Media and Advertising Fundamentals

1. What is one of the primary advantages of using in-store media? A. High production
cost B. Reaching shoppers at the place where they buy ✓ C. Low flexibility D. Limited
exposure
2. What is market segmentation? A. Selling the same product in all regions B. Dividing
the market into distinct groups with common needs ✓ C. Offering one marketing strategy
to everyone D. Focusing only on price competition
3. What does CPM stand for? A. Cost Per Minute B. Cost Per Million C. Cost Per Media
D. Cost Per Thousand ✓
4. What is the "big idea" in an advertising campaign? A. The final slogan B. The
execution method of the ad C. The central, most powerful theme that unites the campaign
✓ D. The brand's mission statement
5. What is the main goal of Integrated Marketing Communications (IMC)? A. Increase
product prices B. Project a consistent, unified image across all marketing channels ✓ C.
Focus only on digital marketing D. Replace traditional marketing channels

Communication and Consumer Behavior

6. Media coverage that reaches people who are not potential buyers is often called: A.
Media coverage B. Evoked coverage C. Waste coverage ✓ D. Inert coverage
7. In the basic communication model, what is the process of transforming the sender's
message into thought by the receiver called? A. Encoding B. Decoding ✓ C. Feedback
D. Noise
8. What is the first stage in the consumer decision-making process? A. Information
search B. Problem recognition ✓ C. Alternative evaluation D. Purchase decision
9. What is "selective retention"? A. Focusing only on relevant advertising B.
Remembering only a portion of information after processing it ✓ C. Ignoring irrelevant
brand messages D. Avoiding exposure to certain media
10. What process involves selecting, organizing, and interpreting information to create
a meaningful view of the world? A. Attitude formation B. Motivation C. Learning D.
Perception ✓

Promotion and Sales Strategies

11. One major reason for the growing importance of IMC? A. The need to develop and
sustain brand identity and equity ✓ B. Increase in traditional marketing C. Decrease in
competition D. Increasing manufacturing costs
12. What is the primary goal of sales promotion? A. Increase brand loyalty B. Build long-
term awareness C. Create an immediate sale ✓ D. Enhance employee morale
13. Which execution technique involves a well-known person...? A. Demonstration B.
Slice of life C. Testimonial ✓ D. Animation
 14. What does a promotional push strategy target? A. Consumers directly B. Social media
influencers C. Resellers such as wholesalers and retailers ✓ D. Shareholders and
investors
15. What is the goal of promotional push strategy? A. Persuade resellers to stock,
merchandise, promote ✓ B. Reduce production costs C. Build brand via mass media D.
Create consumer demand

Advertising Types and Execution

16. The ad for ELVIVE Total Repair 5... execution styles: A. Scientific/technical
evidence B. Animation C. Straight-sell message ✓ D. Slice of life
17. Which execution style uses a real customer or celebrity to share a personal story? A.
Demonstration B. Testimonial ✓ C. Slice-of-life D. Animation
18. Corona's "Find Your Beach" campaign is an example of: A. Humorous ad B.
Rational ad C. Transformational ad ✓ D. Informational ad
19. What type of advertising are the Corona beach campaigns an example of? A.
Humorous ad B. Rational ad C. Transformational ad ✓ D. Informational ad
20. What is the purpose of a teaser advertisement? A. Deliver pricing information B.
Show product comparisons C. Create curiosity or excitement ✓ D. Explain product specs
in detail

Media Planning and Strategy

21. What is the primary thesis of the DAGMAR model...? A. Sales volume should be the
primary measure... B. Advertising should focus solely on... C. Communications effects
are the logical basis... ✓ D. Advertising goals should be defined based on...
22. How do magazines offer creative flexibility? A. Lower rates for ad space B. Variety of
content C. High-quality visuals and innovative designs ✓ D. Black and white only
23. Which radio advertising type provides greater flexibility? A. Network radio B.
Satellite radio C. Spot radio ✓ D. Digital radio
24. Which objective-setting method is associated with the acronym DAGMAR? A.
Define Advertising Goals for Measured Advertising Results ✓ B. Direct Ad Goals
Measured and Reviewed C. Digital Ad Goals for Market Awareness Reach D. Determine
Advertising Guidelines for Market Analysis and Results
25. In media planning, what does 'reach' refer to? A. The number of times an ad is shown
B. The total cost of an ad campaign C. The length of time an ad is aired D. The number
of different audience members exposed to a media vehicle ✓

Marketing Value and Credibility

26. How is "value" defined in marketing? A. Market share and reputation B. Customer's
perception of benefits vs. costs ✓ C. Popularity with low cost D. Company profitability
27. What are the two important dimensions of credibility according to communications
research? A. Experience and Appearance B. Authority and Clarity C. Expertise and
Trustworthiness ✓ D. Knowledge and Persuasiveness E. Popularity and Influence
 28. Why might info from personal channels be more persuasive...? A. Mass media =
more personal B. Personal channels = less credible C. Personal = lacks flexibility D.
Personal = direct interaction + tailored ✓
29. Why is it important for marketers to select a credible and relatable spokesperson?
A. To make the advertisement more expensive B. To measure the effectiveness of the
communication C. To ensure the communication is understood and positively received by
the target audience ✓ D. To use more complex language and symbols E. To limit the
advertising budget
30. Which source factor is most likely to affect how consumers respond to advertising?
A. Power, expertise, and trustworthiness B. Similarity, familiarity, and likability ✓ C.
Control, concern, and scrutiny D. Humor, fear, and logic

Promotional Mix and Marketing Elements

31. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a major promotional-mix element? A.

