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Kapsabet Boys 2025 Mocks Trial 1

The document contains a series of examination papers for Trial 1 Examinations in 2025 for subjects including Christian Religious Education, History and Government, and Geography. Each paper outlines instructions for candidates, questions to be answered, and marking schemes available for purchase. The examination format includes multiple questions requiring detailed responses on various topics related to the respective subjects.

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mmutemi04
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100% found this document useful (2 votes)
632 views241 pages

Kapsabet Boys 2025 Mocks Trial 1

The document contains a series of examination papers for Trial 1 Examinations in 2025 for subjects including Christian Religious Education, History and Government, and Geography. Each paper outlines instructions for candidates, questions to be answered, and marking schemes available for purchase. The examination format includes multiple questions requiring detailed responses on various topics related to the respective subjects.

Uploaded by

mmutemi04
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION

N/B:DUE TO HIGH COSTS INCURRED


WHILE COMING UP WITH THIS AND OTHER SIMILAR RESOURSES,
MARKING SCHEMES ARE NOT FREE OF
CHARGE.
QUESTIONS ARE FREE
TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION


313/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

313/1

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION


PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of six questions.
4. Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-711-892


Candidates Score

QUESTIONS
1. a) Identify the significance for studying Christian religious education in secondary schools in
Kenya. (7mks)
b) State seven ways in which the study of C.R.E has promoted morality in the society. (7mks)
c) Give six reasons why Christians should forgive. (6mks)

2. a) Identify seven ways in which Abraham expressed his faith to God. (7mks)
b) Describe the background to the call of Abraham. (7mks)
c) Give the importance of faith in a Christian life today. (6mks)

3. a) State the role of judges in the history of the Israelites. (7mks)


b) Identify seven ways in which David promoted the worship of Yahweh in Israel. (7mks)
c) Give six qualities of a good leader that a Christian can emulate from King David. (6mks)

4. a) State seven characteristics of true prophet of Israel. (7mks)


b) Explain four social evils that existed in Israel during the times of Prophet Amos. (8mks)
c) Identify evils that prophet Amos would condemn in Kenya today. (5mks)

5. a) Outline the problems faced by prophet Nehemiah when rebuilding the walls of Jerusalem.
(8mks)
b) State seven reforms carried out by Nehemiah in Israel after the Babylonian Exile. (7mks)
c) Identify five reasons why it is difficult to carry out political reforms in Kenya today. (5mks)

6. a) State seven practices in traditional African communities that show their belief in life after death.
(7mks)
b) Give seven factors that promote harmony in traditional African Communities. (7mks)
c) Identify factors that have affected traditional African Education System. (6mks)

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION


313/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

313/2

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION


PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-711-892


Candidates Score

QUESTIONS
1. a) State the activities that took place during the dedication of Jesus in the temple (Luke 2:21-40).
(8mks)
b) Outline six reasons why Jesus was rejected at Nazareth, his home town Luke 4:16-30 (6mks)
c) Identify six reasons why preachers may be disliked by some people in the modern society. (6mks)

2. a) State eight teachings of Jesus on how human beings should relate to one another from the sermon
on plain (Luke 6:27-38) (8mks)
b) Narrate the story of the healing of the Gerasene demoniac (Luke 8:26-39) (7mks)
c) State FIVE factors which hinder Christians from helping the needy in the society. (5mks)

3. a) Describe the incident when Jesus was questioned about marriage and resurrection in Luke
20:27-38) (7mks)
b) Outline the incident when Jesus went to pray with his disciples at Mt. Olives. (7mks)
c)State six ways in which Christians prepare for the coming of the kingdom of God. (6mks)

4. a) Identify FOUR ways in which the unity of believers is expressed in the concept of the body of
Christ. (1 Cor 12:12-27) (8mks)
b) State ways in which the gifts of the Holy Spirit brought dis-unity in the church at Corinth (7mks)
c) Give reasons why Christians in Kenya should work in unity. (5mks)

5. a) Outline six sources from where Christians draws their ethical judgments. (6mks)
b) Identify the effects of irresponsible sexual behaviour. (7mks)
c) State seven ways in which Christians may fight the rising trend of rape in the society today.
(7mks)

6. a) Identify the traditional African understanding of marriage. (7mks)


b) Outline the causes of domestic violence among Christian families. (8mks)

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c) Give five life skills a Christian can employ to solve social problems in the society. (5mks)

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT


311/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
2) Answer ALL the questions in section A, THREE questions from section B and TWO
questions from Section C.
3) Answers to all the questions must be written in the answer booklet provided.
4) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

MARKS TABLE

SECTION 17 18 19 20 21 22 TOTAL
A

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SECTION A (25MKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.
1. Identify one example of the Highland Bantu. (1mk)
2. State the main economic activity of the Cushites during the pre-colonial era. (1mk)
3. State two roles played by Seyyid Said in the spread of Christianity in Kenya (2mks)
4. Define the term citizen according to the Kenyan constitution 2010. (1mk)
5. Identify one political cause of conflict in Kenya (1mk)
6. State two factors that led to the decline of Kilwa as early urban centre (2mks)
7. Identify one factor that determines the form of a constitution a country may adopt (1mk)
8. Name one way in which direct democracy is exercised (1mk)
9. State two achievements of the Imperial British East Africa Company in colonial Kenya(2mks)
10. State two reasons why the British applied indirect rule in administering Kenya (2mks)
11. Identify two reasons why Africans were denied right to grow cash crops until 1937 (2mks)
12. State the main reason why the white settlers were disappointed with the Devonshire white paper of
1923 (1mk)
13. Identify the main reason for convening of the second Lancaster House conference of 196 (1mk)
14. State two characteristics of early political organizations (2mks)
15. Name the electoral body that is responsible for conducting elections in Kenya (1mk)
16. State two functions of the court of appeal in Kenya (2mks)
17. Identify the main function of the correctional services in Kenya (1mk)

SECTION B (45 MKS)


Answer THREE questions from this section
18. a) State three social reasons for the migration of the plain Nilotes (3mks)
b) Explain the political organization of the Nandi during the pre-colonial period (12mks)
19. a) State the reasons for the success of Portuguese conquest along the East Coast of Africa (5mks)
b) Explain the effects of the long distance trade (10mks)
20. a) State five factors that led to the growth of Nairobi as a modern urban centre (5mks)
b) Describe the features of the independence constitution (10mks)
21. a) Identify the reasons for the Maasai collaboration in the pre-colonial period (5mks)
b) Explain five reasons why armed resistance failed in Kenya during the colonial period (10mks)

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SECTION C (30MKS)
Answer TWO questions in this section
22. a) State three circumstances that may lead to revocation of citizenship by registration (3mks)
b) Explain the importance of national integration (12mks)

23. a) Identify three advantages of democracy (3mks)


b) Explain six rights of an arrested person (12mks)

24. a) State the factors that undermine free and fair elections in Kenya (3mks)
b) Explain six functions of the National police service (12mks)

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT


311/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education


INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
b) Answer ALL the questions in section A, THREE questions from section B and TWO
questions from Section C.
c) Answers to all the questions must be written in the answer booklet provided.
d) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

MARKS TABLE

SECTION 17 18 19 20 21 22 TOTAL
A

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SECTION A (25MKS)
Answer All The Questions In This Section.
1. List down one disadvantage of Electronic sources of information of History and Government
(1mk)
2. Identify the main difference between humans and other primates (1mk)
3. Name the form of early picture writing invented in Egypt (1mk)
4. State two characteristics of Regional trade (2mks)
5. List down two negative impact of tele-communication (2mks)
6. State two factors that enhanced the spread of iron-working in Africa (2mks)
7. Identify two natural factors for the growth Meroe as an early urban centre (2mks)
8. List down two symbols of unity among the Asante kingdom (2mks)
9. Identify the main reason for the convening of Berlin conference 1884-1885 (1mk)
10. State one reason why British used Direct rule in Zimbabwe (1mk)
11. Name one method used by nationalists in South Africa during the struggle for independence
(1mk)
12. Identify the immediate cause of the second world war (1mk)
13. State two reasons why united States of America delayed in joining the first world war (2mks)
14. Identify the main function of the international court of Justice (1mk)
15. Name the weapons of the cold war (2mks)
16. List two founders of pan Africanism (2mks)
17. State one failure of the organization of African unity (1mk)

SECTION B (45 MKS)


Answer any THREE questions in the section.
18. a) State three characteristics of regional trade (3mks)
b) Explain six reasons for the decline of Trans-Atlantic trade (12mks)

19. a) Identify five reasons why Lewanika collaborated with the British (5mks)
b) Explain five reasons why the FRELIMO succeeded in the armed struggle against the Portuguese
(10mks)

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20. a) State three demands put across by Austrian authorities to the Serbian government in relation to
the Sarajevo assassination (3mks)
b) Explain five political effects of the Second World War (12mks)

21. a) State five challenges facing the common wealth (5mks)


b) Explain five objectives of the East African community in the 1967 treaty (10mks)

SECTION C (30MKS)
Answer any TWO questions from this section
22. a) State three factors that contributed to the decline of the Buganda kingdom (3mks)
b) Describe the social organization of the Asante during the 19th century (12mks)

23. a) State five factors for the growth of the Shona kingdom in the 19th century (5mks)
b) Explain five reasons why the policy of assimilation failed in Senegal (10mks)

24. a) State three duties of Emirs in Northern Nigeria (5mks)


b) Explain five reasons why Ghana got independence earlier than other African countries (10mks)

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

GEOGRAPHY
312/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper has two sections: A and B
b) Answer all the questions in section A
c) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B
d) This paper consists of 6 printed pages. Ensure ALL the 10 questions are printed.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY


SCORE

SECTION A

QUESTION 6

QUESTION 7

QUESTION 8

QUESTION 9

QUESTION 10

TOTAL MARKS

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SECTION A.
Answer all the questions in this section
1. a) Define the following terms.
i) Geography (1mk)
ii) Habitat (1mk)
b) Give three branches of geography. (3mks)
2. a) Name two elements of weather that can be recorded at a school station. (2mks)
b) Give three reasons why the recording of data at a school station may be inaccurate. (3mks)
3. a) What is a hydrological cycle (2mks)
b) State three factors that influence the amount of surface run-off. (3mks)
4. Use the diagram below to answer questions that follow.

i) What type of eclipse is represented by the diagram? (1mk)


ii) Name the parts marked P and Q (2mks
iii) what is the effect of the international date line on crossing the line? (2mks)
5. The diagram represents zones of natural vegetation on a mountain in Africa. Use it to answer
Question (a)

a) Name the vegetation zones marked W, X, & Y.

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b) Give two reasons why mountains tops have no vegetation

SECTION B
Answer Question Six And Any Other Two Questions .(75mks)
6. Study the map of Kisumu East 1:50,000 (sheet 116/2) provided and answer the following
questions.
a) i) Give the four figure grid reference of Obwolo school. (1mk)
ii) What is the approximate height of point 000960? (1mk)
iii) Name two physical features found at grid square 0384. (2mks)
iv) Name two types of natural vegetation in the area covered by the map (2mks
b) Calculate the area of the Kisumu municipality. Give your answer in square kilometers (km²)
(2mks)
c) Measure the length of the all-weather road(bound surface) from the junction at grid reference
974911 to the edge of the map, grid reference 950968 (2mks)
d) Citing evidence, give three social functions of Kisumu town. (6mks)
e) i) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 200 metres, draw a cross-section from grid reference
970980 to 030989. (4mks)
ii) On it mark and name the following
 Steep slope (1mk)
 Motor able road (1mk)
 Nyangori river (1mk)
iii) Calculate the vertical exaggeration. (2mks)

7. a) i) Define the term folding (2mk)


ii) State three factors that influence folding. (3mks)
b)i)Briefly describe the continental drift theory. (5mks)
ii) State 2 evidences supporting the above theory of continental drift. (2mks)
c)i) Using a well labelled diagram, explain how conventional currents theory may lead to
formation of Fold Mountains. (6mks)
ii) Highlight the significance of Fold Mountains to human activities. (5mks)
iii) Give two theories that explain the formation of Fold Mountains apart from convectional currents
theory. (2mks)

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8. a) Define the following terms
i)Glaciation (1mk)
ii) Ice-berg (1mk)
b) Give two reasons why there are no ice sheets in Kenya (2mks)
c) The diagram below shows a glaciated landscape use it to answer questions that follow.

i) Identify the feature labelled M and N (2mks)


ii) Name two process through which N is formed. (2mks)
iii) Describe how feature marked N is formed. (5mks)
d) i) Name two types of moraines. (3mks)
ii) Explain two factors that determine the speed of ice movement. (4mks)
e) Students from a school near Mt. Kenya were planning to carry out afield study of the glaciated
features on top of the mountain.
i) State two reasons why they needed a route map. (2mks)
ii) Give three challenges they would likely face during their field study. (3mks)

9. a)i) Define the term underground water. (1mk)


ii) Give three sources of underground water. (3mks)
iii) Explain 3 factors that influence the occurrence of underground water. (6mks)

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b) The diagram below shows an artesian well.

i) Name the parts marked X and Y. (2mks)


ii) State four conditions necessary for the formation of artesian wells. (4mks)
iii) Explain two significance of underground water to human activities. (4mks)
c) You intend to carry out a field study in a Karst landscape.
i) Give two reasons why it is necessary to carry out a pre-visit before the study. (2mks)
ii) Give three follow –up activities that you were engaged in after the actual study. (3mks)

10. a) i) Name three factors that influence the formation of soil. (3mks)
ii)Name three processes of soil formation. (3mks)
b) Apart from texture, name other properties of soil. (3mks)
c) i) What is soil degeneration? (2mks)
ii) Explain three ways in which farming practices may lead to loss of soil fertility. (6mks)
iii) State how soil acidity is reduced. (2mks)
d) i) Draw a simple – labelled diagram of profile of a mature soil. (4mks)
ii) Distinguish between soil profile and soil catena. (2mks)

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

GEOGRAPHY
312/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper has two sections: A and B
(c) Answer all the questions in section A
(d) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B
(e) All answers must be written in the spaces provided after Question 10.

FOR EXAMINATION USE ONLY.


Maximum Score Candidate Score
Section A. 25
Question 6 25
Question 7 25
Question 8 25
Question 9 25
Question 10 25
TOTAL 100%

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SECTION A (25MKS)
Answer ALL the questions from this section
1. i) Mention two irrigation schemes established in Kisumu County with the aim of land rehabilitation
(2mks)
ii) What is a polder? (1mk)
iii) Name three crops grown in the polder (3mks)
2. i) Distinguish Horticulture and market gardening (2mks)
ii) State three problem facing horticultural farming in Kenya (3mks)
3. i) Define the term mining? (2mks)
ii) State any three negative effects of mining to the environment (3mks)
4. i) Give two indigenous soft wood trees grown in Kenya (2mks)
ii) State three problems facing forestry in Canada (3mks)
5. a) Name three types of fish (2mks)
b) State three problems facing fishing in JAPAN (2mks)

SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions
6. a) Study the information provided. Later answer the questions that follows
Crop production in Kenya between 1998 and 2002 in million bags.
Use a scale of 1cm represents 5 million bags
CROP/YEAR 1998 CT 1999 CT 2000 CT 2001 CT 2002 CT
Maize 27.30 25.00 25.00 30.00 26.00
Beans 3.00 4.00 3.70 4.10 4.00
Sorghum 0.90 1.20 0.90 1.20 0.80
Millet 0.37 0.66 0.40 0.50 0.60
 CT refers to the cumulative totals
i. Using a suitable scale, draw a cumulative bar graph based on data provided above. (10mks)
ii. Calculate the maize percentage decline in production between years 2001 and 2002. (2mks)
iii. What general conclusion can be made based on crop production between years 2000 and 2001
(2mks)
b) i) Apart from tsetse fly control mention five other methods used to reclaim land in Kenya (5mks)
ii) Explain any three control measures applied to eliminate tsetse flies in Kenya. (6mks)

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7. a) i) Define wildlife (2mks)
ii)Distinguish between a game sanctuary and a game ranch (4mks)
iii) Study the following map of East Africa and answer the questions below.

