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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
245. Read the following statements and select the (vi) Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal
incorrect with respect to male reproductive vesicle and opens into urethra as the
system ejaculatory duct.
(1) Testes are situated outside the abdominal How many of the statements are incorrect?
cavity to maintain the low temperature of (1) One (2) Three
the testes necessary for spermatogenesis (3) Four (4) Two
(2) The testis is covered by a dense covering
(3) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its 248. Read the following statements.
inside by two types of cells. I. Each testis has about 25 compartments
(4) The regions within the seminiferous tubules called testicular lobules.
called interstitial spaces II. Each testicular lobule contains one to three
highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which
246. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperms are produced.
sperm cells in male reproductive system. III. Sertoli cells act as nurse cells of testicles.
(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa IV. Sertoli cells are activated by FSH secreted
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens by the adenohypophysis.
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral Which of the above statements are incorrect?
meatus (1) I and III (2) Only I
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → (3) II and IV (4) III and IV
Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
(3) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → 249. Match column I with column II.
Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Column-I Column-II
Inguinal canal → Urethra → Urethral
A. Clitoris p. Cushion of fatty tissue
meatus
(4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Upper junction of two
B. Hymen q.
Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra labia minora
C. Mons pubis r. Flesh folds
247. Read the following statements.
Partial covering of
(i) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete D. Labia majora s.
vagina
testicular hormones called androgens
(ii) The male sex accessory ducts include rete (1) (A)–r, (B)–s, (C)–q, (D)–p
testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, seminal (2) (A)–s, (B)–r, (C)–q, (D)–p
vesicle and vas deferens (3) (A)–r, (B)–p, (C)–q, (D)–s
(iii) Penis is made up of special tissue that helps (4) (A)–q, (B)–s, (C)–p, (D)–r
in erection of the penis, it`s enlarged end is
covered by a loose fold of skin called glans 250. Read the following statements.
penis. (i) Each ovary is covered by a thick epithelium
(iv) Secretions of male accessory glands which encloses the ovarian stroma, which is
constitute the seminal plasma which is rich divided into two zones.
in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. (ii) The edges of the infundibulum possess
(v) The epididymis leads to vas deferens that finger-like projections called fimbriae,
ascends to the abdomen and loops over the which help in collection of the ovum after
urinary bladder. ovulation

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(iii) Parts of the female reproductive system C. Uterus 3. Pregnancy
along with a pair of the mammary glands
are integrated structurally and functionally D. Cervix 4. Childbirth
to support the processes of ovulation, (1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
fertilisation, pregnancy, birth and child (2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
care. (3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(iv) The presence or absence of hymen is not a (4) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
reliable indicator of virginity or sexual
experience. 253. Match the following columns.
Select the correct option with respect to the Column I Column II
above statements. (Layers of uterus) (Features)
(1) All the statements are correct Inner glandular layer
A. Perimetrium p.
(2) All the statements are correct, except (i) of uterus
(3) All the statements are correct, except (iii) External thin
B. Endometrium q.
(4) All the statements are correct, except (iv) membrane of uterus
Middle thick
251. Given the diagrammatic sectional view of C. Myometrium r.
membrane of uterus
mammary gland. Identify A, B, C and D. (1) A-2, B-1, C-3
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1
(4) A-3, B-1, C-2

254. Read the following statements.

I. Spermatogonia and spermatids are diploid.
II. The extrusion of second polar body from
nucleus occurs after the entry of sperm and
completion of fertilisation.
III. Spermatogenesis and sperm differentiation
(1) A-Alveolus, B-Mammary duct, C- under the control of FSH and testosterone.
Lactiferous duct, D-Areola IV. A change in ovum after penetration of
(2) A-Alveolus, B-Lactiferous duct, C- sperm the formation of second polar body.
Mammary duct, D-Areola V. The secondary oocyte in the Graaffian
(3) A-Alveolus, B-Mammary duct, C- follicle forms a new membrane called zona
Lactiferous duct, D-Lactogenic spot pellucida surrounding it.
(4) A-Fat, B-Mammary duct, C-Lactiferous Which of the above statements are correct?
duct, D-Areola (1) I, II, III and V (2) I and III
(3) Only III (4) II, III, IV and V
252. Match the following columns.
255. The spermatids are transformed into
Column I
Column II spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called
(Female reproductive
(Related to) (1) Spermatogenesis
parts)
(2) Spermiogenesis
A. Ovaries 1. Fertilisation
(3) Spermiation
B. Oviduct 2. Ovulation (4) Spermatocytogenesis

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
256. Choose the incorrect pair. 259. Some important events in the human female
(1) Antrum - Fluid-filled cavity in primary reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the
follicle events in proper sequence.
(2) Tertiary follicle - Primary oocyte completes I. Secretion of FSH.
its Ist meiotic division inside it II. Growth of corpus luteum.
(3) Secondary oocyte - Haploid cell formed III. Growth of the follicle and oogenesis.
after Ist meiotic division IV. Ovulation.
(4) Graafian follicle - Mature tertiary follicle V. Sudden increase in the levels of LH.
which ruptures during ovulation Choose the correct option.
(1) III  I  IV  II  V
257. Which of the following statements is correct? (2) I  III  V  IV  II
I. Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic (3) I  IV  III  V  II
development stage. (4) II  I  III  IV  V
II. At puberty only 60,000 - 80,000 primary
follicles are left in each ovary. 260. Read the graph and correlate the uterine events
III. The primary follicles surrounded with that take place according to the hormonal levels
many layers of granulosa cells and form a on A. 6-15 days, B. 16-25 days, C. 3-5 days (if
new theca called secondary follicles. the ovum is not fertilised).
IV. Changing of sanitary napkins or pads after
every 4-5 hours is necessary for
maintaining menstrual hygiene.
(1) I and II (2) I, II, III and IV
(3) I and III (4) None of these

258. Identify A, B and C in the figure given below.

(1) A-Degeneration of endometrium, B-

Myometrium thickness, becomes
vascularised ready to receive and implant
embryo, C -Regeneration of endometrium
(2) A-Degeneration of endometrium, B-
Endometrium thickness increases, becomes
vascularised, ready to receive and implant
ovum, C-Regeneration of endometrium
(3) A-Regeneration of endometrium, B-
Endometrium becomes thick and
vascularised ready to receive and implant
embryo, C-Degeneration of endometrium
(1) A-Secondary oocyte, B-Oogonia, C-
(4) A-Regeneration of myometrium, B-
Primary oocyte
Endometrium becomes thick and
(2) A-Oogonia, B-Primary oocyte, C-
vascularised, ready to receive and implant
Secondary oocyte
embryo, C-Degeneration of endometrium
(3) A-Secondary oocyte, B-Primary oocyte, C-
Oogonia
261. Read the following statements.
(4) A-Oogonia, B-Secondary oocyte, C-
Primary oocyte
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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(i) Lack of menstruation may be indicative of Outer layer of
pregnancy. C. Inner cell mass 3. blastocyst attached to
(ii) Development of follicles and regeneration the endometrium
of endometrium occurs simultaneously. Mitotic division of
D. Implantation 4.
(iii) Changes in the ovary and the uterus are zygote
induced by only changes in the levels of (1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
pituitary and hypothalamic hormones (2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(iv) The secretion of corpus luteum is essential (3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
for maintenance of the endometrium (4) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(v) Degeneration of corpus luteum causes the
disintegration of the endometrium leading 264. Choose the incorrect pair.
to menstruation. Time of development in
Organ
How many of the given statements are correct? foetus
(1) One (2) Two After one month of
A. Heart
(3) Four (4) Three pregnancy
Limbs and By the end of second
B.
262. The given diagram refers to ovum surrounded by digits month
few sperms. Identify A, B and C in the diagram. External genital By the end of 24 weeks
C.
organs (second trimester)
First movement
D. During the fifth month
of foetus

265. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) The placenta is connected to the embryo
through an umbilical cord which helps in
the transport of substances to and from the
embryo.
(2) Placenta also produces several hormones
(1) A-Zona pellucida, B-Perivitelline space, C-
like human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG),
Corona reticulata
human placental lactogen (hPL), estrogens,
(2) A-Zona pellucida, B-Vitelline membrane,
progestogens, etc.
C-Corona radiata
(3) In the later phase of pregnancy, a hormone
(3) A-Zona pellucida, B-Perivitelline space, C-
called relaxin is only secreted by the ovary.
Corona radiata
(4) During pregnancy the levels of other
(4) A-Oolemma, B-Perivitelline space, C-
hormones like estrogens, progestogens,
Corona radiata
cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc., are
increased several folds in the maternal
263. Match the following columns.
blood.
Column I Column II
Embedding of 266. Signals for parturition originate from
A. Trophoblast 1. blastocyst in the (1) Both placenta as well as fully developed
endometrium foetus
Group of cells that (2) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
B. Cleavage 2. would differentiate as (3) placenta
embryo (4) fully developed foetus

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
267. Colostrum is important for newly born because: (1) I-T, II-F, III-T
(1) It contains antibodies (2) I-F, II-F, III-T
(2) It has nutrients required for the growth of (3) I-T, II-T, III-F
baby (4) I-F, II-T, III-T
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) It contains antigens 271. The spermatogonia undergo division to produce
sperms by the process of spermatogenesis.
268. Select the correct option describing Choose the correct one with reference to above.
gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant (1) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and
female. always undergo meiotic cell division
(1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the (2) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic
thickening of endometrium cell division
(2) High level of FSH and LH facilitates (3) Secondary spermatocytes have 23
implantation of the embryo chromosomes and undergo second meiotic
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis division
of oestrogen and progesterone (4) Spermatozoa are transformed into
(4) High level of hCG stimulates the spermatids
thickening of endometrium
272. Match the following columns.
269. Match the following columns. Column I Column II
Column I Column II A. Acrosome 1. Rudimentary tissue
A. Hyaluronidase 1. Acrosomal reaction
B. Endometrium 2. Uterus
Morphogenetic
B. Corpus luteum 2. C. Polar body 3. Oogenesis
movements
C. Gastrulation 3. Progesterone D. Clitoris 4. Spermatozoa

D. Capacitation 4. Mammary gland (1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(2) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Colostrum Sperm activation (3) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(1) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-1, E-3 (4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4
(3) A-3, B-2, C-5, D-4, E-1 273. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5 nucleus occurs
(1) after fertilisation
270. Consider the following three statements related (2) before the entry of sperm into ovum
to the human male reproductive system and (3) simultaneously with first cleavage
select the correct option stating which ones are (4) after the entry of sperm but before
True (T) and which ones are False (F). fertilisation
I. Middle piece of spermatozoon is also
termed as power house of spermatozoon. 274. Give the name of two hormones A and B in the
II. Vas deferens joins a duct from seminal figure given below.
vesicle and form vasa efferentia.
III. Semen is a collection of secretions from the
seminal vesicles, prostate gland, Cowper's (1) FSH and GH (2) LH and androgens
glands and sperms from testes. (3) GH and LH (4) GH and lactin

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
275. Read the following statement and select the (i) Barrier methods such as condoms are
incorrect with respect to IUDs. available for both males and females.
(1) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms (ii) Use of condoms has decreased in recent
within the uterus years due to its additional benefit of
(2) It is one of most widely accepted methods protecting the user from contracting STIs
of contraception in India. and AIDS.
(3) Intrauterine devices are inserted by doctors (iii) Female condoms are disposable, can be
or expert nurses in the vagina. self-inserted and thereby gives privacy to
(4) The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, the user
make the uterus unsuitable for implantation (iv) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
and the cervix hostile to the sperms. also barriers made of rubber that are
inserted into the female reproductive tract
276. Select the mismatch. to cover the cervix during coitus.
(1) Copper releasing IUDs - CuT, Cu7, (v) Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are
Multiload 375 usually used along with barriers such as
(2) Hormone releasing IUDs - Progestasert condoms to increase their contraceptive
(3) Non-medicated IUDs - Lippes loop, LNG- efficiency.
20 How many of the given statements are true?
(4) None of these (1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Five
277. Which of the following is a hormone releasing
Intrauterine Device (IUD)? 281. What is true for an ideal contraceptive?
(1) Multiload 375 (2) LNG-20 I. It should be user-friendly.
(3) Cervical cap (4) Vault II. It should be easily available.
III. It should be effective and reversible with
278. Find out the incorrect statement for IUD. least side effects.
(1) They can be self-inserted IV. It should be interfering in coitus.
(2) They are inserted by expert nurses/doctors V. It should be expensive and effective.
(3) They may be non-medicated IUDs, copper Choose the correct option.
releasing IUDs or hormone releasing IUDs (1) I, IV and III (2) I, IV and V
(4) They are intrauterine devices (3) I, II and III (4) II, IV and V

279. Which of the following is not correct for natural 282. Which statements show the correct purpose of
method of contraception? contraceptive pills?
(1) Withdrawal of penis from the vagina by I. They inhibit ovulation and implantation.
male partner just before ejaculation II. They alter the quality of cervical mucus to
(2) As long as the mother breast-feeds the child prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
fully, chances of conception are almost nil III. They prevent the ejaculated semen from
(3) The couples avoid or abstain from coitus entering the female vagina.
from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle IV. They inhibit spermatogenesis.
when ovulation could be expected (1) I, II and IV
(4) Side effects are almost nil, chances of (2) I, II and III
failure, though, of this method are also nil (3) I and II
(4) I, II, III and IV
280. Read the following statements.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
283. Given below are the four methods and their 286. Read the given statements and select the correct
modes of action in achieving contraception. option regarding pills.
Select their correct matching from the four (i) Pills contains small doses of either
options that follows. progestogens or progestogen–estrogen.
Column I (Birth Column II (Modes of (ii) They inhibit ovulation and implantation as
control measures) action) well as alter the quality of cervical mucus
Prevents sperms to prevent/retard entry of sperms.
A. Pill 1. (iii) Pills are very effective with higher side
reaching cervix
effects and are well accepted by the
B. Condom 2. Prevents implantation
females.
C. Vasectomy 3. Prevents ovulation (iv) Pills have to be taken daily for a period of
Semen contains no 21 days starting preferably within the first
D. Copper-T 4.
sperms five days of menstrual cycle.
(1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (1) All the statements are correct except iv.
(2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (2) All the statements are incorrect except iii.
(3) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (3) All the statements are correct except iii.
(4) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (4) All the statements are correct except i and
iii.
284. Which of the following approaches does not give
the defined action of contraceptive? 287. Select the correct statement for the given figure?
Increase phagocytosis of
Intra uterine sperms, suppress sperm
(1)
devices motility and fertilising
capacity of sperms
Prevent/retard entry of
sperms, prevent
(2) Hormonal
Contraceptives ovulation (1) They are used once in a week
and fertilisation (2) Contains progestogens alone or in
(3) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis combination with estrogen.
Prevent (3) Their mode of action is similar to that of
(4) Barrier methods
fertilisation pills and their effective periods are much
lesser.
285. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by (4) They inhibit oogenesis
the females. Choose the correct option from the
statements given below. 288. Which of the following can not act as emergency
I. They are introduced into the uterus. contraceptive?
II. They are placed to cover the cervical (i) Administration of progestogens
region. (ii) Administration of progestogen-estrogen
III. They act as physical barriers for sperm combinations
entry. (iii) IUDs
IV. They act as spermicidal agents. (iv) Vasectomy
(1) I and II (v) Coitus interruptus
(2) I and III (1) i and ii (2) i, ii and iii
(3) II and III (3) iii, iv and v (4) iv and v
(4) III and IV
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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
289. What does the given below figure depicts in
A. GIFT 1. Gamete intrafallopian
particular? transfer
B. ZIFT 2. Zygote intrafallopian
transfer
C. IUI 3. Semen introduced into
vagina/uterus
D. Test-tube baby 4. ART
(1) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(1) Ovarian cancer (2) Uterine cancer (2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(3) Tubectomy (4) Vasectomy (3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
290. Assertion (A): Amniocentesis is often misused.
Reason (R): It is meant for determining the 295. Given below are the four methods and their
genetic disorders in the foetus, but it is being modes of action in achieving contraception.
used to determine the sex of the foetus, leading Select their correct matching from the four
to increase in the female foeticide. options that follows.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A Column I Column II
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the Collected gametes are made In vivo
correct explanation of A A. to form the zygote in the 1.
fertilisation
laboratory.
(3) If A is true, but R is false
Zygote or Early embryo with
(4) If A is false, but R is true B. up to 8 blastomeres is 2. IUT
transferred into the oviduct.
291. Amniocentesis is the detection of Zygote with more than 8
(1) chromosomal pattern by taking amniotic fluid C. blastomeres, is transferred 3. ZIFT
(2) chorionic fluid from developing embryo into the uterus.
(3) chromosomal pattern after childbirth D. Fusion of the gametes in the 4. IVF
(4) chromosomal pattern before fertilization female reproductive tract.
(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(2) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
292. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(1) STDs incidences are reported to be very
(4) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
high among persons in the age group of 15-
24 years
296. The 'ART' in which the semen collected either
(2) STIs are a major threat to a healthy society.
from the husband or a healthy donor and
(3) Among STDs, HIV infection is most dangerous.
artificially introduced either into the vagina or
(4) Early symptoms may includer abortions,
into the uterus is
still births, ectopic pregnancies
(1) Intra uterine devices
(2) Intra uterine insemination
293. Which of the following is completely curable?
(3) Inter uterine insemination
(1) Hepatitis-B
(4) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
(2) Genital herpes
(3) HIV infections
297. Artificial insemination means
(4) Syphilis
(1) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a
test tube containing ova.
294. Select the correct match:

