FORENSIC SCIENCE BOARD EXAM TRIAL

Prepared by: ARIANNE PATAGNAN SUPAT

Top 2, June 2022 CLE

PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION-FS1
10. Fingerprint pattern are ______, as all fingerprint experts
1. The inner terminus of the finger print pattern. agree.
a. Delta a. Always inherited
b. Core b. Sometimes inherited
c. Ridges c. Inherited as mendelian characteristics
d. Pores d. Never Inherited

2. The Secondary Classification of the Thumb, Middle, Ring and 11. It is done by cutting on various parts of the body and
Little fingers must be written in small letters. leaving scars to form elaborate designs.
a. True a. Tattoo
b. False b. Scarcification
c. Partially True c. Personal Description
d. Partially False d. Anthropometry

3. There are three (3) principles of Fingerprint science. Which 12. A system of identification based on the measurements of
among the following is not included? the various bony structure of the human body.
a. Principle of Individuality a. Tattoo
b. Principle of Permanency b. Scarcification
c. Principle of Infallibility c. Personal Description
d. Principle of Uniqueness d. Anthropometry

4. He is a notorious gangster and a police character who 13. Fingerprints offer an _______ means of personal
attempted to erase his fingerprint by burning it with acid. identification
a. Locard a. Infallible
b. William West b. Reliable
c. Will West c. Dependable
d. John Dillinger d. All of these

5. What objects appear as tiny black lines with tiny white dots 14. No two fingerprints have ever been found alike in many
(called pores) in an inked finger impression? billion of human and automated computer comparisons.
a. Pores a. The statement is true
b. Sweat b. The statement is false
c. Furrows c. Possibly True
d. Ridges d. Possibly false

6. What do you call the separating or spreading apart of two 15. The first forensic professional organization is
ridges that were previously running side by side? a. DNA
a. Disjunction b. IAI
b. Divergence c. FBI
c. Convergence d. NBI
d. Looping
16. When there are two or more possible Delta which conform
7. What kind of pattern has two deltas in which at least one to the definition, the one nearest to the core is chosen.
ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit? a. True
a. Loop b. False
b. Accidental Whorl c. Partially true
c. Arch d. Partially false
d. Plain whorl
17. The Delta is placed upon or within the innermost sufficient
8. What is the scientific examination of the prints of the soles recurve.
of the feet? a. True
a. Podoscopy b. False
b. Horoscopy c. Partially True
c. Chiroscopy d. Partially False
d. Flouroscopy
18. Other visible human characteristics change-fingerprint do
9. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an uneven no.
number of rods rising as high as the shoulders of a. True
b. False
the loop, the core is placed upon the end of the center rod c. Probably true
whether it touches the looping ridge or not. d. Probably false
a. True
b. False 19. He devised the anthropometric system of identification.
c. Partially True a. Alphonse Bertlillon
d. Partially False b. Alphense Bertillion
c. Will West
d. William West

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 30. This are raised strips of the skin on the inside of the end
20. In his “Philosophical Transaction”, he presented his joint of our fingers and thumbs by which fingerprints are made.
observation on the appearance of the ridges on the fingers and a. Papillary Ridges
palms. b. Friction Ridges
a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi c. Epidermal Ridges
b. Govard Bidloo d. All of these
c. Sir Francis Galton
d. Dr. Nehemiah Grew 31. The following are families of fingerprint pattern except
a. Whorl
21. Govard Biloo presented the appearance and arrangement b. Loop
of the ridges on a thumb in his thesis entitled: c. Arch
a. De externo Tactus Organo d. Accidental
b. Philosophical Transaction
c. Anatomia Humanis Corporis 32. Can fingerprint be erased?
d. None of these a. Yes
b. No
22. He described the ridges found on the palmar surface of the c. Maybe
hand and the pores which served as the mouth of the sweat d. I don‟t Know
glands.
a. J.C.A. Mayer 33. The outer terminus in the pattern area.
b. Herman Welcker a. Delta
c. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi b. Core
d. Govard Bidloo c. Bifurcation
d. Ridges
23. He is the father of Criminalistic.
a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi 34. In loop the ridges are usually circular.
b. Govard Bidloo a. True
c. Sir Francis Galton b. False
d. Hans Gross c. Partially True
d. Partially false
24. It is the approximate center of a fingerprint pattern usually
found in loops and whorls. 35. The science of palm print identification.
a. Delta a. Dactyloscopy
b. Core b. Dactylography
c. Type line c. Chiroscopy
d. Bifurcation d. Podoscopy

25. When there is a choice between a bifurcation and another 36. The symbol for accidental whorl is
type of delta, the bifurcation is selected. a. Z
a. True b. X
b. False c. C
c. Maybe d. D
d. Partially True
37. It is that part of a loop or whorl in which the core and delta
26. It is the reproduction on some smooth surfaces of the appear which we are concerned in the classification process.
pattern or design formed by ridges on the inside of the end a. Type lines
joint of the fingers and thumb. b. Pattern Area
a. Ridges c. Bifurcation
b. Pores d. Delta
c. Fingerprint
d. DNA 38. There are five (5) types of pattern in the Whorl Family.
a. True
27. This principle states that there are no two fingerprints b. False
which are exactly alike. c. Partially True
a. Principle of Individuality d. Partially false
b. Principle of Permanency
c. Principle of Infallibility 39. The upper ten impressions in the fingerprint card are taken
d. Principle of Constancy individually. These are referred to as the ___________.
a. Rolled impression
28. Damage to the dermis will not result to permanent ridge b. Plain Impression
destruction. c. Slapped Impression
a. True d. Flat Impression
b. False
c. Possibly True 40. These are the innermost ridges running parallel or nearly
d. Possibly False parallel to each other which diverge and surround or tend to
surround the pattern area.
29. There are ________ families of finger print pattern. a. Bifurcation
a. Two b. Type Lines
b. Three c. Pattern Area
c. Eight d. Core
d. Four

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41. This is the impressions at the bottom of the card that are 51. To help identify a subject who is an alien, the most vital
taken simultaneously without rolling, printing all of the fingers information to be obtained at the Bureau of Immigration and
of each hand at a forty-five degree angle and then the thumbs. Deportation is…
a. Rolled Impression a. Educational attainment of the alien
b. Slapped Impression b. Residence of the alien
c. Flat Impression c. Occupation of the alien
d. B & C d. Port of entry of the alien

42. In taking fingerprints, the technician must encourage the 52. In tracing a suspected person at large in a criminal case,
subject being fingerprinted to relax. the least vital among the following would be…
a. True a. His appearance and how he dresses
b. False b. Known associates and companions
c. Partially True c. His occupation or means of livelihood
d. Partially False d. Where the suspect hangs out

43. The symbol for radial loop is 53. What does the first two digit of a person‟s Social Security
a. RL Number indicates?
b. R a. The occupation of the member at the time of registration
c. U b. The month of registration
d. UL c. The income bracket or group where the member belongs
d. The region where the member originally registered
44. The outer terminus of a fingerprint pattern usually found in
loops and whorls. 54. In determining the identity of an unknown dead body found
a. Core in a river, wherein no identifying papers are to be found, and
b. Delta the body is badly mutilated and swollen, which among the
c. Ridges following means of identification is least dependable?
d. Type lines a. Fingerprints
b. Tattoo markings on the body
45. The delta must be located in from of the point of divergence c. Scars on the body
of the two type lines which open towards the Delta. d. Measurement of the body
a. True
b. False 55. In reporting a missing person, which among the following
c. Possibly True is the most vital information necessary to locate the said
d. Possibly False person?
a. Clinical or medical history of the person
46. In this pattern, the ridges enter from either side, re-curve b. Personal traits and habits
and pass out or tend to pass out the same side they entered. c. Mental attitude and condition at the time of the
a. Loop disappearance
b. Whorl d. Physical description
c. Arch
d. Tented Arch 56. Given to a complete set of ten fingers as they appear on a
fingerprint card generally based on pattern type, ridge tracing
47. In order to take advantage of the natural movement of the or ridge count.
forearm, the hand should be rotated from the more difficult a. Henry System
position to the easiest position. b. Battley System
a. True c. Fingerprint Classification
b. False d. Classification Formula
c. Partially True
d. Partially False 57. It constitutes approximately 65% of all fingerprints.
a. Loops
48. It is a type of fingerprint pattern which possesses either an b. Arches
angle or up thrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of c. Whorls
the loop. d. Accidentals
a. Plain Arch
b. Tented Arch 58. That part of the fingerprint wherein we find the core and
c. Ulnar Loop delta.
d. Radial Loop a. Bifurcation
b. Pattern area
49. It is the Ridge counting of a Loop pattern that appears in c. Type lines
the Index, Middle and Ring fingers of both hands. d. None of these
a. Key Classification
b. Major Classification 59. Refers to innermost ridges that run parallel, diverge and
c. Final Classification surround or tend to surround the pattern area.
d. Sub-Secondary Classification a. Delta
b. Divergence
50. It refers to a bone condition wherein the finger joints c. Core
cannot be bent. d. Type lines
a. Ankylosis
b. Chiroscopy 60. A smooth spreading apart of two ridges which have been
c. Calcar running parallel or nearly parallel.
d. Webb Finger a. Island
b. Dot
c. Divergence

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d. Convergence the tip of the finger is undertaken. Which among the following
is the most commonly utilized tissue builder?
61. A small ridge attached to another ridge. a. Glycerine
a. Island b. Water
c. Bifurcation c. Saline Solution
b. Dot d. Both A and B
d. appendage
71. What is written between the Final Classification and the
62. In ridge counting of loops, which among the following is Secondary Classification?
not counted? a. Key Classification
a. Delta b. Major Classification
c. Intervening ridges c. Sub-Secondary Classification
b. Core d. Primary Classification
d. Both A and B
72. If the ridge counting of a loop in the Index finger is eleven
63. When the trace is whorls is on the outside or core outside (11), what must be the symbol for purposes of the Sub-
of right delta three or more ridges, the trace is determined to Secondary classification?
be; a. I
a. (I) Inner b. M
b. (O) Outer c. O
c. (M) Meet d. L
d. None of these
73. It represents only about five (5) percent of the fingerprint
64. Represents the total numerical value of the even numbered patterns encountered.
fingers plus one over the total number numerical value of the a. Loop
odd numbered fingers plus one. b. Arches
a. Primary c. Whorl
b. Secondary d. None of these
c. Key
d. Final 74. It is a biometric Identification Methodology that uses digital
imaging technology to obtain, store, and analyze fingerprint
65. In the classification, this is always shown in capital letters data.
with the right hand over the help. a. AFIS
a. Primary b. Automated Fingerprint Identification System
b. Secondary c. Digital Imaging System
c. Key d. Both A & B
d. Final
75. It refers to a single ending ridge in the center f a recurving
66. It tells us the classification of the thumbprints on the ridge of a loop.
fingerprint card and appears showing the right hand over the a. Appendage
left hand. b. Bar
a. Primary c. Rod
b. Secondary d. Both B & C
c. Key
d. Final 76. It is a single ridge, which divides or forks into two ridges.
a. Converging Ridge
67. If all fingers are amputated or missing at birth, the b. Bifurcating Ridge
classification will be; c. Dissociated Ridge
a. M 32 W MMM/ M 32 W MMM d. None of these
b. M 31 W MMM/ M 31 W MMM
c. M 30 W MMM/ M 30 W MMM 77. It refers to the insertion on a fingerprint card the results of
d. None of these the interpretation of all ten patterns. Represented by letters,
symbols or numbers on the card required for each of the rolled
68. If one finger is amputated, it is given a classification with prints.
that of; a. Blocking Out
a. The opposite finger b. Ridge counting
b. The next finger c. Ridge tracing
c. The first finger d. None of these
d. The last finger
78. The heart or the innermost center of a pattern.
69. It consist of recordings of all friction ridges present on the a. Delta
palmar surfaces of the hands and the inner surfaces of the b. Core
fingers. They are commonly utilized to make accurate and c. Pattern area
conclusive comparisons with all latent prints obtained during d. Type line
the investigation of a major case.
a. Major Case print 79. It refers to the appearance of extra fingers as anatomically
b. Fingerprint chart known.
c. Special case print a. Poroscopy
d. None of these b. Anyklosis
c. Polydactylism
70. In trying to obtain prints on fingers of a dead person which d. Extra finger
is stiff or when rigor mortis has set in, injection of a tissue
builder by a hypodermic needle at the joint of the finger up to

