 1

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 1 to 5.
Every year several thousand people died in the car accidents in Great Britain. And between
one and two hundred thousand people are hurt.
There are rules to make the roads safe, but people do not always obey the rules. They are
careless. If everybody obeys the rules, the road will be much safer. How can we make the roads
safer?
Remember this rule. In Great Britain, traffic keeps to the left. Cars, buses and bikes must all
keep to the left side of the road. In most other countries, traffic keeps to the right.
Before crossing the road, stop and look both ways. Look right and left. Then, if you are sure
that the road is clear, it is safe to cross the road. If you see small children or very old people, help
them to cross the road. We must teach our children to cross the road safely. We must always give
them a good example. Small children must not play in the street.
1. If we want to make the roads safer, ________.
A. everybody must be careful and obey the traffic rules
B. traffic should keep to the right
C. we should not cross the road too often
D. all the roads must be clear
2. If you ride a bike in Great Britain, you must ride ________.
A. on the right side of the road
B. on the left side of the road
C. in the middle of the road
D. behind the buses
3. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Few people die in the traffic accidents in Great Britain.
B. In our country traffic keeps to the right.
 C. Cars kill many people every year.
D. Streets are not safe places for playing.
4. What does it mean by "The road is clear."?
A. The road is not noisy.
B. The road is very clean.
C. There is no car or bus running.
D. You can see clearly on the road.
5. The safe way to cross the road is to ________.
A. look right only B. look left, and look ahead
C. run cross the road without looking D. look both ways, right and left
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 10.
Coronavirus germs live in people’s throats and mouths. When someone who has the
coronavirus coughs or sneezes or breathes out, the germs come (26) ________ their mouth in tiny
drops of water.
Though you can’t see the germs, you can sometimes see these tiny drops. In cold weather,
they make a cloud of steam! So if someone else (27) ________ breathes in the air with the
coronavirus germs in it, they would probably get the illness.
It’s easy to get the coronavirus germs from inside your body on your hands (28) ________
you touch your nose or your mouth. If the person with the coronavirus germs on their hands uses
a door, the invisible germs can live on the handle for hours. When someone else opens the door,
they (29) ________ the germs on their hands too. And if they touch their nose or mouth, the germs
can get into their body.
So you (30) ________ also catch the coronavirus by touching things that someone with the
virus has already touched.
6. A. into B. out of C. to D. because of
7. A. accidentally B. generally C. decisively D. usually
8. A. what B. when C. which D. unless
9. A. make B. bring C. get D. search
10. A. should B. need C. must D. can

PRACTICE TEST 2
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 1 to 5.
New York has Central Park; London has Hyde Park, while Kuala Lumpur has its own piece
of green belt amidst the hustle and bustle of city life. It’s an ideal place for a leisurely stroll in a
tranquil setting, all without having to leave the city. The Lake Gardens was created by Sir Alfred
Venning, who persuaded the ruling government to allow him to turn a swamp land into rambling
trails with man-made lakes, spanning 60 hectares. However, as the city expanded, the Lake
Gardens reduced in size. However, it is still a sizeable area and boasts of more than just grass and
water within its grounds.
For example, the gardens incorporate the National Monument, Bird Park, Hibiscus Garden as
well as Malaysia’s Parliament House.
Additionally, Carcosa Seri Negara is on a hilltop overlooking the Lake Gardens. Today, the
nineteenth-century British colonial mansion has been converted into a exclusive hotel.
1. According to the passage, what do New York, London and Kuala Lumpur have in common?
A. They each have a lake in the city.
B. They each have a swamp land in the city.
C. They each have a park in the middle of the city.
D. They each have a 60-hectare garden in the city.
2. The underlined word "tranquil" in the first paragraph probably means ________.
A. ideal B. peaceful C. sizeable D. noisy
3. In the Lake Gardens, you can visit the following spaces EXCEPT ________.
A. Hyde Park B. the Bird Park
C. the Hibiscus Garden D. the National Monument
4. Over time, the Lake Gardens has become smaller because ________.
A. it is swampy B. of development
C. of the heat and noise D. it is getting overpopulated
5. The Carcosa Seri Negara is now a ________.
A. park B. museum C. mansion D. hotel
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 10.
Until he was ten, young Alexander Fleming attended the nearby Loudoun Moor School. He
was then transferred to Darvel School (26) ________ he attended with his brothers. Alexander
learned a good deal about nature during that four mile downhill hike to school and the four-mile
uphill return (27) ________ . He was a quick student and at twelve, the age limit prescribed for
Darvel School, he was sent to Kilmarmock Academy. Two years (28) ________ , he joined his
brothers, John and Robert, at the home of his elder brother Thomas, who was to become a
successful oculist in London. (29) ________ , Alexander was forced to leave school for economic
reasons. When he was sixteen, he obtained a job in a shipping company. Good fortune, however,
was on his side and the side of humanity. In 1901, he (30) ________ a share in a legacy which
made it possible for him to return to school. He decided to study medicine.
6. A. which B. what C. where D. when
7. A. coming B. travel C. trip D. voyage
8. A. after B. later C. following D. next
9. A. Although B. Moreover C. Also D. However
10. A. received B. managed C. succeeded D. included

PRACTICE TEST 3
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 1 to 5.
Everyone wants a job that pays well. Some people stop school early because they want to start
earning cash right away. Others spend years and years studying in school in order to get a better
job. Which is best? Actally, studies show that in most jobs, the higher your education, the higher
your earning power.
For example, in the United States, high school graduates can make about $30,400 a year. The
people who do not finish high school average only $23,400 a year. Just having a document that
says you finished high school means an extra $7,000!
If you stay in school, you can make more money. A person who goes to college and gets a
bachelor’s degree can make an average of $52,200. With a master’s degree, he or she can make
about $62,000. And studies show that if a person gets a PhD, he or she can make $89,000 or more
a year.
Of course, people with different occupations have different salaries. If you want to work and
make more money, spend more time in school.
1. Why does the passage say some people stop high school early?
A. They do not have a lot of money.
B. They do not like going to school.
C. They do not want to work hard.
 D. They want to start making money.
2. The underlined phrase "earning power" in the passage probably means
A. ability to make money B. power to spend money
C. getting education D. earning reputation
3. According to the passage, how can a person earn more money?
A. By stopping high school
B. By staying in school for a long time
C. By working a part-time job in high school
D. By starting a small business
4. Which of these ideas is mentioned in the passage?
A. Everyone should get a master’s degree.
B. Graduating high school is important.
C. A person should do the same job their whole life.
D. A person with a PhD will not earn a lot of money.
5. Why was this passage written?
A. To make school more fun
B. To teach people how to set goals
C. To encourage people to stay in school
D. To help people who score poorly on tests
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 10.
Large forests are important to us in many ways. They give us wood (26) ________ building
and heating. They are a home for many kinds of plants and animals. And for many city people,
forests are a place to go for a vacation. People can (27) ________ about nature there. They can
enjoy fresh air and sleep in a(n) (28) ________ place. But there is one more reason (29) ________
forests are important to everyone. The leaves on the trees in a forest help to clean the air. Dirty air
is a serious problem in many (30) ________ of the world. Without our forests, this problem might
be much worse.
6. A. to B. for C. from D. about
7. A. learn B. talk C. research D. explore
8. A. interesting B. noisy C. exciting D. quiet
9. A. what B. that C. why D. when
10. A. parts B. areas C. districts D. countries

PRACTICE TEST 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 1 to 5.
Today, millions of people want to learn or improve their English but it is difficult to find the
best method. Is it better to study in Britain or America or to study in your own country?
The advantages of going to Britain seem obvious. Firstly, you will be able to listen to the
language all the time. You will be surrounded completely by the language wherever you go.
Another advantage is that you have to speak the language if you are with other people. At home,
it is always possible to speak Vietnamese if you want to and the learning is slower.
On the other hand, there are also advantages to staying at home to study. You don’t have to
make big changes to your life. As well as this, it is also a lot cheaper than going to Britain but it is
never possible to achieve the results of living in the UK. If you have a good teacher, I think you
can learn in a more concentrated way than being in Britain without going to a school.
So, in conclusion, I think that if you have enough time and enough money, the best choice is
to spend some time in the UK. This is simply not possible for most people, so being at home is the
only viable option. The most important thing to do in this situation is to maximise your
opportunities: to speak only English in class and to try to use English whenever possible outside
the class.
1. What is probably the topic of the passage?
A. How many people learn English
B. The best way to learn English
C. English schools in England and America
D. Learning English in Viet Nam
2. What is one of the advantages of going to the UK to learn English?
A. There are no Vietnamese people in Britain.
B. There are very good teachers of English there.
C. You will have to speak English and not your language.
D. The language schools in the UK are always better.
3. What is one of the advantages of staying at home to learn English?
 A. The teachers aren’t very good in Britain.
B. You have to work too hard to make money in Britain.
C. You can concentrate on learning English only.
D. Your life can continue more or less as it was before.
4. The underlined word "viable" in the passage probably means ________.
A. possible B. understandable C. important D. careful
5. People who don’t have a lot of time and money should ________.
A. learn English in Britain
B. try and speak English in class more often
C. go to America to learn English
D. speak English more outside the class
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 10.
On 4 October 1957 the first satellite, Sputnik, was launched. Since then, thousands of
spacecrafts have been sent (26) ________ space. Every few weeks new satellites are put into orbit.
Unfortunately, space is being (27) ________ by debris from these space flights. More than 70,000
objects have been left in space. Parts of rockets have been left. Old satellites have been abandoned.
Other items, including a glove, a spanner and a camera, have been (28) ________ by astronauts.
The situation up there is becoming dangerous. Both Russian and American spacecraft have been
destroyed. (29) ________ astronaut would be killed if he or she was hit by a piece of rubbish. It
would cost billions of dollars to collect all the debris, but if nothing is done the (30) ________ will
only get worse. Sooner or later a satellite will be damaged by a large piece of rubbish and thousands
more pieces of debris will be scattered.
6. A. to B. into C. from D. with
7. A. polluted B. ruined C. destroyed D. dirtied
8. A. missed B. gone C. thrown D. lost
9. A. An B. a C. the D. Ø
10. A. state B. place C. situation D. position

PRACTICE TEST 5
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 1 to 5.
 In 79 A.D., the ancient Roman city of Pompeii was destroyed by the eruption of a nearby
volcano, Mt. Vesuvius. Although many other cities in history have been victims to eruptions of
volcanoes and their deadly gas, lava, and ash, what makes Pompeii especially interesting is what
happened years later. In 1748, explorers in the Italian region where Pompeii once stood made an
incredible discovery. Buried underneath layers of dirt, the city of Pompeii remained preserved.
The original volcanic explosion had happened so quickly that most of the citizens were unable to
escape. Their remains and the buildings of the city were still there, preserved, as if the year was
still 79 A.D. instead of 1748. Some were frozen as if running from the fiery inferno while others
were engaged in normal daily activities. The layers of dust had frozen the day in history.
Archeologists would later begin the careful process of excavating the now famous city from
the layers of ash. The tragedy of Pompeii is the loss of the city and the approximately two thousand
people who died during the eruption. Ironically, the deadly eruption helped preserve Pompeii so
that no one will ever forget the name of this ancient Roman civilization.
1 .What was the author’s purpose in writing this text?
A. To inform B. To entertain C. To persuade D. To explain
2. What conclusion can be drawn about the people of Pompeii in the year 79 A.D.?
A. Most of the citizens were farmers.
B. Women and men were treated equally.
C. The citizens of Pompeii were not prepared for the eruption of Mt. Vesuvius.
D. The people of Pompeii were unconcerned about living near an active volcano.
3. Using the information from the text, what can you infer an archeologist might do as part of his
or her job?
A. Study modern events to better understand connections to the past.
B. Teach history at the university level.
C. Create buildings that have similar architectural designs of the past.
D. Excavate and study past civilizations and their artifacts.
4. The underlined word "Some" in the text refers to some ________.
A. citizens B. remains C. buildings D. activities
5. Which of the following can be proven true from the information given in the text?
A. Archaeologists believe Pompeii is the greatest historical discovery of its kind.
B. The 1748 discovery of Pompeii is considered a significant historical discovery.
C. All of the citizens of Pompeii could have survived if they had been given warning.
 D. Mt. Vesuvius will erupt again within the next ten years.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 10.
Scientists and doctors say that about 55 million Americans are too fat. Why is this? One (26)
________ is the kind of food Americans eat. Many Americans like "fast foods". These foods (such
as hamburgers and ice-cream) often have fattening things in them. (27) ________ cause is the way
Americans eat. They often eat little snacks between regular meals. These extra foods (28)
________ extra fat on the body. A third cause is that they do not take enough exercise. Americans
like driving every where in stead of walking. They often have (29) ________ to do a lot of the
work for them. Some Americans are also too heavy (30) ________ health problems. But for most
of those 55 million people, the problem is the American lifestyle.
6. A. way B. source C. cause D. ground
7. A. Other B. Another C. The other D. Others
8. A. add B. put C. include D. make
9. A. equipment B. machines C. vehicles D. tools
10. A. instead of B. in spite of C. according to D. because of
PRACTICE TEST 6
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 1 to 5.
The Twin Towers
The side-by-side towers in New York City, which were home to Manhattan’s World Trade
Center, were more commonly known as the Twin Towers. Each skyscraper was an incredible one
hundred and ten stories high. Then, on September 11,2001, the World Trade Center was attacked
by terrorists. What happened on that date in history should never be forgotten.
The attack on September 11th was not the first time the area had been targeted. In 1993, a
bomb had been detonated in the North Tower. This explosion killed six people and injured
thousands of others. The tower, however, was able to withstand the explosive power of the blast.
In 2001, both towers were attacked. Two planes were flown directly into the buildings. The
effect of these attacks was immediately catastrophic. Neither building was built to withstand such
structural damage, and the collapse of each building was imminent. The South tower fell in less
than one hour after being attacked, and the North tower collapsed soon afterwards. Both towers
were completely gone. The land where the World Trade Center once stood is now known as
Ground Zero. The day when the towers were attacked is remembered as one of the most infamous
days in America’s history.
1. What is most likely the reason the World Trade Center buildings were called the Twin Towers?
 A. The two buildings had similar working hours.
B. The two buildings were built on the same acre of land.
C. The two buildings were identical in design.
D. The two buildings were nothing alike.
2. The underlined word "detonated" most probably means ________.
A. attacked B. exploded C. constructed D. damaged
3. Which statement is a fact about the story?
A. The World Trade Center was attacked more than once.
B. The buildings would have survived if they had not been identical in design.
C. September 11,2001 is the most infamous date in America’s history.
D. No one should ever construct another building at Ground Zero.
4. The underlined word "infamous" as used in the text is closest in meaning to
A. famous for something bad B. interesting and admirable
C. famous for good quality D. attractive and long-lasting
5. Which title would be a good alternative for this text?
A. September: A Bad Month B. The End of Time
C. A Day When All Hope Died D. The World Trade Center Attack
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 10.
What do we mean when we speak of a calorie? Well, we know that the food we eat is (26)
________ and provides heat. Some foods can provide much heat and other foods provide very
little. The foods (27) ________ provide much heat provide many calories. We measure the amount
of heat a food provides in calories, just as we measure your (28) ________ in inches or your weight
in pounds. A calorie is a measure of the heat required to (29) ________ the temperature of one
gram of water one degree centigrade. One calorie of food can also raise one pound of matter to a
height of 40 inches. Two thousand calories a day of food in the body can provide a lot of heat and
the (30) ________ to do a lot of work.
6. A. burn B. burning C. burned D. to burn
7. A. what B. that C. whom D. whether
8. A. height B. length C. width D. weight
9. A. produce B. raise C. lower D. change
10. A. function B. task C. right D. ability

