MOCK TEST 3

ANTONYMS

1. It was a mystery as to where the young girl had acquired such a naive belief.
(a) credulous
(b) childlike
(c) wise
(d) innocent

2. Rakesh is vulnerable to political pressure.

(a) weak
(b) unguarded
(c) exposed
(d) resilient
3. The whole audience showed a disdainful attitude during the match.
(a) Sneering
(b) Respectful
(c) Mocking
(d) Cheerful
4. John is a magniloquent person.
(a) pompous
(b) turgid
(c) lofty
(d) terse
5. She accepted the prospect of her medical treatment with equanimity.
(a) tranquillity
(b) agitation
(c) composure
(d) placidity

CLOZE TEST

Whenever I go into a bank, I feel scared. Everybody and everything that I see there ____________

6. (a) pleases me. As for the manager the sight _____________ 7. (a) of him simply
(b) frightens (b) at
(c) saddens (c) by
(d) terrifies (d) on

terrifies me and _________ 8. (a) shapes me want to runaway ___________ 9. (a) as slow as
(b) makes (b) as fast as
(c) shields (c) as steadily as
(d) asks (d) as actively as
I can. As soon as I _____________ 10. (a) open the door of the bank I lose my head ____________
(b) close
(c) shut
(d) see
11. (a) or when I try to do any _______________ 12. (a) service there,
(b) and (b) business
(c) either (c) deed
(d) neither (d) act
I behave like an idiot. I cannot explain __________________ 13. (a) the reasons for this but that
(b) the responses
(c) the answers
(d) the causes

is how it _____________ 14. (a) always has been that is how it is __________ 15. (a) then.
(b) no time (b) now
(c) any time (c) later
(d) many times (d) after

SENTENCE COMPLETION

16. The bus service is very good; there is a bus

(a) after ten minutes
(b) in ten minutes
(c) before ten minutes
(d) every ten minutes
17. We live near a busy airport; the planes fly
(a) near our house
(b) by our house
(c) over our house
(d) around our house
18. Dan was very quiet. He didn't say a word
(a) all the evening
(b) the entire evening
(c) all the entire evening
(d) entire evening
19. How are you
(a) getting on in your new job?
(b) getting of in your new job?
(c) getting along your new job?
(d) getting off in your new job?
20. I am trying to
(a) shut down on coffee.
(b) cut down on coffee.
(c) break down on coffee.
(d) turn down on coffee.
21. Had I the wings of a bird
(a) I would fly away.
(b) I should fly away.
(c) I will have flown away.
(d) I could have flown away.
22. He would be happier
(a) was he more honest.
 (b) had he more honest.
(c) should he be more honest.
(d) were he more honest.
23. Where there is a will,
(a) there should be way.
(b) there is a way.
(c) there would have been a way.
(d) there may have been a way.
24. "It is getting dark,
(a) must I turn on the lights ?"
(b) should I be turning the lights ?"
(c) may I be turning on the lights ?"
(d) can I turn on the lights ?"
25. The younger man has more money
(a) then brains.
(b) of brains.
(c) than brains.
(d) for brains.

IDIOMS & PHRASES

26. The green-eyed monster
(a) Feeling of being joyous
(b) Feeling of being jealous
(c) Feeling bad about happenings
(d) Feeling lucky about something

27. To sail close to the wind

(a) to pretend to be something that you are not
(b) to be in some unpleasant situation
(c) to be destroyed by a belief
(d) to do something that is dangerous
28. At the drop of a hat.
(a) Without any hesitation
(b) When attempt fails and it's time to start all over
(c) To further a loss with mockery
(d) Judging other's intentions too much
29. Costs an arm and a leg.
(a) Severe punishment to someone
(b) Too much consciousness about one's body
(c) Two difficult alternatives
(d) Something very expensive
30. Go by the book
(a) To buy a book of one's choice
(b) To understand the book
(c) To follow someone who reads books
(d) To follow rules exactly