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80. It is the process of counting ridges that cross or touch an c. Partially true
imaginary line drawn between the delta and core of a loop. d. Partially false
a. Ridge counting
b. Ridge tracing 91. If the individual has a bandage or cast of a finger, thumb
c. Ridge Ending or hand, place the notation, “Cannot be Printed” or CP in the
d. None of these appropriate finger block.
a. True
81. It refers to the process of charting the ridge that originates b. False
from the lower side of the left delta toward the right delta to c. Partially True
see where it flows in relation to the right delta. d. Partially false
a. Ridge counting
b. Ridge Tracing 92. If an individual has more than ten fingers, the thumbs and
c. Ridge ending the next four fingers and the extra finger should be printed.
d. Short Ridge a. True
b. False
82. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the ridges run its c. Partially True
direction to the radius or to the thumb. d. Partially false
a. Radial Bone
b. Radial Loop 93. There are four (4) steps in the Finger print Classification.
c. Ulnar Loop Which among the following is not included?
d. Arch a. Recording
b. Interpretation
83. For purposes of the Primary Classification, the Right Index c. Blocking
and Left Middle are intended as Numerator. d. Pairing
a. True
b. False 94. The Classification formula is written horizontally on the
c. Partially True fingerprint card. It is consists of six (6) classification.
d. Partially false a. True
b. False
84. It constitutes approximately 65% of all fingerprint patterns. c. Partially True
a. Arch d. Partially False
b. Loop
c. Whorl 95. It is the sum total of all numerical values of Whorls in a set
d. None of these of finger plus (+) a fraction of over 1.
a. Secondary Classification
85. The arch and loop patterns are not included in the Primary b. Key Classification
Classification. c. Primary Classification
a. True d. Final Classification
b. False
c. Partially True 96. It is the process of writing the symbols of the corresponding
d. Partially False patterns on the space provided in the fingerprint cards.
a. Pairing
86. It consists of one or more ridges which makes a complete b. Blocking
circuit with two deltas. c. Tracing
a. Central Pocket Loop d. Interpretation
b. Plain Whorl
c. Double Loop Whorl 97. It is the process of assigning Numerical Values for Whorl
d. Accidental whorl patterns.
a. Pairing and Assigning of Numbers
87. It consists of two separate loop formations with two b. Blocking of numbers
separate and distinct sets of shoulders, and two (2) deltas. c. Tracing of numbers
a. Central Pocket Loop Whorl d. Interpretation
b. Accidental Whorl
c. Double Loop Whorl 98. The numerical value of the right thumb and right index for
d. Plain Whorl purposes of primary classification is:
a. 16
88. It is a kind of fingerprint pattern consisting of two (2) b. 8
different types of pattern with the exception of the plain arch. c. 4
a. Central Pocket Loop Whorl d. 2
b. Accidental Whorl
c. Double Loop Whorl 99. The following patterns belong to the Non-Numerical Group,
d. Plain Whorl except:
a. Tented Arch
89. There are _____ types of impressions involved in taking b. Plain Arch
fingerprints. c. Plain Whorl
a. 3 d. Radial Loop
b. 4
c. 2 100. If the Ridge count of the Ring finger is 16, what is the
d. 1 symbol for purposes of the Sub-Secondary Classification?
a. I
90. Plain impressions are printed last at the bottom of the card. b. O
a. True c. M
b. False d. L

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 a. Polaroid
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY (FS2) b. Camera Obscura
1. The birth year of photography. c. SLR
a. 1829 d. Digital Camera
b. 1839
c. 1849 12. It is mounted over the opening at the front of the camera
d. 1859 body. Its function is to produce an image on the film at the
back of the camera by gathering and focusing the rays of light
2. He coined the word “Photography”. from the object.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce a. Camera
b. Thomas Wedgewood b. Shutter
c. Sir John Herschel c. Lens
d. Angelo Sala d. Apperture

3. A founder of Royal society who reported that silver chloride 13. The light-gathering power of the lens is indicated by:
turned dark under exposure, but he appeared to believe that a. F-number
it was caused by exposure to the air, rather than to light. b. Relative aperture
a. Robert Boyle c. Both A and C
b. Isaac Newton d. None of these
c. Angelo Sala
d. Johann Heinrich Schulze 14. It holds the film in place at the back of the. It is designed
to hold the film flat so that the image produced by the lens
4. He discovered that white light is composed of different will be sharp over the whole picture area.
colors. a. Focusing ring
a. Robert Boyle b. Film Case
b. Isaac Newton c. Film Holder
c. Angelo Sala d. View Finder
d. Johann Heinrich Schulze
15. It helps the photographer see the precise area that will be
5. He achieved the first photographic image with camera photographed when he trips the shutter.
obscura. However, the image required eight hours of light a. Focusing ring
exposure and later faded. b. Film Case
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce c. Film Holder
b. Thomas Wedgewood d. View Finder
c. Sir John Herschel
d. Angelo Sala 16. These are essentially carved pieces of glass or other
transparent materials used to refract rays of light so as to
6. He discovered a way of developing photographic plates, a form an image of an object on a photographic film.
process which greatly reduced the exposure time from eight a. Aperture
hours down to half an hour. b. Diaphragm
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce c. Magnifying lens
b. Thomas Wedgewood d. Photographic lens
c. Sir John Herschel
d. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre 17. The speed of the lens is expressed in terms of its:
a. Aperture
7. The first photographic process. b. Diaphragm
a. Calotype Process c. View Finder
b. Daguerreotype Process d. Shutter
c. Collodion Process
d. Gelatin dry plate silver bromide process 18. The combination of blue and green light will produce what
color?
8. The first negative-positive process making possible the first a. Black
multiple copies. b. Cyan
a. Calotype Process c. Magenta
b. Daguerreotype Process d. Yellow
c. Collodion Process
d. Gelatin dry plate silver bromide process 19. In a stake out surveillance photography, where the
photographer cannot get close to the subject, what kind of
9. This process reduced the exposure time from half and hour lens must be used?
to two or three seconds of light exposure. a. Normal
a. Calotype Process b. Telephoto
b. Daguerreotype Process c. Wide-angle lens
c. Collodion Process d. Zoom
d. Gelatin dry plate silver bromide process
20. How many parts does a camera generally have, with all
10. He invented the flexible, paper-based photographic film. other parts treated as accessories?
a. Hannibal Goodwin a. Four
b. Kodak b. Five
c. George Eastman c. Six
d. Daguerre d. Seven

11. It is otherwise known as Instant Photos or One Step 21. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture is
Photography. the indicator for light transmitting capability of the lens.

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Which lens opening will admit more light to pass through its b. SLR
medium? c. Polaroid
a. F16 d. Press Type of Camera
b. F5.6
c. F4 32. It is a wavelength emitted by the sun which cannot be
d. F2.8 seen, tough we can feel it in our bodies as warmth or heat.
a. Infra-red
22. ___________is that light-sensitive silver salts in a gelatin b. Ultra-violet Light
medium coated on all photographic films and papers. c. Natural Light
a. Aniline d. Man-made light
b. Sympathetic
c. Emulsion 33. It is another form of light that we cannot see, but we
d. Copy Pencil know about it because it tans our skin in summer.
a. Infra-red
23. What contraption or device is used to block the path of b. Ultra-violet Light
light passing through the lens exposing the sensitized c. Natural Light
materials? d. Man-made light
a. Range Finder
b. Shutter 34. The speed of light measured in a vacuum is
c. Exposure approximately________?
d. View Finder a. 186, 281 miles/sec.
b. 299, 792.5 km/sec
24. The light from the pinhole will form c. 299, 795.2 km/sec
a. A halo effect d. Both A and B
b. A photographic emulsion
c. An inverted image 35. The complete range of electromagnetic radiation is
d. An emergent ray called_____.
a. Electromagnetic Spectrum
25. What is the process of converting the exposed image on b. Electromagnetic waves
the film into the actual image? c. Electromagnetic speed
a. Developing d. Heat
b. Stop bath
c. Fixing 36. The following are primary colors except:
d. Washing a. Red
b. Green
26. When light passes through an object, it is said to be c. Black
a. Transmitted d. Blue
b. Refracted
c. Diffracted 37. Colors made by combining the primary colors are called:
d. Absorbed a. Sub-Primary Colors
b. Secondary Colors
27. He discovered that white light is composed of different c. Tertiary Colors
colors. d. Elementary Colors
a. Robert Boyle
b. Isaac Newton 38. When light passes from one medium to another such as
c. Angelo Sala from air to water it is bent and this bending is called:
d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce a. Refraction
b. Reflection
28. He achieved the first photographic image with camera c. Absorption
obscure-however, the image required eight hours of light d. Addition
exposure.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce 39. It is the bouncing back of light upon hitting an object or
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre material.
c. Angelo Sala a. Reflection
d. Isaac Newton b. Refraction
c. Transmission
29. The smallest and the simplest type of camera. It is known d. Absorption
as Instamatic camera or Point and Shoot camera.
a. View finder camera 40. The change of direction of light that passes through an
b. SLR object or material.
c. TLR a. Reflection
d. Press Type Camera b. Refraction
c. Transmission
30. A type of camera with two objective lenses of the same d. Absorption
focal length.
a. View Finder Camera 41. The maximum usable aperture of a lens is usually
b. SLR specified as the focal ration or f-number.
c. TLR a. The statement is correct
d. Press Type Camera b. The statement is partially true
c. The statement is false
31. The chief attribute of this camera is its ability to deliver a d. The statement is doubtful
complete processed print almost immediately after exposure.
a. View Finder Camera

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42. The lower the f-number, the more light per unit area is variable crystal size salt that determine the sensitivity,
delivered in the focal plane. contrast and resolution of the film.
a. True a. Film
b. Partially True b. Camera
c. False c. Lens
d. Partially false d. Shutter