PRACTICE TEST 7
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 1 to 5.
The Old Woman and the Doctor
An old woman became almost totally blind from a disease of the eyes. After consulting a
doctor, she made an agreement with him in the presence of witnesses that she would pay him a
high fee if he cured her. However, if he failed, he would receive nothing. The doctor prescribed
a course of treatment and visited her on a regular basis to apply ointment to her eyes. With each
visit, he took away with him some article from the house, until at last, when he visited her for the
last time and the cure was complete, there was nothing left. When the old woman saw that the
house was empty, she refused to pay him his fee. After repeated refusals on her part, he sued her
before the magistrates for payment of her debt. On being brought into court, she was ready with
her defense. "The claimant," she said, "has stated the facts about our agreement correctly. I
promised to pay him a fee if he cured me, and he, on his part, promised to charge nothing if he
failed. Now, he says I am cured; but I say that I am blinder than ever, and I can prove what I say.
When my eyes were bad, I could see well enough to know that my house contained a certain
amount of furniture and other things. But now, when according to him I am cured, I am entirely
unable to see anything there at all."
1 .Why did the woman refuse to pay the doctor?
A. She claimed he charged her nothing.
B. She claimed he had received his payment.
C. She claimed he did not cure her.
D. She claimed he stated the agreement incorrectly.
2. What does the word "prescribed" mean as it is used in the text?
A. advised a medical treatment
B. wrote down directions
C. wrote down ahead of time
D. gave rules for one’s visit
3. What role does the magistrate play in this story?
A. He will determine the best way to fix the woman’s eyes.
 B. He will perform a marriage ceremony.
C. He will judge if a crime has been committed.
D. He will determine if payment is due.
4. The underlined phrase "The claimant" in the story refers to ________.
A. the old woman B. the doctor
C. the witnesses D. the magistrates
5. What is the moral of the story?
A. Through evil doing, one loses any reward for the good he has done.
B. We would often be sorry if our wishes were gratified in the end.
C. Wealth unused might as well not exist.
D. Things are not always as they seem.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 10.
On the topic of cutting down trees, not everyone is in agreement. There seem to be different
views on this topic, and these (26) ________ a number of factors. For example, people who enjoy
walking in the forests would like to prevent people from cutting down trees. Also, we need trees
for our oxygen and according to (27) ________ , if we continue to cut them down, we will certainly
destroy our planet.
On the other hand, people who (28) ________ a living out of timber think they have a right to
cut down trees. I think this is fine provided that they plant new trees to replace the ones they cut
down. (29) ________ , a lot of illegal logging also takes place and these trees are not replaced.
As far as I am concerned, the best approach would be to manage our forests more carefully so
that we only cut down trees (30) ________ it helps other trees survive and remain healthy, or as
part of a replanting program.
6. A. go with B. depend on C. deal with D. turn down
7. A. conservationists B. teachers C. physicists D. artists
8. A. get B. take C. have D. make
9. A. Unfortunately B. Unhappily C. Generally D. Miserably
10. A. unless B. whether C. when D. though
.
 PRACTICE TEST 8
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 1 to 5.
I know that it is my job to make sure that everything goes well for the tourists and I feel I work
hard for the company. I cannot be blamed for last week. I met the group at the airport and took
them to the coach. The coach driver was a bit annoyed because the flight was late. But it wasn’t
far to the hotel and everyone was looking forward to their dinner. We hadn’t used the Hotel Riviera
before but our normal one had a conference in it so it was fully booked. When I announced our
arrival at the reception desk, they said they were full. I had booked rooms for the group but the
manager said they were cancelled by phone a few days before. He insisted that he recognized my
voice and that I had made the phone call. We had a bit of an argument but they obviously didn’t
have enough rooms. In the end the manager phoned other hotels in the town and found rooms for
everyone but in four different hotels. By this time, the coach had gone so we had to get taxis and
some of the tourists started to get very angry with me. I still don’t know who made that phone call
but it definitely wasn’t me.
1. What is the writer trying to do?
A. Argue B. Apologise
C. Explain D. Complain
2. Who was the text written by?
A. One of the tourists B. The coach
C. The hotel manager D. The tour guide
3. Why weren’t any rooms available at the Hotel Riviera?
A. A conference was taking place there.
B. There were more people in the group than expected.
C. Someone had forgotten to book them.
D. Someone had said they were not needed.
4. What happened in the end?
A. The tourists got angry with the hotel manager.
B. The tourists couldn’t stay together.
C. The writer found other hotels with rooms.
D. The writer called the coach driver back.
5. Which of the following diaries was written by one of the tourists?
 A. Someone had made a mistake with our hotel booking and the hotel had given our rooms to
other people.
B. The hotel we were taken to wasn’t good enough so we asked to change to a different one.
C. We got to the airport and had to wait for the coach, so it was really late when we got to the
hotel.
D. The coach driver took us to the wrong hotel and they knew nothing about us.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The Great Barrier Reef is the earth’s largest reef system. At a length of over 2,500 km it is the
largest (26) ________ structure. You can even see it from space. However, the reef is in danger of
dying. Because of global (27) ________ , the temperature in the atmosphere keeps rising. This
also affects the water temperature. When the oceans get too warm the colourful reefs (28)
________ grey and die. The reef is also dying from pollution caused by factories on the Australian
and Indonesian coasts.
It’s a pity that we don’t (29) ________ the environment the ways the Aborigines did thousands
of years ago. They respected nature, the animals and plants around them. They never killed more
animals than they could eat. (30) ________ , when Europeans arrived in Australia they destroyed
a lot of things that the Aborigines valued.
26. A. living B. alive C. live D. life
27. A. cooling B. heating C. warming D. changing
28. A. make B. turn C. get D. come
29. A. take care B. look at C. make for D. care about
30. A. Although B. Moreover C. Therefore D. However
PRACTICE TEST 9
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 21 to 25.
Computers are gradually replacing human labour in many areas of our lives. An important
area in computer technology is the use of computer systems to perform jobs which require
intelligence, such as learning how to sing or spotting familiar objects. Most computers cannot do
these things because they do not have a "brain" to think. However, things are changing as people
come up with newer and smarter computers.
Computer scientists have come up with computers which can "think". These special computers
do not actually have "brains" but are fed with many facts and pieces of information about the job
they are built to do. For example, there are computers which can identify which area contains gold
or other materials. They learn about the important qualities of the mineral such as its colour, weight
and the areas it is most likely to be found. This makes it easier for the computers to spot the mineral
in different parts of the world.
Computers can also be used in factories. Businessmen and factory owners use computers in
the form of robots. These robots contain computer systems that enable them to perform the job
they are programmed to do. A single robot can do a job which would have take three people to do;
this saves businessmen precious time. There would no longer be any need to train workers for
different tasks and it would be cost-effective for employers as well.
In time to come, it is possible that computer systems would take away many jobs. However,
there is also an increased need for people who can build, design and repair computers. Thus, not
all jobs will run out in the near future.
21. According to paragraph 1, what is one task which needs "thinking" that computers are not able
to do?
A. Performing jobs B. Spotting familiar objects
C. Replacing human labour D. Coming up with newer computers
22. The phrase "things are changing" in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. people buying computers
B. computers looking like people
C. people thinking like computers
D. computers being able to perform intelligent tasks
23. The word "fed" in paragraph 2 suggests that ________.
A. computers are given food to eat to do work
B. information has to be input into the computers
C. nourishing vitamins have to be provided to computers
D. information has to be obtained from computers and given to another source
24. Robots save time for businessmen by ________.
A. training other workers B. being built in factories
C. doing the job of one person D. not being needed to be trained
25. According to paragraph 3, employers can save on money by using robots as ________.
A. robots need not be paid B. robots are not expensive
C. robots cannot be trained D. robots can create more jobs
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
It is now generally recognized that stress is a major cause of heart disease, and contributes to
many other illnesses. Stress is increased by (26) ________ such as worry, overwork and lack of
exercise or relaxation. It is just as important from a psychological point of view to (27) ________
as it is to take physical exercise. Relaxing does not necessarily mean just lazing about and doing
nothing. The (28) ________ of a weekend away or the diversion of sporting activities are
considerable. If you are suffering from high stress levels, or wish to wind down (29) ________ a
trying day, it is generally advisable to have a change of scene. Although there are some individuals
who thrive on stress, for most of us, it can (30) ________ exhaustion, mood swings and even
severe depression.
26. A. factors B. effects C. ingredients D. items
27. A. train B. amuse C. relax D. enjoy
28. A. profits B. benefits C. improvements D. progresses
29. A. while B. before C. when D. after
30. A. result from B. change to C. lead to D. suffer from
PRACTICE TEST 10
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 21 to 25.
Old newspapers, magazines and other unwanted papers are collected by the rag-and-bone
man. The recovered paper is then sorted according to the grade or type of paper before being sent
to the recycling centre. There, the sorted papers are gathered and bundled into tight bales before
they are transported to a paper manufacturing factory where they will be recycled into new paper.
Only paper free of contaminants such as food, plastic, metal and other rubbish can be successfully
recycled; otherwise, impurities and bacteria might be introduced into the recycling process and
thereby affect the quality of the paper produced.
At the paper mill, recovered paper is chopped up and mixed with water to form pulp slurry,
which is then subjected to a series of washing where soap-like chemicals called surfactants remove
ink from the paper. After the deinking process, the pulp slurry is sprayed onto a huge flat wire
screen that is rapidly moving through the paper machine. Water drains out and fibres bond together
into a web of paper which is pressed between rollers to squeeze out more water and smoothen the
surface. Heated rollers dry the paper, which is then slit into smaller rolls or sheets and finally
removed from the paper machine.
Papermaking fibres can be typically recycled five to seven times before they become too short
and are rejected by the paper machine. Recycling paper certainly benefits the environment because
it requires at least 50 per cent less energy and up to 75 per cent less water than making paper from
virgin fibres. Also, it reduces the demand for virgin fibre in the world.
 So, have you done your part to save Mother Earth?
21. What does "recovered paper" in paragraph 1 refer to?
A. Old newspapers, magazines and other unwanted papers
B. Paper transported to the paper mill
C. Paper wrapped in tight bales
D. Paper containing food, plastic, metal and other rubbish
22. According to paragraph 1,"bales"are ________.
A. papers flattened by huge rollers
B. papers pulped on a huge wire mesh
C. papers stored in large containers
D. large amounts of paper tied tightly together
23. What happens to papermaking fibers as a result of repeated recycling?
A. It smoothens the fibers.
B. It enables the fibers to bond together quickly.
C. It dries up the fibers so that they can be cut into smaller sheets of paper.
D. It shortens the fibers, thereby rendering them unfit for further recycling.
24. Recycling paper benefits the environment by ________.
A. increasing the demand for wood
B. encouraging the destruction of forests
C. requiring not less than 50 per cent less energy
D. needing about 25 per cent more water than virgin fibers
25. What impact does recycling paper have?
A. It will result in a variety of vegetation.
B. It will result in the destruction of fewer trees.
C. It will result in the destruction of more trees.
D. It will result in the creation of more rivers.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
 People’s lives will change dramatically in the next 50 years. We anticipate advances in
genetics, medicine, and transportation, the opening of international markets, and more. People look
enthusiastically (26) ________ the future. Yet, life today is also dramatically different from life
50 years ago, and that life was dramatically different from life 100 years ago.
Is life "better" now than it was fifty years ago? For many people, (27) ________ answer is
yes. But for many, the answer is no. Hunger, poverty, misery, and cruelty existed a hundred years
ago. They existed thousands of years ago, and they exist today. "Technology" and "development"
have (28) ________ life dramatically for great numbers of people. But to some people these
benefits are not available, and their existence alone does not address the (29) ________ of those
people. For all our "advancement", a large part of our world lives worse, or no better, than it did
fifty years ago. A future in which all people could (30) ________ the fruits of this advancement
would be a future truly worth celebrating.
26. A. to B. for C. at D. on
27. A. an B. a C. the D. Ø
28. A. progressed B. improved C. advanced D. changed
29. A. problems B. circumstances C. conditions D. troubles
30. A. benefit B. achieve C. include D. enjoy

PRACTICE TEST 11
Time allotted: 60 min.
the questions from 21 to 25.
Seahorses live in the ocean. They are fish but some people think that seahorses look a bit like
‘land’ horses. A group of seahorses is called a herd.
Baby seahorses are called fry. Female seahorses lay eggs but it is the male seahorses that look
after the eggs. Male seahorses keep the eggs in pouches at the front of their bodies. The fry must
look after themselves as soon as they are born.
Seahorses are fish but they are not very good swimmers. Their fins are very small. This makes
it hard to move and steer in the water. They can use their tails to grab onto seaweed or coral so
they can stay in one place. Seahorses have no teeth and they do not have a stomach. Food passes
through the body of a seahorse very quickly. To stay healthy, they must spend most of the day
eating. One seahorse can eat up to 3000 small shrimps in a day.
21. Seahorses got their name because they ________.
A. move like horses B. eat like horses
C. breathe like horses D. look like horses
22. Seahorse eggs are kept_________.
A. on coral B. in a pouch
C. in the seaweed D. on the sand
23. What does a seahorse use to attach itself to seaweed?
A. its tail B. its teeth C. its fins D. its mouth
24. Which question is answered in the last paragraph?
A. What are seahorses?
B. Where do seahorses live?
C. What do seahorses eat?
D. How do seahorses move around?
25. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Seahorses’ fins are very small.
B. Sea horses’ teeth are not sharp.
C. Seahorses don’t have a stomach.
D. Seahorses’ food is small shrimps.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
When delicious food is served at a restaurant, it can be gobbled down by a hungry customer
(26) ________ minutes. He does not give a thought about the amount of time or effort required to
prepare the dish. Preparing a complete meal is (27) ________ challenging and interesting as
advance planning and preparation are necessary.
Cooking can be relatively easy once you learn how to do it and constantly practise it. For
people learning to cook for the first time, they should (28) ________ help and advice from friends
and family or read up cookery books for ideas. Before making a trip to the provision shop to buy
the ingredients for the meal you intend to cook, make (29) ________ that you have the right
utensils and condiments in your kitchen. To gain the confidence you need, start with a simple dish
or two that does not require too much preparation time. Before cooking, prepare the (30) ________
like cutting up the vegetables and thawing and seasoning the meat. When everything is ready, you
can start to cook.
26. A. for B. into C. within D. about
27. A. both B. either C. neither D. as
28. A. want B. take C. call D. seek
29. A. good B. sure C. fine D. great
30. A. flavours B. microwaves C. ingredients D. recipes

PRACTICE TEST 12
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 21 to 25.
Bamboo is an amazing plant. Did you know it is actually a grass? In fact, giant bamboo is the
largest member of the grass family. Some types can grow an incredible 90 centimetres in just one
day. Some bamboo plants can grow to over 30 metres tall, which is as tall as a gum tree. You
probably know that bamboo is the favourite food of pandas, but chimpanzees, gorillas and
elephants eat it too.
Bamboo is also extremely useful to people. It is a very valuable construction material because
it is so strong. In fact, whole houses can be built from bamboo. In some parts of the world, bamboo
is used as scaffolding (the frame used to support building work).
The range of things that can be made from bamboo is huge. Furniture, cooking utensils, and
musical instruments can all be made from bamboo. Bamboo fibres can be used to produce a soft,
cotton-like material for T-shirts and underwear. Bamboo fibres are also used to make paper.
Bamboo can even be used to make bicycle frames and boats.
21. Bamboo is a type of ________.
A. tree B. wood C. bush D. grass
22. According to the text, one way bamboo is amazing is that ________.
A. it can grow extremely fast B. it grows near gum trees
C. it comes in many sizes D. it grows anywhere
23. Which activity uses bamboo as scaffolding?
A. plumbing B. building C. cooking D. sailing
24. According to the text, which part of a bicycle can be made from bamboo?
A. the frame B. the wheels C. the pedals D. the seat
25. The main purpose of this text is ________.
A. to encourage people to use bamboo more often
B. to list everything that can be made from bamboo
C. to give interesting facts and uses for bamboo
D. to outline where bamboo is mainly grown and used
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct word that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Last Friday, Ms Mabel brought her class for an excursion to the fire station. She wanted her
students to see and learn how things were run inside the red brick building and what the firemen
had to do (26) ________ emergencies. She introduced them to Mr Jackson, the chief of the fire
department.
Before Mr Jackson showed the students around the fire station, there was a short (27)
________ between the students and him. He wondered how much the students knew about the
occupation. The students were only too eager to show off what they knew or learnt from school
about firemen. It was evident that they were (28) ________ to find out more about what firemen
do besides extinguishing fires and rescuing people. Mr Jackson told them a fireman had to (29)
________ many tests before he could be certified as a professional. In addition, a fireman must be
strong and physically fit.
At last, Mr Jackson brought the eager students to look at the fire engines. He (30) ________
out to them the hydraulic platform on the fire engine which they use to put out fires in flats or other
high-rise buildings.
26. A. during B. for C. among D. with
27. A. explanation B. debate C. discussion D. argument
28. A. surprised B. excited C. embarrassed D. frustrated
29. A. check B. measure C. assess D. pass
30. A. focused B. pointed C. looked D. worked

PRACTICE TEST 13
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 21 to 25.
Kandimalal is a large crater in the Kimberley region of Western Australia, 145 kilometres
from the town of Halls Creek. Scientists say that Kandimalal was formed about 300,000 years ago
when a meteorite struck the earth.
Measuring some 880 metres across and about 60 metres deep, Kandimalal is the second largest
meteorite crater in the world. The crater used to be 150 metres deeper, but it has since been filled
with wind-blown sand from the Great Sandy Desert. Although the area is arid, rainfall collects in
the centre of the crater, and this allows trees to grow there.
 Kandimalal has long been a part of the dreaming of the local Djaru people. One of the stories
says that a rainbow serpent slithered through the earth and came to the surface in the centre of the
crater.
The first time Kandimalal was seen from above was in 1947 during an aerial survey of the
region. The area around the crater became a national park in 1969 and has since become popular
with tourists who have four-wheel drive vehicles.
21. Scientists believe that Kandimalal was formed by ________.
A. a volcano B. a meteorite
C. heavy rainfall D. wind-blown sand
22. According to the text, how do the trees in the crater get enough water?
A. The Djaru people look after the area.
B. There is an underground river system.
C. The tourists bring water into the crater.
D. Rain gathers in the middle of the crater.
23. According to the text, what did the rainbow serpent do?
A. It fell into the crater.
B. It filled the crater with sand.
C. It came up through the crater.
D. It slithered around outside the crater.
24. In 1947, people saw a new view of Kandimalal ________.
A. by flying over it
B. by climbing into it
C. by walking around it
D. by driving through it
25. What is the main purpose of the text?
A. to explain how to get to Kandimalal
B. to provide information about Kandimalal
C. to encourage tourists to visit Kandimalal
D. to help protect the environment around Kandimalal
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Most people are fascinated with whales and would long to see one up close. Whales are
mammals. Like man, they (26) ________ in air so they must come to the surface at regular
intervals. They also give birth to their young alive. The young calf stays with its mother for over
a year, feeding on the milk produced by its mother. Whales vary in (27) ________ , from nine-
metreminke whale to the thirty-metre blue whale that often weighs as much as 150 tonnes.
Man first hunted whales for the oil in their blubber, a thick layer of fat (28) ________ keeps
them warm. This oil was used as fuel, for example, in the lighting of candles. It was vital in
illuminating homes and businesses in the 19th century. Whale oil was also used as a lubricant for
the machines in factories (29) ________ the Industrial Revolution.
Today, whale oil is used for making margarine and for softening leather. The poorer quality
meat is made into animal food.
Wildlife experts say that whales are in (30) ________ of extinction if the hunt for whales
continues. The number of blue whales for instance, has fallen to about three thousand.
26. A. drink B. breathe C. laugh D. jump
27. A. shape B. colour C. size D. age
28. A. which B. who C. where D. when
29. A. among B. about C. into D. during
30. A. damage B. death C. danger D. injury