ORDERING OF WORDS
31. P – deserve all honour in society
Q – in doing their job well
R - men of conscience who take pride
S – whatever its nature
The correct sequence should be
(a) R Q S P
(b) Q R P S
(c) P R S Q
(d) S P Q R
32. P - a person bitten by a rabid dog
Q- would be seized by violent symptoms
R- after an incubation period of a month or two
S- and die an agonizing death
The correct sequence should be
(a) PRSQ
(b) SRQP
(c) PRQS
(d) PQRS
33. P - it is a fact that rice is one of the most prolific
Q- than almost any other crop
R- yielding a greater return per acre
S- of food crops
The correct sequence should be
(a) SRQP
(b) RPSQ
(c) QRSP
(d) PSRQ
34. P – sports cars
Q – appeal
R – to some motorists only
S – with noisy exhausts
The correct sequence should be
(a) RQSP
(b) PSQR
(c) RSPQ
(d) PQSR
35. P - up to the end of the eighteenth century, not only because it was often fatal,
Q - smallpox was a particularly dreaded disease,
R - but also because those who recovered
S - were permanently disfigured
The correct sequence should be
(a) PQRS
(b) QRSP
(c) PRSQ
(d) QPRS

WORD CLASSES
36. You are paying less attention to your studies these days.
(a) Adverb
(b) Adjective
(c) Intensifier
(d) Noun
37. Hurrah! What a scintillating beauty the landscape is !
(a) Conjunction
(b) Adjective
(c) Adverb
(d) Interjection
38. May you be blessed with all good things of life.
(a) Verb
(b) Adverb
(c) Noun
(d) Pronoun

39. Honesty is the best policy.

(a) Countable noun
(b) Pronoun
(c) Common noun
(d) Uncountable noun
40. The cantankerous men of the town roar around the marketplace.
(a) Verb
(b) Adverb
(c) Determiner
(d) Adjective

SYNONYMS

41. Words of endearment always touch me.

(a) praise
(b) fondness
(c) conviction
(d) wisdom
42. We should follow patience and forbearance.
(a) constraint
(b) encouragement
(c) restraint
(d) support
43. It is obligatory for all employees to wear protective clothing.
(a) voluntary
(b) elective
(c) optional
(d) essential
44. Her act was considered as most lamentable.
(a) appreciable
(b) acceptable
 (c) permissible
(d) deplorable
45. Mahesh is mostly prejudiced in his political opinion.
(a) objectionable
(b) predatory
(c) jaundiced
(d) intimate

46. Keshav planned the event with fastidious care.

(a) inattentive
(b) boring
(c) meticulous
(d) uninteresting
47. Cognitivist and linguists believe that every child is born with innate qualities.
a) Weird
b) Intrinsic
c) Extrinsic
d) Unnatural
48. People avoided him for his high mindedness.
a) toughness
b) strong principles
c) anger
d) whims
49. Justice prevailed and the murderer was decapitated.
(a) beheaded
(b) dismissed
(c) kidnapped
(d) discharged
50. The leader's endurance paid and he won the elections.
(a) patience
(b) success
(c) enigma
(d) captivity

[51] A body of mass 2 kg is acted upon by two perpendicular forces 4 N and 3 N . The magnitude and
direction of the acceleration of the body respectively are. (a) 2.5 m/s2 ⋅
3
Tan−1 (4) with respect to the direction of 4 N force (b) 2.5 m/s2 ⋅
3
Tan−1 (4) with respect to the direction of 3 N force (c) 2.0 m/s2 ⋅
4
Tan−1 (3) with respect to the direction of 4 N force (d) 2.0 m/s2 ⋅
3
Tan−1 (4) with respect to the direction of 3 N force

