20-04-2025 - AP - Sr. Elite, Target & Star - EAPCET - Part Test-02 - Q.paper
20-04-2025 - AP - Sr. Elite, Target & Star - EAPCET - Part Test-02 - Q.paper
Syllabus:
MATHEMATICS : Permutations, Combinations, Probability, Indefinite
MATHEMATICS
01. The number of arrangements that can be formed from the letters of the word
“TRIANGLE”, so that the relative positions of vowels and consonents remain unaltered
is ____
(1) 120 (2) 540 (3) 720 (4) 180
02. The total number of 5 digit numbers formed by using the digits 1,2,3,5,6,7 without
repetition, which are multiples of 6 is ____
(1) 48 (2) 72 (3) 60 (4) 36
03. The total number of seven digit numbers so that the sum of digits is even is_____.
(1) 4500 (2) 45(10)3 (3) 45(10)4 (4) 45(10)5
04. Number of ways in which 4 prizes can be distributed among 5 students if no student gets
all the prizes is
(1) 620 (2) 625 (3) 1020 (4) 1024
05. The number of into functions that can be formed from A={a,b,c,d,e} to B={1,2,3}
is____.
(1) 60 (2) 0 (3) 150 (4) 93
06. Number of ways to rearrange the letters of the word “CHEESE” is_____
(1) 115 (2) 119 (3) 120 (4) 100
07. The letters of the word “RANDOM” are arranged in all possible ways. The number of
arrangements in which there are 2 letters between M & N is_____.
(1) 72 (2) 36 (3) 144 (4) 48
08. The number of six digits numbers that can be formed using the digits 0,1,2,5,7 and 9
which are divisible by 11 and no digit is repeated is_____
(1) 60 (2) 72 (3) 48 (4) 36
09. If f:A→A, A={x1,x2,x3,x4,x5}, then the number of one-one functions formed so that
f ( xi ) xi , xi A is _____
(1) 22 (2) 20 (3) 44 (4) 88
10. If all permutations of the letters of the word “AGAIN” are arranged as in dictionary, then
50th word is ____
(1) NAAGI (2) NAAIG (3) NAIAG (4) NAGAI
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P
11. The number of four letters words that can be formed using the letters of the word
“BARRACK” is ____
(1) 144 (2) 264 (3) 120 (4) 270
12. The remainder when x=1!+2!+3!+4!+5!+-----+50! is divided by 120, is ____
(1) 33 (2) 153 (3) 30 (4) 18
13. The sum of divisors of 25 (34 )53 is____
(1) 120 (2) 1189188 (3) 1378154 (4) 60
n n
1 r
14. If an then n equal to____
n
r 0 Cr r 0 Cr
n
(1) an 1 (2) an 2 (3) an (4) n(an )
2
15. The number of ways in which 7 pencils, 6 books, 5 pens be disposed off is ___
(1) 210 (2) 334 (3) 336 (4) 335
16. The number of triangles whose vertices are at vertices of an octagon but none of whose
sides happen to come from the sides of the octagon is ____
(1) 16 (2) 24 (3) 28 (4) 52
17. The number of 3 digit numbers “abc” such that b<c is
(1) 410 (2) 400 (3) 405 (4) 450
18. Total number of 6 digited numbers in which all the odd digits and only odd digits appear
is ___
5(6!) 6! 5(5!)
(1) (2) 6! (3) (4)
2 2 2
19. There are 14 Railway stations along a line, number of ways of selecting 3 stations out of
them to stop the train such that no two stops are adjacent is ____
(1) 420 (2) 320 (3) 110 (4) 220
20. Number of ways in which 12 identical balls can be put in 5 different boxes in a row, if no
box remains empty is ___
(1) 9C (2) 11C (3) 10C (4) 12C
4 4 4 5
21. Number of divisors of the form 4n+2 ( n 0) of the integer 240 is ____
(1) 4 (2) 10 (3) 3 (4) 8
22. The number of subsets of {1,2,3,-----9} containing at least one odd number is ____
(1) 512 (2) 496 (3) 396 (4) 324
23. Total number of ways in which “2n” persons can be divided into “n” couples is ____.
(2n)! (2n)! (2n)! (2n)!