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(2) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube II. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method.
containing ova. III. MTPs are always surgical.
(3) Artificial introduction of sperms of a IV. MTPs require the assistance of qualified
healthy donor into the vagina. medical personnel.
(4) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor (1) I and III
directly into the ovary. (2) II and III
(3) I and IV
298. Select the statement which is not a cause of (4) I and II
population growth.
(1) Decline in death rate 303. Find out odd statement for Saheli.
(2) Rapid increase in MMR and IMR (1) It is an oral contraceptive
(3) Rapid decline in MMR and IMR (2) It is used as once in a week
(4) Increase in the number of people in the (3) Prepared in CDRI Kanpur
reproductive age group (4) It has very few side effects and high
contraceptive value
299. What are the various ways through which the
reproductive health can be improved? 304. To avoid transmission of STDs.
I. Education I. Avoid sex with multiple partners.
II. Awareness II. Always have unprotected sex.
III. Encouraging myths III. Use condoms during coitus.
IV. Ban on amniocentesis IV. Avoid sex with unknown partners.
(1) I and II (2) II and III V. Avoid sharing of needles.
(3) III and IV (4) I, II and IV Choose the correct option.
(1) I and II
300. According to 2011 census, the population (2) II, III and IV
growth rate was less than (3) I and III
(1) 0.2% (2) 2% (4) I, III, IV and V
(3) 0.5% (4) 1.5%
305. Match the columns:
301. Select the correct match. Column I Column II
Year Population A prepration of
Active
A. 1947 1. 350 million A. 1. inactivated/weakned
immunity
pathogen
B. 2000 2. 1.2 billion
Passive Injection of preparation
C. 2011 3. 1 billion B. 2.
immunity containing antibodies
(1) A-2, B-3, C-1
C. Vaccination 3. colostrum
(2) A-3, B-2, C-2
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3 Passive Slow and takes time for
D. 4.
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2 immunisation full response
(1) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
302. Following statements are given regarding MTP. (2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Choose the correct option given below. (3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
I. MTPs are generally advised during first (4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
trimester.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
306. Match the columns: 310. Which of the following drugs can be used to
Column I Column II quickly reduce the symptoms of allergic
reaction?
Physiological
A. Interferons 1. I. Anti-histamine II. Adrenaline
barrier
III. Steroids
Gastric juice, saliva, (1) I and II (2) I and III
B. 2. Physical barrier
tear and sweat (3) II and III (4) I, II and III
C. Mucosa and skin 3. Cellular barrier
311. Read the following statements and select he
Neutrophils, Cytokine
D. 4. correct statement.
monocytes, N-K cell barrier
(1) Primary response is highly intensified
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 anamnestic response.
(2) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (2) Subsequent encounter with the same
(3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 pathogen elicits a response of low intensity.
(4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (3) Secondary response is based on the
memory of first encoder
307. Which of the following statements given below (4) The primary and secondary immune
is/are correct? responses are carried out with the help of T
I. Secondary lymphoid organs includes lymph – lymphocytes only
nodes, spleen and small masses of lymph
tissue such as Peyer's patches, appendix and 312. Which of the following is not a auto immune
tonsils. disease?
II. The secondary lymphoid organs provide the (1) Rheumatoid arthritis
site for interaction of lymphocyte with the (2) Alzheimer`s disease
antigens. (3) Vitiligo
(1) Only I (2) Only II (4) Psoriasis
(3) I and II (4) None of these
313. The figure given below shows an antibody
308. Select the incorrect statement with respect to molecule. Name the parts A, B and C.
interferons
(1) Secreted from virus infected cells
(2) Protect non- infected cells from further
infection
(3) They are proteinaceousin nature
(4) Included under the cytokine barrier of
acquired immunity

309. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can

distinguish self and non-self cells. If this
property is lost due to the genetic abnormality
and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to
(1) graft rejection
(2) autoimmune disease
(3) active immunity (1) A-Antigen binding site, B-Heavy chain, C-
(4) allergic response Light chain, D-Disulphide bond

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(2) A-Antibody binding site, B-Light chain, C- (2) A-Sporozoites in liver, B-Asexual
Heavy chain, D-Phosphoester bond reproduction of Plasmodium in RBC, C-
(3) A-Antigen binding site, B-Short chain, C- Gametocytes in RBC, D-Fertilisation of
Long chain, D-Sulphur bond gametocytes in mosquito's intestine (gut)
(4) A-Antibody binding site, B-Long chain, C- (3) A-Sporozoites in liver, B-Asexual
Short chain, D-Disulphide bond reproduction of Plasmodium in RBC, C-
Gametocytes in RBC, D-Fertilisation of
314. Fill up the blanks. gametocytes in mosquito's salivary glands
I. Heat and moisture help ______ fungi to (4) A-Sporozoites in kidney, B-Sexual
grow, which makes them thrive in skin reproduction of Plasmodium in RBC, C-
folds. Gametocytes in RBC, D-Fertilisation of
II. Maintenance of ______ and ______ gametocytes in mosquito's intestine
hygiene is important for the prevention of
many infectious diseases. 316. Read the following statements and select the odd
III. ______ gives the diseases its name, one with respect to ringworm.
elephantiasis. (1) Many fungi belonging to the genera
(1) I. Microsporum, II. public; personal, III. Microsporum, Trichophyton and
Swelling of hand Epidermophyton are responsible for
(2) I. Trichophyton, II. personal; public, III. ringworms
Enlargement of eye (2) Heat and moisture help these fungi to grow,
(3) I. Epidermophyton, II. personal; public, III. which makes them thrive in skin folds such
Swelling of legs as those in the groin or between the toes
(4) I. Wuchereria, II. personal; public; III. (3) Ringworms are generally acquired from
Enlargement of tongue contaminated food and water.
(4) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various
315. Study the given diagram and name the labelled parts of the body such as skin, nails and
A, B, C and D. scalp are the main symptoms of the disease.