PRACTICE TEST 14
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 21 to 25.
There are 4400 living species of amphibians. Frogs, toads, newts and salamanders are all
amphibians. Many live mainly on land, but most spend at least some of their lives in water. The
largest amphibian, the Chinese giant salamander, is 1.8m long.
Frogs and salamanders are able to breathe through their damp skins to a certain extent, both
in the water and on the land, but toads rely largely on their lungs and cannot remain underwater
for long. Toads and frogs are similar in many ways, although toads usually have rougher, drier
skins and may waddle rather than hop as frogs do.
Some toads produce spawn in strings like necklaces, rather than the mass of eggs laid by frogs.
Most amphibians lay their eggs in water. Frogs’ eggs are called spawn. The eggs are protected
from predators by a thick layer of jelly. A tadpole develops inside each egg. When it hatches, it
is able to swim using its long tail, and it breathes through gills. As a tadpole grows, first hind legs
then forelegs begin to form. Lungs develop, and the young frog is able to begin to breathe with its
head above water. Gradually, the tail shortens until the young frog resembles its adult parents.
21 .The text describes amphibians as animals that ________.
A. do not have lungs
B. can live on land and in water
C. use their gills to eat and breathe
D. cannot swim very well
22. According to the text, the world’s largest amphibian is a ________.
A. frog B. toad C. newt D. salamander
23. One of the differences between frogs and toads is that ________.
A. frogs have drier skins
B. frogs develop tails as adults
C. frogs can stay underwater longer
D. frogs lay eggs in strings
24. Young frogs start to breathe with their heads above water when they ________.
A. develop lungs
B. develop internal gills
C. hatch out of their eggs
D. start eating insects
25. The underlined word "predators" in the passage probably means ________.
A. animals that eat other animals B. animals that feed on grass
C. amphibians living in water D. amphibians living on land
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct word that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Planning a trip can be as interesting as the holiday itself. However, ensuring a trip is well
planned (26) ________ a lot of preparation work beforehand. You have to decide on the
destination, the things to bring as well as the itinerary for the trip.
First and foremost, you need to decide on your destination and when to go. You may also want
to find out about the events and festivals that are taking (27) ________ at your destination during
the period that you are visiting. You may want to include them in your programmes.
 Budgeting is another important factor to consider. It would determine your mode of
transportation and accommodation. If you have company, you should discuss (28) ________
advance the programmes that you want to do together or alone during the trip. By doing so, you
may somehow (29) ________ any unhappiness from occurring at the last moment.
After confirming the place and time to go, and the budget and itinerary, the things that you
need to bring will be next on your list. Some questions that you will ask (30) ________ are "Are
you going during the warm or cold season?" or "Do you need extra clothing?" You can check out
with the travel agent or even surf the Internet to find out about the weather conditions of your
destination.
26. A. requires B. expects C. proposes D. purchases
27. A. time B. place C. room D. space
28. A. on B. with C. for D. in
29. A. cancel B. dismiss C. prevent D. delay
30. A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself

PRACTICE TEST 15
Time allotted: 60 min.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 21 to 25.
Once upon a time, there was a man with a fine house, healthy animals and fertile land. He was
also blessed with a handsome, loving son. But the man was worried about his son, because the boy
had grown up knowing only good times and good fortune.
"What will happen when something goes wrong for him?" wondered his father. "How will he
know what to do?"
So one day, the man asked the boy to go into the forest and collect wood. To help him carry
the wood home, the man gave the boy an old cart and two horses. As he was leaving, the man said
to his son, "If the cart breaks down while you are in the forest, don’t worry. Necessity will teach
you what to do."
The boy collected as much wood as he could load onto the cart. But when he turned to come
home, the cart broke under the weight of the wood. "I hope that Father’s friend lives nearby,"
thought the boy, and he started crying out, "Necessity! NE-CESS-ITY! Where are you?" The boy
called and called, but no one came, so he decided to fix the cart himself.
When he arrived home, he said to his father," You said Necessity would teach me to fix the
cart, but I couldn’t find him anywhere. I had to fix it all by myself."
 The man smiled to himself and thought, "Necessity really is the best teacher."
21. Why was the boy’s father worried?
A. His son was lonely.
B. His son was not strong enough.
C. His son was always getting lost.
D. His son had never had any problems.
22. Why did the father send his son into the forest?
A. He wanted to punish his son. B. He wanted his son to learn.
C. He was too old to go himself. D. He was fighting with his son.
23. What did the boy do first when the cart broke?
A. He called for help. B. He cried to himself.
C. He blamed his father. D. He walked back home.
24. Which word best describes the boy’s father in this story?
A. lazy B. cruel C. wise D. funny
25. What is the main message of this story?
A. We should take care of the environment.
B. Family is the most important thing.
C. Working hard makes you a better person.
D. It is important to know how to solve problems.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Owning a pet can be a great pleasure. It is a chance to love and care for a living creature. By
watching and (26) ________ its growth and behavior, you will discover that having a pet can be
exciting and amusing.
It is also said that owning a pet reaps benefits to your health. You will have lower blood
pressure and lower cholesterol levels. Owning a pet gives you a greater (27) ________ of well-
being and decreases your stress level.
Different types of pets need different kinds of care. Some pets are easy to look after (28)
________ others are difficult. Pets are not toys and a certain amount of work is needed if you want
to take care of them properly. You must be willing to spend a part of each day to (29) ________
your pet’s needs.
 All pets, big or small, depend on their owners (30) ________ food, housing and protection.
Although love is very important, it alone is not enough.
26. A. exploring B. surveying C. observing D. looking
27. A. sense B. feeling C. level D. rank
28. A. when B. unless C. so D. while
29. A. feed B. meet C. see D. buy
30. A. for B. with C. of D. about

PRACTICE TEST 16

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
English is the first language of many people in countries outside the United Kingdom.
When you meet speakers of English from around the world, you immediately notice that they do
not all speak in the same way. There are also some (14)__________in the words they use,
including the names of (15)__________ objects that are part of everyone’s daily life. Although
pronunciation and (16)__________ are not the same everywhere, it is interesting that English
speakers (17)__________opposite sides of the world can understand each other quite easily. It
does not seem to care where they learnt the language. And of course this is one reason why
speakers of other languages are keen on learning English too. If you know English, you are more
(18)__________ to be able to study or work in all sorts of exciting places, such as the United
States or Australia.
Question 14. A. mistakes B. corrections C. changes D. differences
Question 15. A. common B. popular C. favourite D. general
Question 16. A. reading B. composition C. dictation D. vocabulary
Question 17. A. of B. in C. from D. at
Question 18. A. likely B. probably C. possibly D. luckily

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
In an effort to fight pollution and help the environment, the Marina Hills Ecology Club
offers free trees to institutions willing to plant them on their grounds. Among those that took
advantage of the offer was Marina Hills High School. After consulting with his teachers on
where to plant the trees, Principal Max Webb contacted the Ecology Club. But when
the seedlings arrived, Webb had an idea. Instead of planting the young trees in front of the
school, he thought it would be better to put them behind the school, where the sun gets very hot
in the afternoon. “It gets so hot inside the building that the students start to sweat during their
afternoon classes,” said Webb. “Now the shade from our trees will bring them some relief.”
“There was no argument from the teachers,” he added. “When I proposed the idea,
everyone said, ‘Now why didn’t I think of that!’. The relief won’t come until the trees grow
taller, but the school will not have to wait long because it requested two species of trees that
grow quickly. “Time is key, and we wanted our trees to get big fast,” said Webb. “We were
given a wide choice, from shrubs to fruit trees. We requested eucalyptus and willow trees.”
Webb said he is also looking forward to finally seeing some wildlife in the school yard at Marina
Hills High School. “If all you have is a grass lawn with no trees, you can’t expect the local birds
to come and visit,” said Webb. “They have no place to make their nests. Now that will change,
and we’ll be able to see birds from our classroom windows.”
Question 19. What would be the most appropriate headline for this article?
A. Local school gets greener B. Student wins science award
C. Principal discovers new tree D. Teacher leads ecological club
Question 20. What problem does Principal Webb talk about?
A. Pollution in the city B. Classrooms that are too hot
C. Tall trees that block the view D. Wild animals that destroy trees
Question 21. What did the Ecology Club do for Marina Hills High School?
A. It helped design the school yard. B. It put flowers in the classrooms.
C. It sold seeds to the school. D. It provided free trees.
Question 22. What decision was changed?
A. Which trees should be dug up B. When the old trees should be cut down
C. Where the new trees should be planted D. Which type of tree should be chosen
Question 23. What can be inferred from the article about eucalyptus and willow trees?
A. They grow quickly. B. They become extremely tall.
C. They are less expensive than fruit trees. D. They do not grow flowers in the
springtime.

PRACTICE TEST 17
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
THE FOUR-YEAR SPREAD OF BUBBLE TEA ACROSS THE UK
 Four years ago bubble tea was relatively unknown in the UK, but the drinks are now
ubiquitous on High Streets, from cities to small towns, writes Lucy Townsend.
It is often brightly coloured, sometimes served with milk, with a layer of jelly-like
globules - tapioca balls - that settle (14)__________the bottom of the cup. Drunk through an
extra thick straw with a spoon-shaped tip, it is a mouthful of tea and chewiness - both a drink and
a snack,
Chorley in Lancashire got its first bubble tea bar in July. Huddersfield has Bubble n
Shake, there is a mobile bubble tea van in Bristol, and it can be (15)__________in cities from
Glasgow to Portsmouth.
Bubble tea hails from 1980s Taiwan. It was an evolution from the country's street tea
vendors (16)__________began experimenting with fruity flavours and colour to entice
customers. The "bubble" actually (17)__________ the froth on top of the drink which comes
after it is violently shaken - some cafes use a machine especially for shaking. How the tapioca
balls arrived in the drink is a matter of debate - though the most common story is that product
development manager Lin Hsiu Hui (18)__________sitting in a staff meeting and poured the
tapioca from her pudding into her Assam iced tea. The result was considered delicious.
While growing in the UK, it is even more popular in Germany, according to market
research firm Mintel. Even McDonald's has started serving it.
Question 14. A. down B. in C. at D. out
Question 15. A. discovered B. found C. searched D. sought
Question 16. A. which B. where C. who D. whom
Question 17. A. stands for B. regards to C. describes D. refers to
Question 18. A. have been B. is C. has been D. was

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Recent research into the world of teenagers has suggested that they value friendship
above everything else. Children aged between 12 and 15 were asked what was important to
them. Their answers included possessions such as money and computer gadgets but also
relationships with people. The teenagers questioned said that friends were the most important to
them, more even than family, or boyfriends and girlfriends.
We wanted to find out more about the results of this research so we asked our readers
what they thought about the value of friendship. Here are some examples of what they said about
their friends:
Ben, 15:
Every time I have a fight with my parents, I need some time on my own. But after that,
the first thing I do is meet up with my friends. After playing football for a while, or
skateboarding, I usually feel much happier again.
 Rory, 13:
When I moved to a village in the countryside, I thought that it would be the end of my
friendships. But my old friends have kept in touch and they come and visit in the holidays.
There's a lake nearby, so we often go sailing, water-skiing or windsurfing. And I have made
some new friends here too. at school, and since I joined the rugby club.
Cartos, 11:
Last year, I broke my arm on a skiing holiday. Unfortunately, it was my left arm and
I am left handed. My school friends all helped and copied their notes for me.
It seems that our readers value their friendships very highly. From what they told us.
they spend a lot of time with their friends, just hanging out, or sharing hobbies and interests.
They seem to need their friends for advice, help, chats. and for having fun. Clearly, friends
make each other feel better. Looking at what our readers told us. the results of the recent research
are not really surprising.
Question 19. Why are Ben, Rory and Carlos mentioned in the article?
A. They know why teenagers value friendship.
B. They read magazines.
C. They gave information about themselves.
D. They are teenage boys
Question 20. Which of the following best describes Ben?
A. He often has fights. B. He is happier than his friends.
C. He likes being alone. D. He likes some sports.
Question 21. What do we know about the lake that Rory visits?
A. It is near the school.
B. It is used by a lot of people who do water sports.
C. It is near his home.
D. It is in a village.
Question 22. Carlos mentions that he is left-handed because __________.
A. It makes skiing harder.
B. It makes it worse that he broke the arm he uses most.
C. It is an interesting fact about himself and he was talking about his left arm.
D. It is very unfortunate when you break your left arm.
Question 23. The answers to the recent research and the answers from the readers
__________.
A. were surprising. B. were similar.
C. were not the same. D. were both about sports

PRACTICE TEST 18

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Dear Mr. Thompson,
I would like to apologize to you (14)_________ in your class during the exam yesterday.
I am so sorry that I looked in my textbook while I was talking the test. I feel terrible about
(15)_________ on the test. I know that this is not an acceptable excuse, but I did not have
enough time to study for the test because I had a basketball game the night before it. I was so
tired that, (16)_________ I took a shower and went to bed (17)_________ . When I woke up, I
remembered the test and tried to study. However, I only managed to do that for about fifteen
minutes.
Still, there is no justification for cheating, and I will accept (18)_________ you give me
without complaint. I will also do my best to work hard in your class and to be as good a student
for the remainder of the semester.
Sincerely,
Peter Wilson
Question 14. A. With the action B. For my actions
C. By my action D. At the action
Question 15. A. Completing B. Researching
C. Practicing D. Cheating
Question 16. A. The moment I arrived home, B. Momentarily arriving at
my home,
C. To arrive in a moment at my home, D. I arrived home in a moment,
Question 17. A. Apparently B. Decisively
C. Immediately D. Dramatically
Question 18. A. Whoever punishes B. Whatever punishment
C. Whichever punishes D. However punished
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
During the teenage years, many young people can at times be difficult to talk to. They
often seem to dislike being questioned. They may seem unwilling to talk about their work in
school. This is a normal development at this age, though it can be very hard for parents to
understand. It is part of becoming independent of teenagers trying to be adult while they are still
growing up. Young people are usually more willing to talk if they believe that questions are
asked out of real interest and not because people are trying to check up on them.
Parents should do their best to talk to their sons and daughters about school work and
future plans. However, it is not a good idea that parents push teenagers to talk if they do not want
to. Parents should also watch for the danger signs: some young people in trying to be adult may
experiment with sex, drugs, alcohol, or smoking. Parents need to watch for any signs of
unusual behavior which may be connected with these and get help if necessary.
Question 19. This passage is taken from a __________.
A. handbook for parents B. school timetable
C. teenage magazine D. book for children
Question 20. Why do adults sometimes find teenagers difficult to talk to?
A. because most teenagers are quiet.
B. because teenagers don't want to talk to their parents.
C. because teenagers think adults are not honest.
D. because most teenagers hate adults.
Question 21. When can you expect a young person to be more talkative than usual?
A. When people talk to them because they are really interested and not yet checking up on them
B. When adults give them a lot of money to spend.
C. When adults talk to them about something other than their work in school.
D. When adults talk to them about sex, alcohol and drugs.
Question 22. Some teenagers experiment with drinking or smoking because __________.
A. cigarettes and alcohol are available everywhere.
B. cigarettes and alcohol are cheap.
C. women like a smoking and drinking man.
D. they regard it as a mark of adulthood.
Question 23. The word ‘behavior’ in the passage most nearly means__________.
A. feeling B. manners C. activities D. reaction
 PRACTICE TEST 19
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
It’s always worth preparing well for an interview. Don’t just hope for the best. Here are a
(14)_________tips. Practise how you say things, as well as what you (15)_________to say. If
you don’t own a video camera, perhaps a friend of yours does. Borrow it and make a video tape
of yourself. Find somebody to watch it with you and give you a (16)_________of advice on how
you appear and behave. Before the interview, plan what to wear. Find out how the company
expects its (17)_________to dress. At the interview, believe in yourself and be honest, open and
friendly. Pay attention and keep your answers to the point. The interviewer doesn’t want to waste
time and (18)_________do you.
Question 14. A. little B. several C. few D. lot
Question 15. A. intend B. consider C. imagine D. think
Question 16. A. number B. slice C. plenty D. bit
Question 17. A. colleagues B. employees C. customers D. employers
Question 18. A. so B. Either C. neither D. or