(1) (2) (3) (4)
n! n n!(2!) n n(2!)
24. The number of diagonals of a polygon is 135, then the number of sides of the polygon is
____
(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 15 (4) 18
25. The maximum possible number of points of intersection of 8 straight lines and 4 circles is
____
(1) 104 (2) 164 (3) 76 (4) 38
26. If 5 cards are drawn from a pack, then the probability of selecting the cards of which four
of them have same face value is ____
13C (39C ) 13C (39C ) 13C 13C (48C )
(1) 4 1
(2) 1 4
(3) 1
(4) 1 1
27. If 10 balls are distributed among 4 boxes, then the probability for the first box always to
contain 4 balls is ____
10C4 (63 ) 10 P4 10C4 (36 ) 10C4
(1) 10
(2) 10
(3) 10
(4)
4 4 4 410
3 8
28. Suppose A and B are two events such that P ( A B ) and P ( B A) then
25 25
P(B)=____
9 11 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
25 25 11 11
29. A determinant is chosen at random from the set of all 2x2 determinants with entries 0 or
1 only. The probability of selecting a determinant having non-zero determinant is ____.
5 13 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 16 16 8
30. Let 5 persons entered a lift cabin on the ground floor of a 7 floor house. Suppose that
each of them are independently and with equal probability can leave the cabin at any
floor beginning with the first. The probability of all the 5 persons leaving the cabin at
different floors is_
360 5 7 249
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2401 2401 2401 2401
31. A bag contains 6 balls. If 4 balls are drawn at random at a time and all of them are found
to be red, then the probability that exactly 5 of the balls in the bag are red is ____
5 5 1 10
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 21 21 19
32. Words with or without meaning are to be formed using all the letters of the word
“EXAMINATION”. The probability that the letter M appears at the fourth position in any
such word is ____
1 1 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 66 11 11
33. If a [ 20,0] , then the probability that the graph of the function
38. Two dice are thrown at a time and the sum of the numbers on them is 6. The probability
of getting a number 4 on any one of the die is
2 1 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 5 3
39. Three dice are rolled and told that exactly two of them are showing the same number, the
probability of getting sum 16 is ____
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
14 15 16 17
40. The key for a door is in the bunch of 10 keys. A man attempts to open the door by trying
keys at random and discarding the wrong key. The probability that the door is opened in
the 6th trial is ____
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.1
sin 2 sin 2 x
41. If dx f ( x) Ax B and B R, then
cos x cos
(1) f(x)=2sinx, A=cosα (2) f(x)=2sinx, A=2cosα
(3) f(x)=sinx, A=cosα (4) f(x)=sinx, A=2cosα
3 1
x3
42. If dx A(1 x ) B (1 x ) C , then A+B=
2 2 2 2
1 x2
2 2 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3
81 x 41 x
43. 22 x dx
2x 2x 2x 2x
(1) 4 x C (2) 8. 4 x C (3) 8. 4 x C (4) 4x C
1og 2 1og 2 1og 2 1og 2
1 cos x
44. cos x(1 cos x)dx
(1) log sec x tan x 2(cos ecx cot x) C
sin 8 x cos8 x
45. 1 2sin 2 x cos2 x dx
1 1 1 1
(1) cos 2 x c (2) cos 2 x c (3) c (4) sin 2 x c
2 2 (1 tan x) 2
2
n
tan K x
46. If I n tan n x dx, and I 0 I1 2 I 2 2 I 3 2 I 4 I 5 I 6 =
K 1 K
, then n=
1
(3) x log(log x) c (4) x log(log x) c
log x
5 x8 7 x 6
51. If f(x)= ( x 2 2 x7 1)2 dx( x 0) and f(0)=0, then the value of f(1)=
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 4 2
2x2 5x 6 a b c
52. If Then ab+bc+ca=
( x 2) 3
x 2 ( x 2) ( x 2)3
2
sin nx
53. If I n dx for n=1,2,3,---, then I6 =
sin x
3 8 2 5
(1) sin 3x sin 5 x sin x c (2) sin 5 x sin 3 x 2sin x c
