 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

1. SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY

1. What is the mass in kg of 5 mole of acetic 11. Chlorine exists in two isotopic forms 35Cl, 37Cl.
acid(mol mass =60) If average atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5., What
(A) 0.3 kg (B) 3.0 kg (C) 30 kg (D) 300 kg is the percentage abundance of these isotopes
2. How many moles of carbon atoms are present in respectively?
3.6 kg of carbon? (A) 25%, 75% (B) 75%, 25%
(A) 3.0  102 mole (B) 1.8  102 mole (C) 50%, 50% (D) 35%, 65%
(C) 2.4  102 mole (D) 4.8  102 mole 12. Which law is illustrated by compounds H2O and
3. Which of the following pair of compounds does H2O2 formed from two different elements, H and O ?
not demonstrate the law of multiple proportion? (A) Law of Constant proportion
(A) CuO,Cu 2O (B) NaNO3 ,CaCO3 (B) Law of Conservation of mass
(C) CO,CO2 (D) N 2 O 4 , N 2 O5 (C) Law of Multiple proportion
4. "A given compound always contains the same (D) Avogadro's law
proportion of elements" is a statement of - 13. Which of the following pair of compounds cannot
(A) Law of combining volumes of gases demonstrate law of multiple proportion ?
(B) Law of conservation of mass (A) NO, NO2 (B) CO, CO2
(C) Law of multiple proportions (C) H2O, H2O2 (D) Na2S, NaF
(D) Law of definite proportions 14. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are
5. How many isotopes of nitrogen are found? formed when 0.6 g carbon is burnt in air?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 3.01 × 1022 (B) 2.01 × 1023
(C) 4 (D) 6 (C) 6.02 × 1022 (D) 5.02 × 1023
6. Calculate number of moles present in 15. What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in NaOH?
9.10  102 Kg of water. (Atomic mass of Na = 23 u, O = 16 u, H = 1 u)
(A) 0.9 (B) 1.8 (A) 16 (B) 20
(C) 3.0 (D) 5.0 (C) 40 (D) 60
7. What is the volume occupied by 1 molecule of 16. What is the volume occupied by 2.5 mol of
water, if it's density is 1 g cm–3 ? ammonia gas at STP ?
(A) 9.0 × 10–23 cm3 (B) 2.98 × 10–23 cm3 (A) 22.4 dm3 (B) 25.0 dm3
(C) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3 (D) 5.50 × 10–23 cm3 (C) 33.6 dm3 (D) 56.0 dm3
8. Chlorine has two isotopes 35Cl and 37Cl with 17. Find the number of moles of sodium atoms in
average atomic mass of 35.5. What is the ratio of 6.9 102 kg of it (Atomic mass = 23 g mol-1)
their relative abundance respectively ? (A) 1.5 (B) 0.3
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 3 : 1 (C) 3.0 (D) 2.3
3
9. Calculate mass in kg of 4.48 dm carbon dioxide 18. Calculate mass in kg of 2.5 mole ammonia.
at STP. (A) 5.10 × 10–2 kg (B) 4.25 × 10–2 kg
(A) 2.2 × 10–3 (B) 4.4 × 10–3 (C) 1.72 × 10–2 kg (D) 3.44 × 10–2 kg
(C) 6.6 × 10–3 (D) 8.8 × 10–3
10. What is the volume of oxygen required for
complete combustion of 0.25 mole of methane at
S.T.P. ?
(A) 22.4 dm3 (B) 5.6 dm3
(C) 11.2 dm3 (D) 7.46 dm3

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A B D A D B D D C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Ans. B C D A C D C B

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

2. STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. What is energy associated with fourth orbit of 10. Identify the orbital having lowest energy from
hydrogen atom? following.
(A) 0.436  10 18 J (B) 0.545  10 18 J (A) 2p (B) 3s (C) 3d (D) 4p
(C) 0.242  10 18 J (D) 0.136  10 18 J 11. Calculate radius of fourth orbit of B4+ ion.
2. Which of the following orbitals have same value (A) 169.3 pm (B) 211.6 pm
(C) 380.8 pm (D) 413.2 pm
of  n   as that of 3d orbital?
12. Which of the following rules states that it is
(A) 4 s (B) 3 s (C) 4 p (D) 2 p
impossible to determine simultaneously the exact
3. What is momentum of a microscopic particle
o
position and exact momentum of an electron ?
having de Broglies wavelength 6.0A ? (A) de Broglie's hypothesis.
( h  6.63  1034 Js ) (B) de Broglie's hypothesis.
(A) 4.6  1024 kg ms 1 (B) 1.1 1024 kg ms 1 (C) Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
(D) Pauli's exclusion principle.
(C) 3.18  1024 kg ms1 (D) 6.36  1024 kg ms 1
13. Which from following pairs is an example of
4. What is the amount of energy associated with first
orbit of monopositive helium ion? isotones?
12
R H  2.18  10 18 J  (A) 6 C; 14
6 C (B) 12
6 C; 11
5 B

14
(A) 1.9  10 18 J (B) 4.36  10 18 J (C) 6 C; 14
7 N (D) 13
6 C; 11
5 B

(C) 6.54  10 18 J (D)  8.72  10 18 J 14. Which parameter is indicated by the number of
5. What is the representation of an element having waves passing through a given point in one second ?
mass number of 40 and 21 neutrons in it? (A) Wavelength (B) Frequency
40 40
(A) 18 X (B) 19 X (C) Wave number (D) Amplitude
40 40
(C) 21 X (D) 20 X 15. Which of the following is radius of first orbit of
6. What is the energy associated with first orbit of He+? He+ ?
(A) –2.18 × 10–18 J (B) –4.36 × 10–18 J (A) 52.90 Pm (B) 78.90 Pm
(C) –6.54 × 10–18 J (D) –8.72 × 10–18 J (C) 26.45 Pm (D) 13.35 Pm
7. What is the wave number of lowest transition in 16. Which of the following orbitals is represented by
Balmer series ? n = 3 and l = 2?
 36   5  (A) 3s (B) 3p (C) 3d (D) 3f
(A) R H   (B) R H   17. Which of the following equations gives angular
 5   36 
momentum of an electron in a stationary orbit ?
 21   100 
(C) R H   (D) R H   2 h
 100   21  (A) mvr  n (B) mvr  n 
h 2
8. Calculate wave length for emission of a photon
r  hr 
having wave number 11516 cm-1. (C) mvh  n  (D) mv   n
(A) 216 nm (B) 434 nm 2  2 
(C) 868 nm (D) 642 nm 18. What is the wave number of lowest transition
9. Which of the following statements is correct associated with Lyman series?
regarding isobars? 3  5 
(A)   R H   (B)   R H  
(A) These have same number of neutrons 4  36 
(B)These are the atoms of different elements
4  36 
(C)These have same atomic number (C)   R H   (D)   R H  
(D) These have different mass number 3  5 

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
19. Which from following statements is NOT correct 24. What is the designation of an orbital with quantum
regarding Bohr model ? numbers n = 4 and l = 3
(A) It failed to account for finer details of hydrogen (A) 4s (B) 4p
spectrum. (C) 4d (D) 4f
(B) It is unable to explain atomic spectrum other 25. What is wavenumber of a radiation having
than hydrogen. wavelength 0.25 m ?
(C) It explains Zeeman effect. (A) 2.5 106 m1 (B) 4.0 106 m1
(D) It failed to explain ability of atoms to form
(C) 6.5 106 m1 (D) 8.0 106 m1
molecules by chemical bonds.
26. Which of the following species contain 20
20. Identify the orbital having highest energy from electrons?
following. (A) K+ (B) Ca
(A) 2p (B) 3s (C) Mg (D) Cl
(C) 3d (D) 4p 27. What is de Broglies wavelength for a particle
21. Calculate the radius of first orbit of Li++ having mass 6.64 × 10–27 kg moving with velocity
(A) 70.53 pm (B) 158.7 pm of 3 × 103 ms–1 ? [h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js]
(C) 17.63 pm (D) 282.13 pm (A) 0.111 nm (B) 0.0333 nm
22. What is the total number of orbitals present in N (C) 1.22 nm (D) 2.42 nm
shell? 28. Which of the following series of emission spectral
(A) 1 (B) 4 lines for hydrogen observed in visible region ?
(C) 9 (D) 16
(A) Paschen (B) Lyman
23. Calculate the radius of first orbit of He+.
(C) Pfund (D) Balmer
(A) 26.45 pm (B) 13.23 pm
(C) 48.62 pm (D) 39.46 pm

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C B D B D B C B A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C B B C C B A C D
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. C D A D B B B D

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

3. CHEMICAL BONDING

1. What is the bond order in CO molecule? 11. Identify the hybridisation and geometry of SF4
1 molecule respectively.
(A) +1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D)
2 (A) sp3 and tetrahedral
2. Which from following species does not have (B) sp3d and trigonal bipyramidal
number of electrons similar to other three
(C) sp3d2 and trigonal bipyramidal
species?
(D) sp3d2 and octahedral
(A) Ne (B) O (C) Na (D) Na 
12. Which from following molecules has trigonal
3. Which from following molecules is tetrahedral?
planar geometry ?
(A) C2 H2 (B) CH 4
(A) CH4 (B) C2H2 (C) NH3 (D) BF3
(C) BeCl2 (D) BF3
13. Which of the following molecule has bond order 2 ?
4. Identify the structure of XeF4 molecule from
(A) N2 (B) H2 (C) O2 (D) F2
following. 14. What is the number of Lewis structures for NO2– ?
(A) Trigonal pyramidal
(A) 1 (B) 2
(B) Square pyramidal
(C) Square planar (C) 3 (D) 4
(D) Distorted octahedral 15. Which of the following compounds follows octet
5. Which from following molecules has two lone rule?
pair of electrons in valence shell of its central (A) H2SO4 (B) NO2 (C) SCl2 (D) SF6
atom? 16. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole
(A) SO2 (B) NH 3 (C) H2 O (D) SF4 moment?
6. Which of the following types of hybridisation (A) HF (B) NH3
result in trigonal geometry ? (C) BF3 (D) CHCl3
(A) sp (B) dsp2 (C) sp2 (D) sp3 17. Which of the following molecules is an example
7. Which from following molecules does not have of sp hybridisation ?
lone pair of electrons in valence shell of central (A) Methane (B) Acetylene
atom? (C) Ethylene (D) Ammonia
(A) NH3 (B) H2O 18. Which among the following is an example of odd
(C) SO2 (D) BF3 electron molecule
8. Identify the bond order and magnetic nature of
(A) BF3 (B) LiCl
Li2 molecule respectively?
(C) NO (D) PCl5
(A) 1 and diamagnetic
(B) 2 and diamagnetic 19. What is the total number of electrons present in
(C) 1 and paramagnetic bonding orbitals of O2 molecule according to
(D) 2 and paramagnetic molecular orbital theory?
9. What is bond angle F–B–F in BF3 ? (A) 16 (B) 06
(C) 10 (D) 04
(A) 107° (B) 104.5° (C) 120° (D) 109.5°
20. What is the number of electrons present in
10. Which from the following statements about
antibonding orbitals of N2 molecule according to
[Co(NH3)6]3+ complex is NOT correct ?
molecular orbital theory ?
(A) Prior to hybridization Co3+ possesses four
(A) 14 (B) 10 (C) 04 (D) 06
unpaired electrons.
(B) This complex has all electrons paired.
(C) It is a high spin complex.
(D) It is a diamagnetic complex.

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C B C C C D A C C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B D C B C C B C C C

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

4. REDOX REACTION

1. What is the oxidation number of underlined 9. What is the oxidation number of carbon in K2C2O4?
species in PF6  and V2 O7 4 ions respectively? (A) –2 (B) –3
(A) +5 and 5 (B) +5 and +5 (C) +3 (D) +4
(C) 5 and +5 (D) +3 and +3 10. What is the change in oxidation number of S in
2. Which of the following compounds contains following reaction?
chlorine in +5 oxidation state? H2S + NO3  H2O + NO + S
(A) HClO4 (B) HClO2 (A) –2 to 0 (B) 0 to –2
(C) HClO3 (D) HCl (C) –2 to +2 (D) 0 to +2
3. Identify the element reduced in following reaction 11. What is oxidation number of S in SO32  ?
Cr2O72  14H  6I  2Cr 3  3H2O  3I2
(A) –2 (B) –3 (C) +4 (D) +6
(A) Cr (B) H (C) O (D) I 12. Identity the correct statement for following reaction.
4. In which of the following compounds chlorine has
3Mg + N2  Mg3N2
highest oxidation state ?
(A) Mg is reduced
(A) KCl (B) HClO
(B) Mg is oxidised
(C) HClO2 (D) HClO4
(C) N2 is oxidised
5. Which compound from following contains iodine
(D) oxidation state of Mg changes from +2 to zero
with highest oxidation number?
(A) KIO3 (B) KI 13. Calculate the oxidation number of Cr in CrO42–
(C) IF5 (D) KIO4 ion and K2Cr2O7 respectively ?
6. What is the oxidation state of S in SO4 2 (A) +4 and +6 (B) +3 and +2
(A) +6 (B) -6 (C) +6 and +6 (D) +8 and +2
(C) +2 (D) +3 14. What is change in oxidation number of nitrogen
7. What is the value of x and y in order to balance when NO3 is converted to NH 4 ion?
following redox reaction. (A) + 5 to – 3 (B) + 3 to – 5
xCuO + yNH3  xCu + N2 + xH2O (C) – 3 to + 5 (D) – 5 to + 3
(A) x = 2, y = 1 (B) x = 1, y = 2 15. What is the oxidation state of phosphorus in
(C) x = 3, y = 2 (D) x = 2, y = 3 phosphate ion?
(A) -5 (B) +3
8. Which of the following changes involves transfer
(C) +5 (D) +6
of 5 electrons ?
16. What is the oxidation number of Mn in MnO4– ?
(A) MnO4  Mn 2  (B) CrO24  Cr 3
(A) –5 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
(C) NO3  NH4 (D) Cr2 O27  2Cr 3

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C A D D A C A C A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. C B C A C D

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
5. ELEMENTS OF GROUP 1 AND GROUP 2

1. Which element from following is used in (C) It's strength is explained in volume unit.
photoelectric cells? (D) It is mild oxidising as well reducing agent.
(A) Li (B) Be (C) Cs (D) Mg 11. When fused NaCl undergoes electrolysis the
2. Which compound is used in medicine as barium product formed at cathode is
meal for intestinal x–ray? (A) Cl2(g) (B) Na(s)
(A) Barium chloride (B) Barium sulphate (C) Na–Hg(l) (D) H2(g)
(C) Barium sulphide (D) Barium nitrate
12. Which of the following element is used in
3. Which from following combinations represents
photoelectric cell?
water gas?
(A) Beryllium (B) Liquid sodium
(A) CO g  H2 g (B) CO g  3H2 g
(C) Cesiumt (D) Calcium
(C) CO2 g   3H 2 g  (D) CO2 g  2H2 g  13. Which of the following element in +1 oxidation
4. Which of the following does not react with cold or state has largest ionic radius ?
hot water ? (A) Rb (B) K (C) Na (D) Li
(A) Ba (B) Ca (C) Sr (D) Be 14. Which from following compounds is obtained as
5. Which of the following colours is developed by product in synthesis of sodium carbonate by
when alkali metal is dissolved in liquid Solvay process ?
ammonia? (A) Ammonium carbonate
(A) Dark red (B) Violet (B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Deep blue (D) Green (C) Calcium Chloride
6. Which of the following elements belongs to
(D) Ammonium Chloride
first group and fifth period of periodic table?
15. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with
(A) Rubidium (B) Strontium
(C) Caesiun (D) Barium (A) Na (B) Mg (C) Al (D) Si
7. Which among the following elements has highest 16. Which of the following elements belongs to
electronegativity? second group and fifth period of periodic table?
(A) K (B) Na (C) Li (D) Cs (A) Rubidium (B) Strontium
8. Which of the following elements does not react (C) Caesium (D) Barium
with water to form metal hydroxide? 17. What products are obtained when beryllium oxide
(A) Mg (B) Ca (C) Be (D) Sr is treated separately with aq. HCl and aq. NaOH
9. Which of the following compounds is recovered solutions respectively?
in solvay's process when NH4Cl is treated with (A) BeCl2 and Be(OH)2
slaked lime ? (B) BeCl2 and Na2BeO4
(A) NaCl (B) NH4HCO3 (C) Be(OH)2 and BeCl2
(C) NH3 (D) CO2 (D) BeCl2 and Na2BeO2
10. Which of the following is not a property of 18. Identify basic oxide from following.
hydrogen peroxide? (A) SO3 (B) NO
(A) It is immiscible in water.
(C) Al2O3 (D) CaO
(B) It is pale blue coloured liquid in pure state.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B B D C A C C C A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Ans. B C A C C B D D

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

6. STATES OF MATTER

1. Which from following gases of same mass exerts (C) Dispersion forces
highest pressure at constant temperature? (D) Intramolucular hydrogen bonding
(A) H 2 (B) N 2 (C) O2 (D) Cl 2 9. What is the volume of a gas at 1.032 × 105Nm–2 if
2. Which of the following equations is true for it occupies 1 dm3 of volume at normal temperature
8.8  102 kg of carbon dioxide gas? and pressure ?
(A) PV  1.54RT (B) PV = RT (A) 0.982 dm3 (B) 1.3 dm3
(C) PV = 2RT (D) PV  3RT (C) 1.5 dm3 (D) 1.7 dm3
3. How many moles of dioxygen are present in 10. Which of the following has dipole–induced dipole
8.314  10 3 m 3 of it at 318 K having pressure interaction as inter molecular force?

3.18  105 Nm 2 ? R  8.314JK 1mol 1  (A) NH3 + C6H6 (B) NaCl + H2O
(C) CH4 + C2H6 (D) HF + H2O
(A) 0.1 mole (B) 1 mole
11. Calculate the partial pressure exerted by dioxygen
(C) 1.5 mole (D) 2.0 mole
from a mixture of 32g O2, 80g Ar (mol.mass 40)
4. Which of the following graphs explains Boyle's law?
and 4 g dihydrogen (Ptotal = 10 bar) ?
P
(A) 1 bar (B) 2 bar
pV (C) 4 bar (D) 5 bar
(A) (B)
12. 3.4 moles of an ideal gas occupies volume of 68
V P mL at 300 K. What would be the pressure of gas?
(R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
pV
(A) 1.247 × 102 kPa
(C) pV (D)
(B) 2.431 × 103 kPa
P P (C) 1.031 × 105 kPa
5. Calculate the volume of gas at 1.25 (D) 3.247 × 105 kPa
atmosphere, if volume occupied by gas at 1
13. What is the numerical value of gas constant R in
atmosphere and at same temperature is 25 mL.
terms of Latm K-1mol-1?
(A) 15 mL (B) 20 mL
(A) 0.085 (B) 0.082
(C) 25 mL (D) 35 mL
(C) 8.314 (D) 1.987
6. Which of the following formula is used to
14. Which of the following equations gives combined
calculate compressibility factor?
relationship of Boyle's law and Charle's law?
PVT nRT
(A) Z  (B) Z  PV PV RT
R PV (A) 1 2  2 1 (B) n 
T1 T2 PV
PV  PV 
(C) Z  (D) Z   n P1V1 P2 V2 RT
nRT  RT  (C)  (D) p 
T1 T2 nV
7. Which among the following forces of attraction is
developed between polar and non polar molecules? 15. Which of the following molecule can form hydrogen
(A) Dipole – induced dipole interaction bonding with itself?
(B) Ion – dipole interaction (A) NH3 (B) C2H6
(C) Dipole – dipole interaction (C) H2S (D) CH3 – O – CH3
8. What type of following forces is present in
ethylene glycol?
(A) Dipole–induced dipole
(B) Dipole–dipole

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C B B B C A D A A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B A B C A

