FIITJEE

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

JEE (Advanced)-2025
FULL TEST – VIII
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 27-04-2025
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
 The test consists of total 51 questions.
 Each subject (PCM) has 17 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C.
Section – A (01 – 04, 18 – 21, 35 – 38): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –07, 22 – 24, 39 – 41): This section contains NINE (09) questions. Each question has FOUR
options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (08 – 13, 25 – 30, 42 – 47): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) numerical based questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.
Section – C (14 –17, 31 – 34, 48 – 51): This section contains SIX (06) paragraphs. Based on each
paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions of numerical answer type. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE (XXXXX.XX). If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Section – C: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : 0 In all other cases.

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 AITS-FT-VIII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

1. Water of mass ‘m’ and specific heat capacity ‘S’ is kept in 0 = 30C
the spherical cavity of radius ‘a’ of a thick spherical shell of
inner and outer radii a and 3a respectively which is placed
in a surrounding at temperature 0 = 30C as shown in the
 b = 3a a
figure. Thermal conductivity of the shell varies as k  2 ,
r
where  is a constant. If initial temperature of water is 70C, k= /r2
then the time required to decrease the temperature of water
from 70C to 50C is

mSan2 mSan2
(A) (B)
4 2
2mSan2 4mSan2
(C) (D)
3 3
2. A hypothetical massless spring having negligible
relaxed length and follows the relation between force F
and extension x as F  cx 2 , where c is constant and x
v0
is extension in spring. Spring can only be broken if it
stretched upto a very large length. A point mass is
performing circular motion with help of spring as k
shown, with speed v 0. The velocity needed for mass to Point m
break the spring is close to: x0
(A) 2v0
(B) 2v 0
(C) 3v0
(D) 2 2v 0
3. A non conducting hemispherical shell of radius ‘R’ A
P C
has uniform surface charge density . Point ‘C’ is
center of hemispherical shell. Point ‘A’ and point ‘P’
lie on the flat surface of the shell. The distance
between C and A is R/2 and between C and P is R.
Choose the correct option(s).
R
(A) The potential at point P is
20
R
(B) The potential at point A is
40
q0 R
(C) Word done by electrostatic force if a charge ‘q0’ is moved from P to A is
40
q0 R
(D) Word done by electrostatic force if a charge ‘q0’ is moved from P to A is
40

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4. A battery B-1 is made by using two cells of

emf E1 and E2 and internal resistance r1 r1 r2
and r2 respectively. Another battery B-2 is
made by using different cells of emf E3 and E1 E2
E4 and internal resistance r3 and r4
respectively. Now they are connected with B-1
points P and Q as shown in the figure. All P Q
cells are rechargeable. Now switch is
closed at t = 0, then choose the
INCORRECT option. r3 r4
S E3 E4

B-2
(A) The potential difference across both the battery will be equal.
(B) Rate of heat dissipation in both batteries is equal.
(C) One battery will charge the other battery.
(D) Rate of loss in chemical energy of one battery is more than the rate of gain in chemical
energy of the other.

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

5. A particle is projected at an angle of  with the horizontal, with initial speed u. If the magnitude of
velocity of projectile motion and time are related as v2  100t2 + 400 t  800 = 0. Then which of
the following is correct. (take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) Angle of projection is 45.
(B) Maximum height attained by particle is 20 meter.
(C) Range of the particle is 80 meter.
(D) Projection velocity is 40 m/sec.