5 5 5 3
2 8 2 8
(3) sin 5 x sin 5 x 4sin x c (4) sin 5 x sin 3 x 4sin x c
5 3 5 5
x 4 x 4 2
54. x3
dx =
1 1 4 4
(1) log x 4 C (2) log x 4 C (3) log x 4 C (4) log x C
4x 4x x x4
sin x
1
55. If 4
dx tan 1 ( f ( x)) C , then f(x)=
2 sin 2 x 2
(1) sinx-cosx (2) 2 cos x (3) s in x (4) 2 tan x
4 4 4
at b
56. If a,b,c,d≠0 and f t , then
ct d
f ( x)dx
d bc ad d bc ad
(1) x log(cx a) K (2) x log(cx d ) K
c c2 c c2
a ad bc a ad bc
(3) x log(cx a) K (4) x log(cx a ) K
c c2 c c
1 x4
C then (f(x)) is equal to
n
57. If x7
dx f ( x) 1 x4 n
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6x 6 216x18 36x12 216x18
dx
58. sin( x a)cos( x b)
1 sin( x a )
(1) log C
sin(a b) cos( x b)
1 sin( x a)
(2) log C
cos(b a) cos( x b)
(3) 1
log sin( x a)cos( x b) C
cos(b a)
(4) 1
log sin( x a)cos( x b) C
sin(a b)
2
log9 x
59. 3 dx
(1) 2log x C (2) log x C (3) log x C (4) 2log x C
dx
60. (1 x ) 2022
2 1 x 1
(1) C
(1 x ) 2021 2020 2021
2 1 x x
(2) 2022
C
(1 x ) 2020 2021
(4) 1 1 1 C
(1 x ) (1
2 x)1010 (1 x )
1011
1000
e
x [ x ]
61. If [.] denotes the greatest integer function, then dx
0
e1000 1 e1000 1 e 1
(1) (2) 1000(e-1) (3) (4)
1000 e 1 1000
3
3
ex
62. 1 x2
dx
25
1 1 50 25 1 1 75
(1) (e 75 e) (2) (e e ) (3) (e50 e) (4) ( e e)
3 3 3 3
b
x 1 1
63. If 2x x
3
2
dx , then (b-1)2=
2
3 3
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 1
e e
3
2 sin x sin x
4 4 dx
64. 0 cos x sin x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 3 2 4 2
7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 22 11 44
2 x(1 sin x)
66.
1 cos 2 x
dx
x (sin x)dx
2
70.
2
(1) 2 (2) (3) 0 (4) 2 2
2
2
sin 3 x cos x
71. 0 sin 4 x cos4 x dx
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 8
3
f ( x)
72.
0 f ( x) f
3 x
dx
3
2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 3 6
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4
sin x cos x
73. 0 7 9sin 2 x dx is equal to
1og 3 1og 3 1og 7 1og 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 36 12 24
2
sin
6
74. x cos 4 x dx =
0
3 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
256 512 512 512
x
dt
75. The value of x that satisfies the equation t t 1
2
12
is
2
1 1 1
(1) log3 (2) log 5 (3) log5 (4) log 5 2
5 3 2
1 n 2
78. Lim
n
(k x)
n3 k 1
x x x
(1) x (2) (3) (4)
2 3 4
79. 12 2 3 3 n n
Lim
n 5
n 2
5 2
(1) 1 (2) (3) 0 (4)
2 5
80. 1 1 1 1 1
Lim 1
n n 2 3 4 n
PHYSICS
81. A series L-C-R circuit is shown in the figure. Where the inductance of 10H, capacitance
40 F and resistance 60 are connected to a variable frequency 240V source. The
current at resonating frequency is
1 1 1 1
(1) R1R2 R5 R3 R4 R6 (2)
R5 R6 R1 R2 R3 R4
(3) R1R4 R2 R3 (4) R1R3 R2 R4
86. A current carrying coil experiences a torque due to a magnetic field. The value of the
torque is 80% of the maximum possible torque. The angle between the magnetic field and
the normal to the plane of the coil is
3 4
(1) 300 (2) 450 (3) tan 1 (4) tan 1
4 3
87. A wire shaped in a regular hexagon of side 2 cm carries a current of 4A.The magnetic
field at the centre of hexagon is
c d
b e
O
a r
velocity in a uniform magnetic field of 2 Wbm 2 as shown in the figure. The magnetic
field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The loop is connected to a network of
resistors. The velocity of loop, so as to have a steady current of 1mA in loop is
92. The resultant magnetic moment of three magnetic dipoles, each of the magnetic moment
M shown in the arrangement is
M M
900
(1) 25 107 N moving towards wire (2) 25 107 N moving away from wire
(3) 35 10 7 N moving towards wire (4) 35 10 7 N moving away from wire
n
99. n identical resistance are taken in which resistors are joined in series in the left gap and
2
n
the remaining resistances are joined in parallel in the right gap of a metre bridge.