Personal selling B. Advertising C. Sales promotion D. Event marketing ✓ E.
Publicity/public relations
32. Advantage of using both push and pull strategies? A. Flexibility to adjust focus by
product life cycle ✓ B. Minimize budget C. Reduce need for market research D. Ensure
consistent messaging
33. What are the four traditional elements of the promotional mix? A. Advertising, sales
promotion, publicity/public relations, and personal selling ✓ B. Advertising, digital
marketing, publicity/public relations, and personal selling C. Advertising, digital
marketing, public relations, and personal selling D. Advertising, direct marketing, digital
marketing, and personal selling
34. What distinguishes nonpersonal channels of communication from personal
channels? A. Nonpersonal channels include methods like e-mail and social media B.
Nonpersonal channels involve direct, face-to-face interaction C. Nonpersonal channels
involve mass media and do not include direct interpersonal contact ✓ D. Nonpersonal
channels are only used in local advertising
35. NOT a nonpersonal communication channel: A. Radio ads B. Face-to-face sales
presentations ✓ C. Magazine ads D. TV commercials

Marketing Research and Problem Detection

36. Purpose of problem detection studies? A. Evaluate ads B. Identify product

improvements / new development ✓ C. Determine ad budget D. Analyze market trends
37. What is the purpose of a subhead in print ad? A. Enhance readability and highlight
key points ✓ B. Create brand identity C. Provide visual element D. Deliver main
message
38. Which print ad element is used to grab attention first? A. Layout B. Subhead C.
Headline ✓ D. Body copy
39. What is one argument against measuring advertising effectiveness? A. It avoids
costly mistakes B. It improves ad efficiency C. It may involve high costs and time ✓ D. It
ensures objectives are achieved
 40. Which test tracks involuntary responses like pupil dilation and brain waves? A. On-
air test B. Focus group C. Physiological measures ✓ D. Recall test

Noise and Communication Barriers

41. Which is NOT noise in communication? A. Distractions during a break B. Encoding

errors C. Phone distractions D. A well-designed ad campaign ✓ E. TV signal distortion
42. What reduces noise from sender/receiver field differences? A. Enhance common
ground between them ✓ B. Increase message length C. Use complex encoding D. Use
traditional media E. Fewer communication channels
43. What aspect of communication is emphasized as a major barrier for marketers? A.
The aesthetic design of advertisements B. Language differences and linguistic nuances ✓
C. Variety of marketing channels D. Speed of message delivery
44. Message structure & persuasiveness: A. Only relevant in verbal B. Less likely to
persuade C. Clear/logical = more persuasive ✓ D. Structure has no effect
45. Why might an advertiser choose to present the brand name and key selling points
early in a short communication message? A. To increase recall and retention ✓ B. To
avoid negative counterarguments C. To reduce the cost of production D. To enhance
visual appeal

Creative Marketing Strategies

46. Guideline for evaluating creative output? A. Focus on humor B. Emphasize quantity
C. Prioritize visuals D. Align with marketing objectives ✓
47. Major benefit of having specific IMC objectives? A. Simplify budgeting B. Exclude
research specialists C. No documentation D. Serve as base for coordination and
discussion ✓
48. What two factors determine advertising creativity? A. Budget and celebrity
endorsement B. Relevance and divergence ✓ C. Originality and consistency D. Humor
and visual design
49. What are the key elements of a creative brief? A. Market analysis and competitor
review B. Advertising budget and campaign duration C. Communication objectives and
target audience ✓ D. Media selection and scheduling
50. What are 2 central determinants of creativity in advertising? A. Divergence and
impact B. Divergence and relevance ✓ C. Impact and excitement D. Impact and
relevance

Media Types and Characteristics

51. Magazines & newspapers vs. broadcast media: A. Reach broader audience B. Allow
detailed info at reader's pace ✓ C. More intrusive D. More cost-effective
52. What defines a national newspaper? A. National circulation + editorial content with
nationwide appeal ✓ B. Includes supplements C. Published weekly D. Local content
53. Role of support media in IMC: A. Increase social media engagement B. Deliver
communication via nontraditional channels ✓ C. Replace traditional ads D. Enhance
online ads
 54. Advantage of radio as advertising medium: A. Visual appeal B. High production cost
C. Limited reach D. Flexibility ✓
55. How does television create lifelike representations? A. Through sight and sound ✓ B.
Motion and still images C. Sound alone D. Text and graphics

Ad Effectiveness and Placement

56. Message structure: avoid placing strong arguments in: A. Early, late, the middle B.
Early, the middle, late C. The middle, early, late D. Early, late, the beginning ✓
57. Nielsen ratings use what device? A. Portable People Meter (PPM) B. People meter ✓
C. Cume D. DVR
58. What determines ad effectiveness more than words? A. The impression or image the
ad creates ✓ B. Color scheme C. Word count D. Length
59. "Sweeps period" in media planning? A. Measures buying power B. Measures brand
development C. Measures category development D. Measures TV audience & sets ad
rates ✓
60. Limitation of TV advertising: A. Fleeting message ✓ B. Low cost C. High attention D.
High selectivity

Consumer Needs and Behavior

61. Maslow -- need for safety/security: A. Love/belonging B. Safety needs ✓ C. Self-

actualization D. Physiological E. Esteem
62. Disney #ShareYourEars campaign is an example of: A. Utilitarian content B. User-
generated content ✓ C. Teaser advertising D. Reminder advertising
63. How marketers benefit from consumer behavior info? A. Know production cost B.
Align strategy with preferences ✓ C. Analyze competitor prices only D. Reduce point-of-
purchase stimuli
64. Which of the following best describes a situation where a purchase decision is made
with minimal information and little deliberation? A. Complex buying behavior B.
Impulse buying ✓ C. Limited problem solving D. Routine response behavior
65. Maslow -- need phải thỏa mãn đầu tiên: A. Self-actualization B. Love/belonging C.
Esteem D. Physiological ✓ E. Safety

Alternative Marketing Methods

66. Another name for guerrilla marketing? A. TV advertising B. Mainstream marketing C.

Traditional marketing D. Viral marketing ✓
67. Big advantage of digital OOH (DOOH)? A. Less intrusive B. Messages can change
quickly/often ✓ C. Lower cost D. More visibility in rural areas
68. Which is a form of DOOH media? A. Video advertising networks ✓ B. Magazine ads
C. Online banner ads D. Radio commercials
69. What is branded entertainment? A. Celebrity endorsement posts on Instagram B.
Advertising blended into film, TV, or music content ✓ C. Pop-up online video ads D.
Interactive banner ads on gaming sites
 70. What is the key characteristic of buzz marketing...? A. Limited to in-person
communication B. Relies solely on traditional media C. Includes organized efforts to
encourage favorable discussion ✓ D. Avoids using social media