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

7. ADSORPTION AND COLLOIDS

1. Which of the following is an example of 7. What type of colloid is milk ?

heterogenous catalysis? (A) Solid in liquid
(A) Oxidation of SO 2 g  in presence of NO g  (B) Liquid in solid
(B) Decomposition of aqueous H2 O2 in (C) Liquid in liquid
presence of I   aq  . (D) Gas in liquid
8. Which from following anions has maximum
(C) Hydrolysis of sugar in presence of aq.
coagulating power for precipitation of positive sol?
H2SO4 .
(A) [Fe(CN)6]4– (B) Cl–
(E) Hydrogenation of vegetable oil in presence of
(C) SO4– (D) PO4–
Ni s 
. 9. What type of colloid is the soap lather?
2. Identify dispersed phase and dispersion medium (A) Solid sol (B) Emulsion
in cheese
(C) Foam (D) Aerosol
Dispersed Phase Dispersion medium
10. Which from following statements is NOT true
1. Liquid Solid
2. Liquid Liquid about absorption?
3. Solid Liquid (A) Concentration of absorbate is uniform throughout
4. Solid Solid the bulk of the absorbent
(A) 1 (B) 2 (B) It is independent of temperature and pressure.
(C) 3 (D) 4 (C) It is not accompanied by evolution or absorption
3. Which from following is an example of of heat.
multimolecular colloids? (D) It depends on surface area.
(A) Soap 11. In Haber process of production of ammonia, K2O
(B) Polythene is used as
(C) Sulfer molecule  S8  (A) catalyst (B) inhibitor
(D) Nylon (C) promoter (D) adsorbate
4. Which is NOT an example of macromolecular colloid? 12. Identify dispersed phase and dispersion medium in
(A) Protein (B) Polythene fog respectively.
(C) Nylon (D) Soap (A) liquid and gas. (B) gas and liquid.
5. Which from following statements is NOT true (C) solid and gas. (D) gas and solid.
about lyophilic colloids? 13. Which among the following gases in difficult to
(A) The particles of dispersed phase have greater liquify?
affinity for the dispersion medium. (A) SO2 (B) Cl2
(B)These are reversible.
(C) NH3 (D) O2
(C)These are self stabilized.
14. What is the value of slope in Freundlich
(D) Coagulation occurs by adding very small
x
amount of electrolytes. adsorption isotherm log against log C?
6. Which from following anions has lowest m
coagulating power for precipitation of positive (A) 1 (B) n
n
sol ? (C) K (D) log K
(A) [Fe(CN)6 ]4 (B) PO43 15. Identify positively charged sol from following.
(C) SO4 2 (D) Cl- (A) Haemoglobin (B) Gum
(C) Gelatin (D) Cadmium sulfide

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D A C D D D C A C D
Que. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C A D A A

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

8. CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. Identify the product ‘B’ in the following

sequence of reactions. Propanone
Ba  OH 


2
 A 
 H2 O
B
(A) 4-Hydroxy-4-methylpentan-2-one
(B) 2-methylpentan-3-one
(C) 2-methylpent-2-en-4-one
(D) 4-methylpent-3-en-2-one

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1
Ans. D

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
9. HYDROCARBONS

1. What is IUPAC name of  CH3 4 C ? a 3 3a 3

(A) V  (B) V 
(A) Neopentane 6 8
(B) 2–Methylbutane a 3 a 3
(C) V  (D) V 
(C) 2–Methylpropane 3 2 16
(D) 2, 2–Dimethylpropane
10. What is the total number of atoms present in fcc
2. Which of the following catalyst is used to convert
unit cell ?
C  C  to to form cis- alkene? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 1
(A) ZnCl2 / HCl (B) Pd-C quinolone 11. Identify the products obtained in the ozonolysis of
propene.
(C) Na / liquidNH 3 (D) Na / Hgin H2 O
(A) Methanol and Ethanol
3. Which from following has highest boiling point?
(B) Methanal and Ethanol
(A) 2 methoxy propane (B) n-butane
(C) Methanal and Ethanal
(C) 2-methylbutane (D) n-pentane
(D) Methanol and Ethanal
4. Which of the following alkenes does NOT
exhibit Cis-trans isomerism? 12. Identify the major product formed when 2-Methyl
(A) But-1-ene hexan-3-ol is heated with concentrated sulphuric
(B) But-2-ene acid.
(C)3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene (A) (B)
(D) Pent-2-ene
5. What is the IUPAC name of following
compound? (C) (D)

13. Identify the number of moles of H atoms present

(A) 1-chloro-1, 2-dimethylbut-2-ene in n moles of organic compound represented as
(B) 4-chloro-3, 4-dimethylbut-2-ene
(C) 4-chloro-3-methylpent-2-ene (A) 4 n (B) 6 n (C) 8 n (D) 2 n
(D) 2-chloro-3-methylpent-3-ene
14. Identify the major product formed in the
6. Which of the following is obtained on
bromination of 2-Methylpropane.
oxidation of prop-1-ene with acidic KMnO4?
(A) Ethanoic acid (B) Propanoic acid (A) 1-Bromopropane
(C) Propanol (D) Propanone (B) 2-Bromopropane
7. Which from following reactions is not possible for (C) 1-Bromo-2-methylpropane
benzene due to reversible nature ? (D) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane
(A) Hydrogenation (B) Chlorination 15. Identify the correct stability order of following
(C) Bromination (D) Iodination alkenes.
8. Calculate the volume of unit cell when metal I) (CH3)2C = C(CH3)2, II) (CH3)2C = CH2,
having density 1 g cm–3 and molar mass 23 g mol–1 III) (CH3)2C = CHCH3
crystallises to form bcc structure. (A) III > II > I (B) I > III > II
(A) 6.0 × 10–23 cm3 (B) 8.6 × 10–23 cm3 (C) II > I > III (D) I > II > III
(C) 9.5 × 10–23 cm3 (D) 7.6 × 10–23 cm3 16. Identify the product of ozonolysis of but-2-ene
9. What is the relation between edge length and total from following.
volume occupied by atoms in bcc unit cell? (A) Acetone and formaldehyde
(B) Acetaldehyde and formaldehyde
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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
(C) Acetone
(D) Acetaldehyde
17. Identify the product 'B' in the following reaction
sequence.
C2H5 – Br 
Mg
Dry ether
 A 
CH3 OH
B
(A) H3C – CH2 – CH3
(B) C2H5 – O – CH3
(C) C2H6
(D) C2H5 – OH
18. Identify alkadiene molecule from following.
(A) Isoprene (B) -Phellandrene
(C) But-2-ene (D) Pent-l-ene
19. Which of the following alkenes does NOT exhibit
cis-trans isomerism ?
(A) But–l–ene
(B) But–2–ene
(C) 3,4–Dimethyl hex–3–ene
(D) Pent–2–ene
20. Identify the reactivity order for halogens towards
alkanes.
(A) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
(B) Br2 > Cl2 > F2 > I2
(C) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(D) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D B D A C A D D B B
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C A C D B D C A A C

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
10. BASIC PRINCIPLES OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. Which function group from following is OH

considered as principal functional group if poly (D)
functional compound is to be named by IUPAC 8. Which from following is a correct priority order
system? for selection of principal functional group for
(A) CHO (B) OH nomenclature of polyfunctional compound?
(C) NH2 (D) C  C  (A) –COOH > –SO3H > –COOR
2. What is the number of moles of carbon atoms (B) –COOR > –COOH > –SO3H
present in n mole molecules of an alkane it if (C) –SO3H > –COOR > –COOH
exhibits five structural isomers?
(D) –COOR > –SO3H > –COOH
(A) 4n (B) 3n (C) 5n (D) 6mn
9. Which of the following groups exhibits (+)R effect ?
3. What is the molar mass of third member of
homologous series if the molar mass of first (A) –NHR (B) –CN
member is 46 g? (C) –NO2 (D) –COOR
(A) 60 g (B) 74 g 10. Which compound from following contains N atom
(C) 138 g (D) 80 g in its ring?
4. Which from following groups is selected as (A) Furan (B) Thiophene
principal functional group for nomenclature of a (C) THF (D) Pyrrole
polyfunctional compound according to IUPAC 11. Identify the correct pair of molecule and the
system? heteroatom present in it respectively from following.
(A) CONH2 (B) CN (A) Furan – S (B) Pyrrole – N
(C) OH (D) C  C  (C) Thiophene – O (D) Piperidine – S
5. Which from following carbocations is least stable? 12. What is the numerical difference in molar masses

(A) (R)3 – c+ (B) (R)2  C H of second and third member of a homologous series?
  (A) 14 (B) 12
(C) R  C H2 (D) H 3 C (C) 10 (D) 2
6. Which from following pairs of compounds 13. Which of the following compounds contains S atom
exhibits metamerism? in it's ring?
(A) But-2-ene and but-1-ene (A) Nitromethane (B) Pyran
(B) Methoxymethane and Ethanol
(C) Furan (D) Thiophen
(C) Ethoxyethane and methoxypropane
(D) Butane and 2-Methylpropane 14. What is molecular formula of undecane?
(A) C11H24 (B) C9H18
7. Identify the bond line formula for propane–1–ol
(C) C12H26 (D) C20H42
(A) 15. Which from following compounds contains
(B) oxygen as a heteroatom ?
OH
(A) Furan (B) Pyridine
(C) (C) Thiophene (D) Piperidine
OH

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D B A D C C A A D
Que. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B A D A A

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

11. SOLID STATE

1. What is total number of particles in bcc unit cell? (C) It melts at definite temperature.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (D) It has different magnitudes for refractive index
(C) 3 (D) 4 in every direction.
2. Calculate the volume of unit cell of an element 11. Find the void volume of bcc unit cell in cm3 if
having molar mass 27 gmol1 that forms fcc unit volume of unit cell is 1.5 × 10–22 cm3
cell .NA  16.0  10 23 gcm 3 mol 1  (A) 4.8 × 10–23 (B) 3.6 × 10–23
(C) 2.4 × 10–23 (D) 1.2 × 10–23
(A) 7.50  10 23 cm 3 (B) 6.75  10 23 cm 3 12. Calculate the volume of unit cell of an element
(C) 5.75  10 23 cm 3 (D) 8.25  10 23 cm 3 having molar mass 63.5 g mol–1 that forms fcc
3. Calculate the edge length of fcc unit cell if radius structure [ × NA = 5.5 × 1024 g cm–3 mol–1]
of metal atom is 139 pm. (A) 4.102 × 10–23 cm3 (B) 5.430 × 10–23 cm3
(A) 2.78  10 8 cm (B) 3.21  10 8 cm (C) 5.014× 10–23 cm3 (D) 4.618 × 10–23 cm3
(C) 3.9310 8 cm (D) 6.95  10 8 cm 13. Identify ferromagnetic substance from following.
4. Which from following solids exhibits isotropic (A) NaCl (B) C6H6
properties? (C) CrO2 (D) H2O
(A) Diamond (B) Graphite 14. Calculate molar mass of an element having
(C) Sodium (D) Metalic glass density 8.6g cm-3 if it forms bcc structure
5. Calculate the radius of an atom of metal if it forms [a 3  N A  22.0cm3 mol1 ]
simple cubic unit cell with edge length 380 pm.
(A) 106.18g mol-1
(A) 285.0 pm (B) 67.2 pm
(B) 94.6g mol-1
(C) 190.0 pm (D) 82.3 pm
(C) 88.25g mol-1
6. Calculate the number of unit cells in 10.8 g metal
(D) 80.16g mol-1
 ea 3
 7.2 1022 g 
15. Calculate the radius of metal atom if it forms bcc
(A) 1.5  1022 (B) 3.0  1022 unit cell having edge length 530 pm.
(C) 4.5  1022 (D) 6.0  1022 (A) 229.5 pm (B) 187.4 pm
7. Calculate the density of an element having molar (C) 459.0 pm (D) 265.2 pm
mass 63g mol 1 that forms fcc structure 16. Calculate the void volume of simple cubic unit
cell if the volume of unit cell is 5.5  1022 cm3
a 3  NA  28cm 3 mol 1  22
(A) 1.435  10 cm
3

3 3
(A) 6.0 g cm (B) 9.0 g cm (A) 1.761 1022 cm3
(C) 5.0 g cm 3 (D) 7.0 g cm 3 (B) 2.619  1022 cm3
8. What is the coordination number of a particle in (C) 3.880  1022 cm3
hcp structure? 17. Calculate the number of atoms in 0.3gram metal
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 12 if it forms bcc structure [ a 3  3  1022 g]
9. Calculate the volume occupied by all atoms in bcc
(A) 1.0  1021 (B) 2.0  1021
cell if the volume of unit cell is 1.5  10 22 cm 3
(C) 3.0  10 21 (D) 4.0  1021
(A) 2.40  10 22 cm 3 (B) 3.51  10 22 cm 3
18. What is the total number of different types of unit
(C) 1.56  10 22 cm 3 (D) 1.02  10 22 cm 3
cells present in triclinic crystal system?
10. Which from the following statements is NOT true (A) 1 (B) 2
regarding crystalline solid? (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) There is a regularity and periodicity in 19. Calculate the molar mass of an element having
arrangement of constituent particles.
density 5.6 g cm–3 that forms bcc structure.
(B) It is isotropic.

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
[a3 × NA = 75 cm3 mol–1] 28. n-type of semiconductor is formed when
–1 –1
(A) 198 g mol (B) 210 g mol (A) Silicon doped with phosphorous
–1
(C) 118 g mol (D) 255 g mol–1 (B) Silicon doped with boron
20. What is the coordination number of a particle in (C) Germanium doped with boron
fcc structure? (D) Germanium doped with aluminium
(A) 12 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6 29. Metallic silver has fcc structure. If radius of Ag atom
21. Calculate the volume of fcc unit cell if radius of a is 144 pm. What is the edge length of unit cell ?
particle in it is 106.05 pm (A) 4.07 × 10–8 cm (B) 3.22 × 10–8 cm
(A) 7.4 × 10–23 cm3 (B) 9.9 × 10–23 cm3 (C) 2.63 × 10–8 cm (D) 2.23 × 10–8 cm
30. What is the number of octahedral voids present in
(C) 2.7 × 10–23 cm3 (D) 6.4 × 10–23 cm3
0.2 mol of a compound forming hcp structure?
22. Calculate the volume of unit cell if an element
(A) 1.204 × 1023 (B) 2.387 × 1023
having molar mass 92 g mol–1 that forms bcc
(C) 3.011 × 1023 (D) 3.321 × 1023
structure [ × NA = 5.0 × 1024 g cm–3 mol–1]
31. What type of unit cell from following is common
(A) 2.44 × 10–23 cm3 to all seven types of crystal systems ?
(B) 5.86 × 10–23 cm3 (A) Simple (B) Body-centred
(C) 3.68 × 10–23 cm3 (C) Face-centred (D) Base-centred
(D) 4.76 × 10–23 cm3 32. What is atomic radius of an clement if it crystallises
23. In an ionic solid equal number of cations and in BCC structure with edge length of unit cell 287
anions are missing from their regular positions in pm ?
the crystal lattice creating vacancies is called- (A) 124 pm (B) 131 pm
(A) Vacancy defect (C) 137 pm (D) 174 pm
(B) Self interstitial defect 33. A metal crystallises in bcc structure with edge length
(C) Schottky defect 4 × 10–8 cm, If density of unit cell is 10 g cm–3. What
(D) Frenkel defect is it's molar mass?
24. Calculate number of atoms per unit cell of an (A) 60 g mol–1 (B) 120 g mol–1
element having molar mass 92.0 g mol–1 and density (C) 152 g mol–1 (D) 193 g mol–1
8.6 g cm–3 forming cubic unit cell structure. 34. Which among the following is ferromagnetic
[a3 × NA = 21.5 cm3 mol–1] substance?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (A) NaCl (B) H2O (C) O2 (D) CrO2
25. Calculate the volume of simple cubic unit cell if 35. Calculate the total volume occupied by all
the radius of particle in it is 400 pm. atoms in simple cubic unit cell if radius of atom
(A) 6.36 × 10–22 cm3 is 3 × 10–8 cm
(B) 5.12 × 10–22 cm3 (A) 1.13 × 10–22 cm3
(C) 5.84 × 10–22 cm3 (B) 2.25 × 10–22 cm3
(D) 6.60 × 10–22 cm3 (C) 3.15 × 10–22 cm3
26. Calculate the density of a metal having molar (D) 4.37 × 10–22 cm3
mass 197 gmol–1 if it forms fcc structure. 36. A compound is formed by to elements A and B.
[a3 × NA = 40 cm3 mol–1] The atoms of element B form ccp structure. The
(A) 23.5 g cm–3 (B) 21.2 g cm–3 atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. What
(C) 17.5 g cm–3 (D) 19.7 g cm–3 is the formula of the compound ?
27. What is minimum number of spheres required to (A) A2B3 (B) AB (C) AB2 (D) AB3
develop a tetrahedral void?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 3

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
37. In a solid, B– ions occupy corners of a cube 41. Find the void volume of fcc unit cell in cm3 if the
forming ccp structure. If A+ ions occupy half of volume of fcc unit cell is 1.25 × 10-22 cm3?
the tetrahedral voids, formula of the solid is (A) 3.25 1023 (B) 2.16 1023
(A) A2B (B) AB2 (C) 1.34 1023 (D) 4.20 1023
(C) A2B3 (D) AB 42. What type of solid is the silica?
38. Unit cell of an element has edge length of 5 Å with (A) Ionic (B) Covalent
density 4 g cm–3 , If it’s atomic mass is 149, (C) Molecular (D) Metallic
identify the crystal structure. 43. What is the total number of tetrahedral voids in
(A) Simple cubic close packed 0.6 mole of compound that forms hcp structure ?
(B) Body centred cubic (A) 3.6132 × 1023
(C) Face centred cubic (B) 7.2264 × 1023
(D) Hexagonal close packed (C) 4.8396 × 1023
(D) 5.0331 × 1023
39. What is the volume of one particle in BCC
structure if 'a' is edge length of unit cell? 44. Calculate the number of unit cells in 0.4 g metal if
the product of density and volume of unit cell is
a 3 a 3
(A) (B) l.2 × 10–22 g.
3 2 12 2
(A) 1.1 × 1021 (B) 2.2 × 1021
3a 3 3a 3 (C) 3.3 × 1021 (D) 4.4 × 1021
(C) (D)
16 8 45. What is the total number of particles present in
40. Calculate the number of unit cells in 0.9 g metal base centred unit cell ?
if it forms bcc structure. (A) 1 (B) 2
[ a 3  3 1022 gram] (C) 4 (D) 6
(A) 1.0 × 1021 (B) 2.0 × 1021
21
(C) 3.0 × 10 (D) 4.0 × 1021

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B C D C A B D D B
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A D C B A C B A B A
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C C C B B D B A A A
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A A D D A A D B C C
Que. 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. A B B C B

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
12. SOLUTIONS

1. Identify an example of solution that consists of (C) 200gmol1 (D) 190gmol1

solid as solute and liquid as solvent. 7. A solution of non volatile solute has boiling point
(A) Sea water elevation 1.75 K. Calculate molality of solution
(B) Bronze
K b  3.5K kg mol 1 
(C) Carbonated water
(D) Chloroform in nitrogen (A) 0.77 mol kg 1 (B) 0.69 mol kg1
2. Calculate the molality of solution of nonvolatile (C) 0.50 mol kg1 (D) 0.35mol kg 1
solute having depression in freezing point 0.93 K
8. Which from the following statements is correct for
and cryoscopic constant of solvent 1.86 K kg mol 1
aqueous solution of 6gL1 urea and 17.12 g L1 of
(A) 0.3mol kg 1 (B) 0.4 mol kg 1
sucrose?
(C) 0.5mol kg 1 (D) 0.6 mol kg 1 [Molar mass of urea  60g mol 1
3. A solution of nonvolatile solute is obtained by
Molar mass of sucrose  342 g mol 1 ]
dissolving 2 g in 50 g benzene. Calculate the
vapour pressure of solution if vapour pressure of (A) Osmotic pressure exhibited by urea solution
is lower than that of sucrose solution.
pure benzene is 640 mm Hg at 25 C .
(B) Urea solution is hypertonic to sucrose
[ mol. Mass of benzene  79 gmol 1 , mol. Mass of solution.
solute  64 gmol 1 ] (C) These solutions are isotonic.
(A) 600.21mmHg (B) 604.52 mmHg (D) On doubling the concentration of sucrose
(C) 608.64 mmHg (D) 612.83 mmHg solution it becomes hypertonic to urea
4. Identify false statement form following. solution.
(A) The boiling point of solution containing non- 9. Calculate the molar mass of non-volatile solute
volatile solute is always higher than pure when 1.5 g of it is dissolved in 90 g solvent
solvent. decreases its freezing point by 0.25 K
(B) At any temperature the vapour pressure of K f  1.2K kg mol 1 
solution containing non volatile solute is
(A) 72g mol 1 (B) 80g mol 1
lower than that of pure solvent.
(C) The boiling point of liquid is the temperature (C) 88g mol 1 (D) 96 g mol 1
at which its vapour pressure equals 10. The molal elevation boiling point constant for
atmospheric pressure. water is 0.513°C Kg mol–1. Calculate boiling point
(D) The molal elevation constant is the boiling of solution if 0.1 mole of sugar is dissolved in
point elevation produced by 1 molar solution. 200g water ?
5. Calculate van’t Hoff factor of 0.2 m aqueous (A) 100.513°C (B) 100.256°C
solution of an electrolyte if it freezes at 0.7 K (C) 100.0513°C (D) 100.025°C
[ K f  1.86K kg mol1 ] 11. What mass of solute (molar mass 58 g mol–1) is to
(A) 1.304 (B) 1.123 be dissolved in 2.5 dm3 H2O to generate osmotic
(C) 1.432 (D) 1.882 pressure of 0.245 atm. at 300K ?
6. Calculate the molar mass of nnonvolatile solute (R = 0.0821 dm3 atm. K–mol–1)
when 5 g of it is dissolved in 50 g solvent, boils at (A) 1.0 gram (B) 0.72 gram
119.6 o C (C) 1.44 gram (D) 1.75 gram
[ K b  3.2K kgmol1 ; boiling point of pure solvent 12. Which of the following equation correctly
represents molar mass of a solute by knowing
 118o C ] boiling point elevation ?
(A) 180 gmol1 (B) 210g mol1