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
It is said that most people have no more than 30 friends at any given time, and 400 over
the whole of their lives. However, on social networking sites, most users have about 150
friends. If these numbers are correct, then friendship means different things in
different situations.
One of the reasons for having more online friends than real friends at a certain point in
time is that online friendships do not require much time and energy: it is easy to accept
friendships and keep them forever. Another possibility is that it is difficult to say 'no' when
somebody asks us to be their friend online, even if we feel we don't really know them. The fact
that they ask us suggests that they do consider us a friend, which is a nice feeling. Alternatively,
they may be 'collectors' of online friends and just want to use us to get a higher number of
friends and appear to be popular.
Online friendships are quite easy, but in the real world decisions about friendships are
harder to make. There are no rules about friendship. There are no guidelines about how to make
friends, how to keep friendships going, and how to finish friendships if we want to move
on. People have very different opinions about this: some people would die for their friends and
they value them more than family. Others say that friends are temporary, only there to help each
other until they are no longer needed. If people with such different views become friends, this
can lead to problems.
 Because of these different definitions of friendship, it is easy to be unhappy about our
friendships. We may want them to be deeper or closer, or we may want to have more friends in
our lives. Sometimes we simply do not have the time to develop our friendships, or we fear we
have left it too late in life to start. If we move to another country or city, we have to find ways
to make new friends again.
This dissatisfaction shows us how important friendships are for most of us. We should
not think that it could be too late to build friendships. We also need to understand that the need to
be around other people is one that is shared by many. Therefore, we should not be too frightened
about starting to talk to people who in the future may become our friends: it is likely that they
too would like to get closer to us. Remember what people say: strangers are friends we have not
met yet.
Question 19. How many friends do the majority of people probably have?
A. 30 real friends or fewer B. a minimum of 30 real friends
C. 150 internet friends D. 400 internet friends over the course of their lives
Question 20. It is difficult__________.
A. to believe the numbers about friendship.
B. to keep your friends happy.
C. to trust what you read on social networking sites.
D. to give a definition of 'friendship'.
Question 21. Friendship means __________.
A. different things to different people.
B. dying for your friends if you need to.
C. helping each other until it is no longer necessary.
D. accepting people with different views
Question 22. Sometimes people worry because __________.
A. they think that they have too many friends.
B. they spend too much time with friends
C. they think they are too old to make friends.
D. there are no guidelines about friendship
Question 23. Most of us __________.
A. are dissatisfied with our friends. B. build friendships late in life.
C. are frightened to talk to strangers. D. need to be with others.
 PRACTICE TEST 20
Time allotted: 60 min.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
One of the largest and most luxurious palaces in the world is the Palace of Versailles.
(14)__________near Paris, France, the palace has more than 2,000 rooms, (15)__________are
extravagantly decorated. Versailles was constructed during the seventeenth century. Its original
use was as a hunting lodge for King Louis XIV. However, he and his successors constantly
expanded it until it became a massive palace. Versailles became one of
(16)__________prominent symbols of the French monarchy, and it served as the royal court
from 1682 to 1789. Following the events of the French Revolution, the palace was
(17)__________into a museum. Today, Versailles contains thousands of works of art, including
paintings, drawings, engravings, and sculptures. Due to its art and the beauty of the palace itself,
it is a prime tourist attraction at the present. As a result, millions of people visit the palace
(18)__________.
Question 14. A. is located B. Locating C. Having located D. Located
Question 15. A. every which B. all of which C. that are all D. what all
Question 16. A. the most B. more C. much more D. most of the
Question 17. A. designed B. constructed C. rehabilitated D.
transformed
Question 18. A. permanently B. consistently C. continually D. annually

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
We owe the invention of paper to the Egyptian papyrus or the Egyptian paper. The
Egyptians made paper from the papyrus plant (Cyperus papyrus) that was commonly found
along the banks of river Nile. The pith of the plant was taken out and cut into long strips. These
strips were placed diagonally over each other, and for better binding, were placed under a weight
for a couple of days. The quality of papyrus paper is evident from the fact that they are still intact
about 5000 years after they were written on.
Historical sources tell us that the ancient Egyptians were very secretive about the
manufacturing technique of their papyrus. This was because papyrus was one of the main
commodities that was exported by Egypt all over the region. Keeping its manufacturing process
a secret enabled them to achieve monopoly in the market.
Question 19. What is the main topic of the article?
A. The importance of papyrus in Egyptian history.
B. Egyptian culture.
C. The making of papyrus and its commercial role.
D. Commercial trades between ancient Egyp and other countries
Question 20. To make a piece of papyrus, the first step is to__________.
A. take out the pith of papyrus plants and cut it into long strips.
B. place strips of pith diagonally over each other.
C. place strips of pith under a flat stone
D. keep the making process a secret
Question 21. Why did the ancient Egyptians keep the making process of papyrus a secret?
A. Ancient Egypt was not an open country.
B. it could be enable them to dominate the market.
C. It took ancient Egyptians much time to invent papyrus .
D. Ancient Egypt didn’t export papyrus
Question 22. In the second paragraph, the word ‘its’ refers to__________.
A. papyrus’s B. Egyptians’ C. a region’s D. the pitch’s
Question 23. What can we infer from the article?
A. To make a piece of papyrus, you need to put strips of pith parallel over each other.
B. Ancient Egypt didn’t like trading.
C. In the ancient times, the Egyptians possessed a basic commercial awareness.
D. Papyrus was used within ancient Egypt only.

PRACTICE TEST 21
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Dear Helgar,
I would like to welcome you to our school. I know that being an (14)_________ studnet can be
difficult, especially when you are so far away from your home. As you may have heard, the
Thanksgiving holiday is (15)_________ I am aware that it isn't celebrated in Germany, but it's a
very important holiday in the United States. It is an occasion when American families gather to
spend time with one another and enjoy a variety of food. If you have nothinf planned for that
day, I would like to (16)_________ you to visit my home for Thanksgiving. My entire famlily is
planning to be there, so you will get to hang out with us. My mother is considered
(17)_________ cooks in the city, so you will get a great introduction to traditional Americian
home cooking. I hope you can come as I am positive that you (18)_________ a wonderful time.
Let me know if you are interested.
Sincerely,
Greg Foster
Question 14. A. exchange B. exchanges C. exchanged D. exchaning
Question 15. A. improving B. happening C. approaching D. passing
Question 16. A. invite B. require C. let D. insist
Question 17. A. the better B. one of the best C. as good as D. the best
Question 18. A. have B. are having C. will have D. have had

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
I’m 18 years old and have never played on a sports team before, so I never received
lessons or training of any kind. I wish my parents had signed me up for soccer when I was
younger because I discovered that I wanted to play sports. I just have no skills. There is a soccer
team at my high school, but I definitely won’t make it. Most people on the team have probably
been playing for years. I feel like I missed my chance and that I’ll never be as good as them. Is it
too late for me to learn to play from scratch? I just figure that by the time I become “good”, I’ll
be too old anyway. I tried teaching myself in the past, but it seemed too unorganized and I didn’t
know what I was doing. Is there some places that teaches people of any age how to play soccer?
Question 19. Why does the writer write this passage?
A. He wants to study how people play soccer
B. He is trying to apply for a soccer team
C. He needs advice on whether he should start learning soccer.
D. He has received a sport award for playing in a soccer game.
Question 20. What can be inferred from the passage about the writer?
A. His parents forgot to sign up the writer for a soccer team.
B. He has never played on a soccer team before.
C. His friends have all participated in some sports teams.
D. He envies those who can play soccer well.
Question 21. The word ‘figure’ closest in meaning to__________.
A. think B. want C. trust D. choose
Question 22. The word ‘it’ refers to__________.
A. being too old to learn
B. teaching himself how to play soccer
C. playing for many years
D. looking for a good coach
Question 23. What will the writer probably do?
A. Teach himself again to play soccer
B. Find a job instead of play soccer
C. Ask his friends to teach him soccer
D. Look for a place that teaches adults soccer

PRACTICE TEST 22
Time allotted: 60 min.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Most birds build nests in which they lay their eggs, but the emperor penguiin has no need
of them. This bird lives in Antarctica and must endure (14)__________weather than anywhere
else in the world. In order to (15)__________that its eggs are not harmed and that its chicks may
hatch from them, the emperor penguin takes care of its eggs on a unique manner. An emperor
penguin female lays a single egg. Once she lays the egg, the male penguin takes it and puts it
(16)__________. There, the egg (17)__________by a layer of stomach fat that the penguin rests
above the egg. Since emperor penguins lay their eggs right as winter begins in Antarctica, it is
vital that the eggs remain protected from the elements. Therefore, for the next two months, the
males incubate the eggs until the chicks finally hatch. During this entire (18)__________, the
males look after the eggs while hardly even moving.
Question 14. A. harsher B. the harshest C. as harsh as D. much of the
harshest
Question 15. A. ensure B. promise C. recall D. trust
Question 16. A. on top of its feet B. with its feet at the top
C. by the top foot D. at the foot of the top
Question 17. A. protects B. is protecting C. is protecte D. will protect
Question 18. A. period B. periods C. periodical D. periodically
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Today, in many parts of the world, it is customary for people to shake hands upon
meeting as gesture of good will. Originally, however, the practice of shaking hands had a more
practical purpose.
Shaking hands originated in medieval times. In those days, when a man came on a
stranger, he would often automatically reach for his sword with his right hand, in case he had to
use the weapon to defend himself. Sometimes, both parties found themselves circling around
each other, weapons in hand, until it was mutually agreed that the weapons could be laid aside.
Then, the two parties extended their right hands to show they had no weapons, and clasped
them. This was the beginning of the handshake.
The custom of shaking hands is not a universal one. In the Orient, people have, for
centuries, clasped their own hands in front of them upon meeting to show that they held no
weapons. In France, a custom developed in which people who met would kiss each other on both
cheeks. The natives of some South-sea islands greet by rubbing noses.
Question 19. At first, the purpose of shaking hands was ____________.
A. to show a good relationship with each other
B. to show that there were no weapons in hands.
C. to show that both parties were ready for a fight.
D. a gesture of good will
Question 20. The word ‘them’ refers to ____________.
A. the two parties’ weapons
B. the two parties.
C. the two parties’ left hands.
D. the two parties’ right hands.
Question 21. According to the passage,the practice of shaking hands ________________.
A. was used to extend greetings
B. used to be popular, but now it is out of date.
C. is replaced by other customs in some countries.
D. is considered not to be very polite.
Question 22. The word “came on” in the second paragraph can best be replaced by ________.
A. waited for B. visited C. attacked D. happened to meet
Question 23. Which of the following is NOT true about the handshake ?
A. It happened for the first time very long times ago
B. It is a gesture of good will.
C. It is very popular all over the world.
D. It is one of the social customs.

PRACTICE TEST 23
Time allotted: 60 min.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
These days, there are many students who do not attend physical schools but instead, stay
home, where they are homeschooled. While these students (14)__________study at their homes,
they sometimes visit their local schools. One reason for this concerns athletics. In many
American states, homeschooled students are permitted to play on their local school’s athletic
teams. This is good news for the schools because a lot of homeschoolers are
(15)__________athletes. The students who attend actual schools are mostly accepting of the
homeschoolers. They usually have no problems with them and are often simply
(16)__________about what it is like not to go to school. So they tend to bombard the
homeschoolers with numerous questions. The homeschoolers (17)__________by mingling with
the students at school. Some of them rarely spend time (18)__________, so it helps them
develop their social skills if they can hang out and play sports with other kids.
Question 14. A. primarily B. solely C. relatively D. cautiously
Question 15. A. exception B. exceptions C. exceptional D.
exceptionally
Question 16. A. upset B. curious C. worried D. hostile
Question 17. A. benefit B. benefited
C. benefiting D. will have benefited
Question 18. A. for individuals of their age B. of the individuals who have aged
C. with other individual’s at their age D. by individuals that age

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global
warming. Scientists have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and
animals, such as flowers blooming earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species
have begun shifting where they live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer
temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up
mountainsides toward higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking
new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In many places, however, human development will
prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland blocking their way north or south may
become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those found in polar and
mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not possible.
For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling
sea ice but have nowhere farther north to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some
scientists have estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2
to 3 Celsius degrees of further warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is
extremely important for plants and animals. Some species and even entire ecosystems, such as
certain types of forest, may not be able to adjust quickly enough and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global
warming. Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if
prolonged will lead to the death of the coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of
additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching and death of coral reefs around the
world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and increases the
acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.
Question 19. Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers
to_____.
A. die instantly B. bloom earlier C. become lighter D. lose color
Question 20. According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to
move____.
A. south-eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
B. north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
C. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
D. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
Question 21. The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. species B. ecosystems C. areas D. areas habitats
Question 22. It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius
degrees, _________.
A. half of the earth’s surface would be flooded
B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters
C. water supply would decrease by 50 percent
D. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct
Question 23. The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates_________.
A. the water absorption of coral reefs
B. the quick growth of marine mammals
C. the blooming phase of sea weeds
D. the slow death of coral reefs

PRACTICE TEST 24
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
To all students,
Mr. Richards has just (14)__________the school that he will only be teaching with us for
the next few weeks of the semester. (15)__________to Texas to take care of his parents, both of
whom are elderly. Please give your best wishes to Mr. Richards before he leaves. Mr. Richards
has been with us for five years, and it is safe to say that there is no teacher (16)__________. As
you all know, Mr. Richards teaches social studies and history. Since we are in the middle of the
semester, we do not have enough time to conduct a (17)__________search for new teacher. We
will do that during the winter break. Fortunately, Mrs. Paker has agreed to come out of
retirement, so she will take over Mr. Richards’ classes. Some of you may remember Mrs. Parker,
(18)__________two years ago prior to retiring. She is an outstanding teacher, and you will all
surely benefit from being in her class.
Dee Gorey,
Principal
Question 14. A. informed B. announced C. insisted D. alarmed
Question 15. A. Moving back, he is B. After moving back, he will
C. He has moved back D. He is moving back
Question 16. A. more popular than him B. as popular as that
C. the most popular like him D. more than he is popular
Question 17. A. swift B. thorough C. reduced D. verified
Question 18. A. who taught here B. that is teaching here
C. who will teach here D. which has taught here
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Last weekend, six students from the Donoho School went on a fascinating trip back in time.
These students accompanied Jacksonville State University professor William Bannister on a
fossil hunt. The students, professor, and three graduate assistants headed to a valley near Cheaha
Mountain. The valley was not previously known to have any fossils in it. However, two months
ago, some campers in the valley stumbled upon some bones sticking out from the ground. When
they brought them to the museum, they were told that the bones were those of a brontosaurus, a
species of dinosaur.
Thanks to a generous grant from the Damke Foundation, the students were able to accompany
the professor on his dig. They spent most of both Saturday and Sunday carefully digging in the
area.
"We found a few bones," said Wendy Jacobs, a Donoho senior. "We're not sure which animal
they're from, but the professor assured us they were from a dinosaur."
The students, all of whom intend to major in science at college, are looking forward to
returning this coming weekend. "There's enough money in the grant for the next month, so we
should get to return at least three more times." said Donoho student Philip Peters.
Question 19. What would be the most appropriate headline for this article?
A. Dinosaur Fossils Found near Cheaha Moutain
B. Donoho students meet professor bannister
C. Local studetns go Fossil hunting
D. Dinosaurs: Did they live arround here?
Question 20. In line 5, the phrase ‘stumbled upon’ is closest in meaning to___________.
A. tripped on
B. accidentally found
C. dug up
D. conducted research on
Question 21. Why does the author mention the Damke Foundation?
A. To claim it has an interest in dinosaurs
B. To note a group that is financing the students
C. To focus on its relationship with the Donoho School
D. To claim that it sponsord many local digs
Question 22. Who is Wendy Jacobs?
A. A student at Jacksonville State University
B. One of professor bannister's graduate assitants
C. A fourth-year student at the Donoho school
D. A representative of the Damke Foundation
Question 23. According to the article, when will the students go back to the dig site?
A. within a week
B. in two months
C. during summer vacation
D. next autumn

PRACTICE TEST 25

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Just imagine a day without paper, reads one advertisement for a Finnish paper company.
It adds, 'You almost certainly see our products every day.' And they're right. But in most
industrial countries, people are so (14)__________to paper - whether it's for holding their
groceries, for drying their hands or for PROVIDING them with the daily news - that its
(15)__________ in their daily lives passes largely unnoticed.
At one time paper was in short supply and was used mainly for important documents, but
more recently, growing economies and new technologies have (16)__________ a dramatic
increase in the amount of paper used. However, the costs (17)__________ in paper production,
in terms of the world's land, water and air resources, are high. This (18)__________ some
important questions. How much paper do we really need and how much is wasted?
Question 14. A. conscious B. acquainted C. familiar D. accustomed
Question 15. A. task B. operation C. service D. role
Question 16. A. called on B. came around C. brought about D. drawn
Question 17. A. involved B. contained C. held D. connected
Question 18. A. puts B. raised C. gets D. places

