• VIDYAPEETH

SELECTION HOGA YAHIN SE

CLASS (NEET)

VPSFT - 02
DURATION : 100 Minutes DATE: 24/03/2024 M.MARKS: 400

To ic Covered
Physics : Work Energy and Power Circular Motion Center of Mass & System of Particles Rotational Motion
Grevitation

Chemistry : Structure of Atom Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Botany: : The Living world Biological Classification

Zoology : Biomolecules, Excretory Products and Their Elimination Locomotion and Movement

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
All Question Compulsory, Each Subject contain 25.

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 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
1. The work done by a force acting on a body is as
shown in the graph. The total work done in
covering an initial distance of 20 m is pl/
L_ plIL__
/
l
(3) (4)
20
15 t
F(in N)
JO 6. The energy required to accelerate a car from 10 ms-1
5
to 20 ms- 1 is times the energy required to
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
accelerate the car from rest to 10 ms- 1
S(in m) (1) Equal (2) 4 times
(1) 225 J (2) 200 J (3) 2 times (4) 3 times
(3) 400 J (4) 175 J
7. A body of mass M kg is on the top point of a
2. A force acts on a 30 g particle in such a way that smooth hemisphere of radius 5 m. It is released to
the position of the particle as a function of time is slide down the surface of the hemisphere. It leaves
• •
given by x = at 2 , where x 1s m metre, t 1s m
. • the surface when velocity is 5 ms- 1• At this instant
the angle made by the radius vector of the body
seconds and a=1 m / s 2 • The work done during the
with the vertical is (acceleration due to gravity = 10
first 4 s is
ms-2)
(1) 0.96 J (2) 0.45 J
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 0.49 J (4) 0.53 J (3) 60° (4) 90°

3. Consider a drop of rain water having mass lg 8. A particle of mass 'm' is moving in circular path of
falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground constant radius 'r' such that centripetal acceleration
with a speed of 50 mis. Take g constant with a is varying with time 't' as K2 r t2 where K is a
value of 1O m/s2 • The work done by the (i) constant. The power delivered to the particle by the
gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air force acting on it is
is (1) m2K2 r2t2 (2) mK2 r2t
(1) (i)-10 J, (ii)-8.25 J (3) mK r t2 2
(4) mKr2t
(2) (i) 1.25 J, (ii)-8.25 J
(3) (i) 100 J, (ii) 8.75 J 9. A cyclist covers a circular path 34.3 m long in
(4) (i) 10 J, (ii)-8.75 J
.ffi sec. The angle of inclination of the cyclist is
4. An electric pump is used to fill an overhead tank of (Given g=9.8 m/s 2 )
capacity 9 m 3 kept at a height of 10 m above the (1) 50° (2) 45 °
ground. If the pump takes 5 min to fill the tank by (3) 30° (4) 60°
consuming 10 kW power, the efficiency of the
10. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
pump should be (Take g=10 ms-2 )
uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
(1) 60% (2) 40% revolution. If this particle were projected with the
(3) 20% (4) 30% same speed at an angle 0 to the horizontal, the
maximum height attained by it equals 4R . The
5. A motor drives a body along a straight line with a angle of projection 0 is then given by
constant force. The power developed by the
motor must vary with time t according to
P

L
P
(1) (2)
p� LL
t t

2
11. A body is projected vertically upwards from the 17. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass
surface ofa planet ofradius R with a velocity equal 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular
to half the escape velocity for that planet. The acceleration of the cylinder, if the rope is pulled
maximum height attained by the body is : with a force of30 N?
(1) R/2 (2) R/3 (1) 25rn/s2 (2) 0.25 rad/s2
(3) R/5 (4) R/4 (3) 25 rad/s 2
(4) 5rn/s2

12. Three identical spheres each of diameter 2./3 m 18. A particle of mass m in the XY -plane with a
are kept on a horizontal surface such that each velocity v along the straight line AB . If the
sphere touches the other two spheres. If one of the angular momentum of the particle with respect to
sphere is removed, then the shift in the position of origin O is LA when it is at A and L8 when it is
the centre ofmass ofthe system is at B, then
(1) 12 m (2) 1 m y
3
(3) 2 m (4) - m
2