43. The focal length determines the: 53. In__________, the sun is totally covered by thick clouds.
a. Depth of field No shadows are cast due to the uniform illumination of lights
b. Angle of view around the subjects in open space.
c. Color of the picture a. Bright sunlight
d. Maximum aperture b. Hazy Sunlight
c. Cloudy Sunlight
44. Lenses with larger apertures are also described as being d. Dull Sunlight
“faster”.
a. True 54. It is the process of reduction in which exposed silver
b. False halides are reduced into metallic silver.
c. Partially True a. Development
d. Partially False b. Printing
c. Reduction
45. Lenses with larger maximum apertures provide d. Crop
significantly brighter viewfinder images.
a. True 55. An intermediate bath between the developer and the
b. False fixer. It is usually a combination of water plus acetic acid or
c. Partially True just plain water. It function is to prevent the contamination of
d. Partially False two chemicals.
a. Stop Bath
46. The distance between the nearest object and the object b. Fixation
farthest from the camera that both appear in focus. c. Development
a. Focal Length d. Reduction
b. Depth of Field
c. Lens Speed 56. It is the process of removing unexposed silver halide
d. Lens Hood remaining in the emulsion after the first stage of development
of the latent image.
47. The first practical photographic process. a. Stop Bath
a. Calotype b. Fixation
b. Daguerreotype c. Development
c. Collodion d. Reduction
d. Dry Plate Process
57. It is a Reducer or developing agent
48. Light sensitivity of the film is also known as: a. Elon
a. Film Speed b. Hydroquinone
b. Film Grains c. Sodium Sulfite
c. Film Emulsion d. A or B
d. Film Contrast
58. It is use as preservative in the Development process.
49. He discovered the use of Hydroquinone as a developing a. Sodium Sulfite
agent. b. Hydroquinone
a. John Carbutt c. Potassium Bromide
b. William Abney d. Sodium Carbonate
c. Vioglander
d. JM Petzval 59. It is use as accelerator in the chemical processes.
a. Sodium Carbonate
50. In ________, the subjects will produced a strong shadow, b. Hydroquinone
because the source of light is not covered and the objects or c. Potassium bromide
subjects appear glossy in open space due to direct sunlight d. Sodium Bromide
and reflected lights coming from the sky which act as a
reflector. 60. It is a Dissolving agent in the fixer solution.
a. Bright sunlight a. Hypo/Sodium thiasulphate
b. Hazy Sunlight b. Hydroquinone
c. Cloudy Sunlight c. Potassium Bromide
d. Dull Sunlight d. Sodium Bromide

51. In__________, the sun is covered by thin clouds and the 61. Which among the following chemical is use as neutralizer?
shadow appears bluish because of the decrease of light falling a. Boric Acid
on the subjects in open space. b. Acetic Acid
a. Bright sunlight c. Potassium Alum
b. Hazy Sunlight d. A or B
c. Cloudy Sunlight
d. Dull Sunlight 62. Which of the following is use as Hardener in the fixing
solution?
52. It is a sheet of plastic (cellulose acetate) coated with a. Potassium Alum
emulsion containing light-sensitive silver halide salts with b. Boric Acid

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c. Acetic Acid 73. A lens defect which is the inability to focus both horizontal
d. Potassium Alum and vertical plane at the same time lines running different
directions.
63. It is a picture of small object taken through a microscope a. Chromatic Aberration
and generally has a magnification of more than 50 times. b. Astigmatism
a. Photomicrography c. Coma
b. Photomacrography d. Curvature of Field
c. Infra- Red Photography
d. Ultra-violet Photography 74. It has a fast speed and is recommended for projection
printing and enlarging.
64. This is sensitive to ultraviolet and blue light only. a. Chloride Paper
a. Panchromatic b. Bromide Paper
b. Orthochromatic c. Chloro-bromide Paper
c. Infra-red d. Exposure Latitude
d. X-ray
75. It refers to the absence of all colors in the spectrum.
65. It is sensitive to all colors particularly red and red light. a. White
a. Panchromatic b. Rainbow
b. Orthochromatic c. Black
c. Infra-red d. Yellow
d. X-ray
76. It refers to the inability to focus all the different colors of
66. It is placed between the emulsion and the plastic base of light on film at the same time.
a film to prevent whatever light that passed through the a. Chromatic Aberration
emulsion and reflected by the base back to the emulsion b. Astigmatism
which forms a halo effect. c. Coma
a. Base d. Curvature of field.
b. Emulsion
c. Anti-halation Backing 77. Also referred to as lateral spherical aberration, it is a lens
d. Spectral Sensitivity defects in which the rays enters the lens obliquely.
a. Coma
67. What is the equivalent of ASA 25 in DIN Rating? b. Chromatic Aberration
a. DIN 18 c. Astigmatism
b. DIN 15 d. Curvature of Field
c. DIN 30
d. DIN 33 78. It is the remoteness or distance measured from the
nearest to the farthest object in apparent sharp focus when
68. It is given to negative or non-reversal film. the lens set of focus is at a particular distance.
a. Color a. Focal Length
b. Chrome b. Angle of View
c. Chloride c. Depth of Field
d. Bromide d. Curvature of Field

69. It has a slow speed and it is suited for contact printing. 79. A natural light in which the object casts a deep and
a. Chloride Paper uniform shadow.
b. Bromide Paper a. Bright Sunlight
c. Chloro-Bromide paper b. Dull Sunlight
d. Exposure Latitude c. Hazy Sunlight
d. Poor Sunlight
70. It consists of crystals of light-sensitive compounds (silver
nitrate) evenly distributed throughout plastic base material. 80. It refers to Deutche Industri Normen Rating, expressed in
a. Base Logarithmic value system. In this system, an increase of three
b. Anti-halation Backing degrees doubles the sensitivity of the film.
c. Emulsion a. ASA Rating
d. Spectral Sensitivity b. DIN Rating
c. ISO Rating
71. This refers to the size of the metallic silver grains that d. ASO Rating
formed after development of an exposed film.
a. Spectral Sensitivity 81. A form of natural light in which objects in open space
b. Granularity casts no shadows.
c. Emulsion Speed a. Dull Sunlight
d. Reversal Film b. Bright Sunlight
c. Hazy Sunlight
72. It refers to American Standards Association, expressed in d. Cloudy Sunlight
arithmetical value system. The speed ratings numbers are
directly proportional to the sensitivity of the material. 82. Consisting of light-sensitive silver salts in a gelatin
a. DIN medium and used to coat photographic films and papers.
b. ASA a. Base
c. ASO b. Anti-Halation Backing
d. ISO c. Emulsion
d. Exposure

9|Page AMICI REVIEW CENTER

83. A light sensitive material that is placed inside a camera to 93. It contains minute grains of silver halide suspended in
store any image the camera focuses. animal gelatin and coated on celluloid material.
a. Film a. Lens
b. Shutter b. Film
c. Aperture c. Camera
d. None of these d. Photographic Paper

84. A colored gelatin or medium which absorbs or transmits 94. Lenses with larger apertures are also described as :
differentially light rays passing through it. a. Faster
a. Lens b. Slower
b. Filter c. Moderate
c. Shutter d. None of these
d. Film
95. Lenses with smaller aperture requires a slower shutter
85. It refers to the process of removing unexposed silver speed and the depth of field is:
halides remaining in the emulsion after the first image of a. Wider
development of the latent image. b. Narrower
a. Fixation c. Slower
b. Development d. Fast
c. Stop Bath
d. Printing 96. It refers to the study of physical evidence through a
laboratory work.
86. It is known as “hypo” and its purpose are to harden the a. Criminology
gelatin emulsion on the film, and to dissolve out all the b. Criminalistics
unexposed and the undeveloped silver halide in it. c. Penology
a. Fixation d. Dactyloscopy
b. Fixing Bath
c. Stop Bath 97. It is the study concerning the production of permanent
d. Development records of images by the combined action of light on sensitive
surfaces, a mechanical device and the chemical process.
87. It is a distance measured from the optical center of the a. Dactyloscopy
lens to the film plane when the lens set of focus is set at b. Photography
infinity position. c. Ballistic
a. Focal Plane d. QDE
b. Focal Length
c. Focusing 98. The word Photography originated from the Greek word
d. Depth of Field PHOS which means:
a. Drawing
88. It serves to support the emulsion layer of the film. b. Picture
a. Base c. Photos
b. Emulsion d. Light
c. Anti-halation Backing
d. Granularity 99. A visible form of energy that radiates in waves of different
length.
89. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to wavelength or a. Light
color. b. Heat
a. Speed c. Fire
b. Spectral Sensitivity d. Rainbow
c. Granularity
d. Graininess 100. A black box sealed against light with a piece of film in
one end and a hole in the other end to let certain amount of
90. It refers to silver halides which are light sensitive and light to get in and strike the chemically sensitized material.
impregnated in the emulsion exists as small crystals and upon a. Film
development are converted to pure silver granules. b. Cartoon
a. Grain Size c. Camera
b. Emulsion d. Lens
c. Film
d. None of these FORENSIC CHEIMISTRY AND TOXICOLOGY (FS3)
1. How many percent is the NaNO3 composition of black
91. It refers to the Potassium Alum that solidifies the gelatin
powder?
of the sensitized materials which was soften in the developing
solution. a. 15
a. Developing agent
b. 20
b. Fixing Agent
c. Hardening Agent c.75
d. None of these d. 35

92. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to light.

a. Film Speed 2. DPA and determining gunpowder means?
b. Base
A. Diphenylamine
c. Film Graininess
d. Color Films B. Detrothilamine
c. Dythalamide
10 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
d. None of the above 10. It refers to low explosive which make up the charge to fire
the projectile from weapon.
3. DPA is also known as? a. Charcoal
a. Lung’s reagent b. Gunpowder

b. Detrothylamide reagent c. propellant

c. Chemical reagent d. both b and c

d. None of the above

11. How many percent is the carbon composition of black
powder?
4. Balistite, axite and ambertite are example of?
a. 15
A. Smokeless powder
b. 10
B. Blackpowder
c. 75
c. nitrate sulfate
d. 100
d. All of the above

12. How many percent is the sulfur composition of black

5. Smokeless powder was improves by adding another
powder?
substance with is so called?
a. 15
a. Lungs’s reagent
b. 10
b. Parrafin agent
c.85
c. Nitrates
d. 95
d. Stabilizing agent

13. Red Blood Cells contains antigen or the so called?

6. The following can affect the presence of powder residues,
a. Lanstenier
except,
b. Agglutinogen
a. Humidity
c. Precipition
b. Parrafin
d. Agglutination
C. Direction of firing
A. Wind velocity
14. Glycerol Nitrates and cellulose nitrates are the component
of?
7. Who is the first person who used the paraffin test for
a. Residue
the purpose of collecting residues from
b. Paraffin
discharge firearm?
c. black powder
a. Capt. Schultz
d. Smokeless powder
b. Lt. R.P. Strong
c. Dr. Iturriouz
15. Smokeless powder was first used by?
d. None of the above
A. Capt. Schultz
B.Gen. Crame
8. It refers to a rapid combustion, decomposition of
c. Capt. Allen
gases and consequent/violent increase of
d. None of the above
pressure, usually causing a loud report.
a. Explosive
16. Smokeless powder was first used in what year?
b. Explosion
a. 1984
c. Detonation
b. 1864
d. Dynamite
c. 1898
d. None of the above
9. The compositions of black powder are the following?
a. Charcoal
17. This test is to determine the presence of nitrates and the
b. Carbon
wax is applied on hand causing the pores of the skin to open
c. both a and b and exudes gunpowder residues.
d. a only a. MBA
b. DPA
c. MPA

11 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

d. DBA 25.It is a super cooled liquid which possesses high viscosity
and rigidity
18. In blood grouping, if anti serum A and anti serum B has a a. Carbon
reaction or clump with the sample blood, b. Glass
the blood group is? c. Fracture
a. Group B d. None of the above
b. Group AB
c. Group O 26. Glass is usually composed of SiO2 and B2O3. SiO2 means?
d. Group A a. Charcoal
b. Soda
19. It refers to the fluids produced by the male sex organ c. Carbon
a. Semen d. Silica
b. Testes
c. Testoseterone
d. Vagina 27. Al2O2 is a chemical composition of?
a. Alumina
20. It is a condition especially to very young men that b. Lime
there is a presence of semen without
c. Silica
spermatozoa.
d. Soda
a. Aspermia
b. UTI
c. STD
28. This refers to analysis of glass in which the effectiveness
d. All of the above
lies on the trace elements, this is done by analyzing two
sample of glass whether it is common.
21. How many percent is the KNO3 composition of black a. X-ray diffraction Analysis
powder? b. Spectographic Analysis
a. 25
c. Physical activities.
b. 10
d. None of the above
c. 85
d. 75
29. This refers to analysis of glass in which it is done
through the determination of its pattern and composition.
a. X-ray diffraction Analysis
22. How many percent is the NaNO3 composition of black b. Spectographic Analysis
powder?
c. Physical activities.
a. 15
d. None of the above
b. 20
c.75
30. An average man has _____ amount of blood
d. 35
a. 6 meters
b. 6 quartz
23. What is the normal quantity of seminal fluid in a single
c. 5 gallon
ejaculated.
d. 1 drum
A. 1.5-3.5 cc
B. 2.5-4.5 cc
C. 2.5- 5cc
31. Is the amount of blood found in the crime scene can
D. 3.5- 5cc
determine the length of time that the victim
survived the attack?
24. It is the major component of a glass.
a. Yes, because when person is dead blood pressure
a. lime falls to zero and bleeding ceases
b. soda b. No, it depends on the wound of the victim
c. silica c. It depends upon the situation
d. gel d. All of the above