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
1000  Tb  W2 20. Identify the reason for the solubility of polar
(A) M 2 
K b  W1 solute in polar solvent from the following.
1000  K b  W1 (A) solute - solute interactions, solute - solvent
(B) M 2 
Tb  W2 interactions and solvent - solvent interactions
1000  Tb  W1 are of similar magnitude.
(C) M 2 
K b  W2 (B) solute - solute interactions > solute - solvent
1000  K b  W2 interactions > solvent - solvent interaction.
(D) M 2 
Tb  W1 (C) solvent - solvent interactions > solute - solvent
13. Calculate vapour pressure of a solution interactions > solute - solute interactions.
containing mixture of 2 moles of volatile liquid A (D) solute - solvent interactions > solute - solute
and 3 moles of volatile liquid B at room interactions > solvent - solvent interactions
temperature. (PoA = 420, PoB = 610 mm Hg) 21. What is the osmotic pressure of solution prepared
(A) 600 mm Hg (B) 570 mm Hg
by dissolving 3 gram solute in 2dm3 water at 300K.
(C) 534 mm Hg (D) 480 mm Hg
(Molar mass of solute = 60 g mol–1 R = 0.0821
14. Calculate the molar mass of non volatile solute
dm3 atm K–1 mol–1)
when 1g of it is dissolved in 100g solvent
(A) 0.76 atm (B) 0.62 atm
decreases its freezing point by 0.2 K.
[Kf = 1.2 K kg mol-1] (C) 0.51 atm (D) 0.84 atm
(A) 55g mol-1 (B) 60g mol-1 22. A solution of nonvolatile solute has boiling point
(C) 65g mol-1 (D) 70g mol-1 elevation 0.5 K. Calculate molality of solution
15. Which of the following solutions on complete [Kb = 2.40 K kg mol–1]
dissociation exhibits maximum elevation in (A) 0.12 mol kg–1 (B) 0.16 mol kg–1
boiling point? (C) 0.21 mol kg–1 (D) 0.28 mol kg–1
(A) 0.1 M KCl (B) 0.05 m NaCl 23. Calculate the molar mass of solute in a solution
(C) 0.1 m BaCl2 (D) 0.1 m MgSO4 prepared by dissolving 1 gram in 0.3 dm3 solvent
16. Calculate the molar mass of solute when 4g of it having osmotic pressure 0.2 atm at 300 K.
dissolved in 1dm3 solvent has osmotic pressure 2
[R = 0.082 dm3 atm K–1 mol–1]
atm at 300k. [R = 0.082 dm3 atm K-1 mol-1]
(A) 422 gmol–1 (B) 372 gmol–1
(A) 49.2 g mol-1 (B) 44.5 g mol-1
(C) 54.2 g mol -1
(D) 56.4 g mol-1 (C) 390 gmol–1 (D) 410 gmol–1
17. Calculate Tf of aqueous 0.01m formic acid if 24. Assuming complete ionisation, arrange the
van’t Hoff factor is 1.1 [Kf = 1.86 K kg mol-1] following solutions in order of increasing osmotic
(A) 0.042 K (B) 0.020 K pressure.
(C) 0.011 K (D) 0.033 K a) 0.5 m Li2SO4 b) 0.5 m KCl
18. What is the relation between the vapour pressure c) 0.5 m Al2(SO4)3 d) 0.1 m BaCl2
of solution, vapour pressure of solvent and its (A) d < b < a < c (B) b < d < c < a
mole fraction in the solution? (C) a < d < c < b (D) c < d < b < a
(A) P1  P1o x1 (B) P1o  P1x1
25. What type of solution the alloy is ?
(C) P1  P x 2
1
o
(D) P  P1x 2
1
o
(A) Solid in liquid (B) Gas in liquid
19. Calculate the cryoscopic constant of solvent when (C) Solid in gas (D) Solid in solid
2.5 gram solute is dissolved in 35 gram solvent 26. 0.2 molal aqueous solution of KCl freezes at
lowers its freezing point by 3K. –0.680°C. Calculate van't Hoff factor for this
(molar mass of solute is 117 g mol–1) solution ? (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
(A) 3.11 K kg mol–1 (B) 3.56 K kg mol–1 (A) 1.22 (B) 1.32 (C) 1.42 (D) 1.83
(C) 5.52 K kg mol–1 (D) 4.91 K kg mol–1

21
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
27. 0.1 molal aqueous solution of glucose boils at 35. Which of following solutions will not show flow
100.16°C. What is boiling point of 0.5 molal of solvent in either direction when separated by
aqueous solution of glucose ? semipermeable membrane.
(A) 500.80°C (B) 100.80°C (A) 6 g urea dm–3 and 85.5 g sucrose dm–3
(C) 100.10°C (D) 20.8°C (B) 15 g urea dm–3 and 34.2 g sucrose dm–3
28. Calculate the solubility of a gas having partial (C) 6 g urea dm–3 and 34.2 g sucrose dm–3
pressure 0.15 bar at 25°C (D) 15 g urea dm–3 and 171 g sucrose dm–3
[KH = 0.16 mol dm–3 bar–1] 36. If P1 is partial pressure of a gas and x1 is it's mole
(A) 2.4 × 10–2 mol dm–3 fraction in a mixture, then correct relation between
(B) 3.0 × 10–2 mol dm–3 P1 and x1 is
(C) 2.7 × 10–2 mol dm–3 P1
(A) PTotal = P1x1 (B) x1 
(D) 1.8 × 10–2 mol dm–3 PTotal
29. Which from following ionic solids exhibits (C) PTotal = 1 – P1x1 (D) PTotal = P1(1 – x1)
decrease in its solubility in water with increase of 37. The solution containing 18 g dm–3 glucose (molar
temperature? mass 180) in water and another containing 6 g dm–3
(A) NaCl (B) KNO3 of solute A in water boils at same temperature.
(C) NaNO3 (D) Na2SO4 What is molar mass of A?
30. Calculate molar mass of nonvolatile solute if a (A) 54 g mol–1 (B) 90 g mol–1
solution containing 0.35 g solute in 100 g water
(C) 120 g mol–1 (D) 60 g mol–1
has boiling point elevation 0.01 K
38. What is the expected value of Tf for 1.25 m
[Kb = 0.50 K kg mol–1]
CaCl2 solution if 1.25 m sucrose solution has Tf
(A) 265 g mol–1 (B) 175 g mol–1
value x K?
(C) 105 g mol–1 (D) 195 g mol–1
x
31. Calculate van't Hoff factor (i) of 0.2 m aqueous (A) x K (B) K (C) 2x K (D) 3x K
2
solution of an electrolyte if it freezes at –0.660 K.
39. Calculate Henry's law constant if solubility of gas
(Kf = 1.84 K kg mol–1)
in water at 25°C is 5.14 × 10–4 mol dm–3 and
(A) 1.97 (B) 1.79 (C) 0.242 (D) 0.557
partial pressure of the gas 0.75 bar above solution.
32. Vapour pressure of a pure solvent is 550 mm of
(A) 6.85 × 10–4 mol dm–3 bar–1
Hg. By addition of a nonvolatile solute it
(B) 5.14 × 10–4 mol dm–3 bar–1
decreases to 510 mm of Hg. Calculate the mole
(C) 1.028 × 10–4 mol dm–3 bar–1
fraction of solute in solution ?
(D) 1.371 × 10–4 mol dm–3 bar–1
(A) 0.215 (B) 0.072 (C) 0.610 (D) 0.512
40. A solution of nonvolatile solute is obtained by
33. Identify the false statement among the following.
dissolving 0.8 g in 0.3 dm3 water has osmotic
(A) Ideal solution obey Raoult's law over entire
pressure 0.2 atm at 300K. Calculate the molar
range of temperature and concentration.
mass of solute [R = 0.082 atom dm3 K–1 mol–1]
(B) For ideal solution mix V = 0.
(A) 300 g mol–1 (B) 340 g mol–1
(C) Non ideal solution do not obey Raoult's law
over the entire range of concentration. (C) 328 g mol–1 (D) 352 g mol–1
(D) Vapour pressure of non ideal solution always 41. Calculate molar mass of a solute at 300K if 400
lies between vapour pressure of pure components. mg of it is dissolve in 300 mL of water exerts
34. In a solution mole fraction of solute is 0.2 when osmotic pressure of 0.2 atm? (R = 0.0821 L atm
lowering in vapour pressure is 10 mmHg. To get K–1 mol–1)
lowering of vapour pressure of 20 mm Hg, mole (A) 90 g mol–1 (B) 120 g mol–1
fraction of solute in solution is (C) 164 g mol–1 (D) 180 g mol–1
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.8
22
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
42. What is the vapour pressure of a solution 46. Calculate the relative lowering of vapour pressure
containing 0.1 mol of non-volatile solute of solution containing 46 g of nonvolatile solute
dissolved in 16.2 g water (P10 = 24 mm Hg, molar in 162 g of water at 20°C [Molar mass of
mass of water 18 g mol-1)? nonvolatile solute = 46 g mol-1]
(A) 12.4 mm Hg (B) 15.7 mm Hg (A) 0.89 (B) 0.045
(C) 18.1 mm Hg (D) 21.6 mm Hg (C) 0.11 (D) 0.06
43. Carbonated water is an example of a solution of 47. What type of solution is the iodine in air ?
(A) Gas in liquid. (B) Gas in solid. (A) Liquid in solid (B) Solid in gas
(C) Solid in liquid (D) Liquid in gas
(C) Gas in gas. (D) Solid in gas.
48. Calculate the relative lowering of vapour pressure
44. Identify the correct statement from following
if vapour pressure of pure solvent and vapour
properties.
(A) The osmosis is a colligative property. pressure of solution at 25°C are 32 and 30 mmHg
(B) The vapour pressure of solution containing respectively.
nonvolatile solute is lower than that of pure (A) 0.0721 (B) 0.0552
solvent at any given temperature. (C) 0.0625 (D) 0.9375
(C) The osmotic pressure of 0.1M NaCl solution 49. Calculate the molality of solution if its depression
is lower than 0.1M sucrose solution. in freezing point is 0.18 K [Kf = l.6 K kg mol–1]
(D) The boiling point of solution containing (A) 0.195 m (B) 0.174 m
nonvolatile solute is lower than that of pure (C) 0.156 m (D) 0.113 m
solvent.
45. Calculate van’t Hoff factor of 0.15 m solution of
electrolyte if it freezes at -0.5 K
[Kf  1.86K kg mol1 ]
(A) 1.12 (B) 1.25
(C) 1.45 (D) 1.79

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C C D D C C B B B
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C D C B C A B A D A
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C D A D D B A D B
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B B D B C B D D A C
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
Ans. C D A B D C B C D

23
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
13. IONIC EQUILIBRIA

1. What is the ratio of concentration of salt to 9. Calculate the pH of buffer solution containing
concentration of weak acid in buffer solution to 0.027 M weak acid and 0.054 M of its salt strong
maintain it’s pH value 7.2 (pKa=6.2) base if pK a is 4.2
(A) 1.5 (B) 10.0 (C) 5.0 (D) 8.5 (A) 4.5 (B) 3.2 (C) 5.6 (D) 6.4
2. What is the value of pOH if a buffer solution is 10. Which of the following compounds is amphoteric
prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.4 M in nature ?
NH4OH and 0.5M NH4 Cl solutions. (A) HCl (B) H2O
 pKb  4.730  (C) CH3COOH (D) NaOH
(A) 6.0 (B) 4.83 11. Calculate pH of 0.002 M KOH solution.
(C) 10.42 (D) 7.81 (A) 10.4 (B) 11.3 (C) 12.4 (D) 13.2
3. Which of the following salt solutions turns red 12. Calculate '' for 0.1 M acetic acid
litmus blue? (Ka = l.0 × 10–5)
(A) NH4 CN (B) NH4 Cl (A) 10–2 (B) 10–3
(C) NH 4 NO3 (D) NaNO3 (C) 10–4 (D) 10–5
4. Calculate H3O  of a monobasic acid if it is 13. Which from following mixtures in water acts
as a basic buffer?
0.04% dissociated in 0.05 M solution.
(A) 1  105 (B) 1.5  105 (A) NH4OH  NH4Cl
(C) 2.0  105 (D) 3.0  105 (B) C6 H5COOH  C6 H5COONa
5. Calculate the solubility product of sparingly (C) H COOH  H COOK
soluble salt BA at 300 K if it’s solubility is (D) CH3COOH  CH3COONa
9.1 103 moldm3 at same temperature. 14. Calculate the pH of a buffer solution
containing 0.35M weak acid and 0.70M of its salt
(A) 9.635  105 (B) 9.012  105
with strong base if pKa is 4.56
(C) 8.281 105 (D) 7.816  105 (A) 6.11 (B) 3.72
6. Which from following species acts as base1, (C) 4.86 (D) 5.65
according to Bronsted – Lowry theory? 15. Calculate the concentration of weak monobasic
HCl  NH3 NH 4  Cl acid if its degree of dissociation and dissociation
(A) Cl  (B) NH3 constant are 5.0 104 and 5.0 109
respectively.
(C) NH 4 (D) HCl (A) 0.01 M (B) 0.02 M
7. Calculate H3O  in 0.02M solution of (C) 0.03 M (D) 0.04 M
16. Which from following salts is NOT derived
monobasic acid if dissociation constant is from weak acid and weak base?
1.8  10 5 . (A) Ammonium fluoride
(A) 3.0  10 4 M (B) 6.0  10 4 M (B) Ammonium cyanide
(C) 2.0  10 4 M (D) 4.0  10 4 M (C) Ammonium acetate
8. Which of the following equations represents the (D) Ammonium chloride
relation between solubility product of salt BA 3 ? 17. Calculate the solubility product of sparingly
1/ 4
soluble salt BA at 25oC if its solubility is
 K sp 
  7.2  107 moldm3 at same temperature.
1/4
(A) S    (B) S  27  Ksp
 27  (A) 4.810  1013 (B) 5.184  1013
1/ 4
 K sp  (C) 6.454  1013 (D) 5.925  1013
 
1/4
(C) S    (D) S  4  K sp
 4  18. Calculate the [OH-] if pOH of solution is 4.94.

24
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
(A) 2.356  105 M (B) 1.881  105 M 28. A buffer solution contains equal concentrations of
(B) 1.417  105 M (D) 1.148 105 M weak acid and its salt with strong base. Calculate
pH of buffer solution if dissociation constant of
19. What is the pOH of millimolar solution of
weak acid is 1.8 × 10–5.
Ca(OH)2?
(A) 4.7447 (B) 5.1420
(A) 2.7 (B) 10.3 (C) 12.3 (D) 11.3
(C) 5.8496 (D) 4.0128
20. Which among the following is correct conjugate
29. Which from the following equations represents the
acid base pair for the equation stated below ?
relation between solubility (mol L–1) and solubility
HCl + NH3 NH4+ + Cl– product for a salt B3A2 ?
1
(A) Cl– and NH4+  K sp  5 1

(B) HCl and NH3 (A) S    (B) S  108  K sp  5

 108 
(C) NH4+ and NH3
1
(D) NH4+ and HCl  K sp  5 1

21. Dissociation constant and degree of dissociation

(C) S  
27
 (D) S   27  K sp  5

 
of weak acid are l.8 × 10–5 and 0.03 respectively. 30. A buffer solution is prepared by mixing 0.01 M HCN
What will be the concentration of solution of weak
and 0.02 M NaCN, if Ka for HCN is 6.6 × 10–10.
acid ?
What is the concentration of H+ ions in solution ?
(A) 0.2 M (B) 0.02 M
(A) 3.3 × 10–6 M (B) 3.3 × 10–10 M
(C) 0.5 M (D) 0.05 M
(C) 1.32 × 10–6 M (D) 1.32 × 10–10 M
22. Which from following buffers is used to maintain
31. A monobasic acid is 5% dissociated in it's 0.02 M
the pH of human blood naturally? solution. Calculate the dissociation constant of acid?
(A) Hydrogen cyanide and sodium cyanide (A) 2 × 10–2 (B) 4 × 10–4
(B) Copper hydroxide and copper chloride (C) 5 × 10–5 (D) 2.5 × 10–4
(C) Carbonic acid and salt of carbonic acid 32. The solubility of CaCO3 is 7 × 10–5 mol dm–3 at
(D) Ammonium hydroxide and ammonium chloride 25°C. What is solubility product at same temperature?
23. Calculate the solubility of sparingly soluble salt (A) 6.7 × 10–9 (B) 9.0 × 10–9
BA in mol dm–3 at 300K if its solubility product is (C) 1.12 × 10–9 (D) 4.9 × 10–9
4.9 × 10–9 at same temperature. 33. Which among the following is the conjugate base
(A) 5.75 × 10–5 (B) 6.40 × 10–5 of HClO4 ?
(C) 7.00 × 10–5 (D) 7.81 × 10–5 (A) ClO42– (B) ClO4
24. Calculate the pH of buffer solution containing (C) HCl (D) ClO4–
0.04 M NaF and 0.02 M HF [pKa = 3.142] 34. What is pH of a centimolar solution of H2SO4?
(A) 4.5 (B) 3.4 (C) 2.6 (D) 5.1 (A) 1.7 (B) 2.0
25. Calculate solubility (mol dm–3) of a sparingly (C) 3.2 (D) 4.5
–
soluble electrolyte AB at 298 K if its solubility 35. Conjugate acid of NH2 and NH3 are respectively
product is l.6 × 10–5 ? (A) NH4OH and NH2OH
(A) 1.6 × 10–3 (B) 2.5 × 10–3 (B) NH3 and NH2–
(C) 4.0 × 10–3 (D) 8.0 × 10–3 (C) NH3 and NH4+
26. What is the pH of 10–8 M HCl solution ? (D) NH4+ and NH3
(A) 8 (B) 7 (C) <7 (D) >8  
NH3  H  
 NH 4
27. Calculate dissociation constant of a weak monobasic
acid if it is 0.05% dissociated in 0.02 M solution. 36. A buffer solution is prepared by mixing 0.2 M
(A) 2.0 × 10–9 (B) 3.0 × 10–9 NH4OH and 1 M NH4Cl.
(C) 4.0 × 10–9 (D) 5.0 × 10–9 What is the pH value of buffer solution ?
25
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
(Give pKb = 7.744) 43. Calculate the solubility in mol dm-³ of sparignly
(A) 5.56 (B) 6.99 (C) 8.44 (D) 9.56 soluble salt BA if its solubility product is 4.9 ×
37. The dissociation constant of a weak monobasic acid 10-13 at same temperature.
is 3.2 × 10–4. Calculate the degree of dissociation in (A) 7.0 107 (B) 7.5 107
it's 0.04 M solution. (C) 8.0  107 (D) 4.9 107
(A) 0.0128 (B) 0.0151 44. Which from following substances acts as a base
(C) 0.078 (D) 0.089 when reacted with water?
-3
38. The pH of 10 M mono acidic base, if it is 1% (A) CH3COOH (B) H2C2O4
ionised is (C) HCl (D) NH3
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 3 (D) 10 45. Calculate the pH of 0.02 M monobasic acid
39. Acidic buffer solution is prepared by mixing having 2% dissociation.
proportionate quantity of (A) 3.4 (B) 4.5
(A) strong acid and it's salt with weak base. (C) 5.1 (D) 5.8
(B) strong base and it's salt with weak acid. 46. Calculate the solubility product of sparingly soluble
(C) weak acid and it's salt with strong base. salt BA at 27°C if its solubility is l.8 × 10–5 mol dm–3
(D) weak base and it's salt with strong acid. at same temperature.
40. The degree of dissociation of 0.01 M solution of (A) 3.24 × 10–10 (B) 2.44 × 10–10
NH4OH is 4.2 × 10–2 . What is the percent
(C) 1.64 × 10–10 (D) 4.00 × 10–10
dissociation of NH4OH?
(A) 2.4 % (B) 4.2 %
(C) 0.2 % (D) 0.4 %
41. Calculate the pH of 0.01M sulphuric acid.
(A) 1.699 (B) 2.00
(C) 0.699 (D) 3.398
42. Which from following mixtures in water acts as a
buffer?
(A) Acetic acid and sodium acetate
(B) Acetic acid and ammonium chloride
(C) Ammonium hydroxide and sodium
chloride
(D) Formic acid and acetic acid