Name National parks marked A, B & c (3mks)


b) i) Explain four factors showing the future of tourism Industry in Kenya (8mks)
ii) Explain how the following factors influence wildlife
i. Vegetation (4mks)
ii. Altitude (4mks)

8. a) i) What is fishing (2mks)


ii) Name the two major fishing ground in the Pacific Ocean (2mks)
iii) Name four fresh water fisheries in Kenya (4mks)
b) i) Explain four reasons why Fresh water fishing is more popular than marine fishing in East Africa.
(8mks)
ii) Describe trawling as a method of fishing (7mks)
iii) Distinguish phytoplankton and 200 planktons (2mks)

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9. a) i) Name two main types of coffee grown in Kenya (2mks)
ii) Identify two counties in Kenya where coffee is grown in large scale (2mks)
b) i) State four factors favoring growing of coffee in Kenya (4mks)
ii) Describe the stages of coffee processing once it’s delivered to the factory (9mks)
c) i) Explain two benefits of coffee farming in Kenya (4mks)
ii)State four problems facing coffee farmers in Brazil (4mks)

10. a) i) Give three by-products of crude oil (3mks)


ii) List four ways through which occurrence of minerals is influenced. (4mks)
b) Explain four contribution of mining Industry to economy (8mks)
c) Name the minerals found in the following areas in East Africa (4mks)
i. Kariandusi
ii. Kerio Valley
iii. Kwale County
iv. Lake Magadi
d)i) State four factors influencing mineral exploitation (4mks)
ii) Give two uses of Gold (2mks)
Answer part of question 6 on the graph sheet below

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

AGRICULTURE
443/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C
b) Candidate to answer ALL questions in section A and B and answers any TWO questions only
in section C

CANDIDATE SCORE
QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CAND.SCORE

A 1-20 30

B 21-25 20

26 20

27 20
C
28 20

TOTAL 90

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SECTION A (30MKS)
Answer all questions in this section on spaces provided.
1. Name two field management that are carried out to obtain optimum plant population in a crop field
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Give two factors which characterize small scale farming (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Give one examples of each of the following categories of water pipes


a) Metal pipes (½mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Horse pipes (½mk)


………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. Name three forms of horticulture practiced in Kenya (1½mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. State four disadvantages of growing one type of crop on piece of land continuously (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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6. Outline four qualities of a mother plant from which vegetative propagation material should be
obtained (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State two ways in which crop rotation controls weeds (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Give two reasons for imposing quarantine on imported planting materials (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. State two mechanical methods of separating soil particles according to sizes during soil analysis
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Name four settlement schemes that the Kenyan government started as a result of the success of the
million Acre scheme (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. State three practices which encourage soil erosion (1½mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. State four characteristics of a good vegetable seedling (2mks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. List four pose-harvest practices that are carried out in maize production (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. List four environmental factors that affect crop production in Kenya (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Give four reasons for seed selection in crop production (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. Give two benefits of top-dressing in management of grass pasture (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. State four disadvantages of communal land tenure system (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. State any two benefits a farmer would get by having correct plant population in the production of
annual crops (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Define the term opportunity cost as used in economic (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. State four pieces of information contained on a land title deed. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (20MKS)
Answer all questions in this section
21. The table below shows PH value of different soil samples. Study it and answer the questions that
follow.

Soil sample PH value


S1 3
S2 4
S3 5
S4 6
S5 7
S6 8
S7 9
S8 10

a) Which soil sample has the highest acidity (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Which soil sample has the lowest alkalinity (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State two ways in which the PHvalue of sample 3 can be raised (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Which of the above soil sample is suitable for growing maize (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. The diagram below illustrates a seed potato prepared for planting. Study it carefully and answer the
questions that follow.

a) Name the practice used in preparing the seed potato above for planting (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Describe the procedure followed in preparing seed potatoes for planting. (8mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Below are diagrams of common weeds found in a crop field, study them carefully and answer
questions that follow.

C
a) Identify the weeds (3mks)
Weed A ……………………………………………….
Weed B ……………………………………………….
Weed C ……………………………………………….
b) State one reason why weed A is difficult to control (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) State one economic use of weed B (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. Below is a method used in pasture management. Study it carefully and answer questions that follow.

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a) Identify the type of grazing shown above (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State two limiting of the practice above (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. Below is a diagram of common pest found in the field. Study it carefully and answer questions that
follows

a) Identify the pest (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) State the stage at which the pest attack maize (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) State one effect of the pest on crop production (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (40MKS)
Answer any two questions only from this section
26. a) Explain five ways in which biotic factors influence crop production in Agriculture (10mks)
b) Explain four ways in which Government policy improves agricultural production (4mks)
c) Describes the properties of Nitrogenous fertilizer (6mks)

27. a) Describe the effects of pests on Beans in the field (4mks)


b) Describe the production of cabbage under the following seed headings.
i. Seed bed preparation (3mks)
ii. Transplanting of seedlings (4mks)
c) Describe various nursery management practices carried out on cabbage seeding in the nursery
(5mks)
d) Describe how water is treated to remove solid impurities (4mks)

28. a) Describe five ways in which a grass cover help to conserve soil (5mks
b) Describe maize production under following sub-headings.
i. Land preparation (3mks)
ii. Planting (6mks)
iii. Field management practices (6mks)

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

AGRICULTURE
443/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS
 This paper consist of three sections A, B and C
 Candidate to answer all questions in section A and B
 Answer any two questions only in section C on the booklet provided.

CANDIDATE SCORE
QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CAND.SCORE
A 1-14 30
B 15-18 20
19 20
20 20
C 21 20
TOTAL 90

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SECTION A (30MKS)
Answer all questions in this section on spaces provided.
1. State four non-chemical method used to control ticks (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Highlight two management practices carried out on a broody hen (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Give four characteristics of a good fish pond (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Mention four physical characteristics of exotic beef cattle breeds (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Give four features of calf pen that help to control calf diseases (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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6. a) What is dry cow therapy (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) At what stage of gestation is dry cow therapy practiced (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Name four farm structures used for handling livestock (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Give four symptoms of respiratory disorder in a sick cow (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Mention two characteristics of abdomen of a poor layers (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Distinguish between mothering ability and prolificacy (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. List two factors that can lead to conception failure after female cow has been served (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Give four factors that may lead to a farmer culling dairy cattle (2mks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. State four reasons for doing Agriculture as a discipline (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Name four tools that are used when laying concrete blocks during construction of a wall (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. State four features on the animal which may pre-dispose it to livestock diseases (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (20MKS)
Answer all the questions from this section.

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16. Diagram below show a plunge dip.

a) Using a arrow on the diagram show the movement of cattle (½mk)


b) State one use of parts A, B and C (3mks)
A ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
B ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
C ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State two precautions a farmer should take on dip to ensure effective dipping (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) State two uses of the roof of the dip (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Apart from use of acaricides explain other methods used to control ticks (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. a) i) Identify the tools below (1mk)

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X ………………………………………………………………………..

Y ……………………………………………………………………….

ii) State the use of tools x and y (2mks)


X………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Y ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Explain two maintenance practices carried on tool X (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Name the tools used in conjuction of following tools (2mks)


i. Troca
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Hand drill
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. Leading stick
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv. Mallet
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. a) Diagram below show reproductive system of a female cow

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i. Name the part marked (1mk)
D ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
F ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. State the function of parts marked (1mk)
C ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
E ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) At what stage should a gilt be mated? (½mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (40MKS)
Answer ONLY TWO questions on answer booklets provided.
19. a) Explain features of ideal calf pen (6mks)
b) Outline various feeding practices a farmer undertake on calves up to weaning (8mks)
c) Describe uses of water in the animals body (6mks)
20. a) Describe mastitis disease under the following sub-headings
i. Causal organism (1mk)
ii. Disease pre-disposing factors (4mks)
iii. Symptoms (3mks)
iv. Control measures (6mks)
b) Describe factors to consider when culling a female (Cow) breeding stock (6mks)
21. a) Describe the artificial rearing of layers chick from one day up to the end of brooding (10mks)
b) Name three types of fences (3mks)
c) Explain the procedure of establishing wire fence (7mks)

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

BUSINESS STUDIES
565/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

565/1

BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS OF CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer ALL the questions.
d) ALL answers must be written in the spaces provided in this booklet.
e) Do not remove any pages from this booklet.

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY


QUESTIONS 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
MARKS

QUESTIONS 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
MARKS

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GRAND
TOTAL

QUESTIONS
1. State four external factors that may positively influence the operations of a business (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Outline four circumstances under which producers may prefer to sell goods directly to the
consumers. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Name four ways through which consumers can be cheated in their dealings with traders (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The following information relates to Tamu Traders for the year ended 31st Dec. 2011
Sh
Fixed Assets 5,000,000
Current Assets 650,000
Net profit 300,000
Current liabilities 650,000
Sales 2,000,000
Closing stock 100,000
Opening stock 200,000

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Gross profit margin 20%
Calculate; (4mks)
a) Current ratio

b) Gross profit mark up

c) Rate of stock turn over

d) Capital employed.

5. Outline four circumstances under which a credit note may be issued. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. The equation given below relate to quantity demanded and the quantity supplied at equilibrium
price.
Qde = 4P + 50
Qse = 8P + 30
Determine the equilibrium price and quantity (4mks)

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7. Kendi started a shop dealing in ladies clothing but failed after two years. Outline four factors that
many have caused this failure (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Name the type of warehouse described below


Statement Type of warehouse
a) Goods can be stored before payment of custom duties
b) Individuals can hire storage facilities
c) Goods are stored from several manufacturers
d) Specialised goods are stored

9. State four ways in which the nature of goods would influence the choice of transport (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Outline any four circumstances under which human wants may be fully satisfied (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Highlight four ways in which business studies is useful to a community (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. State the books of original entry in which the following documents are used. (4mks)
a) Incoming invoice
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) Incoming receipt
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) Outgoing credit note
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Outgoing invoice
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

13. State the type of ledger into which the following accounts would be found. (4mks)
Account Relevant ledger
a) Capital ………………………………………………………..
b) Mueni (debtor) ………………………………………………………..
c) Kariuki (supplier) ……………………………………………………….
d) Bank ………………………………………………………

14. Outline any four advantages of operating in an open office layout. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. George operates a petrol station in Nakuru. He insured his stock worth Ksh 2.4 million for ksh 2
million. Later in the year stock worth ksh 600,000 was destroyed by fire. Calculate the amount he
was compensated and give a reason. (4mks)

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16. State four characteristics of money (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Name the rewards for the following factors of production (4mks)

Factor of production Reward

a) Employee

b) Machine

c) Minerals

d) Farmer

18. Outline four challenges that may be experienced by a country whose population is made up of a
large proportion of young people (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Highlight any four characteristics of perfect competition type of market structure (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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20. State the line of communication involved in each of the following. (4mks)
a) The manager of ABC company Ltd talking to the manager of XYZ company Ltd
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) A secretary asking for time off from her boss
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
c) The production manager giving instructions to the secretary of the sales manager
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) The store keeper giving explanations to the chief accountant
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. State the effect of each of the following transactions on the balance sheet totals by writing increase
or decrease or no effect in each case. (4mks)
Transaction Effect
a) Bought machinery on credit
b) Withdrew cash from the bus for personal use
c) Purchased stock in cash
d) Paid outstanding loan by cheque

22. Outline the assumptions that the circular flow of income in a closed economy work under (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. The following balances were extracted from the books of Wanji traders for the year ended 30th June
2005. (4mks)
Sh
Debtor 120,000
Creditor 60,000
Machinery 450,000
Cash in hand 70,000
Cash at bank 180,000
5 years bank loan 270,000
Stock 60,000
Prepare a balance sheet of Wanji traders as at 30th June 2005.

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24. Outline four reasons for maintaining a cash book in a business enterprise. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. Highlight four factors that should be considered when choosing a method of promoting a product.
(4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

BUSINESS STUDIES
565/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

565/2
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of 6 questions.
4. Answer any five questions.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
5 20
6 20
Total score

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QUESTIONS
1. a) Outline any five differences between private limited liability company and public limited liability
company. (10mks)
b) Describe five accounting documents used in home trade. (10mks)

2. a) The table below shows the demand and supply schedules for product A in a week.
Price(sh) Quantity demanded Quantity supplied
(‘000’ tonnes) (‘000’ tonnes)
35 5 80
30 10 65
25 20 55
20 25 40
15 30 35
10 40 20
5 55 5
Use the information in the table above, draw the demand and supply curve showing the market
equilibrium for the produce. (10mk)
b) Explain five benefits that a firm may enjoy by preparing a business plan. (10mks)

3. a) Traders are required to observe ethical practices when carrying out product promotion. Explain
five reasons for observing such ethical practices (10mks)
b) Explain five benefits that may be realized by a country as a result of government policy to relocate
Industries to rural areas. (10mks)
4. a) Outline any five factors to consider while locating a ware house. (10mks)
b) On 1stSeptember 2015, Miriam had sh 55,000 in hand and sh. 250,000 in bank. During the month
the following transactions took place.
Sep 2: Cash sales banked sh 35,260
Sep 3: Bought ribbons in cash sh 4,500
Sep 8: Paid Wangila, a creditor sh 94,000 by cheque in full settlement of his account after deduction
6% cash discount.
Sep 12: Received a cheque for sh 58,800 from Wetu after allowing her cash discount of sh 1,200
Sep 15: Paid salaries of sh 34,000 in cash
Sep 25: Withdrew sh 50,000 from bank for office use.
Sep 28: Anyango a debtor paid her account of sh 75,000 by cheque less 10% cash
discount.
Sept 30: Deposited all the cash into the bank except sh 13,700

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Prepare a three column cash book and balance it off. (10mks)

5. a) Explain any five uses of National Income Statistics (10mks)


b) The following trial balance related to Tai Traders as at 31st December 2022
TAI TRADERS
TRIAL BALANCE
AS AT 31ST DECEMBER 2022
Details Dr (Ksh) Cr(Ksh)
Stock 10,000
Bank 3,500
Purchases 15,000
Sales 28,000
Returns 800 1,100
Rent 580
Insurance 950
Creditor 450
Carriage in 1,200
Discounts 300 1,620
31,750 31,750
Additional information
- Closing stock was valued at Ksh 2,500
- Carriage out was Ksh 1,200
Required: Prepare trading profit and loss account. (10mks

6. a) Explain any five reasons why one would prefer to transport goods on road than rail. (10mks)
b) On 1st January 2022 Makena started a business with sh 120,000 cash and sh 300,000 in the bank.
The following transactions were done in the month of January 2022.
January 3: Bought goods worth sh 60,000 by cheque
January 10: Sold goods worth sh 35,000 cash
January 14: Bought goods worth sh 90,000 cash from Odero
January 18: Paid wages sh 18,000 by cash
January 20: Withdrew sh 40,000 from bank for office use.
Required;
Record the above transactions in the relevant ledger account, balance them off and extract a trial
balance. (10mks)

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

ENGLISH
101/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your details in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer all the questions in this paper.
3. Answer the questions in English

EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


QUESTION MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 20
2 10
3 30
TOTAL 60

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QUESTIONS
1. Students in your school have raised concerns about poor hygiene in the school. In a bid to address
these concerns, the principal appoints a four member committee to investigate the health situation
and give recommendations. You are the secretary of the committee, write down the report you will
present to your principal. (20mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. CLOZE TEST (10MKS)
Fill in the blank spaces with the most appropriate words.
A new research title “Underage drinking in Kenya”, has …………………1……………….that nearly
one third of form four students aged below 18 years take alcohol …………………2……………….
As our society ponders this sad ………………3……………………….., the urgent message to
children who are taking alcohol …………………………4……………. do not drink another sip.
Advice to those children is to strongly say “no”. ………………5…………………irresponsible
behaviour, to alcoholism, there are many………………6………………effects of alcohol. It is
wrong and illegal for children to drink alcohol. This report also states that 46 percent of the children
received ………………7…………….first pint from friends and
…………………8…………………. Do you offer alcohol to a child? As a parent or guardian, do
you nurture …………………9…………….? How much time do you spend with them?Notably,
………………………10……………of guidance and supervision are stimuli to underage drinking.

3. ORAL SKILLS (30MKS)


Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow
Make me a grave where’er you will,
In a lowly plain, or a lofty hill;
Make it among earth’s humblest graves,
But not in a land where men are slaves.

I could not rest if around my grave


I heard the steps of a trembling slave;
His shadow above my silent tomb
Would make it a place of fearful gloom

I could not rest if I heard the tread


Of a coffle going to the shambles led,
And the mother’s shriek of wild despair
Rise like a curse on the trembling air
(by Frances Ellen Watkins Harper)

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QUESTIONS
a) Describe the rhyme scheme of the poem above. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Apart from rhyme, mention two other ways they have achieved rhythm? (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Mention two ways in which you would know that your audience is fully participating during the
recitation of the poem above. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) How would you say the last line of the poem? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Indicate whether the following items have a falling or a rising intonation. (4mks)
i) Get out now! ……………………………………………….………………..……………………
ii) The man was accused of theft. ……………………………………….……………………………
iii) How did you find the English exam? ………………………………………………………………
iv) Could he have left? …………………………………………………………………………………

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f) Underline the silent letters in the following words. (4mks)
i) Corps
ii) Parliament
iii) Leopard
iv) Fracas
g) Provide a homophone for each of the following words. (4mks)
i) Bury …………………………………..
ii) Claws ………………………………..
iii) Guest …………………………………
iv) Male ………………………………….

h) The underlining indicates the stressed word in the sentences below. Briefly explain what each
sentence mean (3mks)
i)The lady in a red dress lost her purse
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)The lady in a red dress lost her purses
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)The lady in a red dress lost her purse.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
i) Identify the odd word out according to the pronunciation of the underlined sound. (2mks)
i) Said Head Gate Led
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Face Phrase Shepherd Phase


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

j) Below is a dialogue between Muthomi and James who are candidates. Read it and answer the
questions that follow.
Muthomi: James, I’m worried about my performance in English. It’s not encouraging.
James: Ah! I’m happy with mine in Biology. I got an A in the last exam.
Muthomi: I really don’t know what to do about English, maybe…

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James: I don’t like History and P.E teacher. He thinks he is the only one who can a pick-up truck. My
mum told me she would be buying one soon.
Muthomi: (Trying to bring him back to the topic) Tell me James, how do yourevise English?
James: Oh! Is that Betty? She promised to bring me a movie. (Calling out) Betty! Betty!
(The runs after her)

a) Identify the shortcomings in the dialogue above (3mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ENGLISH
101/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your details in the spaces provided above.
b) Answer all the questions in this paper.
c) Answer the questions in English

EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


QUESTION MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 20
2 25
3 20
4 20
5 15
TOTAL 100

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1: COMPREHENSION (20MKS)
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow: -
Reading is a fundamental skill that plays a vital role in our lives. It’s not just about deciphering
words on a page but about the doors it opens, the knowledge it imparts, and the worlds it allows us
to explore. Reading is an essential tool for learning, expanding our horizons and fostering
imaginations.
When we read, we acquire knowledge. Whether it’s reading textbooks, newspapers, or online
articles, we gain information that helps us understand the world. Books, in particular, are a treasure
trove of knowledge. They contain the wisdom of generations, the discoveries of great minds and
the stories of diverse cultures. Reading books can educate us on history, science, literature, and
countless other subjects. It’s like having a mentor, guiding us through the complexities of life.
Reading also broadens our horizons. It exposes us to different viewpoints, perspectives, and
experiences. When we read about characters from various backgrounds or explore far-off lands
through the pages of a novel, we step into their shoes and see the world from a different angle. This
broadening of perspective fosters empathy and understanding, making us more tolerant and open-
minded individuals.
Furthermore, reading fuels our imagination. Whether it’s a fantasy novel, a science fiction story, or
a compelling mystery, books transport us to envision the unimaginable. Our minds become the
canvas, and words paint the pictures. It’s a magical experience that ignites creativity and
inspiration.
Moreover, reading is a skill that transcends academic boundaries. It’s not just about scoring well on
test; it’s about developing critical thinking, analytical skills, and the ability to communicate
effectively. A person who reads regularly, is likely to have a broader vocabulary, better writing
skills, and an improved ability to express their thoughts and ideas.
In our modern digital age, reading has taken on new forms. E-books and audiobooks have made it
more accessible and convenient. With just a few clicks or taps, we can access a vast library of
literature. However, there’s something timeless and intimate about holding a physical book,
flipping its pages, and smelling the scent of paper and ink.
In conclusion, reading is not just a hobby; it’s a cornerstone of education, personal growth, and
cultural enrichment. It empowers u with knowledge, broadens our perspective, ignites our
imagination, and equips us with essential skills. Whether we’re reading for pleasure, information,

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or self-improvement, reading is a journey that enriches our lives and shapes us into more informed,
empathetic, and creative individuals.