12 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 c. Glass
32. This test for blood may be made by the policeman on the d. Durability
crime scene.
a. Preliminary test 40. The most sensitive method of determining differences of
b. Secondary Test composition in glass samples depends
c. Teichman Test upon the study of?
d. Drug Test a. Chemical
b. X-ray difraction

33. This type of test is very delicate and never fails to detect c. Physical properties of Glass
blood. d. Durability
a. Preliminary test
b. Benzidine Test 41. It refers to the clear liquid of blood that separates when
the blood is allowed to clot.
c. Nakayama test
a. Cells
d. Teichman Test
b. Serum
c. WBC
34. Benzidine solution used in benzidine test is composed of?
d. Platelets
a. Dry chemical
b. Benzidine solution and hydrogen peroxide
c. Benzidine solution and water 42. Blood is red in color due to the presence of?
d. both b and c a. Bacteria
b. Serum
35. If blood is positive in the application of benzidine test, it c. Hemoglobin
gives what color? d. Platelets
a. Red
b. Blue 43. The following are the importance of the study of blood
c. Green except,
d. Black a. For disputed parentage
b. As circumstantial
36. If in the application of benzidine test to the blood it c. As conclusive evidence
gives blue color in phenolphalein test it give what color? d. As corroborative evidence
a. Red
b. Blue 44. 65% of blood of human is composed of?
c. pink a. Plasma
d. Black b. Serum
c. WBC
37. Phenolphtalein test is also know as? d. RBC
a. Kastle-meyer test
b. Nakayama test 45. 90% of plasma is composed of?
c. Drug test a. Serum
d. Sugar test b. Water
c. Platelets
38. Extensive studies have been made to glass establish the d. RBC
relationship between refractive index and?
a. Polish Mask 46. The following are the confirmatory test for blood except;
b. Spectographic a. Microscopic test
c. Glass b. Benzidine test
d. Composition c. Microchemical test
d. Spectroscopic test
39. Refractive index of glass can be measured by what
method? 47. This examination for blood is the most delicate and
a. Immersion reliable test for determining the presence of blood in both
b. Ability old and recent stains.

13 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

a. Microscopic test b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./day
b. Spectroscopic test c. 0.6 to 0.6 mm./day
c. Microchemical test d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day
d. Teichman
55. He introduced chemical methods in toxicology.
a. Paulus Zacchias

48. This test determine the protein content of the blood. b. Imhotep

a. Haemin Test c. Orfilla

d. Severin Pineau
b. Spectroscopic test
c. Precipitin test
56. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial
d. Teichman
numbers?
A. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
49. Under this process, if human red cells is mixed with its
B. colloidal magnesium
own serum or the serum of a similar group,
C. etching solution
the cells remain even. If the cells are mixed with the serum of
D. borax solution
another group, cell clumps.
a. Putrefaction
57. It is a biological test for blood?
b. Deviation
A. benzidine test
d. Agglutination
B. blood grouping/typing
c. Precipition
C. takayama test
D. precipitin test
50. In blood grouping, if anti serum A and anti serum B has
a no reaction or clump with the sample
58. The cuticle of the animal hair is:
blood, the blood group is?
A. Rounded
a. Group B
B. serrated
b. Group AB
C. oblong
d. Group A D. circular
c. Group O

59. Police Capt. X conducts a test that will possibly identify blood or
51. is the relationship between the diameter of the medulla determines whether the blood stains really contained blood. This
and the diameter of the whole hair? Its determination is test is called?
performed under a microscope with micrometer eyepiece. a. Precipitin test
A. medullary index b. confirmatory test
B. medullar radius c. blood grouping test
C. medullary ratio d. preliminary test
D. none of these
60. ___ was the 1st poison for which the analytical test called a
52. Which of the following is the race determinant part of the Marsh test was developed by british chemist James Marsh
hair? a. Arsenic
a. medulla b. Atropine
b. cortex c. Acetic Acid
c. cuticle d. acetone
d. none of these
61. A german Swiss physician/alchemist who 1st stress the chemical
53. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere. nature of poison and its experimentation. He introduced the dose
a. Red concept.
b. Clay a.Orfila
c. Reddish-brown b.Paracelsus
d. Black c.Hippocrates
d.Swartz

54. Rate of growth of human hair. 62. A posion found in a rugby and has been described as a colorless
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day and inflammable liquid that burns with smoky flame
14 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
a. Toulene
71. Transient loss of consciousness with temporary cassation
b.Quinine
of the vital functions of the body.
c.Protamaine a. Death
d. Picrotoxin b. Coma
c. Suspended animation
d. Rigor mortis
63. In what mode of administration that poison can be absorbed
rapidly? 72. Hair on the body surface is usually:
a. Thick
a. oral b. Tapering gradually to fine points
b. anal c. Fine
d. all of the above
c. inhalation
d.injection 73. Characterized by no breathing and heart action, chill in
the body and non-existent reflexes.
a. Death
64. A person who fired a gun would be positively identified when b. Coma
DPA solution is used and the visible result is c. Suspended animation
a. Blue specs with tailing d. Rigor mortis
b. Bluish florescence 74. If the length of the fetus is 45 cm., the age of the fetus
c. Green specs is______ months.
d.Orange spec a. 8 months
b. 9 months
c. 6 months
65. A branch of science that treats of the form and quantity of d. 5 months
medicine to be administered within a certain period
75. Death occurs when there is deep irreversible coma,
a. toxicology absence of electrical brain activity and complete cessation of
b. serology all the vital functions without possibility of resuscitation.
a. Cardio-respiratory Death
c. biology
b. Somatic Death
d. Posology c. Brain death
66. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged d. Molecular Death
interval which allowed the development of serious suquelae
which becomes the cause of death. It is usually common to 76. It occurs when there is a continuous and persistent
cases involving stab wounds. cessation of heart action and respiration. It is a condition in
a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of which the physician and the members of the family pronounce
death a person to be dead.
b. Immediate or primary cause of death a. Cardio-respiratory Death
c. Cardio-respiratory arrest b. Somatic Death
d. Nocturnal death c. Brain death
d. Molecular Death
67. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death
has occurred more than 24 hours hence are useful to 77. This is the state of the body in which there is complete,
proximate the time of death. persistent and continuous cessation of the vital functions of
a. Flies the brain, heart and lungs which maintain life and health.
b. Earthworms a. Cardio-respiratory Death
c. Bees b. Somatic Death
d. Butterflies c. Brain death
d. Molecular Death
68. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a trained
physician. 78. After cessation of the vital functions of the body there is
a. Autopsy still animal life among individual cells. About three (3) to six
b. Embalming (6) hours later there is death of individual cells. This is known
c. Medical examination as________.
d. Post-mortem examination a. State of Suspended Animation
b. Molecular Death
69. Painful spasm of the vagina during sexual act. c. Clinical Death
a. Dyspareunia d. Somatic Death
b. Sexual Anesthesia
c. Vaginismus 79. This condition is not really death but merely a transient
d. Old Age loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of the vital
function of the body on the account of disease or external
stimulus or other forms or influence.
70. After death, the metabolic process inside the body ceases, a. State of Suspended Animation
heat is no longer produced and the body slowly loses its b. Molecular Death
temperature. c. Clinical Death
a. Algor mortis d. Somatic Death
b. Rigor mortis
c. Cadaveric spasm 80. In this test, a ligature is applied around the base of a
d. Suspended animation finger with moderate tightness. In a living person there

15 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

appears a bloodless zone at the site of the application of the 88. This appears during the later stage of its formation when
ligature. If such ligature is applied to the finger of a dead blood has coagulated inside the blood vessels or has diffused
man, there is no such change in color. into the tissues of the body.
a. Diaphanus Test a. Hypostatic Lividity
b. Icard,s Test b. Diffusion Lividity
c. Magnus Test c. Caloricity
d. None of these d. None of this

81. After death the metabolic process inside the body ceases. 89. It is the breaking down of the complex proteins into
No more heat is produced but the body loses slowly its simpler components associated with the foul smelling gases
temperature, evaporation or by conduction to the surrounding and accompanied by the change of color.
atmosphere. The progressive fall of the body temperature is a. Caloricity
one of the most prominent signs of death. This is known b. Lividity
as_______. c. Putrefaction
a. Post-mortem Rigidity d. None of these
b. Livor-mortis
c. Algor-Mortis 90. The dehydration of the whole body which results in the
d. None of these shivering and preservation of the body.
a. Putrefaction
82. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due b. Caloricity
to rapid and early putrefactive changes or some internal c. Mummification
changes. d. Maceration
a. Post-mortem Rigidity
b. Livor-mortis 91. This s a condition wherein the fatty tissues of the body
c. Post-mortem Caloricity are transformed to soft brownish white substance known as
d. Algor Mortis adipocere.
a. Saponification
83. The muscles are relaxed and capable of contracting when b. Mummification
stimulated. The pupils are dilated, the sphincters are relaxed, c. Maceration
and there is incontinence of urination and defecation. d. Caloricity
a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular
Irritability 92. This is the softening of the tissues when in a fluid medium
b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric Rigidity or Rigor is the absence of putrefactive microorganism which is
Mortis frequently observed in the death of fetus or utero.
c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary Relaxation a. Maceration
d. Stage of Caloricity b. Saponification
c. Mummification
84. The muscles become flaccid, and no longer capable of d. Caloricity
responding to mechanical and chemical stimulus and the
reaction become alkaline. 93. An injury, disease or the combination of both injury and
a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular Irritability disease responsible for initiating the trend or physiological
b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric Rigidity or Rigor disturbance, brief or prolonged, which produce the fatal
Mortis termination.
c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary Relaxation c
d. Stage of Caloricity
94. This applies to cases when trauma or disease kill quickly
85. The whole body becomes rigid due to the contraction of that there is no opportunity for sequel or complication to
the muscles. This develops three to six hours after death and develop.
may last from twenty-four to thirty-six hours. a. Mechanism of Death
a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular Irritability b. Manner of Death
b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric Rigidity c. Immediate Cause of Death
or Rigor Mortis d. Secondary Cause of Death
c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary Relaxation
d. Stage of Caloricity 95. The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently
prolonged interval which permitted the development of
86. The stoppage of the heart action and the loss of blood serious sequel which actually causes death.
vessels cause the blood to be under the influence of gravity. a. Mechanism of Death
It begins to accumulate in the most dependent portion of the b. Manner of Death
body. c. Immediate Cause of Death
a. Rigor Mortis d. Secondary Cause of Death
b. Livor Mortis
c. Algor Mortis 96. It refers to the physiological derangement or biochemical
d. None of this disturbance incompatible with life which is initiated by the
cause to death.
87. The blood merely gravitated into the most dependent a. Mechanism of Death
portion of the body but still inside the blood vessels and still b. Manner of Death
fluid in form. c. Cause of Death
a. Hypostatic Lividity d. None of the above
b. Diffusion Lividity
c. Caloricity 97. It is the explanation as to how the cause of death came
d. None of this into being or how the cause of death arose.
a. Mechanism of Death
b. Manner of Death