13. If we hollow the ball of pendulum and fill it with

sand, what would be the effect of change on the
�-----+X
center ofmass ? o
(1) It would distorted (1) LA >LB
(2) Its value will decrease only (2) LA =LB
(3) Its value will increase only (3) the relationship between LA and L B depends
(4) Its value will first decrease and then increase upon the slope ofthe line AB
(4) LA >LB
14. A wheel comprises of a ring of radius Rand mass
M and three spokes of mass m each. The moment
19. A solid sphere 1s set into motion on a rough
of inertia of the wheel with respect to an axis
horizontal surface with a linear speed v in the
passing through centre and perpendicular to the
plane is :- forward direction and an angular speed � in the
R
(1) (M +; )R2 (2) (M +m)R2 anticlockwise direction as shown in figure. Find the
linear speed ofthe sphere when it stops rotating and
(3) (M +3m)R2 V
ro=R.

15. Assume proton is rotating along a circular path of

radius 1 m under a centrifugal force of 4 x 10-12 N .
If the mass of proton is 1.6 x10-27 kg , then its
angular velocity ofrotation is 3v 2v
(1) (2)
(1) 5xl07 rad/s (2) l015 rad/s 5 5
(3) 2.5xl07 rad/s (4) 5xl014 rad /s 4v 7v
(3) (4)
3 3
16. A uniform disc of mass 100 kg and radius 2 m is
rotating at 1 rad/s about a perpendicular axis 20. Let M and L be the mass and length of thin
passing through its centre. A boy of mass 60 kg uniform rod respectively. In 1'1 case, axis of
standing at the centre ofthe disk suddenly jumps to rotation is passing through centre and perpendicular
a point which is 1 m from the centre of the disc. to its length. In 2nd case, axis ofrotation is passing
The final angular velocity ofthe boy (in rad/s) is through one end and perpendicular to its length.
(1) 0.77 (2) 0.5 The ratio of radius of gyration in first case to
(3) 41 (4) 2 second case is
(1) I: 2 (2) 2:1
(3) 3: I (4) 1:3

3
21. A mass M is split into two parts m 0 and M - m0 • (1) 4800 km (2) 640 km
These two masses are then separated by a distance (3) 2560 km (4) 5260 km
D. If the gravitational force between the parts is
m 24. The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius (R)
maximum,then the ratio o is rotating about its axis with an angular speed co. If
M
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 the effective acceleration due to gravity at a certain
3
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.6 latitude "A is g - - co2 R , where gP is the
p 4
22. If the earth shrinks such that its mass does not acceleration due to gravity at the poles, then the
change but radius decreases to one quarter of its value of "A is
original value then one complete day will take (1) 45° (2) 30°
(1) 96 hours (2) 48 hours (3) 90° (4) 90°
(3) 6 hours (4) 1.5 hours
25. Energy required to send a body of mass m from an
23. At a certain depth "d" below surface of earth, value orbit of radius 2R to 3R (where M = mass of the
of acceleration due to gravity becomes four times earth, R= radius of the earth) is
that of its value at a height 3R above earth surface. GMm GMm
(l) (2)
Where R is Radius of earth (Take R = 6400Km ). 12R 2
3R 2
The depth d is equal to GMm GMm
(3) (4)
8R 6R