QUESTIONS
1. How does reading foster empathy and understanding? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. What role does reading play in developing critical thinking and communication skills? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. What is the advantage of reading physical books, compared to digital formats? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. In note form, explain why the author says that reading is an essential tool for learning. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. How does reading enrich our lives and shape us as individuals, according to the passage? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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6. What does this passage reveal about the writer? (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Reading fuels our imagination. Add a question tag. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Explain the following words as used in the passage. (5mks)


a. Fundamental
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b. Envision
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c. Transcends
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d. Timeless
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e. Ignites
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. EXERPT: THE SAMARITAN


Read the following excerpt and then answer the questions that follow. (25mks)
MOSSI: Very well, my good people. (Turning to face principal and then the teachers) I thank
you Madam principal and all the teachers for your continued good work, which has won this School
an outstanding reputation nationally. (pauses) The subject of today’s event is yet another example
of the schools outstanding performance. I am genuinely impressed by Nicole and the two students.
I like the issues they have highlighted in the presentation. This is a clear indication that our schools
are nurturing visionaries and innovators capable of solving our Municipality practical problems.

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And, of course, there can be no better resource for bettering our lives, as a municipality and as a
nation. In fact, and for this very reason, the Municipal council will explore the possibility of
mobilising resources in support of innovation in our schools in order to actualise the future we
heard about during the presentation.
I will ensure this happens because as you know, my name is Mossi-oa-Tunya, which means the
Smoke that thunders. I would especially be delighted if the medicine for regenerating my body
cells was discovered today. That would enable me live four hundred and twenty-two more years!
How amazing! Please think mostly in this direction! (Mossi pauses, regards his audience, turning
his head slowly. Then he resumes) However, we will neither launch the innovation nor present the
prize today. Not because the App is terrible. No, it is in fact an outstanding innovation; so good
that it could have far-reaching implications on other areas of our social, economic and political
life. As municipal leaders, we need time to reflect on these implications. (pauses) I now request
the teachers and students to leave as we discuss with the principal and Teacher Nicole how we will
move forward with this incredible innovation.

QUESTIONS
1. Why is the Municipal Council ready to mobilise resources to support schools in the future? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. I am genuinely impressed by Nicole and the two students. Which role does Nicole hold in the
school? Who are the two students Mossi is talking about? (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Apart from the medicine that regenerates body cells, mention any three other things in the play
that Alvita sees in her vision of the future. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. Identify any theme brought out in this extract. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Mayor Mossi says they will neither launch the Samaritan App nor present the prize to the
innovators. What reason does he give for this? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. From elsewhere in the play, mention any two other evils Mayor Mossi is accused of? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Discuss any two character-traits of Mayor Mossi as brought out in the excerpt. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. I would especially be delighted if the medicine for regenerating my body cells was discovered
today. Rewrite in reported speech. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Identify and illustrate any aspect of style used in this excerpt. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the excerpt. (4mks)
a. outstanding
b. innovators

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c regenerating
d. incredible

3. ORAL SONG
Read the following oral song and then answer the questions that follow.
Listen
My husband
In the wisdom of the Lang’o
Time is not stupidly split up,
Into seconds and minutes

It does not flow


Like beer in a pot
That is sucked
Until it is finished

It does not resemble


A loaf of millet bread
Surrounded by hungry youths
From a hunt
It does not get finished
Like vegetable in the dish

A lazy youth is rebuked


A lazy girl is slapped
A lazy wife is beaten
A lazy man is laughed at
Not because they waste time
But because they only destroy
And do not produce

And famine
Invade your villages
And women take their baskets
To go and beg food
In the next village
Strangers will sleep with them
They will have your wives
And what you say?

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QUESTIONS
[a] classify this song [2marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
[b]who is the singer of this song. [2marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[c]Explain socio-economic activities practised by the community from which the song is derived
from. [4 marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[d] Identify and illustrate three features that qualify this to be an oral poem [6marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
[e]what is the dominant tone of this song? [2marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
[f]what main value do we learn from this community. [2mks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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[g]what is the attitude of people from this community towards lazy people. [2mks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. GRAMMAR
1) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given. (4mks)
a. They were so exhausted that they could not stay awake. (Rewrite using ‘too’)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b. If I had an eight-to-five job, I …………………………………piano lessons. (take) Fill the gap
with the correct tense of the verb given in brackets.

c. I think we are being followed by somebody. (Rewrite in the active voice)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d. The telephone rang without stopping. (Replace the underlined words with one word)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Complete the following sentences using the appropriate form of the word in brackets. (2mks)
a. The winner of the race jogged ……………………………around the stadium waving the Kenyan
flag. (pride)
b. The beautiful scenery was …………………………… . (awe)

3. Correct the errors in each sentence below. (2mks)


a. I went for shopping yesterday.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b. How do you hope to get the lost child between so many people?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. Complete each of the following sentences with one of the words in brackets. (2mks)
a. They saw ……………………………animals in the park than thy expected. (less, fewer)
b. After walking for three kilometres, they were lucky to get ……………………………water from
the stream. (little, a little)

5. Replace the underlined word with an appropriate phrasal verb beginning with the word
given in brackets. (2mks)
a. We hope our plan succeeds. (pull)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b. Over the holiday my friends visited me. (call)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Explain the meaning of the underlined idiomatic expression. (1mk)
Mary told her trainer that she was going to throw in the towel if she did not win the fight.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Punctuate the following sentence in two different ways to convey two different meanings. (2mks)
Otieno said Mary is absent today.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ENGLISH
101/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

ENGLISH
Paper 3
(Imaginative Compositions and Essays Based on Set Texts)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer three questions in this question paper.
(d) In question 1, choose either a or b.
(e) Question 2 and 3 are compulsory

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 20
2 20
3 20
TOTAL

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QUESTIONS
1. Imaginative composition (Compulsory)
Either
a) Write a composition ending with the following: (20Marks)
……..'Given another chance, I would have done things differently.'
Or
b) Write an interesting composition with the following words;
Police, Friends, Court and Jail. (20Marks)

2. Write a composition on the following statements.


Technology advancement has impacted negatively on the society, especially the youth
(20Marks)
3. Rejection can be a source of agony to an individual. Write an essay in support of the statement
in reference to the novel The Fathers of the Nations by Paul B.Vitta (20Marks)

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KISWAHILI
102/1
KARATASI YA 1
MUDA: SAA 1¾
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Elimu ya Sekondari Tathmini ya Pili

MAAGIZO:
 Andika insha mbili.
 Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
 Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia.
 Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.

SWALI TUZO
1
2
3
4
JUMLA

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MASWALI
1. Ndugu yako ameamua kuasi ukapera. Andika ratiba itakayotumiwa siku ya arusi yake.
2. Eleza mikakati ambayo serikali ya Kenya imeweka kukabiliana na mashambulizi ya mara kwa mara
ya Kigaidi nchini.
3. Andika insha kuonyesha busara iliyomo katika methali “Mchelea mwana kulia hulia mwenyewe”.
4. Andika insha itakayomalizika kwa maneno haya:
……………Nilikumbuka ushauri niliopewa na mama mazazi mara kwa mara. Uchungu usiomithilika
ulinichoma moyoni, laiti ningalijua.

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KISWAHILI
102/2
KARATASI YA 2
MUDA: SAA 2½
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Elimu ya Sekondari Tathmini ya Pili

MAAGIZO
 Karatasi hii ina sehemu nne. Ufahamu, Ufupisho, matumizi ya lugha na Isimu jamii.
 Jibu maswali yote katika nafasi uliziachiwa.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MUTAHINI PEKEE


SWALI UPEO ALAMA
UFAHAMU 15
UFUPISHO 15
MATUMIZI YA LUGHA 40
ISIMU JAMII 10
JUMLA 80

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1. UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kasha ujibu maswali yanavyofuata
Wakati wananchi katika kila pembe ya dunia waliadhimisha siku ya wapendanao maarufu kama
“Valentine Day,” kwa mitindo mbali mbali, hali hiyo ilikuwa tofauti kwa baadhi ya wanaume nchini
Kenya, baada ya kulalamika kuhusu kunyanyaswa na wake zao.
Kulingana na mwenyekiti wachama cha kutetea haki za wanaume nchini, idadi ya wanaume
wanaopigwa na wake zao imeongezeka mno. Alisema juzi kuwautafiti wa chama chake
umeonyesha kuwa harakati za kumpa mwanamke uwezo zimeathiri maadili na kusababisha
kuwadharau wanaume. Mwanaharakati huyo alidai kuwa tatizo hilo
limechochewazaidinahaliyakuwawanawakewengisasawanakipatokikubwakulikowaumezao.
Mwisho niwa mwezi polisi walimtia mbaroni mwanamke mmoja mjini Nyeri, baadaya
kumshambulia mumewe na kumjeruhi kwa panga. Mwanamme huyo bado anapata matibabu
hospitalini. Yeye alirudi nyumbani kama amevaa miwani ndipo akakatwa katwa usoni na uchunguzi
kuhusu tukio hilo bado unaendelea.
Inadaiwa kuwa Zaidi ya wanaume 460,000 walinyanyaswa na wake zao mwaka jana na kwamba
utafiti wa shirika la kuwatetea wanaume umeonyesha kuwa kesi nyingi za wanaume kuteswa na
wake zao zina ripotiwa katika kati mwanchi.
Hata hivyo, baadhi ya wanaume katika eneo hilo wameunga mkono hatua ya wanawake
kuwashambulia waume zao. Wanasema kuwa wanapigwa kwa sababu wamekosa kuwajibika kwa
familia zao. Wanadai kuwa wanaume wengi hawajulikani nyumbani kwao. Wake zao wanawajua
makasisi ambao hujakuwa ombea kuhusu matatizo ya nyumbani huku mabwanazao wakizama
katika ulevi. Wanawake na waume wa Nyeri wametaka serikali kukomesha uuzaji na unywaji wa
pombe haramu ambayo imechangia sana katika ugomvi wanyumbani.

MASWALI
a) Yape Makala haya anwani inayofaa (alama 1)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Eleza sababu za wanaume kupigwa na wanawake katika ndoa (alama 4)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) Mwandishi anamaanisha nini anaposema kuwa wanaume wengine hawajulikani nyumbani kwao?
(alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Fafanua majukumu ya makasisi katika jamii kwa mujibu wa kifungu hiki (alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Ni mabadiliko yepi yametokea katika asasi ya ndoa kwa mujibu wa kifungu? (alama 3)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

f) Eleza maana ya msamiati kamaulivyotumikakifunguni (alama 3)


i) Mwanaharakati
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Amevaa miwani
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Waliadhimisha
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. UFUPISHO (ALAMA 15)


Ujambazi wa kimataifa ni tatizo linalo wasumbua walimwengu kwa muda mrefu sana. Serikali nyingi
zimetumia mapesa mengi kwa miaka mingi sana zikijitahidi kupambana na janga hili. Hata hivyo,
fanaka haijapatikana, wala haielekei kuwa itapatika na leo au karne baadaye.
Yamkini tatizo kubwa lililopo ni kuhusu jelezi la dhanaya ”Ujambazi” tena “wakimataifa”. Hili ni
tatizo moja wapo nayapo mengi sana. Tatizo la pili ni kibusi. Kuna wale wafu binafsi na hasa
viongozi wanchi kubwa kubwa na serikali zaozilizo jiamini shakuwa ujambazi nibalaa kweli, tena
belua, lakini huoni wahuko, wala hauwezi kuwagu sa licha ya kuwashtua wao.
Kulingana na maoni ya watakaburi hao, ujambazi ni wa watu washenzi wasio starabika,
wapatikanao katika nchi zisizoendelea bado. Ujambazi wapekee wanaouona unafaa kukabiliwa ni

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dhidi ya mbubujiko wadawa za kulevya iliosababishwa navinyangarika kutoka nchi hizo maaluniza
“ulimwengu watatu”. Kulingana na wastaarabu wa nchi zilizoendelea, vinyangarika hivi ndivyo
hasa adui mkubwa waustaarabu ulimwengu na ni sharti vifagiliwe mbali bila huruma. Baada ya
kusagwa sagwa, ulimwenguni mstaarabu utazidi kutononoka na ahadi ya mbingu hapa ardhi ni
itakamilika.
Imani ya watu hawa ya kuwa ujambazi, hata hivyo upo, hauwezi kuwashtua wala kuwatingisha wao
ilikuwa kamili na timamu. Ilikuwa kamili na timamu hadi hapo mwezi Septemba terehe kumi na
moja, mwaka wa 2001, ndege tatu za abiria zilizo elekea katika majumba mawili ya fahari, yenye
urefu wazaidi yaghorofa mia moja na kuya twangi lia mbali. Mstuko na kimako! Kimako kwa kuwa
kabla ya siku hiyo, wa marekani hangeweza kudhani kwamba ingeweze kamataifa lolote au mtu
yeyote kuthubutu kuishambulia nchi yao, taifa wasifa lililojihami barabara dhidi ya aina yoyote ile
ya uchokozi kutoka pembe yoyote ya dunia.
Hakuna ulimwengu mzima, aliyeamini kuwa marekani ingewezakushambuliwa. Kwa ajili hiyo,
mshtuko ulitingisha ardhi yote na huzuni kutanda kote, kama kwamba sayari nzima
imeshambuliwa, walasiomarekanipekee.
Mintarafu hiyo ,marekani ilipo lipiza kisasi kwa kuwa unguza
Walio kuwemo na wasiokuwemo kwa mabomu hatari huko Afghanistan, idadi kubwa ya watu duniani
ilishangilia na kusheherekea. Kwa bahati mbaya, tafsiri ya shambulizi la minara-pachaya New
York naileya Pentagon, utiwa uwezo wa Marekani ilizorota. Kuna wengi waliodhani huoni mwanzo
wa vita vya Waislamu dhidi ya Wakristo na kwa muda, Waislamu wote wakashukiwa kimakosa
kuwa nima jambazi wa kimataifa.

MASWALI.
a) Bila kubadilisha maana, fupisha aya za kwanza.(maneno 65-70) (alama 6)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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b) uKizingatia aya tatu za mwisho, fafanua fikira za watu na mambo yote yaliyo tendeka baadaya
Septemba 11,2001.( maneno65-70) ( alama 7)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (alama 40)


a) Eleza sifa mbili bainifu za sauti /a/ (alama 2)
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b) i) Mofimu ni nini? (alama 2)


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ii) Ainisha mofimu katika kitenzi; (alama 2)


Alimwona

c) Andika kitenzi chenye muundo ufuatao; (alama 2)


Kiambishi ngeli, wakati uliopita, mzizi, kauli tendwa na kiishio.
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d) Tunga sentensi mbili tofauti kudhihirisha matumizi ya kiimbo. (alama 2)


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e) Ziandike upya sentensi kulingana na maagizo yaliyo banwa. (alama 4)


i) Kijitabu kile kulirushwana kiranja. (Tumia kivumishi kisisitizi cha karibu)
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ii) Barabara nyingi zimesakafiwa. (Tumia wakati ujao hali ya mazoea)


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f) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika usemi halisi (alama 4)
Cherotich aliwahakikishia wazazi wake kwamba angetia bidii katika masomo yake iliapite mtihani
wake
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g) Unganisha sentensi zifuatazo kwa kutumia rejeshi-amba (alama 2)


i) Mshukiwa alipelekwa mahakamani
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ii) Mshukiwa alichukuliwa hatua
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h) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa mtindo wa jedwali (alama 4)


Mto uliofurika mwaka jana uliwaua mamba wengi

i) Tambua shamirisho, chagizo nakihusishi katika sentensi (alama 3)


Mgonjwa alitibiwa na daktari jana jioni.