6. A system of four semi-circular wires of radius a , carrying y

current I as shown in the figure. I
(A) The magnetic field at ‘O’ due to current carrying loop
0I
is
2R
 n( 2  1) kˆ  R

(B) The magnetic field at ‘O’ due to current carrying loop R

I
I
is 0  n( 2  1) kˆ
R
 I O
R
x

(C) The magnetic moment of the system is

ˆ
4R2I(2  )( k)
R
(D) The magnetic moment of the system is
ˆ
2R2I(2  )(k) I

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7. A ring of radius 2 m is kept on a smooth horizontal surface. A rod of A A

sufficient length can slide over the ring as shown. Initially rod is kept along
the diameter of the ring. Now, a velocity of magnitude 12 m/s is given to rod
towards right and 8 m/s to ring towards left. After some time rod reaches at
37
position AB. Choose the correct option(s) for position of AB.
(A) Magnitude of velocity of point of intersection relative to ring is 25 m/s.
3125
(B) Magnitude of acceleration of point of intersection is m/s2.
8
(C) Ratio of tangential acceleration to radial acceleration of point of
intersection is 3/4.
1875
(D) Magnitude of tangential acceleration is m/s2. B B
8

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

8. Two particles A and B each of mass 2 kg are connected by a massless 2.5 m/s B 2kg
rod of length  =1m. Another particle C of mass 4 kg moving with a C
velocity 2.5 m/s (perpendicular to the rod AB) collides with the particle 4kg
1  1m
B as shown in the figure. Coefficient of restitution, e = and the
2
system is placed in a gravity free space. The angular velocity (in rad/s)
of the rod just after collision is k rad/s. Find the value of 10k. 2kg
A

9. A conducting square loop of side 2.0 cm is rotated through 180 about one of its diagonals in 0.20
s. A uniform magnetic field exists in the region which is perpendicular to the plane of the loop
initially. If average induced emf is 20 mV, find the magnitude of the magnetic field (in Tesla).

10. A particle slides down the surface of a smooth fixed B

sphere of radius R starting from rest at the highest point B.
Particle leaves the sphere at some point and then strikes D
the horizontal plane passing through the lowest point A of 
the sphere, at point P. The distance AP is given by
n
AP  [ n  4 2]R where ‘n’ is an integer, find n. (Take
27
2
g = 10 m/s ). A P

11. In the AC circuit shown in the figure, the rms current through R = 20  L = 0.2 H
the source is 2A. Find the value of capacitance C (in F).

~
 = 802 sin(100t)

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12. A droplet of water in uniform fog is formed. It then falls sweeping up the fog lying in its path.
Assume that it retains all the fog in its path, remains spherical and experiences zero drag. Drop
g
attains a constant value of acceleration after a large time interval. Its acceleration is given by .
K
Find the value of K.

13. A light ray is incident on a rotating mirror, which

is rotating with angular speed 3 rad/s as shown
in figure. The speed of bright spot on the wall Wall
when  = 30°. 

Incident ray

L=1m

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions of
numerical answer type. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE (XXXXX.XX). If the
numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 and 15

A large metal plate having area 1 m 2 is exposed to light of intensity

6.62 W/m2. Frequency of light is 3.2  1015 Hz which is greater
than threshold value of photoemission. Emitted electrons are
swept away immediately after emission. ( h = 6.62  1034)
R = 5

14. The current through resistor in steady state in ampere is……….

15. The potential of plate in steady state in volt is ……….
Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 and 17
An oscillation of frequency 680 Hz drives two speakers. The Pole
speakers are fixed on a vertical pole at distance 3 m from each
other as shown in the figure. A person whose height is almost
same as that of the lower speaker walked towards the lower 3m
speaker in a direction perpendicular to the pole. Assuming that
there is no reflection of sound from the ground and speed of
sound is v = 340 m/s. Answer the following questions.

16. As the person walks towards the pole, his distance from the pole when he first hears a minimum
in sound intensity in nearly
17. As the person walks towards the pole, the total number of times the person hears a minimum in
sound intensity will be

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

18. What is not produce in given reaction change?

Water
Sodium - amalgam  
(A) H2 (B) NaOH
(C) Hg (D) O 2

19. The compound formed by dissolving gold and platinum in aqua-regia is

3 2  4
(A)  AuCl4  and PtCl6  (B)  AuCl4  and PtCl6 
 2  2
(C)  AuCl4  and PtCl6  (D)  AuCl4  and PtCl6 

20. What is the emf of a cell containing two hydrogen electrodes, the negative one in contact with
10-6 M OH and the positive one in contact with a 0.1 M CH3COONH4 solution?