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
26. An electron revolving in ground state of H atom is (1) 0.17A (2) 0.53 A
struck by a photon of energy 12ev. The photon will (3) 0.265 A (4) 1.06 A
end up in which orbit?
(1) n = 2 (2) n = 3 31. Which of the following set of Quantum no. is
(3) n = 4 (4) n = 1 possible.
(1) n = 3,1 = 2,m = -3,s = +l/2
(2) n = 3,1 = 3,m = 0,s = -1/2
27. In which of the following transitions
(3) n = 3,l = l,m = -1,s = -1/2
energy is absorbed.
(4) n = 4,1 = 2,m = 0,s = +l
(1) n = 1 to n = oo (2) n = 4 to n = 5
(3) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) n = 3 to n = l
32. Calculate the total number of electron in d Subshell.
(1) 1 (2) 2
28. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen (3) 10 (4) None of these
atom is -328 kJ mo1- 1, hence the energy of fourth
Bohr orbit would be
33. In orbitals of n = 3, 1 = 2 find out total number of
(1) - 41 kJmo1- 1 (2) - 1312 kJmo1-1
electrons for which the value of spin Quantum no.
(3) - 164 kJmo1-1 (4) - 82 kJmo1- 1 is -1/2.
(1) 1 (2) 5
29. The frequency of radiation emitted when the (3) 10 (4) None of these
electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a hydrogen
atom will be (Given ionisation energy of H = 2.18 x
34. Which of the following is not permissible
10-18 Jatom- 1 and arrangement of electron in an atom.
h = 6.625 x 10-34 Js)
(1) n = 3,1 = 2,m = 2,s = -1/2
(1) 1.54 X 10 15 S-l (2) 1.03 X 10 15 S-l
(2) n = 4,1 = 0,m = 0,s = -1/2
(3) 3.08 X 10 15 S-l (4) 2.00 X 10 15 S-l
(3) n = 5,1 = 3,m = 0,s = +1/2
(4) n = 4,1 = 2,m = 3,s = +1/2
30. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is
0.53 A. The radius of Li2+ ion (at. no. = 3) in a
similar state is
4
35. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which 42. In sodium atom the screening is due to:
n = 3 and l = 1? (1) 3s2,3p5 (2) 2s 1
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) ls2,2s2,2p6 (4) 2s2,2s2
(3) 10 (4) 14
43. Which of the following ion has largest size:
36. The angular momentum of electrons in d-orbital is (1) p--­ (2) Al+3
equal to (3) cs+ (4) 0-2
(1) ../6
h/2rr (2)./i.h/2rr?
(3) 2.../3 h/2rr (4) Oh 44. Electronegativity of the following elements
increases in the order.
37. Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total nodes is (1) O,N,S,P (2) P,S,N,O
(1) 5p (2) 3d (3) P,N,S,0 (4) S,P,N,0
(3) 4f (4) 6d
45. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in
38. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers. nature?
Which of the following sets of quantum number is (1) CaO
not possible? (3) Si02
n I m s
3 0 0 +1/2 For the second period element the correct
(i)
increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is:
(ii) 2 2 1 +1/2
(1) Li<Be<B<C<N<O<F<Ne
(iii) 4 3 -2 -1/2 (2) Li<B<Be<C<0<N<F<Ne
(iv) 1 0 -1 -1/2 (3) Li<B<Be<C<N<0<F<Ne
3 2 3 +1/2 (4) Li<Be<B<C<O<N<F<Ne
(v)
(1) (ii),(iii) and (iv)
47. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
(2) (i),(ii),(iii) and(iv)
elements is:
(3) (ii),(iv) and (v)
(1) B<Al<In<Ga< TI
(4) (i) and (iii) (2) B<Al<Ga<In< TI
(3) B<Ga<Al< TI<In
39. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by (4) B<Ga<Al<In< TI
(1) azimuthal quantum number
The pair of amphoteric hydroxide is
(2) spin quantum number (1) Al(OH)3 , LiOH (2) Be(OH)2,Mg(OH)2
(3) magnetic quantum number (3) B(OH)3 ,Be(OH)2 (4) Be(OH)2,Zn(OH)2
(4) principal quantum number

40. The orbitals are called degenerate when 49. In which of the following options the order of
arrangement does not agree with the variation of
(1) they have the same wave functions property indicated against it?
(2) they have the same wave functions but (1) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain
different energies enthalpy)
(3) they have different wave functions but same (2) Li<Na<K< Rb (increasing metallic radius)
energy (3) AP +<Mg2+<Na+<P--- (increasing ionic size)
(4) they have the same energy (4) B < C < N < 0 (increasing first ionisation
enthalpy)

41. The number of spherical nodes in 3p-orbital is/are 50. Which of the following elements has the maximum
(1) one electron affinity?
(2) three (1) I
(3) two (2) Br
(4) None of the above (3) Cl
(4) F

5
 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
51. The number of species that are known and 58. Which one among the following is accurately
described range between _A_ million. arranged in descending specificity
(1) 3.5 (2) 1.7-1.8
(1) Species - Family - Class - Order -
(3) 2.1-3.1 (4) 7.1-8.1
Division