317. Match the columns:

Column I Column II
Appearance of dry. Scaly
lesions on various parts of Entamoeba
A. 1.
the body such as skin histolytica
nails and scalp
Chronic inflammation of Ascaris
B. the lymphatic vessel of 2.
lumbricoides
lower limbs
Fever, chills, cough,
headache and in severe haemophilus
C. cases the lips and finger 3.
influenzae
nails my turns grey to
(1) A-Sporozoites in spleen, B-Sexual bluish in colour
reproduction of Plasmodium in RBC, C- Constipation, abdominal
pain and cramps, stool Wuchereia
Gametocytes in RBC, D-Fertilisation of D. 4.
with excess mucous and bancrofti
gametocytes in mosquito's intestine
blood clots

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
Internal bleeding, (4) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli
muscular pain, anaemia 5. whereas the common cold affects nose and
E.
and blockage of intestinal respiratory passage but not the lungs
passage
(1) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-1, E-2
321. Match the columns:
(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5, E-1
Column I Column II (Carrier)
(3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5 (Disease)
(4) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-1 Towels and clothes of
A. Amoebiasis 1.
infected individuals
318. Match the causative organisms with their B. Typhoid 2. Houseflies
diseases.
C. 3. Contaminated food and
Column I Column II Pneumonia
water
Malignant Droplets of infected
A. Haemophilus influenzae 1. D. Ringworm 4.
malaria person
B. Entamoeba histolytica 2. Elephantiasis (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
C. Plasmodium falciparum 3. Pneumonia (2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(3) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
D. Wuchereria bancrofti 4. Typhoid
(4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
E. Salmonella typhi 5. Amoebiasis
(1) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-1, E-2 322. Read the following statements.
(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5, E-1 (i) Pathogens generally enter the small
(3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5 intestine through food and water
(4) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-1 contaminated with them.
(ii) Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C),
319. Which if the following is not correct for weakness, stomach pain, constipation,
Ascariasis? headache and loss of appetite are some of
(1) Caused by intestinal parasite the common symptoms of this disease.
(2) Symptoms of these disease include internal (iii) Intestinal perforation and death may occur
bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and in severe cases
blockage of the intestinal passage All the given statements are true for:
(3) The pathogens are transmitted to a healthy (1) Malaria
person through the bite by the female (2) Typhoid
mosquito vectors. (3) Pneumonia
(4) Causative agent is Ascaris (4) Amoebiasis

320. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that 323. The filariasis pathogen is transmitted to a
(1) pneumonia is a communicable disease, healthy person through the bite of
whereas the common cold is a nutritional (1) female Anopheles mosquito
deficiency disease (2) female Aedes mosquito
(2) pneumonia can be prevented by a live (3) female Culex mosquito
attenuated bacterial vaccine, whereas the (4) None of the above
common cold has no effective vaccine
(3) pneumonia is caused by a virus, while the 324. Identify the pictures A, B and C.
common cold is caused by the bacterium
Haemophilus influenzae

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
III. lack of interest in personal hygiene.
IV. isolation, depression, fatigue, aggressive
and rebellious behaviour.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV
(1) A-Opium poppy, B-Cannabis sativa, C- (3) II, III and IV (4) All of these
Datura
(2) A-Cannabis sativa, B-Opium poppy, C- 328. Which of these is not a member of the group of
Datura chemicals whose chemical structure is given
(3) A-Datura, B-Opium poppy, C-Cannabis below?
sativa
(4) A-Opium poppy, B-Datura, C-Cannabis
sativa

325. Match the columns:

Column I Column II (1) Marijuana (2) Hashish
A. Benzodiazepines Sedative and (3) Morphine (4) Both (1) and (2)
1.
painkiller
B. Morphine 2. Stimulant 329. LSD is obtained from:
Depression and (1) Cannabis sativa
C. Cocaine 3. (2) Papaver somniferum
insomnia
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3 (3) Erythroxylum cocca
(2) A-3, B-1, C-2 (4) Claviceps purpura
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2 330. In the given flow chart, the replication of
retrovirus in a host cell is shown. Observe it
326. Match the columns: carefully and fill up the blank A, B and C.
Column I Column II
A. Heroin Interfere with dopamine
1.
transport
B. Cannabinoids 2. Stimulates adrenaline
and noradrenaline release
C. Cocaine 3. Acetylation of morphine

D. Nicotine Effect on cardiovascular

4.
system
(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

327. Warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse include

I. drop in academic performance.
II. absence from school/college.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) A-Bacteriophage, B-Viral DNA is α-interferon which activates their immune
produced, C-New viral RNA is produced system and helps in destroying the tumor.
(2) A-Transcriptase, B-Bacterial RNA is (4) The property of metastasis is the most
produced, C-New viral DNA is produced feared property of Benign tumors
by the infected cell
(3) A-Bacteriophage, B-Viral DNA is 333. Choose the correct statements.
produced, C-New viral RNA is produced I. Innate immunity is accomplished by
by the infected cell providing different types of barriers.
(4) A-Retrovirus, B-Viral DNA is produced by II. Acquired immunity is present from the
reverse transcriptase, C-New viral RNA is birth and is inherited from parents.
produced by the infected cell III. Acquired immunity can be divided into
antibody mediated and cell-mediated
331. Select the true statements. immunity.
I. Cancer detection is based on biopsy and IV. Innate immunity is also called specific
histopathological study of the suspected immunity.
tissue. V. Acquired immunity consists of specialised
II. In biopsy, the suspected tissue is cut into cells (T-cell and B-cell) and antibodies that
thin sections, stained and examined under circulate in the blood.
microscope. (1) I, II and V (2) II, III, IV and V
III. Certain chemotherapeutic drugs are used to (3) I, III and V (4) I, II, III, IV and V
kill the cancerous cells, but majority of the
drugs have side effects like hair loss, 334. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect
anaemia, etc. the newborn from certain diseases is of
IV. MRI uses strong magnetic fields and (1) IgG type (2) IgA type
ionising radiations to accurately detect (3) IgD type (4) IgE type
pathological and physiological changes in
the living tissues. 335. Read the following statement.
(i) Sweet potato (stem modification) and
V. Techniques like radiography (use of X- potato (root modification) is example for
rays), CT (Computed Tomography) scan analogy.
and MRI are very useful to detect cancers (ii) The flippers of Penguins and Dolphins
of the internal organs. represent analogy
(1) I and II (iii) Homology is based on divergent evolution
(2) I and III whereas analogy refers to a situation
(3) II and III exactly opposite.
(4) All statements are true (iv) Analogy indicates common ancestry
(v) Wings of butterfly and of birds look alike
332. Select the incorrect statement. but are not anatomically similar structures
(1) Normal cells show a property called contact though they perform similar functions.
inhibition How many of the given statements are not true?
(2) As a result of this, cancerous cells just (1) Three (2) Two
continue to divide giving rise to masses of (3) Four (4) One
cells called tumors.
(3) The patients are given substances called 336. How many of the following statement are correct
biological response modifiers such as α α pair of homologous organs

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(i) Hands of man and wings of bat heterozygous and homozygous recessive
(ii) Wings of bat and wings of cockroach individuals in the population?
(iii) Wings of bird and butterfly (1) 0.16(AA);0.24(Aa);0.36(aa)
(iv) Forearm of human and forelimb of horse (2) 0.16(AA);0.48(Aa);0.36(aa)
(1) Two (2) One (3) 0.16(AA);0.36(Aa);0.48(aa)
(3) Three (4) Four (4) 0.36(AA);0.48(Aa);0.16(aa)

337. Among the following sets of examples for 341. Which of the following conditions represents the
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option. extent of evolutionary change in Hardy-
(1) Brain of bat, man and cheetah Weinberg principle?
(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah (1) Value of (p + q)2
(3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (2) Difference between measured value and
(4) Eye of Octopus, bat and man expected value
(3) Sum of measured value and expected value
338. The process by which organisms with different (4) This principle cannot predict the extent of
evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic evolutionary change
adaptations in response to a common
environmental challenge, is called 342. Read the following statements related to Hardy
(1) natural selection Weinberg and select the incorrect statements
(2) convergent evolution (1) Change of frequency of alleles in a
(3) non-random evolution population would then be interpreted as
(4) adaptive radiation resulting in evolution
(2) Five factors are known to affect Hardy-
339. Diagram given below indicates Weinberg equilibrium
(3) When migration of a section of population
to another place and population occurs,
gene frequencies change in the original
population but remain same in new
population.
(4) There would be a gene flow if this gene
migration, happens multiple times.

343. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared

to have occurred in an isolated geographical
area, it is
(1) convergent evolution
(2) divergent evolution
(1) analogous organs (3) natural selection
(2) homologous organs (4) genetic drift
(3) convergent evolution
(4) all of these 344. Identify what is indicated in the given diagram?

340. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the

frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what
will be the frequency of homozygous dominant,

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
Column I
Column II (Explanations)
(Terms)
Change in the population's
A. Genetic drift 1. allele frequency due to
chance alone
Difference in survival
B. Cannabinoids 2.
individuals
Immigration or
C. Gene flow 3. emigration changes the
allele frequency
(1) Analogy
(2) Convergent evolution D. Mutation 4. Source of the new alleles
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) No evolution (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
345. Which of the following is not an examples of (3) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
adaptive radiation? (4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(1) Wombat, numbat, flying phalanger
(2) Darwin's finches 349. 'PP' is a type of selection that favours both small
(3) Different mammals in other parts of world sized and large-sized individuals. 'PP' eliminates
(4) Lemur and spotted cuscus most of the members with mean expression, so
as to produce two peaks in the distribution of the
346. Australian marsupials are the examples of tract that many leads to the development of two
(1) Analogy different populations. Identify 'PP'.
(2) Convergent evolution (1) Disruptive selection
(3) Adaptive radiation (2) Stabilising selection
(4) Use and disuse theory (3) Directional selection
(4) None of these
347. Read the following statements.
(i) By the time of 350 mya, invertebrates were 350. Which of the following factors was not taken
formed and active into account by Darwin in his theory of natural
(ii) Jawless fish probably evolved around 500 selection?
mya. (1) Struggle for existence
(iii) Fish with stout and strong fins could move (2) Discontinuous variations
on land and go back to water. (3) Parasites and predators as natural enemies
(iv) The amphibians evolved into reptiles (4) Survival of the fittest
(v) Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 feet in
height and had huge fearsome dagger like 351. The peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-
teeth coloured form becomes dominant over the light-
How many of the given statements are correct? coloured form of moth in England during
(1) Two industrial revolution. This is an example of
(2) Three (1) appearance of the darker-coloured
(3) Four individuals due to very poor sunlight
(4) Five (2) protective mimicry
(3) inheritance of darker colour character
348. Match the following columns: acquired due to the darker environment
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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(4) natural selection whereby the darker forms 355. The diagram given here shows the skull of two
were selected different mammals. Choose the most appropriate
difference between A and B.
352. True statements regarding the genetic drift is/are
I. It mostly occurs in smaller populations.
II. Certain alleles can be lost forever because
of genetic drift.
III. Founder effects and bottle neck effects are
caused by genetic drift.
(1) Skull A has more teeth than skull B
IV. Mutations are primarily responsible for
(2) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull
genetic drift. The correct combination
B
showing true statements is:
(3) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an
(1) Only I (2) III and IV
ape
(3) II and IV (4) All except IV
(4) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of
human
353. Select the type of natural selection on the basis
of given diagram
356. Which of the following is the correct sequence
of events in the origin of life?
I. Formation of protobionts.
II. Synthesis of organic monomers.
III. Synthesis of organic polymers.
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems.
(1) Stabilising (2) Directional
Choose the correct option.
(3) Disruptive (4) Artificial
(1) I, II, III and IV
(2) I, III, II and IV
354. Select the incorrect option about the given
(3) II, III, I and IV
figure.
(4) II, III, IV and I

357. Which one of the following statements is/are

correct about Australopithecus?
(1) They essentially ate fruits
(2) They hunted with stone weapons
(3) They were transitional stage between ape
and humans
(4) All of the above

358. Match the hominids with their correct brain

size.
Column I Column II
(1) The given figure diagrammatic represents A. Homo habilis 1. 900 cc
representation of Pasteur experiment B. Homo neanderthalensis 2. 1350 cc
(2) X - Spark discharge
C. Homo erectus 3. 650 – 800 cc
(3) Y - Water containing organic compounds
(4) Z - vacuum pump D. Homo sapiens 4. 1400 cc

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 363. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Early Greek thinkers thought units of life
359. Homo sapiens arose during called spores were transferred to different
(1) ice age between 75000 - 10000 years ago planets including earth
(2) continental drift between 75000 - 10000 (2) Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation
years ago demonstrated that life comes only chemical
(3) continental drift between 75000 - 5000
molecules
years ago
(3) Spontaneous generation theory was
(4) ice age between 50000 - 10000 years ago
dismissed once and for all.
(4) Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England
360. Read the following statements and select the
proposed that the first form of life could
incorrect one.
(1) Two mya, Australopithecines probably have come from pre-existing non-living
lived in East African grasslands. organic molecules
(2) About 15 mya, primates called
Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were 364. Which of the following does not marks the
existing correct connotation of special creation theory?
(3) Ramapithecus was more ape-like while (1) All living organisms (species or types) that
Dryopithecus was more man-like. we see today were created as such.
(4) This creature was called the first human- (2) The diversity was always the same since
like being the hominid and was called creation and will be the same in future also.
Homo habilis. (3) Life arises from dead and decaying matter
only.
361. Correct pattern of human evolution is shown in: (4) Earth is about 4000 years old
(1) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus 
Homo sapiens  Homo habilis 365. Read the following statements
(2) Homo erectus  Homo habilis  Homo (i) In the year 1963, the two enzymes
sapiens responsible for restricting the growth of
(3) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Homo bacteriophage in Escherichia coli were
sapiens isolated.
(4) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo (ii) The first restriction endonuclease–Hind III,
erectus  Homo habilis  Homo sapiens whose functioning depended on a specific
DNA nucleotide sequence was isolated and
362. Match the following columns. characterised five years later.
Column I Column II (iii) Today we know more than 900 restriction
A. Darwin 1. Inherited enzymes that have been isolated from over
230 strains of bacteria each of which
B. Genetic drift 2. Not inherited
recognise different recognition sequences.
C. Mutation in germ cells 3. HMS Beagle (iv) Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class
Mutation in somatic of enzymes called lipases
D. 4. Founder effect
cells How many of the given statements are
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 incorrect?
(2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) Two 369. In the naming of restriction enzymes, the first
(2) Three letter of the name is derived from .....A…. and
(3) Four next two letters from the …..B…. and fourth
(4) One letters from the name of …..C… of ....D…. from
which the enzymes are extracted.
366. The restriction enzyme responsible for the A to D in the statement can be
cleavage of following sequence is A B C D
5' – G T C G A C 3' (1) genus species strain bacteria
3' – C A G C T G 5' (2) species genus strain bacteria
(1) Alu I (3) genus species variety eukaryote
(2) Bam HI (4) species genus variety eukaryote
(3) Hind II
(4) Eco RI 370. Read the following statements.
(i) Each restriction endonuclease functions by
367. Study the given diagram and identify the ‘inspecting’ the length of a DNA sequence.
enzymes A and B involved in steps I and II. (ii) Sticky ends form glycosidic bonds with
their complementary cut counterparts.
(iii) Restriction endonucleases are used in
genetic engineering to form ‘recombinant’
molecules of DNA, which are composed of
DNA from different sources/genomes.
(iv) Cutting DNA with the same restriction
enzyme creates fragments with same kind
of sticky ends, which can be joined using
DNA ligase.
(v) Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA
a little away from the centre of the
palindrome sites, but between the same two
bases on the opposite strands
Step I Step II Which of the following is not correct?
(1) Eco RI DNA ligase (1) iii
DNA ligase (2) v
(2) Alu I
(3) ii
(3) Hind II DNA polymerase (4) iv
Restriction DNA polymerase
(4)
endonuclease 371. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Each restriction endonuclease recognises a
368. Restriction enzyme cuts the DNA strand a little specific palindromic nucleotide sequence
away from the centre of palindrome site between (2) Specific base sequence is known as
(1) same two bases on same strand recognition sequence
(2) same two bases on opposite strand (3) Restriction enzymes cannot cut DNA
(3) opposite bases on same strand (4) Restriction enzymes belong to enzymes
(4) opposite bases on opposite strand called nucleases