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j) Taja ngeli za nomino zifuatazo (alama 2)
i) Sandarusi …………………………………………
ii) Saa…………………………………………………….
k) Yakinisha sentensi ifuatayo (alama 2)
Mamlaka makubwa ya Rais haya kwa zijuhudiza upinzani

l) Unda nomino mbili kutokana na kitenzi kifuatacho (alama 2)


La
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m) Tunga sentensi kudhihirisha maana za vitate vifuatavyo (alama2)


i) Bure
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ii) Pure
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n) Andika katika hali ya ukubwa wingi (alama 2)
Msichana mrembo ameolewa na mwanamume hodari.
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o) Kamilisha tanakali za sauti zifuatazo (alama 2)


i) Maji yalijaa……………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Barabara imenyooka
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p) Eleza maana ya mzizi wa kitenzi (alama 1)
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4. ISUMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)


a) Lugha rasmi ni nini? (alama 2)
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b) Eleza sababu zozote tatu ambazo huenda zikamfanya mzungumzaji afanye makosa ya kisarufi na
kimatamshi (alama 3)
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c) Huku ukitoa mifano mwafaka fafanua sifa tano za sajili ya bungeni. (alama 5)
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KISWAHILI
102/3
KARATASI YA 3
MUDA: SAA 2½
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Hati ya Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari


KISWAHILI
Karatasi ya 3
FASIHI
Muda: Saa 2½
MAAGIZO
a) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
b) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
c) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki; yaani: Hadithi
fupi, Ushairi, Tamthilia na Fasihi Simulizi.
d) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
e) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.
f) Majibu yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili

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1. Soma wimbo ufuatao kIsha SEHEMU YA A: FASIHI SIMULIZI
ujibu maswali yaliyoulizwa. (al. 20)
Kondolo, kondolo
Mlezi wa mwana
Mai kenda, nani kenda
Sokoni kenda
Kondolo, we ndolo mwana.

Mai tarudi atarudi


Adazi lako akirudi
Pia nyama ya kufupa
Kufupa kwangu wewe msopa
Kipenzi mwana

Kondolo kondolo
Mwana ndolo
Mwana kuja
Titi laja
Basi ndolo kipenzi cha mama
Ndolo ndolo atarudi.

a. Huu ni wimbo wa aina gani? Kwa nini? (al. 4)


b. Tunga wimbo mfupi wa aina hii kutoka jamii yako. (al. 6)
c. Taja mbinu zozote mbili za lugha katika wimbo huu. (al. 6)
d. Kuna wahusika wangapi katika wimbo huu? Wataje. (al. 2)
e. Eleza uhusiano wa wahusika uiliowataja katika swali la 4. (al.2)

SEHEMU YA B. TAMTHILIA
T. Arege: Bembea Ya Maisha
…Jamani mtoto amejaribu! hivi umesahau kuwa hata wewe unatumia hela za kununua dawa? Hata
sasa umetumia mapeni uliyotumiwa wasikuone shabiki tu.
a.Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (al. 4)
b. Tambua na ueleze mbinu za kimtindo zilizotumika katika dondoo. (al.4)
c. Onyesha jinsi mhusika anayerejerewa amejaribu kuwashika mkono wazazi wake. (al.4)
d. Taja sifa nane za anayerejelewa. (al. 8)

3. Jadili nafasi ya mwanamke katika jamii ya Bembea ya Maisha. (al. 20)

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SEHEMU YA C. RIWAYA
C. Momanyi: Nguu za Jadi
4. Jadili maudhui yafuatayo yanavyo jitokeza katika Riwaya ya Nguu za Jadi.

i. Ufisadi (al. 10)


ii. Ukabila (al. 10)

5. Taja na ueleze sifa za wahusika wafuatao . (al.20)

i. Sagilu
ii. Mangwasha
iii. Mtemi Lesulia
iv.Chifu Mshabaha

SEHEMU YA D: USHAIRI
6.Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali
Kila nikaapo hushika tama
Na kuwazia hali inyayonizunguka
Huyawazia madhila
Huziwazia shida
Huiwazia dhiki

Dhiki ya ulezi
Shida ya kudhalilishwa kazini
Madhila ya kufanyiwa dharau
Kwa sababu ya jinsia ya kike

Hukaa no kujidadisi
Kujua kwa nini
Jamii haikisikil killo changu
Wenzangu hawanishiki mikono
Bali wananidharau kwa kuukosoa utamaduni

Hukaa no kujiuliza
I wapi raha yangu ulimwengu huu?
I wapi jamaa nzima ya wanawake?

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Maswali
(a) Shairi hili ni la aina gani ? Eleza. (alama 2)
(b) Eleza dhamira ya mtunzi wa shairi hili. (alama 2)
(c) Kwa kutolea mifano, eleza maana ya mishata. (alama 2)
(d) Taja na ueleze tamathali mbili zilizotumika katika shairi hili. (alama 4)
(e) Tambulisha nafsi neni katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
(f) Fafanua toni ya shairi hili. (alama 2)
(g) Fafanua maudhui mawili ya shairi hili. (alama 2)
(h) Onyesha namna nafsi neni anavyosalitiwa. (alama 2)
(i) Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yalivyotumiwa katika shairi. (alama 2)
(i) madhila
(ii) kudhalilishwa

7. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali


Kiapo kwao majaji, wanosimamia haki
Kwa sharia ni magwiji, wahalifu hawatoki,
Wengi wao ni walaji, kwa rushwa ni mashabiki,
Kwa rushwa mashabiki.
Kiapo kwa daktari, wagonjwa hawadhiliki,
Kazi zao ni dhariri, maradhi hayakwepeki,
Na wengine ni hatari, bila pesa hutibiki,
Bila pesa hutibiki.

Kiapo cha mawaziri, kwa mbwembwe na itifaki,


Na suti zao nzuri, shingo tai haitoki,
Na wengi wana dosari, ni kwa mikataba feki,
Ni kwa mikataba feki.

Kiapo cha magavana, mikoa kuimiliki,


Hujifanya ni mabwana, wala hawasogeleki,
Nayo nchi huitafuna, na kuwa haikaliki
Na kuwa haikaliki.

Kiapo cha maraisi, kwa mizinga na fataki


Na wageni mahususi, hualikwa kushiriki,
Ikulu wakijilisi, kwa wizi hawashikiki
Kwa wizi hawashikiki.

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Viapo vya utiifu, kwa sasa havistahiki
Wanoapa ni wachafu, tena hawaaminiki,
Biblia misahafu, washikapo unafiki
Washikapo unafiki

Maswali
a) “Dhamira ya shairi hili ni kushtumu ukiukaji wa maadili ya kikazi.” Fafanua. (alama 3)
b) Eleza namna vipengele vifuatavyo vya kimtindo vilivyotumika katika shairi hili.
(i) Usambamba (alama 2)
(ii) Aina za taswira (alama 3)
c) Bainisha toni katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
d) Fafanua mbinu mbili alizotumia mshairi kutosheleza mahitaji ya kiarudhi katika shairi hili.
(alama 4)
e) Ainisha bahari kwa kuzingatia vigezo vifuatavyo; (alama 3)
i. Mpangilio wa vina
ii. Mizani
iii. Mpangilio wa maneno
f) Fafanua muundo wa shairi hili. (alama 3)

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BIOLOGY
231/1
PAPER 1
TIME:2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

231/1

BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1) Write your name and index number and school in the spaces provided above.
2) Sign and write date of the examination in the spaces provided above
3) Answer all the questions in section A and B

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:


QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1-29 80

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SECTION A
1. A young scientist observed a bird laying her eggs in a nest and later the eggs hatched into chicks.
Name three characteristics shown by the chicks that show a chick is a living thing but an egg is not
(3mks)
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2. Which organelles should be abundant in;


i) Skeletal muscle (1mk)
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ii) Palisade tissue (1mk)
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3. A form 1 student was preparing temporary slides in the laboratory, in the course of preparation he
carried out the following processes;
i) Sectioning
ii) Fixation
iii) Staining
State the importance of the above processes (3mks)
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4. Why are lysosomes many in phagocytic cells (2mks)


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5. Differentiate between guttation and transpiration (2mks)

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6. a) Give a reason why xylem vessel should be dead (1mk)


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b)What is the role of lignin in the wall of the xylem vessel (1mk)
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7. Name the disease of the blood characterized by,


a) Abnormally large number of white blood cells (1mk)
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b) Cresent –shaped haemoglobin (1mk)


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8. The chart below is a summary of blood clotting mechanism in a man.

Platelets
Prothrombin

Y X

Thrombin

Z
Fibrinogen

Name;
i) The metal ion represented by Y (1mk)

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ii) The end product of the mechanism represented by Z (1mk)
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9. The graph below represents the growth of animals in a certain phylum. Study it and answer the
questions that follow.

a) Name the type of growth pattern shown on the graph (1mk)


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b) Identify the process represented by letter B (1mk)
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c) Name the hormone responsible for the process in (b) above (1mk)
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10. Explain why a mule is infertile (1mk)


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11. Phylum Arthropoda is the most successful of invertebrates. Explain two characteristics that make
them most successful (2mks)
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12. Name phylum whose members possess a notochord (1mk)

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13. a) Define evolution and homologous structures (2mks)
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b)State three limitations of using fossil records as an evidence that supports organic evolution
(3mks)
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14. The following is part of a kidney nephron

a) i)Name the process represented by the arrows (1mk)


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ii) Name the conditions necessary for the process named in (a) (i) above to take place (1mk)
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b) Identify with a reason vessel A (1mk)
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c) Name any two blood components that are present in vessel (A) but are absent in vessel B (2mks)
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15. The diagrammatic representation below illustrates one of the process that occurs in mammals during
feeding. Carefully study it and answer the following questions

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i) Identify the process (1mk)
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ii) State two structural adaptations of gullet to its functions (2mks)
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iii) Name one enzyme already present in the food bolus within the gullet in man (1mk)
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b) State two functions of mucus secreted by the intestines (2mks)


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16. Explain each of the following;


a) Variegated plants accumulates less food than non-variegated plants under similar conditions.
(2mks)
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b) Most leaves are thin with broad leaf surface (2mks)
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17. State the economic importance of the following plant excretory products (3mks)
a) Papain
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b) Caffein
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c) Colchicine
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18. a) State two processes which occurs during anaphase of mitosis (2mks)
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b)What is the significance of first meiotic division (1mk)


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c)State two ways in which HIV/AIDS is transmitted from mother to child (2mks)
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19. State the function of the following during pregnancy (3mks)


a) Amnion
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b) Amniotic fluid
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c) Umblical cord
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20. Name the process by which;


i) Producers convert sunlight energy into chemical energy (1mk)
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ii) Chemical energy is converted into heat energy by consumers (1mk)
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21. Students from Mpesa foundation academy wanted to investigate the population of crabs in their
school pond. They caught 50 crabs, marked them with white paint on the cephalothorax and then
released them back into the pond. After three days, they came back and caught 50 crabs of which 3
had the white mark.
a) Using the data above, calculate the population of crabs in the pond (2mks)

b) Suggest three assumptions the students made during this study (3mks)
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22. State any two methods that can be used at home to properly manage domestic effluents
(2mks)
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23. a) Explain how the following factors increase the rate of diffusion (3mks)
i) Temperature
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ii) Diffusion gradient
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iii) Size of diffusing particles


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b) Diffusion is a passive process while active transport is an active process. Explain (2mks)
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24. a) Waterlogging in terrestrial plants inhibit uptake of certain mineral ions from the soil by the plants.
Explain (3mks)
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b) State two illustrations of Osmosis in plants (2mks)


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25. The diagram below represents a gill of a fish

i) State two ways in which a large surface area is created in structures labelled K (2mks)
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ii) Name the type of flow system that occurs between water and blood in the capillaries present on
structures K (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Name an organ in human beings that also display the flow system named in (ii) above (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. Identical twins were separated after birth and were then raised in different environments. One in
Kenya and the other in U.S.A. They rejoined after 18 years and they looked slightly different.
i) Name the type of variation the twins exhibited (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give two observable differences likely to be noted between the twins (2mks)
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BIOLOGY
231/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
2) Answer all the questions in Section A in the spaces provided.
3) In section B answer questions 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces
provided
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
B 6 20
7 20
8 20

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TOTAL 80
SECTION A (40MKS)
Answer all the questions in these section
1. Haemophilia is a sex linked characteristic caused by a recessive gene located on one of the sex
chromosomes.
a) Name the chromosome onto which the gene for haemophilia is linked to (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) A normal man for the condition marries a normal woman for the condition but sadly one of their
sons develop this condition from birth.
i) What are the likely genotypes of this couple? (2mks)
Man
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Woman
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Using a punnet square, carry out a cross to show why the couple gave birth to haemophiliac son
(4mks)
Use (H),to represent the gene for normal condition and (h) to represent the gene for haemophilia

iii) Why is this haemophiliac condition very common in males than in female (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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2. The figure below represents an organ obtained from a section of a plant. Use it to answer questions
that follow.

a) i) Name the organ from which the above section was obtained. Give a reason for your answer
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Structure labelled J is described as a mechanical tissue. Explain (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) i) Name the process by which water passes across structure M (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)Explain two ways by which cells with structures Dare adapted to their functions (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Name two strengthening materials that strengthen the collenchyma tissue (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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3. The herbivorous mammalian species were introduced into an ecosystem at the same time and in
equal numbers. The graph below represents their populations during the first seven years. Study the
graph and answer the questions that follow.

a) i) Which species has a better competitive ability (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Give reason for your answer (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Account for the shape of the curve of species A between


i) One year and three years (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Three years and seven years (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) A natural predator for species A was introduced into the ecosystem. With a reason state how the
population of each species would be affected (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. A student from Abogeta secondary set up an experiment as illustrated below.

The visking tubing was left in iodine solution for 4 hours.


a) State the physiological process being investigated (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) i) What were the expected results in the visking tubing and in the beaker (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii)Account for your expected result in visking tubing (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) Mention three factors that influences the rate of active transport (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. An experiment was set up to investigate a factor in autotrophism in green plants.

Vaseline was applied at joint between the cork and the mouth of glass bottle and set up was left under
sunlight for 6 hours.
a) Why was it necessary;
i) To apply Vaseline (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) To cover the pot with polythene paper (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) What was the purpose of including the small animals? Give two reasons. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) i) What would happen to the small animal if the set up was left over night in darkness (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii)Account for the answer in b (i) above (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State the respiratory surface of the following organism (2mks)


i) Amoeba
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Fish
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (40MKS)
Answer question 6 (Compulsory) and choose either question 7 or 8
6. A hungry person had a meal, after which the concentration of glucose and amino acids in the blood
were determined. This was measured hourly as the blood passed through the hepatic portal vein and
the iliac vein in the leg. The results were as shown in the table below.
Time (Hrs) Concentration of contents inConcentration of contents in the iliac
Hepatic portal vein (Mg/100ml) vein of the leg (Mg/100ml)
Glucose Amino acids Glucose Amino acids
0 85 1.0 85 1.0
1 85 1.0 85 1.0
2 140 1.0 125 1.0
3 130 1.5 110 1.5
4 110 1.5 90 3.0
5 90 3.0 90 2.0
6 90 2.0 90 1.0
7 90 1.0 90 1.0
a) Using the same axes draw graphs of concentration of glucose in the hepatic portal vein and the iliac
vein in the leg against time (7mks)

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b) Account for the concentration of glucose in the hepatic portal vein from;
i) 0-1 hour (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) 1-2 hours (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) 2-4 hours (3mks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) 5-7 hours (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Account for the difference in the concentration of glucose in hepatic portal vein and the iliac vein
between 2 and 4 hours (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Using the data provided in the table explain why the concertation of amino acids in the hepatic
portal vein took longer to increase (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. a) Describe the opening and closing of the stomata using the photosynthetic theory (10mks)
b) Describe blood sugar regulations in mammals (10mks)

8. a) Describe the adaptation of the following plants to their habitat;


i) Xerophytes (15mks)
ii) Hydrophytes (5mks)

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BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

CONFIDENTIAL
Each candidate shall require the following
i) 10ml hydrogen peroxide solution
ii) Specimen K (Irish potato)
iii) Mortar and a pestle
iv) Four test tubes
v) Distilled water in a wash bottle
vi) A scalpel
vii) Means of heating (source of heat)
viii) Test tube holder

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BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS
Answer all questions in spaces provided

EXAMINER’S USE
QUESTIONS MAX.MARKS CAND.SCORE
1 9
2 13
3 18
TOTAL 40

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1. Study the organisms below

a) Complete and use the key below to identify the organisms (2mks)
1.a) Organism with endoskeleton…………………………………………………..………………go to 2

1. b) ……………………………………………go to 4
2. a) Has scales on the body ………………………………………………………………………go to 4

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2 b) Has no scales on the body……………………………………………………………….mammalian
3a) Has cephalothorax ………………………………………………………………..………Arachnida
3b) Has no cephalothorax …………………………………………………………………………go to 5

4a) ……………………………………………………….Pisces
4b) Has no fins …………………………………………………………………………………….go to 7
5a) Has three pairs of legs …………………………………………………………………..……..Insect
5b) Has more than three pairs of legs …………………………………………………………….go to 6
6a) Two pairs of legs per segment …………………………………………………………….Diplopoda
6b) One pair of legs per segment …………………………………………….…………………Chilopoda
7a) Has feathers ………………………………………………………….………..……………… Aves
7b) Has no feathers ………………………………………………..……………..………………go to 8
8a) Has a tail ……………………………………………………………………………………..Reptilia
8b) Has no tail ………………………………………………………………………………….Amphibia

b) Identify the organisms above using the completed key above (6mks)
Specimen Steps followed Identity
A ______________________________ _______________________________
B ______________________________ ______________________________
C _______________________________ ______________________________
D _______________________________ ______________________________
E _______________________________ _______________________________
F _______________________________ _______________________________

c) Name the phylum in which specimens C, E and F belong to. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Give three reasons for your answer in (c) above (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Name one feature that is common in organisms B, E and D (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. You are provided with the following;


i) Hydrogen peroxide
ii) Specimen K

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iii) Pestle and mortar
iv) 4 test tubes
v) A scalpel
vi) Source of heat
vii) Test tube holder
Using a scalpel, obtain three peeled cubed from specimen K measuring about 1cm x 1cm x 1cm. For
the first cube, you are required to boil it in water for five minutes. For the second cube, you are
required to crush it into a paste. For the last cube, you are required to use it as it is.
Label three test tubes A, B and C and put 2ml of hydrogen peroxide in each test tube. To test tube A,
add the boiled cube and record your observation.
To test tube B. add the crushed paste and record your observation.
To test tube C, add the unboiled cube remaining and record your observation.
a) Complete the table below (3mks)
Test tube Observation
A

b) Explain your observation in test tube A (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Between test tubes B and C, in which test tube was the volume of foam produced the highest?
Explain (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Apart from temperature, state two other factors that affect the rate of enzyme controlled reactions
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The photographs below shows specimen of different types of fruits. Examine them and answer the
questions that follow.

a) State four differences between specimen P and R (4mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State the types of gynoecium and placentation of specimen P, S and V (4mks)


i) Specimen P Gynoecium ………………………………Placentation …………………………..
ii) Specimen S Gynoecium ……………………………Placentation………………………………
iii) Specimen V Gynoecium ………………………………Placentation …………………………..

c) In the table below name the mode of dispersal for each specimen and the features that adapt the
specimen to its mode of dispersal. (6mks)
Specimen Mode of dispersal Adaptive features
P
Q
R
S
T
v

d) Draw and label a plan diagram of specimen V (4mks)

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CHEMISTRY
233/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided here
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above
(c) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided in the question paper
(d) KNEC Mathematical tables and silent non – programmable electronic calculators may be used.
(e) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY.


QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 - 29 80

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Answer ALL questions
1. A luminous flame produces more light than a non-luminous flame. Explain. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The diagram below was used to electrolyze molten copper (II) chloride using graphite electrodes
at s.t.p.

A
B

Heat
(a) Explain the role of heat on the above set up. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Write equations at electrode A and B. (2mark)
A
B
3. Dry ammonia was passed over heated copper (II) oxide in a combustion tube.
(a) State and explain the observation that was made. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction above. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. (a)Use dots () or crosses (x) to show bonding in the silicon chloride (1mark)

b) Ethanol and dimethylether have both molecular formulae 𝐶2 𝐻6 𝑂. Explain why ethanol 𝐶2 𝐻6 𝑂𝐻
boils at 78.20C and dimethyl ether 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐶𝐻3 has a boiling point -240C. (2 marks)

5. When 17.2 g of hydrated calcium sulphate was heated to a constant mass, 13.6g of the residue was
obtain. Find the value of n in 𝐶𝑎 𝑆𝑂4  𝑛𝐻2 𝑂. (3 marks)
(Ca = 40, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1)

6. In an experiment, ammonium chloride was heated in a boiling tube with a moist red and blue
litmus paper at the mouth of test tube. State and explain the observation made. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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7. Study the chart below and answer the questions that follow.

A Lead (II) White solid


Rock salt Hydrogen
chloride nitrate R

KMnO4

Gas T Iron Solid S

(a) Name reagent used in step A. (1 mark)

(b) Write the ionic equation for formation of white solid R. (1 mark)

(c) Write an equation for formation of solid S. (1 mark)

8. The set-up below was used during the electrolysis of aqueous magnesium sulphate using inert
electrodes.

i) On the diagram label the cathode. (½mark)


ii) Write an equation for the reaction that took place at the cathode. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Explain the change that occurred to the concentration of magnesium sulphate solution during the
experiment. (1½ marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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9. The equation below shows the oxidation of Sulphur (IV) oxide to Sulphur (VI) oxide in the contact
process.
2SO2(g) + O2(g ) 2SO3(g) ∆H = -196kJ/mol-
State and explain the effect on the yield of Sulphur (IV) oxide when:
a) the temperature increased. (1½ marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) the amount of oxygen is increased. (1½marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Dry carbon (II) oxide is passed over heated iron (III) oxide.
a) Name the type of reaction between carbon (II) oxide and iron (III) oxide. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Write an equation for the reaction between carbon (II) oxide and iron (III) oxide (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name a suitable drying agent for carbon (II) oxide (1mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Thermochemical equation for combustion of ethanol is shown below;

C2H5OH (l) + 3 O2 (g) ———> 2 CO2 (g) + 3 H2O (I), AH = - 1337kJmol


(a) Determine the heating value for ethanol? (2 mark)
( C= 12, H = 1, O = 16 )

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(c) Draw the structural formula for 2-methylprop-l-ene {1 mark)

12. a) Define oxidation in terms of electrons (1mark)

b) Determine the oxidation state of (1mark)


i) Suphur in SO3 -2 ion

ii) Phosphorous in PO43- ion (1mark)

13. Labels on acid solutions indicated the following:-


Acid 1 :0.1M, 6.5% ionized
Acid 2 :0. 2M, 1.3% ionized
(a) Identify the strong acid (1 mark)

(b) If 25cm3 of distilled water are added to 50cm 3 of acid 2, what is its new concentration? (2 mark)

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14. When 0.05 mole of magnesium were added to 100cm 3 of dilute hydrochloric acid at 25°C, 25kJ of heat
energy were released. The acid was in excess.
(a) Calculate the highest temperature of the reaction mixture. (2mark)
(specific heat capacity for water is 4.2J/g/ °C, density of the solution is lg/cm3)

(b) Calculate the molar heat of reaction for the reaction below (1 mark}
Mg (s) + 2HCI (aq) ———> MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)

15. Hydrogen sulphide is a highly toxic and flammable gas and is usually prepared in the fume
chamber.
a) Name any two reagents that can be used to prepare hydrogen sulphide in the laboratory. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Hydrogen sulphide could be used to produce sulphur as shown in the equation below:
2H2S (g) + SO2 (g) 3S(s) + 2H2O (l)
In the equation above, identify the reducing agent and give a reason for your answer. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Other than Vulcanization of rubber, identify any other uses of Sulphur. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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16. The following table shows the PH values of solutions A ,B and C
Solution A B C
pH 2 7 11
(a) Which solution is likely to be magnesium chloride? Give a reason. (1mk)

(b) Identify the solution in which a sample of aluminium chloride is likely to be when dissolved in
water. Explain (2mks)

17. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow (The letters do not
represent the actual symbols of the elements)
Ionization Energy_kJ/Mole -1
Element Electronic configuration 1st ionization energy 2nd ionization energy
A 2.2 900 1800
B 2.8.2 736 1450
C 2.8.8.2 590 1150

a) What is ionization energy (1mk)

b) Explain why the 2nd ionization energy is higher than the 1st ionization energy. (1mk)

18. An element K has relative atomic mass of 40.2. It has two isotopes of masses 39 and 42. Calculate
the relative abundance of each isotope. (3mks)

19. Use the diagram below to answer the questions that follow.

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Heat

a) After the experiment has been running for some time, record two major observations made in the
tube. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the dish containing lead (II) oxide. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. a) Name two ores of iron. (1mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give the name of the suitable method used in extracting iron from the ore. (1mk)

21. Name one impurity present in pig iron and state one effect of the impurity in the physical property
of iron. (1mks)

22. The table below gives two samples of mixtures. Study the table and answer the questions that
follow
Mixture 1 components Mixture 2 components
Silver Chloride Iron (III) Chloride
Lead Chloride 1ron (III) Oxide
water -

a) State the main property that makes components of Mixture 1 separable (1mk)

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b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a simple laboratory set up which can be used to separate the
components of Mixture 2 (2mks)

23. a) What name is given to group one elements ? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain why there is a general increase in the atomic radii of the elements down a group
of the periodic table. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. Study the flow chart below and answer the question that follows.
Solid J
Excess
PbO 1. Warm J
Heat
2.Filter strongly
White
3. Cool Filtrate solid

Solution G

G Brown gas +
gas K

Identify: (3mks)

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a) Solution G
b) Solid J
c) Gas K

25. Draw and name structural formulae of two isomers whose molecular formula is C4H10. (3mks)

26. The concentration of a solution of aluminium sulphate is 0.02M. How many sulphate ions are
contained in 150 cm3 of the solution? (Avogadro’s constant= 6.0 x 1023) (3 mks)

27. Explain why a solution of hydrogen chloride gas in methylbenzene does not conduct electricity
but solution of the gas in water conduct electricity. (2mks)

28. Nitrogen gas can be obtained from air as shown below.

a) What is the purpose of concentrated potassium hydroxide solution? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) write the equation for the reaction that takes place in the chamber containing copper turnings
(1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) The nitrogen gas obtained above is not pure. Identify one gaseous impurity in the gas. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

29. Radioactive, polonium, 216 Po , decays as shown below:-


84
216 208
Po Pb + M α + n β
84 82
Determine the values of M and N. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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233/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the questions paper.
3. Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
4. All working must be shown where necessary.

For Examiners Use Only


Question Maximum score Candidates score
1 10
2 11
3 14
4 10
5 12
6 11
7 12
TOTAL 80

QUESTIONS

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1. The figure below represents trends of some properties of period three elements. Study it answer the
questions that follow.

a). Explain the trends shown by the atomic numbers and the atomic radii
i). Atomic number (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii). Atomic radii (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b). On the same axes, sketch the trend of reactivity across the period (1mark)
c). Write down the electronic configuration of phosphorous and sulphur in the following compounds
i). H3PO4 (P=15) (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii). Na2S2O3 (S=16) (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d). i). One of the elements given in the figure above is stored under water.
Identify the element and give a reason as to why it is stored under water (1 mark)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii). State one use of aluminium that can be associated with its malleability. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e). Explain the observation that would be made if the chloride of Phosphorous is exposed to moist air.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2.a). Sulphur is extracted from sulphur beds below the earth’s surface. Super-heated water is pumped
down a pipe into the sulphur beds.
i. What is super-heated water and how is it obtained? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Why does the water used here have to be superheated, and not use boiling water? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. When molten sulphur is pumped to the surface, it solidifies. Which allotrope of sulphur forms first?
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv. Name the form of sulphur obtained when liquid sulphur is poured into a beaker of cold water
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The diagram below represents a set up that can be used for electrolysis of aqueous copper (II)
sulphate. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

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i. What do you understand by the term inert electrode? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. What is the purpose of the filter funnel? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. Explain what happens to the pH of the:
I. Water in the beaker. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Copper (II) sulphate solution (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv. Write ionic equation for the:
I. Oxidation reaction (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Reduction reaction, in above set up. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. a). (i) Define the term ‘molar enthalpy of formation of a compound; (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Calculate the molar enthalpy of formation of ethane using the following information:

7
C2H6(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l), ∆Hfϴ = -1561 kJ/mole
2

C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) , ∆Hfϴ = -394 kJ/mole

1
H2(g) + O2(g) H2O(l) , ∆Hfϴ= -286 kJ/mole
2

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(3marks)

b) Study the reactions below and answer the questions that follow:

I. State the name given to :


a) ∆H1 ……………………………………………………….(1mark)

b) ∆H2 ………………………………………………………(1mark)

II. Draw an energy cycle diagram illustrating the reactions above. (2marks)

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III. Determine the value of H4 (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

IV.Joy placed 100cm3 of 0.1M CuSO4(aq) in a plastic beaker , covered it with some cotton wool and
recorded its initial temperature. She then added excess zinc powder to the solution and stirred it
using a stirrer. She noted down the following data:
Initial temperature 20.5oC
Final temperature 30.0oC
Density of solution 1.0g/cm3
Specific heat capacity of water 4200J/kg/k
i. Apart from the temperature rise, state one other observation made while she was stirring. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Calculate the heat change for the reaction above (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. Determine the number of moles of ions of copper reacting (1mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv. Hence, determine the molar enthalpy of the reaction. (1mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. a) An experiment was set up to investigate the effect of temperature on the rate of

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reaction between 1.0g calcium carbonate and excess hydrochloric acid. The temperature was varied
0 0 0
from15 C, 20 C and 25 C; and data obtained for the 3 sets of reagents.
i) Sketch a graph of volume of carbon (IV) oxide gas produced against time for each temperature on
the axes below. Label each graph with corresponding temperature. Consider all gas volumes
measured at same temperature and pressure. (2 marks)

ii) Explain the shape of graphs you’ve drawn in (a) above. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) In an experiment, equal amounts of magnesium powder were placed into test tube 1 and 2 as shown
below.

i) Explain why the magnesium powder in test tube 2 gets used up faster than that in test tube 1. (3 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Other than concentration, state one factor that affects the rate of a reaction. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Consider the equilibrium of the reaction below


A(g) + B(g) D(I) + E(g); DH = -ve.
In which direction will the equilibrium position shift as a result of each of the following changes?
Explain.
i) Raising the temperature (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Reducing the volume of the container. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5.(a)Work out the oxidation number of nitrogen in 𝑁𝑂3− ? (1 mark)

(b) Study the standard electrode potentials below and answer the questions that follow. (The letters
do not represent the actual symbols of the elements.
𝐴+ (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑒 − 𝐴(𝑠) 𝐸 𝜗 = −2.92𝑉
𝐵+ (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑒 − 𝐵(𝑠) 𝐸 𝜗 = +0.52𝑉
1
𝐶 + (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑒 − 𝐶2(𝑔) 𝐸 𝜗 = 0.00𝑉
2
1
𝐷2(𝑔) + 𝑒 − 𝐷 − (𝑎𝑞) 𝐸 𝜗 = +1.36𝑉
2

𝐸 2+ (𝑎𝑞) + 2𝑒 − 𝐸(𝑠) 𝐸 𝜗 = −0.44𝑉


(i)With reasons, identify the;
I Strongest reducing agent. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II the reference electrode. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii)Write the overall equation for the reaction that will be obtained when half cells of B and E are
connected. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) Explain whether the reaction represented below can take place. (2 marks)
2𝐴+ (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐸(𝑠) 2𝐴(𝑠) + 𝐸 2+ (𝑎𝑞)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(v) Draw the cell diagram obtained when the half cells in (ii) are combined. (2 marks)

(c)In an experiment to electroplate a copper spoon with silver, a current of 0.5A was passed for 18
minutes.
(i) Sketch a diagram to show how the experiment was carried out. (2 marks)

(ii) Calculate the amount of silver deposited on the spoon. (IF = 96500C, Ag = 108) (2 marks)

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6. The process of extraction of Aluminium is summarized as below:

Residue

Step I
Ore X Substance Molten
Q Solution Step II Aluminium Step III Molten
Aluminium
R Oxide Oxide Aluminium

Substance S

(a) (i) Write the formula of the main Ore X which is used in extraction of
Aluminium. (1 mark)
(ii) Name:
(a) The main residue formed after filtration in step I. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Substance Q. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) How is the sodium Aluminate in Solution R separated from the impurity silicon (iv) oxide.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) What is the purpose of addition of substance S in step III. Explain. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) (iExplain why the Anode in extraction of Aluminium is replaced periodically. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Write an equation for the formation of Aluminium at the cathode. (1 mark)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Explain why Duralum an alloy of Aluminium is used in construction of aircraft parts and car
window frames. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7.(a) Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

A Long chain Ethanol


alkane CH3CH2OH

Step II H2(g) Ni(s) Step 1 Step VI

C
CH2 = CH2 Step V
Polymerize

Step III HCl(g) Step IV

B CO2(g) +
H2O(l)

(i) Name the process taking place in step (I). (1mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Describe a chemical test that can be carried out to show the identity of organic compound A.
(2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Give the name of the following: (2marks)


I. A:…………………………………………………………………………………

II. B:…………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) Give the structural formulae of substance C. (1mark)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(v) Name the type of reaction that occurs in:


I. Step IV (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………
II. Step VI:
……………………………………………………………………………………

(vi) Give the reagent and the condition necessary for step VI. (2marks)

Reagent: ………………………………………………………………………………………

Condition: ……………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give the systematic names of the following compounds:
I. CH2CHCHCH2CH3 (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
II. CH C CH3 (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………

This is the last printed page

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CHEMISTRY
233/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOL
(CONFIDENTIAL)
In addition to the equipment and fittings found in a chemistry laboratory. Each candidate should be
provided with;
1. Solid A 5.0g measured accurately ii) Sodium sulphate solution (NaSO4)
2. About 80cm3 of solution B iii) Ammonia solution 2m
3. About 0.5g solid C
iv) 2m Sodium Hydroxide
4. About 10cm3 of liquid D
5. A thermometer (-10-1100C) v) Lead Nitrate solution
6. A burette vi) Barium Nitrate solution
7. A complete retort stand
vii) Acidified potassium manganite (VII) solution
8. A pipette and a pipette filler
9. 2 conical flasks viii) Bromine water
10. A 250ml volumetric flask ix) Acidified potassium dichromate(VI) solution
11. One boiling tube
12. Five (5) test tubes
13. 0.5g sodium hydrogen carbonate NB:i) Solid A is 5.0g of oxalic acid (COOH)2
14. Two labels 2H2O
ii) Solution B is Kmno4
ACCESS TO: iii) Solid C is magnesium chloride MgCl2
i) Means of heating (Tripond stand and wire iv) Liquid D is absolute ethanol
gauze)

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PREPARATIONS
i) Solution B is made by dissolving 20g of solid Kmno4 in 200cm3 of 2.0m H2SO4 and toping to
1000cm3 by distilled water.
ii) Sodium Hydroxide is prepared by dissolving 80g of NaOH pellets in 600cm3 of distilled water and
top to 1000cm3 with distilled water.
iii) Ammonia solution is prepared by dissolving 150ml of conc ammonia to 600cm3 of distilled water
then top to the mark.
iv) Barium Nitrate is prepared by dissolving 26g of solid Barium Nitrate in 600cm3 of water then
topping to 1000cm3 with distilled water.
v) Lead nitrate is prepared by dissolving 30g of solid Lead Nitrate in 600cm3 of water then topping to
1000cm3 with distilled water.
vi) Sodium Sulphate is prepared by dissolving 14.2g of solid sodium sulphate in 600cm3 of distilled
water then topping up to 1000cm3 with distilled water.
vii) Acidified Kmno4 is prepared by dissolving 3.2g of solid Kmno4 in 200cm3 of 2.0m H2SO4 acid
then topping with distilled water to 1000cm3.
viii) Acidified K2Cr2O7 is prepared by dissolving 25g of solid K2Cr2O7 in 200cm3 of 2.0m H2SO4
then topping to 1000cm3 with distilled water.