52. Nomenclature or naming is only possible when the (2) Species - Genus - Division - Class -
organism is described correctly and we know to Kingdom
what organism the name is attached to. This is (3) Species- Genus- Family- Order- Class
called
(4) Class- Order- Family- Genus- Species
(1) Nomenclature (2) Identification
(3) Systematics (4) Classification
59. Mycoplasma
53. ICBN stands for (1) Is a type of fungi
(1) International Code for Bacterial Nomenclature (2) Lack cell membrane
(2) International Code for Biological (3) Is devoid of cell wall
Nomenclature
(4) Is a type of eukaryotic cell
(3) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
(4) Indian International Code for Botanical
Nomenclature 60. Which of the following bacteria are responsible for
the production of biogas from the dung of cows and
54. Petunia and Datura are placed in buffaloes?
(1) Poaceae (2) Solanaceae (1) Thermoacidophiles (2) Halophiles
(3) Felidae (4) Canidae (3) Methanogen (4) Cyanobacteria

55. In Solanum tuberosum, first and second word stand 61. A kingdom having maximum nutritional diversity is
for, respectively
(1) Monera (2) Plantae
(1) Genus, generic name
(3) Fungi (4) Protista
(2) Specific epithet species
(3) Specific name and generic name
62. Heterocysts present in Nostoc are specialised for
(4) Generic name and specific name
(1) Photosynthesis (2) Food storge
56. Felis (3) Nitrogen fixation (4) Fragmentation
(1) Is a family of cats
(2) Includes cats 63. Which of the following fungi group produce only
(3) Includes dogs asexual spores and doesn't form sexual spores?
(4) Is classified under arthropods (1) Phycomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Ascomycetes (4) Basidiomycetes
57. Select the incorrect statement
(1) Biological names are generally in Latin and 64. Which of the following 1s not a character of
written in italics. Protista?
(1) Protists are prokaryotic
(2) The first word in a biological name represents
(2) Some protists have cell walls
the genus
(3) Mode of nutrition is both autotrophic and
(3) Both the words in a biological name, when heterotrophic
handwritten, are separately underlined. (4) Body organization is cellular
(4) The first word denoting the genus starts with a
65. Karyogamy and meiosis take place in the basidium
small letter while the specific epithet starts
producing four basidiospores in
with a capital letter
6
 (1) Neurospora (2) Agaricus (3) Can produces toxin which is dangerous for
(3) Aspergillus (4) Claviceps marine animals and fishes
(4) Have three flagella
66. Silicated cell wall composed of cellulose is present
in 71. In Basidiomycetes, the mycelium is
(1) Slime moulds (2) Dinoflagellates (1) Branched and aseptate
(3) Diatoms (4) Protozoans (2) Branched and septate
(3) Unbranched and septate
67. Red tides is caused by (4) Coenocytic and unbranched
(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Gonyaulax and diatoms
72. Contagium vivum jluidum concept of virus was
proposed by
(3) By prokaryotes
(1) D.J. lvanowsky (2) M.W. Beijerinek
(4) By red algae
(3) Stanley (4) Robert Hooke

68. Which of the following organism can be considered

as the edible delicacies ? 73. T. 0. Diener discovered a
(1) Neurospora (2) Albugo (1) Free infectious RNA
(3) Morels and Truffles (4) Agaricus (2) Free infectious DNA
(3) Infectious protein
69. Dikaryon phase is prolonged in both (4) Bacteriophage
(1) Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes
Causing agent of sleeping sickness is grouped under
(2) Ascomycetes and Deuteromycetes
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Protozoans
(3) Basidiomycetes and Ascomycetes
(3) Slime mould (4) Euglenoids
(4) Deuteromycetes and Phycomycetes

70. Dinoflagellates Potato spindle tuber diseases is caused by a

(1) Have cell wall composed of chitin (1) Nematode (2) Virus
(2) Are responsible for red sea (3) Bacterium (4) Viroid

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
76. Glomerular filtrate is 79. When osmoreceptors are stimulated, they cause
(1) Deproteinised plasma the release of some hormones from the
(2) Hypertonic to blood plasma "Hypothalamus and posterior lobe of pituitary
(3) Hypotonic to blood plasma and lacks plasma gland". These hormones is/are
proteins a. MELATONIN b. ADH
(4) Blood without excretory wastes c. Vasopressin Options are
(1) Only a (2) a, b and c
77. Ketonuria and glycosuria are indicative of which (3) Only b and c (4) Only b
disease?
(1) Protein energy malnutrition 80. A person suffers from some damage to
(2) Diabetes mellitus hypothalamus. He passes nearly 6 litres of urine
(3) Glomerulonephritis despite normal intake in 24 hours and his urine
(4) Cystitis sample shows lack of ketone bodies, glucose and
proteins. Probably he is facing condition/disorder
78. Kidney secretes all of the following, except termed as
(1) Calcitriol (2) Erythropoietin (1) Diabetes insipidus (2) Nephrosis
(3) Angiotensinogen (4) Renin (3) Extreme starvation (4) Aldosteronism