Transit and Outdoor Advertising

71. Disadvantage of transit advertising? A. Highly selective B. Only effective in urban

areas C. Limited exposure in rural/suburban areas ✓ D. Too expensive
72. What is an advantage of transit advertising? A. Increase audience mood B. High reach
✓ C. Limited geographic flexibility D. High frequency of exposure
73. What factor has reduced transit advertising effectiveness? A. Poor ad quality B.
Higher ad costs C. Decline in ridership ✓ D. Competing media
74. What is one disadvantage of transit advertising? A. Highly selective B. Only effective
in urban areas C. Limited exposure in rural/suburban areas ✓ D. Too expensive
75. What problem has reduced the effectiveness of transit advertising in recent years?
A. Poor ad quality B. Higher costs of ad placements C. Decline in ridership ✓ D.
Increase in competing media

Media Planning and Objectives

76. Why follow media objectives? A. Increase cost B. Organize media plan ✓ C. Develop
products D. Reduce ad frequency
77. John wants to build excitement without showing product → nên dùng ad nào? A.
Emotional ad B. Teaser ad ✓ C. Transformational ad D. Informational ad
78. Why 15-second spot? A. Less expensive + broader reach ✓ B. Preferred by viewers C.
Less effective D. Allows more detail
79. What is the primary reason for the decline in commercial length over the past
decades? A. Increased audience selectivity B. Rising media costs ✓ C. Increase in
viewer attention spans D. Improved production technology
80. What is the 'pulsing' method in media scheduling? A. A method used only for
seasonal products B. A continuous pattern of advertising C. Intermittent periods of
advertising and no advertising D. A combination of continuity and flighting with
increased efforts at times ✓

Creative Strategy and Key Concepts

81. Key to effective ad communication? A. Creative tactics B. Creative strategy C. Ad

budget D. Big idea ✓
82. What is a key characteristic of the arbitrary allocation method for setting a budget?
A. It uses historical data to predict future budget needs B. It is based on comprehensive
theoretical and empirical research C. It involves setting the budget based on what is felt
to be necessary without systematic thinking ✓ D. It is grounded in a well-defined set of
economic criteria and objectives
83. Arbitrary allocation budgeting method means: A. Based on history B. Backed by
theory C. Based on intuition without structure ✓ D. Based on economic objectives
 84. What provides the basis for the development of marketing strategies in a marketing
program? A. Marketing objectives ✓ B. Marketing research C. Resource allocation D.
Corporate strategy
85. What makes a slogan effective in advertising? A. Complex vocabulary and industry
jargon B. Emotional connection, simplicity, and memorability ✓ C. Long descriptive
phrasing D. Use of acronyms

Media Types and Advertising Methods

86. What is 'classified advertising' in newspapers? A. Special ads used for government
reports B. Advertisements that use visual devices in addition to copy text C. Ads are
arranged under subheads according to the product or service being advertised ✓ D.
Preprinted inserts provided by advertisers
87. How are 'classified ads' arranged in newspapers? A. Special ads for government
reports B. Visual ads with extra formatting C. Under subheads by product/service type ✓
D. Inserted pages provided by advertisers
88. What is the run of paper (ROP) option in newspapers? A. Advertiser selects front-
page placement B. Newspaper decides where the ad appears ✓ C. Ad runs every day for
one week D. Paper is distributed in multiple languages
89. What is spot advertising? A. Commercials aired during live events only B. Ads shown
nationwide through networks C. Commercials purchased from individual local stations ✓
D. Endorsements embedded in TV shows
90. What is barter syndication? A. Buying ads only during off-network programs B.
Selling shows to stations in return for commercial time ✓ C. Exchanging local spots for
national coverage D. Swapping ad time with other networks

Measuring Media and Advertising Effectiveness

91. What is the definition of 'reach' in media planning? A. The number of different actual
audience members exposed at least once to a media vehicle in a specified period ✓ B.
The number of different potential audience members exposed at least once C. The
number of different actual audience members exposed at least twice D. The number of
different potential audience members exposed at least twice
92. What is a key benefit of using promotional products for advertising? A. They offer
broad geographic coverage B. They are always free for consumers C. They can replace
other forms of advertising D. They generate goodwill in the receiver ✓
93. What term describes the number of different people exposed to a media vehicle at
least once? A. Frequency B. Coverage C. Rating D. Reach ✓
94. What does GRP stand for in media measurement? A. General Rating Profile B. Gross
Reach Program C. Gross Ratings Points ✓ D. General Reach Percentage
95. What does the term target CPM (TCPM) refer to? A. Cost of production B. Cost per
thousand impressions within the target audience ✓ C. Cost per message D. Cost per
million views
Marketing Channels and Technology

96. A key advantage of branded entertainment? A. Limited exposure B. Bypassing

advertising regulations ✓ C. High absolute cost D. Negative public reaction
97. Which media category is controlled by the company and includes websites, blogs,
and social media accounts? A. Paid media B. Owned media ✓ C. Earned media D.
Shared media
98. What is retargeting in online advertising? A. Updating product features B. Showing
ads after a purchase C. Serving ads to users after they visit a site but don't convert ✓ D.
Using paid influencers
99. Which platform is best known for high visual engagement and micro-influencer
marketing? A. LinkedIn B. Instagram ✓ C. Twitter D. Reddit
100. What is a key advantage of using the Internet in IMC? A. Limited exposure B.
One-way communication only C. Targeted marketing and interactivity ✓ D. Fixed media
costs

Advertising Agencies and Organization

101. Which of the following is a key function of an advertising agency? A.

Managing product distribution B. Planning and executing advertising programs ✓ C.
Manufacturing promotional items D. Designing retail stores
102. What is a major advantage of using an in-house agency? A. Greater
objectivity B. Broader industry experience C. Reduced advertising and promotion costs
✓ D. Access to media buying specialists
103. What is a full-service advertising agency? A. Agency offering legal and
financial services B. Agency handling all aspects of marketing communication and
promotion ✓ C. Firm that only buys media time D. Department within a media
organization
104. What is the primary role of the account executive in an ad agency? A.
Writing the copy and slogans B. Handling billing and payments C. Linking the agency
with the client ✓ D. Designing packaging
105. Which system groups individuals from different departments to service
particular client accounts? A. Centralized system B. Group system ✓ C. Departmental
system D. Creative boutique