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Are sports bad for kids?
People think children should play sports. Sports are fun, and playing with others.
However, playing sports can have negative effects on children. It may produce feelings of poor
self-respect or aggressive behavior in some children. According to research on kids and sports,
40,000,000 kids play sports in the US. Of these, 18,000,000 say they have been yelled at or
called names while playing sports. This leaves many children with a bad impression of sports.
They think sports are just too aggressive.
Many researchers believe adults, especially parents and coaches, are the main cause of
too much aggression in children's sports. They believe children copy aggressive adult behavior.
This behavior is then further strengthened through both positive and negative feedback. Parents
and coaches are powerful teachers because children usually look up to them. Often these adults
behave aggressively themselves, sending children the message that winning is everything. At
children's sporting events, parents may yell insults at other players or cheer when their child
behaves aggressively. As well, children may be taught that hurting other players is acceptable or
are pushed to continue playing even when they are injured. In addition, the media makes
violence seem exciting. Children watch adult sports games and see violent behavior replayed
over and over on television.
As a society, we really need to face up to this problem and do something about it. Parents
and coaches should act as better examples for children. They also need to teach children better
values. They should teach children to enjoy themselves whether they win or not. It's not
necessary to knock yourselt out to enjoys sports. Winning isn't everything. In addition, children
shouldn't be allowed to continue to play when they are injured. Sending a child with an injury
into a game gives the child the message that health isn't as important as winning. If we make
some basic changes, children might learn to enjoy sports again.
Question 19. What is the main idea of the reading?
A. Children often become like their parents
B. Children need to play sports in school
C. Playing sports may have negative results
D. Some sports can cause health
Question 20. How may children said they had some negative experience when playing sports?
A. All of the children
B. More than half of the children
C. Less than half of the children
D. About ten perfcent of the children
Question 21. Which is described as the main cause of more aggressive playing?
A. Adults
B. Children with low grades in school
C. New rules in sports
D. Other players
Question 22. What does the writter suggest?
A. Aggressive sports shouldn't be shown on television
B. Children shouldn't play sports intil high school
C. Coaches should be required to study child psychology
D. Parents should teach children to play sports for fun and exercise

Question 23. What would probably NOT be done when "facing up to a problem"?
A. Ignoring the problem
B. Finding the reason
C. Admitting there is a problem
D. Looking for a solution

PRACTICE TEST 26
Read the followingpassage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Organized football games began in 1863. In football, two (14)__________of eleven players try
to kick or head the ball into the goal of the other team. The goal keeper, (15)__________tries to
keep the ball out of the goal, is the only player on the field who can touch the ball with his or her
hands. The other players must use their feet, heads and bodies to (16)__________the ball.
Every four years, football teams around the world (17)__________for the World Cup. The
World Cup competition started in 1930. Brazil is the home of many great football players,
including the most famous player of all, Pele’. With his fast dazzling speed, Pele’ played for
many years in Brazil and then in New York. People in more than 140 countries
(18)__________the world play football. It is definitely the world’s most popular sport.
14. A. champions B. teams C. groups D. players
15. A. that B. who C. whom D. which
16. A. hit B. control C. drive D. watch
17. A. compete B. fight C. play D. battle
18. A. on B. all over C. through D. Whole

Read the followingpassage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Scientists know that there were wolves on Earth about one million years ago. Dogs, on the
other hand, have not been on Earth nearly as long. The oldest dog remains, found in Germany,
are about 14,000 years old. Scientists have proven that dogs are descended from wolves. Though
wolves and dogs share some of the same genes, they are not exactly alike. In fact, there are as
many differences as there are similarities between the two.
First, there are physical differences between the two. Wolves have longer legs, larger feet,
and a broader skull than dogs. They also walk differently from dogs. A wolf runs on its toes with
its heels raised up from the ground. This is more similar to a cat's walk than a dogs.
Second, there are mental differences between the two. Dogs have been domesticated. This
means that dogs have been brought under the control of humans in order to provide
companionship. Wolves have not been domesticated. They are wild animals. Having a dog as a
pet is like having a juvenile wolf. A young wolf will turn into a mature adult, while a young dog
does not mature. A dog might seem smart by performing tricks for people. Wolves need to be
smart to survive in the wild. While it may not be impossible to have a wolf as a pet, scientists are
of the opinion that a wolf could never be domesticated in the same way as a dog.
It's important to keep in mind that the differences between the two are great, and each should
be appreciated in its own habitat or home.
(Source: Paul Edmunds, Nancie McKinnon, Developing skills for TOEFL IBT)
19. The passage mainly discusses ___________
A. the differences and similarities between wolves and dogs
B. the great differences between the wolf and the dog
C. the similarities between the wolf and the dog
D. the way to distinguish between a wolf and a dog
20. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to
A. wolves B. dogs C. scientists D. both wolves and dogs
21. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the dog?
A. Dogs provide human beings with companionship.
B. A dog might be smart enough to perform tricks.
C. A dog walks the same way as a young wolf does.
D. Dog shares some genes with those of wolves.
22. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned about the wolf?
A. Wolves have been living on Earth for about a million years.
B. Wolves have better genes than dogs, so they are stronger.
C. Wolves could not be domesticated the way dogs have been.
D. Wolves may not be kept as pets the way dogs have been.
23. The word “mature” in paragraph 3 almost means ___________
A. fully grown B. early rise C. full blossom D. completely evolve

PRACTICE TEST 27

Read the followingpassage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Here are tips that help succeed in your job interview always arrive early. If you do not know
where the organization is located, call for exact directions (14)__________advance. Leave some
extra time for any traffic, parking, or (15)__________events. If you are running late, call right
away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give
(16)__________the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be
ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be
(17)__________to everyone as soon as you walk in the door.
Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First impressions
are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (18)__________wearing too
much jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. While a
suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal
environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a
tailored suit.
14. A. With B. in C. on D. for
15. A. expected B. unexpected C. unexpectedly D. expectedly
16. A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself
17. A. pleasant B. happy C. disappointed D. excited
18. A. avoid B. suggest C. enjoy D. mind

Read the followingpassage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Family life is changing. Two-parent households are on the decline in the United States as
divorce, remarriage and cohabitation are on the rise. And families are smaller now, both due to
the growth of single-parent households and the drop in fertility. Not only are Americans having
fewer children, but the circumstances surrounding parenthood have changed. While in the early
1960s babies typically arrived within a marriage, today fully four-in-ten births occur to women
who are single or living with a non-marital partner. At the same time that family structures have
transformed, so has the role of mothers in the workplace – and in the home. As more moms have
entered the labor force, more have become breadwinners – in many cases, primary breadwinners
– in their families.
 As a result of these changes, there is no longer one dominant family form in the US. Parents
today are raising their children agianst a backdrop of increasingly diverse and, for many,
constantly evolving family forms.
19. Which of the following trends is true in the United States?
A. The rate of divorce is increasing
B. More women become housewives
C. Nuclear family becomes the dominant family form
D. family structures remain unchanged
20. Why has the size of families in the US reduced?
A. There are more families with one parent and fewer babies born each year.
B. There are more extended families and less medical care
C. There are more people living abroad
D. More teenagers decide to live independently of their parents.
21. Who are breadwinners in the US?
A. Only men. B. Only women
C. Either men or women . D. Either women or children
22. Family forms in the US are……………….?
A. Similar. B. Changing
C. Chaotic D. remaining the same.
23. Which of the followinf statements is not true?
A. The number of families with both parents is reducing
B. More women can earn money
C. More women have had their own jobs
D. In 1961, most babies were born by single mother

PRACTICE TEST 28
Read the followingpassage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Just like American students, you will have to submit your academic transcripts as part of
your application for admission to university or college. Academic transcripts are
(14)___________copies of your academic work. In the US, this (15)________ your “grades” and
“grade point average”(GPA), which are measurements of your academic achievement. Courses
are commonly graded using percentages, which are converted (16)___________letter grades.
The grading system and GPA in the USA can be (17)___________, especially for
international students. The interpretation of grades has a lot of variation. For example, two
students who attended different schools (18)___________submit their transcripts to the same
university. They both have 3.5 GPAs, but one student attended an average high school while the
other attended a prestigious school that was academically challenging. The university might
interpret their GPAs differently because the two schools have dramatically different standards.
14. A. popular B. official C. major D. private
15. A. includes B. consists C. possesses D. owns
16. A. into B. in C. from D. for
17. A. easy B. confused C. confusing D. simple
18. A. every B. each C. both D. either

Read the followingpassage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
As the pace of life continues to increase, we are fast losing the art of relaxation. Once you
are in the habit of rushing through life, being on the go from morning to night, it is hard to slow
down. But relaxation is essential fora healthy mind and body.
Stress is a natural part of every life and there is no way to avoid it. In fact, it is not the
bad thing it is often supposed to be. A certain amount of stress is vital to provide motivation and
give purpose to life. It is only when the stress gets out of control that it can lead to poor
performance and ill health.
The amount of stress a person can withstand depends very much on the individual. Some
people are not afraid of stress, and such characters are obviously prime material for managerial
responsibilities. Others lose heart at the first signs of unusual difficulties. When exposed to stress
in whatever form, we react both chemically and physically. In fact we make choice between
"fight" or "flight", and in more primitive days the choice made the difference between life or
death. The crises we meet today are not likely to be so extreme, but however little the stress, it
involves the same response. It is when such a reaction lasts long, through continued exposure to
stress that health becomes endangered. Such serious conditions as high blood pressure and heart
disease have established links with stress. Since we cannot remove stress from our lives (and it
would be unwise to do so even if we could), we need to find ways to deal with it.
19. People are finding less and less time for relaxing themselves because_________.
A. they are becoming busier their work
B. they are travelling fast all the time
C. they do not know how to enjoy themselves
D. they do not believe that relaxation is important for health
20. According to the writer, the most important character for a good manager is his_________.
A. having control over performance B. not fearing stress
C. high sense of responsibility D. knowing the art of relaxation
21. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Different people can withstand different amount of stress
B. It’s easy to change the habit of keeping oneself busy with work
C. Stress is always harmful to people
D. We can find some ways to avoid stress
22. In paragraph 3. "such a reaction" refers back to_________
A. responding to crises quickly
B. losing heart at die signs of difficulties
C. making a choice between "fight" or "flight"
D. reaction to stress both chemically and physically
23. In the last sentence of the passage, "do so" refers to_________.
A. establish links between diseases and stress B. remove stress from our lives
C. find ways to deal with stress D. expose ourselves to stress

PRACTICE TEST 29

Read the followingpassage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Living in a city has a (14)_________of drawbacks. Firstly, there are many problems of traffic
jams and traffic accidents. The increase (15)_________population and the increasing number of
vehicles have caused many accidents to happen every day. Secondly, air pollution negatively
affects people’s health, and it also has a bad influence on the environment. More and more city
dwellers (16)_________from coughing or breathing problems. Thirdly, the city is noisy, even at
night. Noise (17)_________comes from the traffic and from construction sites. Buildings are
always being knocked (18)_________and rebuilt. These factors contribute to making city life
more difficult for its residents.
14. A. lots B. great deal C. number D. numerous
15. A. at B. in C. on D. of
16. A. suffer B. differ C. recover D. different
17. A. polluting B. polluted C. pollution D. pollute
18. A. up B. down C. on D. of

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Education is another area of school life in which information technology is changing the way
we communicate. Today’s college students may not simply sit in a lecture or a library to learn
about their field. Through their computers and the wonders of virtual reality they can particpate
in lifelike simulated experiences. Consider the following scenario of the future of education
made possible through developments in information techonology.
For children over the age of 10, daily attendance at school is not compulsory. Some of the
older children attend school only once or twice a week to get tutorial support or instruction from
a teacher. For the most part, pupils are encouraged to work online from home. Students should
complete a minimum number of study hours per year; however, they may make up these hours
by studying at home at times that suit their family schedule. They can log on early or late in the
day and even join live classes in other countries. In order to ensure that each student is learning
adequately, computer software will automatically monitor the number hours a week each student
studies online as well as that student’s learning materials and assessment activities. Reports will
be available for parents and teachers. The software can then identify the best learning activities
and conditions for each individual student and generate similar activities. It can also identify
areas of week achievement and produce a special programs adjusted to the students’ needs.
19. What is the topic of the passage?
A. Students don’t have to go to school any more.
B. The effect of information technology on education.
C. Students can know about their weal aspects to focus.
D. Computer software will make sure students learn at home.
20. How many times are children who are older than 10 required to go to school?
A. Three B. No time C. Once or twice D. Four
21. The word attendance In the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. Presence B. Absence C. Admission D. Entrance
22. What can’t the software do?
A. Find out the best activities for the students.
B. Design materials for the students.
C. Identify weaknesses of the students.
D. Monitor the time the students learn
23. What is NOT mentioned as a benefit of information technology to the students?
A. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule.
B. Students can stay at home to learn.
C. Students’ learning time won’t be monitored.
D. Students’ weak achievement can be identifed.

PRACTICE TEST 30
Read the followingpassage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
According to a group called The Voices Foundation, everyone has a singing voice as well as a
speaking voice somewhere inside them. This, they say, should be encouraged from an early age
because it provides the best, and the cheapest, basis on which to build an understanding of music.
The Hungarian composer - Zoltán Kodaly observed that song (14) ____________a key part of
the relationship between mother and child almost from birth. This is especially fact of more
traditional societies, like those of West Africa, where some small children are (15)
____________to sing literally hundreds of songs, all of which have been learnt by (16)
____________. But many modern children first
(17) ____________ to an understanding of music when they learn to play an instrument, and
(18)____________ some teaching of the theory of music is usually a part of this, their
relationship with the music on the song is often a mechanical one.
14. A. grows B. does C. forms D. makes
15. A. able B. expert C. skilled D. fit
16. A. repeat B. heart C. head D. mind
17. A. come B. reach C. go D. arrive
18. A. however B. despite C. although D. whether

Read the followingpassage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Bees, classified into over 10,000 species, are insects found in almost every part of the world
except the northernmost and southernmost regions. One commonly known species is the
honeybee, the only bee that produces honey and wax. Humans use the wax in making candles,
lipsticks, and other products, and they use the honey as a food. While gathering the nectar and
pollen with whichthey make honey, bees are simultaneously helping to fertilize the flowers on
which they land. Many fruits and vegetables would not survive if bees did not carry the pollen
from blossom to blossom.
Bees live in a structured environment and social structure within a hive, which is a nest with
storage space for the honey. The different types of bees each perform a unique function. The
worker bee carries nectar to the hive in a special stomach called a honey stomach, other workers
make beeswax and shape it into a honeycomb, which is a waterproof mass of six-sided
compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs in completed cells. As the workers build more cells,
the queen lays more eggs.
All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller than the queen. The male
honeybees are called drones; they do no work and cannot sting. They are developed from
unfertilized eggs, and their only job is to impregnate a queen. The queen must be fertilized in
order to lay worker eggs. During the season when less honey is available and the drone is of no
further use, the workers block the drones from eating the honey so that they will starve to death.
19. Which of the following is the best title for this reading?
A. The Many Species of Bees
B. The Useless Drone
C. The Honeybee - its characteristics and usefulness
D. Making Honey
20. The word species in the first sentence is closest in meaning to___________
A. mates B. varieties C. killers D. enemies
21. The word which in line 6 refers to___________.
A. fertilizer B. flowers C. honey D. bees
22. According to the passage, a hive is___________.
A. a type of society B. a nest
C. a type of bee D. a storage space
23. According to the passage, the drone___________.
A. collects less honey than workers.
B. mates with the queen and has no other purpose.
C. comes from eggs fertilized by other drones.
D. can be male orfemale.
 EXERCISES
Read the text below and fill in each blank with the correct option A, B, C, or D.
What makes a good language learner
- Don’t be afraid of making mistakes. Good language learners notice their mistakes and learn
from (26)____________.
- Do group activities. A good language learner always (27) ____________for opportunities to
have a talk with
other students.
- Make notes during every class. Notes help you to remember new language. Look (28)
____________ your notes when you do your homework.
- Use a dictionary. Good language learners often use dictionaries to (29) ____________ the
meaning of words they don't know. They also make their own vocabulary lists.
- Do extra practice. Test and improve your language, reading and listening skills with self-study
material. You can find a lot of this online.
- Enjoy learning. Watch a TV series or film, listen to songs, play video games or (30)
____________ a book in the language you are learning. It's never too late to become a good
language learner.
(Adapted from learnenglish.britishcouncil.org)
26 A. her B. him C. you D. them
. 27 A. look B. looks C. is looked D. are looked
. 28 A. at B. forward C. about D. with
. 29 A. look B. support C. lose D. check
. 30 A. surf B. speak C. read D. do
.
Read the passage below carefully and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D.
The giraffe is the tallest living animal. It can reach a height of more than 5.5 meters. Giraffes
live in eastern Africa. The scientific name of the giraffe is Giraffa Camelopardalis.
Giraffes have a short body, but their legs and neck are very long. The coat is light brown
with reddish brown spots. Many giraffes have two short horns between the ears. Giraffes have
large nostrils and a good sense of smell. Giraffes have long tongues of between 45 and 50
centimeters.
Giraffes are plant eaters. They can reach leaves at the top of trees. But they do not eat grass.
It is very hard for them to reach the ground because the neck is stiff. To drink, a giraffe must spread
its legs far apart to reach down.
Giraffes live in herds of up to twenty animals. They use their good eyesight to watch for
danger. Lions, cheetahs, and crocodiles are the giraffe's enemies. Giraffes will try to gallop away
from danger, but they can fight if necessary. They can run about 50 kilometers an hour.
A female giraffe gives birth to one calf at a time. The newborn can usually follow its mother
around within hours. Giraffes live about 20 to 25 years.
Giraffes are still common in eastern Africa. They are protected there inside national parks.
In Other places, however, hunting has reduced the number of giraffes.
(Adapted from kids.britannica.com)