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
372. Assertion (A): The tumour inducing plasmid (Ti (iii) Vectors used at present, are engineered in
plasmid) of Agrobacterium tumefaciens acts as a such a way that they help easy linking of
cloning vector in recombinant DNA technology. foreign DNA and selection of recombinants
Reason (R): The Ti plasmid which is used in the from non-recombinants.
mechanisms of delivering genes to a cell remains (iv) Ori is responsible for inhibiting the copy
pathogenic. number of the linked DNA.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct (v) Selectable marker helps in identifying and
explanation of A eliminating non transformants and
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the selectively inhibiting the growth of the
correct explanation of A transformants.
(3) If A is true, but R is false How many of the given statements are
(4) If A is false, but R is true incorrect?
(1) Two
373. Select the incorrect statement. (2) Three
(1) Selection of recombinants due to (3) One
inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome (4) Four
procedure because it requires simultaneous
plating on two plates having different 375. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of
antibiotics. E. coli cloning vector pBR322.
(2) Insertion of piece of DNA within the
coding sequence of an enzyme, β-
galactosidase will results into inactivation
of the gene for synthesis of this enzyme.
(3) Presence of insert results into insertional
inactivation of the β-galactosidase gene and
the colonies do not produce any colour,
these are identified as recombinant
colonies.
(4) The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of (1) A-Eco RI, B-Bam HI, C-ori, D-ampR
Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been (2) A-ampR, B-ori, C-Bam HI, D-Eco RI
modified into a cloning vector which is (3) A-ori, B-Bam HI, C-Eco RI, D-ampR
pathogenic to the plants (4) A-Bam HI, B-Eco RI, C-ampR, D-ori

374. Read the following statements. 376. The recognition site for Bam HI in pBR322 is
(i) Bacteriophages because of their high present in
number per cell, have very high copy (1) ampicillin resistant site
numbers of their genome within the (2) tetracycline resistant site
bacterial cells (3) ori site
(ii) Some plasmids may have only one or two (4) rop site
copies per cell whereas others may have
15-100 copies per cell

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
377. Simple stirred-tank bioreactor is given below. Identify A, B, C, D and E.

A B C D E
(1) Motor Foam breaker Sterile air Steam for sterilisation Acid/base for pH control
Acid/Base for pH
(2) Foam breaker Sterile air Steam for sterilisation Motor
control
Acid/base for Motor Foam breaker Sterile air Steam for sterilisation
(3)
pH control
Steam for
(4) Sterile air Foam breaker Motor Acid/base for pH control
sterilisation

378. The process of separation and purification of Cutting of DNA 2.

B. Gel electrophoresis
expressed protein before marketing is called: at specific
(1) upstream processing C. location 3. Chilled ethanol
(2) downstream processing Isolation of DNA
(3) bioprocessing D. fragments 4. PCR
(4) post-production processing
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
379. Significance of heat shock method in bacterial
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
transformation is to facilitate.
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(1) binding of DNA to the cell wall
(2) uptake of DNA through membrane
381. The different steps involved in the process of
transport proteins
recombinant DNA technology are given below
(3) uptake of DNA through transient pores in
randomly? Arrange these in correct order.
the bacterial cell wall
I. Extraction of the desired gene product.
(4) expression of antibiotic resistance gene
II. Amplification of the gene of interest.
III. Isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
380. Match the following columns.
IV. Ligation of the DNA fragment into a
Column I Column II vector.
A. Isolation of 1. V. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the
Restriction enzyme
purified DNA host.
Correct order is:
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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) I, II, III, IV and V
(2) III, II, IV, V and I
(3) II, IV, V, III and I
(4) I, IV, V, III and II

382. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the

following enzymes is not required?
(1) Lysozyme I. It represents typical agarose gel
(2) Ribonuclease electrophoresis showing differential
(3) Deoxyribonuclease migration of DNA fragments.
(4) Protease II. Lane 1 contains undigested DNA
fragments.
383. Match the following columns: III. Lanes 2 to 4 contain digested DNA
Column I Column II fragment.
Bacterial cell is 1. IV. Smallest DNA bands are present at A
A. Lysozyme
treated with position and largest DNA bands are present
B. Plant cell is 2. at B position.
Cellulase
treated with (1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV
C. Fungal cell is 3. (3) II and III (4) III and IV
Chitinase
treated with
(1) A-3, B-2, C-1 (2) A-2, B-3, C-1
386. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3 (4) A-3, B-1, C-2
(1) The separated DNA fragments can be
visualised only after staining the DNA with
384. Given below are four statements pertaining to
a compound known as ethidium bromide.
separation of DNA fragments using gel
(2) The separated bands of DNA are cut out
electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect
from the agarose gel and extracted from the
statements.
gel piece.
I. DNA is negatively charged molecule and
(3) Elution is regarded as an important step of
so it is loaded on gel towards the anode
genetic engineering while performing the
terminal.
process if PCR.
II. DNA fragments travel along the surface of
(4) During gel electrophoresis, the DNA
the gel whose concentration does not affect
fragments separate (resolve) according to
movement of DNA.
their size through sieving effect provided
III. Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is
by the agarose gel.
the distance it travels through it.
IV. Pure DNA can be visualised directly by
387. Which of the following contributed popularising
exposing UV-radiation.
the PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
Select the correct option from the following.
technique?
(1) I, III and IV
(1) Easy availability of DNA template
(2) I, II and III
(2) Availability of synthetic primers
(3) II, III and IV
(3) Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
(4) I, II and IV
(4) Availability of 'thermostable' DNA
polymerase
385. Study the given figure carefully and select the
correct statements regarding this.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
388. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain (1) Both the statements are correct
Reaction (PCR) is: (2) Statement I is correct
(1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (3) Statement II is incorrect
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation (4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension 393. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for
ampicllin resitance is transferred into E. coli and
389. For selectable marker. the host cells are spread on agar plates
I. It helps to select the host cells which containing ampicillin, then
contain the vector and eliminate the non- (1) both transformed and untransformed
transformants. recipient cells will die
II. Genes encoding resistance to antibiotics (2) both transformed and untransformed
like ampicillin, chloramphenicol, recipient cells will grow
tetracycline or kanamycin, are useful (3) transformed recipient cells will grow and
selectable markers for E.coli. untransformed recipient cells will die
Which of the statements given above are (4) transformed recipient cells will die and
correct? untransformed recipient cells will grow
(1) Only I
(2) Only II 394. I. In the process of recombinant DNA
(3) I and II technology, after several treatment the
(4) None of these purified DNA is precipitated by adding
chilled acetone.
390. A selectable marker is used to II. The bacterial/plant, animal cell is broken
(1) help in eliminating the non-transformants, down by enzymes to release DNA, along
so that the transformants can be regenerated with RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and
(2) identify the gene for a desired trait in an lipids.
alien organism Choose the correct option for above statements.
(3) select a suitable vector for transformation (1) I is true, but II is false
in a specific crop (2) I is false, but II is true
(4) mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation (3) I and II are true
using restriction enzyme (4) I and II are false

391. How many of the given examples can act as 395. Match the following columns:
selectable marker? Column I Column II
Ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline, Recombinant
kanamycin, Pst I A. 1. Sea weeds
DNA
(1) Two (2) Three Gel
B. 2. DNA staining
(3) Four (4) Five electrophoresis
Plasmid DNA that has
Ethidium
392. Statement I: Transformation is a procedure C. 3. incorporated human
bromide
through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a DNA
host bacterium. Process by which DNA
Statement II: The normal E. coli cells do not D. Agarose 4. fragments are separated
carry resistance against any of these antibiotics. based on their size

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (3) A- Chromosome, Salmonella typhimurium;
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 B - Six, Recognition sequence, G -
(3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Palindrome, D - Agrobacterium
(4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 tumifaciens, T-DNA
(4) A - Plasmid, Salmonella typhimurium; B -
396. Read the following statements and select the Six, Recognition sequence, C - Palindrome,
incorrect one. D – Agrobacterium, tumifaciens, Z-DNA
(1) In order to link the alien DNA, the vector
needs to have very few, preferably single, 398. Following enzymes/techniques are used in the
recognition sites for the commonly used process of recombinant DNA technology.
restriction enzymes A. EcoRI to cut the isolated genome
(2) The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at B. DNA Iigase
a restriction site present in one of the two C. Protease and ribonuclease for removal of
antibiotic resistance genes proteins and RNA.
(3) Some plasmids may have only one or two D. Production of recombinant hosts
copies per cell whereas others may have E. Lysozyme for isolation of the genetic
15-100 copies per cell. material (DNA)
(4) If one wants to recover many copies of the F. Gel electrophoresis for separation and
target DNA it should be cloned in a vector isolation of DNA fragments
whose origin support low copy number. Mark the correct sequence of their use.
(1) C, E, B, F, A, D
(2) E, C, A, B, F, D
397. Fill up the blanks.
(3) E, C, A, F, B, D
A. The construction of the first recombinant
(4) A, E, C, B, D, F
DNA emerged from the possibility of
linking a gene encoding antibiotic
399. Select the incorrect match.
resistance with a native _____ of_____.
(1) Micro-injection – Recombinant DNA is
B. Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a
directly injected into the nucleus of an plant
particular point by recognising a specific
cell
sequence of ______ base pairs. This
(2) Biolistics – Gold or tungsten
specific sequence is known as ______for
(3) Gene gun – Plants
Hind II.
(4) Disarmed pathogen – Allowed to infect the
C. The ______ in DNA is a sequence of base
cell
that reads same on the two strands when
orientation of reading is kept the same. 400. Match the following enzymes with their
D. ______, a pathogen of several dicot plants functions.
is able to deliver a piece of DNA known as
Column I Column II
______to transform normal plant cells into
tumor cells. Restriction
A. 1. Joins the DNA fragments
(1) A - Plasmid, Salmonella typhimurium; B - endonuclease
Six, Recognition sequence, C - Palindrome, Restriction Extends primers on
B. 2.
D - Agrobacterium tumifaciens, T-DNA exonuclease genomic DNA template
(2) A- Plasmid, Salmonella typhimurium; B - Cuts DNA at specific
C. DNA ligase 3.
Seven, Recognition sequence, C - position
Palindrome, D - Agrobacterium Taq Removes nucleotides
D. 4.
tumifaciens, T-DNA polymerase from the ends of DNA