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CHEMISTRY
233/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the data of the examination.
c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
d) You are not supposed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of 2¼ hours
allowed for this paper. This time is meant to read through the paper and ensure you have all the
chemicals and apparatus require.
e) All working must be clearly shown
f) KNEC mathematical tables and silent electronic calculations may be used.
g) All questions should be answered in English

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY


QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 21
2 11
3 08
TOTAL SCORE 40

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QUESTION 1
You are provided with:
- Solid A 5.0g (COOH)2·×H2O
- Solution B 0.13M KMnO4
Task
a) You are supposed to determine the solubility of A at different temperatures.
b) Determine the number of moles of water of crystallization in solid A.

PROCEDURE 1
a) Using a burette, add 4cm3 of distilled water to solid A in a boiling tube.
- Head the mixture while stirring with the thermometer to about 800C.
- When the whole solid dissolves, allow the solution to cool while stirring with the thermometer
- Note the temperature at which crystals first appear and record this temperature in the table 1 below.
b) Using a burette add 2cm3more into the content of the boiling tube and warm until the solid dissolve.
- Remove from the flame and allow the solution to cool in air while stirring.
- Record the temperature at which crystal first appear in table 1.
- Repeat procedure (b) 3 more times and complete table 1 below.
- Retain the content of the boiling tube for procedure II

TABLE 1
Volume of water in theTemperature at which crystals ofSolubility o solid A g/100g of
boiling tube (cm3) solid A appear (0C) water
4
6
8
10
12

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I. a) Draw a graph of solubility of solid A (vertical axis) against temperature (3mks)

b) From your graph determine the solubility of solid A at 600C (1mk)

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PROCEDURE II
a) – Transfer the contents of the boiling tube into a 250ml volumetric flask.
- Add distilled water up to the mark
- Label this solution A
b) – Using a clean pipette and a pipette filler, transfer 25ml of solution A into a conical flask.
- Warm the mixture up to 600C
- Fill a burette with solution B
- Titrate B against the hot solution A until a permanent pink colour persist
- Read your results in Table 2 below
c) Repeat (b) 2 more times are record your results in the table 2 below.
TABLE 2
I II III
FINAL BURETTE READING
INITIAL BURETTE READING
VOLUME OF SOLUTION B USED (CM3)
II) a) Calculate the average volume of solution B used (1mk)

b) Calculate the number of moles of B used (1mk)

c) Given 2 moles of Kmno4 react with 5 moles of A, calculate the number of moles of A in 25cm3
(1mk)

d) Calculate the molarity of A (1mk)

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e) Determine the molar mass of A (1mk)

f) Determine the value of X (C=12, O=16 H=1) (1mk)

QUESTION 2
You are provided with solid C. Use it to carry the test below.
Dissolve the whole of C into 10cm3 of water and divide it into five portions.
a) To the 1st portion add sodium sulphate solution.
Observations Inferences

(1mk) (1½mks)

b) To the 2nd portion add Ammonia solution dropwise until in Excess.


Observations Inferences

1mk) 1mk

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c) To the 3rd portion add sodium Hydroxide dropwise until in Excess.
Observations Inferences

(1mk) (1mk)

d) To the forth portion add Lead (II) Nitrate solution


Observations Inferences

(½mk) (2mks)

e)To the last portion add Barium Nitrate solution


Observations Inferences

(1mk) (1mk)

QUESTION 3

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You are provided with liquid D use it to carry the test below.
Divide liquid D into four equal portions
a) To the 1st portion add sodium hydrogen carbonate
Observations Inferences

(1mk) (1mk)

b) To the 2nd portion add acidified potassium manganite (VII) (KmnO4)


Observations Inferences

(1mk) (1mk)

c) To the 3rd portion add Bromine water


Observations Inferences

(1mk) (1mk)

d) To the last portion add potassium dichromate(VI) and warm.

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Observations Inferences

(1mk) (1mk)

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232/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:-
 Write your Name, Index number, Admission number and school in the spaces provided above.
 This paper consists of two sections; A and B
 Answer all the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
 All working must be clearly shown.
 Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used
 Take the earth’s gravitational field strength g = 10 m/s2.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:


SECTION QUESTION TOTAL SCORE CANDIDATES
SCORE
A 1 – 11 25
B 12 11
13 12
14 12
15 10
16 10
TOTAL 80

SECTION A (25 MARKS)


Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.

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1. The figure below shows part of scales of a vernier caliper with a negative error of 0.04cm. It was
used to measure the length of a wooden block whose actual length is 7.57cm.
7cm 8cm

Insert the vernier scale to show how the reading was. (3mks)

2.
a) The figure below shows two pins of the same mass and both pressed into a soft board by equal
amount of force.

A
B

Soft board

State and explain which pin penetrates the least into the soft board. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) The figure below shows a uniform manometer that is closed at one end.

Trapped air

58cm
Water

20cm

Mercury

Determine the pressure of the trapped air. (Take atmospheric pressure as 75cmHg, density of mercury
= 13600kg/m3 and density of water = 1000 kg/m3) (3mks)

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𝟏
3. The displacement S of a body at time t moving with acceleration a is given by 𝑺 = 𝒖𝒕 + 𝒂𝒕𝟐 .
𝟐

State the condition for this equation to apply. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The figure below shows a sketch of a velocity-time graph for a body falling through a liquid.

C D

Velocity

Time

Explain the motion between C and D. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Using the kinetic theory of gases, explain how an increase in temperature causes increase in
pressure of an enclosed gas. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. A dripless candle is lit and placed on a level bench as shown.

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State and explain the changes in stability of the candle as it continues to burn. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Give a reason why diffusion is an evidence that matter is made up of tiny particles. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Explain the cause of surface tension on the surface of a liquid. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. A metal block is weighed in air and then in paraffin and water as shown in the Figure below.

Calculate the density of paraffin given that the density of water is 1000kg/m3.
(Take g = 10 m/s2 ) (3mks)

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10. The figure below shows two sheets of paper tolled into tubes. one has holes on it.

A B

A stream of air is blown into each tube as shown. State with reason the tube that collapses. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Differentiate between conduction and convection modes of heat transfer in terms of molecules.
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (55 MARKS)


Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.

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12.
a) A form Two student wanted to carry out an experiment to verify Hooke’s law. the student
assembled the apparatus as shown.

Spring
Metre rule

Mass

If the student had access to several other masses;


i. State what was missing in the set up. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Outline how the extension of the above spring is determined. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. Other than extension of the spring, state one other measurement that should be determined. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv. Considering the measurements above, describe how the above set up can be used to verify
Hooke’s law. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Three identical springs are joined together as shown below to support a mass of 150g.

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150g

Assuming that the springs have negligible weight and if the total weight of the above set up is 3cm,
Determine the spring constant of one spring used in the set up. (3mks)

13. The diagram below shows a wheelbarrow used to raise a 90kg sack of potatoes. The wheelbarrow
has a mass of 20kg.

60cm 20cm

a) Using the principle of moments, determine the effort that need to be applied at F in order to lift
the load. (3mks)

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b) What is the velocity ratio of the wheelbarrow? (3mks)

c) Determine the mechanical advantage of this machine. (2mks)

d) Determine the efficiency of the machine. (3mks)

e) Why is the efficiency of this particular machine less than 100%? (1mk)

14.

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a) The diagram below shows a set up that is used in determining the upper fixed point of a
thermometer.

Upper fixed point Steam exit

Steam

Boiling water

Heat

i. Identify the mistake in the set up. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Explain how the mistake would affect the value obtained as the upper fixed point. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. What is the purpose of the steam exit. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) When marking the fixed points of a thermometer, it is observed that at 00C, the mercury thread is
of length 3cm and 11cm at 1000C. What would be the length of the thread if the bulb of the
thermometer is dipped in oil whose temperature is 800C? (2mks)

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c) The graphs below show the cooling curves obtained when water at 800C was poured into two
identical cans A and B painted silverly and black on their outside respectively.

800C

Temperature 0C

Tx

Time (min)

i. On the graph, name the curve TB for the can B. (1mk)


ii. Identify the temperature Tx. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. Name the mode of heart of heat Transfer tested above. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv. Apart from length of the material and its cross section area, name two other factors on
which conduction depends. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

v. Why are gases generally poor conductors of heat? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15.
a) Define specific latent heat of fusion of ice. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) Ice cube of mass m at 00 float in water of mass 100 𝑔 at 00 contained in a copper calorimeter of
mass 50𝑔. Steam of mass 60𝑔 at 1000 is passed through the mixture until a temperature 400 is
attained. (Specific latent heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 × 106 𝐽/𝑘𝑔, specific latent heat of
fusion of ice is 3.34 × 105 𝐽/𝑘𝑔, specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 × 103 𝐽/𝑘𝑔/K and specific
heat capacity of copper is 400 𝐽/𝑘𝑔/K).
Determine the;
i. Quantity of heat lost by steam to condense to water and cool to 400. (3 mks)

ii. Quantity of heat absorbed by ice, water and calorimeter to raise its temperature to 400. (3 mks)

iii. Mass m of ice that melted at 00. (3 mks)

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16.
a) The moon goes round the earth at constant speed. Explain why it is true to say that the moon is
accelerating. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) A string of negligible mass has a bucket tied at the end. The string is 60m long and the bucket has
a mass of 45g. The bucket is swung horizontally making 6 revolutions per second. Calculate the
centripetal acceleration of the bucket. (3mks)

c) The figure below shows a body of mass m = 200g attached to the centre of a rotating table with a
string. The radius of the string was varied and different values of angular velocity recorded. the
mass of the body remained constant throughout the experiment.

Direction of
rotation

String

The results obtained for angular velocity and radius were used to plot the following graph.

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From the above graph.
i. Calculate the value of the slope. (2mks)

𝟏 𝑷 𝟏
ii. If 𝝎𝟐 𝒂𝒏𝒅 are related by the equation 𝝎𝟐 = × , find the value of P. (3mks)
𝒓 𝒓 𝒎

iii. State the significance of P. (1mk)

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PHYSICS
232/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:-
 Write your Name, Index number, Admission number and school in the spaces provided above.
 This paper consists of two sections; A and B
 Answer all the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
 All working must be clearly shown.
 Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
 Take the earth’s gravitational field strength g = 10 m/s2.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:


SECTION QUESTION TOTAL SCORE CANDIDATES
SCORE
A 1 – 12 25
B 13 10
14 9
15 8
16 9
17 9
18 10
TOTAL 80

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. The diagram below shows two parallel mirrors M1 and M2 and a ray of light being incident on one
of the mirrors as shown.

M1

20° M
2

Trace the ray of light through the mirrors and indicate the angle of incidence on M1 (2 mks)

2. Two pins are hanging from a magnet as shown in the diagram below.

Explain why the pins spread as shown in the diagram. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. An image I is formed infront of a concave mirror and on the principal axis as shown in the figure
below.

C F

Draw to locate the correct position of how the image is formed.

4. The figure below shows a set up by a student.

Electric buzzer

Steam from
boiling water

State and explain what happens to the sound from the buzzer as the bottle and its contents are
cooled to 0°C. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Arrange the following waves in order of decreasing wavelength. (1mk)


Infrared, X-rays, Microwaves, Radio waves, Red light.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Figure below shows an incomplete circuit of an electromagnet.
Core

A B

Complete the circuit by drawing the windings on the two arms of the core such that A and B are both
North poles when the switch is closed. (1mk)
7. Figure represents a step in charging a material B negatively by induction.

Y
----
X-
A
(i) What is the charge on Y? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Explain what happens at A. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. The graph below shows the variation of p.d. (V) across the terminals of a cell and current drawn
from the cell.

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a) Use the graph to determine the electromotive force (emf) of the cell. (1mk)

b) Draw a circuit diagram that may be used to obtain the values plotted in the graph. (2mk)

9. A vibrator is sending out eight ripples per second across a water tank. The ripples are observed to
be 4cm apart. Calculate the velocity of the ripples. (3mks)

10. The figure below shows part of electric cooker coil.

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y

i. Why is the material labeled Y coiled? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. State the property of material Y that makes it suitable for its use. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. An immersion heater rated 1500W is used continuously for 30 minutes per hour per day.
Calculate the cost of electricity per week if the rate is Ksh. 6.70 per unit. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Fig below shows a conductor y placed in a magnetic field. The conductor carries a current flowing
into the paper.

N S

(i) Sketch the resultant magnetic field between the poles of the bar-magnet. (1mk)
(ii) Show on the diagram the direction of the force, F acting on the conductor (1mk)

SECTION B (55 MARKS)


Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
13.

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a) Figure below shows the path of light through a transparent material placed in air.
Air

1400

Transparent material
Ray of light.

i. Give a reason why the above ray is not refracted at the interface of air and the transparent
material as shown in the diagram. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Calculate the refractive index of the transparent material. (3mks)

b) An image is formed 10cm in front of a concave lens of focal length 15cm. calculate the position
of the object in respect to the lens. (3mks)

c) You are provided with the following apparatus to determine the focal length of a lens.
 A lit candle.
 A white screen.
 A metre rule.
With a aid of a labelled diagram, describe the procedure you would follow to determine the focal
length of the lens. (3mks)

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14.
a) The figure below shows metal plates X and Y each fixed to an insulated stand. X is charged and Y
is earthed. X is connected to an uncharged electroscope with a conductor.
d

If plate Y is moved away from plate X,


i. State what happens to the amount of charge on the plates. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. State and explain the observation made. (3mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The figure below shows an arrangement of capacitors connected to a 12V dc supply.

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12V

1μF 3μF 4μF

Determine:
i. The total capacitance of the arrangement. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. The voltage across the 3μF capacitor. (3mks)

15.
a) The figure below shows an attempt to supply each of the three lamps L1, L2 and L3 with a
switch.
S1 S2 S3

To the mains
L1 L2 L3

i. Give a reason why this is a poor connection. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ii. Redraw the diagram to show the correct positioning of the switches. (1mk)

b) A wire placed between the pole of two permanent magnets is connected to a galvanometer as
shown below.

N Wire

i. State what is observed when the wire is moved up and down. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Suggest two ways of increasing the magnitude of the effect you have stated in (i) above.(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. The figure below shows a simple transformer. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

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Primary coil Secondary coil

Soft iron core

State and explain which coils are thicker. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16.
a) The figure below shows Zinc plate placed on the cap of a negatively charged electroscope.

Ultra violet radiation

Zinc plate

Ultraviolet radiation is made to fall on the plate as shown on the diagram.


i. What happens to the leaf of the electroscope? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. What would happen if radiation was red light? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) In an experiment to find the relationship between frequency of a radiation and kinetic energy of
the photoelectrons in a photoelectric device, the following graph was obtained.

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(Hz)

Use the graph to determine the Planck’s constant h. (3mks)

c) Figure below shows the features of an X-ray tube.

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P

D G

Oil in

Oil out

Y
Copper fins

A B
C x-rays

i. Explain the function of part labelled P. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Explain why the part labelled C gets very hot during production of X-rays. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. Explain what is done to produce X-rays of shorter wavelength using the above X-ray tube.
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17.

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a) The figure below shows monochromatic source of light L behind a barrier with a single slit S
placed behind another barrier with two identical slits S1 and S2. A screen PQ is placed in position
as shown.
P

L S1

S2

i) What is the significance of S1 and S2? (1 mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Explain what is observed on screen PQ. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Waves pass from deep water to shallow water and refraction occurs.

Calculate the speed of the waves in the shallow water. (2 mks)

c) The figure below shows an a.c. signal on the screen of a Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.

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Determine the frequency of the signal given that the time base is set at 10ms/division. (2mks)

d) Diagram (a) below shows the position of the bright spot on the screen of a C.R.O. when there is
no signal on both Y and X plates.

(a)

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Indicate on the diagram (b) below what is observed on the display screen when the Y-plate is
connected to a.c. signal and for (c) when X-plate is connected to a d.c. signal. (2mks)

(b) (c)

18.
a) The following reaction is part of a radioactive series.
𝑟 𝛼
210 210
83𝑋 →→→ 84𝑌 →→→ 𝑏𝑐𝑍
i. Identify the radiation r. (1mk)

ii. Determine the value of c. (1mk)

b) At a certain instant the corrected count-rate registered on a detector placed close to an α-particle
emitter is 200 per second and this falls to 50 per second in 12 minutes. Determine the half life of
the source. (3mks)

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c) Study the rectification circuit below and use it to answer questions that follow.

X Y
R
a.c

Q
D2

i. Briefly explain how the circuit works to rectify the alternating current. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Show on the diagram how a capacitor should be connected to smooth the output voltage. (1mk)

iii. In the grid provided, sketch a curve of smoothed output voltage against time. (1mk)
Voltage (V)

Time (s)

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PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

CONFIDENTIAL
Question 1 Question 2
 A carbon resistor labelled X (10Ω)  Metre rule.
 A carbon resistor labelled Z (10kΩ)  Screen
 A voltmeter (0 – 5V)  Glass beaker (250ml)

 An ammeter (0 – 1A)  Water

 5 10Ω carbon resistors (unlabelled)  Plasticine.