[52] Two satellites ' 𝐴 ' and ' 𝐵 ' are revolving with critical velocities ' 𝑣𝐴 ' and ' 𝑣𝐵 ' around the earth,
' 𝑣𝐴 '
in circular orbits of radii ' 𝑅 ' and ' 2𝑅 ', respectively. The ratio 𝑣𝐵
is

(a) 2: 1
(b) √2: 1

(c) 1: 2

(d) 1: √2

[53] An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a plane mirror. The virtual and erect image
is formed by the mirror. Now the mirror is moved by 4 cm towards the stationary object. The
distance by which the position of image would be shifted, will be:

(a) 4 cm towards mirror

(b) 8 cm towards mirror

(c) 8 cm away from mirror

(d) 2 cm towards mirror

[54] The centripetal acceleration of particle of mass m moving with a velocity v in a circular orbit of
radius r is

(a) v 2 /r along the radius, towards the centre

(b) v 2 /r along the radius, away from the centre

(c) mv 2 /r along the radius, away the centre

(d) mv 2 /r along the radius, towards the centre

[55] Starting from a point on circumference of a circle of radius 'r', a person moves to a point which is
diametrically opposite its initial position. The distance travelled and displacement are respectively

(a) 2πr, 0 (b) πr, 2r (c) 2r, 2πr (d) 2r, πr

[56] Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over
a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due
to gravity g is

g g
A. 2 B. 5
 g
C. 10 D. g

[57] Light travels from air to water, from water to glass and then again from glass to air.

If 𝑥 represents refractive index of water with respect to air, y represents refractive

index of glass with respect to water and 𝑧 represent refractive index of air with

respect to glass, then which one of the following is correct

(a) xy = z

(b) yz = x

(c) zx = y

(d) xyz = 1

[58] The potential energy of a body is given by U = A − 𝐵𝑥 2 (where 𝑥 is the displacement)

The magnitude of force acting on the particle is

(a) Constant

(b) Proportional to x

(c) Proportional to x 2

(d) Inversely proportional to 𝑥

[59] A Particle executes linear S.H.M. with amplitude 4 cm. The magnitude of velocities and
acceleration is equal it is at 3 cm from mean position. The time period is
3𝜋 3𝜋
A. 7
B.
√7

6𝜋 6𝜋
C. D. 7
√7

[60] The acceleration of a particle executing SHM is

(a) always zero

(b) always constant

(c) maximum at the extreme position

(d) maximum at the equilibrium position

[61] Identify the correct statement among the following.

(a) Resistivity of metals decreases with temperature because more electrons are available for
conduction.

(b) Resistivity of metals increases with temperature because number of electrons decreases.

(c) Resistivity of metals increases with temperature because number of collisions between electrons
increases.

(d) Resistivity of metals decreases with temperature because superconductivity sets in

[62] The pressure at the bottom of a tank containing liquid does not depend upon the

(a) area of bottom surface.

(b) height of liquid column.

(c) density of liquid.

(d) acceleration due to gravity.

[63] Which one of the following statements is 'NOT' the property of light

(a) Light requires material medium for propagation

(b) Light has finite speed

(c) Light can travel through vacuum

(d) Light involves transportation of energy

[64] A 12 kg bomb explodes into two parts of 4 kg and 8 kg each. The velocity of

8 kg part is 6 m/sec. The kinetic energy of the other part is

(a) 488 J

(b) 288 J

(c) 144 J

(d) 12 J

[65] The I-V characteristics of a metal wire at two different temperatures (𝑇1 and 𝑇2 ) are given in the
adjoining figure. Here we can conclude that
A. 𝑇1 > 𝑇2

B. 𝑇1 < 𝑇2

C. 𝑇1 = 𝑇2

D. 𝑇1 = 2𝑇2

[66] The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value. The new momentum will be

(a) same as the initial value

(b) twice the initial value

(c) thrice the initial value

(d) four times the initial value

[67] Which is not the unit of electric field

N N−m
𝐴. C B. C

V J
C. m D. C−m

[68] In a circular coil (1) of radius R, current I is flowing and in another coil (2) or radius 2R a current
2I is flowing, then the ratio of the magnetic fields produced by the two coils is–