31. The giraffe is the tallest living animal but their is short.
A. leg B. body C. neck D. tongue
32. What do giraffes eat?
A. flowers near the ground B. grass on the ground
C. leaves at the top of trees D. birds in the trees
33. What does the word "gallop" in paragraph 4 mean?
A. run B. swim C. fly D. climb
34. What does the word "they" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. lions B. crocodiles C. cheetahs D. giraffes
35. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the giraffe?
A. Giraffes are not protected inside national parks.
B. Giraffes use their good eyesight to watch for danger.
C. Giraffes live in groups of up to twenty animals.
D. Giraffes have large nostrils and a good sense of smell.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word that
best fits each of the numbered blank from 26-30. (1.25 point)
Online shopping is one (26) ________ the fastest growing areas of the Net, (27) ________
offers users many advantages over traditional shopping. Customers have access to a wider range
of the best goods than in any shopping centre there are no queues or parking problems; ‘shops’ are
open 24 hours (28) ________ day and purchases are delivered to your door. What is more, prices
are competitive, and online price comparison services enable you to find the most suitable items.
(29) ________ sites search the net for a product and then show you how much different online
stores are charging. Once you have decided what you are going to buy, and who you are going to
buy it from, simply click on the “add to shopping basket” (30) ________ on your smartphone.
Question 26: A. of B. by C. for D. with
Question 27: A. who B. which C. whose D. whom
Question 28: A. the B. a C. an D. X (nothing)
Question 29: A. every B. each C. much D. many
Question 30: A. icon B. slogan C. symbol D. logo

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions.
In the USA, there are two days for children to express their love and gratitude to their
parents: Mother’s Day and Father’s Day.
Mother’s Day is celebrated on the second Sunday in May. On this day, mothers usually
receive greeting cards and gifts from their husbands and children. The best gift of all American
moms is a day of leisure. The majority of American mothers have outside jobs as well as
housework, so their working days are often very hard. Flowers are an important part of the day.
Mothers are often given a plant for the occasion, particularly if they are elderly.
Father’s Day is celebrated throughout the USA on the third Sunday in June. The holiday
customs are similar to Mother’s Day. Dad also receives the same gifts as what moms get on their
day.
Question 31: This passage is mainly about ________.
A. celebrations for teachers B. festivals in the USA
C. celebrations for parents in the USA D. festivals for parents in the world
Question 32: According to the passage, Mother’s Day is celebrated ________.
A. on the third Sunday in May B. on the second Sunday in May
C. on the last weekend in May D. on the first weekend in May
Question 33: According to the passage, which can mothers not receive on Mother’s Day?
A. greeting cards B. a day of leisure
C. flowers D. a wedding dress
Question 34: Father’s Day is held ________ according to the passage.
A. in the west of the USA B. outside the USA
C. throughout the USA D. in the east of the USA
Question 35: It can be inferred from the passage that on the occasion of Father’s Day ________.
A. kids wear animal masks and visit parents
B. dads dress smartly and give greeting cards and gifts to mums and family members
C. kids get anything they want from fathers
D. dads receive greeting cards and gifts from his family and enjoy a day of leisure.

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống:
Alexander Mc Queen
Alexander McQueen is one of the world’s most famous clothes designers, He stated working in an
expensive clothes shop in London where he made clothes for people like Prince Charles and the
Russian leader Mikhail Gorbrachev. (23) ________ the 1990s, he decided to work on his own and
he (24) ________ his own fashion business.
Many rich and famous people became his customers and the clothes (25) ________ he made for
them were often unusual. Magazines and newspaper liked to write (26) ________ about his clothes
and about him. However, he wasn’t always pleasant to journalists so they didn’t always write nice
things about him. But McQueen never cared what anyone said about him.
Unfortunately, he (27) ________ in 2010 when he was only 41 years old.
23. A. In B. On C. At D. For
24. A. closed B. opened C. sold D. set
25. A. whose B. who C. which D. whom
26. A. books B. films C. programs D. articles
27. A. dies B. died C. die D. dying

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu hỏi:
If you have decided to be a doctor or an engineer, it’s easy to get information about how to
become one. It’s more difficult if you want to be an actor. Nobody can say, “First you do this, then
you do that, and one day you’re an actor”. But I can tell you some things that will help.
Learning to be an actor usually starts at school. Frama lessons and clubs can teach students
many things, including different ways of acting and how wo write their own plays. Writing helps
you to understand a lot about acting. But even more important s learning to work in a group with
other actors.
However, school lessons and clubs are only one part of learning about being an actor. Find
small theatre groups near where you live - and don’t worry about being the star! It doesn’t matter
id you only have one word to say in a play, it still helps you improve. You need to be on stage as
much as possible, in a variety of different types of plays.
When you finish school, you should think about studying at university. Of course, it’s possible
to be an actor without going to university, but doing a theatre course is a good idea for some people.
These courses may improve your acting, and also help you learn about a variety of subjects, such
as business, history, music and dance.
32. What is the best title for this text?
A. My Life as an Actor C. Different Types of Acting Jobs
B. How to Become an Actor D. Going to university may help
33. According to paragraph 1, if you want to become an actor, it’s difficult to.
A. decide if it’s a good job for you C. tell people why you want it
B. find out what you need to do D. compare with other jobs
34. The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to.
A. schools’ B. lessons’ C. clubs’ D. students’
35. What advice does the writer give in paragraph 3?
A. Practice acting outside school. C. Learn about all kinds of jobs in theatres.
B. Meet theatre stars who live near you. D. Remember your words in the plays.
36. The phrases “a variety of” in paragraph 4 is closest meaning to.
A. many B. important C. unnecessary D. difficult

Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
The tourist industry (23) ____________ to be the world's largest industry. The direct
(24)_________ impact of the industry, including accommodation, transportation, entertainment,
and attractions, is worth trillions of dollars every year. The statistics show that the number of
international tourist (25) _________ worldwide reached 1.04 billion in 2012.
Such large numbers of tourists, however, are beginning to cause problems. For example, in
the Alps the many thousands of skiers are destroying the mountains they come to enjoy. Even parts
of Mount Everest in the Himalayas are reported to be covered (26) _________ old food tins, tents,
and pieces of equipment that have been thrown away.
Now there is a new holiday guide (27) _________ is called Holidays That Don't Cost the
Earth. It tells you how you can be a responsible tourist by asking your travel agent or your tour
operator the right questions before you book a holiday.
(Adapted from Tieng Anh 9 Workbook - Pearson Education Publishing House)
Question 23 A. is considered B. is considering C. considered D. considers
Question 24 A. medical B. cultural C. economic D.
educational
Question 25 A. arriving B. arrive C. arrivers D. arrivals
Question 26 A. for B. on C. with D. by
Question 27 A. where B. which C. who D. whom

Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 32.
Many people still believe that natural resources will never be used up. Actually, the world's
energy resources are limited. Nobody knows exactly how much fuel is left. However, we also
should use them economically and try to find out alternative sources of power. According to
Professor Marvin Burnham of the New England Institute of Technology, we have to start
conserving coal, oil and gas before it is too late; and nuclear power is the only alternative.
However, many people do not approve of using nuclear power because it's very dangerous.
What would happen if there were a serious nuclear accident? Radioactivity causes cancer and may
badly affect the future generations.
The most effective thing is that we should use natural resources as economically as possible.
(Adapted from
sachmoi24h.com)
Question 28: Many people still believe that we will never _________ natural resources.
A. rise B. reduce C. run out of D. raise
Question 29: According to the writer, we should use energy resources _________.
A. regularly B. economically C. naturally D. less
Question 30: The phrase "approve of” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. explain B. disagree C. improve D. agree
Question 31: What causes cancer and may badly affect the future generations?
A. Coal B. Radioactivity C. Electricity D. Fuel
 Question 32: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about nuclear
power?
A. safe B. risky C. dangerous D. unsafe

Read the following passage and choose the option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1,0pts)
Most of the people (17) _________ like films are only interested in the leading actor or
actress when they enjoy a film. It seems to them that only the actors or actresses have made the
film successful. They always pay attention to their appearance, performance, and fashion. There
are many films (18) _________ who have no awareness of the other people’s work to make a film.
A finished film is, actually, the result of the collaboration of many people, and the most important
among (19)_________ are the scriptwriter, the cinematographer, the film editor, the actor, and the
director. Especially, in some thrilling scenes, the roles of stuntmen are very important. They are
always in (20)_________ when they are acting; some of them are even badly hurt or dead. But
what a pity, many viewers rarely appreciate their work.
Question 17: A. whom B. who C. which D. whose
Question 18: A. actors B. actresses C. viewers D. directors
Question 19: A. it B. they C. them D. him
Question 20: A. danger B. dangerous C. endangering D. endanger

Read the following passage and choose the option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions. (1,0pt)
Travelling is one of the most popular forms of recreation in the USA. Most American
employees receive an annual vacation with pay, and it is a good time off for travelling. Travelling
within the country is popular because foreign travel generally takes more time and money.
However, Americans who wish to vacation outside the USA are free to go almost anywhere.
Obtaining a passport is a routine matter.
Every year about 13 million Americans travel abroad. The most popular vacation periods
are during the summer and during the two-week school break on the Christmas and New Year’s
holidays. These periods are also the most crowded and generally the most expensive time to
travel, so people who can adjust their schedules sometimes choose vacation in the autumn.
American vacationers often travel by car. Most families have a car, and those who do not have
a car can rent one. Cars are usually the economical way to travel, especially for the families.
It is also fairly fast and convenient. Excellent highways connect the major cities. They enable
vacationees to travel at an almost steady speed of 55 to 65 miles an hour. Tourists that want to
travel faster often fly to their destination and then rent a car to go around when they get there.
Question 21: The passage is mainly about ________.
A. Christmas and New Year B. going abroad
C. travelling in USA D. renting a car for travelling
Question 22: When is travelling the least expensive?
A. in the autumn B. in the summer
 C. on the Christmas D. during New Year’s holiday
Question 23: Which sentence is NOT correct?
A. Most American employees have a vacation every year.
B. Millions of American people travel abroad every year.
C. There is a two-week break on the Christmas and the New year’s holidays.
D. It is difficult to obtain a passport in the USA.
Question 24: The word “one” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
A. a vacationer B. a family C. a car D. a holiday

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheer to indicate
the correct word or phrase that beat fits each of the numbered blanks (1.25 points)
The ideal breakfast, say scientists, is a glass of orange juice, a cup of coffee and a bowl of
cereal. People who start the day with a drink of vitamin C, a dose of caffeine an and perform better
(26)________ the morning. Andy Smith, of the University of Bristol, said, "A study of 600 people
who were asked to record their breakfast (27) ________ found that those who regularly ate cereal
in the morning had a more positive mood compared with those who ate other foods or had no
breakfast. Earlier research had shown that people whose (28) ________ performance was
measured immediately after eating breakfast of any kind performed 10 percent better on test of
remembering speed of response and ability to (29) ________ compared with those given only a
cup of decaffeinated coffee. In further research, Professor Smith said that people who drank four
cups of coffee a day performed more (30) ________ all day than those who drank less. He
suggested that sensible employers should give out free coffee or tea.
Question 26: A. while B. throughout C. whole D. along
Question 27: A. ways B. traditions C. uses D. habits
Question 28: A. sensible B. mental C. social D. physical
Question 29: A. concentrate B. attend C. follow D. listen
Question 30: A. well B. comfortably C. efficiently D. profitably

Read the passage and answer the given questions on your answer sheet (0.75 point)
It takes a long time and a lot of money to develop a modern farm. Don has been farming on
his own ever since his father died, twelve years ago. He had to borrow the money to buy new
machinery, new fertilizers and new feeds. At last he is beginning to make money and he hopes in
few years to pay off all his loans.
With all the help from machines, farming still requires hard work and long hours, Don gets
up at 5.30 each morning and seldom stops working before late in the evening. But despite the hard
work and long hours. Don likes his life on the farm. He wouldn't trade it for any other.
Question 35: Is it easy to develop a modern farm?
___________________________________________________________________________
____.
Question 36: How did Don improve his farm?
 ___________________________________________________________________________
____.

Question 37: What sentence from the text shows that Don works very hard?
___________________________________________________________________________
____.

Read the text about the first films. Choose the letter (A. B. C or D) to indicate the word that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The First Films
The brothers Louis and Auguste Lumiere were the first people in (18) ________ make
moving pictures. (19) _________ world to December 28th 1895, in Paris, they showed a 'movie'
in cinema for the first time using a machine (20) _________ the Cinematographe.
The film was a comedy about a gardener (21) _________ had an accident with some water
got very wet. Everyone thought it was very funny.
In 1907, the first film studios were (22) _________ in a part of Los Angeles known as
Hollywood. During the 1920s, Hollywood (23) _________ the centre of the world film industry.
In the beginning, the films had no sound.
Instead, (24) _________ were words on the screens from time to time, (25) _________ people
the story.
18. A. a B. one C. the D. over
19. A. on B. in C. at D. to
20. A. to call B. calling C. call D. called
21. A. what B. where C. who D. which
22. A. built B. written C. played D. appeared
23. A. is B. was C. be D. were
24. A. here B. these C. those D. there
25. A. saying B. telling C. speaking D. talking

Read the passages below carefully and decide whether the sentences are true (T) or false (F).
(1.25 points)
John, 15
On weekdays, I usually hang out with my friends after school. Every Thursday afternoon, I
attend Teens' Cookery Club. I enjoy cooking, and I can make lots of delicious cookies. My dream
is to become an internationally recognized cook.
Thomas, 16
As soon as the school finishes, I often go home. My cousin, who studies in the same school,
usually comes over on Wednesday evening and we play chess with each other. Unlike me, he is
very good at this game. I have learnt a lot from him. I think playing chess improves my intelligence
and critical thinking. It is a very useful sport.
 Mango, 15
I love painting. That's why I attend the art club at my school every Tuesday and Friday. We
have a teacher, and she often encourages us to paint our way. We are not charged for joining the
club, but we pay $10 per month to buy necessary stuff. That's pretty cheap. I would like to become
an artist to inspire people's creativity.
26. All the above teenagers attend a club after school.
27. John wants to become a famous cook in the world.
28. Thomas is very good at playing chess.
29. Mango has to pay $10 to join her school art club.
30. Mango's teacher doesn't make her students paint like her

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the word that best fits each numbered blank.
Ayers Rock, which was found for the first time by European explorers in 1873, is a famous
landmark (17) ________ the desert of central Australia. The original inhabitants of this part of
Australia, the Aborigines, call it Uluru. It is 348 meters high. 3.6 kilometres long and 1.9
kilometres wide. It is a beautiful red-brown colour, especially when the sun (18) ________ on it
early in the morning and in the evening.
When tourists want to visit Uluru, they often start 440 kilometres away in a town called Alice
Springs. People on these trips usually sleep outside under the stars, not in tents (19) ________ it's
more exciting. A fire keeps away snakes and other animals during the night. And when the sun
comes up in the morning, the view of Uluru is amazing. After breakfast, visitors often walk around
the base of the rock. There are caves around the base of the rock and inside them you (20)
________ see paintings. Some of them are thousands of years old.
Question 17. A. for B. front C. next D. in
Question 18. A. sits B. look C. shines D. watch
Question 19. A. because B. moreover C. however D. such
Question 20. A. are B. have C. can D. ought

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the best answer to each of the following questions.
Tet in Viet Nam starts with the first new moon, usually in late January' or early February.
The celebrations usually last for three days. The Vietnamese celebrate Tet with family gatherings,
wonderful foods and lion dances. Let’s take a look at some of the traditions linked to Tet, the most
popular festival in Viet Nam.
* Red is a bright, happy colour that keeps away bad spirits. That’s why people decorate their
homes with red and yellow to bring good luck for the next year. Also, parents and grandparents
give children special lucky money in red envelopes.
* One thing people avoid during Tet is sweeping the house. Before Tet, the Vietnamese clean their
houses to clear out any bad luck from the previous year. People finish cleaning before New Year’s
Day because they believe you’ll brush away your good luck if you sweep the house during Tet.
People also buy branches of apricot blossom or peach blossom, which symbolise a long life, to
decorate their houses.
Traditionally, people travel back to their hometowns to celebrate Tet with their family. During
their stay, they visit relatives and have large meals together. They wear colourful new clothes to
bring them good luck for the coming new year. They also visit flower fairs and calligraphy markets
where calligraphers can write poems on "giấy dó”, wood or stone for them.
Question 21. What is the best title of the passage?
A. Traditional celebrations in Viet Nam.
B. Popular activities during Tet holidays.
C. Family gatherings on Tet holidays.
D. Tet in Viet Nam.
Question 22. According to the passage, how long does Tet usually last?
A. For a long time. B. In early February. C. For three days. D. In late January.
Question 23. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. People finish cleaning their houses before New Year’s Day.
B. Apricot blossom and peach blossom symbolise a long life.
C. The Vietnamese clean their houses during Tet.
D. Houses are decorated with branches of apricot blossom or peach blossom.