2
Balancing length in cm is
n2 n2 n2 n2
(1) 100. 2 (2) 100. 2 (3) 400. 2 (4) 400. 2
n 4 n 1 n 4 n 1
100. Assertion(A): It is more difficult to move a magnet into acoil with more loops.
Reason(R): This is because emf induced in each current loop resists the motion of the
magnet.
(1) Both A & R are true and R is a correct explanation for A.
(2) Both A & R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
(3) A is true and R is false
(4) A is false, R is true
101. The equation that represents magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave which is
propagating along x-direction with wavelength 10mm and maximum electric filed
60Vm 1 in y-direction is (where, c=speed of light)
(1) (6 107 )sin[02 (ct X )] k T (2) (2 107 )sin[200 (ct X )] k T
(3) (2 107 )sin[200 (ct X )] i T (4) (6 10 7 )sin[02 (ct X )] i T
102. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has
its north tip pointing down at 300 with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the
earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.3G. Then the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic
field at the location is
3 20 2
(1) G (2) 3G (3) G (4) G
5 3 3
103. In the circuit shown in the figure, neglecting the source resistance, the voltmeter and
ammeter readings respectively are
109. Two long straight parallel conductors A and B carrying currents 4.5A and 8A
respectively, are separated by 25cm in air. The resultant magnetic field at a point which is
at a distance of 15cm from conductor A and 20cm from conductor B is
(1) 2 105 N (2) 2 104 N (3) 105 N (4) 104 N
110. A proton and an alpha particle moving with energies in the ratio 1:4 enter a uniform
magnetic field of 3T at right angles to the direction of magnetic field. The ratio of the
magnetic forces acting on the proton and the alpha particle is
(1) 1:2 (2) 1:4 (3) 2:3 (4) 1:3
111. The power consumed when 10V voltage is applied to a series combination of 10 resistors
of each 1 is Ps and the power consumed when the same 10V is applied to the parallel
combination of these 10 resistors is Pp. The value of Ps / Pp is
114. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it
through 600. The torque required to maintain the needle in this position will be
3
(1) 3W (2) W W (3) (4) 2W
2
60
115. The impedance of an LR circuit with L mH, R= 8 and frequency 50Hz is
(1) 1.3 (2) 14.3 (3) 20 (4) 10
116. An inductor and a resistor of 25 are connected in series to an AC source of voltage
100sin(100 t ) volt. if the impedance of the circuit is 50 , the average power dissipated
per cycle in the circuit is
(1) 10W (2) 25W (3) 50W (4) 100W
117. Electromagnetic waves are produced by
(1) Charges at rest only
(2) Changes in uniform motion only
(3) Accelerated or decelerated charges only
(4) An uncharged stable particle at rest
118. A solenoid has the length 1m and the area of cross-section 0.02m2. If number of turns in
the solenoid is 5000 then the self inductance of the solenoid is
(1) 0.2 henry (2) 0.4 henry (3) 0.02 henry (4) 0.04 henry
119. The resultant resistance between A and B in the given figure is
CHEMISTRY
121. If the resistance of 0.1M KCl solution in a conductance cell is 300Ω and conductivity is
0.013Scm-1, then the value of cell constant is
(1) 3.9 cm-1 (2) 39 m-1 (3) 3.9 m-1 (4) 0.39 cm-1
122. Molar conductivities at infinite dilution m for Ba(OH)2, BaCl2 and NH4Cl are 457.0,
0
240.6 and 2130 Scm2 mol-1 respectivley. The m for ammonium hydroxide
0
128. The time required for completion of 93.75% of a first order reaction is x minuites. The
half life of it(in minutes) is
(1) x/8 (2) x/2 (3) x/4 (4) x/3
129. The rate of a first order reaction doubles when the temperature changes from 300K to
310K. The activation energy of the reaction (in kJ mol-1) is
(1) 43.33 (2) 53.33 (3) 63.33 (4) 73.33
130. Which of the following are the correct representations of a zero order reaction, where A
represents the reactant?