(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 1 B

[69] Light has wavelength 600 nm in free space. It passes into glass, which has an index of refraction
of 1.50. What is the frequency of the light inside the glass
A. 3.3 × 1014 Hz

B. 5.0 × 1014 Hz

C. 3.3 × 1015 Hz

D. 5.0 × 105 Hz

[70] The given figures gives electric lines of force due to the charges 𝑞1 and 𝑞2 . What are the signs of
two charges

A. Both are negative

B. Both are positive

C. 𝑞1 is positive but 𝑞2 is negative

D. 𝑞1 is negative but 𝑞2 is positive

[71] A gun fires N bullets per second, each of mass m with velocity v. The force exerted by the bullets
on the gun is

A. vNm
𝑚𝑉
B.
𝑁

C. mv𝑁 2
𝑚𝑣 2
D. 𝑁

[72] Which of the following wave not required medium

(1) Seismic wave (2) Water waves (3) Sound waves (4) X - rays

[73] Assertion (A) Half of the charge of an electron does not exist.
Reason (R) Electric Charge is quantized.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (B) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

[74] Assertion (A) Half of the charge of an electron does not exist.

Reason (R) Electric Charge is quantized.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (B) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

75. The alpha particle carries two positive charge. Its mass is very nearly equal to that of

(a) two protons

(b) an atom of helium

(c) sum of masses of two positrons and two neutrons

(d) two positrons as each positron carries a single positive charge

76. Assertion : Synthetic detergents can lather well in hard water.

Reason (R): Synthetic detergents form soluble calcium and magnesium salts with hard water.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

77. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The presence of NaCl increases the rate of setting 5 of plaster of Paris.

(b) Gypsum is added to the cement to slow down its rate of setting.

(c) All alkaline earth metals form hydrated salts.

d) Barium and strontium are found free in nature

78. For which of the following fertilizers, sulphuric acid is being used in large amounts?

1. Organic fertilizers

2. Phosphate fertilizers

3. Potassium fertilizers

4. Nitrogen fertilizers

79. Which one of the following statements regarding acids is not correct?

(a) Hydrochloric acid is present in the gastric juice secreted by the stomach.

(b) Acetic acid is the main constituent of vinegar.

(c) Oxalic acid is found in tamarind paste.

(d) Lemon and orange juices contain citric acid and ascorbic acid respectively.

80. Which of the following causes the rusting of iron?

1. Oxidation

2. Reduction

3. Chemical reaction with oxygen

4. Chemical reaction with CO2

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

81. Arrange them in increasing order of their bond length: Ethyne, Ethane, Ethene. Among
them, which one has the lowest bond length?

a.) Ethane

b.) Ethene

c.) Ethyne

d.) None of these

82. Allotropes differ in the

(A) Number of neutrons

(B) Number of protons

(C) Way their atoms are arranged

(D) Number of electrons

83. Arrange Li, C, B and Be according to increasing order of their atomic radii.

(1)B<Be<Li<C

(2) Be<C<B<Li

(3) C<B<Be<Li

(4) B<C<Be<Li

84. Choose the false statement according to Modern Periodic Table:

(1) All the isotopes of an element belong to the same group of the periodic table.

(2) Metals are present in right side of periodic table.

(3) The atomic number is a fundamental property of an element.

(4) The atomic radius of Li is greater than the atomic radius of Fluorine.