Direct Marketing and Email

106. What is the primary goal of direct marketing? A. Increase website traffic only
B. Enter new markets without research C. Communicate directly with customers to
generate a response or transaction ✓ D. Create social media buzz only
107. Which of the following is a one-step approach in direct marketing? A. First
email, then phone call B. A mailer that includes a direct order form ✓ C. Sending a gift,
then following up with a salesperson D. A catalog followed by a TV ad
108. What is the key threat to direct mail? A. Printing costs B. Email and the
internet ✓ C. Poor targeting D. Broadcast TV
 109. What is a major advantage of email marketing? A. Requires expensive
software B. Is generally ignored C. Offers lower cost and high targeting precision ✓ D.
Has no response tracking
110. What method measures the relative success of a direct marketing campaign
by dividing cost by the number of responses? A. RFM analysis B. Cost per order
(CPO) ✓ C. Click-through rate D. CPM

Communication Process Models

111. Which model includes the stages: awareness, interest, evaluation, trial, and
adoption? A. AIDA model B. Hierarchy of effects model C. Innovation adoption model
✓ D. Elaboration likelihood model
112. In the Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM), which route is used when the
receiver has low ability or motivation to process information? A. Direct route B.
Central route C. Peripheral route ✓ D. Subliminal route
113. Which term refers to informal communication among consumers about
products and services? A. Viral marketing B. Direct response C. Buzz marketing D.
Word-of-mouth ✓
114. Which response model order applies to low-involvement purchases? A. Learn
→ Feel → Do B. Do → Feel → Learn C. Learn → Do → Feel ✓ D. Feel → Learn → Do
115. What are "counterarguments" in cognitive response theory? A. Arguments
marketers include in ads B. Thoughts that oppose the message ✓ C. Reasons why
consumers support a brand D. Data comparisons in ads

Source and Message Factors

116. Which of the following is a key variable in the source of a promotional

message? A. Message sidedness B. Internalization ✓ C. Comparative appeal D. Channel
selection
117. What does source attractiveness primarily include? A. Power, expertise, and
trustworthiness B. Similarity, familiarity, and likability ✓ C. Control, concern, and
scrutiny D. Humor, fear, and logic
118. What is the sleeper effect in source credibility? A. An ad that's too boring for
the audience B. An endorsement with no impact C. A delayed increase in message
persuasiveness ✓ D. A type of message retention in dreams
119. Which model explains how a celebrity transfers cultural meaning to a
product? A. Elaboration Likelihood Model B. Hierarchy of Effects C. Meaning Transfer
Model ✓ D. Source-Message Fit Theory
120. What is a two-sided message in advertising? A. One that is visually and
verbally balanced B. One that presents only benefits C. One that presents both pros and
cons ✓ D. One that uses both fear and humor appeals
Consumer Behavior and Learning

121. Which type of learning theory emphasizes stimulus-response relationships

and reinforcement? A. Cognitive learning B. Behavioral learning ✓ C. Heuristic
modeling D. Decision theory
122. What is the evoked set? A. The total number of products in a category B. Brands
the consumer is aware of but not considering C. Brands the consumer actively evaluates
during decision-making ✓ D. Brands rejected after information search
123. Which term describes the emotional and psychological tension after a
difficult purchase decision? A. Postpurchase satisfaction B. Brand rejection C. Evoked
dissonance D. Cognitive dissonance ✓
124. Which is an example of a psychosocial consequence in product evaluation?
A. Price B. Product weight C. Social approval ✓ D. Battery life
125. In operant conditioning, what is "shaping"? A. Replacing negative behavior
with positive B. Conditioning consumers through subliminal cues C. Reinforcing steps
that lead to desired behavior ✓ D. Changing beliefs about brand attributes

Public Relations and Corporate Communication

126. What is the traditional definition of public relations (PR)? A. Promoting

short-term product awareness B. Generating publicity through social media C. Evaluating
public attitudes and executing actions to gain public acceptance ✓ D. Controlling all
corporate advertising messages
127. Which of the following is a disadvantage of public relations? A. High cost of
implementation B. Lack of credibility C. Lack of connection between the sender and the
receiver ✓ D. Limited ability to reach specific groups
128. What is a key advantage of publicity over advertising? A. It offers full
message control B. It has news value and high credibility ✓ C. It allows for more
frequent repetition D. It guarantees accuracy
129. What distinguishes publicity from PR? A. Publicity is always paid B. Publicity
is controlled and long-term C. Publicity is uncontrolled and often short-term ✓ D.
Publicity is internal communication
130. What is the goal of advocacy advertising? A. To promote individual products
B. To push short-term sales C. To spread ideas on public issues ✓ D. To build in-store
visibility

Sales Promotion Techniques

131. Which of the following is a consumer franchise-building (CFB) promotion?

A. Buy-one-get-one-free deals B. Sweepstakes with no purchase required C. Loyalty
programs that reinforce brand identity ✓ D. Flash sales
132. What is a key advantage of sampling as a sales promotion technique? A. High
profit margin B. Easy mass distribution C. Provides risk-free product trial ✓ D. Minimal
cost
 133. Which is a major limitation of couponing? A. Cannot be distributed digitally B.
Ineffective at encouraging trial C. High redemption rates D. Difficult to estimate
redemption volume ✓
134. Which type of premium requires the consumer to pay part of the cost? A.
Free premium B. Hidden premium C. Self-liquidating premium ✓ D. Loyalty premium
135. What is the difference between a contest and a sweepstake? A. Contests are
free; sweepstakes require purchase B. Contests are based on skill; sweepstakes are based
on chance ✓ C. Contests are digital; sweepstakes are print-only D. Sweepstakes require
longer time to run

Media Measurement and Analytics

136. What is the program rating measure? A. Percentage of TV households

watching a show ✓ B. Number of online shares a program gets C. How many ads were
skipped D. Popularity of hosts or actors
137. What is the C3 rating? A. Viewership during commercial breaks only B.
Viewership during DVR playback within 3 days ✓ C. Coverage during cable prime time
D. Connected TV users per commercial
138. In radio advertising, what does AQH share represent? A. Cost per thousand
listeners B. Percentage of ads played each hour C. Share of total radio audience listening
to a station ✓ D. Duration of radio commercials
139. What is the main purpose of Google Analytics in digital marketing? A. To
host banner ads B. To create social media content C. To measure and evaluate website
performance ✓ D. To develop ad jingles
140. What does RFM analysis stand for? A. Reach, Feedback, Message B.
Readership, Frequency, Market C. Recency, Frequency, Monetary ✓ D. Revenue,
Frequency, Market share