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1.0 pt)
Madagascar – When to go
Madagascar has two seasons, a warm, wet season from November to April, and 3 cooler dry
season between May and October. However, different parts of the country have very different
weather.
The east coast is hotter and wetter, with up to 4,000 mm rainfall per year. In the rainy season,
there are strong winds, and these can cause a lot of damage. Avoid visiting eastern Madagascar
between January and March because the weather can make road travel very difficult. The dry
season is cooler more pleasant.
The high, central part of country is much drier and cooler. About 1,400 mm of rain falls in the
rainy season, with some thunderstorm.
especially in the mornings, with freezing showers, and it may snow in mountain areas above
2,400m and even stay there for several days. The summer here is usually sunny and dry, but it can
be cold, especially in the mornings, with freezing showers, and It may snow in mountain areas
above 2. In.. and even stay there for several days.
The west coast is the driest part of the island. Here, the winter months are pleasant with little
rain, cooler temperatures and blue skies. The summers can be extremely hot. especially in the
southwest. This part of the country is semi-desert, and only gets around 300mm of rain per year.
 Question 13. According to the passage. Madagascar has _________ season(s).
A. four B. three C. two D. one
Question 14. What does the word “these" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. rainfall B. strong winds C. different parts D. season
Question 15. According to the passage, all of the following statements arc true
EXCEPT__________.
A. The wet season is cooler than the dry season
B. There is more rain in January than in June
C. The summers in the southwest can be extremely hot
D. Snow sometimes falls in Madagascar
Question 16. Visitors should avoid going to eastern Madagascar between January and March
because ___________.
A. there are a lot of thunderstorms B. the weather is cool and pleasant
C. this part of the country is semi-desert D. the weather can make it difficult to travel

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A. B, C or D on y our answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1.0 pt)
Corona virus germs live in people’s throats and mouths. When somebody (29) _______ has the
corona virus coughs or sneezes or breathes out, the germs come out of their mouth in tiny drops of
water Though you can't see the germs, you can sometimes sec these tiny drops. In cold weather,
they make a cloud of steam. If someone else (30) ________ breathe in the air with the corona virus
germs in it, will probably get the illness.
It’s easy (31) _______ corona virus germs inside your body when you touch your eyes, nose or
your mouth. If a person with the corona virus germs on their hands uses a door, the (32) ______
germs, can live on the handle for hours. When someone else opens the door, they get the germs on
their hands too. And if they touch their eyes, nose or mouth, the germs will get into their body. So
you may also catch the corona virus by touching things that someone with the virus has already
touched.
Question 29. A. what B. who C. where D. which
Question 30. A. accidental B. accidents C. accidentally D. accident
Question 31. A. got B. getting C. get D. to get
Question 32 A. invisible B. noticeable C. obvious D. secret
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the word that best fits each numbered blank. (1.0 point)
In Viet Nam, a market is a trading place, but many markets are not only about buying and
selling things. A traditional market is (26) ________ social gathering point for people of all ages
and it is a new and exciting experience for children. People go to the traditional market to buy and
sell things, to eat, drink, and play games and (27) _________. For example, if you go to Sa Pa
Market, (28) ________ is in the highlands in the north of Vet Nam, you can see people wear their
nicest clothes and spend all day long at the market. They buy things, play the flute, dance and sing.
This is also time to meet, (29) ________ friends or look for lovers. Some (30) ________
countryside markets in the Mekong Delta are held on boats. The most exciting time to enjoy the
atmosphere of the markets is in the early morning.
Question 26. A. an B. a C. the D. no article
Question 27. A. B. socially C. social D. sociable
socialize
Question 28. A. who B. whom C. that D. which
Question 29. A. get B. do C. take D. make
Question 30. A. others B. other C. another D. each

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the best answer to each of the following questions. (1.0 point)
Saving energy does net have to be expensive or time-consuming. But what can you do to save
energy? There is plenty that you can do to help the process of energy conservation. You can save
energy by following these simple rules: making sure that the kettle does not contain more water
than needed; always washing a full load in the washing machine rather than a half load, turning
down your central heating by 10C – this could cut your heating bill 10%; being sure that hot water
taps are not left running and replacing washer if your tap drip; turning off any light and your
computer at work if you are not using them; changing to energy-saving light bulbs which use
around a quarter of electricity of standard bulbs and will last eight times longer; closing your
curtains at dusk to keep the warm air from escaping through the window; and switching off
Giaoandethitienganh.info
electrical appliances when they are not in use.
Question 31. The energy-saving light bulbs consume about _______ of electricity amount in
comparison with standard ones?
A. 25% B. 35% C. 15% D. 45%
Question 32. Which of the following sentences is NOT true, according to passage?
A. Turn of electrical appliances if we do not use them.
B. Energy-saving light bulbs should be used in order to save electricity.
C. The ways to save energy are not time-consuming or costly.
D. We should close curtains so that our house looks more beautiful.
Question 33. The word “cut” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________?
A. raise B. increase C. destroy D. reduce
Question 34. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. How to protect the environment
B. How to use light bulbs
C. How to keep your house warm
D. How to save energy
Question 35: The word “they” in the passage refers to __________.
A. windows B. curtains C. electrical appliances D. ordinary bulbs
 Chọn từ thích hợp trong ô dưới đây để hoàn thành mỗi chỗ trống trong đoạn trích sau. Viết
câu trả lời vào bải làm.
ways in avoide because many
Teenagers today live (26) __________ a very competitive world. It is more important than ever
to succeed at school if you hope to have a chance in the job market afterwards. It’s no wonder that
many young people worry about letting down their parents, their peers and themselves. To try to
please everyone, they take on too (27) __________ tasks until it becomes harder and harder to
balance homework, parties, sports activities and friends. The result is that young people suffer
from stress.
There are different (28) __________ of dealing with stress. Everyone knows that caffeine keeps
you awake and alert. But caffeine is a drug which can become addictive. In the end, like other
drugs, caffeine only leads to more stress. There are better ways to deal with stress. Physical
exercise is a good release for stress. (29) __________ it increases certain chemicals in the brain
which calm you down. You have to get enough sleep to (30) __________ stress and to stay healthy.

II. Đọc đoạn trích sau và chọn một từ thích hợp để điền vào chỗ trống. Viết A, B, C hoặc D vào
bài làm.
English began as a west Germanic language (31) __________ was brought to England
around 400 AD. Old English was the spoken and written language of England between 400 and
1100 AD. But Old English was very (32) __________ from Modem English and only a few words
can be easily recognized. English from about 1300 to 1500 is known as Middle English. It was
influenced by French and Latin in vocabulary and (33) __________. Modem English developed
from the Middle English dialect of the East Midlands and was influenced by the English used (34)
__________ London, Where a printing press was set up in 1476. The development of printing
helped established standards of spelling (35) __________ grammar but there was still a lot of
variation.
31. A. who B. where C. what D. which
32. A. similar B. different C. strange D. dependent
33. A. meaning B. language C. writing D. pronunciation
34. A. in B. on C. at D. by
35. A. because B. so C. but D. and

III. Đọc đoạn trích sau và chọn phương án đúng nhất để trả lời các câu hỏi. Viết A, B, C
hoặc D vào bài làm.
More than 80% of American high school students do part-time jobs in the evening, on
weekends or in summers. These part-time jobs bring teenagers great advantages.
One of the benefits of the work is the students can learn the skills, that will be useful for the
rest of their Iives. When the students work, thev have to manage both the job and schoolwork. To
be able to do so, they must be very organized and able to keep a sensible schedule. They also learn
to cope with the job stress apart from the stress of the schoolwork. Some of the most stressful jobs
include teaching, nursing, and police work. These skills help prepare teenagers for their later
careers. High school students who work are more likely to succeed as adults than people who enter
the job market at a later age with no work experience.
Teenagers want a lot of expensive things: clothes, mp3 players. Smartphones, etc. Not all
parents can afford them. And even if they can, the teens might not really appreciate that money
because they did not earn it. When teenagers make money for themselves, they know its true value
and are less likely to spend it foolishly.
36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Advantages of part-time jobs
B. Advantages and disadvantages of part-time jobs
C. Disadvantages of part time jobs to teenagers
D. Stress of teenagers’ schoolwork
37. According to the passage, what is NOT die benefit of doing part-time jobs?
A. learning useful skills
B. spending money foolishly
C. coping with job stress
D. keeping a sensible schedule
38. The word '‘they” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. benefits B. students C. skills D. stressful jobs
39. According to tile passage, some of the most ________ jobs include teaching, nursing and
police work
A. stressful B. harmful C. helpful D. useful
40: The word "afford" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. use B. buy C. play D. spend
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of questions from 2-6.
In the past, traveling was nothing less chon It dangerous Adventure. People had no means of
transport as they have now. They faced all sorts of danger such as bad weather, wild beasts and
robbers. Therefore, most people did not like to go away from their villages. Only those who were
adventurous set out on a long journey.
When man succeeded in training the four-foot animals like the horse and the camel, traveling
became fairly comfortable. A trip across country was still a dangerous undertaking. In those days,
it was also very difficult to transport goods from one place to another. Man carried his load on his
head or buck. Later, horses and other animals were used for these purposes. But man and animals
could not carry very heavy loads from one place to another.
Now people living in any part of a country can travel to any other part in comfort. Every country
sets up a railway network. A small sum of money is required to go from one corner of the country
to another. If you business is more urgent, you can travel by airplane. A plane will need only a
couple of days to fly around the whole world. Traveling by sea also become swifter, more
comfortable and secure than before.
Question 2. In the past, who set out on a long journey?
A. Most people in the village B. Robber on the roads
C. Those who travel on foot D. Those who were adventurous
Question 3. With the help of horses and camels as means of transport, _______.
 A. animals were able to carry heavy loads from one place to another
B. animals carried everything for man
C. man carried his heavy loads on his head and back
D. man and animals were not still able to carry very heavy loads from one place to another
Question 4. According to the passage, what is TRUE about traveling now?
A. Traveling by sea is more comfortable but still unsafe.
B. People have to pay a large sum of money to go by train from one part of the country to another
C. Traveling by train is possible only in certain countries.
D. People can fly around the world in a couple of days.
Question 5. The word "swifter" in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. cheaper B. safer C. quicker D. longer
Question 6. What is the best title of the passage?
A. Traveling by Airplane B. Traveling Now
C. Traveling Past and Now D. Traveling in the Past

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that best
completes each of the numbered blanks from 15-17.
Sociologists have been carried out research into the social pressure on teenagers. Many
adolescents are unhappy at school (15) __________ they find it difficult to make friends. They
may also worry about their appearance and there is a great deal of pressure on them to dress, talk
and behave the same as others. This (16) ___________ is called peer pressure. and it is very
common in today’s society. There are a number of programs for teenagers on TV. They provide
them with practical skills such as reasoning skills, social skills and cognitive skills. Sadly, many
teenagers act (17) _________ and even do negative things just to make others accept them. Peer
pressure is often the clear reason for teenage smoking, drug abuse or dangerous driving. Teenagers
need to keep away from social pressure and to find friends with whom they can share emotions,
thoughts and responsibilities when they have a problem.
Question 15.
A. because B. however C. therefore D. but
Question 16.
A. phenomenon B. cultivation C. recognition D. indicator
Question 17.
A. effectively B. impossibly C. irresponsibly D. decisively

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct preposition or adverb particle that
completes
Part 4. Choose the letter A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage. (1.0
point)
It’s a custom for all (31) __________ of a Chinese family to be present at home on the Eve
Chinese New Year for the reunion dinner. This custom is meant to symbolize the unity of the
family for the (32)__________ New Year. (33) __________ the reunion dinner, the younger
member of the family must serve tea to the elders as a show of respect. On the first five days of
the Chinese New Year, no one in the family is allowed to (34) __________ the floor. The Chinese
believe that the act of sweeping will drive away all the good luck (35) __________ the New Year
could bring.
31. A. people B. members C. friends D. characters
32. A. to come B. come C. comes D. coming
33. A. After B. Before C. While D. When
34. A. clear B. clean C. sweep D. tidy
35. A. where B. who C. what D. which

Part 5. Read the passage carefully and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer to the
questions (1.0 point)
Solar energy is a long lasting source of energy which can be used almost anywhere. To
generate solar energy, we only need solar cells and the sun! Solar cells can easily be installed on
house roofs, so no new space is needed and each user can quietly generate their own energy.
Compared to other renewable sources, they also possess many advantages. Wind and water power
rely on turbines which arc noisy, expensive and easy to break down. Solar cells arc totally silent
and non-polluting. As they have no moving parts, they require little maintenance and have a long
lifetime.
However, solar energy also has sonic disadvantages. We can only generate solar energy during
daytime because the system depends on sunlight. Besides, solar cells require large area to work
effectively. The main disadvantage of solar energy is that it costs about twice as much as traditional
sources such as coal, oil, and gas. This is because solar cells arc expensive. Scientists are hoping
that the costs of solar cells will reduce as more and more people sec the advantages of this
environmentally friendly source of energy.
36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Advantages and disadvantages of solar energy.
B. Solar energy’s advantages over other sources of energy.
C. The cost of solar energy.
D. Solar energy as an alternative for fossil fuels.
37. What does the word they in line 4 refer to?
A. solar energy users B. other renewable resources
C. advantages. D. solar cells
38. Which of the following is NOT a traditional source of energy?
A. solar energy B. oil C. coal D. gas
39. Which of die following is die main disadvantage of solar energy mentioned in the passage?
A. It is expensive. B. Solar cells require large areas to operate.
C. It is unfriendly to the environment. D. it depends on sunlight.
40. What does die word advantages in line 13 mean?
A. very bad B. resources C. benefits D. friendly
Part 2. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to fill in each gap in the following passage. (4
point).
Apparently a lack of sleep is causing problems for many teenagers at school. Scientists say that
(17)_________ young people get at least eight hours of sleep a night, they won’t be able to
concentrate well in class. Some schools have tried (18) __________ the start of the school day.
One head teacher says “The later start to the day is very (19) _________ and, provided that all the
parents agree, we shall make this later starting time permanent”. The students are getting nearly
an hour’s (20) _________ sleep and it’s having a good effect (21) ________ their work. They’re
happier and concentrating much harder. We all need (22) _________ sleep to recharge our batteries
(23) __________, we feel terrible the next day. It’s impossible to persuade young people to go to
bed earlier so the only alternative is to (24)_________ them get up later.
Question 17. A. because B. unless C. if D. while
Question 18. A. delaying B. delays C. delayed D. delay
Question 19. A. B. successful C. succeed D. success
successfully
Question 20. A. much B. less C. more D. fewer
Question 21. A. in B. at C. about D. on
Question 22. A. much B. only C. enough D. a lot
Question 23. A. Otherwise B. Moreover C. Furthermore D. However
Question 24. A. have B. allow C. make D. let

Part 3. Read the passage and answer the questions below. (4 points)
Recently, organisers put on a huge concert called Live Earth. They warned to make everyone
more aware of the dangers of climate change. The event consisted of a series of concerts staged in
seven continents around the world. The concerts needed to be environmentally-friendly, so the
organisers used biofuels to power the lights and used recycled car tyres to make the stage. They
also provided recycling containers for people to dump their empty drink cans in. Over 100
musicians and celebrities took part in the live shows. They urged fans to take action against global
warming by demanding more renewable energy, and by helping to conserve the rainforests. They
explained that the Earth is under threat but stressed that it’s not too late to change things as long
as we all act now.
Question 1. What did the organisers put on a huge concert called Live Earth for?
____________________________________________________________________________
____
Question 2. What did the organisers use to make the stage?
____________________________________________________________________________
____
Question 3. Who took part in the live shows?
____________________________________________________________________________
____
Question 4. According to the organisers, is it too late to change things?
 ____________________________________________________________________________
____

Part 1: Complete each blank with ONE given word. There are more words than needed. (1.5 m)
less to if moreover doesn’t which more who however didn’t
1. You should practice listening ________ English tapes or English programs on the radio.
2. Your father set up this workshop, ________he?
3. Tet is considered a holiday; _______, people become even busier than on ordinary days.
4. You can enjoy the lights of many beautiful lanterns ________ you go to Hoi An on 15th of each lunar
month
5. Spend ________ time in front of screens, such as the phone, TV or computer. It’s not good for your
eyes.
6. Is English the language ________ is spoken as a first language by most people in the world?

Part 6: Complete each space with one of the words given below. Make changes if necessary.
(1.0 m)
since soon late economic pollute exhaust of

In humankind’s millions (1) _________ years on earth, many types of energy resources have
been utilised. However, in the last ninety years, petroleum has become by far the most important.
Accounting for over 50 percent of all energy consumed, it is so essential that, without petroleum,
we could be faced with (2) _________ disaster. Of course, the earth’s supply of petroleum will not
last forever, and in fact, it will disappear (3) _________ than most people believe. At the current
rate of consumption, the world has proven oil reserves may be (4) _________ within forty or fifty
years.