85. If one mole of carbon atoms weighs 12 gram, what is the mass in gram of 1 atom of carbon?

a) 1.9 × 10-23 b) 1.8 × 10-23

c) 1.9 × 10 23 d) 1.8× 10 23

86. Which of the following statements about universal indicator is/are true ?

1. It is a mixture of several indicators.

2. It shows different colours at different concentrations of hydrogen ions in solution.

3. It helps to determine the strength of given acid and base in titration.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

a) Only 1
b) Only 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3

87. What will be the weight of one atom of oxygen in gm?

a) 3.55× 10−23

b) 2.98× 10−23
c) 6.023× 10−23

d) 4.21× 10−23

88. The necessary conditions for stable ionic bonding is/are:

a) high electron affinity of anion.

b) low ionization enthalpy of cation.

c) high lattice enthalpy.

d) all of these.

89. Consider the two statements below

Assertion (A): Magnesium imparts characteristic colour to the flame.

Reason (R): Due to small size and high effective nuclear charge ionization enthalpy of magnesium is
high.

(1)Both A & R are true and R is a correct explanation of A

(2) Both A & R are true but R is not correct explanation of A

(3) A is true R is false.

(4) A is false R is true.

90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Potassium bromide 1. Fertiliser

B. Potassium nitrate 2. Photography

C. Potassium sulphate 3. Bakery

D. Monopotassium tartarate 4. Gun powder

Codes:

(a) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3

(b) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4

(c) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1

(d) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3

91. Consider the following statements:

1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.

2. Quick lime is used in the manufacture of glass.

3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of plaster of Paris.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Which of the following alkali metals has highest specific heat?

(A) Cesium

(B) Rubidium

(C) Potassium

(D) lithium

93. Which of the following cell organelles contain their own DNA?

A. Plastids B. Mitochondria

C. Nucleus D. Vacuole

Choose the correct option:

1. C and D 2. B and C

3. A, B and C 4. all of the above

94. Which among the following helps to determine the character of a cell?
[A] Nucleus[ B] Chromosomes

[C] Genes [D] Plasma

95. Which among the following acid is NOT a Vitamin?

[A] Folic Acid [B] Oleic Acid

[C] Pantothenic Acid [D] Ascorbic Acid

96. Each cell has certain specific component within it known as

a) Cell body b) Cytoplasm
c) Cell organelles d) None of them

97. Carbon dioxide or oxygen can move across the cell membrane by a process called.
a) Reverse Osmosis b) Diffusion

c) Transportation d) Circulation

98. When the medium is behaving like isotonic solution

a) Cell is swell up b) Cell is size retain as it is
c) Cell will shrink d) All of them

99. The plasma membrane is made up of

a) Salt b) Carbohydrates

c) Minerals d) Lipids

100. full form of DNA

a) Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid
b) Doxy ribose acid
c) Deoxyribose Napthalic Acid
d) Deoxyribo Nucleic Anta acid

101. If you pass through this region, you are most likely to find tall grasslands, scrub savannah,
sal forests clay rich swamps and high biological diversity. Due to the very high humidity, this
region is very marshy. Most of the region lies especially in Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and
Uttarakhand, and has been turned into agricultural land which gives good crops of sugarcane,
rice and wheat. You are likely in the

(a) Bhabar (b) Khadar

(c) Terai (d) Bhangar

102. Which of the following statements are correct about the formation of universe?

1. Before the Big Bang, the universe was concentrated in a singular atom.

2. The singular atom exploded violently which led to its rapid expansion.

3. The present rate of expansion of universe is more than its initial expansion.

Codes

(a) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 (d) All of these

103. Assertion (A): The period of revolution of the Mars around the sun is smaller than that of
the Earth. Reason (R): The Mars has a smaller diameter than the Earth has. Select the correct
answer from the code given below:

(a) both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is correct, but R is wrong.

(d) A is wrong, but R is correct

104. Consider the following statements regarding atmosphere:

1. The presence of an ozone gas layer in the stratosphere is a significant characteristic.

2. When meteoroids enter the atmosphere from space, they burn up.

3. The troposphere is the region where most meteorological phenomena, such as precipitation,
fog and hailstorms take place.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

105. Consider the following statements regarding 2 structure of the atmosphere:

1. Most meteorological events occur within the troposphere.

2. The temperature decreases with increase in altitude from the earth's surface in the
stratosphere at normal lapse rate.