Given pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.74 and pKa ( NH 4 ) = 9.26
(A) 0.059 volt (B) 0.59 votl
(C) 0.0059 volt (D) 5.9 volt

21. Me
PhCONH2  H Br2 KOH
D  ?


CONH 2
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the given reaction?
(A) Me
PhNH2 and H D are produced
NH2
(B) Me
Cross  over products PhNH2 and H D are also produced
NH2
(C) Migration of –R (alkyl group) of R – CONH2 takes place with retention of configuration.
(D) Me
PhCONHBr and H D are the int ermediates formed
CONHBr

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SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

22. With reference to the scheme given, which of the following statement(s) about T, U, V and W
is/are correct?
O

O
T
H3C
LiAlH4  excess 

CrO /H
3  CH CO O
V 
3
 U 
2
W

(A) T is soluble in hot aqueous NaOH

(B) U is optically active
(C) Molecular formula of W is C10 H18 O 4
(D) V gives effervescence on treatment with aqueous NaHCO3

23. Which of the following compound(s) does not give blood red colour in Lassaigne’s test ?

(A) CN (B) H 2N COOH

O
(C) (D)
H2N C NH2 H 2N SO3Na

24. In the given question K a values of five weak acids are given. K a for HA  108 , HB  10 6 ,
HC  2  108 , HD  1010 , HE  10 7 .
Select the correct statement(s) as per the information. Given : log2 = 0.3.
(A) Among NaA, NaB, NaC, NaD and NaE, the NaD is most extensively hydrolysed.
(B) Among NaA, NaB, NaC, NaD and NaE, the NaB is most extensively hydrolysed.
(C) pH of 0.1 (M) aqueous solution of NaB is approximately 9.5.
(D) 0.1 (M) solution of HE and 0.01 (M) solution of HB are isohydric to each other approximately.

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

25. How many of the following reagents reduce nitrobenzene in azobenzene?

LiAlH4 , Sn / HCl, Zn  NaOH / MeOH, NaBH4 , NH4 HS

th th th
26. Difference between n and (n + 1) Bohr’s radius of H–atom is equal to its (n – 1) Bohr’s radius.
The value of n is

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27. For isothermal expansion of an ideal gas into vacuum, among the following, how many are zero?
E, H, T, q, Pext , Ssys , Ssurr , Stotal , Gsys

28. The amount of water produced (in g) in the oxidation of 1 mole of white phosphorus
P4  with conc. HNO3 to a compound with highest oxidation state of phosphorus is:

29. Mole fraction of solute in some solution is 1/n. If 50% of solute molecules dissociate into two parts
and remaining 50% get dimerised, new mole fraction of solvent becomes 4/5. Find value of n.

30. When the following compound is named correctly according to IUPAC convention, what would be
the sum of position of two chlorine atoms?
O
Cl

O Cl

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions of
numerical answer type. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE (XXXXX.XX). If the
numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 31 and 32

An ideal mixture of liquids A and B with 2 moles of A and 2 moles of B has a total vapour pressure of 1
atm at a certain temperature. Another mixture with 1 mole of A and 3 moles of B has vapour pressure
greater than 1 atm. When 4 moles of C are added to 2nd mixture, the vapour pressure comes down to 1
0
atm. Vapour pressure of C in pure state p c = 0.8 atm. If vapour pressure of pure A = x atm and vapour
pressure of pure B = y atm.

31. The value of x is______?

32. The value of y is______?

Paragraph for Question Nos. 33 and 34

o
Potassium crystallizes in a body-centred cubic lattice, with an unit cell length a  5.20 A . If the distance
between nearest neighbours is ‘x’ and the distance between next nearest neighbour is y, then

33. The value of x is_______

34. The value of y is_______

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
35. If 7 balls are drawn one by one with replacement from a bag containing 5 balls numbered 0, 2, 3,
4, and 5, then number of ways in which a sum of 30 can be obtained, is not a multiple of
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 8
 
 mn  1 n  p
36. If    3n  m 
 3 n  3m
 m  3n 
 (where p and q are relatively prime), then q – 3p is
 q
m1n 1
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
37. Consider three sets