 Centre zero galvanometer.  A candle.


 Vernier calipers. (can be shared)
 2 new dry cells - size D
 Micrometer screw gauge (can be shared)
 Cell holder.
 Boiling tube.
 8 connecting wires at least 4 with crocodile
 Test tube.
clips at one end.
 Some water in a beaker
 Jockey
 Half metre rule.
 A resistance wire labelled AB (A at
 2 ball bearings. (size ¼’’)
0)mounted on mm scale. (diameter 0.29mm)
 Some sand.
 A switch.
 Spatula
 Complete retort stand.

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PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:-
 Write your name, index number and school in the spaces provided above.
 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided above.
 You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hours allowed for this paper reading the
whole paper carefully before commencing your work
 Marks are given for a clear record of the observations actually made their suitability, accuracy
and the use made of them.
 Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
 Non- programmable silent calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used.

QUESTION PART MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 A 05

B 15

2 A 10

B 10

40

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QUESTION 1
You are provided with the following apparatus;
 A carbon resistor labelled X .
 A carbon resistor labelled Z
 A voltmeter (0 – 5V)
 An ammeter (0 – 1A)
 5 10Ω carbon resistors.
 Centre zero galvanometer.
 2 new dry cells and cell holder.
 8 connecting wires at least 4 with crocodile clips at one end.
 Jockey
 A resistance wire labelled AB mounted on mm scale.
 A switch.
PART A
a) Set up the circuit below.

V
A

X
b) Record the voltmeter reading E when the switch is open.
E = …………………………………………………………….V (1mk)
c) Close the switch and record the voltmeter and Ammeter readings V and I respectively.
V = ………………………………………………………….V (1mk)
I = …………………………………………………………..A (1mk)

d) Account for the difference between E and V. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Calculate the resistance R for resistor X. (1mk)

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PART B
a) Set up the circuit as shown in the figure below.

10Ω Z

A B
P
a

b) Close the switch. Tap the jockey at various points on the wire AB and locate point P at which the
galvanometer shows zero deflection. Measure and record in the table below the length a where a
= AP.
c) Repeat procedure b) using two 10Ω resistors in series, then three resistors in series, then four
resistors in series and five resistors in series.
d) Record your readings in the table below and complete the table where X is the effective resistance
for the series combination. (5mks)

Number of 10Ω carbon One Two Three Four Five


resistors
X (Ω)

a (cm)

1
/X (Ω-1)

1
/a (cm-1)

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e) Plot a graph of 1/a (cm-1) against 1/X (Ω-1) (5mks)

f) Determine the slope m of the graph. (3mks)

𝟏 𝑹 𝟏 𝟏
g) Given that 𝒂 = 𝑲 . 𝑿 + 𝑲 where K = 100cm, use the graph to determine R. (2mks)

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QUESTION B
PART A
You are provided with the following;
 Metre rule.
 Screen
 Glass beaker (250ml)
 Water plasticine.
 A candle.
Proceed as follows;
a) Add a volume V= 200ml of water into the beaker.
b) Measure the value of h, the height of water in the beaker.
h = ………………………………………………cm (1mk)
𝑽
c) Calculate the value of internal radius R of the beaker using the formula 𝑹 = √𝝅𝒉 where π=22/7

(2mks)
R = ………………………………………………
d) Fill the beaker with water and set the apparatus as shown below.
Water
Screen
Candle
Plasticine h

x y

e) Position the candle which acts as an object above the metre rule and 10R from the centre of the
water ‘lens’.
f) Measure the object distance x. (1mk)
x = …………………………………………………………….cm

g) Move the screen towards or away from the water lens to obtain a sharp and focused bright image
(line) on the screen.
h) Measure the value of image distance y. (1mk)
y = ………………………………………………………..cm

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i) Repeat the experiment for the other values of x in the table below and note and record the
corresponding values of y. Complete the table.
Beaker position 10R 9R 8R
x
y
𝒙𝒚
𝑺=
𝒙+𝒚
I. Determine the average value of S. (2mks)

II. What does S represent. (1mk)

PART B
You are provided with the following;
 Vernier calipers. (can be shared)
 Micrometer screw gauge (can be shared)
 Boiling tube.
 Test tube.
 Some water in a beaker
 Half metre rule.
 2 ball bearings.
 Some sand.
 Spatula
 Complete retort stand.
i. Measure and record the diameter of one ball bearing using the micrometer screw gauge.
d = ……………………………………………mm (1/2mk)

ii. Determine the volume V of the ball bearing. (1mk)

V = …………………………………………………..cm3

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iii. Measure and record the outer diameter D of the test tube using the vernier calipers.
D = ………………………………………………….. (1/2mk)
iv. Calculate the cross-sectional area A of the tube. (1mk)

A …………………………………………………….cm2
v. Mount the boiling tube on the clamp as shown below and put some water to a height of about
8.5cm from bottom.

Boiling tube

8.5cm

Water

vi. Gently lower the test tube into the water in the boiling tube.
vii. Add some sand into the test tube bit by bit until the test tube floats upright in the water.
viii. Note and record height ho of the water in the boiling tube from the bottom.
ho = …………………………………………………cm (1mk)
ix. Gently lower one ball bearing into the test tube and note and record the new level h in the table
below.
x. Add the other ball bearing and note and record the corresponding height h.
xi. Compute the values of h- ho and complete the table. (2mks)
No. of ball bearings (N) Height h (cm) h – ho (cm)
1

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𝐡 – 𝐡𝐨
xii. Calculate S the average value of X where 𝑿 = (1mk)
𝑵

𝐕𝓵𝐬
xiii. Given that 𝐒=
𝐀𝓵𝐞

where ℓs is the density of steel and ℓe the density of water, determine the ratio of
𝓵𝐬
(2mks)
𝓵𝐞

𝓵𝐬
xiv. What is the significance of the ratio
𝓵𝐞

(1mk)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE!

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MATHEMATICS
121/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of two sections, section I and section II.
d) Answer all the questions in section I and only five questions from section II.
e) All answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
f) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below
each question.
g) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
h) Non- programmable silent calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used except
where stated otherwise.
i)
SECTION 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

SECTION 2
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 GRAND
TOTAL

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SECTION I (50Mrks)
Answer ALL the Questions in the section
1. Evaluate: 3mks
1 3 1
2 𝑜𝑓 1 − 5
2 4 4
2 1 3
1 + 2(1 − 2 )
5 4 4

2. An electrician made a loss of 30% by selling a multi plug at Sh. 1400. What profit would he have
made if he sold the multi plug at sh 2300. 3mks

12𝑥 4 𝑦 −1 𝑧 5
3. Simplify √ 2mks
3𝑥 −2 𝑦 −3 𝑧 3

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4. Solve the following inequalities and represent the solutions on a number line
X + 1≤ 4x – 5< 3x + 2

5. The figure below shows a net of a solid.


Sketch the solid of the net showing the hidden edges with broken lines. 2mks

a. Find the surface area of the solid. 2mks

6. Determine the quartile deviation for the following distribution. 3mks


3,4,9,5,4,7,6,2,1,6,7,8,9

7. Given that 23/2x = 4096, find the value of x 2mks

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8. It would take 15men 8days to dig a trench of 240m long. Find how many days it would take
18men to dig a trench 360meters long working at the same rate. 3mks

9. Use logarithms to evaluate. 4mks


3 0.921 𝑥 0.00739

0.023

10. A regular polygon is such that its exterior angle is one eighth the size of interior angle. Find the
number of sides of the polygon. 3mks

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𝑥−1
11. A translation vector ( ) maps a point A(4,6) onto AI(9,12). Find the value of x and y.
2−𝑦
3mks

12. A Canadian tourist arrived in Nairobi with Canadian dollars 6200. She converted all his money
into Kenya Shillings and then spent a total of Kshs. 100,000. She paid her Kenyan tour guide a
commission equivalent to 20% of the remainder. Given that 1 canadian dollar = Ksh. 48.12.
calculate
A. How much she got in kenya shillings after converting all her money. 1mk

B. The amount of kenya shillings she was left with at the end. 2mks

13. In the figure below <A=62°, <B = 42°, BC = 8.4cm and CN is a bisector of angle ACB. Calculate
to 1dp the length of CN. 3mks

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14. A father is now four times as old as his son. Five years ago, he was exactly one year and half
times as old as his son will be in ten years from now. Determine the sum of their present ages.
4mks

15. An arc length of 11cm subtends an angle of 140° at the circle. Find the area of the enclosed sector.
4mks

16. Factorize and simplify the expression. 3mks


2
𝑥 + 6𝑥 + 9
𝑥2 − 9

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SECTION II (50 marks)
Answer any FIVE questions from this section
17. The triangle ABC with coordinates A(2,3), B(4,2) and C(1,1) is mapped onto triangle A1B1C1 by a
reflection in the line y + x = 0.
a. (i) Draw triangle ABC and its image A1B1C1on the same plane. 3mks

(ii) Triangle A1B1C1 is mapped onto A11B11C11 by a transformation represented by the matrix.
0 1
( )
−1 0

Draw triangle A11B11C11 and describe fully a single transformation that maps triangle ABC onto
triangle A11B11C11 4mks

b. Triangle ABC is mapped onto xyz with A being mapped onto x, B onto Y and C onto Z. given
that the coordinates of x is (-4,3), Y is (0,2) and Z is (-1,1), find the matrix representing the
transformation. 3mks

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18. A lorry left town A for B at 6.50pm at an average speed of 60km/h. at 8.35pm, a car left tow A for
B at an average speed of 90km/h. if A is 317km from B. determine:
a. The distance of the lorry from town A when the car took off. 3mks

b. The distance the car travelled to catch up with the lorry. 4mks

c. What time of the day did the car catch up with the lorry? Give your answer in 24hrs system.
3mks

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19. Three ships X, Y and Z are approaching a habour H. X is 150km from the habour on a bearing of
O90°. Y is 130km from the habour on a bearing of 130°E and Z is 180km to the west of Y.
a) Taking a scale of 1cm to represent 20km, make a scale drawing of the routes of the three ships to
the habour. 2mks

b) What is the distance between ships X and Z? 2mks

c) Find the bearing of H from Z. 2mks

d) If ship Y is travelling at a speed of 50km/h how long will it take to reach the harbor. 2mks

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20. The figure below shows a triangle OAB with O as the origin. OA=a OB = b, OM 2/5a and ON =
2/3b.

a) Express in terms of a and b the vectors


(i) BM 1mk

(ii) AN 1mk

b) Vector OX can be expressed in two ways: OB + KBM or OA + hAN, where K and h are
constants.
Express OX in terms of:
i. a, b and k. 2mks

ii. a, b and h. 2mks

c) find the valuesof k and h. 4mks

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21. in a certain meeting, there were 95men in attendance. There were 50 more women than men and
twice as many children as men.
a. Determine the number of people in attendance. 2mks

b. Find the percentage of children in attendance, correct to 3 significant figures. 2mks

c. A hall for the meeting was fitted with benches that could accommodate eighher 10 children or 7
adults per bench.
Find the number of benches
i. Used by the children 2mks

ii. Completely filled by the adults. 2mks

iii. Adults who would fill the unoccupied space. 2mks

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22. a) The point A(-2, 4) and B(3,-6) lies on a straight line AB, find
(i) the equation of the line perpendicular to AB and passing through A 3mks

(ii) The equation of the line parallel to AB and passing through the point. (3,-1). 3mks

b) The points A and B are translated by a vector


2
M = ( ). Find
−1
(i) the images of A and B. 2mks

(ii) the equation of the line passing through A1 and B1 the images of A and B respectively. 2mks

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23. The figure below represents a solid made up of a conical frustum and a hemispherical top. The
slant height of the frustum is 8cm and its base radius is 4.2cm.

4.2cm
If the radius of the hemispherical top is 3.5cm
a. Find the area of:
i. The circular base 2mks

ii. The curved surface area of frustum. 4mks

iii. The hemispherical surface 2mks

b. A similar solid has a total surface area of 81.5cm2. determine the radius of the base. 2mks

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24. Using a ruler and a pair of compasses, construct parallelogram ABCD such that AB = 8cm,
diagonal AC = 12cm and angle BAC = 22.5° 4mks

a) Measure (i) The diagonal BD 1mk

(ii) The angle ABC 1mk

b) Draw the circumference of triangle ABC 2mks

c) Calculate the area of the circle drawn 2mks

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MATHEMATICS
121/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of two sections, section I and section II.
d) Answer all the questions in section I and only five questions from section II.
e) All answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
f) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below
each question.
g) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
h) Non- programmable silent calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used except
where stated otherwise.
i)
SECTION 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

SECTION 2
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 GRAND
TOTAL

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SECTION I (50Mks)
Attempt ALL Questions from this section
1. Make x the subject of the formula 3mks
P = x + 2w
4x + 3R

2. P varies partly as the square of v and partly as the cube of v. when V=2, P = -20 and when v = -3,
P=135. Find the relationship between P and v. 3mks

3. Expand (1 + 2x)7 up to x³, hence use the expansion to estimate the value of (1.02)7 correct to four
decimal places. 3mks

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4. Simplify the following by rationalizing the denominator. 3mks
2–1
4 2– 3

5. The diagram below represents a field ABC.

B C

(a) Draw the locus of points equidistant from sides AB and AC 2mks

(b) Draw the locus of points equidistant from points A and C. 2mks

C) A coin is lost within a region which is nearer to point A than to point C and closer to side AC than
to side AB. Shade the region where the coin can be located. 2mks

6. Given x = 13.4cm and y=4.3cm. calculate the percentage error inx/y correct to 4 d.p 3mks

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1 2
7. If matrix A = ( ) Find B given that A² = (A +B). 3mks
4 3

8. In the figure below QT is a tangent to a circle at Q. PXRT and QXS are straight lines. PX = 6cm,
RT = 8cm, QX= 4.8CM

Find the length of


a. XR 2mks

b. QT 2mks

9. A circle whose equation is (x -1)² + (y – k)² = 10 passed through point (2,5). Find the coordinates
of the two possible centresof the circle. 3mks

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10. A blender mixes two brands of juice A and B to obtain 70mls of the mixture worth Ksh. 165 per
litre. If brand A is valued at Kshs. 168 per litre and brand B at Ksh. 153 per litre bottle, calculate
the ration in which the brands A and B are mixed. (2mks)

11. Without using logarithm tables solve the equation log


(5x – 4) = log(x + 2) + 1/3 log 27. 3mks

12. a) Use reciprocal tables to find the value of = 1 / 0.325 1mk

3
√0.000125
b) Hence, evaluate 1mk
0.325

13. The G.C.D of three numbers is 45 and the LCM is 18900. Two of the numbers are 675 and 540.
Find the other possible numbers. 3mks

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14. solve for 𝜃 given that 𝜃 is acute and sin (3𝜃 - 50⁰) – Cos (20 + 10⁰) = 0 3mks

15. A container of height 90cm has a capacity of 4.5L. What is the height of a similar container of
volume 9cm³. 3mks

16. A point R divides a line PQ internally in the ration 3:4. Another point S, divides the line PR
externally in the ratio 5:2. Given that PQ = 8cm, calculate the length of RS, correct to 2 decimal
places. 3mks

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SECTION II (50mrks)
Attempt any FIVE questions from this section
17. Complete the table below for the function
(a) y=x² + 12/x – 15 for 0.5≤ x ≤4
X 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4
y 9.25 -5 -4

(b) Draw the graph of y=x² + 12/x – 15 for 0.5≤x≤4. using a scale of 2cm rep 1 unit on the x – axis and
2cm for 5 units on the y – axis. 3mks

(c) (i) from your graph, state the range of values of x for which y=x² + 12/x ≤ 18 3mks

(ii) By adding a suitable straight line to your graph, solve the equation y = x² + 12/x – 5x + 20.3mks

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18. The product of the first three terms of a geometric progression is 64. If the first term is a and the
common ratio is r.
(a) Express r in terms of a 3mks

(b) Given that the sum of the three terms is 14,


(i) Calculate the values of a and r and hence write down two possible sequences each up to the 4th
term. 5mks

(ii) Find the product of the 50th terms of the two sequences 2mks

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19. The table below shows income tax rates for certain year.
Monthly income in Kenya Shillings (Kshs) Tax rate in each shillings
0 – 10164 10%
10165 – 19740 15%
19740 – 29316 20%
29317 – 38892 25%
Over 38892 30%
A tax relief of Kshs. 1162 per month was allowed. In a certain month of the year, an employee’s
taxable income in the fifth band was Ksh. 2108.
(a) Calculate
i) Employees total income in that month 2mks

ii) The tax payable by the employee in that month. 5mks

(b) The employee’s income includes a house allowance of Ksh. 15,000 per month. The employees
contributed 5% basic salary to a cooperative. Calculate the employee net pay for that month.3mks

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20. The following table shows the distribution of marks obtained by 50 students in a test.
Marks 45-49 50-54 55-59 60-64 65-69 70-74 75-79
No. of 3 9 13 15 5 4 1
Students

By using an assumed mean of 62, calculate


a) The mean 5mks

b) The variance 3mks

c) The standard deviation 2mks

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21. A red and black dice are rolled and the events x, y and z are defined as follows.
X = the red die shows a 4
Y = the sum of the scores of the two dice is 6
Z = the black dice shows a 3

a. Find the probability of event x 2mks

b. The probability of events x and y 3mks

c. Which event is mutually exclusive to x 1mk

d. Which event is independent of x 2mks

e. The probability of event Y 2mks

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22. a) Complete the table below 2mks
X 0 30⁰ 60⁰ 90⁰ 120⁰ 150⁰ 180⁰ 210⁰ 240⁰ 270⁰ 300⁰ 330⁰ 360⁰
- Cos x -1 -0.5 0.5 0.87 0.87 -0.5 0.87
Sin(x-30⁰) 0.0 0.5 0.87 0.5 -0.5 -0.87 -0.5
b) Draw the graphs of y=sin(x-30) and y=-Cos x on the same axes, for 0⁰≤x≤360⁰ (5mks

c) Use your graph to solve the equation sin(x - 30⁰) + Cos x = 0 (3mks)

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23. In the figure below, O is the centre of the circle, PQR is the tangent to the circle at Q, Angle
PQS=28⁰, angle UTV = 54⁰ and UT = TQ

Giving reasons, determine the size of


a) Angle STR 2mks

b) Angle TQU 2mks

c) Reflex angle TQS 2mks

d) Reflex angle UOQ 2mks

e) Angle TQR 2mks

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24. The cost c of producing n items varies directly as n and partly as the inverse of n to produce two
items it costs Ksh. 135 and to produce three items it costs Ksh. 140. Calculate
a) The constant of proportionality and hence write the equation connecting c and n. 5mks

b) The cost of producing 10 items 2mks

c) The number of items produced at a cost of Ksh. 756. 3mks

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COMPUTER STUDIES
451/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of two section A and B
b) Answer all questions in section A (40 marks)
c) Answer question 16 (Compulsory) and any other THREE questions in section B.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY


SECTION QUESTION SCORE
A 1-15
B 16
17
18
19

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section
1. Define the following terms (4mks)
i) Multiplexing
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Baseband signal
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Explain the difference between digital signal and analog signal in data communication (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. List down two types of computer viruses (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Below is a graphical representation of a section of a Microsoft words application window.