16 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

c. Cause of Death d. Intention to display it
d. None of the above
8. A city mayor executed a document in his legal capacity as a
98. The fatality is caused solely by disease. local executive, that document is classified as:
a. Natural Death a. Public document
b. Violent Death b. Official document
c. Unnatural death c. Private document
d. None of the above d. Commercial document

99. Death due to injury of any sort such as gunshot wound, 9. A document notarized by a notary public or any competent
stab, fracture, traumatic shock, etc. authority is legally classified as:
a. Natural Death a. Public document
b. Violent Death b. Official document
c. Unnatural death c. Private document
d. B or C d. Commercial document

100. The so-called Sudden Infant Death Syndrome. 10. A man who is unable to write may use this legally signify
a. CRIB Death a signature.
b. SUND a. Crude x
c. Bangungot c. Thumb mark
d. None of these b. Cross mark
d. Both A and B

QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION-FS4 11. Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental to a
writing system.
1. It refers to the assessment or altered, forged or suspected a. Copy book form
papers to determine if they are genuine or otherwise. b. System of writing
a. Estafa c. Line quality
b. Falsification of document d. Writing movement
c. Forgery 12. It refers to any abnormality or maladjustment in the
d. Questioned document examination typewriter which is reflected in its product
a. Defect
2. Iodine fumes is useful in questioned document examination b. Malalignment
because: c. Misalignment
a. It can be used to developed secret writings d. Alteration
b. It can be used to determine whether erasures have been
made 13. Enlarged photographic court exhibit usually referred to as
c. It can determine the kind of ink used in writing bromide enlargements of a document.
d. Both A and B a. Standard document
b. Questions documents
3. Which among the foregoing may be utilized as a means to c. Collected documents
carry out mechanical erasures? d. Display exhibits
a. Rubber eraser
b. Sharp knife 14. The appearance of paper when viewed by transmitted
c. Blade light, which discloses the formation and texture of the sheet.
d. All of these a. Lock-through of paper
b. Watermarks
4. An erasure with the use of ink eradicators. c. Cross marks
a. Mechanical erasure d. Sidelight marks
b. Chemical erasure
c. Electronic erasure 15. It consists of chemical solutions.
d. All of the foregoing a. Non aqueous ink
b. Aqueous ink
5. Instruments whose origin are known and proven; which c. Ink eradicators
are used in comparison with a questioned document. d. all of these
a. Simulated documents
b. Falsified documents 16. Any characteristic of handwriting which is sufficiently well
c. Standard documents fixed and unique to serve as a fundamental point in the
d. Forged documents identification of the writer.
a. Copy book form
6. A document executed without the intervention of a notary b. Line quality
or any competent public official by which some agreement or c. System of writing
disposition is proved. d. Significant writing habits
a. Public document
b. Official document 17. Refers to any specimen of writing executed normally
c. Private documents without any attempt to change or control its identifying habits
d. Commercial document and its usual quality of execution.
a. Natural writing
7. To obtain conviction for the charge of possession of false b. Disguised writing
bank or treasury notes this is an essential requisite. c. Cursive writing
a. Intention to use it d. System of writing
b. Intention to keep it
c. Intention to surrender it to authorities

17 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

18. Jose Pidal in trying to alter his own signature to hide his 29. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious
identity is using: recurrence of stress of impulse.
a. Natural writing a. Line quality
b. Disguised writing b. Rhythm
c. Cursive writing c. Baseline
d. System of writing d. Writing pressure

19. Writing in which are for most part joined together. 30. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or
a. Natural writing intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface with
b. Disguised writing increase pressure.
c. Cursive writing a. Writing pressure
d. System of writing b. Shading
c. Pen emphasis
20. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of any d. Natural variation
individual handwriting or in the product of any typewriter.
a. Normal variation 31. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
b. Natural variation a. Line quality
c. Tremor b. Baseline
d. Wrong hand writing c. Foot
d. Hitch
21. A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied
and assisted produces a: 32. A signature written by the forger in his own style of
a. Guided signature handwriting without attempting to copy to form of the
b. Normal signature genuine signature.
c. Scribble a. Traced forgery
d. Handwriting signature b. Disguised forgery
c. Simulated forgery
22. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital letters. d. Simple forgery
a. Embellishment
b. Beard 33. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skilful type
c. Buckle knot of forgery.
d. Diacritic a. Traced forgery
b. Disguised forgery
23. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal c. Simulated forgery
strokes. d. Simple forgery
a. Hook
b. Spur 34. Which among the following is an indication of
c. Loop genuineness of handwriting?
d. Staff a. Continuity
b. Smoothness
24. An oblong curve found in small letters f, g, h and I. c. Skilful writing
a. Hook d. Tremor
b. Spur
c. Loop 35. Combination of the basic design of letters and writing
d. Staff movement as taught in school.
a. Letter form
25. The introductory backward stroke added to the start of b. Line quality
many capital letters and which can also be seen occasionally c. Copy book form
in introductory strokes of small letters. d. System of writing
a. Embellishment
b. Beard 36. Document which is completely written and signed by one
c. Buckle knot person.
d. Hitch a. Genuine documents
b. Disputed document
26. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter. c. Holographic document
a. Embellishment d. Authentic document
b. Beard
c. Buckle knot 37. A document which contains some changes either as an
d. Diacritic addition or deletion.
a. Altered document
27. Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis movement b. Disputed document
and manner of holding the writing instrument. c. Obliterated document
a. Line quality d. Inserted document
b. Rhythm
c. Baseline 38. Signatures used to acknowledge delivery, purchase of
d. Writing pressure goods and mail.
a. Complete
28. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes. b. Formal
a. Embellishment c. Cursory
b. Hump d. Careless scribble
c. Diacritic
d. Knot 39. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the
original undecipherable.

18 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

a. Decipherment c. Diacritics
b. Restoration d. Hook
c. Obliteration
d. Interlineations 50. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place,
purpose and normal writing conditions.
40. A class of signature for routine document or day to day a. Complete signature
correspondence. b. Standard signature
a. Formal c. Evidential signature
b. Complete d. Model signature
c. Cursory
d. Careless scribble 51. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening
of the ink stroke.
41. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important a. Shading
documents. b. Pen emphasis
a. Complete c. Pen lift
b. Cursory d. Pen pressure
c. Informal
d. Careless scribble
52. It refers to any document written and signed by one
42. A process by which a canal like outline is produce on a person is known as:
fraudulent document underneath the genuine and tracing it a. Holographic Document
with the use of a pointed instrument. b. Disputed Document
a. Carbon process c. Questioned Document
b. Indention process d. Standard Document
c. Projection process
d. Transmitted light process 53. It refers to any document notarized by a notary public or
competent public official with solemnities required by law.
43. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier a. Official Document
than the rest of its outline. b. Public Document
a. Off its feet c. Private Document
b. Twisted letter d. Commercial Document
c. Clogged type face
d. Rebound 54. Every deed or instrument executed by a private person
without the intervention of a notary public or of any person
44. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is almost legally authorized, by which documents, some disposition or
unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits reacting from agreement is proved, evidenced set forth.
fixed mental impressions. a. Official Document
a. Handwriting b. Public Document
b. Writing c. Private Document
c. Typewriting d. Commercial Document
d. writing movement
55. Any instrument executed in accordance with the Code of
45. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation Commerce or any Mercantile Law, containing disposition of
and pen lifts difficult. commercial rights.
a. Ball point pen a. Public Document
b. Fountain pen b. Official document
c. Iron nutgall ink c. Private Document
d. Markers d. Commercial Document

46. Disconnection between letters or letter combination due 56. Any instrument issued by the government or its agents or
to lack of movement control. its officers having the authority to do so.
a. Pen lift a. Official Document
b. Retouching b. Public Document
c. Patching c. Private Document
d. Retracing d. Commercial Document

47. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the 57. It refers to any matter made a part of the document after
paper during manufacture. its original preparation.
a. Water marks a. Erasure
b. Fiber marks b. Addition
c. Paper design c. Obliteration
d. Wire marks d. Insertion

48. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what 58. A scientific conclusion results from relating observed facts
particular condition is manifested? by logical, common sense reasoning in accordance with
a. Grainy image established rules of law.
b. Two image a. Opinion
c. Overlapping image b. Conclusion
d. Three-dimensional image c. Off-hand Opinion
d. Addition
49. An element which is added to complete another letter.
a. Spur 59. The removal of writing or printing from a document is
b. Beard known as __________.

19 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

a. Addition c. Ultra-Violet Lamp
b. Conclusion d. Transmitted Light Gadget
c. Erasure
d. Obliteration 70. This is usually used for the detection of counterfeited bills
but can actually be used to detect security features of
60. A legal term to describe a witness who by reason of his qualified document.
special training or experience is permitted to express an a. Infra-red viewer
opinion regarding the issue, or a certain aspect of the issue, b. Ultra-violet lamp
which is involve in court action. c. Shadowgraph
a. Ordinary Witness d. Transmitted Light Gadget
b. Special Witness
c. Expert witness 71. It is primarily used to decipher writings in a charred
d. None of these paper.
a. Shadowgraph
61. The state of being identical or absolutely the same. There b. Infra-Red Viewer
is similarity of source or authorship of the questioned c. Ultra-Violet Lamp
document and the standard document. d. Infra-Red Lamp
a. Identification
b. Non-identification 72. In this examination, the document is viewed with the
c. Obliteration source of illumination behind it and the light passing through
d. Opinion the paper. It is used to determine the presence of erasures,
matching of serrations and some other types of alterations.
62. This includes the addition of writing and other material a. Microscopic Examination
between lines or paragraphs or the addition of whole page to b. Transmitted Light Examination
a document. c. Oblique Light examination
a. Insertion d. Ultra-violet Examination
b. Erasure
c. Obliteration 73. An examination with the illumination so controlled that it
d. None of these grazes or strikes the surface of the document from one side
at a very low angle.
63. It means that the source or authorship of the compared a. Microscopic Examination
questioned and standard specimens is different. b. Transmitted Light Examination
a. Identification c. Oblique Light examination
b. Non-Identification d. Ultra-violet Examination
c. Obliteration
d. Opinion 74. In this process, the forger places the document to be
forged on the bottom, inter-leaves a piece of carbon paper
64. The blotting out or shearing over the writing to make the and places on top of a document containing the genuine
original invisible. signature.
a. Obliteration a. Indentation Process
b. Erasure b. Carbon Process
c. Addition c. Transmitted Light Process
d. Multiplication d. None of these

65. It refers to the Document Examiner Conclusion. 75. It is the crime of making, circulating or uttering false coins
a. Conclusion and banknotes.
b. Prelude a. Falsification
c. Opinion b. Forgery
d. Hearsay c. Counterfeiting
d. Engraving
66. The following are the scientific method in QDE except:
a. Analysis 76. It is the process by which the line to be printed are cut
b. Comparison into pieces of metal by hand or with a machine. This process
c. Evaluation is used for the production of all genuine bank notes.
d. Conclusion a. Letterpress Printing
b. Engraving
67. It is usually a conclusion that is not based on thorough c. Counterfeiting
scientific examination. d. Forgery
a. Expert Opinion
b. Ordinary Opinion 77. It is the most common modern used by counterfeiter to
c. Off-hand Opinion make false paper money.
d. None of these a. Letterpress printing
b. Engraving
68. It is used for currency examination. c. Offset Printing
a. Shadowgraph d. Counterfeiting
b. Magnifying Lens
c. Ultra-Violet Lamp 78. The portrait appears life-like in a counterfeit bill/note.
d. Infra-Red Lamp a. True
b. Maybe
69. A device where light comes from beneath or behind a c. Sometimes
glass where document is place. d. False
a. Shadowgraph
b. Magnifying Lens