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B A C C A B A A B
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B A A C B D B D A C
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C C B C C D A A B
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. C D D A C A D B C B
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46
Ans. A A A D A A

26
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

14. CHEMICAL THERMODYNAMICS

1. Which among the following is NOT an intensive (A) 4668J (B) 9336 J
property? (C) 4073J (D) 2334 J
(A) Internal energy (B) Viscosity
10. Find the value of Q from following equations.
(C) Surface tension (D) Specific heat
(i) C(s)  O2(g)  CO2(g) H  Q kJ
2. In a process 605 J heat is absorbed by the system
and 360 J work is done by the system on (ii) C  O2  CO2 H  x
surrounding. What is the value of  U ? (iii) C  O2  CO2 H  y
(A) 225J (B) 985J
(A) –(x + y) kJ (B) (x – y) kJ
(C) +245J (D) +985J
x  y xy
3. A gas absorbs certain amount of heat and expands (C) kJ (D) kJ
2 2
by 200cm 3 against a constant external pressure of
11. Which of the following statements is appropriate
2  10 5 Nm 2 . What is work done by system?
as per first law of thermodynamics ?
(A) 400.3J (B) 40.53J
(A) Energy of the system remains constant.
(C) 3.947 J (D) 253.1J
(B) Energy of the surrounding remains constant.
4. If 1 lit gas is enclosed in cylinder, absorbs 302.6 J
(C) Entropy of the universe remains constant.
of heat and expands to 2 lit against constant
(D) Energy of the universe remains constant.
external pressure of 2 atm. Calculate internal
energy change of the gas? 12. Given that
(A) 200 J (B) 300 J C(g) + 4 H(g)  CH4 (g) H° = –1665 kJ
(C) 400 J (D) 100 J What is bond energy per mole of C–H bond ?
5. Which of the following is true for the value of (A) 416 kJ mol–1 (B) –416 kJ mol–1
H  U at constant volume and constant (C) 832.5 kJ mol–1 (D) –832.5 kJ mol–1
pressure? 13. Which of the following symbols represent heat of
(A) R (B) Zero reaction at constant volume?
3 5 (A) H (B) dq
(C) R (D) R
2 2 (C)  S (D) U
6. Calculate enthalpy change for following reaction. 14. Calculate the entropy change for melting 1g ice at
H2 C  CH 2 g   H 2 g   H3C  CH3 g  0oC in J g-1 K-1 if heat of fusion of ice at 0oC is
80 JK-1.
[The bond energy of C  H,C  C,C  C and
(A) 0.039 (B) 0.293
H  H is 414, 347, 615 and 435 KJ respectively]
(C) 8.0 (D) 27.3
(A) 125 kJ (B) –125 kJ
15. Which of the following set of properties is correct
(C) 250 kJ (D) –250 kJ when one mole of a gas is heated keeping volume
7. If bond formation energy of H-H bond is constant by increasing temperature and supplying
433 kJ mol 1 find the bond dissociation energy 500J of heat?
for 0.5 mole H 2 g  . (A) q  w  500J, U  0
(B) q  U  500J, w  0
(A) 108.0 kJ (B) 216.5kJ
(C) q  U  500J, w  0
(C) 433.0 kJ (D) 324.5 kJ
8. What is the value of standard enthalpy of (D) q  500J, U  w  0
formation of dihydrogen? 16. Calculate heat required to convert 9g of liquid
(A) 436.4kJ (B) 0 kJ (C)100.3 kJ (D) 200.5 kJ water to water vapours from following equations.
9. Calculate Gibbs energy change for a reaction
having H  31400 J, S  32 J K 1 at 1000  C ?

27
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
(A) 5.65 k Cal (B) 6.28 k Cal (A) –28.66 kJ (B) 143.3 kJ
(C) 7.05 k Cal (D) 9.72 k Cal (C) 286.6 kJ (D) 573.2 kJ
17. One mole of a gas occuping 3 L volume is 25. Which of the following equations indicates increase
expanded against a constant external pressure of in entropy ?
1 bar to a volume of 15 L calculate work done by
(A) CaO (s) + CO2 (g)  CaCO3 (s)
the system ?
(B) NaCl (aq)  NaCl (s)
(A) 1.200  103 J (B) 2.43  103 J
(C) NaNO3 (s)  Na+ (aq) + NO3– (aq)
(C) 1.200  103 J (D) 2.43  103 J
18. Which from the following defines enthalpy of a (D) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
system? 26. Which from following statements is true about
(A) Ratio of pressure to volume internal energy ?
(B) Product of pressure and volume (A) It increases with increase in temperature.
(C) Internal energy (U) + PV (B) It decreases with increase in temperature.
(D) Internal energy (U) – PV (C) Remain constant on changing temperature.
19. For the reaction, (D) It is not a state function.
C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g)  3CO2 (g) + 4H2O () 27. 2 moles of an ideal gas are expanded isothermally
and reversibly from 20 L to 40 L at 300 K.
at constant temperature, H – U is
Calculate work done. (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
(A) –2RT (B) RT
(A) –5.713 J (B) –3457.9 J
(C) –3RT (D) 3RT
(C) –16.939 J (D) –21.242 J
20. What is change in internal energy of the system
28. What is the frequency of violet light having
when work done by the system is 150 J and
wavelength 400 nm?
system release 300 J of heat ?
(A) 3.0 × 1014 Hz (B) 4.0 × 1014 Hz
(A) +450 J (B) –450 J
(C) 7.5 × 1014 Hz (D) 9.0 × 1014 Hz
(C) +300 J (D) –150 J
29. For an ideal gas, the heat of reaction at constant
21. Two moles of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally pressure and heat of reaction at constant volume
from a volume of 300 cm3 to 2.5 dm3 at 298 K are related by equation..........
against a constant pressure of 1.9 bar. Calculate
(A) H + U = PV (B) U = H + PV
the work done in joules.
n
(A) –418 J (B) –565 J (C) U  H  (D) H  U  nRT
RT
(C) –918 J (D) –950 J
30. For the reaction CH4 (g) + H2 (g)  C2H6 (g)
22. 10 g each of NH3, N2, Cl2 and H2S are expanded
Kp = 3.356 × 1017, calculate G° for the reaction
isothermally and reversibly at same temperature.
at 298 K?
Identify gas that performs maximum work.
(A) –90 kJ (B) –100 kJ
(A) N2 (B) Cl2 (C) H2S (D) NH3
(C) 235.6 kJ (C) 33.56 kJ
23. Identify the factor from following on which heat
31. A gas expands isothermally against a constant
of reaction does not depend.
external pressure of 1 bar from 10 dm3 to 20 dm3
(A) Physical states of reactants and products. by absorbing 800 J of heat from surrounding.
(B) Total number of steps in which reaction occurs. Calculate value of U ?
(C) Temperature of the reaction. (A) 100 J (B) –200 J
(D) Wheather the reaction is carried out at (C) 200 J (D) –300 J
constant pressure or constant volume. 32. Which among the following pair of properties are
24. For the reaction, intensive?
2H2 (g) + O2 (g)  2H2O (g) H° = –573.2 kJ (A) surface tension and viscosity
What is heat of decomposition of water per mol ?
28
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
(B) mass and temperature What will be the PV type of work done during
(C) internal energy and boiling point reaction ?
(D) heat capacity and specific heat (A) Zero J (B) +10 J
33. 2 moles of an ideal gas expands isothermally from (C) –10 J (D) –100 J
5 dm3 to 10 dm3 at a constant external pressure of 41. A system performs mechanical work equal to 15
1.5 bar calculate work done ? kJ and looses 2 kJ of heat to surrounding . What is
(A) 7.5 dm3 bar (B) –7.5 dm3 bar the change in internal energy of a system?
(C) 22.5 dm3 bar (D) –22.5 dm3 bar (A) –15 kJ (B) –17 kJ
34. An ideal gas expands against constant external (C) 13 kJ (D) 19 kJ
pressure of 2 bar from 5 lit to 8 lit and absorbs 10
42. Find the constant external pressure required to
kJ of heat. What is U of the system ?
expand a gas from 2.5 L to 4.5 L if amount of
(A) 10600 J (B) 9400 J work done is 500 J at 298 K ?
(C) –10600 J (D) –9400 J (A) 1 bar (B) 1.5 bar
35. Identify the process from following such that
(C) 2.0 bar (D) 2.5 bar
volume of system remain constant
43. In a particular reaction 'x' kJ of heat is released by
(A) adiabatic process
the system and ‘y’kJ of work is done on the
(B) isochoric process
system. What is internal energy change?
(C) isothermal process
(A) x – y kJ (B) y – x kJ
(D) isobaric process
36. Two moles of an ideal gas are compressed (C) x + y kJ (D) xy kJ
isothermally and reversibly from 40 L to 20 L at 44. The enthalpy of vaporisation of a liquid is 30 kJ
300 K. What is the work done ? mol-1 and entropy of vaporisation is 75 JK-1mol-1
(R = 8.314 J/K/mol) Calculate boiling point of liquid at 1 atm?
(A) 250K (B) 400K
(A) 3.46 kJ (B) 4.16 kJ
(C) 450K (D) 600K
(C) 2.08 kJ (D) 6.12 kJ
45. Find work done on 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27°C
37. Calculate the enthalpy change when 12 g carbon if it is compressed reversibly and isothermally
react with sufficient hydrogen to form methane. If from 1.01 ×105 Nm-2 to 5.05 ×106 Nm-2
enthalpy of formation of methane is –75 kJ mol–1. pressure?
(A) –45 kJ (B) –60 kJ (A) 19.52 kJ (B) 1.95 kJ
(C) –75 kJ (D) –90 kJ (C) 39.04 kJ (D) 3.904 kJ
38. Calculate the value of G for the following reaction. 46. Calculate standard internal energy change for
N2O4(g)  2NO2(g) OF2(g) + H2O(g)  2HF(g) + O2(g) at 300 K, if
–1 –1
if H = 57.44 kJ and S = 176 J K mol fH° of OF2(g), H2O(g) and HF(g) are 20, –250 and
(A) 120.20 kJ (B) –110.24 kJ –270 kJ/mol respectively [R= 8.314 J K–1 mol–1]
(C) –46.4 kJ (D) 4.64 kJ (A) –307.50 kJ (B) –342.48 kJ
39. Under similar conditions enthalpy of freezing is (C) –412.00 kJ (D) –214.48 kJ
exactly opposite to
47. Calculate internal energy change of a system if
(A) enthalpy of fusion
work done by the system is 8 J and heat supplied
(B) enthalpy of vaporization
to it is 40 J ?
(C) enthalpy of solution
(A) –48 J (B) –40 J
(D) enthalpy of atomization
(C) 32 J (D) 24 J
40. 100 ml of H2 (g) and 100 ml of Cl2 (g) were allowed
to react at 1 bar pressure as 48. Which of the following equation relates temperature
of a reaction with H° and S° at equilibrium ?
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g)  2HCl (g)

29
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
T S
(A) H  (B) H 
S T
1
(C) H  TS (D) H 
TS

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C B D B B B B B A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D A D B B A C C C B
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A D B C C A B C D B
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B A B B B A C D A A
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
Ans. B D B B A A C C

30
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

15. ELECTROCHEMISTRY

1. Which from following expressions is used to 7. The molar conductivity of 0.02 M KCl solution is
calculate Ecell for the following cell at 25 C ? 4101cm 2 mol 1 at 25 C . Calculate it’s
conductivity?
Pbs Pb  1M  Ag  10M  Ags 
(A) 8.2  10 3 1cm 1 (B) 2.8  10 3 1cm 1

(A) Ecell  Ecell  0.0592 V  (C) 4.1  10 3 1cm 1 (D) 5.4  10 3  1cm 1
(B) Ecell  E 
cell  0.0592  V 8. Calculate the amount of electricity required to
convert 1.1 mol of Cr2 O72 to Cr 3 in acidic
(C) Ecell  E 
 0.0296  V
cell
medium.
(D) Ecell  E 
cell  0.0296  V (A) 6.369  10 5 C (B) 1.462  10 5 C
2. Which from following is NOT true about (C) 4.839  10 5 C (D) 3.419  10 5 C
electrolysis of molten NaCl? 9. Which of the following statements is NOT correct
(A) Cl2 gas is liberated at anode. for H2  O2 fuel cell?
(B) Na is deposited at cathode. (A) H 2 g  serves as fuel
(C) The decomposition of NaCl into Na  s  and (B) O2 g  is an oxidising agent
Cl2 g is spontaneous.. (C) Platinum wires are used as anode and cathode
(D) Electrical energy is used to carry out the (D) Hot aqueous KOH solution acts as an
reaction. electrolyte.
3. The resistance of decimolar solution of NaCl is 10. The limiting molar conductivities (0) for NaCl,
30ohms. Calculate the conductivity of solution if KBr and KC1 are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2mol–1
the cell constant is 0.33cm 1 . respectively. What is the 0 of NaBr ?
(A) 0.0251cm 1 (B) 0.035 1cm 1 (A) 128 S cm2mol–1 (B) 302 S cm2mol–1
(C) 278 S cm2mol–1 (D) 176 S cm2mol–1
(C) 0.011 1cm 1 (D) 0.029 1cm 1
11. A conductivity cell dipped on 0.05 M KCl
4. The resistance of a conductivity cell of 0.1 M KCl has resistance 600 ohm. If conductivity is
solution is 120 ohm and conductivity is 0.0015 ohm –1 cm –1 . What is the value of cell
1.64  104 Scm 1 . What is the value of cell constant ?
constant? (A) 0.47 cm–1 (B) 0.90 cm–1
(A) 0.0136cm1 (B) 0.0618cm1 (C) 1.5 cm–1 (D) 2.5 cm–1
(C) 0.0196cm1 (D) 0.0731cm 1 12. What is the cell constant, if two platinum electrodes
in conductivity cell are separated by 0.92 cm and
5. Which of the following changes occurs during the
area of cross section is 1.2 cm2 ?
discharging of lead accumulator?
(A) Pb(s) is reduced (A) 0.767 cm–1 (B) 0.906 cm–1
(B) H2SO4 is consumed (C) 1.304 cm–1 (D) 1.104 cm–1
13. Which of the following reactions occurs at
(C) PbSO4 is consumed
cathode during discharging of lead accumulator?
(D) PbO2 is produced
(A) PbSO4(s)  2e  Pb(s)  SO4 2 (aq.)
6. Calculate the quantity of electricity required to
liberate 0.1 mole of chlorine gas during (B) Pb(s)  SO4 2 (aq.)  PbSO4(s)  2e
electrolysis of molten sodium chloride. (C) 
PbO2(s)  4H(aq.) 
 SO4(aq.)  2e  PbSO4(s)  2H2 O(1)
(A) 9665 C (B) 19300 C (D)  
PbSO4(s)  2H2 O(1)  PbO2(s)  4H(aq.)  SO4(aq.)  2e
(C) 14500 C (D) 96500 C

31
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
14. The conductivity of 0.005 M Nal solution at 25oC (A) 0.112 L (B) 0.224 L
is 6.07  104 1cm1 . Calculate it’s molar (C) 1.12 L (D) 2.24 L
conductivity? 22. Resistance and conductivity of a cell containing
(A) 121.41 cm2 mol1 0.1 M KCl solution at 298 K are 115 ohm and
(B) 110.11 cm2 mol1 1.90 × 10–6 Scm–1 respectively. What is the value
(C) 201.11 cm2 mol1 of cell constant ?
1 1 (A) 0.165 cm–1 (B) 1.601 cm–1
(D) 241.4 cm mol 2

(C) 2.185 cm–1 (D) 0.218 cm–1

15. Calculate the amount of electricity required in
23. Which of the following is used to avoid leakage of
coulombs to convert 0.08 mol of MnO 4  to
electrolyte in dry cell?
Mn 2 . (A) Paste of MnO2 (B) Paste of NH4Cl
(A) 96500 C (B) 38600 C
(C) Starch (D) Paste of ZnCl2
(C) 48250 C (D) 19300 C
2  24. What is the quantify of electricity required to
16. If E cell for Cd(s) | Cd (1M) || Ag (1M)
o
| Ag (s) . What
produce 4.8 g of Mg (molar mass = 24 g mol–1)
is the emf of the cell at 25oC? from it's salt solution?
(A) 1.2V (B) 2.4V
(A) 10 F (B) 4 F (C) 1 F (D) 0.4 F
(C) 2.4V (D) 1.2V
25. Which of the following units of electrical
17. What is the conductivity of 0.02M AgNO3
measurement is not equivalent to 1 Siemen ?
solution having cell constant 1.1cm 1 and
(A) –1 (B) AV–1
resistance is 94.5 ohms?
(A) 0.0216 ohm-1 cm-1 (C) CV–1 S–1 (D) 
(B)0.0116 ohm-1 cm-1 26. A conductivity cell dipped in 0.05 M KCl has
(C)0.0416 ohm-1 cm-1 resistance 600 ohm. If conductivity is 0.0012
(D) 0.0859 ohm-1 cm-1 ohm–1 cm–1. What is the value of cell constant?
18. Which of the following expressions for (A) 0.50 cm–1 (B) 0.72 cm–1
conductivity of solution of an electrolyte is NOT (C) 1.5 cm–1 (D) 2.0 cm–1
correct? 27. What is the conductivity of 0.05 M KCl solution if
1 1 cell constant is 1.32 cm–1 and resistance is 528 ohm?
(A) k  (B) k  G
 a (A) 0.0401 ohm–1 cm–1
(C) k 
1a
(D) k   .c. (B) 0.0051 ohm–1 cm–1
R1 (C) 0.0025 ohm–1 cm–1
19. Molar conductivity of 0.02 M weak acid is (D) 0.0691 ohm–1 cm–1
7.92 –1 cm2 mol–1 and it's molar conductivity 28. Which of the following substances conducts
at infinite dilution is 232.7 –1 cm2 mol–1. electricity?
Calculate degree of dissociation of weak acid. (A) Diamond (B) Sulphur (solid)
(A) 0.0112 (B) 0.0341 (C) Molten NaCl (D) Crystalline NaCl
(C) 0.0694 (D) 0.292 29. The molar conductivity of 0.01 M acetic acid at
20. For which electrolyte the molar conductivity at 25° is 16.5 –1 cm2 mol–1 and it's molar conductivity
infinite dilution can not be obtained graphically? at zero concentration is 390.7 –1 cm2 mol–1.
(A) HNO3 (B) H2SO4 What is it's degree of dissociation?
(C) CH3COOH (D) KCl (A) 0.0223 (B) 0.0422
21. What volume of chlorine gas (molar mass 71) is (C) 0.0642 (D) 0.0821
evolved at STP during electrolysis of fused NaCl 30. Which of the following is released at cathode
by passage of 1 amp current for 965 second ? during electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride?
(At STP, V = 22.4 dm3) (A) Cl2 (g) (B) Na (s)

32
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
(C) O2 (g) (D) H2 (g) 39. Calculate the mass of 'Ca' deposited at cathode by
31. Calculate the E°cell of passing 0.8 ampere current through molten CaCl2
Al | Al2(SO4)3 (1M) | | HCl(1M) | H2 (g) (1 atm), Pt in 60 minutes [Molar mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1]
(Given E°Al3+ | Al = –1.66 V) (A) 0.4 g (B) 0.5 g
(A) 1.66 V (B) –1.66 V (C) 0.6 g (D) 0.7 g
(C) 0.533 V (D) 1.14 V 40. Calculate the percentage dissociation of 0.05 M
32. The resistance of conductivity cell filled with solution of weak electrolyte if it’s molar
0.1 M KCl solution is 100 ohm and conductivity is conductivity and molar conductivity at infinite
1.70 × 10–4 S cm–1. What is the cell constant of the dilution are respectively 3.3 –1 cm2 mol–1 and
cell? 132 –1 cm2 mol–1.
(A) 1.70 cm–1 (B) 0.017 cm–1 (A) 4.0 % (B) 3.5 %
(C) 0.058 cm–1 (D) 0.012 cm–1 (C) 2.5 % (D) 10.0 %
33. The conductivity of 0.02 M KC1 solution is 41. The conductivity of 0.02 M solution of AgNO3 is
0.00250 ohm–1 cm–1. What is it's molar conductivity? 0.00216 –1 cm–1 at 298 K. What is it’s molar
(A) 125 ohm–1 cm–2 mol–1 conductivity?
(B) 0.05 ohm–1 cm–2 mol–1 (A) 232.0 –1 cm2 mol–1
(C) 725 ohm–1 cm–2 mol–1
(B) 402.0 –1 cm2 mol–1
(D) 800 ohm–1 cm–2 mol–1
(C) 108.0 –1 cm2 mol–1
34. What is the concentration of an electrolytic solution
(D) 150.0 –1 cm2 mol–1
to have molar conductivity of 101 –1 cm2 mol–1
42. What is the decreasing order of deposition of
and conductivity of 1.01 × 10–2 –1 cm–1 at 298 K?
metal on electrode if standard reduction potentials
(A) 0.05 M (B) 0.1 M
are given as -
(C) 0.15 M (D) 0.2 M
Ag+ | Ag = 0.80 V, Cu2+ | Cu = 0.337 V
35. Cell constant of a conductivity cell is 0.9 cm–1 and
Sn2+ | Sn = –0.136 V, Cd2+ | Cd = –0.403 V
resistance shown by AgNO3 solution is 6530 ohm.
(A) Ag > Cu > Sn > Cd
What is the conductivity of AgNO3 solution ?
(B) Cu > Sn > Cd > Ag
(A) 725 –1 cm–1
(C) Sn > Cd > Ag > Cu
(B) 5870 –1 cm–1
(D) Cd > Sn > Cu > Ag
(C) 1.38 × 10–4 –1 cm–1 43. What is the conductivity of 0.05 M NaOH
(D) 4.72 × 10–4 –1 cm–1 solution having resistance 31.5 ohm and cell
36. Which of the following cannot be used as standard constant 0.315 cm-1?
solution for determination of cell constant of (A) 100ohm1cm1 (B) 0.02ohm1cm1
conductivity cell ?
(C) 0.09ohm1cm1 (D) 0.01ohm1cm1
(A) 1 M KCl (B) 0.l MKCl
44. Which from the following concentrations of a
(C) 0.01 M KCl (D) Saturated KCl
weak electrolyte solution exhibits maximum
37. Find the number of electrons that generate 1 coulomb
molar conductivity?
charge ?
(A) 0.004 M (B) 0.002 M
(A) 6.24 × 1018 (B) 1.25 × 1018 (C) 0.005 M (D) 0.001 M
(C) 6.22 × 1023 (D) 3.12 × 1018 45. Consider the following cell
38. The Ecell of Cu (s) Cu (1M)
 