3. The cosmic rays, gamma rays and X-rays coming from the sun cause ionisation of gases within
the thermosphere

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

106. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about the Earth's interior?

(a) The depth of the crust of Earth varies over oceans and continents.

(b) The central core of Earth has the highest. Temperature and pressure among all the layers.

(c) The mantle is located between crust and core.

(d) None of the above

107. Consider the following statements regarding the ionosphere:

1. It is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere.

2. The molecules and atoms of nitrogen and oxygen in this layer absorb a part of solar radiation
and become ionised.

3. This layer is responsible for reflecting back the radio wave transmitted from the earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

108. Consider the following statements regarding the Surface Earthquake Waves:

1. They are generated by the interaction of body waves with surface rocks.

2. Their speed is slower than Body waves.

3. They are usually more destructive than Body waves

4. As compared to Deeper Earthquakes, Shallow Earthquakes produce stronger Surface Waves.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) Only three (d) All four

109. Consider the following statements with reference te Ganga and its tributaries.

1. The Sarda river originates in Nepal in the Milam Glacier.

2. The Saryu river is also known as Sorrow of Bengal.

3. The Son river originates from Amarkantak Plateau Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

110. With reference to 'Duns', consider the following statements:

1. Duns are elongated ridges found in between Lesser Himalayas and Shiwaliks.
2. They are found only in the western part of the Himalayan range.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

111. Consider the following statements.

1. The winds which blow between 30°N and 60°S latitudes throughout the year are known as
Westerlies.

2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of
Westerlies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct.

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

112. Consider the following statements with reference 19 to Tropical Deciduous forests in India

1. Teak, Sal, Sheesham are found in abundance in the Tropical Moist Deciduous forests.

2. Dry deciduous forests develop in regions having rainfall between 70-100 cm.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

113. Which of the following statements with reference to the main cropping seasons in Indian
is/are false?

[1] The terms 'kharif' and 'Rabi' originate for Arabic language where Kharif means autumn and
Rabi means spring.

[2] Kharif crops need cold weather for growth and need less water.
 [3] Rabi crops generally require more water and are called monsoon crops.

[4] Zaid is short cropping season during summer months and mostly seasonal fruits and
vegetables are grown in this season.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

114. With reference to the intrusive landforms of volcanoes, consider the following statements:

[1] Sills are horizontal structures formed almost parallel to Earth's surface.

[2] Dykes are formed as a result of accumulation of molten magma perpendicular to the Earth's
surface. [3] Batholiths are dome-shaped structures formed very close to the Earth's surface.

[4] Laccoliths are lens-shaped structures that occupy either the crest of an anticline or the trough
of a syncline.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) Only three (d) All four

115. Consider the following statements about the meridians on Earth.

[1] The Prime Meridian converges with all other meridians at North Pole and South Pole.

[2] A meridian runs along East-West directions along the equator.

[3] The 𝟏𝟖𝟎∘ meridian connects North Pole South Pole.

[4] As we move towards higher latitudes, the distance between two meridians increases.

Which of the statement(s) given above is correct?

(a) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2, and 3 (d) All of these

116. Consider the following statements with respect to earth's crust:

[a] Continental crust is thinner as compared to oceanic crust.

[b] While granitic rocks form the continents, basaltic rocks form the ocean floors.

[c] The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

117. Match the following lists correctly and choose 1o correct code.

List I(Tropical Cyclone Name) List II (Region)

A. Cyclone 1. Australia

B. Willy-Willy 2. Indian Ocean

C. Hurricane 3. South China Sea

D. Typhoon 4. Atlantic Ocean

Codes

ABCD

(a) 4 2 1 3

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 4 1 4 3

118. Which of the following statements correctly

defines Southern Oscillations?