20 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

79. This is a special thread placed vertically on the paper
during manufacture. 89. These are pieces of metal stamped by government
a. Metallic Thread authority for use as money or collectively referring to metal
b. Colored Fibers currency.
c. Security Fibers a. Note
d. Lacework design b. Bill
c. Coin
80. These fibers are scattered on the surface of the paper d. Peso
(front/back) at random & can readily pick off by means on
any pointed instrument. The colors of these fibers are red and 90. It is the most common method of making gold coins.
blue. a. Engraving
a. Metallic Thread b. Offset Printing
b. Colored fibers/Security c. Uttering
c. Lacework Design d. Casting
d. None of these
91. To pass a counterfeited coin means__
81. The color of 200-peso denomination is_________. a. To import
a. Blue b. Utter
b. Yellow c. Mutilate
c. Green d. Counterfeit
d. Red
92. This means that the forger has trouble matching the
82. It refers to the prefix letter and numbers in a paper paper, ink, or writing materials to the exact date it was
money. supposed to have been written.
a. Value Panel a. Counterfeit
b. Serial Number b. Utter
c. Denominations c. Anachronism
d. Lacework d. Watermark

83. It refers to the silhouette of the portrait appearing on the 93. The first writing material known to man.
face of the note. a. Papyrus
a. Watermark b. Vellum
b. Vignette c. Parchment
c. Lacework d. None of these
d. Serial Numbers
94. This writing material made from the skin of animals
84. It is a special thread vertically implanted off center of the primarily of sheep, calves or goats.
note during paper manufacture. This can easily be seen when a. Vellum
the note is viewed against the light. b. Parchment
a. Embedded Security Thread c. Papyrus
b. Windowed Security Thread d. Reed
c. Iridescent Band
d. Vignette 95. It is widely claimed that invention of paper is generally
attributed to a_____.
85. It is a narrow security thread vertically located like a. Chinese
“stitches” at the face of the note with a clear text of the b. Americans
numerical value in repeated sequence. c. Filipino
a. Embedded Security Thread d. African
b. Windowed Security Thread
c. Iridescent Band 96. It was the first writing tool that has the writing end
d. Vignette slightly frayed like a brush. It is first used in papyrus writing
material.
86. It is a wide glistening gold vertical stripe with the a. Quill Pen
numerical value printed in series. b. Reed
a. Portrait c. Steel Point Pen
b. Iridescent band d. Fountain Pen
c. Serial Number
d. Vignette 97. It is shallow and horny part of large feather usually from
goose and was used for writing on parchment.
87. It refers to the numeral found at the four corners of the a. Quill Pen
front and back of the note. b. Reed
a. Value Panel c. Steel Point Pen
b. Micro printing d. Fountain Pen
c. Serial Numbers
d. Vignette 98. He patented the first ball point writing tool.
a. John Loud
88. _________ are refers to minute and finely printed words b. Lewis Waterman
“Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas” or Central Bank of the c. Bryan Donkin
Philippines” located at the face or back of the note. d. None of these
a. Value Panel
b. Micro printing 99. It is the oldest form of ink.
c. Serial Numbers a. Indian Ink
d. Vignette b. Log Wood Ink

21 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

c. Iron Galotannate Ink c. Hypnotism
d. Dyestuff Ink d. Torture

100. This is regarded as the principal method of ink 10. The nervous control of the human body includes the:
examination. a. Central Nervous System
a. Ink analysis b. Autonomic Nervous System
b. Chromatographic Analytical Method c. Muscular System
c. Benzidine Method d. Reproductive System
d. None of these e. Both A & B

11. It primarily controls the motor and sensory functions that

LIE DETECTION TECHNIQUES-FS5 occur at or above the threshold.
1. An instrument that graphically measures an examinee’s a. Central Nervous System
inhalation and exhalation. b. Autonomic Nervous System
a. Pneumograph c. Muscular System
b. Spygmograph d. Reproductive System
c. Kymograph
d. Galvanograph 12. It acts as a self-regulating autonomic response of the body.
a. Central Nervous System
2. An instrument that measured changes in pulse and blood b. Autonomic Nervous System
pressure. c. Muscular System
a. Pneumograph d. Reproductive System
b. Hydrospygmograph
c. Kymograph 13. When the person is under the influence of physical exertion
d. Galvanograph or emotional stimuli, the sympathetic will dominate and over-
rid the parasympathetic, thus there will be changes in the heart
3. He invented the Pneumograph component of the Lie rate, blood pressure, respiratory pattern, psycho galvanic
detector machine. reflexes, time of response to question, and voice tracing.
a. Vittorio Benussi a. True
b. John Larson b. Partially True
c. Cesare Lombroso c. False
d. William Marston d. Partially False

4. He conducted further research that dealt with 14. The parasympathetic nervous system works to restore
Sphygmomanometer, which was used to obtain periodic things to normal when the condition of stress has been
discontinuous blood pressure readings during the course of an removed. It is dominant branch when the condition is normal
examination. and the subject is calm, contented and relaxed.
a. William Marston a. True
b. John Larson b. Partially True
c. Cesare Lombroso c. False
d. Vittorio Benussi d. Partially False

5. A device invented that records both blood-pressure and 15. In this examination, lists of stimulus and non-stimulus
galvanic skin response was invented in 1920 by_______. words are read to the subject who is instructed to answer as
a. William Marston quickly as possible.
b. John Larson a. Lie Detection
c. Cesare Lombroso b. Word Association Test
d. Vittorio Benussi c. Hypnotism
d. Psychological Stress Evaluator
6. The term polygraph was first used in 1906 by James
MacKenzie in his invention the “ink polygraph”, which was used 16. In lie detector, the time interval between the words uttered
for medical purposes. by the examiner and the answer of the subject is recorded.
a. William Marston a. True
b. John Larson b. False
c. Cesare Lombroso c. Doubtful
d. James Mackenzie d. I do not Know

7. He is the self-proclaimed father of polygraph. 17. When the subject is asked with reference to his name,
a. William Marston address, civil status, nationality, ect., which has no relation to
b. John Larson the subject matter of the investigation, the tendency is to delay
c. Cesare Lombroso the answer.
d. Vittorio Benussi a. True
b. Partially True
8. Today, most polygraph test are administered with the digital c. Doubtful
equipment rather than the analog type. d. False
a. True
b. False 18. The Psychological Stress Evaluator is not concerned with
c. Partially True the answer, be it a “yes” or a “no”. The important factor is the
d. Partially False time response in relation to stimulus and non-stimulus words.
a. True
9. The following are methods of detection of deception except: b. False
a. Devices which record the psycho-physiological responses c. Doubtful
b. Use of drugs that try to inhibit the inhibitor d. Partially False

22 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 c. White Lie
19. It detects, measures, and graphically displays the voice d. Lie to adult
modulations that we cannot hear.
a. Word Association Test 29. It is a lie by omitting an important fact, deliberately leaving
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator another person with a misconception.
c. Lie Detection Test a. Lie to Children
d. Confession b. Bald Face Lie
c. White Lie
20. When the person is under stress as when he is lying, the d. Lying by Omission
micro tremor in the voice utterance is moderately and
completely suppressed. 30. It would cause no discord if it were undiscovered and offers
a. True some benefit to the liar, the hearer, or both.
b. False a. Lie to Children
c. Partially True b. Bald Face Lie
d. Doubtful c. White Lie
d. Lying by Omission
21. When a person is relaxed and responding honestly to the
questions, those inaudible frequencies are registered clearly on 31. A kind of lie that would normally cause discord if it were
the instrument. uncovered, but it offers some benefit to the liar and perhaps
a. True assists an orderly society.
b. False a. Perjury
c. Partially True b. Noble Lie
d. Doubtful c. Emergency Lie
d. Bluffing
22. In the administration of truth serum, the drug given
hypodermically to the subject is_________. 32. It is an strategic lie told when the truth may not be told
a. Shabu because, for example, harm to a third party would come of it.
b. Hyoscine Hydrobromide a. Perjury
c. Psychiatric Sodium Amytal b. Emergency Lie
d. Morphine c. Bluffing
d. Misleading
23. The drug administered to the subject in
Narcoanalysis/Narcosynthesis is________. 33. It is the act of lying or making verifiably false statements
a. Shabu on material matter under oath or affirmation in a court of law
b. Hyoscine Hydrobromide or in any of various sworn statements in writing.
c. Psychiatric Sodium Amytal a. Perjury
d. Morphine b. Bluffing
c. Dissembling
24. The Latin maxim which means that in wine there is truth. d. Misleading
a. In Vino San Miguel
b. In Vino Matador 34. Pretending to have the capability or intention one doesn’t.
c. InVino Veritos a. Dissembling
d. In Vino Veritas b. Misleading
c. Bluffing
25. It is the alteration of consciousness and concentration in d. Perjury
which the subject manifests a heightened suggestibility while
awareness is maintained. 35. A polite term of lying, though some might consider it to
a. Narcism being merely misleading.
b. Hypnosis a. Dissembling
c. Cult b. Misleading
d. Addiction c. Bluffing
d. Perjury
26. It is also called Prevarication. A type of deception in the
form of untruthful statements with the intention to deceive, 36. It occurs when the most fundamental aspect of a statement
often with the intention to maintain a secret of reputation, to is true, but the degree to which it is true is not correct.
protect someone’s feelings from getting hurt, or to avoid a. Jocose Lie
punishment. b. Exaggeration Lie
a. Lie c. Promotion Lie
b. Liar d. Misleading
c. Either of the two
d. None of the above 37. Lies that are meant in jest and are usually understood as
such by all present parties.
27. It is a lie that is told when it is obvious to all concerned that a. Jocose lie
is a lie. b. Promotion Lie
a. Lie to Children c. Exaggeration
b. Bald Face Lie d. Misleading
c. White Lie
d. Lying by Omission 38. A lie in the advertisements that contain statement that is
not credible.
28. It is often a platitude that may use euphemism that is told a. Jocose Lie
to make an adult subject acceptable to children. b. Exaggeration
a. Lie to Children c. Jocose Lie
b. Bald Face Lie d. Promotion Lie

23 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 49. This phase of the examination will condition the subject
39. It is wooden puppet often led into trouble by his propensity psychologically for the test.
to lie. a. Pre-test interview
a. Pinocchio b. Actual Interrogation
b. Pacquio c. Post-test interview
c. Pinocchia d. None of the above
d. Peter
50. Questions formulated must be short, simple and multiple
40. The component of the Polygraph machine that measures choice type.
the blood pressure and heart rate. a. True
a. Cardio-sphygmograph b. False
b. Pneumograph c. Partially True
c. Galvanograph d. Partially false
d. Keymograph
51. Questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.
41. It records the subject’s respiratory rate. a. Relevant Question
a. Cardio-sphygmograph b. Irrelevant Question
b. Pneumograph c. Control Question
c. Galvanograph d. Supplementary Question
d. Keymograph
52. These are questions which are unrelated to the matter
42. It is an act of deceiving or misleading usually accompanied under investigation but of similar nature although less serious
by lying. as compared to those relevant questions under investigation.
a. Detection a. Relevant Question
b. Deception b. Irrelevant Question
c. Reaction c. Control Question
d. Lying d. Supplementary Question