International Advertising

141. What is a primary reason companies expand to international markets? A.

Reduced production quality B. Language testing C. Limited domestic growth
opportunities ✓ D. More relaxed advertising regulations abroad
142. Which factor in the international environment includes transportation and
financial networks? A. Demographic environment B. Economic infrastructure ✓ C.
Cultural environment D. Political/legal environment
143. What challenge does language translation represent in international
advertising? A. It ensures global success B. It always increases brand recognition C. It
may cause confusion or misinterpretation ✓ D. It lowers production costs
144. What is an advantage of global advertising? A. Allows for full local
customization B. Simplifies coordination and control ✓ C. Avoids standardization D.
Ensures legal compliance in each country
145. What does the country-of-origin effect refer to? A. Pricing based on local
currency B. Quality perception tied to product's origin country ✓ C. Cultural
misunderstanding in translation D. Use of national colors in branding
Regulation and Ethics

146. What is the primary role of the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) in
advertising? A. Enforce antitrust laws only B. Regulate broadcast frequencies C. Ensure
advertising is truthful and not deceptive ✓ D. Oversee pricing strategies
147. What does self-regulation in advertising aim to achieve? A. Increase
government oversight B. Promote industry-led compliance to avoid external regulation ✓
C. Control media content D. Limit international campaigns
148. Which organization reviews complaints about deceptive advertising and is
part of the BBB National Programs? A. FCC B. CARU C. NAD ✓ D. FDA
149. What is puffery in advertising? A. Deliberately false claims B. Deceptive data
presentation C. Subjective, exaggerated praise with no factual basis ✓ D. False
testimonials from influencers
150. Which test determines whether commercial speech is protected under the
First Amendment? A. Puffery test B. Lanham test C. Central Hudson test ✓ D.
Wheeler-Lea test

Media Planning and Advertising Budget

151. What is the goal of a media plan? A. To increase production speed B. To

minimize creative effort C. To deliver the message effectively, widely, and cost-
efficiently ✓ D. To choose the cheapest advertising media
152. Which scheduling method runs ads continuously throughout the year? A.
Pulsing B. Continuity ✓ C. Flighting D. Repeating
153. If a market has a high BDI and low CDI, what does this imply? A. Both brand
and category are weak B. The brand is doing well, but the category is weak ✓ C. High
competition D. Good market potential for the category
154. What is recency planning in media strategy? A. Maximizing reach far before
purchase B. Minimizing ad exposure C. Delivering ads close to the time of purchase
decision ✓ D. Focusing on high-cost media vehicles only
155. Which budgeting approach begins by identifying specific tasks to achieve
defined objectives? A. Arbitrary allocation B. Percentage-of-sales C. Objective and task
✓ D. Competitive parity
156. What is waste coverage in media planning? A. Ad space that is poorly designed
B. Coverage that misses the target market C. Overlapping messages in different channels
D. Media exposure that reaches non-potential buyers ✓
157. Which budgeting method bases ad spend on matching the competition? A.
Arbitrary allocation B. ROI method C. Competitive parity ✓ D. Payout planning
158. What is the difference between duplicated and unduplicated reach? A.
Duplicated includes emotional response; unduplicated does not B. Duplicated measures
ad wearout C. Duplicated reach includes overlap in audiences; unduplicated does not ✓
D. Duplicated refers to online ads; unduplicated refers to TV
159. Which media scheduling strategy combines continuous advertising with
periodic increases? A. Flighting B. Bursting C. Pulsing ✓ D. Rotating
160. What does the concave-downward advertising response function suggest? A.
Sales increase linearly with ad spending B. Initial spending has strong impact, then
 diminishing returns ✓ C. Advertising has no effect at all D. Sales drop after initial
advertising push

Digital and Social Media Marketing

161. What is the difference between organic and nonorganic search results? A.
Organic results are paid; nonorganic are free B. Organic results appear based on
relevance; nonorganic are paid placements ✓ C. Organic results appear only on mobile
D. Nonorganic results are unavailable on Bing
162. What is native advertising? A. Ads placed on international sites B. Hidden
advertisements in apps C. Ads that match the format and feel of the surrounding content
✓ D. Government-regulated content
163. What is one major disadvantage of mobile advertising? A. High print cost B.
Small screen size limits creativity ✓ C. Long production cycles D. Low consumer reach
164. Which of the following best describes Web 2.0? A. Static pages without user
interaction B. Read-only web access C. Social media and user-generated content
platforms ✓ D. Secure banking portals only
165. Which social network is most focused on professionals and B2B marketing?
A. Instagram B. Snapchat C. LinkedIn ✓ D. TikTok
166. What is "zipping" refer to in television viewing behavior? A. Changing
channels to avoid ads B. Watching content at double speed C. Fast-forwarding through
commercials ✓ D. Watching live content on mobile
167. What is a native ad? A. A banner placed on homepage B. A paid ad that blends
in with surrounding content ✓ C. A testimonial by a local user D. A culturally adapted
version of an ad
168. What is the purpose of "seeding" in viral marketing? A. Creating detailed
product manuals B. Sending free samples to celebrities C. Choosing initial users to share
a marketing message ✓ D. Promoting through billboards
169. Which is a common disadvantage of digital and social media advertising? A.
Low interactivity B. Difficulty in measuring effectiveness ✓ C. High entry cost D. Weak
brand targeting
170. What is an infomercial? A. Pop-up ad with short video B. A traditional 15-
second TV commercial C. A long-form commercial presented like a TV show ✓ D. A
product placement within a TV series