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 Salmonella
(2) Escherichia coli
(2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 typhimurium
(3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 Haemophilus Agrobacterium
(4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (3)
influenza tumefaciens
Agrobacterium Haemophilus I
401. Assertion (A): Use of chitinase enzyme is (4)
tumefaciens influenzae
necessary for isolation of DNA from fungal
cells.
405. Select the mismatch among the following given
Reason (R): Fungal cell wall is made up of
examples.
chitin and chitinase is able to digest it.
(1) Lepidopterans – tobacco budworm,
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
armyworm
explanation of A
(2) Coleopterans – beetles, mosquitoes
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
(3) Dipterans – Flies
correct explanation of A
(4) cryIAc – Cotton bollworms
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true
406. Bt toxin protein crystals present in bacterium
Bacillus thuringiensis, do not kill the bacteria
402. Read the following statements and select the
because
correct option.
(1) bacteria are resistant to the toxin
I. In blue/white colony selection,
(2) bacteria enclose toxins in a special sac
recombinants produce blue colonies due to
(3) toxins occur as inactive protoxins in
insertional inactivation of α-galactosidase
bacteria
II. Transformant produced during genetic
(4) None of the above
engineering include both recombinants and
non-recombinants.
407. cry IIAb and cry IAb produce toxins that control
(1) Both statement are correct
(1) cotton bollworms and corn borer,
(2) Only statement I is incorrect
respectively
(3) Only statement II is incorrect
(2) corn borer and cotton bollworms,
(4) Both statements are incorrect
respectively
(3) tobacco budworms and nematodes,
403. If gene of interest is cloned at Pst I site in
respectively
pBR322, the resulting recombinants
(4) nematodes and tobacco budworms,
(1) Will be susceptible to tetracycline
respectively
(2) Will not grow in presence of tetracycline
(3) Will be susceptible to ampicillin
408. Bt toxin kills insects by
(4) Will be resistant to ampicillin
(1) inhibiting protein synthesis
(2) generating excessive heat
404. During the construction of first recombinant
(3) creating pores in the midgut epithelial cells,
DNA molecule, plasmid was isolated from
leading to cell swelling and lysis
__A__ while the host for recombinant plasmid
(4) obstructing a biosynthetic pathway
was __B__.
Choose the option stating A and B correctly.
409. (i) Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that
A B kill certain insects
Salmonella (ii) B. thuringiensis forms protein crystals
(1) Escherichia coli
typhimurium during every phase of their growth
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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(iii) In Bacillus, Bt toxin protein exist as 413. In gene therapy of Adenosine deaminase
inactive protoxins. deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion
(iv) Bt. toxins converts into an active form of of genetic engineered lymphocytes because
toxin due to the acidic pH of the gut which (1) Retroviral vector is introduced into these
solubilise the crystals. lymphocytes
(v) The choice of genes to be incorporated (2) Gene isolated from marrow cells producing
depends upon the targeted pest only ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic
How many of the given statements are correct? stage
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Lymphocytes from patients blood are
(3) Two (4) Five grown in culture, outside the body
(4) Genetic engineered lymphocytes are not
410. Statement I: Bt toxin gene has been cloned immortal cells
from the bacteria and been expressed in plants to
provide resistance to insects with the use of 414. Adenosine deaminase deficiency result into
insecticides. (1) Addison’s disease
Statement II: Bt cotton, Bt corn, rice, tomato, (2) Dysfunction of immune system
potato and soyabean etc. are the examples of Bt (3) Parkinson’s disease
plants. (4) Digestive disorder
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Only I is correct 415. For the first time, gene therapy was tried on a 4
(3) Only II is incorrect year old girl in 1990 to treat which of the
(4) Both statements are incorrect following enzyme deficiency?
(1) Cytosine Deaminase (CDA)
411. Which of the following could be a permanent (2) Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
cure for Adenosine deaminase deficiency (3) Tyrosine oxidase
(ADA)? (4) Glutamate trihydrogenase
(i) Bone marrow transplantation
(ii) Enzyme replacement therapy 416. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a 4
(iii) Isolation of ADA producing gene from year old girl with Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
marrow cells and introduction into cells at deficiency?
early embryonic stages. (1) Gene therapy (2) Chemotherapy
(1) i only (2) iii only (3) Immunotherapy (4) Radiation therapy
(3) i and iii only (4) i, ii, and iii
417. Early diagnosis is not possible with:
412. Which of the following is performed during gene (1) Serum and urine analysis
therapy of ADA? (2) Recombinant DNA technology
(i) Lymphocytes from the blood of the patient (3) Polymerase Chain Reaction
are grown in a culture outside the body (4) Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay
(ii) A functional ADA cDNA (using a
retroviral vector) is then introduced into 418. Assertion: Early detection is possible with the
these lymphocytes, which are subsequently help of PCR.
returned to the patient. Reason: Very low concentration of a bacteria or
(1) Both i and ii (2) Only i virus can be detected by amplification of their
(3) Only ii (4) None of them nucleic acid by PCR.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and
reason is a correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not a correct explanation of
assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

419. Statement I: ELISA is based on the principle of

antigen-antibody interaction.
Statement II: Infection by pathogen can be
detected by the presence of antigens (proteins,
glycoproteins, etc.) or by detecting the
antibodies synthesised against the pathogen. (1) A-A-peptide, B-B-peptide, C-Proinsulin,
(1) Both statements are correct D-Free C-peptide
(2) Only I is correct (2) A-Proinsulin, B-A-peptide, C-B-peptide,
(3) Only II is incorrect D-Free C-peptide
(4) Both statements are incorrect (3) A-Free C-peptide, B-A-peptide, C-B-
peptide, D-Proinsulin
420. In which of the following methods, a probe is (4) A-A-peptide, B-B-peptide, C-Free C-
allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA peptide, D-Proinsulin
in the clone of cells?
(1) Gene therapy 423. What is the demerit of using bovine insulin
(2) Autoradiography (from cow) and porcine insulin (from pig) in
(3) Polymerase chain reaction diabetic patients?
(4) Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (1) It leads to hypercalcemia
(ELISA) (2) It is expensive
(3) It may cause allergic reactions
421. Which of the following tagged with a radioactive (4) It may lead to mutations in human genome
molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridise to its
complementary DNA in a clone of cells 424. Which step was proved to be the main challenge
followed by detection using autoradiography. in the production of human insulin by
(1) Single stranded DNA or RNA recombinant DNA technology?
(2) Double stranded DNA or RNA (1) Splitting A and B-peptide chain
(3) Single stranded DNA or Double stranded (2) Addition of C-peptide to proinsulin
RNA (3) Getting insulin assembled into mature form
(4) Single stranded RNA or Double stranded (4) Removal of C-peptide from active insulin
DNA
425. Which is the shortest chain in insulin?
422. Select the correct set of the names labelled A, (1) A chain
B, C and D in the given diagram. (2) B chain
(3) C chain
(4) All are of same size