7
81. Which one of the following is the most toxic 90. Exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of
nitrogenous waste? (1) Chitin
(1) Uric acid (2) Ammonia (2) N-acetyl galactosamine
(3) Urea (4) Carbon dioxide (3) Glucosamine
(4) Glycogen
82. The pH ofhuman urine is approximately
(1) 7.0 (2) 7.5 91. % weight of few elements in human body are
(3) 6.5 (4) 6.0 given below. Identify the incorrect information.
(1) Hydrogen. 3.5 (2) Carbon 18.5
83. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle (3) Oxygen. 65.0 (4) Sulphur. 0.3
mostly due to genetic disorder is
(1) Myasthenia gravis (2) Muscular tetany 92. The role ofsecondary metabolites is/are
(3) Multiple sclerosis (4) Muscular dystrophy (1) Useful to human welfare
(2) Role in normal physiological processes
84. Bone that is not the part ofaxial skeleton is (3) Ecologically important
(1) Malleus (2) Frontal (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Humerus (4) Parietal
93. Above 40 ° C, what will be the appropriate effect
85. Nodding movement ofhead occurs due to the joint on enzymes and inorganic catalysts?
between S. No. Enzymes Inorganic
(1) Atlas and vertebrae axis catalysts
(2) Atlas and occipital condyles (1) Degraded Degraded
(3) Scapula and occipital condyles (2) Work efficiently Degraded
(4) Cervical and thoracic vertebrae (3) Degraded Work efficiently
(4) Work efficiently Work efficiently
86. Which of the following will remain unchanged
during contraction ofskeletal muscle fibres? 94. The biomolecule found in the macromolecular
(1) Length between two consecutive Z-lines fraction of the living tissue with small molecular
(2) Length ofactin filaments weight among the following is:
(3) Length ofan isotropic band (1) Polysaccharides (2) Lipids
(4) Length ofH-zone (3) Protein (4) Nucleic acid

87. An auto-immune disorder in which there is 95. Identify the given compound.
inflammation of synovial membrane, erosion of
articular cartilage and abnormal tissue growth in II
-R
joints (pannus) is
ll,-C
(1) Osteoarthritis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis II
(3) Gouty arthritis (4) Myasthenia gravis 0-P-0-CH,-
- I H,-
I

88. Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from CH( I '-CH

CH;
substrate by mechanisms other than hydrolysis (1) Lecithin
leaving double bonds belongs to (2) Cellulose
(1) Dehydrogenases (2) Hydrolases (3) Fatty acid
(3) Lyases (4) Transferases (4) Triglyceride

89. The effect ofcompetitive inhibitor can be reversed 96. Select the correct set ofsecondary metabolites
by (1) Gums, anthocyanin, carotenoids, ATP
(1) Increasing the inhibitor concentration (2) Anthocyanin, antibiotics, ATP, gums
(2) Decreasing the substrate concentration (3) Antibiotics, carotenoids, gums, anthocyanin
(3) Increasing the substrate concentration (4) Starch, chlorophyll, carotenoids, ATP,
(4) The effect is irreversible antibiotics
8
97. Select the incorrect statement from the following. 99. The famous Watson and Crick model is B-form of
(1) Tertiary structure is absolutely essential for DNA which is a right handed helix. The pitch of a
biological activity of many proteins complete helical turn is
(2) In RNA, the bond between the phosphate (1)34A (2)20A
group and pentose sugar is a glycosidic (3)3.4A (4)18 A
bond 100. The four curves depicted in the figure given
(3) Backbone of DNA is made up of sugar­ below. Which curve represent the uncatalyzed
phosphate chains reaction or no enzyme is involved?
(4) Cellulose is unbranched polysaccharide with
B-1, 4 glycosidic bonds

98. Cofactor for the carboxypeptidase is proteolytic

enzyme
(1)zn2+ (2)Mg2+
(3)Ca2+ (4)Mn2+ (1)CurveA (2)Curve B
(3)Curve C (4)Curve D