Ag(1M) Ag(s) is 0.647 2
Zn (s) | Zn (1M) || KCl(sat) | Hg 2 Cl2 | Hg
(paste)
volt. Calculate the E Ag if ECu is 0.153 V
If E cell  1.007V and E calomel  0.242V
(A) 0.8 V (B) 0.5 V
What is the standard potential of Zn?
(C) –0.8 V (D) –0.5 V

33
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
(A) -0.765 V (B) 0.765 V
(C) -1.247 V (D) 1.247 V
46. Calculate the cell constant of conductivity cell
containing 0.1 M KCl solution having resistance
60  and conductivity 0.014 –1 cm–1 at 25°C
(A) 0.42 cm–1 (B) 0.84 cm–1
(C) 0.60 cm–1 (D) 1.04 cm–1
47. What is the number of faraday required to produce
0.18 g aluminium at cathode during electrolysis of
molten AlCl3 ?
(Molar mass of Al = 27 g mol–1)
(A) 0.02 F (B) 0.03 F
(C) 0.25 F (D) 0.30 F
48. Which from following equations represents a
correct relationship between standard cell potential
and equilibrium constant for cell reaction ?
2.303RT
(A) E cell  
nF
0.0592
(B) E cell  log10 K
nF
0.0592
(C) E cell  log10 K
n
0.0592
(D) E cell  nK
n

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C C C B B A A C A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B A C A B D B C B C
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A C B D D B C C B D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A B A B C D A A C C
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
Ans. C A D D A B A C

34
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

16. CHEMICAL KINETICS

1. Calculate the time required for reactant to 7. What time is required for 100 g of reactant to
decrease the concentration from 100% to 20% if reduce to 25 g in a first order reaction having half
rate constant of first order reaction is 0.02303 life 5760 year?
hours 1 . (A) 4760 year (B) 8640.26 year
(A) 28 hour (B) 42 hour (C) 2880.15 year (D) 11526.48 year
(C) 56 hour (D) 70 hour 8. Which of the following statements is correct about
2. What is the rate of formation of O2 for the zero order reaction?
(A) Rate of reaction depends on rate constant
reaction stated below?
(B) Rate of reaction is independent of
2N2 O5 g  4NO2 g   O2 g
concentration of reactant.
 d  N 2 O5   (C) Half life of reaction does not depend on
  0.02 mol dm 3s1 
 dt  initial Concentration.
(D) Unit of rate constant is time 1 .
(A) 0.01mol dm 3s1 (B) 0.02 mol dm 3s1
9. For a reaction, 2N2 O5 g  4NO2 g   O2 g
(C) 0.03mol dm 1s1 (D) 0.04 mol dm 3s1
3. Rate law for the reaction 2NO  Cl2  2NOCl is N 2 O 5 disappears at a rate of 0.06 mol dm 3s 1 .
What is rate of NO2 g formation?
rate  k  NO Cl2  . When will the value of k
2

increase? (A) 0.06 mol dm 3s1

(A) by increasing temperature (B) 0.12 mol dm 3s1
(B) by increasing [NO]
(C) 0.18mol dm 3s1
(C) by increasing  Cl 2 
(D) 0.24 mol dm 3s1
(D) by increasing both  NO and  Cl 2 
10. For a zero order reaction A  product. Cone,
4. What is the value of slope, if log10 K (y–axis) is of A decreases from 0.8 mol dm–3 to 0.2 mol dm–3
plotted versus 1 T (x–axis) for Arrhenius in 6 minute. What is rate constant of the reaction ?
equation? (A) 0.01 mol dm–3 minute–1
2.303R (B) 1.0 mol dm–3 minute–1
(A) log10 A (B) (C) 0.1 mol dm–3 minute–1
Ea
(D) 1. 66 mol dm–3 minute–1
E a
(C) (D)  log10 A 11. What is rate constant of a first order reaction if
2.303R
5. For the reaction, A  3B  2C rate of 60% reactant decompose in 45 minute ?
3 1 (A) 0.010 minute–1
consumption of A is 1.4 mol dm sec . Calculate
(B) 0.015 minute–1
rate of formation of C?
(C) 0.020 minute–1
(A) 0.07 moldm3 sec1 (B) 1.4moldm3 sec1
(D) 0.025 minute–1
(C) 2.8moldm 3 sec1 (D) 3.5moldm3 sec1 12. Half life of a zero order reaction is directly
6. In a first order reaction if concentration of reactant proportional to
drops from 0.8 mol L to 0.4 mol L1 in 15 (A) temperature
minute. What is the time required to drop (B) rate constant
concentration from 0.1 mol L1 to 0.025mol L1 (C) amount of product formed
(A) 7.5 minute (B) 15 minute (D) initial concentration of reactant
(C) 30 minute (D) 60 minute 13. Half life of a first order reaction is 1 hour. What
fraction of it will remain after 3 hour?

35
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
1 1 (D) 6.6 × 10–2 mol dm–3 s–1
(A) (B)
8 9 20. For the reaction, NO2(g) + CO(g)  NO(g) + CO2(g)
1 1 rate of reaction is proportional to square of [NO2]
(C) (D)
16 64 and independent of [CO].
1 What is the rate law equation ?
14. In the Arrhenius plot of log K versus find the
T 1

value of intercept on y axis (A) rk

 NO2 2
E a CO
(A) Log10A (B)
R (B) r = k[NO2]2 [CO]0
R 1
(C) Ln K (D) (C) r  k  NO2  CO
Ea 2
15. For the reaction, (D) r = k[NO2]2 [CO]
 2 2 
3I(aq.)  S2 O8(aq.)  2SO4(aq.)  I3(aq.)
21. Find the percentage of unreacted reactant for zero
2 -3 -1
Rate of formation of SO 4(aq) is 0.044 mol dm s . order reaction in 90 second having rate constant

Calculate rate of consumption of I(aq.) . 1 mol dm–3 s–1.
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20%
(A) 0.022 mol dm-3S-1
(B) 0.044 mol dm-3S-1 22. The reaction 2A + B + C  D + E is found to be
(C) 0.066 mol dm-3S-1 first order in A, second order in B and zero order
(D) 0.088 mol dm-3S-1 in C. What is the effect of increasing concentration
16. What is the half life of a first order reaction if of all reactants twice ?
time required to decrease concentration of (A) Rate of reaction increases 8 times.
reactant from 0.8M to 0.2M is 12 hour? (B) Rate of reaction increases 24 times.
(A) 1.5 hour (B) 3 hour (C) Rate of reaction increases 36 times.
(C) 6 hour (D) 12 hour (D) Rate of reaction remains unaffected.
17. For the reaction 2N2O5(g)  4NO2(g)  O2(g) rate 23. Identify order or following reaction.
and rate constant are 1.02  104 mol L1s 1 and 2H2O2(g)  2H2O() + O2(g)
3.4  105 s 1 . What is the conc. Of N2O5? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1.5 (D) 2
1 1
(A) 1.7mol L (B) 3.0mol L 24. For the reaction,N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
(C) 3.4mol L 1
(D) 5.1mol L 1
NH3 is formed at a rate of 0.088 mol dm–3s–1.
18. What is the order of following reaction Calculate consumption rate of N2(g)?
2H2O2(g)  2H2O(l)  O2(g) (A) 0.011 mol dm–3 s–1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (B) 0.022 mol dm–3 s–1
(C) 3 (D) 2 (C) 0.033 mol dm–3 s–1
19. Consider the reaction, (D) 0.044 mol dm–3 s–1
–
3I + S2O82–  I3– + 2SO42–, at a particular time t, 25. For a zero order reaction, A  product.
d SO 4 
2
Concentration of A decreases from 1.2 mol dm–3
is 2.2 × 10–2 mol dm–3 s–1. What is the
dt to 0.4 mol dm–3 in 240 second. What is rate constant
d S2 O82   of the reaction ?
value of ? (A) 0.1 mol dm–3 minute–1
dt
(A) 1.1 × 10–2 mol dm–3 s–1 (B) 0.2 mol dm–3 minute–1
(B) 2.2 × 10–2 mol dm–3 s–1 (C) 0.3 mol dm–3 minute–1
(C) 3.3 × 10–2 mol dm–3 s–1 (D) 0.4 mol dm–3 minute–1

36
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
26. Which of the following is NOT true about order of   A 0 
a reaction ?  given  5.00 

  A t 

(A) It is sum of power of concentration terms in
rate law equation. (A) 0.008 mol dm–3 (B) 0.08 mol dm–3
(B) It may be integer, fraction or zero. (C) 0.016 mol dm–3 (D) 0.032 mol dm–3
(C) It is theoretical quantity 34. If instantaneous rate of reaction is given as
(D) It is experimentally determined quantity. 1 d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C] 1 d[D]
    , then the
a dt b dt c dt d dt
27. Calculate rate constant of first order reaction if
reaction is represented as,
concentration of reactant decreases by 90% in 30
(A) A + B  C + D
minute ?
(A) 2.16 × 10–2 minute–1 (B) aA + B  cC + dD
(B) 3.52 × 10–2 minute–1 (C) aA + bB cC + dD
(C) 4.81 × 10–2 minute–1 (D) aA + bB C + D
(D) 7.67 × 10–2 minute–1 35. Rate law for a reaction is r = k[A]2[B], if rate
constant is 6.25 mol–2 s–1. What is the rate of reaction
28. For the reaction A + B  product, rate law
when [A] = 1 mol dm–3 and [B] = 0.2 mol dm–3 ?
equation is, rate = k [A]2 [B], if rate of reaction is
0.22 mol L–1 s–1. Calculate rate constant. (A) 1.250 mol dm–3 sec–1
([A] = 1 mol L–1, [B] = 0.25 mol L–1) (B) 2.125 mol dm–3 sec–1
(A) 0.44 mol L–1 s–1 (B) 0.88 mol L–1 s–1 (C) 3.105 mol dm–3 sec–1
(C) 1.136 mol L–1 s–1 (D) 3.52 mol L–1 s–1 (D) 2.0 × 10–2 mol dm–3 sec–1
29. Rate of a first order reaction is l.5 × 10–2 mol L–1 36. What is the time needed to reduce the initial
minute–1 at 0.5 M concentration of reactant, calculate concentration of reactant to 10% in a first order
half life of reaction ? reaction if its half life time is 10 minutes?
(A) 0.383 minute (B) 7.53 minute (A) 15 minute (B) 20 minute
(C) 8.73 minute (D) 23.1 minute (C) 25 minute (D) 33 minute
30. Which from following decides the rate of multistep 37. For the reaction 2NO(g) + 2H2(g)  N2(g) + 2H2O(s)
reaction? rate = k [NO]2[H2]. What is the order of reaction
(A) rate of slowest step. with respect to H2 and over all order of reaction
(B) rate of fastest step. respectively ?
(C) average rate of various steps. (A) 0, 2 (B) 1, 3 (C) 2, 1 (D) 3, 1
(D) instantaneous rate of fast step. 38. Which among the following statements is NOT
31. Which of the following is an elementary reaction ? true about rate constant?
(A) C2H5I(g)  C2H4(g) + HI(g) (A) It is independent of concentration.
(B) 2NO2Cl(g)  2NO2(g) + Cl2(g) (B) It varies with temperature.
(C) 2NO2(g) + F2(g)  2NO2F(g) (C) For unit concentration it is equal to rate of
reaction.
(D) 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) 2NaCl(g)
(D) It is directly proportional to the product of
32. Rate constant of a reaction,
concentrations of reacting species.
2NO2Cl2(g)  2NO2(g) + Cl2(g) is 4.7672 minute–1.
39. A first order reaction takes 40 minute for 20%
Calculate half life of reaction.
decomposition. Calculate it's rate constant.
(A) 0.0727 minute (B) 0.1454 minute
(A) 5.6 × 10–3 minute–1
(C) 0.2181 minute (D) 0.4362 minute
(B) 4.5 × 10–3 minute–1
33. Initial concentration of reactant in a first order
reaction is 0.08 mol dm–3. What concentration (C) 6.5 × 10–3 minute–1
would remain after 40 minute ? (D) 7.2 × 10–3 minute–1

37
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
40. The reaction given below (A) 14mol2dm6s 1 (B) 12mol2dm6s1
2NH3(g) 
Pt
 N2(g)  3H2(g) has rate of reaction (C) 18mol2dm6s1 (D) 20mol2dm6s1
2.5 × 10–6 mol/sec-1. What is the rate of formation 45. A zero order reaction has half life time of 0.2
of H2 ? minute. If initial concentration of reactant is 0.2
(A) 2.5 × 10–6 mol sec–1 mol dm-³. Find rate constant?
(B) 3.75 × 10–6 mol sec–1 (A) 0.2mol1dm3 min 1
(C) 5.0 × 10–6 mol sec–1 (B) 0.5mol1dm3 min 1
(D) 7.5 × 10–6 mol sec–1
(C) 1.4mol1dm3 min 1
41. For a reaction r = k [A] [B]2 if concentration of A
is doubled the rate of reaction (D) 6.0mol1dm3 min 1
(A) increases by 2 (B) increases by 4 46. In a first order reaction 60% of the reactant
1 converts into product in 45 minute. Calculate rate
(C) decreases by (D) decreases by 2
2 constant of the reaction.
42. For reaction A + B  product, rate of reaction is (A) 0.0102 minute–1 (B) 0.0204 minute–1
3.6 × 10–2 mol dm-3 sec-1. When [A] = 0.2 mol (C) 0.0306 minute–1 (D) 0.0408 minute–1
dm–3 and [B] = 0.1 mol dm–3, calculate rate 47. For the reaction,
constant of reaction if reaction is first order in A CH3Br(aq) + OH–(aq)  CH3OH(aq) + Br–(aq)
and second order is B ?
rate of consumption of OH–(aq) is x mol dm–3 s–1
(A) 3.6 mol–2 dm6 sec–1 (B) 1.8 mol–2 dm–6 sec–1
What is the rate of formation of Br–(aq) ?
(C) 18 mol–2 dm6 sec–1 (D) 36 mol–2 dm–6 sec–1
(A) 0.5x mol dm–3 s–1 (B) x mol dm–3 s–1
43. Which of the following is true for a reaction as
per collision theory? 3
(C) 2x mol dm–3 s–1 (D) x mol dm–3 s–1
(A) Every collision between reactants leads to 2
chemical reaction. 48. For the reaction,
(B) It may be expected that Rate of reaction is H2(g) + Br2(g)  2 HBr(g), r = K [H2] [Br2]1/2
equal to rate of collision. What is the molecularity and order of reaction
(C) For gas phase reactions the number of respectively ?
collisions is far less compared to observed rate. (A) Monomolecular and 1/2
(D) The colliding molecules do not need proper
(B) Monomolecular and 1
orientation.
(C) Monomolecular and 3/2
44. Rate of reaction, A + B  product, is 7.2 × 10-2
(D) Bimolecular and 3/2
mol dm-3 s-1 at [A] = 0.4 mol dm-3 and [B] = 0.1
mol dm-3. The reaction is first order in A and
second order in B. Calculate rate constant.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D A A C C C D B B C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C D A A C C B A A C
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B A B D B C D B D A
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A B C C A D B D A D
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
Ans. A C B C B B B D

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

17. ELEMENTS OF GROUPS 16, 17 AND 18 (P - BLOCK)

1. Identify the element having outer electronic 13. Which from following elements has highest value
2 5
configuration ns np . of ionization enthalpy (1H1)
(A) I (B) Te (C) Ar (D) Ne (A) He (B) Ar (C) Cl (D) I
2. What is the number of moles of sulphur atoms 14. What is the shape of bromine pentafluoride ?
present in n mole molecules of mustard gas? (A) Trigonal pyramidal
(A) n (B) 3 n (B) Square pyramidal
(C) 2 n (D) 4 n (C) Square planar
3. Identify a compound having highest thermal
(D) Distorted octahedral
stability.
15. What is the oxidation state of iodine in I2Cl6 ?
(A) ICl (B) BrCl
(C) BrF (D) ClF (A) +7 (B) –3 (C) +3 (D) –2
4. Identify the element with lowest 16. Which from following elements is NOT a member
electronegativity? of group 16 from periodic table?
(A) O (B) S (C) F (D) Cl (A) Tellurium (B) Polonium
5. Identify the correct decreasing order of thermal (C) Selenium (D) Astatine
stability from following. 17. If four different elements A, B, C and D having
(A) ClF > ClI > IBr > BrCl electronic configuration as
(B) BrCl > IBr > ClI > ClF A = [Ne]3s23p4, B = [Ne]3s23p5, C = [Ar]3d104s24p4
(C) ClF > IBr > BrCl > ClI and D = [Ar]3d104s24p5.
(D) ClF > ClBr > IBr > ClF Identify the element with largest atomic radius.
6. What is the number of lone pair of electrons (A) A (B) B
involved in IF2 will be molecule ? (C) C (D) D
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) Zero 18. What type of hybridisation is involved in central
7. Identify the element having lowest first ionization atom of hydride of group 16 elements ?
enthalpy? (A) sp3d2 (B) sp3 (C) sp2 (D) sp
(A) Po (B) Te (C) Br (D) Kr 19. Which among the following P–block elements
8. What is the value of electronegativity of oxygen? forms colourless and odourless hydride?
(A) 4.0 (B) 3.5 (A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen
(C) 2.48 (D) 3.2 (C) Sulphur (D) Selenium
9. Which from following compounds is NOT in 20. Which among the following minerals contains
solid state at 25oC?
radioactive element in it ?
(A) ICl (B) IBr
(A) Cleveite (B) Carnallite
(C) IF3 (D) IF5
10. What is the number of lone pair of electrons on (C) Chile salt petre (D) Baryte
central halogen atom in BrF3? 21. Which element from following has largest atomic
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 0 size as compared to other three?
11. What is the number of moles of Cl atoms and N (A) S (B) Se (C) Cl (D) Br
atoms respectively present in n moles of tear gas ? 22. What is O – O bondlength in ozone molecule?
(A) 3n Cl and n N (B) 2n Cl and 2n N (A) 128 pm (B) 117 pm
(C) n Cl and n N (D) n Cl and 2n N (C) 107 pm (D) 134 pm
12. Which from following compounds is most covalent? 23. What is the number of moles of water molecules
(A) SbCl3 (B) PbCl2 (C) SnCl4 (D) SnCl2 present in a mole of carnallite?
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 1

39
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
24. Which group element from following achieves
nobel gas configuration by Gaining or sharing
electrons?
(A) Group -14 (B) Group - 15
(C) Group - 16 (D) Group -13
25. Which element from following combines with
hydrogen to form a compound with lowest
thermal stability?
(A) F (B) I (C) Cl (D) Br
26. Identify the angle O-S-O in SO₂ molecule.
(A) 119.5° (B) 180°
(C) 109° (D) 107.5°
27. Which from following compounds is NOT in
gaseous phase at 25°C ?
(A) CIF (B) BrF
(C) IF3 (D) CIF3
28. Identify a compound having properties of tear gas?
(A) SOCl2
(B) COCl2
(C) Cl (CH2)2S (CH2)2Cl
(D) C Cl3NO2