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
426. With regard to insulin choose correct options. 430. 'Flavr Savr' is a transgenic variety of
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (1) Potato (2) Tomato
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology (3) Soyabean (4) Rice
has C-peptide.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. 431. Tobacco plant resistant to a nematode have been
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are developed by the introduction of DNA, which is
interconnected by disulphide bridges. produced (in the host cell) as
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) A lipid soluble hormone
given below. (2) Sense RNA
(1) (b) and (d) only (3) Both sense and antisense RNAs
(2) (b) and (c) only (4) Antisense RNA
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only 432. RNA interference is used for which of the
following purposes in the field of
427. Select the incorrect statement regarding biotechnology?
artificial insulin. (1) to develop a plant tolerant to abiotic
(1) It contains A And B peptide stresses
(2) C peptide is removed during maturation of (2) to develop a pest resistant plant against
insulin infestation by nematode
(3) A and B peptides are joined by disulfide (3) to enhance the mineral usage by the plant
bonds (4) to reduce post harvest losses
(4) DNA sequences corresponding to A and B,
chains of human insulin and introduced 433. Select the incorrect statement.
them in plasmids of E. coli to produce (1) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic
insulin chains. organisms as a method of cellular defense
(2) Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-
428. Consider the following statements about insulin specific genes are used to introduced into
and select the incorrect. the host plant
(1) Human insulin is made up of 51 amino (3) Infection by viruses having RNA genomes
acids arranged in two polypeptide chains is the only source of introducing
(2) The two polypeptide chains are complementary RNA during RNAi
interconnected by disulphide bridges (4) The consequence of RNAi was that the
(3) In mammals including humans, insulin is parasite could not survive in a transgenic
synthesised as a prohormone, which host expressing specific interfering RNA.
contains an extra stretch called the C-
peptide 434. RNAi involves silencing of a specific ____ due
(4) C-peptide is present in the mature insulin to a complementary ____ molecule that binds to
and prevents translation of the mRNA.
429. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. (1) ds mRNA and ss RNA respectively
When released for cultivation, it will help in: (2) ss mRNA and ss RNA respectively
(1) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency (3) ds mRNA and ds RNA respectively
(2) Pest resistance (4) ss mRNA and ds RNA respectively
(3) Herbicide tolerance
(4) Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
435. Statement I: Over 95 per cent of all existing 439. Transgenic mice are being developed for use in:
transgenic animals are mice (1) Testing the safety of polio vaccines before
Statement II: Transgenic animals can be they are used on human
specifically designed to allow the study of how (2) Molecular diagnosis of diseases
genes are regulated, and how they affect the (3) Production of human protein enriched milk
normal functions of the body and its (4) Production of human insulin
development.
(1) Both statements are correct 440. _______is the term used to refer to the use of
(2) Only I is correct bio-resources by multinational companies and
(3) Only II is incorrect other organisations without proper authorization.
(4) Both statements are incorrect (1) Biopatent
(2) Biopiracy
436. Milk of transgenic 'Cow Rosie' was nutritionally (3) Bioethics
more balanced product for human babies than (4) None of these
natural cow milk because it contained:
(1) Human protein α-1-antitrypsin 441. Read the following statements.
(2) Human alpha-lactalbumin (i) There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of
(3) Human insulin-like growth factor rice in India alone.
(4) Human enzyme Adenosine Deaminase (ii) GEAC makes decisions regarding the
(ADA) validity of GM research and the safety of
introducing GM-organisms for public
437. Transgenic animals produces biological product services.
such as α-1-antitrypsin, which is used to treat : (iii) At present, about 50 recombinant
(1) Emphysema therapeutics have been approved for
(2) Cystic fibrosis human-use the world over. In India, 30 of
(3) Phenyl ketonuria these are presently being marketed
(4) Sickle cell anaemia (iv) There is growing public anger that certain
companies are being granted patents for
438. Select the incorrect statement from the given products and technologies that make use of
examples. the genetic materials
(1) Transgenic mice are being developed for (v) The Indian Parliament has recently cleared
use in testing the safety of vaccines before the third amendment of the Indian Patents
they are used on humans Bill, that takes such issues into
(2) If successful and found to be reliable, they consideration, including patent terms
could replace the use of monkeys to test the emergency provisions and research and
safety of batches of the vaccine. development initiative.
(3) Transgenic animals are made that carry How many of the given statements are correct?
genes which make them less sensitive to (1) Three
toxic substances than non-transgenic (2) Four
animals (3) Two
(4) Today transgenic models exist for many (4) Five
human diseases such as cancer, cystic
fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and
Alzheimer’s.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
442. Match the following columns. 443. Meloidegyne incognitia which infects the roots
Column I Column II of tobacco plants causing a great reduction in
yield is a :
A. Rosie 1. Emphysema (1) Nematode (2) Bacterium
Right granted for (3) Virus (4) Alga
B. Biopiracy 2.
biological entities
444. Which of the following is/are the critical
Unauthorised use of
research area(s) of biotechnology?
C. Biopatent 3. biological products and
(1) Providing best catalyst
processes
(2) Creating optimal conditions for catalyst
D. α-1-antitrypsin 4. Transgenic cow function
(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (3) Developing downstreaming processing
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 technique
(3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (4) All of the above
(4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
ANSWER
245. (4) 278. (1) 311. (3) 344. (3) 377. (1)
246. (1) 279. (4) 312. (2) 345. (4) 378. (2)
247. (4) 280. (2) 313. (1) 346. (3) 379. (3)
248. (2) 281. (3) 314. (3) 347. (2) 380. (2)
249. (4) 282. (3) 315. (2) 348. (1) 381. (2)
250. (2) 283. (3) 316. (3) 349. (1) 382. (3)
251. (4) 284. (3) 317. (1) 350. (2) 383. (3)
252. (1) 285. (3) 318. (2) 351. (4) 384. (4)
253. (1) 286. (3) 319. (3) 352. (4) 385. (1)
254. (4) 287. (2) 320. (4) 353. (1) 386. (3)
255. (2) 288. (4) 321. (2) 354. (1) 387. (4)
256. (1) 289. (3) 322. (2) 355. (4) 388. (4)
257. (2) 290. (1) 323. (3) 356. (3) 389. (3)
258. (2) 291. (1) 324. (1) 357. (4) 390. (1)
259. (2) 292. (4) 325. (2) 358. (2) 391. (3)
260. (3) 293. (4) 326. (2) 359. (1) 392. (1)
261. (2) 294. (4) 327. (4) 360. (3) 393. (3)
262. (3) 295. (1) 328. (3) 361. (3) 394. (2)
263. (2) 296. (2) 329. (4) 362. (2) 395. (1)
264. (3) 297. (3) 330. (4) 363. (2) 396. (4)
265. (3) 298. (2) 331. (4) 364. (3) 397. (1)
266. (1) 299. (1) 332. (4) 365. (1) 398. (3)
267. (3) 300. (2) 333. (3) 366. (3) 399. (1)
268. (3) 301. (4) 334. (2) 367. (1) 400. (2)
269. (2) 302. (3) 335. (2) 368. (2) 401. (1)
270. (1) 303. (3) 336. (1) 369. (1) 402. (2)
271. (3) 304. (4) 337. (4) 370. (3) 403. (3)
272. (2) 305. (4) 338. (2) 371. (3) 404. (2)
273. (4) 306. (2) 339. (2) 372. (3) 405. (2)
274. (2) 307. (3) 340. (2) 373. (4) 406. (3)
275. (3) 308. (4) 341. (2) 374. (1) 407. (1)
276. (3) 309. (2) 342. (3) 375. (1) 408. (3)
277. (2) 310. (4) 343. (1) 376. (2) 409. (3)

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
410. (3) 417. (1) 424. (3) 431. (3) 438. (3)
411. (2) 418. (1) 425. (1) 432. (2) 439. (1)
412. (1) 419. (1) 426. (3) 433. (3) 440. (2)
413. (4) 420. (2) 427. (2) 434. (4) 441. (1)
414. (2) 421. (1) 428. (4) 435. (1) 442. (1)
415. (2) 422. (2) 429. (1) 436. (2) 443. (1)
416. (1) 423. (3) 430. (2) 437. (1) 444. (4)

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