Creative Elements and Execution

171. In the creative process, what follows the incubation stage? A. Preparation B.
Verification C. Illumination ✓ D. Digestion
172. What is the main visual layout tool used to present a TV commercial
concept? A. Voiceover B. Script C. Animatic D. Storyboard ✓
173. In TV commercials, what is the purpose of needledrop? A. Unique branding
sound B. Original jingle C. Generic background music ✓ D. Transition sound effect
174. Which approach involves creating a strong, memorable identity for a brand
using symbols and feelings? A. Unique selling proposition B. Positioning C. Inherent
drama D. Image advertising ✓
 175. What is the main feature of a transformational ad? A. Presents technical
evidence B. Shows a celebrity using the product C. Connects the brand to a unique
emotional experience ✓ D. Uses only animated characters
176. Which advertising appeal focuses on product features, benefits, and pricing?
A. Emotional appeal B. Rational/informational appeal ✓ C. Transformational appeal D.
Slice-of-life appeal
177. What is an advertising appeal? A. The layout of a print ad B. The music used in
a commercial C. The approach used to attract attention or influence feelings ✓ D. A legal
strategy for consumer protection
178. What is the focus of the inherent drama approach? A. Rational product data
B. Intense visual effects C. Emotional, consumer-focused product benefits ✓ D.
Competitive price positioning
179. Which creative strategy method emphasizes distinctive attributes and mental
placement of a product? A. Image advertising B. Positioning ✓ C. Humor appeal D.
Creative brief
180. When are humor appeals most effective? A. With high-involvement products
B. In political campaigns C. When involvement is low ✓ D. For financial services

Print Media and Magazine Advertising

181. What is one of the main strengths of magazine advertising? A. Instant

response and real-time analytics B. Short lead time C. High selectivity and reproduction
quality ✓ D. Low production cost
182. What is a bleed page in magazine advertising? A. A page with a fold-out
section B. A page with a small border around the ad C. An ad that extends to the edge of
the page ✓ D. A full-page ad with text only
183. What does pass-along readership refer to in magazines? A. Readers who
return their subscription B. Subscribers who pass magazines to others ✓ C. Editors who
approve ad content D. Publishers who sell ad space to multiple advertisers
184. Which is a major limitation of magazine advertising? A. Lack of creative
options B. Poor audience targeting C. Short ad exposure time D. Long lead times and
clutter ✓
185. What does controlled circulation mean in magazine publishing? A. All ads are
approved by a third party B. Subscriptions are only available in digital format C. Free
copies are sent to selected individuals ✓ D. Ads appear in a predetermined order
186. What are split runs used for in magazines? A. Publishing multiple issues per
month B. Selling ads at a discount C. Testing different versions of an ad ✓ D. Dividing
ad space between advertisers
187. Which type of newspaper ad includes visual elements like photos and logos?
A. Classified B. Display ✓ C. Public notice D. Insert
188. Which rate structure gives advertisers a discount for multiple space
purchases? A. Flat rate B. General rate C. Open-rate structure ✓ D. Run of paper
189. Why are newspapers considered a flexible advertising medium? A. They
require long lead times B. They have fewer color printing options C. They can respond
quickly to current events ✓ D. They are only available online
 190. What is another term for support media? A. Premium media B. Above-the-line
media C. Alternative media ✓ D. Public service media

Specialized Marketing Approaches

191. Which of the following is NOT a traditional form of out-of-home (OOH)

advertising? A. Billboards B. Digital signage C. Branded content in streaming shows ✓
D. Transit posters
192. What are mobile billboards? A. Advertisements on websites B. Ads that move
from city to city in newspapers C. Ads placed on moving vehicles ✓ D. Flashing signs on
buildings
193. What is specialty advertising? A. Online banners with targeting algorithms B.
Branded items given away for free ✓ C. Discount coupons D. Ad space purchased in
exclusive print magazines
194. What is one disadvantage of promotional products marketing? A. Low
engagement B. High cost C. Long lead time and market saturation ✓ D. Minimal brand
recall
195. Which of the following best describes guerrilla marketing? A. Print ads in
niche magazines B. Traditional radio spots C. Unconventional, surprise-based advertising
tactics ✓ D. Product comparison ads
196. Which is a disadvantage of branded entertainment? A. Low production cost
B. Excessive control by advertisers C. Time of exposure and lack of control ✓ D.
Minimal audience reach
197. Which organization helps measure out-of-home media audiences? A. Adweek
Insights B. Outdoor Advertising Association of America (OAAA) ✓ C. FTC D. ANA
198. Which is a major concern regarding the overuse of sales promotions? A.
High brand equity B. Increased advertising costs C. Brand devaluation and consumer
price sensitivity ✓ D. More retail partnerships
199. What is the main risk of using celebrities in ads? A. Higher ad frequency B.
Shorter production time C. Overshadowing the product ✓ D. Too much brand loyalty
200. Which type of audience includes investors and employees? A. External
audience B. Retail partners C. Internal audience ✓ D. Mass media

Market Positioning and Strategy

201. What is repositioning? A. Launching a new product B. Selling existing products

to new geographic areas C. Changing the image or target market of an existing product ✓
D. Discontinuing old promotional strategies
202. What is brand equity? A. The amount of money spent on advertising B. The
design of the product package C. The intangible asset of added value to a brand ✓ D. The
number of products sold under a brand
203. Which approach focuses on linking a product with the benefits the consumer
will derive? A. Competitive positioning B. Product class positioning C. Cultural symbol
positioning D. Consumer-focused positioning ✓
 204. What is the goal of positioning in marketing? A. Lowering production costs B.
Expanding into new geographic regions C. Making a product unique in the consumer's
mind ✓ D. Developing mass marketing strategies
205. What does the 80-20 rule in behavioristic segmentation suggest? A. 80% of
customers buy 20% of the time B. 20% of products account for 80% of returns C. 20% of
buyers account for 80% of sales volume ✓ D. 80% of marketing budget is spent on 20%
of the market
206. Which of the following is NOT a base for market segmentation? A.
Geographic B. Demographic C. Technographic ✓ D. Psychographic
207. What is the primary purpose of setting objectives in IMC programs? A. To
create product designs B. To define marketing budgets only C. To guide planning,
coordination, and evaluation ✓ D. To increase celebrity endorsements
208. Which of the following is a sales-oriented objective? A. Increase brand
awareness B. Improve consumer attitudes C. Generate 10% sales growth in Q2 ✓ D.
Raise ad recall score
209. In the communications effects pyramid, which stage comes immediately after
awareness? A. Trial B. Preference C. Knowledge/comprehension ✓ D. Purchase
210. When is globalization most appropriate in advertising? A. For traditional
foods and rituals B. For luxury products targeting global elites ✓ C. For strictly local
festivals D. For highly customized handcrafted items