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A D B A A A B D A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C A B C D C B A A
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. B A A C B A C D

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

18. TRANSITION AND INNER TRANSITION ELEMENTS

1. Which element from following exhibits lowest (A)These are bad conductors of heat and
number of different oxidation states? electricity.
(A) Sc (B) Cu (C) Ti (D) Zn (B)These are soft metals.
2. What is the total number of unpaired electrons in (C) Coordination number is usually greater than
an element placed at period-4 and group-12 either six.
in excited or at ground state? (D)These are strongly paramagnetic.
(A) Zero (B) One 13. Which element from following has half filled 4f
(C) Two (D) Three orbital at observed ground state?
3. Identify elements present in copper pyrties (A) Gd (B) Sm
(A) Cu,K,S (B) Mg,Cu,P (C) Nd (D) Ho
(C) Ca,S,O (D) Fe,Cu,S 14. Which from following elements belongs to the
4. Which from following is NOT a lanthonoid actinoids?
element? (A) Cm (B) Pm (C) Tm (D) Sm
(A) Pm (B) Er 15. What is the number of electrons present in d–subshell
(C) Yb (D) Hf
if it's atomic number is 27 and oxidation state is
5. Which from following catalysts is used in the
Haber’s process for manufacture of ammonia? +2 ?
(A) MnO2 (B) Mo / Fe (A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 5
(C) Co – Th (D) Fe – Cr 16. Which element from following in +2 state exhibits
6. Which from following metal ions in their highest magnetic moment ?
respective oxidation states forms coloured (A) Fe (B) Cr (C) Mn (D) Ni
compound? 17. What is the highest oxidation state of third row
(A) Zn 2 (B) Fe 2  (C) Cu  (D) Sc3 transition elements?
7. What is the number of electrons present in3d (A) +5 (B) +6 (C) +7 (D) +8
orbital of Ti in +2 state? 18. Identify rare earth element from following.
(A) Zero (B) One
(A) Sm (B) Hg (C) Zn (D) W
(C) Two (D) Three
19. Which element from following has completely
8. Identify the element having smallest ionic size in
filled f orbital in observed and expected electronic
+3 state from following.
configuration ?
(A) Nd (B) Sm
(A) Sm (B) Pr (C) Lu (D) Dy
(C) Ho (D) Lu
20. Which element from following does NOT exhibit
9. Which from following lanthanoids exhibits no
magnetic moment in +2 state?
effective magnetic moment in +3 state ?
(A) Mn (B) Co
(A) Ce (B) La
(C) Gd (D) Eu (C) Fe (D) Zn
10. Identify a mineral of zinc from following. 21. Identify false statement about transition elements.
(A) Siderite (B) Calamine (A) These exhibit properties between those of s
(C) Chalcocite (D) Limonite and p block element.
11. Which pair of elements from following has half (B) All these elements are grouped as 3d to 6d
filled d-orbital in observed electric configuration? series.
(A) Cu and Mn (B) Mn and Cr (C) 5d series is comprised of all elements from
(C) Zn and Co (D) Cu and Zn La (Z = 57) to Hg(Z = 80)
12. Which from following properties of lanthanoids
(D) Elements of 6d series belongs to 7th period of
is NOT true?
periodic table.

41
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
22. Which element from following has lowest ionization 29. Which among the following properties is NOT
enthalpy (IE1) ? exhibited by transition elements
(A) Cu (B) Sc (C) Mn (D) Zn (A) These are generally hard.
23. Which element from following exhibits highest (B) These form alloys with other metals.
number of various different possible oxidation (C) These do not conduct heat.
states?
(D) These are malleable and ductile.
(A) Fe (B) Cr (C) Mn (D) Ni
30. Which from following elements has completely
24. Which element from following is a last element of
filled 4f orbital at expected ground state
5d-transition series ? configuration?
(A) Hg (B) Cd (A) W (B) Yb
(C) In (D) Ag (C) Eu (D) Cd
25. Which element from following is NOT considered 31. What is the general formula of lanthanoid
as transition element on the basis of electronic hydroxide (consider Ln as any lanthanoid
configuration ? element).
(A) Ti (B) V (C) Hg (D) Ag (A) Ln (OH) (B) Ln (OH)2
26. Identify the alloy used for construction of gas (C) Ln (OH)3 (D) Ln (OH)4
turbine engines. 32. Which pair of metal ions from following have
(A) Nichrome (B) Bronze same number of unpaired electrons ?
(C) Stainless steel (D) Cupra–nickel (A) Co2+ and Mn3+ (B) Mn2+ and Zn2+
27. Which from following is a mineral of copper ? (C) Fe3+ and Mn2+ (D) Sc3+ and Co2+
(A) Chalcopyrite (B) Zincite 33. Identify an actinoid element from following.
(C) Limonite (D) Siderite (A) No (B) Mo (C) Co (D) Ce
28. Which of the following alloys is used in construction
of outer fuselage of ultra-high speed air craft?
(A) Nichrome (B) Cupra - nickel
(C) Stainless steel (D) Bronze

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D A D D B B C D B B
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B A A A B C D A C D
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B C A C A A C C B
Que. 31 32 33
Ans. C C A

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

19. COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

1. Identify the number of donor atoms in EDTA uses a pair of electrons of either donor atom to
molecule that form coordinate bond with central form coordinate bond.
metal atom or ion in a complex. (A) Aqua (B) Ethylenediamine
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 6 (D) 4 (C) Sulphato (D) Nitrito
2. Which from following complexes contains only 11. Which from following ligands is able to form
neutral ligands in it? linkage isomers?
(A) Pentaammineaquacobalt(III) chloride (A) Aqua (B) Ammine
(B) Triamminetrithiocyanatorhodium(III) (C) Iodo (D) Nitro
(C) Bis(ethylenediamine) 12. Identify the total number of complexes having
dithiocuanatoplatinum(IV) bidentate ligands in them from following list of
(D) Triamminetrinitrocobalt(III) complexes.
3. What is EAN of Cu in Cu  NH3 4  ?
2 (A) Tetracyanonickelate (II) ion
(B) Trioxalatocobaltate (III) ion
(A) 36 (B) 29 (C) Sodium hexafluoroaluminate (III)
(C) 30 (D) 35 (D) Bis (ethylenediamine) dithiocyanatoplatinum
4. Find the total number of moles of donor atoms (IV)
present in one mole Trioxalatocobaltate (III) ion. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 12 (D) 4 13. Which from following coordinate complexes is a
5. Identify the formula of
heteroleptic complex ?
pentaaquaisothiocyanatoiron (III) ion form
(A) Pentacarbonyliron (0)
following.
3 (B) Triamminetrinitrocobalt (III)
(A) Fe  H2 O 5  SCN  
(C) Tetraamminecopper (II) ion
2
(B) Fe  H2 O 5  NCS   (D) Tetracyanonickelate (II) ion
3 14. What is the oxidation state of central metal ion in
(C) Fe  H 2 O 3  NCS 2  [Fe(CN)6]4– complex?
5
(D) Fe  H 2 O 2  SCN 3  (A) +2 (B) –6 (C) –4 (D) +3
15. Which from following is a formula of sodium
6. What is the coordination number of central metal
3
hexafluoroaluminate (III)?
ion in  Fe  C2 O4 3  ? (A) Na3[AlF6] (B) Na[AlF6]
2+
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 12 (C) Na2[AlF6] (D) [Al(NaF)6]2+
7. Which from following ligands is able to form 16. What type of isomerism is exhibited by
linkage isomers ? [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl] Cl2.H2O
(A) SCN (B) H2O (A) Coordinate (B) Solvate
–
(C) CN (D) C2O42– (C) Ionization (D) Linkage
8. Which from following ligands has highest filed 17. Identify heteroleptic complex from following.
strength ? (A) Na3[Co(NO2)6] (B) [Fe(H2O)5(NSC)]2+
(A) S– – (B) OH– (C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (D) [Co(C2O4)3]3–
(C) EDTA (D) en
18. What is the number of moles of ionisable Cl– ions
9. Identify neutral sphere complex from following.
in a coordinate complex if it forms two moles of
(A) Pentaamminecobalt (III) sulphate
AgCl when treated with silver nitrate solution in
(B)Potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (III)
excess?
(C)Diamminedichloroplatinum (II)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(D) Potassiumhezacyanoferrate (III)
10. Identify a ligand having two donor atoms but
43
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
19. Identify a complex having monodentate ligand 25. What is the number of electrons lost by Cr in a
from following. complex [Cr(CO)6] ?
(A) Tetracyanonickelate (II) ion (A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 2
(B) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III) 26. Which among the following is a cationic complex?
(C) Trioxalatocobaltate (III) ion (A) Na4[Fe(CN)6] (B) [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4
(D) Bis(ethylenediamine)dithiocyanato platinum (IV) (C) [Ni(CO)4] (D) K3[Fe(CN)6]
20. Identify the type of hybridization present in 27. What type of hybridization is present in
[Ni(CN)4]2– ? [Co(NH3)6]3+ complex?
(A) sp3d2 (B) dsp2 (C) sp3 (D) d2sp3 (A) d2sp3 (B) sp3d2
21. What is the number of unpaired electrons present (C) sp3 (D) dsp3
in [CoF6]3– ? 28. What is EAN of Zn in [Zn(NH3)4]2+ ?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1 (A) 32 (B) 28
22. Which among the following is a correct decreasing (C) 30 (D) 36
order of thermodynamic stability of the complexes? 29. Which from following complexes is having
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Ag(CN)2]– > [Cu(CN)4]2– ambidentate ligand in it?
(B) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Cu(CN)4]2– > [Ag(CN)2]– (A) Triamminetrinitrocobalt (III)
(C) [Ag(CN)2]– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Cu(CN)4]2– (B) Pentacarbonyliron (0)
(D) [Cu(CN)4]2– > [Ag(CN)2]– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ (C) Tetraaminecopper (II) ion
23. What type of ligand is the oxalate ion ? (D) Trioxalatocobaltate (III) ion
(A) Monodentate (B) Bidentate 30. What is the number of moles of donor atoms
present in one mole oxalate ion ?
(C) Ambidentate (D) Hexadentate
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 4
24. Which from following is a correct stability order
of complex formed by metal ions if the ligand 31. Which from following ligands is neutral ?
remains same ? (A) Ammine (B) Chloro
(A) Fe2+ > Mn2+ > Co2+ (C) Sulphato (D) Nitrito
(B) Co2+ > Fe2+ > Mn2+
(C) Co2+ > Mn2+ > Fe2+
(D) Fe2+ > Co2+ > Mn2+

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A D A B C A D C D
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D B B A A B B B A B
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A B B B A B A D A B
Que. 31
Ans. A

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

20. HALOGEN DERIVATIVES

1. Which of the following compound is obtained by (B)

using Swartz reaction?
(A) Alkyl iodides
(B) Alkyl bromides
(C) Alkyl chloride
(D) Alkyl fluorides (C)
2. Which of the following is NOT obtained when a
mixture of bromoethane and 1-bromopropane is
treated with sodium metal in dry ether?
(D)
(A) Propane (B) Butane
(C) Pentane (D) Hexane
3. Which among the following is haloarene?
7. Identify the substrate ‘S’ in the following reaction.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
(A) p-Nitrochlorobenzene
(B) o-Nitrochlorobenzene
4. Identify chiral molecule from following.
(C) 2,4,6,-trichloronitrobenzene
(A) 2–Chloropropane
(D) 2,4,6- trinitrochlorobenzene
(B) 2–Chloro–2–methylbutane
8. Which of the following compounds has difficulty
(C) 3–Chloro–3–methylbutane
in breaking the C  Cl bond?
(D) 3–Chloropentane
(A) o-Nitrochlorobenzene
5. What is IUPAC name of the following
(B) m-Nitrochlorobenzene
compound?
(C) p-Nitrochlorobenzene
(D) 2,4,6-trinitrochlorobenzene
9. Which from following properties is NOT identical
for Enantiomers?
(A) Melting point
(A) 3–Bromo–4–ethylbut–3–ene (B) Density
(B) 3–Bromo–4–methylhex–3–ene (C) Refractive index
(C) 4–Bromo–3–methylhex–3–ene (D) Sign of optical rotation
(D) 4–Bromo–4–ethyl–3–methylbut–3–ene 10. What is the number of moles of N atoms and
6. Identify the major product obtained in the number of moles of oxygen atoms respectively
following reaction. present in one mole of uracil ?
Chlorobenzene  Cl2
 major product (A) 1 and 5 (B) l and 3
Anhydrous FeCl3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 2
(A)
11. Which from following molecules exhibits lowest
dipole moment ?
(A) CH3F (B) CH3C1
(C) CH3Br (D) CH3I

45
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
12. Which from following alkyl halides has highest 19. The decreasing order of reactivity of following
boiling point ? alcohols with halo acid is
(A) CH3F (B) CH3Cl (I) CH3OH
(C) CH3Br (D) CH3I (II) CH3CH2OH
13. Identify the chiral molecule from following. OH
(A) 2-Iodopropane
(B)2-Iodo-2-methylbutane (III) CH3 CH CH3
(C)2-Iodo-3-methylbutane OH
(D) 3-Iodopentane
14. The correct order of reactivity for reactions (IV) CH3 CH CH3
involving cleavage of C-Cl bound in following
CH3
compounds is
(A) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
(B) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(C) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
(D) (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
20. Which among the following is NOT a true
(A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I
statement regarding enantiomers?
(C) III > I > II (D) III > II > I
15. Which of the following is correct decreasing (A) Enantiomers have identical refractive index.
order of boiling point of compounds? (B) Enantiomers have same chemical properties.
(A) CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH2Br2 > CHBr3 (C) Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images
(B)CH3Br > CH2Br2 > CHBr3 > CH3Cl of each other.
(C)CHBr3 > CH2Br2 > CH3Br > CH3Cl (D) Enantiomers have equal but opposite optical
(D) CH3Br > CH3Cl > CHBr3 > CH2Br2 rotation.
16. Which among the following is NOT allylic 21. Identify the product obtained when chlorobenzene
halide? is heated with conc. HNO3 in presence of conc.
(A) CH2  CH  CH2  X H2SO4.
(B) CH3  CH  CH  CH2  X (A) Only l–chloro–4–nitrobenzene
(C) CH3  CH2  CH  CH  CH2  X (B) Only l–chloro–2–nitrobenzene
(D) CH3  CH  CH  CH2  CH2  X (C) Mixture of l–chloro–4–nitrobenzene and
17. Identify the product ‘Z’ in the following series of l–chloro–2–nitrobenzene
reactions. (D) 2,4,6–trinitrochlorobenzene
22. Which is the most commonly used refrigerant
Freon–12?
(A) Ethylchloride (A) Monochloromonofluoromethane
(B) Ethylmagnesium chloride (B) Dichlorodifluoromethane
(C) Ethyl amine (C) Chlorodifluoromethane
(D) Ethane (D) Dichlorofluoromethane
18. Which among the following reactions is used for
23. A gas occupies 11.2 dm3 at 105 kPa. What is the
the preparation of alkyl fluorides ?
volume if pressure is increased to 210 kPa ?
(A) Finkelstein reaction
(A) 5.6 dm3 (B) 16.8 dm3
(B) Swartz reaction
(C) 22.4 dm3 (D) 33.6 dm3
(C) Fittig reaction
24. Which from following alkyl substituted alkenes is
(D) Wurtz reaction
most stable ?

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
(A) R2C = CR2 (B) R2C = CHR Cl Cl
(C) R2C = CH2 (D) RCH = CH2
Cl
25. What is the molar mass of product hydrocarbon
when 2 moles of methyl bromide reacts with large
(D)
excess of sodium in dry ether ?
(A) 15.0 g mol–1 (B) 30.0 g mol–1
31. Identify the major product (99%) formed when
(C) 7.5 g mol–1 (D) 40.0 g mol–1
(CH3)3CH is treated with Br2 in UV light
26. What is the order of ease of dehydrohalogenation
(A) (CH3)3CHCH2Br
of alkyl halides ?
(B) (CH3)3 – C – Br
(A) 3° > 2° > 1° (B) 2° > 1° > 3°
(C) CH3 CH Br
(C) 3° > 1° > 2° (D) 1° > 2° > 3°
27. Identify the product 'P' of following reaction. CH3
CH3OH + CH3MgX  P + MgX (OCH3) (D) CH3 – (CH2)2 – CH2Br
(A) C2H5OH (B) CH2 = CH2 32. Which alkyl halide has highest bond enthalpy of
(C) CH4 (D) C2H6 C–X bond?
28. Which among the following is haloalkyne? (A) CH3 – Cl (B) CH3 – F
(A) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH – X (C) CH3 – Br (D) CH3 – I
(B) CH3 – C  C – CH2 – X 33. Which from following compounds is used to
(C) CH  C – CH2 – CH2 – X prepare a refrigerant R–22?
(A) Monochloromethane
(D) CH3 – CH2 – C  C – X
(B) Dichloromethane
29. Which of the following is NOT obtained when a
(C) Trichloromethane
mixture of methyl bromide and ethyl bromide is
treated with sodium metal in presence of dry ether? (D) Tetrachloromethane
(A) Ethane (B) Propane 34. Which from following is called as Lucas reagent ?
(C) Butane (D) Pentane (A) Conc. HCl + ZnCl2
30. Identify structural formula of DDT. (B) Neutral FeCl3 solution in water
Cl (C) NaNO2 + HCl (dil.)
Cl Cl (D) CHCl3 + NaOH
35. Which among the following has lowest boiling
(A) point?
(A) Chloromethane (B) Bromomethane
Cl (C) Dibromomethane (D) Tribromomethane
Cl Cl
Cl 36. Which among the following is benzylic halide ?
(B) (A) Bromobenzene
Cl (B) Bromo phenyl methane
Cl (C) 4-Bromo toluene
(D) l-Bromo-2-phenylethane
Cl
Cl Cl 37. What is the number of chiral carbon atoms present
in 2-chloro-3,4-dimethyIhexane ?
(C) (A) One (B) Two
Cl Cl (C) Three (D) Four
38. Identify the product x obtained in the following
reaction.

47
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 

CH3CH2Br + CH3COOAg   X + AgBr (A) 1-Bromo-1,2-dimethylbut-2-ene
(B) 4-Bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
(A) CH3CH2COOCH3
(C) 4-Bromo-3, 4-dimethylbut-2-ene
(B) CH3COOCH2CH3
(D) 2-Bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
(C) CH3COOCH3 44. Which of following is NOT optically active
(D) CH3CH2COOCH2CH3 compound?
39. Which of the following isomers of C4H9Br is a (A) 1, 2 Diiodobutane
chiral molecule ? (B) 1,3-Diiodobutane
(A) n-butyl bromide (C) 1,4-Diiodobutane
(B) sec- butyl bromide (D) 2, 3- Diiadobutane
(C) iso-butyl bromide 45. Which among the following has lowest boiling
(D) tert-butyl bromide point?
(A) Chloromethane (B) Fluromethane
40. The correct stability order of alkyl substituted alkenes
(C) Bromomethane (D) Iodomethane
is
46. Which of the following compounds is obtained by
(A) R2C = CHR > R2C = CH2 > R2C = CR2
using Finkelstein reaction?
(B) R2C = CR2 > R2C = CHR > R2C = CH2
(A) Alkyl fluorides
(C) R2C = CH2 > R2C = CR2 > R2C = CHR
(D) R2C = CR2 > R2C = CH2 > R2C = CHR (B) Alkyl chlorides
41. Which among the following is NOT a feature of (C) Alkyl bromides
SN2 mechanism? (D) Alkyl iodides
(A) Single step mechanism. 47. Identify chiral molecule from following.
(B) Backside attack of nucleophile. (A) 2-Bromopropane
(C) Formation of planar carbocation intermediate. (B) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane
(D) Involves simultaneous bond breaking and bond (C) 2-Bromo-3-methylbutane
forming. (D) 3-Bromopentane
42. Which of the following is Vinylic halide ? 48. What is the major product obtained when tert-butyl
(A) Haloalkane (B) Haloalkene bromide is heated with silver fluoride ?
(A) l–Fluoro–2–methylpropane
(C) Haloalkyne (D) Haloarene
(B) 2–Fluro–2–methylpropane
43. What is the IUPAC name of following
compound? (C) 1–Fluorobutane
(D) 2–Fluorobutane

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D A D C B D D B D D
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D D C D C D D B A C
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B A A B A C D D C
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B B C A A B C B B B
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
Ans. C B B C B D C B

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

21. ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS

1. Identify the product obtained when methyl

bromide reacts with sodium tert-butoxide.
(A) iso Butylene and methanol
(B) 1-Methoxybutane (B)
(C) 2-Methoxybutane
(D) 2-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
2. What is the name of ter-butyl alcohol according to
carbinol system?
(A) Methyl carbinol (B) Ethyl carbinol (C)
(C) Propyl carbinol (D) Trimethyl carbinol
3. Which of the following is primary allylic alcohol?
(A)

(D)

(B) CH2  CH  CH2  OH

(C) CH2  CH  C  CH3 2  OH
(D) CH3  C  CH  CH2  CH2  OH
8. Which of the following on reaction with
4. What is the percentage of p–bromoanisole formed Grignards reagent followed by hydrolysis forms
in the bromination of anisole with bromine in secondary alcohol?
acetic acid? (A) HCHO
(A) 10 % (B) 30 % (B) CH3CHO
(C) 60 % (D) 90 %
5. Which of the following is a pair of dihydric (C) CH3  CO  CH3
phenols? (D) CH3  CH2  CO  CH3
(A) Resorcinol and pyrogallol 9. What IUPAC name of propylene glycerol?
(B) Quinol and phloroglucinol (A) Propane-1,2-diole
(C) Phloroglucinol and pyrogallol (B) Propane-1,3-diole
(D) Catechol and Quinol (C) Propene-1,2,3-triol
6. What is the IUPAC name of following (D) Propane-1,2,3,-triol
compound? 10. Identify the product obtained when phenol is
heated with Zn dust.