43. This valid test is only made possible when there is no

widespread publicity about the crime. 53. An examination wherein an informal interview of the
a. Peak of Tension Test subject is undertaken between 20 to 30 minutes.
b. Tension Test a. Post-test Interrogation
c. General Question Test b. Pre-test Interview
d. All of the above c. Actual Interrogation
d. Lie Detection Test
44. It refers to the uttering or conveying falsehood or creating
false or misleading information with the intention of affecting 54. Which among the following is not a required qualification
wrongfully the acts or opinion of other. for a polygraph examiner?
a. Response a. Criminology Graduate
b. Lying b. Honesty
c. Specific Response c. Technical Know How
d. Normal Response d. Integrity and Morals

45. Which of the following is not a standard qualification of a 55. Which among the forgoing is not a part in the conduct of a
polygraph examiner? polygraph examination?
a. He must be free of prejudice a. Pre-test Interview
b. He is an impartial seeker of truth b. Instrumental Test
c. He must be a policeman c. Post-Test Interview
d. He must be of good moral character d. Psychological Test

46. This test consists of series of relevant and irrelevant 56. Which among the following is not included in recording the
questions asked in a planned order. psycho-physiological response of the subject?
a. Peak of Tension Test a. Use of Water therapy
b. General Peak of tension Question Test b. Psychological Stress Evaluator
c. Polygraph Test c. Word Association Test
d. None of the Foregoing d. Polygraph Machine

47. The examination room must be equipped with paintings, 57. A person who is capable of detecting deception with the
decorations or other ornaments. use of instrumentation or mechanical device.
a. True a. Interrogator
b. False b. Detective
c. Partially True c. Medico-legal Officer
d. Partially False d. Polygraph Examiner

48. Permanent physical illness such as mental derangement, 58. Which among the following statement is not among the
certain heart condition and addiction to narcotic drugs are limitations of the polygraph?
definite causes that makes a person unfit for a polygraph test. a. It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent.
a. True b. It is admissible as evidence.
b. False c. It is an aid and not a substitute for investigation.
c. Partially True d. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument which records
d. Partially False responses.

24 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

59. An invaluable aid in investigation and an instrument in the 69. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the
detection of deception. details of the offense for which he is under scrutiny.
a. Photography a. Guilt Complex Test
b. Chemistry b. Silent Answer Test
c. Lie Detection c. Peak of Tension Test
d. Medicine d. Narrative

60. Questions in connection to the matter under investigation. 70. When response to control questions is consistently similar
a. Relevant this is administered.
b. Supplementary a. Guilt complex test
c. Control b. Silent answer Test
d. Relevant c. Peak of Tension Test
d. Narrative
61. It refers to query having no bearing or weight to the case
under investigation. 71. It is a tracing on the chart wherein the subject answered in
a. Relevant Question the irrelevant question.
b. Supplementary Questions a. Normal Tracing
c. Control Question b. Normal Response
d. Irrelevant Question c. Specific Response
d. Response
62. A test usually administered as part of the standard test to
draw a better conclusion. 72. This test uses Hyoscine Hydrobromide Drug that is
a. Relevant Question administered hypodermically which produces a state of
b. Supplementary delirium.
c. Control a. Hypnotism
d. Irrelevant b. Narco-analysis
c. Narco-synthesis
63. This measures, detects and graphically displays voice d. Administration of truth serum
modulation.
a. Word Association Test 73. It is base on the maxim “in vino veritas”.
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator a. Hypnotism
c. Truth Serum b. Narco-analysis
d. Water therapy c. Narco-Synthesis
d. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverages
64. In this examination, stimulus and non-stimulus words are
read to the subject who in turn is instructed to answer as 74. It is any deviation from the normal tracing of the subject.
quickly as possible. a. Normal Response
a. Word Association Test b. Specific Response
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator c. Polygrams
c. Truth Serum d. Response
d. Water Therapy
75. In this examination, psychiatric sodium pentothal is
65. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed not to administered.
produce verbal response. a. Hypnotism
a. Peak of Tension Test b. Narco-analysis
b. Silent Test c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverages
c. Narrative d. Administration of truth serum
d. Guilt Complex Test
76. The most common scientific method of detecting deception.
66. Using the Psychological Stress Evaluator, a lying subject or a. Polygraphy
when a person is under stress, the frequencies___________? b. Polygraph
a. Tends to disappear c. Truth Serum
b. Rise d. Interrogation
c. Increases
d. Stop 77. He devised an instrument capable of continuously recording
pulse rate, respiration and blood pressure.
67. This test not concerned with the answer whether it is yes a. William Marston
or no, what is important is the time of response in relation to b. Angelo Mosso
delay the answer. c. John Larson
a. Word Association Test d. Sticker
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator
c. Truth Serum 78. Psychological Response to any demand.
d. Water Therapy a. Reaction
b. Stress
68. It refers to the composite records of pneumograph, c. Pressure
galvanograph, and cardiosphygmograph tracings recorded d. All of the above
from series of question.
a. Polygrams 79. He is the father of Criminalistic.
b. Chart a. Cesare Lombroso
c. Subject b. Godard
d. A & B c. Hans Gross
d. Becarria

25 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

80. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep to c. Galvanograph
be considered fit for polygraph examination. d. Pneumograph
a. 5
b. 6 91. A kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to
c. 7 deceive others.
d. 8 a. Black Lie
b. White Lie
81. It is a type of question related to the facts of the case. c. Red Lie
a. Relevant question d. Yellow Lie
b. Irrelevant question
c. General Question 92. It is a deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the
d. Immaterial Question relevant question.
a. Reaction
82. He states that FEAR influenced the heart and could be use b. Normal Response
as a basis for detecting deception. c. Specific Response
a. Marston d. Positive Response
b. Larson
c. Mosso 93. Chart tracing of the subject when irrelevant questions were
d. Verguth answered.
a. Reaction
83. An act of discovery that is indicative of the fact that b. Normal Response
something is hidden or obscure. c. Specific Response
a. Fear d. Positive Response
b. Deception
c. Detection 94. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
d. Reaction a. 20 to 30minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes
84. An inhibition of a previous activity of an organism as a result c. 60 to 90 minutes
of stimulation. d. 90 to 120 minutes
a. Response
b. Reaction 95. What is the primary objective of the posttest interview?
c. Stimuli a. To thank the subject
d. Fear b. To obtain confession
c. To make the subject calm
85. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger d. To explain polygraph test procedures
which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
a. Response 96. What is the purpose of the pre-test interview?
b. Deception a. To prepare the subject for polygraph test
c. Stimuli b. To obtain confession
d. Fear c. To make the subject calm
d. To explain polygraph test procedures
86. This component drives the chart paper under the recording
pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute. 97. Test undertaken when both relevant and control questions
a. Cardiosphygmograph are similar in degree and consistency.
b. Kymograph a. Guilt complex test
c. Stimuli b. Silent answer Test
d. Fear c. Peak of Tension Test
d. None of the Above
87. A part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of
the subject. 98. It refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal
a. Finger electrode plate pattern of response.
b. Diacritic notch a. Relevant Questions
c. Rubber convoluted tube b. Irrelevant Questions
d. Kymograph c. Supplementary Questions
d. Control Questions
88. This component record changes of the subject’s blood
pressure and pulse rate. 99. The number of basic tracings in a modern polygraph.
a. Cardiosphygmograph a. 3
b. Sphygmomanometer b. 4
c. Galvanograph c. 5
d. Pneumograph d. 6

89. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount 100. He developed the systolic blood pressure method for
of electricity. detecting deception.
a. Cardiosphygmograph a. William Marston
b. Sphygmomanometer b. Harold Burtt
c. Galvanograph c. John Larson
d. Pneumograph d. Leonard Keeler

90. This component records the changes in the breathing of FORENSIC BALLISTICS-FS6
the subject. 1. It is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical projectile
a. Cardiosphygmograph propelled from a firearm by means of the expansive force of
b. Sphygmomanometer gases coming from the burning gunpowder.

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a. Cartridge 12. The number of lands and grooves inside the bore of a
b. Bullet fired firearm are always_________.
c. Primer a. Different
d. Gun powder b. The same
c. Opposite
2. The science of motion of projectiles. d. None of these
a. Firearm Examination
b. Ballistic 13. The size of the bullet grouping on the target.
c. Polygraph a. Terminal Accuracy
d. Dactyloscopy b. Terminal Energy
c. Terminal Velocity
d. Terminal Penetration
3. In a common police parlance, a bullet may be called
______. 14. All rim-fire cartridges and most center-fire revolver
a. Projectile cartridges that are now manufactured have_________.
b. Tingga a. Long Neck Cartridges
c. Slug b. Bottle Neck cartridges
d. Bala c. Straight Cases
d. None of these
4. A portion in the cartridge case which consists of a
brass or gilding metal cup. The cup contains a highly sensitive 15. It refers to the properties and attributes of the bullet
mixture of chemical compound. while still inside the gun.
a. Gunpowder a. Terminal Ballistic
b. Propellant b. Interior Ballistic
c. Primer c. Exterior Ballistic
d. Powder charge d. Forensic Ballistic

5. It refers to the identification and investigation of 16. The elevated portion of the bore.
firearms by means of ammunition fired through them. a. Land
a. Terminal Ballistic b. Grooves
b. Exterior Ballistic c. Rifling
c. Forensic Ballistic d. None of these
d. Interior Ballistic

6. It refers to any weapon designed to be operated from 17. In this firearm a pressure is applied on the trigger and
the shoulder. will both cock and fire the firearm by release of the hammer.
a. Revolver a. Single Action Firearm
b. Rifle b. Double Action Firearm
c. Pistol c. Single Shot Firearm
d. Machine Guns d. Automatic Firearm

7. Ignition of the propellant will cause the production of 18. The speed of the bullet upon striking the target.
flame. The flame does not usually go beyond a distance of a. Terminal Accuracy
___inches in pistols. b. Terminal Energy
a. 6 inches c. Terminal Velocity
b. 3 inches d. Terminal Penetration
c. 5 inches
d. 2 inches 19. It is an ancient smooth-bore and muzzle loading
military shoulder arm designed to fire a single round lead ball.
8. This is an instrument used for making measurement a. Musket
such as bullet diameter, bore diameter, and barrel length. b. Machine guns
a. Micrometer c. Shoulder Arms
b. Taper Gauge d. Revolver
c. Caliper
d. Onoscope
20. The term ballistic is derived from the Greek word
9. He is credited as the father of Percussion Ignition. _________ which literally means to throw.
a. Calvin Goddard a. Ballista
b. Alexander john Forsyth b. Ballo
c. Smith c. Ballein
d. Wesson d. B or C

10. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes. 21. Fired bullets should be marked by the recovering
A. Bordan primer B. Berdan Primer officer with his initials in the ____________.
C. Battery Primer D. Boxer Primer a. Nose
b. Mouth
11. It refers to the effect of the impact of the bullet on c. Ogive
the target. d. A or C
a. Terminal ballistic
b. Exterior Ballistic 22. It refers to the circular groove near the base of the
c. Forensic Ballistic case or shell designed for the automatic withdrawal of the case
d. Interior Ballistic after each firing.
a. Ejector Groove