Regulatory Issues and Ethics

211. What is the purpose of affirmative disclosure? A. To protect media rights B.

To disclose creative sources of ads C. To inform consumers of product risks or
limitations ✓ D. To validate company ownership
212. What does the Children's Advertising Review Unit (CARU) oversee? A. Ad
pricing strategies B. Legal disputes between brands C. Child-directed advertising and
online privacy ✓ D. Food labeling standards
213. What federal act regulates commercial email and spamming practices? A.
The Data Shield Act B. CAN-SPAM Act ✓ C. The Lanham Act D. Consumer Privacy
Act
214. Which agency regulates advertising claims related to food, drugs, and
cosmetics? A. FCC B. USPS C. FTC D. FDA ✓
215. What is corrective advertising? A. Removing all misleading ads from media B.
Legal punishment for product recalls C. Releasing new ads to fix previous deceptive
impressions ✓ D. Training programs for marketers
216. Which appeal is best for reducing social rejection or physical risk? A. Humor
appeal B. Fear appeal ✓ C. Comparative appeal D. Subliminal appeal
217. What defines channel clutter? A. Low production quality B. Competing
personal messages C. Too many ads in a medium ✓ D. Inappropriate media choice
218. In message structure, when is the primacy effect most likely to occur? A.
When audience is hostile ✓ B. When arguments are in the middle C. When the strongest
points come last D. When audience is receptive
219. What organization is part of the BBB National Programs that monitors
advertising directed to children? A. FCC B. CARU ✓ C. NAD D. FDA
 220. What is the biggest concern with telemarketing? A. High mailing cost B. Do
Not Call lists and consumer irritation ✓ C. Low coverage area D. Too many visual
design requirements

Testing and Measurement

221. What is a pretest in advertising research? A. A test conducted after the

campaign runs B. A method to measure actual sales C. A test before the campaign is
launched ✓ D. A test for pricing strategies
222. What is the purpose of Positioning Advertising Copy Testing (PACT)? A. To
assess product design B. To improve ad research and testing methods ✓ C. To calculate
production cost D. To measure store traffic
223. What does the halo effect refer to in consumer juries? A. Viewers forget the
ad entirely B. One ad element influences overall evaluation ✓ C. Ads with sound effects
are preferred D. The focus group moderator dominates the discussion
224. What is a major weakness of focus group research? A. Results are highly
scientific B. They are too expensive to conduct C. Results are not quantifiable or
generalizable ✓ D. Participants are always experts
225. What is A/B testing used for? A. Comparing two product versions in a store B.
Measuring how long people view a product C. Testing two ad versions to find the better
performer ✓ D. Timing ad displays on TV
226. Which of the following is a posttest for print ads? A. Portfolio test ✓ B.
Concept testing C. Focus group D. Positioning analysis
227. What is the key advantage of single-source tracking methods? A. Very low
cost B. Long-term impact measurement C. Ability to link media exposure with purchase
behavior ✓ D. Guarantees brand loyalty
228. What does the Market Contact Audit (MCA) aim to measure? A. Media
frequency only B. The most efficient TV channels C. Both efficiency and effectiveness of
all media contacts ✓ D. The number of likes on social media
229. What is the purpose of using mnemonics in marketing? A. Enhance product
functionality B. Increase ad spend C. Help consumers learn and remember information ✓
D. Identify pricing tiers
230. What is a key primary purpose of qualitative research like focus groups in
the creative process? A. Cost-efficiency B. Finalizing ad budgets C. Insights into
audience preferences and message relevance ✓ D. Determining media scheduling

Trade Promotions and B2B Marketing

231. Which of the following is a trade-oriented sales promotion tool? A. Price-off

deals B. Bonus packs C. Trade allowances ✓ D. Loyalty programs
232. What is the primary objective of slotting allowances? A. To pay for
influencers B. To incentivize consumer trial C. To obtain shelf space for new products ✓
D. To cover online ad placement
233. What is the purpose of event sponsorship in sales promotion? A. Replace
traditional advertising B. Gain naming rights and brand association with an event ✓ C.
Avoid trade regulations D. Increase warehouse inventory
 234. What TV buying method allows full control over content and placement? A.
Participation B. Spot announcement C. Sponsorship ✓ D. Syndication
235. What is the main benefit of cable advertising? A. Mass reach B. Narrowcasting
to specific audiences ✓ C. Prime-time exclusivity D. Low viewer loyalty
236. Which specialized service handles contests, premiums, and sweepstakes for
clients? A. Media agency B. Public relations firm C. Digital agency D. Sales promotion
agency ✓
237. What is the "cost-plus" system of compensation for ad agencies? A. Agency
receives a flat monthly fee B. Agency earns commissions on media purchases C. Agency
is paid based on cost of work plus agreed profit margin ✓ D. Agency charges a markup
on supplier costs
238. Which type of agency specializes only in the creative aspect of advertising?
A. Media buying company B. Full-service agency C. Creative boutique ✓ D. Public
relations firm
239. Which is a key disadvantage of integrated marketing services agencies? A.
Budget politics and poor internal communication ✓ B. Inconsistent brand message C.
Lack of access to specialized services D. High overhead costs
240. Which of the following is a reason why agencies may lose clients? A.
Increasing media rates B. Lack of creative freedom C. Poor performance or
communication ✓ D. Redesign of brand identity