Use it to answer the question that follow.

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Give the uses of the icons labeled A and B (2mks)
A ……………………………………………………….
B ……………………………………………………..

5. Define the following terms as used in disk management


i) Partitioning (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Defragmentation (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. State three ways in which your school librarian can use a computer (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. i) Write the acronym UPS in full? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Explain the uses of UPS? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. a) Give two possible ways of fitting the document in one page (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) The shopkeeper one day switched on the computer and experienced a number of problems with
windows operating system that he had installed. The problems included failure to load the operating
system during the booting. After several trials of switching on the computer booting. It hand so
often alongside abnormal restarting. State any two possible causes for the computer’s behavior.
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Differentiate between real time processing and batch processing giving examples where each could
be used. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. In Kenya Tea Packers Company several people are employed as record clerks., typists and
messenger. The company intends to introduce a computerized system in all the departments.
Suggest three reasons that would make workers unhappy with the new system. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Give two advantages of an electronic spreadsheet over traditional analysis ledger sheet (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Explain the following terms as used in information Technology with reference to software
purchase:-

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i) User friendliness (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Authenticity (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. While purchasing computers for his school the principal Isaboke high school decided to consult an
expert. As a computer student advised him on four hard ware considerations (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Give the names of the following system flowchart symbols (2mks)

A B C D

A ……………………………………………………………
B …………………………………………………………..
C ……………………………………………………………
D …………………………………………………………..

15. State any two features of a user friendly program (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

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Answer question 16 and any other three questions from this section
16. a) State three qualities of a good pseudo code? (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) i) State the 3 translators used in programming (3mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) List two examples of;


i. Third generation languages (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………..
ii. Object oriented languages (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………….

c) Draw a flowchart that was used to come up with the following pseud code (7mks)
Start
N=0
X=0
While n < 3
Repeat
X=X+1
While x < 2
N = N +1
End while
Stop

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17. a) The diagram below shows four common network topologies A, B, C and D.

i) Name the network topologies A, B, C and D (4mks)


ii) Explain what happens if server X topology A fails (1mk)
iii) List two problems associated with network topology B (2mks)
iv) List two disadvantages associated with network topology D (2mks)
b) Differentiate between Internet and World Wide Web. (2mks)
c) Convert the following binary number, 11001011.001 into decimal form. (4mks)

18. a) Human activity systems are said to be soft systems. Give there reasons why they are said to be
so (3mks)
b) What are hard information systems (2mks)
c) Discuss any five characteristics of a system (10mks)
19. a) One of the functions of an operating system is job scheduling. Explain what is meant by job
scheduling. (2mks)

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b) List and explain three types of user interfaces. (6mks)
c) Describe the following categories of software (4mks)
i) Firmware
ii) Proprietary software
d) A new company ABC intends to go into business of desktop publishing. Advice the company on
three computer hardware specification features to consider as a measure of enhancing performance.
(3mks)
20. a) Briefly explain the following terms as used in spreadsheet (4mks)
i) Cell
ii) Range
iii) Value
iv) Function
b) List three paragraph formatting features of word processors (3mks)
c) Explain the difference between the printing of multiple pages and multiple copies (2mks)
d) Distinguish between a worksheet and a work book (2mks)

e) The following is an excel worksheet showing the performance of students in Tana class.
A B C D Cat E Cat F G H
Adam Student name 1/50 2/50 Total / 40 Exam / 60 Total
1 4321 DollineMbesa 30 28 (a) 45 (b)
2 4333 SelinaMbugua 20 29 55
3 4330 Winnie Wanjema 25 26 50
4 4322 MagaretWambari 27 24 43
5 4324 FaniNjuguna 28 24 42
6 Maximum (c)
7 Minimum (d)
8 Average (e)
9
Using the above worksheet write the following formula to calculate the values in cells labeled
(4mks)

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COMPUTER STUDIES
451/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

451/1

COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 2
PRACTICAL

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
d) Type your name and admission number at the top right hand corner of each printout.
e) Write the name and version of the software used for each question attempted in the answer sheet.
f) Passwords should not be used while saving in the diskettes.
g) Answer all questions
h) All questions carry equal marks
i) All answers must be saved in your diskette. Make printouts of the answers on the answer sheets
provided.
j) Hand in all the printout and the diskette
k) Candidates may be penalized for not following instruction given in this pager
l) Arrange your printout and staple them together.

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QUESTION 1
1. Table 1, table 2 and table 3 are extracts of records, kept in a carpentry shop. Use the information
to answer the questions that follow;
CAPENTER CUSTOMER CUSTOMER
CAPENTER _ID NAME _ID NAME
CAP_001 JAMES CUST_01 MARY K.
CAP_002 JOHN CUST_02 DIANA K.
CAP_003 ALEX CUST_03 ALEX N.
CAP_004 ISAAC CUST_04 MARTHA K.
CAP_005 MAURICE CUST_05 SARAH W.
CUST_06 JOHNSON G.

Carpenter Table Customer Table


Order Table
CARPENTER CUSTOMER ORDER _NO ITEM ORDERED MONTH AMOUNT
_ID _ID
CAP_001 CUST _01 1721 Bench January 18,000
CAP_002 CUST _02 1722 Coffee table January 25,000
CAP_003 CUST _03 1723 Office table January 10,000
CAP_004 CUST _04 1724 Single bed January 18,000
CAP_005 CUST _05 1725 Arm chair January 60,000
CAP_001 CUST _01 1726 Double bed February 75,000
CAP_002 CUST _04 1727 Dining table February 85,000
CAP_004 CUST _03 1728 Arm chair February 60,000
CAP_001 CUST _02 1729 Double decker bed February 72,000
CAP_002 CUST _06 1730 Kitchen table February 82,000
CAP_004 CUST _02 1731 Bench March 18,000
CAP_003 CUST _06 1732 bench march 18,000

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a) i) Using database application package, create a database file named;
CARPENTERINFORMATION (1mk)
ii) Create three tables named Carpenter Table, Customer Table and Order Table that will be used
to store the above data. (10mks)
iii) Set the primary key for the tables (2mks)
iv) Create relationship among the tables (2mks)

b) i) Create a data entry form for each table (3mks)


ii) Enter the data in Carpenter Table, Customer Table and Order Table respectively (11mks)
c) i) Create a query named individual income to display the amount received from each customer
every month. (4mks)
ii) Create a database object that computers Total income for each month. Save the query as
Totalincomenomnthly. (6mks)
d) Create a query named loyalty to compute the total number of orders made by each customer over
the three months. (3mks)
e) Create a report to display order details, save the report as Order report (4mks)
f) Print the three tables and the report (4mks)

QUESTION 2
Use a spreadsheet to manipulate data in the table below.
Adm No Name Stream Comp Art Bus Eng Mat Student Rank
mean
C001 Barasa H 56 45 36 56 26
C002 Wangila K 58 57 90 54 23
C003 Wafula H 48 56 54 45 25
C004 Wanjala K 78 95 78 46 24
C005 Kerubo H 49 86 68 35 52
C006 Akinyi K 56 45 25 63 54
C007 Odhiambo H 75 78 45 65 56
C008 Okunyuku K 89 69 65 53 51
C009 Nekesa H 69 58 45 54 52
C010 Simiyu H 85 46 78 52 53
TOTAL
TOTAL FOR H

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TOTAL FOR K

a) Enter the data in all bordered worksheet and auto fit all column. Save the workbook as
mark 1 (15mks)
b) Find the total marks for each subject (3mks)
c) Find total for each subject per stream using a function (5mks)
d) Find mean mark for each student using a function (5mks)
e) Rank mean student in descending order using the mean (5mks)
f) Create a well labeled column chart on a different sheet to show the mean mark of every student.
Save the workbook as mark 2. (7mks)
g) Using mark1, use subtotals to find the average mark for each subject per stream. Save the workbook
as mark 3 (7mks)
h) Print mark 1,mark 2 and the chart

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HOME-SCIENCE
441/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

441/1

HOME-SCIENCE
PAPER 1
THEORY
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
(d) All the questions in Section A and B are compulsory.
(e) Answer any other two questions in section C.
(f) Answers to all the questions must be written in the spaces provided.

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY


SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 1  20 40
B 21 20
20
C
20
TOTAL SCORE 100

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SECTION A (40 MKS)
1. State three functions of the skin (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Mention three dangers that may arise due to misuse of cosmetics (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. List three ways of caring for galvanized iron buckets in the home (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. What is environmental hygiene? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. List three methods of repairing clothes and household articles (3mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Explain three methods of neatening edges of a constructed garment (3mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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7. State three qualities of a well-made seam (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. What is garnishing (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. State two problems faced during pregnancy (2mks)


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10. State two methods of controlling fullness (2mks)


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11. State two principles of wise buying (2mks)


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12. State two ways of encouraging a child to play (2mks)


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13. What is a dough (1mk)


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14. Name two raising agents in flour mixtures (2mks)
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15. What is ventilation? (1mk)


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16. State two dangers of poor ventilation in a room (2mks)


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17. Name two common fuels used at home (2mks)


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18. State two characteristics of a well lit room (2mks)


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19. What is food preservation (1mk)


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20. What is the importance of a colour wheel (1mk)


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SECTION B (20MKS) COMPULSORY
21. a) Explain six laundry processes (12mks)
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b)Explain four factors to consider when weaning the baby (8mks)
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SECTION C (40MKS)
Answer any two questions on the foolscap provided
22. a) State five points to consider when choosing furniture for your house (5mks)
b) State five properties of cotton fabric (5mks)
c) Explain how to work a single pointed dart (10mks)

23. a) You have been given a viscose clothes by your Aunt to launder. Explain how you would launder
it to avoid damage. (10mks)
b) State five factors to consider when planning meals (5mks)
c) Highlight five reasons for cleaning a house (5mks)

24. a) Explain how to clean sleeping area (bed room) (10mks)


b) State five advantages of using paraffin for cooking (5mks)
c) Explain five communicable diseases caused by poor sanitation. (5mks)

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HOME-SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

CONFIDENTIAL
The school to provide the following:-
1. White poplin material each student 90cm by 50cm.
2. Thread to match the fabric.
3. Pins
4. Sewing machines

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

HOME-SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

441/2

HOME SCIENCE
(CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)
PAPER 2
PRACTICAL
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of three printed pages.
b) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
c) Candidates are advised to ensure that the pattern pieces match with sketches shown on question
paper.

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CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION
A pattern of girl’s blouse is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, Instructions and layout
carefully before you being the test

Material provided
1. Pattern pieces for the blouse
A – Blouse front
B – Blouse back
C – Collar
D - Pocket
2. Light weight plain poplin fabric 50cm long by 90cm wide (to be provided by the school)
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric (To be provided by the school)

The test
Using materials provided, cut out and make the left Half of the blouse to show the following processes:-
a) Making of an open seam at the shoulder
b) Making of the side seam using a French seam
c) Neatening of the blouse front facing
d) Preparation of the collar
e) Attachment of the collar using hemming stitches at the back.
f) Holding the facing on the blouse using diagonal tacks. Do not remove
g) Preparation and attachment of the patch pocket
h) Management of the blouse hem
i. Use even tacking to hold the hem. Do not remove.
ii. Use machine hemming

- At the end of the examination, remove all sins and finally sew onto your work, on a single fabric, a
label bearing your name and index number
- Fold your work carefully.

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HOME-SCIENCE
441/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

PAPER 3
441/3
HOME SCIENCE
TIME: 1¾HRS
PLANNING SESSION 30 MINUTES
PRACTICAL TEST SESSION 1¼HRS

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Read the test carefully.
2. Write your name on every sheet of paper used.
3. Text books and recipes may be used during the planning session.
4. You are allowed to take away your reference material; at the end of the planning sessions.
5. You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical session
You are taking care of your sister’s children who are aged 5 and 7 years respectively. Using ingredients
listed below, prepare, cook and present a suitable meal for dinner to include a desert.

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Ingredients
 Eggs/liver
 Onions
 Carrots
 Tomatoes
 Milk
 Dhania
 Sugar
 Fat/oil
 Corn flour /custard powder
 Salt
 Fruits in season

Planning session: 30 minutes


- Each task should be done on a separate sheet of paper.
- Carbon papers should be used to make duplicate copies.

1. Choose the appropriate dishes and write their recipes.


2. Make an order of work.
3. Make a list of foods; equipments and materials needed, indicating the quantities.

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TRIAL 1 EXAMINATION 2025

ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION


314/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
1) This paper consists of six questions.
2) Answer any five questions on the foolscaps provided.
3) Each question carries 20 marks.

QUESTION CANDIDATE’S SCORE


1

6
TOTAL SCORE

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1a) How do Muslims ensure that the Quran remains in its original form? (9marks)
b) Describe the divisions of the Holy Quran. (6marks)
c) State five qualities of human beings who are not at a loss according to surah Al-Asr. (5marks)

2a) Outline eight characteristics of Madinan surahs. (8marks)


b) Mention seven benefits of memorizing the Quran to Muslims. (7marks)
c) State the supplication (dua) as stated in the last verse of surah Baqarah. (Quran 2:286). (5marks)

3a) Describe seven ways through which prophet Muhammad conveyed his Sunnah to the Muslims.
(7mks)
b) State seven characteristics of weak (dhaif) hadith. (7marks)
c) The prophet said, “If someone kills a sparrow for sport, the sparrow will cry out on the day
judgement O Lord! That person killed me in vain, he did not kill me for any useful
purpose.” In reference to the above hadith, give six reasons why Muslims should care for
animal. (6marks)

4a) Identify three Muslim festivals and for each give a reason why it is celebrated. (6marks)
b) Outline seven acts that can invalidate saum. (7marks)
c) State seven rights that a Muslim should accord other people. (7marks)

5a) Explain the conditions for the use of Ijmah as a source of Shariah. (6marks)
b) Difference between zakatul-maal and zakatul-fitr. (8marks)
c) What are the social benefits of Hajj to Muslims. (6marks)

6a) Describe the challenges faced by the prophets of Allah in their mission. (6marks)
b) Discuss the relevance of the belief in Tawheed to Muslims. (8marks)
c) Give the meaning of each of the following attributes of Allah. (6marks)
i. Ar Rahim iv. Al-Hayyu
ii. Al-Ghaffar v. Al-Qayyum
iii. Arrazaq vi. As-swamad

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ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
314/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
1) This paper consists of six questions.
2) Answer any five questions on the foolscaps provided.
3) Each question carries 20 marks.

QUESTION CANDIDATE’S SCORE


1

6
TOTAL SCORE

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1. (a) Discuss the rationale behind the pro hibition of slander in Islam. (6 marks)
(b) Elaborate the ways in which HIV/AIDS has affected the Musl im society today.
(8 marks)
(c) Mention six Islamic manners of walking. (6 marks)

2. (a) State seven benefits of writing a will before a Muslim dies . (7 marks)
(b) Explain six reasons for Jihad in Islam (6 marks)
(c) Identify seven unlawful acts in business transactions. (7 marks)

3. (a) State seven rules to be observed by a Muslim shopkeeper when sellin g goods to customers.
(7 marks)
(b) Give six ways through which Islam empowers women economically. (6 marks)
(c) State seven Islamic teachings on acquisition of wealth. (6 marks)

4. (a) Discuss ways in which Muslim city states on the East Coast of Africa facilitated the spread
of Islam in the region between 1700 and 1900 AD. (7 marks)
(b) State six reasons that led to the fall of the Fattimid 's empire. (6 marks)
(c) In what ways did Umar-al-Khattab contribute to the growth of Islam before he became a
Khalifa? (7 marks)

5. (a) Give six reasons why Sayyidna Abubakar (R.A.) was elected Khalifa.(6 marks)
(b) Explain four factors that led to the battle of Badr. (8 marks)
(c) In which ways has Islam discouraged slavery? (6 marks)

6. (a) Discuss eight contributions made by Abbasids in the field of Education. (8 marks)
(b) State Imam Ghazali’s view on children’s education. (6 marks)
(c) Elaborate the six achievements of Khalifa Ali (R.A.). (6 marks)

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