(A) (B)

(A) 1–Methoxy–2, 2–dimethylcyclobutane OH

(B) 1–Methoxy–4, 4–dimethylcyclobutane (C) 3CH  CH (D)
(C) 2–Methoxy–1, 1–dimethylcyclobutane
(D) 2, 2–dimethylcyclobutoxymethane 11. Identify the compound having highest solubility in
7. Which of the following is secondary benzylic water from following?
alcohol? (A) Phenol
(A) (B) tert Butyl alcohol
(C) o-Nitrophenol
(D) P-Nitrophenol

49
 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
12. Identify compound Q in following reaction. (D) By the action of sodium alkoxide on alkyl halide.
R – OH + Q  R – Cl + HCl + POCl3
(A) HCl (B) PCl3 20. IUPAC name of the compound is
(C) PCl5 (D) SOCl2 OCH3
13. Identify the product of following reaction (A) 1–Methoxy–3, 3–dimethylbutane
(B) 1–Methoxy–3, 3–dimethylcyclobutane
(C) 3–Methoxy–1,1–dimethylbutane
(D) 3–Methoxy–1,1–dimethylcyclobutane
(A) Benzene (B) Benzoic acid
21. What is the product obtained in the reaction ?
(C) Benzaldehyde (D) p-benzoquinone
14. Which of the following is a secondary allylic CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CHO 
(i) LiAlH 4
(ii) H O 
 product
3

alcohol?
(A) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(A) CH2  CH  CH2  OH (B) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – COOH
CH 2  CH  CH  OH
| (C) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO
(B) CH3
(D) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(C) CH3  CH  CH  CH2  OH  

(D) CH2  CH  C(CH3 )2  OH

SO3Na
15. Identify the product obtained when ethers are 22. Identify name of from following.
dissolved in cold concentrated sulphuric acid.
(A) Alkanols (A) Benzene sulphonic acid
(B)Alkanoic acids (B) Sodium benzene sulphonate
(C)Alkyl hydrogen sulphate (C) Sodium phenoxide
(D) Oxonium salts (D) Benzene diazonium sulphate.
16. Which of the following is IUPAC name of 23. Which isomer of C4H9OH has lower boiling point?
hydroquinone?
(A) n-Butyl alcohol
(A) Benzene-1, 2-diol
(B)Benzene-1, 3-diol (B) Isobutyl alcohol
(C)Benzene-1, 4-diol (C) Sec-Butyl alcohol
(D) Benzene-1, 3, 5-triol (D) tert-Butyl alcohol
17. Which among the following is NOT a pair of 24. What is the name of isobutyl alcohol according to
isomers? carbinol system ?
(A) Butan-2-ol and 2-Methylpropanol (A) Ethyl methyl carbinol
(B) Butan-1-ol and 1-Methoxypropane
(B) Isobutyl carbinol
(C) 1-Methoxypropane and Ethoxyethane
(C) Isopropyl carbinol
(D) Methoxy ethane Ethoxyethane
(D) Diethyl carbinol
18. Crytonyl alcohol is an example of
(A) Allylic alcohol 25. Which from following is NOT a dihydric compound?
(B) Benzylic alcohol (A) Crotonyl alcohol
(C) Vinylic alcohol (B) Resorcinol
(D) Polyhydric alcohol (C) Ethylene glycol
19. Which among the following is the method for the (D) Quinol
preparation of ethers ?
26. Which of the following ethers is gaseous at room
(A) By the action of moist Ag2O on alkyl halide.
temperature ?
(B) By the action of aq.KOH on alkyl halide.
(A) 1 - Methoxypropane
(C) By the action of alc.sodium hydroxide on alkyl
(B) 1 - Ethoxypropane
halide.
(C) Methoxyethane
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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
(D) Ethoxyethane 35. The common name of Benzene–1, 2, 3–triol is
27. Which from following compounds is a trihydric (A) Phloroglucinol (B) Pyrogallol
alcohol ? (C) Quinol (D) Catechol
(A) Quionl 36. Which from following reagents is used in the
(B) Catechol conversion of phenol to picric acid ?
(C) Propylene glycerol (A) dil. Nitric acid
(D) Resorcinol (B) conc. Nitrous acid
28. Which isomer of C4H9OH has highest boiling point? (C) conc. Sulphuric acid
(A) n–Butyl alcohol (D) conc. HNO2 + conc. H2SO4
(B) Isobutyl alcohol 37. Identify product 'B' in the following reaction,

(C) sec–Butyl alcohol Sodium phenoxide 
CO2 ,398 K
6 atm
 A 
H3O
B
(D) tert–Butyl alcohol (A) Picric acid (B) Sulphonic acid
29. Identify the product 'B' in the following series of (C) Salicylic acid (D) Salicylaldehyde
reactions. 38. What is IUPAC name of following compound ?
 i Conc.H SO
Propane-1-ol 
Al2 O3
623K
 A  2
(ii) H 2 O
4
B OH
(A) Propene (B) Propanal
(C) Propanone (D) Propan–2–ol
30. Which of the following is a tertiary allylic alcohol?
(A) Prop-2-en-1-ol (A) 2, 5-Dimethylpentan-1-ol
(B) But-3-en-2-ol (B) l,3-Dimethylpentan-2-ol
(C) 2-methylprop-2-en-1-ol (C) 2,5-Dimethylcyclopentanol
(D) 2-methylbut-3-en-2-ol (D) l,3-Dimethylcyclopentan-2-ol
39. Ethers when dissolved in cold concentrated
31. Identify product obtained in following reaction.
sulfuric acid forms,
C6 H5OH 
CrO3
 Product
(A) Alkanols
CHO (B) Alkanoic acids
(A) (B) (C) Alkyl hydrogen sulphate
(D) Oxonium salts
COOH 40. Which of the following compounds is NOT a
(C) (D) O O phenol?
NO2 OH
32. Identify fibrous protein from following.
(A) (B)
(A) Legumelin (B) Myosin
OH
(C) Insulin (D) Serum albumin
33. Which reagent form following is used in Reimer– Br
Tiemann reaction? (C) (D) OH
(A) CO2, 6 atm H3O+ OH
(B) CHCl3, aq. NaOH, H3O+
(C) CS2 (at low temperature) 41. According to carbinol system tert - butyl alcohol
(D) Na2Cr2O7/H2SO4 is named as
34. Which among the following is an example of (A) methyl carbinol (B) ethyl carbinol
emulsion ? (C) propyl carbinol (D) trimethyl carbinol
(A) Foam rubber (B) Froth 42. Phenol on heating with zinc dust forms
(C) Gelatin (D) Hair cream (A) Benzoquinone (B) Cyclohexane

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
(C) Benzene (D) Cyclohexanol (A) 1-Methoxy-3, 3-dimethylcyclobutane
43. Which of the following compounds does not (B) 3-Methoxy-1, 1-dimethylcyclobutane
undergo Williamson's synthesis? (C) 3, 3-dimethylcyclobutoxymethane
(A) C2H5Br (D) 1-Methoxy-3-isopropylbutane
(B) CH3 CH CH2 Cl 48. What is the IUPAC name of following compound?

CH3 CH3 C2H5

(C) C6H5Cl
(D) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl OH
44. What is the product of Hydroboration – oxidation (A) 2-Ethyl-3-methylcyclopentanol
of but – 1 – ene?
(B) 2-Ethyl-5-methylcyclopentanol
(A) Buranal (B) Butanone
(C) 2-Methyl-3-ethylcyclopentanol
(C) Butan – 1 – ol (D) Butan – 2 – ol
45. Identify the product obtained when alkenes react (D) l-Methyl-3-ethylcyclopentanol-2-ol
with cold and dilute alkaline potassium 49. Which reagent is used in the conversion of phenol
permanganate ? to picric acid?
(A) Alkanols (B) Glycols (A) Nitric acid (dil.)
(C) Glycerols (D) Alkanoic acids (B) Nitrous acid (conc.)
46. Which among the following has highest melting (C) Sulphuric acid (conc.)
point ?
(D) Nitric acid (conc.) + sulphuric acid (conc.)
(A) Phenol
50. Which of the following is allylic alcohol ?
(B) P-Nitrophenol
(C) P-Cresol (A) But–l–en–l–ol (B) But–3–en–l–ol
(D) O-Nitrophenol (C) But–2–en–l–ol (D) Butane–l,3–diol
47. What is IUPAC name of following compound?

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D D B D D C C B D A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C D B D C D A D D
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A B D C A C C A D D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. D B B D B D C C D D
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. D C C C B B B B D C

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

22. ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

1. Which of the following compounds is obtained (C) Benzyl amine (D) Benzene
when cyclohexene is oxidised using KMnO4 and 10. What type of product is obtained when formaldehyde
H2SO4 ? react with CH3MgBr in dry ether?
(A) Cyclohexanol (B) Cyclohexanone (A) Primary alcohol with same number of carbon
(C) Benzoic acid (D) Adipic acid atoms as in aldehyde.
2. Which from following compounds is obtained (B) Primary alcohol with one carbon atom more
when acyl chloride is hydrolysed with water? than aldehyde.
(A) Alcohols (B) Aldehydes (C) Secondary alcohol with one carbon atom more
(C) Carboxylic acids (D) Esters than aldehyde.
3. Identify the product ‘B’ in the following sequence (D) Tertiary alcohol with two carbon atoms more
of reactions. than aldehyde.
(A) Dimethyl cadmium 11. Which from following compounds is NOT a mono
(B) Propanone carboxylic acid?
(C) Butanone (A) Phthalic acid (B) Salicylic acid
(D) Propanal (C) o-Tuluic acid (D) Benzoic acid
4. Which of the following is a tricarboxylic acid? 12. Which from the following is a tricarboxylic acid?
(A) Propionic acid (B) Oxalic acid (A) Citric acid (B) Oxalic acid
(C) Malonic acid (D) Citric acid (C) Malonic acid (D) Glutaric acid
5. Identify the product ‘B’ in the following reaction. 13. Which of the following is Stephen reaction?
Ethylphenyl ketone
H 2 N  NH 2 KOH,HO  CH 
  A 
2 2 OH

B
(A)
(A) Phenylhydrazone (B) Ethylbenzene
(C) n–propylbenzene (D) Isopropylbenzene (B)
6. Which of the following reactions represents
clemmensen reduction?
(C)
(A)

(B) R  CN 
SnCl2 ,HCl
 R  CHO  NH4 Cl (D)
H O 3 14. What is IUPAC name of Acrylic acid?
(C) Zn  Hg,conc.HCl
R  CHO   R  CH3  H2O (A) Propanoic acid

(D) R  CO  R  (i) H2 N  NH2 (B) Prop-2enoic acid
 ii  KOH,  ,HO CH2  OH
(C) 2-Methylpropanoic acid
2

R  CH2  R
(D) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
7. Identify the reagent ‘R’ used in the following
15. Which of the following compounds when treated
reaction. Benzoyl chloride R
 Benzaldehyde with ammoniacal silver nitrate exhibits silver
(A) CO,HCl (B) H2 , Pd  BaSO4 mirror test?
(C) DIBAI-H (D) H2 O (A) Ethanol (B) Ethanal
8. Which of the following compounds does not (C) Ethoxy ethane (D) Ethanoic acid
undergo haloform reaction? 16. Identify the product ‘B’ in the following reaction.
(A) Ethanal (B) Propanal
(C) Propanone (D) Butanone
9. What is the product obtained when benzonitrile is (A) Benzal chloride
treated with C6H5MgBr in dry ether and then (B) Benzaldehyde
hydrolyzed ? (C) Benzyl alcohol
(A) Phenol (B) Benzophenone
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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
(D) Benzoic acid (A) n – C4H9OH (B) (CH3)3C–NH2
17. Which among the following is a pair of (C) C2H5N(CH3)2 (D) C2H5COOH
monocarboxylic acids? 26. Identify the product 'B' obtained in following
(A) Malonic acid and propionic acid reaction.
(B)Valeric acid and succinic acid 

(C)Acetic acid and adipic acid R  C  N 

SnCl 2
HCl
 A 
H3 o
B
(D) Butyric acid and caproic acid (A) R–NH2 (B) R–CONH2
18. What is the general molecular formula of (C) R–CHO (D) R–COOH
aldehydes? 27. Identify the product obtained in following reaction.
(A) Cn H2n 1O (B) Cn H2n O
C6H6 
CO, HCl
Anhyd.AlCl3
 product
(C) Cn H2n 1O2 (D) Cn H2n O2 pressure

19. Which among the following compounds does not (A) C6H5COOH (B) C6H5CHO
correctly match with its formula ? (C) C6H5CHCl2 (D) C6H5Cl
(A) Hydrazine : NH2 – NH2 28. What is the product obtained when phenylethene
(B) Semicarbazide : NH2 – NH – CO – NH2 is treated with KMnO4 in dilute H2SO4?
(C) Phenylhydrazine : C6H5 – NH – NH – C6H5 (A) C6H5CH2CHO (B) C6H5CH2COOH
(D) Hydroxylamine : NH2 – OH (C) C6H5COOH (D) C6H5COCH3
20. Which of the following compounds is used to convert 29. What is IUPAC name of the following compounds?
acetaldehyde into acetaldehyde cyanohydrin? COOH
(A) FeCl3 (neutral) (B) H2SO4 (dil.)
(C) HCN (D) NaHSO3
21. Identify the test from following so that aldehyde OH
when boiled with ammoniacal silver nitrate CH3
solution deposits silver. (A) 3-Carboxy-6-methylphenol
(A) Schiff's test (B) 5-Carboxy-2-methylphenol
(B) Tollen's test (C) 3-Hydroxy-4-methylbenzoic acid
(C) Fehling test (D) 4-methyl-5-hydroxybenzoic acid
(D) Iodoform test 30. Identify an aldehyde used in margarine and in
22. What type of following compounds is obtained in food for its buttery odour.
first step of Wolf-Kishner reduction of carbonyl (A) Benzaldehyde (B) Butyraldehyde
compounds? (C) Cinnamaldehyde (D) Oxaldehyde
(A) Carboxylic Acids (B) Alcohols 31. What is IUPAC name of the following compound?
(C) Hydrazones (D) Alkenes OH
23. Identify the product X in the following reaction.
Esoda lim e
Sodium propanoate 
X + sodium carbonate
(A) Propane (B) Ehane H5C2 COOH
(C) Methane (D) Butane
(A) 3-Carboxy-5-ethylphenol
24. Identify product 'B' in the following reaction.
(B) 5-Carboxy-3-ethylphenol

Cumene 
KMnO4 ,KOH

 A 
H3 O
B (C) 3-Ethyl-5-hydroxybenzoic acid
(A) Phenol (B) Benzaldehyde (D) 5-Ethyl-3-hydroxybenzoic acid
(C) Benzophenone (D) Benzoic acid 32. Identify reagent used for preparation of benzophenone
25. Which compound from following has highest from benzonitrile?
boiling point ? (A) C6H5MgBr

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
(B) CH3MgCl (in dry ether) 40. Identity the reagent 'R' used in the following reaction.
(C) (CH3)2Cd Ketone 
R
 Semicarbazone
(D) AlH (i - BU)2
(A) NH2OH (B) NH2 – NH – CONH2
33. Identify the product obtained when excess of
(C) NH2 – NH – C6H5 (D) NH2 – NH2
benzoyl chloride is treated with dimethyl cadmium ?
41. Identify the product formed in the following
(A) Acetophenone (B) Benzoic acid
reaction.
(C) Benzophenone (D) Benzaldehyde
CH3CH2MgBr 
(i) dry ice/ dry ether
 product
34. Which reagent from following is used for (ii) dil HCl

preparation of aliphatic aldehyde from nitriles ? (A) Ethanoic acid

(A) CrO2Cl2 in CS2 (B) Propanoic acid
(B) CrO3 in acetic anhydride (C) 2-Methylpropanoic acid
(C) SnCl2, HCl (D) Butanoic acid
(D) Co, HCl, anhydrous AlCl3 42. Identify reactant 'A' in following reaction.
35. Which among the following salts turns red litmus A  CH3 MgBr 
dry ether
H O
 CH3 CH OH
3

blue in it's aqueous solution?

CH3
(A) Na2SO4 (B) CH3COONa
(A) HCHO (B) CH3CHO
(C) NH4NO3 (D) CuCl2
(C) CH2 OH (D) CH3COOH
36. Identify the product in following reaction
AlH i  Bu 
Pent-3-enenitrile  2
 Product CH2 OH
H O 3

43. Which of the following is a simple ketone ?

(A) Pent–3–en–1–amine
(B) Pentanal (A) Acetophenone (B) Butanone
(C) Pent–3–enal (C) Benzophenone (D) Pentan-2-one
(D) Pent–3–en–l–ol 44. What is IUPAC name of the following
37. What is IUPAC name of following compound? compound?
OH

H5C2 COOH
(A) 3-Carboxy-5-ethyl phenol
(B) 5-Carboxy-3-ethyl phenol
(C) 3-Ethyl-5-hydroxy benzoic acid (A) 3-formyl-5-methylphenol
(D) 5-Ethyl-3-hydroxy benzoic acid (B) 5-formyl-3-methylphenol
38. Identify product 'B' in following reaction (C) 3-Hydroxy-5-methylbenzaldehyde
Br
(D) 5-Hydroxy-3-methylbenzaldehyde
C6H5MgBr H3O+
Benzonitrile A B + NH3 + Mg 45. Which among the following is NOT dicarboxylic
Dry ether
OH acid?
(A) Benzophenone (B) Benzaldehyde (A) Adipic acid (B) Glutaric acid
(C) Benzyl alcohol (D) Benzoic acid (C) Valeric acid (D) Malonic acid
39. Aldol condensation reaction is 46. Identify the substrate ‘A’ in the following
conversion.
(A) Electrophilic substitution
Al H(i  Bu)2
(B) Nucleophilic substitution A    Pent  3  enal
H 3O
(C) Electrophilic addition-elimination reaction (A) Pentanenitrile
(D) Nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction (B) Pent-3-enenitrile

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
(C) Pent-3-en-1-amine
(D) Pent-3-ynenitrile
47. Identify the product formed in the following
reaction.
C6 H 5  CH 2  CH 3 
i) alk. KMnO4
ii) H O
 product
3

(A) C6H5 – CH2COOH

(B) C6H5 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
(C) C6H5 – OH
(D) C6H5 – COOH
48. Identify name of reaction when aldehyde or
ketone react with Zn-Hg/conc. HCl to give alkane.
(A) Stephen reduction
(B) Clemmensen reduction
(C) Wolf Kishner reduction
(D) Rosenmund reduction
49. Identify the product X in the following reaction.
Ethanoyl chloride 
H2 O
 X
(A) Ethanol (B) Ethanoic acid
(C) Ethanal (D) Ethylethanoate

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C B D C C B B B B
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A A B B B B D B C C
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C B D D C B C C B
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. D A A C B C D A D B
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
Ans. B B C C C B D B B
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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

23. AMINES

(A) One (B) Two

1. How may moles of iodomethane are consumed in (C) Three (D) Four
the following convertion? 10. What is IUPAC name of
CH 3 NH 2 
CH3 I

  CH 3 4 N  I  Ethylmethylisopropylamine?
(A) Four (B) Three (A) N-Methyl-N-isopropylethanamine
(C) Two (D) One (B)N-Ethyl-N-methyl propan-1-amine
2. Which of the following isomeric amines has (C)N-Ethyl-N-methylpropan-2-amine
highest boiling point? (D) N-Ethyl-N-isopropylmethanamine
(A) tert-Butyl amine 11. Identify ‘B’ in the following conversion.
(B) Ethyl-dimethyl amine
(C) Diethyl amine
(A) CH3  CH2  CN
(D) n-Butyl amine
3. Which among the following has highest basic (B) CH3  CH2  CH3
strength? (C) CH3  NH  C2 H5
(A) Ammonia (B) Ethylamine (D) CH3  CH2  NH2
(C) Diethylamine (D) Triethylamine
12. Identify the product ‘B’ in the following series of
4. Identify an aromatic, mixed, 3o amine among the reactions.
following compounds.
(A) C6 H5 NHC2 H5 (B)  C2 H5 3 N
(A) Propanal
(C)  CH3 3 N (D) C6 H5 N  CH3 2
(B) Propanone
5. Identify the alkene obtained as major product in (C) 2-Methylpropanal
the following Hofmann elimination reaction. (D) 2-Methylpropanoic acid
 C3H7  N  C2 H5 3 I  
moist Ag O

2 
 A 
H O
2
 13. The major product formed in carbylamine reaction
Alkene + Amine is
(A) Propene (B) Ethene (A) Alkyl halide (B) Alkyl cyanide
(C) But-1-ene (D) But-2-ene (C) Nitroalkane (D) Alkyl isocyanide
6. Which of the following does not have 14. Which among the following compounds is NOT a
intermolecular hydrogen bonding? tertiary amine ?
(A) Cyclohexylamine (A) N, N–Dimethyl aniline
(B) Allylamine (B) N–Methyl–N–Phenyl aniline
(C) Trimethylamine
(C) Butan–1–amine
(D) Diphenylamine
(D) N, N–Dimethyl–1–butanamine
7. Identify the alkene obtained as major product in
the following Hofmann elimination reaction. 15. Which one of the following compounds does not
react with acetyl chloride ?
 C3H7  N  C2 H5 3 I  
moist Ag O

2 
 A 
H O
2

(A) CH3CH2NH2
Alkene + Amine
(B) CH3CH2CH2NHCH3
(A) Propene (B) Ethene
(C) But-1-ene (D) But-2-ene (C) (CH3CH2)3N
8. What is the formula of Hinsberg's reagent ? (D) (CH3)3CNH2
(A) C6H5SOCl2 (B) C2H5SO2Cl 16. Which of the following amines undergoes
(C) C6H5SO2Cl (D) C2H5CrOCl2 acylation reaction?
9. How many isomers of C4H11N are secondary (A) Ethyldimethylamine
amines? (B) N–Methylaniline

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
(C) N, N–Dimethylmethanamine (C) Phenol (D) Benzoic acid
(D) N, N–Dimethylaniline 24. Which of the following is a primary amine ?
17. Identify the correct decreasing order of pKb (A) N-methyl methanamine
values of compounds from following. (B) Phenyl methanamine
(A) NH3 >R–NH2 > R2NH (C) N-phenyl benzenamine
(B) R2NH > R–NH2 > NH3 (D) N-methyl benzenamine
(C) R–NH2 > R2NH > NH3 25. Identify the reagent R used in following conversion?
(D) R2NH > NH3 > R–NH2 tert-butyl bromide 
R
 Isobutylene
18. Select the correct increasing order of boiling
(A) Sn/HCl (B) Na – Hg/H2O
points of alcohols, amines and carboxylic acids of
(C) NH3 (alc) (D) LiAlH4
comparable molar mass from the following.
26. Identify reagent 'A' used in following reaction ?
(A) Alcohols < Amines < Carboxylic acids
 
(B) Amines < Carboxylic acids < Alcohols NH2 N2 Cl
(C) Amines < Alcohols < Carboxylic acids
(D) Carboxylic acids < Alcohols < Amines A
19. Which of the following is Mendius reduction?
Br ,KOH
(A) R  CONH 2 
2

aq
 R  NH 2 dil. / HCl NaNO 2  HCl
(A) (B)
 
RX excess
(B) R  NH 2  R 4 NX  low temp.

H3O
(C) R 4 NX 
Moist Ag2 O

Alkene  R3 N (C) (D) NaOH, 623 K

(D) R  CN 
Na /C2 H5OH
or LiAlH4
 R  CH2 NH2 27. Which among following is a strongest base ?
20. Which from the following statement is NOT correct (A) Benzenamine
regarding Mendius reduction ? (B) Phenylmethanamine
(A) It is useful for preparation of R-NH2. (C) N, N-Dimethylbenzenamine
(B) In this alkyl cyanides are reduced. (D) N-Methylbenzenamine
(C) In this sodium and ethanol is used for reduction. 28. Identity product 'B' in following reaction.
(D) In this method one carbon atom is lost in the CH 3  I  KCN 
 A  Na
B
C 2 H 2 OH
form of CO2.
21. Which from following amines has highest pKb value? (A) CH3OH (B) CH3ONa
(A) Arylamine (C) CH3NO2 (D) CH3CH2NH2
(B) Tertiaryalkanamine 29. Identify the class of (C6H5)3 N ?
(C) Secondary alkanamine (A) 30 aliphatic simple amine
(D) Primary alkanamine (B) 30 aromatic mixed amine
(C) 30 aromatic simple amine
22. Which of the following compounds is NOT obtained
(D) 30 aliphatic mixed amine
at any stage of Gabriel phthalimide synthesis ?
30. Identify the product ‘B’ in the following
(A) Potassium salt of phthalimide
sequence of reactions.
(B) N-alkyl phthalimide
CH3Br   A  B
KCN 2 5 Na/C H OH
(C) Phthalic acid
(A) Methyl cyanide (B) Ethyl amine
(D) Primary amine
(C) Methyl amine (D) Ethyl cyanide
23. Identify the product 'A' obtained in following 31. Identify 'Y' in the following reaction.
reaction.
NaOH aq 
CH3 Br 
KCN
 X 
Na /C2 H5OH
Y
N-alkyl pathalimide
 sodium phthalate + A
(A) CH3 – CH2 – NH2
(A) Primary amine (B) Amide
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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
(B) CH3 – O – Na
(C) CH3 – O – C2H5
(D) CH3CN
32. Which of the following conversions is Hofmann
Elimination reaction ?
Br ,KOH
(A) R CONH 2 
2 aq
 R  NH 2
RX
(B) R  NH2 
excess
 R4 NX

(C) R 4 NX 
moist Ag2 O

 Alkene  R3 N

(D) R CN 
Na /C2 H5OH
 R CH2 NH2

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D C D B C B C C C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D C D C C B A C D D
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A C A B C B B D C B
Que. 31 32
Ans. A C

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
24. BIOMOLECULES

1. Identify false statement from following? saccharic acid?

(A) Cellulose is constituent of cell wall in animal (A) It contains two carboxyl and four hydroxyl
cells. groups
(B) Starch is common constituents of food grains. (B)It contains one carboxyl group and five
(C) Lactose is constituent of milk. hydroxyl groups
(D) Animals store polysaccharides in their body (C)It contains two carboxyl groups and five
in the form of glycogen. hydroxyl groups
2. Identify glycosidic linkages for formation of chain (D) It contains three carboxyl and two hydroxyl
and branches respectively in amylopectin groups
(A)   1,6 and   1,6 (B)   1,6 and   1, 4 10. Which of the following one letter symbol is used
(C)   1, 4 and   1,6 (D)   1, 4 and   1,6 to represent aspartic acid?
3. Identify the nitrogen atom of purine base that (A) D (B) R
bonds with 1’ carbon of ribose to form (C) A (D) S
ribonucleoside? 11. Which of the following is a molecular formula of
(A) 1st (B) 3rd cycloexylamine?
(C) 7th (D) 9th (A) C6H8N (B) C6H10N
4. Which from following n mole molecules of (C) C6H12N (D) C6H13N
carbohydrate contains 2n mole molecules of 12. What is the number of moles of nitrogen atoms
galactose, n moles of glucose and n moles of present in one mole cytosine?
fructose in it? (A) 5 (B) 4
(A) Lactose (B) Raffinose (C) 3 (D) 2
(C) Amylose (D) Stachyose 13. Identify basic amino acid from following
5. Identify essential amino acid from following. (A) Tryptophan (B) Threonine
(A) Glutamic acid (B) Proline (C) Phenylalanine (D) Histidine
(C) Cysteine (D) Histidine 14. Identify fibrous protein from following.
6. Identify molecular formula of laevulose (A) Legumelin (B) Serum albumin
(A) C 6 H12 O6 (B) C 5 H10 O5 (C) Myosin (D) Insulin
(C) C4 H8O4 (D) C3 H6 O3 15. Identify glycosidic linkage present in maltose.
(A) , –1, 2 glycosidic
7. Which 'c' atom of ribose sugar (numbered from 1'
to 5') bonds with phosphate group to form AMP ? (B) –1, 4 glycosidic
(A) 1' (B) 3' (C) 4' (D) 5' (C) –1, 4 glycosidic
8. If Cell-OH represents formula of cellulose, identify (D) –1, 6 glycosidic
the formula of cellulose xanthate from following. 16. Identify the carbon atoms of glucose and of
(A) Cell – ONa fructose forming glycosidic bond in sucrose.
(B) Cell O C SNa (A) C–l of –glucose and C–2 of –fructose
S (B) C–l of –glucose and C–2 of –fructose
(C) Cell O C SH (C) C–2 of –glucose and C–2 of -fructose
(D) C–3 of –glucose and C–l of –fructose
S
17. Which from following is NOT a globular protein?
(D) Cell O C OH
(A) Myosin (B) Insulin
S (C) Egg albumin (D) Legumelin
9. Which from following statements is correct about

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
18. Which from following is NOT a salient feature of 26. Identity the correct statement about glucose from
Watson and Crick model for DNA ? following.
(A) Polynucleotide strands wind in to a right handed (A) It is aldohexose.
double helix. (B) It is nonreducing sugar.
(B) Sugar-phosphate back bone lies at in side and (C) It contains three chiral carbon atoms.
bases lie out side of helix. (D) It's ring structure is hemiketal.
(C) Double helix is stabilized by hydrogen bonding 27. The correct zwitter ion structure of glycine is
formed in two strands. (A) H2 N  CH2  COOH
(D) A = T and G = C are complementary base pairs. 

19. Which from following statements is NOT true for (B) H3 N  CH 2  COO 
nucleic acids ? 
(C) H3 N  CH 2  COOH
(A) 5' end of polynucleotide has free phosphate
group. (D) H2 N  CH 2  COO 
(B) Nucleic acids contain back bone formed of 28. Identify acidic amino acid from following
– C – O – C – linkage. (represented by using three letter symbols)
(C) Polynucleotide has free –OH group at 3' end. (A) Glu (B) Gly
(D) Neighbouring nucleotides are bonded through (C) Gin (D) Arg
phosphate diester linkage. 29. What is the number of moles of oxygen and
20. Identify acidic amino acid from following number of moles of N atoms respectively present
(represented by using three letter symbols) in one mole thymine?
(A) 2 and 2 (B) 1 and 5
(A) Arg (B) Asp
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3
(C) Asn (D) Ala
30. What type of glycosidic linkages are developed
21. What is the number of chiral carbon atoms in
when excess glucose is to be stored for future use
threose?
in animals?
(A) One (B) Two
(A)  – 1, 4 and  – 1, 4
(C) Three (D) Four
22. Which from following compounds is obtained (B)  – 1, 6 and  – 1, 4
when glucose is heated with HI for longer time ? (C)  – 1, 6 and  – 1, 4
(A) Glucose cyanohydrin (D)  – 1, 4 and – 1, 6
(B) Glucose oxime 31. Which from following nitrogen bases of nucleic
(C) n-Hexane acids is derived from purine ?
(D) Saccharic acid (A) Cytosine (B) Guanine
23. Which from following proteins acts as an enzyme (C) Uracil (D) Thymine
to break protein to –amino acid
(A) Trypsine (B) Pepsine
(C) Myosine (D) Keratine
24. How many amino acids are linked together by
(n 1) amide bonds ?
(A) n – 1 (B) n
(C) n + 1 (D) 2n
25. What is the number of amino acids present in
single turn of -helix of protein?
(A) 1.3 (B) 3.1 (C) 3.6 (D) 6.3

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D D D D A D B A A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D C D C B A A B B B
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C B B C A B A A D
Que. 31
Ans. B

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

25. INTRODUCTION TO POLYMER CHEMISTRY

1. Which among the following polymers is obtained (C) It is used to prepare hose pipes for transport
by ring opening polymerisation process? of gasoline.
(A) Polyacrylonitrile (B) Nylon 6,6 (D) The monomer involved in it’s preparation is
(C) Nylon 6 (D) Terylene unsaturated.
2. Identify the monomers used for preparation of 9. Which from following polymers is NOT
buna-S. obtained by addition polymerisation method?
(A) Phenol and formaldehyde (A) CH2  CH2  n
(B) 1,3-butadiene and styrene
(C) Ethylene glycol and styrene (B)
(D)   hydroxyl butyric acid and phenol
3. Which form following is a use of polyester fibres?
(A) Making bristles of brushes.
(B) To obtain orlon. O
||

(C) To obtain electric insulators. (C) [NH  (CH 2 )5 C] n

(D) To obtain terywool. (D) [CH 2  CH] n

4. Identify thermosetting polymer from following. |
Cl
(A) Urea formaldehyde resin 10. Identify thermoplastic polymer from following.
(B) Polystyrene (A) Urea formaldehyde resin
(C) Polyesters (B) Bakelite
(D) Polyamides (C) Polythene
5. Identify homopolymer from following. (D) Buna-N
(A) Polycarbonate (B) Buna-N 11. Which from following is a copolymer?
(C) Glyptal (D) Thermocol (A) Nylon 6 (B) Nylon 6, 6
6. Which from following polymers is obtained by (C) Polythene (D) Buna-s
ring opening polymerization method? 12. Which polymer is obtained from monomers using
(A)
and
CN ?
(A) Polycarbonate (B) Polyacrylamide
(B)
(C) Buna–N (D) Acrylic glass
(C) 13. Identify biodegradable polymer from following.
(A) Teflon (B) PHBV
(D)
(C) LDP (D) Polyacrylonitrile
14. Which from following polymers is grouped under
7. Which from following is NOT true about natural
elastomers ?
rubber ?
(A) Buna-s (B) Nylon 6,6
(A) It is formed by addition polymerisation
(C) Terylene (D) Polythene
(B) It is a linear polymer
15. Identify the polymer used to obtain LCD screen
(C) It has cis configuration of C = C
from following.
(D) It contains butadine and styrine as monomer units
8. Which from following statements about (A) Polyacrylamide (B) Buna-N
neoprene is false? (C) Polycarbonate (D) Perspex
(A) It is a copolymer and polymerization occurs 16. Identify a polymer obtained from -hydroxybutyric
in presence of MgO. acid and -hydroxy valeric acid.
(B) It is a synthetic rubber. (A) PHBV (B) Nylon 2–nylon 6

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
(C) Buna–N (D) Thermocol (B) F2C = CF2
17. Which from following monomers is used to obtain (C) H2C = CHCl
polymer represented as (D) H2C C CH CH2
CH2 CH n ? Cl
CONH2 25. Which from following polymers (trade name) is
(A) Acrylamide used to obtain paints?
(B) Urea and Formaldehyde (A) Glyptal (B) Polycarbonate
(C) Bisphenol (C) Perspexe (D) PVC
(D) Methylmethacrylate 26. Which from following is semisynthetic polymer?
18. Identify the source of linen from following. (A) Dacron (B) Nylon 6
(A) Flax plant (B) Cotton plant (C) Wool (D) Cellulose nitrate
(C) Cane plant (D) Rubber plant 27. Which of following polymers does not contain
19. Which from following statements is NOT correct O
about thermoplastic polymers? C N linkage?
(A) These are softened on heating.
(B) Intermolecular forces involved in these are H
moderately strong intermediate between (A) PAN (B) Nylon 6
elastomers and fibres. (C) Nylon 6, 6 (D) Nylon 2, 6
(C) These possess extensive cross linking by 28. Which from following polymers needs HO-CH2-
covalent bonds. CH2-OH as one of the monomers for it's
(D) These are easily moulded. preparations?
20. Which from following polymer contains ester (A) Nylon 6,6 (B) Dacron
linkage? (C) Polyacrylamide (D) Buna-N
(A) Nylon 6 (B) Polyacrylonitrile 29. Which from following polymers is used as
(C) Teflon (D) PHBV substitute for wool?
(A) Teflon (B) LDP
21. Which from following polymers needs dihydric
(C) Dacron (D) Polyacrylonitrile
alcohol and aromatic dlicarboxylic acid for it's
30. Which from following polymers is classified as
synthesis?
fibres ?
(A) Nylon 6 (B) Dacron
(C) Bakelite (D) Polyacrylamide (A) Polyesters (B) Vulcanized rubber
22. Which among following polymers is used to (C) Polythene (D) Polyvinyls
manufacture water pipes ? 31. Which from following polymers is a urea-
(A) Polycarbonate (B) PVC formaldehyde resin ?
(C) Buna-N (D) Polyacrylamide (A) [ NH CO NH CH2 ]n
23. Which from following polymers contain (B) [ CH CH2 ]n
– CO – NH – linkage in it?
(A) Urea formaldehyde resin
(B) Glyptal (C) [ CH2 CH CO ]n
(C) Polycarbonate
CONH2
(D) Thermocol
24. Identify the monomer used to obtain a polymer (D) [ NH ( CH2 )5 CO ]n
that resembles the wool.
(A) CH2 = CHCN

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B D A D B D A C C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D C B A D A A A C D
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B B A A A D A B D A
Que. 31
Ans. A

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions 
26. GREEN CHEMISTRY AND NANOCHEMISTRY

1. Which from following techniques is used for 8. Which from following polymers is believed to
preliminary confirmation of nanoparticles? leach human carcinogen in to food when used as
(A) UV-visible spectroscopy household plastic?
(B) X ray diffraction (A) LDPE (B) PP (C) PS (D) PET
(C) Scanning electron microscopy 9. Identify the instrument used to find the structure
(D) Transmission electron microscopy of surface of material.
2. Which from following nanomaterials has two (A) Scanning electron microscope
dimensions less than 100 nm?
(B) X ray difractometer
(A) Nano wires (B) Microcapsules
(C) Transmission electron microscope
(C) Quantum dots (D) Nanorings
3. Which from following statements is NOT true (D) UV-visible spectrophotometer
according to principles of green chemistry? 10. Which from following reactions exhibits good
(A) It is good to use the technique of protection atom economy according to the principles of
and deprotection of functional group in green chemistry?
organic synthesis. (A) C4H9OH + NaBr + H2SO4
(B) Use of chemicals derived from plant 
 C4H9Br + NaHSO4 + H2O
resource is better than crude oil.
(B) C2H4 + H2 
Ni
 C2H6
(C) Use of biodegradable pesticides is
advantageous. (C) C2H5OH + C2H5COOH
(D) Use of critical CO2 as solvent is better than 
 C2H5COOC2H5 + H2O

organic solvents. (D) C4H9OH + SOCl2   C4H9Cl + HCl + SO2
4. What type of information is collected using FTIR 11. What is the percentage atom economy when
fourier transform infrared spectroscopy? formula weight of product obtained is 70 u and the
(A) Morphology of nanomaterial sum of formula weight of reactant is 140 u ?
(B) Absorption of functional group (A) 30% (B) 35% (C) 50% (D) 75%
(C) Geometry of particles 12. Identity the instrument used to find crystal structure
(D) Particle size from following.
5. Which from following compounds is used to (A) X-ray diffractometer
prepare adipic acid using enzymes in green (B) UV-Visible spectrophotometer
technology developed by Drath and Frost?
(C) Scanning electron microscope
(A) Ribose (B) Glucose
(D) Transmission electron microscope
(C) Ribulose (D) Benzene
13. Which among the following is an example of one
6. Identify a zero dimensional nano structure from
dimensional nanostructure ?
following.
(A) Nanorods (B) Nanoparticles (A) Nano rings
(C) Thin films (D) Fibres (B) Nano tubes
7. Which of the following solvents reduces the (C) Layers and coatings
environmental pollution? (D) Quantum dots
(A) Water 14. What is value of percent atom economy when
reactants having sum of formula weight 78 u
(B) Dichloromethane
results in the formation of a product with formula
(C) Trichloromethane weight 65 u ?
(D) Tetrachloromethane (A) 70 % (B) 83 %
(C) 78% (D) 65 %

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 MHT-CET 2024 Topicwise Test Paper with Solutions
15. Identify the polymer used to obtain disposable
cups and plates.
(A) LDPE (B) Polypropylene
(C) HDPE (D) Polystyrene
16. Identify one dimensional nanostructure from
following.
(A) Nanowires (B) Nanoparticles
(C) Thin films (D) Quantum dots
17. Which from following is a largest size nanomaterial?
(A) Water (molecular level)
(B) Glucose (Molecular level)
(C) Virus
(D) Bacteria

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A A B B B A C A B
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
Ans. C A B B D A D

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