(a) Periodic changes in the pressure conditions in

Pacific ocean and Indian ocean.

(b) The reversal of jet streams during the monsoon

season in India.

(c) The periodic reversal of winds in the Indian

peninsula.

(d) The periodic changes in the pressure conditions

of various parts of India due to shift in ITCZ.

119. Consider the following statements regarding Sunspots:

[1] Sunspots are temporary phenomena on the photosphere of the Sun.

[2] They seem visibly as bright spots compared to surrounding regions.

[3] They affect the climate on Earth by changing the solar output received by Earth.

How many of the above statements are correct :

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) All three (d) None

120. With reference to planet Venus, consider the following statements:

[1] It is the nearest planet from the Sun.

[2] It is only slightly smaller than the Earth.

[3] It has no atmosphere.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

121. Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because he

(a) Was asked by the Board of Directors at London to do

(b) Wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India.

(c) Wanted to provide William Carey and his associates with employment.

(d) Wanted to train British Civilians for administrative purpose in India.

122. Safety Valve Theory is associated with

(a) Rise of radical nationalism in India.

(b) Formation of Indian National Congress

(c) Both 'a' and 'b'

(d) None of the above

123. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the
lists.

List I List II

A Land allotted to big 1. Jagirdari System feudal landlords

B. Land allotted to revenue 2. Ryotwari System farmers or rent collectors

C. Land allotted to each 3. Mahalwari System

peasant with the right to sublet,

mortgage transfer and gift or sell

D. Revenue settlements 4. Zamindari System

made at village level

Codes

ABCD ABCD

(a) 1 3 2 4 (c) 3 4 2 1

(b) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 1 3 4

124. Consider the following statements about

the Kushan dynasty.

1. Its kings adopted the pompous titles of King

of Kings and Sons of God.

2. They introduced the satrap system of

government.

3. Hereditary dual rule was also prevalent

during the reign of the Kushan dynasty.

Which of the statement(s) given above are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

125. With reference to Mauryan administration, consider the following statements.

1. The Ashokan inscription mentions Tosali as an important provincial political center.

2. Taxila was the provincial center for important long-distance trade routes.

3. Ujjayini was an important center for tapping gold mines.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one (c) All three

(b) Only two (d) None of these

126. Consider the following statements with reference to the Kabir.

1. His collection of verses is called sakhis and pads.

2. His verses are preserved in the Guru Granth Sahib.

3. He belonged to community of fishermen.

4. Kabir believed in a formless Supreme God.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

127. With reference to the prevalence of technologies in the Indus Valley Civilisation, consider
the following statements.

1. The terracotta models of the plough have been found at the site of Banawali.

2. The evidence of ploughed field was found at Kalibangan.

3. Traces of canals for irrigation have been found at the site of Shortughai in Afghanistan.

Choose the correct answer.

(a) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3

(b) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

128. Which of the following statements is not correct about Nalanda University?

(a) It was an ancient Buddhist learning centre.

(b) A Chinese Hiuen Tsang studied here.

(c) We came to know about it only through the writings of Chinese pilgrims.

(d) It was mainly responsible for spreading Buddhism to China, Japan and South- East Asia

129. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the
lists.

List I List II

( Rock Edicts of Ashoka) (Main Themes)

A. Rock Edict II 1. Denounces the practice of orthodox ceremonies

B. Rock Edict V 2. Introduces the system of Dharmayatra

C. Rock Edict VIII 3. Explains the institution of Dharma Mahamantras

D. Rock Edict IX 4. Certain measures for the welfare of humans and animals

ABCD ABCD

(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 3 4

130. Consider the following statements regarding Shankaradeva

1. He was responsible for the introduction of Bhakti Movement in Assam.

2. He composed poems and plays in Bengali.

3. He began the practice of setting up namghars. Which of the statement(s) given above are
correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