International and Cross-Cultural Marketing

241. Which advertising strategy adapts global themes with local cultural
elements? A. Global advertising B. Centralized messaging C. Pattern advertising ✓ D.
Advocacy advertising
242. What is a key issue in international media selection? A. Overuse of direct mail
B. High cost of social media C. Differences in media availability and quality ✓ D. Too
much consumer demand
243. Which organization structure allows both consistency and local adaptation?
A. Fully centralized B. Fully decentralized C. Mixed/hybrid structure ✓ D. Internal-only
creative team
244. How is digital and social media used in international marketing? A. Only for
customer complaints B. To replace all traditional media C. To build brands and promote
products with localized websites ✓ D. To avoid translation issues
245. What does the concept of sustainability refer to in the context of marketing?
A. Reducing advertising costs and expanding product lines B. Reducing product prices C.
Meeting current needs without compromising future generations' ability to meet their
needs ✓ D. Increasing short-term profits
246. In top-down budgeting, who sets the budget limit? A. Advertising agency B.
Marketing department C. Top management ✓ D. Finance analysts
247. What is the main role of the support media in IMC? A. To replace traditional
advertising methods B. To increase social media engagement C. To deliver
communications through nontraditional channels ✓ D. To enhance online advertising
campaigns
248. What is "noise" in the communication process? A. Background music in ads
B. Unplanned distortion that interferes with the message ✓ C. A consumer's emotional
reaction to a message D. High-frequency advertising
249. Which model is a major contribution to understanding how communications
work? A. AIDA model ✓ B. Product life cycle C. 4Ps model D. STP framework
250. What is the role of catalogs in modern direct marketing? A. They are no
longer used in digital form B. They only appeal to older generations C. They still offer
high emotional appeal and work in multichannel marketing ✓ D. They have been
completely replaced by websites
251. What is the key consideration when selecting a celebrity for advertising? A.
Their social media follower count B. The match between celebrity attributes and brand
image ✓ C. Their appearance fee D. Their award nominations
252. How do international advertising regulations differ from domestic ones? A.
They are always less restrictive B. They vary significantly by country and require careful
research ✓ C. They only apply to traditional media D. They are uniform across all global
markets
253. What is the purpose of a marketing communication audit? A. To detect
financial inconsistencies B. To evaluate past and current marketing communication
efforts ✓ C. To fire agency partners D. To track website traffic only
254. How does consumer-generated content impact modern IMC? A. It has no
significant impact B. It makes brand messaging uncontrollable and should be avoided C.
It provides authenticity and engagement opportunities ✓ D. It only works for luxury
brands
255. What creates effective integrated marketing communications? A. Using only
digital channels B. Consistency in messaging across all touchpoints ✓ C. Creating
separate strategies for each channel D. Maximizing advertising spending
256. How has mobile technology changed advertising? A. It has reduced the need
for creativity B. It has created new opportunities for location-based, personalized
messages ✓ C. It has made traditional advertising obsolete D. It has increased advertising
costs without benefits
257. What is the primary function of marketing research in IMC planning? A. To
determine executive salaries B. To gather insights about consumers and markets to guide
strategic decisions ✓ C. To reduce creative options D. To increase production budgets
258. How does IMC approach differ from traditional marketing approaches? A. It
focuses only on digital channels B. It integrates all marketing functions and messages for
greater impact ✓ C. It eliminates the need for advertising D. It reduces the marketing
budget significantly
259. What is the key challenge in measuring ROI for social media marketing? A.
Direct attribution of sales to specific social media activities ✓ B. Counting likes and
shares C. Creating content D. Finding platforms
260. What is the most important consideration in designing a website for
marketing? A. Using the latest technology B. Creating a user experience that aligns with
customer needs and behaviors ✓ C. Adding as many features as possible D. Minimizing
text content
261. How has big data changed marketing communication? A. It has eliminated the
need for creativity B. It has enabled more personalized and targeted messaging ✓ C. It
has increased privacy concerns only D. It has reduced the effectiveness of campaigns
262. What is the primary benefit of local marketing? A. Lower cost B. Relevance to
specific community needs and culture ✓ C. Less competition D. Faster implementation
263. What determines the effectiveness of cause-related marketing? A. The size of
the donation B. The authentic fit between the brand and the cause ✓ C. Celebrity
endorsements D. Media coverage volume
264. How has the COVID-19 pandemic affected marketing communications? A. It
temporarily suspended all marketing activities B. It accelerated digital transformation and
changed consumer behaviors ✓ C. It only affected retail marketing D. It had no
significant impact on marketing strategies
265. What is the most critical factor in measuring advertising effectiveness? A.
Cost per impression B. Defining clear objectives before launching the campaign ✓ C.
Number of awards received D. Competitor reactions
266. What is the concept of "omnichannel marketing"? A. Using only online
channels B. Creating a seamless, integrated experience across all channels ✓ C.
Marketing exclusively through social media D. Focusing only on mobile marketing
267. How does neuromarketing contribute to advertising research? A. It focuses
only on logo design B. It uses brain science to understand unconscious consumer
responses ✓ C. It reduces research costs D. It replaces traditional market research
entirely
268. What is the primary goal of content marketing? A. To directly sell products B.
To provide valuable information that attracts and engages target audiences ✓ C. To
replace paid advertising D. To reduce marketing expenses
269. How has voice search affected digital marketing strategies? A. It has had no
effect on marketing B. It has changed SEO strategies to focus more on conversational
keywords ✓ C. It has eliminated the need for websites D. It only impacts B2B marketing
270. What is the ethical consideration of using consumer data in targeted
marketing? A. It should never be used under any circumstances B. There are no ethical
concerns if it improves targeting C. Balancing personalization benefits with privacy
concerns and transparency ✓ D. Only demographic data raises ethical concerns
271. What is the primary function of marketing analytics? A. Creating visual
reports for shareholders B. Measuring and analyzing marketing performance to improve
effectiveness ✓ C. Reducing the marketing team size D. Justifying larger budgets
272. How does augmented reality impact marketing? A. It's only useful for gaming
applications B. It creates immersive brand experiences and product visualization ✓ C. It
has no practical application in marketing D. It only works for luxury brands
273. What is the key benefit of using influencer marketing? A. Always lower cost
than traditional advertising B. Leveraging trusted relationships between influencers and
their followers ✓ C. Eliminating the need for traditional media D. Complete control over
messaging
274. How has artificial intelligence changed marketing communications? A. It has
replaced human creativity entirely B. It enables more personalized messaging and
predictive analysis ✓ C. It has had no significant impact D. It only affects B2B marketing
275. What is the most important element in building brand loyalty? A. Frequent
discounts and promotions B. Consistent brand experience and delivering on brand
promises ✓ C. Celebrity endorsements D. High advertising budget