A  x : 2cos 2x  2  
3  1 cos x  2  3  0 

B  x : 2  sin3x  sin x   3  0 
C  x : 2  1  tan x  2  1 
 15 
If the sum of elements in A  B  C is equal to 5k; x  0, , then the value of k is
 2 
52 52
(A) (B)
15 25
52
(C) (D) 3
5
y x  y
dx 2
38. Let y(x) be a solution of the differential equation y  x2e x  2x  y  x  . If y(1) = 0 and
dy
1
y(x0) = 1, then the value of  loge  2e  1 is equal to
x0
(A) 0 (B) –1
1
(C) 1 (D)
2
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

f  x g x  h x
39. If f(x), g(x) and h(x) are polynomials of degree 2 and   x   f  x  a  g  x  a  h  x  a  , then
f  x  b g x  b h  x  b

(A) (x) is independent of x

(B) (x) is independent of x but dependent on a and b
(C) (x) is independent of x, a and b
(D) (x) is independent of x, a and b

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40. A cubic equation with real coefficients p(x) = 0 has one real root () and two complex roots
(  i) represented by A, B and C on the argand plane respectively. Then
(A) roots of p(x) = 0 are complex if A lies inside one of the two equilateral triangles with base BC
(B) roots of p(x) = 0 are real if A lies inside one of the two equilateral triangles with base BC
(C) roots of p(x) = 0 are complex if A, B, C are vertices of an isosceles (not equilateral) triangle
 
(D) roots of p(x) = 0 are real and equal if  3


 1 3 0
41. Let A  0 3 0  be a given matrix. If B = A4 – 4A and C = 15A2 – 7A3 – A, then (Tr (M) and
0 2 3 
Det (M) represents trace and determinant of matrix M respectively)

(A) Tr(B + C) = 28 (B) Tr(B + C) = 14

2
(C) Det(Adj(B + C)) = 576 (D)  
Det Adj  Adj  B  C     576 

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

42. If 6 digit numbers are formed using the digits 1 and 8 only and n1, n2, n3 are the numbers of such
6 digits numbers which are divisible by 231, 84 and 63 respectively, then n3 – n2 – n, is

 ex  1 sin x   e x  1  x  cos x
43. If  1   ex  1  x  cos x  ex  1  x  cos x   f g  x   c where c is constant of integration and
 f  x gx   m
lim g  x   0 . If lim    where m, n  N, then the minimum value of m + n is
x 0 x 0  x x  n

44. Let ABCD be a square with vertices A(0, 0), B(4, 0), C(4, 4), D(0, 4). The square is folded in such
a way that corner B always lies on AD. As B moves on AD, the crease thus formed always
touches a fixed parabola whose length of latus rectum is

45. Five cards are drawn from a pack of 52 cards. If the probability of getting exactly 3 Diamonds and
866320
2 Jack is P, then the value of P is
649

46. Let I  
1
x 9
 x5  x  dx , then the value of (12 I) is
4
3
0
 3x 8
 4x 4  6 4

47. The square of the product of reciprocal of roots of the equation 2cot 1  2x  1  sin1 x   is

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions of
numerical answer type. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE (XXXXX.XX). If the
numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 48 and 49

The line x + 2y + a = 0 intersect the circle x 2 + y2 = 4 at points A and B. Another line 12x – 6y – 41 = 0
intersect the circle x 2 + y2 – 4x – 2y + 1= 0 at two distinct points C and D. Let another circle S = 0 is
passing through the points A, B, C and D
2 2
48. If the equation of circle S = 0 is x + y + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0, then |2g + 2f + c| is

49. Values of a is

Paragraph for Question Nos. 50 and 51

Given f(x + y + z) = f(x) f(y) f(z)  x, y, z  R and f(2) = 4 and f(0) = 3

50. Number of possible value(s) of f(0) is/are

51. Sum of digits of f(2) is

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