131. According to Atlee's Announcement in 1947

1. The British Government would grant full self-government to British India by 1948 at the
latest.

2. The future of the Princely States would be decided after the date of final transfer is decided.

Which of the above sentence(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None

132. The recommendations of the Cabinet Mission 1946 included

1. Partition of India.

2. Constitution of a Unitary government with centralized powers.

3. A nominated Constituent Assembly.

4. All the members of the Interim cabinet would be Indians.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

133. Consider the following statements regarding Individual Satyagraha:

1. It was launched in response to India's participation in World War II.

2. It was launched by Acharya Vinoba Bhave.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

134. When did the Muslim League pass a resolution committing itself to the creation of a
separate nation called 'Pakistan'?

(a) First Non-cooperation movement, 1919

(b) Civil Disobedience Movement, 1930

(c) In 1940, few months after the Congress resigned from the provinces

(d) Direct action day 1946

135. The Nehru Report of 1928

1. Was a memorandum outlining a proposed new dominion status constitution for India.

2. Was prepared by a committee of the Indian National Congress (INC).

3. Contained a Bill of Rights unlike the Government of India Act, 1935 that was passed later.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only

136. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment

(a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the houses of the Parliament but must become a
member of one of the houses within six months.

(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the houses of the Parliament but must become a
member of the Lok Sabha within six months.

(c) Must be a member of one of the houses of the Parliament.

(d) Must be a member of Lok Sabha.

137. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code.

Assertion (A) The Union Executive is headed by

the President of India.

Reason (R) There is no limitation on the power of the President.

Codes

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

138. Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of Constitution.

1. The Objectives Resolution by Jawaharlal Nehru finally became Preamble.

2. It is non-justiciable.

3. It can't be amended.

4. Preamble cannot override the specific provisions of the Constitution.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

139. The second five year plan that called for the establishment of socialist pattern of society

was commonly referred to as the

1. Nehru Plan

2. Mahalanobis Plan

3. Harrod-Domar Plan

4. Socialistic Plan

140. Which among the following bodies estimates the national income of India?

(a)Office of the Economic Advisor

(b) Ministry of Statistics
(c) Central Statistical Office
(d) Ministry of Finance

141. What is the venue of 7th India - France joint Military exercise SHAKTI?

(a) Jodhpur (b) Umrai, Meghalaya

(c) Pune (d) Auli

142. Who has become the President of 79th Session of the United Nations General Assembly?

(a) Kristina Ella

(b) Lawrence Wong

(c) Philemon Yang

(d) Antonio Gutteres

143 Which of the following country will become the first South American country to adopt UPI
technology?

[a] Brazil

[b] Argentina

[c] Chile

[d] Peru

144. Which is the 43rd site of India to be included in the UNESCO world heritage list?

a) Tilinga Mandir

b) Navagraha Hills

c) Moidams

d) Ugratara Temple

145. Who became the first Woman from India to represent the country as a jury member at
Summer Olympics (Paris), 2024?

(a) P.T Usha

(b) Bilquis Mir

(c) Sania Mirza

(d) Karnam Malleswari

146. What is the venue of world future Energy Summit?

(a) Rome

(b) Riyadh

(c) Abu Dhabi

(d) Geneva

147. Which of the following country becomes the biggest EU Country to legalize recreational
Cannabis?

(a) England

(b) Italy

(c) France

(d) Germany

148. Who has become the India's New Army Chief?

[a] NS Rajasubramani

[b] Upindra Dwivedi

[c] MV Suchindra Kumar

[d] Manoj Pandey

149. Which of the following is the 1st woman Naval officer to be pasted in an India Mission
abroad?

(a) Karabi Gogai

(b) Shivani Singh

(c) Manisha Pahadi

(d) Preti kaur

150. Which of the following city is officially declared India's first City of Literature by UNESCO?

[a] Gwalior

[b] Pune

[c] Idukki
[d] Kozhikode