Part 7: Read the following passage and decide if the statements that follow are TRUE or
FALSE.
(1.0 m)
Earth Day is a birthday! Just like a birthday is a special day to celebrate a person. Earth Day is
a special day that celebrates the Earth. It is a day to remember to take care of our planet.
Earth Day was born on April 22,1970, in San Francisco, California. It is now the largest, most
celebrated environmental event worldwide. Every year, many countries around the world join
together in the celebration of Earth Day on April 22nd. On Earth Day, people celebrate by doing
things that help to protect the environment. Some things people do to help the Earth are: turn off
the lights to conserve energy, plant trees, recycle, and pick up garbage in their communities.
 You don’t have to wait for Earth Day though, you can help the environment every day!
1. The first Earth Day was celebrated around the world. _____
2. Earth Day is a day to take care of our planet, Earth. _____
3. Every year, only a few countries celebrate Earth Day. _____
4. Turning lights off is a way to save energy. _____

Questions 19-22. Head the following passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 21 (1.0 m)
Modem technology is changing and improving nil the time Every month, scientists (19)
_________ new gadgets and equipment to help US with our daily lives and discover ways to make
existing technology faster and better Our home1, are fell (20) _________ hardware and software.
Some researchers suggest, however, that it’s young people who are best able to deal with this
change. While teenagers have no problem operating a DVD player, (21) _________ mums and
dads and grandparents often find using new technology complicated and difficult. If you are a
teenager who criticizes your parents for their lack of technological awareness, don’t be too hard
on them! Sometimes in the future, when you’ve got children, your (22) _________ to deal new
technology will probably decrease and your children will be more comfortable with new
technology than you do. You won't want them to criticize you, will you?
19. A. invent B. discover C. think D. look
20. A. off B. of C. with D. for
21. A. their B. his C. her D. its
22. A. quantity B. quality C. facility D. ability

Questions 23 - 28. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (1.5 ms)
Every year, the average temperature of the Earth’s surface gets a little bit warmer This
gradual trend is called global wanning. Warmer weather may sound nice, but global warming is
something to be very concerned about.
Scientists are worried that continued warmer temperatures could damage the environment
in many devastating ways. Rising temperatures might cause plants and animals to become extinct.
They could melt enough polar ice to cause die levels of the sea to rise. Weather patterns could also
change. There might be more droughts or serious storms with flooding. In some areas, human
diseases could spread.
What is causing global warming? Humans are mostly to blame. Pollution from factories and
cars add toxic gases to the air. These gases rise to the Earth’s atmosphere. As the sun's rays warm
the Earth, the gases work much like the glass in a greenhouse. They help trap the heat in the
atmosphere and make the Earth grow warmer. That is why they arc nicknamed "greenhouse gases".
It is our responsibility to take care of our planet. Global warming is a serious problem with
serious consequences. If we want future generations to enjoy their time on Earth, we must act now!
Task 1. Decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). (1 m)
23. The average temperature of the Earth’s surface becomes a little bit warmer every year.
_______
24. Rising temperatures could melt polar ice. _______
 25. According to the passage, more droughts or serious storms lead to the rise of sea level.
_______
26. Humans are mostly responsible for global warming. _______

Task 2. Answer the questions. (0.5 m)

27. What might cause plants and animals to become extinct?
___________________________________________________________________
28. Is it our responsibility to take care of our planet?
___________________________________________________________________

III. READING COMPREHENSION (3.0 pts)

Part 1. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C, or D to fill in each blank. Write
your answers on the answer sheet. (1.0) pts)
World Environment Day which is (1) _________ on 5th June ever) year in an important day in
the calendar of the United Millions. It is one of the ways the United Nations uses to advocate for
environmental (2) _________ and call for political action.
Every year, UNEP (the Environment Program of the United Nations) develops a theme which
is used globally to raise (3) _________ and call for support from governments, organizations, and
individuals from all over the world.
Hie theme for 2015 was “Seven Billion Dreams. One Planet Consume with Care". This would
also serve as the slogan for the World Environment Day 2015. Tile meaning of this theme and
slogan IS that we have five (4) _________ with more than seven billion people combined.
Although we have about 7 billion people, we just have one planet that we live and survive. The
surface area is limited, shelter and food also limited. If we continue using the available natural (5)
_________ as we do today, our future generations may be (6) _________ to go hungry and without
homes This is why it is of vital importance to consume (7) _________ food that is available with
care. Stop the wastage and use whatever resource that is available according to need, not greed.
Join die race to make the world a better place" is the theme and (8) _________ for 2016 UN
World Environment Day. This slogan (9) _________ a clear message and asks everyone to get
involved (10)_________ making the world a better place to live in.
1. A. found B. acted C. held D. celebrated
2. A. experience B. protection C. decrease D. pollution
3. A. feature B. activity C. ability D. awareness
4. A. areas B. continents C. plants D. stars
5. A. sources B. resources C. balances D. increase
6. A. had B. asked C. forced D. accused
7. A. which B. whatever C. who D. what
8. A. slogan B. flag C. poster D. brand
 9. A. requests B. asks C. carries D. depends
10. A. from B. to C. within D. in

Part 2. Read the passage below and decide whether these statements (1-5) arc TRUE (T) or
FALSE (F). Write your answers on the answer sheet. (0.5 pts)
It is important to have healthy teeth. Good teeth help US to chew our food. They also help
us to look nice. How does a tooth go bad? The decay begins in a little crack in the enamel covering
of the tooth. This happens after germs and bits of food have collected there. Then the decay slowly
spreads inside the tooth. Eventually, poison goes into the blood, and we may feel quite ill.
How can we keep our teeth healthy? Firstly, we ought to visit our dentist twice a year. He
can fill the small holes in our teeth before they destroy the teeth. He can examine our teeth to check
that they are growing in the right way. Unfortunately, many people wait until they have toothache
before they see a dentist. Secondly, we should brush our teeth with a toothbrush and fluoride
toothpaste at least twice a day - once after breakfast and once e orc we go to bed. We can also use
wooden toothpicks to clean between our teeth after a meal. Thirdly, we should cat food that is good
for our teeth and our body: milk, cheese, fish, brown bread, potatoes, red rice, raw vegetables and
fresh fruit. Chocolates, sweets, biscuits and cakes are bad, especially when we eat them between
meals. They are harmful because they slick to
our teeth and cause decay.

Statements True False

1. Healthy teeth only help US chew our food.
2. The decay spreads inside the tooth after it begins in a little crack in the enamel
covering of the tooth.
3. We should have our teeth brushed at least twice a day.
4. Dentists can help US keep our teeth healthy.
5. Some kinds of food are good lor our teeth while others are harmful.

Pari 3. Read a review of the book The Martian. Then match the missing sentences (A-E) with
the correct place in the text (1-5). Write your answers on the answer sheet. (0.5 pts)
A. The answers are explained with lots of very convincing calculations
B. But Mark docs not die in the storm, and he has been left behind
C. I would recommend this book to all audiences
D. Without the character of Mark Watney. this book would only be a scientific look at survival
on Mars
E. This diary style makes the character of Watney very real

The Martian: a book review

The Martian tells the story of Mark Watney, an astronaut on the Ares 3 mission to Mars.
After a terrible storm almost destroys the ship and the base, the crew of his ship believe he is dead.
(1) ________. Alone on the red planet, he has to survive until the next mission to Mars
arrives.
 While this novel is fiction, in some ways it feels like non-fiction. It is very scientific and packed
with details about survival on Mars. Watney is a botanist and engineer, and he begins to grow food
and produce water in his artificial camp. How does he do this?
(2) ________. The author is Andy Weir, and this is his first published book. In it he has
created a realistic character. There is a lot of humour in the story, and the reader can identify with
the emotions (although no one can really imagine what it’s like to be on Mars). Watney admits at
the beginning that he is in deep trouble, but he never gives up. (3) ________. Instead, what The
Martian gives US is a realistic look at an intelligent person alone on a planet and trying to survive.
The majority of the plot takes place on Mars and is written in the form of Watnev’s journal entries.
(4) ________. Unfortunately, the other characters in the book (his fellow crew members, the
scientists at NASA on Earth) do not get much development and so they often feel one-dimensional.
I should also mention that the book is thrilling to read. You will be on the edge of your seat until
the very end. (5) ________. It’s good not only for space travel fans and scientists but for anyone
who is looking for a unique and exciting story. The Martian was so popular that it was made into
a film starring Matt Damon in 2015. but I recommend reading the book first.

Part 4. Read the passage below and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the answer to
each of the following questions. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (1.0 pts)
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give It the
ability to do outstandingly well. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement
can be developed I lie truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gibed parents will
increase a child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right
upbringing and opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a
good engine and fuel” Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in
50 sets of identical twins that were separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents
They found that achievement was based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s
environment One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a
normal upbringing, performed well the other twin, however, was brought up by extremely
supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though
starting out with the same degree of intelligences as the other, performed even better. This case
reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment, the
more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between
intelligence and the socioeconomic level of a child's family. In other words, it does not muller how
poor or how rich a family is, ns this does not affect intelligence. Gifted people cannot be created
by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One professor of music said that
outstanding musicians usually stalled two or three years earlier than ordinary pel formers, often
because their parents had recognized their ability/These musicians then needed at least ten years’
hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining. People who want
to have very gifted children arc given the following advice:
• Marry an intelligent person.
• Allow children to follow their own interests Hillier titan the interests of the parents.
• Start a child's education early bill avoid pushing the child too hard.
• Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for a
child who wants to become an outstanding musician.
 1. The word “Others" used in the first paragraph refers to .
A. Other people B. Other C. Other children D. Other geniuses
psychologists
2. The remark: "To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.'’ in the passage
means that in order to become a genius.
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. you should try’ to move quickly and efficiently
D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
3. When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins. they found that .
A. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement
B. intelligence and development are index ant to ability
C. ability depends both on intelligence and on environment!
D. different twins generally have different levels of ability
4. Scientists chose twins for their study because.
A. each twin has the same environment as his/her twin
B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence
5. How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured.
B. They practiced playing their instruments for many y ears.
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas.
D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic
6. The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow
A. only their interests in musical instruments
B. their parents’ interests
C. their own interests
D. only their interests in computer games
7. When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid.
A. pushing their children too hard
B. letting them play their own way
C. permitting them to follow their ow n interests
D. starting their education at an early age
8. The word “outstanding” in the passage mostly means.
A. excellent B. demanding C. generous D. enthusiastic
9. The word “favorable” in the passage mostly means
A. “good for someone and making him her likely to be successful”
B. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people”
C. “of high quality or an acceptable standard"
D. "under the control or in the power of somebody else"
10. The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires
A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments
C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents
II. Read Che following passage and mark the letter A. B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
No one really knows where rice came from Some scientists think it started to grow in two places
They think that one kind of rice grew in southern Asia thousands of years ago. However, people
in China (20)_________ about it almost 5,000 years ago Other (21) _________ think rice came
from India and the Indian travellers took it to other parts of the world. There are two main ways to
grow nee. Upland rice grows in dry soil. Most rice grows in wet soil. People in many countries do
all of the work by hand. Some countries now use machines (22) _________ their rice farms. The
farmers all use fertilizer. Some insects are enemies of rice. People use every part of the rice plant.
They make food for animals (23)_________ rice oil from it. They also make baskets, rugs, sandals
and roofs for their (24) _________. They burn dry plants for cooking.
Question 20: A. write B. are writing C. wrote D. have written
Question 21: A. B. scientific C. scientifically D. science
scientists
Question 22: A. for B. to C. at D. on
Question 23: A. but B. so C. or D. and
Question 24: A. fields B. animals C. houses D. farms

III. Read the following passage and mark the fetter A. B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
The phrase "healthy lifestyle" is a definition of how you should live if you want to get the
healthiest bod) you can- one that both looks good and feels good. You know die obvious behaviors
that describe someone who is healthy and takes care of themselves. A healthy person doesn’t
smoke, eats healthy foods with plenty of fruits, vegetables and fiber and. of course, exercises
regularly. A healthy person also knows how to manage stress. gets good quality sleep each night,
doesn’t drink too much, doesn’t sit too much, docs everything in moderation all the time. When
you look at everything dial could possibly make a healthy lifestyle, you can see just how hard all
of those things are in our current world.
There is no such thing as a "bad” food, but there are some foods you should try not to have
regular basis. Fast food refers to food that can be prepared and served quickly. It is popular as the
food is inexpensive, convenient, and tastes good. Because fast food is high in sodium, trans fat.
and cholesterol, it isn’t something you should cat often.
The good news is you don’t have to change everything at the same lime. In fact, the trick to
healthy living is making small changes- taking more steps each day, adding fruit to your cereal,
having an extra glass of water, or saying no to Hut second helping buttery mashed potatoes. One
thing you can do right now to make your lifestyle healthier is to move more.
Question 25: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How to manage stress
B. Ways to live a healthy life
C. The behaviors to describe a healthy person
 D. Some healthy foods to eat
Question 26: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. fast food B. cholesterol C. trans fat D. sodium
Question 27: According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Fast food has a lot of sodium, trans fat and cholesterol
B. We should eat healthy foods.
C. A healthy person exercises regularly.
D. We should avoid eating fiber.
Question 28: The word "trick” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. knowledge B. stress C. method D. time
Question 29: What can we do right now to have healthier lifestyle?
A. Moving more B. Drinking more C. Sleeping more D. Sitting more

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
As the coronavirus pandemic canceled or changed (5) __________ Americans’ travel plans,
people flocked to public lands in record numbers • many for the first lime. (6) __________ these
outdoor spaces are a vital haven to visitors trying to cope with the pandemic, land managers are
finding that there’s a steep learning curve when it comes to these visitors' responsible use.
"The visitation that we typically saw on the weekend, we were seeing during die week", says
Lawrence Lujan, a United Stales Forest Service public affairs (7) __________. "And the visitation
that we typically saw during a holiday weekend, like the Fourth of July, we were seeing on
weekends."
With increased use comes increased problems. Public land managers must content with people
hiking off trail, driving or parking off-road, trampling vegetation, not packing out trash and
overcrowding.
This year’s uptick in visitation in going to continue. "Now, we're getting ready for an expected
spike in lull and winter recreation." says Lujan. Here’s how land managers, faced with a surge of
visitors, are working to regulate crowds and (8) __________their impact.
(Adapted from nationalgeographic.com)
Question 5. A. every B. almost C. most D. much
Question 6. A. Because B. But C. Although D. Unless
Question 7. A. specialist B. specially C. specialty D. special
Question 8. A. increase B. enhance C. minimize D. make

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Are Sports Bad for Kids?
 People think children should play sports. Sports are fun, and children slay healthy while
playing with others. However, playing sports can have negative effects on children. It may produce
feelings of poor self-esteem or aggressive behavior in some children According to research on kids
and sports. 40 million kids play sports in tile US. Of these. 18 million say they have been yelled at
or called name', while playing sports This leaves many children with a bad impression of sports.
They think sport! arc just too aggressive.
Many researchers believe adults, especially parents and coaches, arc die main cause of too
much aggression in children's sports. They believe children copy aggressive adult behavior. This
behavior is then further reinforced through both positive and negative feedback. Parents and
coaches ate powerful teachers because children usually look up to them Often these adults behave
aggressively themselves, sending children the message that winning is everything. At children's
sporting events, parents may yell insults al other players or cheer when their child behaves
aggressively. As well, children may be taught that hurting other players is acceptable, or they may
be pushed to continue playing even when they are injured. In addition, die media makes violence
seem exciting. Children watch adult sports games and see violent behavior replayed over and over
on television.
As a society, we really need to face up to this problem and do something about it. Parents and
coaches should act as better examples for children. They also need to teach children better values
They should teach children to enjoy themselves whether they win or not. It is not necessary to
knock yourself out to enjoy sports. Winning is not everything. In addition, children should not be
allowed to continue to play when they are injured. Sending a child with an injury into a game gives
the child the that health is not as important as winning. If we make some basic changes, children
might learn to enjoy sports again.
Question 13. How many children said they had some negative experience when playing
sports?
A. less than half of the children
B. All of the children
C. About ten percent of the children
D. More than half of the children
Question 14. Which is described AS the num cause of more aggressive playing?
A. New rules in sports B. Other players
C. Adults D. Children with low grades in school
Question 15. What does the writer suggest?
A. Aggressive sports should not be shown on television.
B. Parents should leach children to play sports for fun and exercise.
C. Children should not play sports until high school.
D. Coaches should be required to study child psychology.
Question 16. What would probably NOT be done when facing up to a problem"?
A. Looking for a solution B. ignoring the problem
C. Admitting there is a problem D. Finding the reason
Question 17. What is the main idea of thee reading?
 A. Some sports can cause health problems. B. Children often become like their
parents
C. Playing sports may have negative results. D. children need to play sports in school.

WRITING
1. Write a paragraph of about 100 words about three benefits of living in a big city

2. In about 100 to 120 words, write a paragraph to describe the most memorable moment at
your lower secondary school.

3. Write a paragraph (60 - 80 words) about a celebration you like.

4. Write a paragraph of 80-100 words to support the idea that secondary school students should
wear casual clothes at school. The following cues may help you:
Wearing casual clothes:
- makes students feel comfortable.
- gives students freedom of choice (size, colors and styles, etc.).

- makes students feel self-confident

5. In about 100 to 120 words, write a paragraph about: “what should students do to get a good
joc in the future”
The following cues may help you:

- Study hard to gain knowleadgde (specialised knowledge, English competence)

- Develop soft skills (problem- solving skills communication skills, time managament skills…)
- Improve qualities (patience, creativity, determination…)

6. Your friend Alex has writen to you to ask for some advice on how to improve her English
Write a letter (about 120 words) to help her.

7. You arre going to a party on Sunday evening. Write an email to Paul from 50 to 80 words
In your email:

- Ask Paul to go to the party with you on Sunday evening

- Say where and the party is
- Suggest what Paul can bring to the party

8. In about 100 words, write a paragraph about the advantages of using the Internet. Use the
cues below to help you
- Connect with people across distance
- Get access to information, education or entertainment
 - Buy and sell things online

9. In about 100 words, write a paragraph about the disadvantages of using smartphones.

10. In about 100 words, write a paragraph about the importance of learning English

11. In about 100 words, write a paragraph about how to improve your English

12. In about 100- 120 words, write a paragraph about the present that you like most

13. In about 80- 100 words, write a paragraph about “what should you do to stay healthy before
the exam?”

14. In about 100-120 words, write a paragraph about the festival you know
Use the cues below to help you

- What is it?
- When and where does it happen?
- How long does it last
- What do people often do
- Do you like it? Why or why not?