134. The most effective coagulating agent for antimony sulphide sol is
(1) K 2 SO4 (2) NH 4Cl (3) Al2 ( SO4 )3 (4) K 4 ( Fe(CN )6 )
135. The gold numbers of gelatin, haemoglobin and sodium acetate are 5 103 ,5 102 and
7 101 , respectively. The protective actions will be in the order
(1)Gelatin<haemoglobin<sodium acetate
(2)Gelatin>haemoglobin>sodium acetate
(3)Haemoglobin>gelatine>sodium acetate
(4)Sodium acetate > gelatine > haemoglobin
136. Match the following
List-I List-II
(Name of the mineral) (Type)
A. Calamine i. Sulphide
B. Bauxite ii. Halide
C. Kaolinite iii. Carbonate
D. Cryolite iv. Oxide
v. Silicate
D. Distillation iv. Zr
v. Al
The correct answer is
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-v (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-v, C-iii, D-i (4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
139. Identify A and B respectively in the following reactions.
4 Au ( s) 8CN (aq ) 2 H 2O (aq )
O2 ( g )
A(aq ) 4OH (aq )
Zn ( s )
B 2 Au ( s)
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
141. Arrange the oxides CrO, CrO3 and Cr2O3 in the decreasing order of acidic strength.
(1) CrO3 Cr2O3 CrO (2) CrO3 CrO Cr2O3
(3) CrO Cr2O3 CrO3 (4) CrO CrO3 Cr2O3
142. Cr2+ and Mn3+ do possess d4 electronic configuration. So,
(1) Mn3+ is oxidizing agent while Cr2+ is reducing agent
(2) Both are reducing agents
(3) Mn3+ is reducing agent while Cr2+ is oxidizing agent
(4) Both are oxidizing agents
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P
(1) t24g eg0 (2) t23g e1g (3) t26g eg0 (4) t26g eg0
145. Which of the following types of isomerism is exhibited by [Co( NH 3 )5 ( NO2 )]( NO3 ) 2
i. Optical ii. Linkage iii. Ionization iv. Coordination
(1) ii, iii only (2) i, ii, iii only (3) i, iii ony (4) ii, iv ony
146. The formula of tris(ethane – 1,2-diamine) cobalt(III) sulphate is
(1) [Co( H 2 NCH 2CH 2 NH 2 )3 ]SO4 (2) [Co( H 2 NCH 2CH 2 NH 2 )3 ]3 ( SO3 ) 2
(3) [Co(CH 3CH 2 NHNH 2 )3 ]2 ( SO4 )3 (4) [Co( H 2 NCH 2 CH 2 NH 2 )3 ]2 ( SO4 )3
147. The set with only ambidentate ligands in the following is
(1) NO3 , Br , C2O42 (2) NO2 , CN , SCN
152. Among the given complexes that possess “CO” ligand bridges are
i. [Co2 (CO )8 ] ii. [ Fe3 (CO )12 ] iii. [ Mn2 (CO )10 ] iv. [ Fe2 (CO )9 ]
(1) i, ii and iii (2) ii, iii and iv (3) i, ii and iv (4) i, iii and iv
153. Least reactive alkyl chloride in a SN2 reaction is
(1) 1-Chloro butane (2) 1-Chloro 2-Methyl propane
(3) 2-Chloro 2-Methyl propane (4) 2-Chloro butne
154. Identify ‘Z’ in the following reaction sequence
Y Z
Anh . AlCl3
2C3 H 7 Br
Na / Ether
X
Mo2O3
773 K CH 3Cl
CH3
Cl
CH2Cl CH3
CH2Br
157. The correct order of rates of C-Br bond ionisations of the following bromides is
Br Br
Br
HBr HBr
X Y
Peroxide
(i) (ii)
X Y
Br
(1) Br
Br
X Y
(2) Br
Br
X Y
Rxn
Br
(3)
Br
X Y
(4) Br