27 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

b. Extractor Groove c. Primer
c. Land Groove d. Ball
d. None of these
33. The first priming mixture is composed of Potassium
23. It is the amount of force on the trigger necessary to Chlorate, Charcoal, and _________.
fire a gun. a. Ground Glass
a. Hair Trigger b. Fulminate of Mercury
b. Trigger Force c. Barium Nitrate
c. Trigger Pressure d. Sulphur
d. None of these
34. Firearm which may be fired only by a single hand.
a. Rifle
24. It is generally found on the primer cup. b. Pistol
a. Shearing Mark c. Shotgun
b. Firing Pin mark d. All of these
c. Extractor Mark
d. Magazine lip Mark 35. It refers to the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of
time.
a. Velocity
25. He is credited as the father of Ballistic. b. Air Resistance
a. Samuel Colt c. Pull of Gravity
b. Calvin Goddard d. Penetration
c. Forsyth
d. Hans Gross 36. In marking physical evidence, use distinctive mark
such as X.
26. It refers to the characteristics that are determinable a. true
even prior to the manufacture of the firearms. These are b. false
factory specification and within the control of man. c. Partially true
a. Individual Characteristics d. Partially false
b. Class Characteristics
c. Group Characteristics 37. This is used in determining weights of bullets and
d. None of these shotgun pellets to determine probably the type of caliber and
make of firearms from which they were fired.
27. It describes the ability of the bullet to maintain its a. Micrometer
velocity against air resistance. b. Bullet Comparison Microscope
a. Trajectory c. Helixometer
b. Air Resistance d. Analytical Balance
c. Pull of Gravity
d. Ballistic Coefficient 38. He produced the first practical revolver.
a. Samuel Colt
28. Firearms that propel projectile of less than one inch in b. John Garand
diameter. c. John M. Browning
a. Artillery d. Remington
b. Small Arms
c. Trigger 39. The Gunpowder was invented in_________.
d. Ejector a. 1413
b. 1313
29. The depressed portion of the bore. c. 1350
a. Groove d. 1213
b. Land
c. Rifling 40. This instrument is use to measure the angle of twist
d. Base in a rifled pistol and revolver.
a. Magnifying Glass
30. The depth of entry of the bullet in the target. b. Gunsmith tools
a. Pull of Gravity c. Micrometer
b. Air Resistance d. Helixometer
c. Terminal Penetration
d. Terminal Accuracy 41. The resistance encountered by the bullet whiles its
flight
31. It is generally used in the preliminary examination of a. Velocity Resistance
fired bullets and shells for the purpose of determining the b. Air Resistance
relative distribution of the class characteristics. c. Pull of Gravity
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope d. Penetration
b. Stereoscopic Microscope
c. Shadowgraph
d. Caliper 42. Bore diameter is an example of class characteristic.
a. True
32. It refers to a “Loaded Shell” for rifles, carbines, b. False
shotguns, revolvers and pistols from which a ball, bullet, shot c. Partially True
or other missile may be fired by means of a gun powder or d. Maybe
other explosives..
a. Bullet 43. The highly sensitive chemical mixture contained in the
b. Ammunition primer cup.

28 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 c. Range
a. Priming Mixture d. Penetration
b. Gunpowder
c. Propellant 53. This is used primarily in determining the bore
d. Powder Charge diameter of firearms.
a. Gunsmith tools
44. The collecting officer can mark the cylindrical surface b. Taper Gauge
of the bullet. c. Micrometer
a. True d. Helixometer
b. False
c. Partially true
d. Partially false 54. The oldest propellant.
a. Black Powder
45. These are generally found on bullets fired through b. Pink powder
“loose fit” barrels wherein the rifling is already worn out. c. Yellow Green powder
a. Shearing Mark d. Smokeless
b. Stripping Mark
c. Breech Face Mark 55. In this, the diameter or the base of the cartridge is
d. Chamber Mark bigger than the body of the cartridge.
a. Rimless type
46. Skid mark can be found on fired bullets. b. Rimmed Type
c. Semi-rimmed
a. True d. None of these
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False 56. It can be used in the close up examination of
tampered serial numbers.
47. It refers to the characteristics markings peculiar and a. Gunsmith tool
not found in all firearms. b. Taper Gauge
c. Stereoscopic Microscope
a. Class Characteristics d. Shadowgraph
b. Individual characteristic
c. Group Characteristics 57. It is equal to the height of the side of a land.
d. All of the above a. Depth of Grooves
b. Twist
48. This is especially designed to permit the firearm c. Rifling
examiner to determine the similarity and dissimilarity between d. land
two fired bullets and slugs or projectiles, or two fired shells by
simultaneously observing their magnified image in a single
microscopic instrument. 58. The first reference to paper cartridge happened
a. Stereoscopic Microscope around this year.
b. Bullet Comparison Microscope a. 1313
c. Onoscope b. 1575
d. Shadowgraph c. 1836
d. 1897
49. It is applied to that part of the cartridge case that is
occupied by the bullet. 59. It contains a compound at the base usually similar to
a. Base barium nitrates, which is set on fire when the bullet is
b. Crimp projected. The flash of the smoke from the burning permits the
c. Vents light of the bullet to be seen especially at night time.
d. Neck a. Incendiary Bullets
b. Tracer Bullets
50. These are found in the anterior portions of the fired c. Explosive Bullets
bullets and caused by the forward movement of the bullet from d. Armor Piercing Bullets
the chamber before it initially rotates due to the rifling inside
the gun barrel. 60. The rifling inside the gun barrel may twist _________.
a. Stripping Mark a. To the right only
b. Skid Mark b. To the left only
c. Firing pin Mark c. To the right & left
d. Shearing Mark d. All of these

51. It is the hole in the web or the bottom of the primer 61. It refers to serrated grooves that are sometimes found
pocket through which the primer ‘flash” provides ignition to the rolled into the necks and bodied of the cases at the location of
gunpowder. the bases of the bullet to prevent the bullet from being pushed
a. Flash holes back or loosened.
b. Vents a. Neck
c. Cannelures b. Base
d. A or B c. Crimp
d. Cannelures
52. It refers to the straight distance between the muzzle
and the target. 62. It refers to the actual curved path of the bullet during
a Trajectory its flight from the gun muzzle to the target.
b. Velocity a. Velocity

29 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

b. Trajectory b. Exterior Ballistic
c. Muzzle energy c. Interior Ballistic
d. Penetration d. Terminal Ballistic

63. Land and groove marks are called__________. 73. A type of weapon which fire or is designed to fire
a. Skid Mark automatically or semi-automatically more than one shot
b. Shearing Mark without manual reloading.
c. Rifling Mark a. Artillery
d. Stripping Mark b. Machine guns
c. Shoulder Arms
64. Type of firearms that propel projectiles less than one d. Single Shot Firearms
inch in diameter.
a. Artillery 74. It is known as self-loading firearm.
b. Small arms a. Revolver
c. Machine Guns b. Automatic Pistol
d. Shoulder Arms c. Single Action Firearm
d. Double Action Firearm
65. When percussion ignition started?
a. 1853 75. The portion of the primer against which the priming
b. 1807 mixture is crushed by a blow from the firing pin.
c. 1575 a. Disc
d. 1498 b. Anvil
c. Primer cup
d. Flash Hole
66. It refers to firearms that have rifling inside their gun
barrel. 76. The diameter of the base of the cartridge case is the
a. Smooth-Bore Firearms same as the diameter of the body of the cartridge case or shell.
b. Rifled-Bore firearms a. Rimmed type
c. Bolt Action type b. Rimless type
d. Repeating arms c. Semi-Rimmed
d. Non-rimmed
67. The bore diameter of the firearm is the________.
a. Type of firearm
b. Caliber of firearm 77. A firearm with a long barrel and butt.
c. Size of Firearm a. Shotgun
d. None of these b. Rifle
c. Double Action Firearm
d. Single Action firearm
68. This kind of bullet contains a mixture such as
phosphorous or other material that can be set on fire by impact. 78. There are two classification of bullet according to
These are used on targets that will readily burn such as mechanical construction. One is the lead bullet and the other
aircrafts or gasoline depot. is_________.
a. Explosive Bullets a. Jacketed Bullet
b. Incendiary Bullets b. Round Nose
c. Tracer Bullets c. Pointed Nose
d. Armor Piercing Bullets d. Hollow Point

69. The term Bullet originated from the French 79. He is a wizard of modern firearms and pioneered the
word_______. breech-loading single shot rifle.
a. Boulette a. David Williams
b. Boul b. John M. Browning
c. Pelette c. Samuel Colt
d. None of these d. John Garand

70. The noise created at the muzzle of the gun due to the 80. The muzzle velocity of a Rifle is________.
sudden escape of the expanding gas coming in contact with the a. 2, 600 feet per second
air in the surrounding atmosphere at the muzzle point. b. 2, 500 feet per second
a. Muzzle Energy c. 3, 000 feet per second
b. Trajectory d. 2, 000 feet per second
c. Velocity
d. Muzzle Blast 81. The following are attributes of the bullet while still
inside the muzzle of the gun except-
71. A part of the mouth of the case that is turned in upon a. Velocity
the bullet and holds the bullet in place. b. Firing pin hitting the primer
a. Crimp c. Ignition of the priming mixture
b. Cannelure d. Combustion of the gunpowder
c. Neck
d. Base 82. The bottom of the case which holds the primer and
the shell head.
72. It refers to the attributes and movement of the bullet a. Extracting Groove
after it has left the gun muzzle. b. Base
c. Crimp
a. Muzzle Energy d. Mouth

30 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 b. Low Power Firearm
83. These bullets have hardened steel cores and are fired c. Average power firearm
at vehicles and other armored targets in general. d. None of these
a. Armor Piercing Bullet
b. Incendiary Bullet 94. The metal containing the highly sensitive priming
c. Explosive Bullet mixture of chemical compound, which when struck by the firing
d. Tracer Bullet pin it would ignite.
a. Gunpowder
84. It refers to the investigation and identification of b. Primer
firearms by means of ammunition fired through them. c. Bullet
a. Terminal Ballistic d. Cartridge
b. Forensic Ballistic
c. Exterior ballistic 95. It is the most simple form of modern cartridge and
d. Interior Ballistic can generally found in Cal. 22
a. Pin-Fire cartridge
b. Rim-Fire Cartridge
85. A mechanism of the firearm by which the empty shell c. Center Fire Cartridge
or ammunition is thrown from the firearm. d. All of these
a. Extractor
b. Ejector 96. In this kind of firearm, a pull or pressure on the trigger
c. Trigger will cause one shot.
d. Breechblock a. Automatic firearm
b. Single Shot firearm
86. This firearm is first manually cocked then followed by c. Double Action firearm
pressure on the trigger to release the hammer. d. Single Action Firearm
a. Automatic Firearm
b. Single Shot Firearm 97. The first cartridge of a self-exploding type.
c. Double Action Firearm a. Pin-Fire cartridge
d. Single Action Firearm b. Rim-Fire Cartridge
c. Center Fire Cartridge
87. It refers to firearm that propelled projectile more than d. All of these
an inch in diameter.
a. Small Arms 98. The Trigger pressure of a rifle is________.
b. Artillery a. 4 lbs.
c. Smooth Bore Firearms b. 3-4 lbs
d. Machine Guns c. 3-5 lbs
d. 6-7 lbs
88. Firearms that have no rifling inside the gun barrel.
a. Smooth-Bore firearm 99. The inner surface of the barrel that has a series of
b. Rifled-bore firearm parallel spiral grooves on the whole length is called_____
c. Small Arms a. Bore
d. Artillery b. Rifling
c. Twist
89. A smooth-bore and breech loading shoulder arm d. Hammer
designed to fire a number of lead pellets or shots in one charge.
a. Carbine 100. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time
b. Shotgun or delayed in firing?
c. Hand arms a. Recoil
d. Revolver b. Misfire
c. Hang fire
90. It pulls the empty shell from the cylinder d. Knocking power
simultaneously.
a. Yoke
b. Firing Pin
c. Extractor
d. Ejector

91. Smith and Wesson revolvers have _________.

a. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the right
b. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the left
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the right
d. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the left

92. A mechanism of the firearm responsible for the spent

shell or ammunition to be withdrawn from the firing chamber.
a. Extractor
b. Ejector
c. Breechblock
d. Trigger

93. What firearm has a muzzle velocity of not more than

1,400 feet per second?
a. High Powered firearm

31 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER