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20-04-2025 - AP - Sr. Elite, Target & Star - EAPCET - Part Test-02 - Q.paper

The document outlines the details for a part test conducted by Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy for EAPCET 2025, including test duration, structure, and syllabus. It consists of 160 objective questions across Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry, with specific topics listed for each subject. Important instructions and sample questions are also provided to guide the test-takers.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
73 views25 pages

20-04-2025 - AP - Sr. Elite, Target & Star - EAPCET - Part Test-02 - Q.paper

The document outlines the details for a part test conducted by Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy for EAPCET 2025, including test duration, structure, and syllabus. It consists of 160 objective questions across Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry, with specific topics listed for each subject. Important instructions and sample questions are also provided to guide the test-takers.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.

Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.


 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: AP_Sr.Elite,Target,Star(Eapcet-2025%le<80) EAPCET Date: 20-04-25
Time: 08:00AM-11:00AM Part test-02 Max. Marks: 160
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 160 questions. The maximum marks are 160.
3. Question paper consists of total 160 questions comprising of 80 questions in
Mathematics, 40 questions in Physics and 40 questions in Chemistry.
All questions are of objective type only and each question carries one mark.

Syllabus:
MATHEMATICS : Permutations, Combinations, Probability, Indefinite

Intigration, Definite Intigration

PHYSICS : Current Electricity, Moving Charges And

Mangneitc Fields, Magnetism Em Waves, Emi And Ac

CHEMISTRY : D&F Block Elements & Coordination Compounds,


Surface Chemistry Metallurgy, Electro Chemistry Chemical
Kinetics, Alkyl & Aryl Halides

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

MATHEMATICS
01. The number of arrangements that can be formed from the letters of the word
“TRIANGLE”, so that the relative positions of vowels and consonents remain unaltered
is ____
(1) 120 (2) 540 (3) 720 (4) 180
02. The total number of 5 digit numbers formed by using the digits 1,2,3,5,6,7 without
repetition, which are multiples of 6 is ____
(1) 48 (2) 72 (3) 60 (4) 36
03. The total number of seven digit numbers so that the sum of digits is even is_____.
(1) 4500 (2) 45(10)3 (3) 45(10)4 (4) 45(10)5
04. Number of ways in which 4 prizes can be distributed among 5 students if no student gets
all the prizes is
(1) 620 (2) 625 (3) 1020 (4) 1024
05. The number of into functions that can be formed from A={a,b,c,d,e} to B={1,2,3}
is____.
(1) 60 (2) 0 (3) 150 (4) 93
06. Number of ways to rearrange the letters of the word “CHEESE” is_____
(1) 115 (2) 119 (3) 120 (4) 100
07. The letters of the word “RANDOM” are arranged in all possible ways. The number of
arrangements in which there are 2 letters between M & N is_____.
(1) 72 (2) 36 (3) 144 (4) 48
08. The number of six digits numbers that can be formed using the digits 0,1,2,5,7 and 9
which are divisible by 11 and no digit is repeated is_____
(1) 60 (2) 72 (3) 48 (4) 36
09. If f:A→A, A={x1,x2,x3,x4,x5}, then the number of one-one functions formed so that
f ( xi )  xi , xi  A is _____
(1) 22 (2) 20 (3) 44 (4) 88
10. If all permutations of the letters of the word “AGAIN” are arranged as in dictionary, then
50th word is ____
(1) NAAGI (2) NAAIG (3) NAIAG (4) NAGAI
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

11. The number of four letters words that can be formed using the letters of the word
“BARRACK” is ____
(1) 144 (2) 264 (3) 120 (4) 270
12. The remainder when x=1!+2!+3!+4!+5!+-----+50! is divided by 120, is ____
(1) 33 (2) 153 (3) 30 (4) 18
13. The sum of divisors of 25 (34 )53 is____
(1) 120 (2) 1189188 (3) 1378154 (4) 60
n n
1 r
14. If an   then n equal to____
n
r  0 Cr r 0 Cr

n
(1) an 1 (2) an 2 (3) an (4) n(an )
2
15. The number of ways in which 7 pencils, 6 books, 5 pens be disposed off is ___
(1) 210 (2) 334 (3) 336 (4) 335
16. The number of triangles whose vertices are at vertices of an octagon but none of whose
sides happen to come from the sides of the octagon is ____
(1) 16 (2) 24 (3) 28 (4) 52
17. The number of 3 digit numbers “abc” such that b<c is
(1) 410 (2) 400 (3) 405 (4) 450
18. Total number of 6 digited numbers in which all the odd digits and only odd digits appear
is ___
5(6!) 6! 5(5!)
(1) (2) 6! (3) (4)
2 2 2
19. There are 14 Railway stations along a line, number of ways of selecting 3 stations out of
them to stop the train such that no two stops are adjacent is ____
(1) 420 (2) 320 (3) 110 (4) 220
20. Number of ways in which 12 identical balls can be put in 5 different boxes in a row, if no
box remains empty is ___
(1) 9C (2) 11C (3) 10C (4) 12C
4 4 4 5

21. Number of divisors of the form 4n+2 ( n  0) of the integer 240 is ____
(1) 4 (2) 10 (3) 3 (4) 8

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

22. The number of subsets of {1,2,3,-----9} containing at least one odd number is ____
(1) 512 (2) 496 (3) 396 (4) 324
23. Total number of ways in which “2n” persons can be divided into “n” couples is ____.
(2n)! (2n)! (2n)! (2n)!
(1) (2) (3) (4)
n! n n!(2!) n n(2!)
24. The number of diagonals of a polygon is 135, then the number of sides of the polygon is
____
(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 15 (4) 18
25. The maximum possible number of points of intersection of 8 straight lines and 4 circles is
____
(1) 104 (2) 164 (3) 76 (4) 38
26. If 5 cards are drawn from a pack, then the probability of selecting the cards of which four
of them have same face value is ____
13C (39C ) 13C (39C ) 13C 13C (48C )
(1) 4 1
(2) 1 4
(3) 1
(4) 1 1

52C 52C 52C 52C


5 5 5 5

27. If 10 balls are distributed among 4 boxes, then the probability for the first box always to
contain 4 balls is ____
10C4 (63 ) 10 P4 10C4 (36 ) 10C4
(1) 10
(2) 10
(3) 10
(4)
4 4 4 410
3 8
28. Suppose A and B are two events such that P ( A  B )  and P ( B  A)  then
25 25
P(B)=____
9 11 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
25 25 11 11
29. A determinant is chosen at random from the set of all 2x2 determinants with entries 0 or
1 only. The probability of selecting a determinant having non-zero determinant is ____.
5 13 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 16 16 8
30. Let 5 persons entered a lift cabin on the ground floor of a 7 floor house. Suppose that
each of them are independently and with equal probability can leave the cabin at any
floor beginning with the first. The probability of all the 5 persons leaving the cabin at
different floors is_
360 5 7 249
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2401 2401 2401 2401

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

31. A bag contains 6 balls. If 4 balls are drawn at random at a time and all of them are found
to be red, then the probability that exactly 5 of the balls in the bag are red is ____
5 5 1 10
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 21 21 19
32. Words with or without meaning are to be formed using all the letters of the word
“EXAMINATION”. The probability that the letter M appears at the fourth position in any
such word is ____
1 1 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 66 11 11
33. If a  [ 20,0] , then the probability that the graph of the function

y= 16 x 2  8(a  5) x  7a  5 is strictly above the x-axis is ____


17 13 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
20 20 17 2
34. In a random experiment, a fair die is rolled until two fours are obtained in succession.
The probability that the experiment will end in the fifth throw of the die is equal to ____
150 225 200 175
(1) (2) (3) (4)
65 65 65 65
35. There are 10 pairs of shoes in a cup board, from which 4 shoes are picked at random. The
probability that there is exactly one pair is ____
96 99 224 17
(1) (2) (3) (4)
323 323 323 323
36. A man alternately tosses a coin and throws a die continuiously. The probability of his
getting a head on the coin before he gets 4 on the die is ____
1 2 6 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 3 7 4
1
37. The probability that a teacher will conduct an unannounced test during any class is . If
4
a student of the calss is abscent twice, then the probability for the student to miss atleast
one test is ___
1 3 7 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
16 16 16 19

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

38. Two dice are thrown at a time and the sum of the numbers on them is 6. The probability
of getting a number 4 on any one of the die is
2 1 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 5 3
39. Three dice are rolled and told that exactly two of them are showing the same number, the
probability of getting sum 16 is ____
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
14 15 16 17
40. The key for a door is in the bunch of 10 keys. A man attempts to open the door by trying
keys at random and discarding the wrong key. The probability that the door is opened in
the 6th trial is ____
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.1
sin 2   sin 2 x
41. If  dx  f ( x)  Ax  B and B  R, then
cos x  cos 
(1) f(x)=2sinx, A=cosα (2) f(x)=2sinx, A=2cosα
(3) f(x)=sinx, A=cosα (4) f(x)=sinx, A=2cosα
3 1
x3
42. If  dx  A(1  x )  B (1  x )  C , then A+B=
2 2 2 2

1  x2
2 2 1 1
(1) (2)  (3) (4) 
3 3 3 3
 81 x  41 x 
43.   22 x dx 
2x 2x 2x 2x
(1)  4 x  C (2) 8.  4 x  C (3) 8.  4 x  C (4)  4x  C
1og 2 1og 2 1og 2 1og 2
1  cos x
44.  cos x(1  cos x)dx 
(1) log sec x  tan x  2(cos ecx  cot x)  C

(2) log sec x  tan x  2(cos ecx  cot x)  C

(3) log sec x  tan x  2(cos ecx  cot x)  C

(4) log sec x  tan x  2(cos ecx  cot x)  C

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

sin 8 x  cos8 x
45.  1  2sin 2 x cos2 x dx 
1 1 1 1
(1) cos 2 x  c (2) cos 2 x  c (3)  c (4) sin 2 x  c
2 2 (1  tan x) 2
2
n
tan K x
46. If I n   tan n x dx, and I 0  I1  2 I 2  2 I 3  2 I 4  I 5  I 6 = 
K 1 K
, then n=

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3


1  cos8 x 1 1
47. If  tan 2 x  cot 2 x dx  f ( x).cos( g ( x))  c then f    g   
4 4
17 15 33
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4)
8 8 16
dx (1  x m ) n/ m
48. If  2022   C , then m-n=
x (1  x 2022 )1/2022 nx n
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0
cos 4 x  1
49. If  cot x  tan x k cos 4 x  C , then k is equal to
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 8 3 5
 1 
50.  log(log x)  (log x) 2  dx 

x
(1) x  log(log x)  log x   c (2) c
log(log x)

 1 
(3) x log(log x)  c (4) x log(log x)  c
 log x 

5 x8  7 x 6
51. If f(x)=  ( x 2  2 x7  1)2 dx( x  0) and f(0)=0, then the value of f(1)=
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 4 2
2x2  5x  6 a b c
52. If    Then ab+bc+ca=
( x  2) 3
x  2 ( x  2) ( x  2)3
2

(1) 28 (2) 14 (3) -10 (4) -8

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

sin nx
53. If I n   dx for n=1,2,3,---, then I6 =
sin x
3 8 2 5
(1) sin 3x  sin 5 x  sin x  c (2) sin 5 x  sin 3 x  2sin x  c
5 5 5 3
2 8 2 8
(3) sin 5 x  sin 5 x  4sin x  c (4) sin 5 x  sin 3 x  4sin x  c
5 3 5 5
x 4  x 4  2
54.  x3
dx =

1 1 4 4
(1) log x  4  C (2) log x  4  C (3) log x  4  C (4) log x  C
4x 4x x x4
 
sin  x  
1
55. If   4
dx   tan 1 ( f ( x))  C , then f(x)=
2  sin 2 x 2

     
(1) sinx-cosx (2) 2 cos  x   (3) s in  x   (4) 2 tan  x  
 4  4  4

 at  b 
56. If a,b,c,d≠0 and f    t , then
 ct  d 
 f ( x)dx 
d bc  ad d bc  ad
(1) x log(cx  a)  K (2) x log(cx  d )  K
c c2 c c2
a ad  bc a ad  bc
(3) x log(cx  a)  K (4) x log(cx  a )  K
c c2 c c

1  x4
   C then (f(x)) is equal to
n
57. If  x7
dx  f ( x) 1  x4 n

1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6x 6 216x18 36x12 216x18
dx
58.  sin( x  a)cos( x  b) 
1 sin( x  a )
(1) log C
sin(a  b) cos( x  b)
1 sin( x  a)
(2) log C
cos(b  a) cos( x  b)
(3) 1  
log sin( x  a)cos( x  b)   C
cos(b  a)  
(4) 1  
log sin( x  a)cos( x  b)   C
sin(a  b)  

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

2
 log9 x
59. 3 dx 
(1) 2log x  C (2) log x  C (3)  log x  C (4) 2log x  C
dx
60.  (1  x ) 2022

2 1  x 1 
(1)   C
(1  x ) 2021  2020 2021 

2 1  x x 
(2) 2022 
 C
(1  x )  2020 2021 

(3) 2  (1  x )2022  (1  x )2021   C


(1  x )  2022 2021 

 
(4) 1  1  1  C
(1  x )  (1 
2 x)1010 (1  x ) 
1011

1000

e
x [ x ]
61. If [.] denotes the greatest integer function, then dx 
0

e1000  1 e1000  1 e 1
(1) (2) 1000(e-1) (3) (4)
1000 e 1 1000
3
3
ex
62. 1 x2
dx 
25

1 1 50 25 1 1 75
(1)  (e 75  e) (2) (e  e ) (3)  (e50  e) (4) ( e  e)
3 3 3 3
b
x 1 1
63. If  2x  x
3
2
dx  , then (b-1)2=
2

3 3
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 1  (4) 1
e e
    3 
2 sin   x   sin   x
4   4  dx 
64. 0 cos x  sin x

   
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 3 2 4 2

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P
9
22
dx
65.  1  tan x 
11

   7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 22 11 44

2 x(1  sin x)
66. 

1  cos 2 x
dx 

(1) 2 (2)  2 (3)   2 (4)  / 2


1
sin x  x 2
67. 1 3  x dx 
(1) 7+18log3/2 (2) 181og9/4 (3) 7+9log9/4 (4) 7-18log3/2

4
1 1 1
68. If I n   tan n x dx, then   
0
I 2  I 4 I3  I5 I 4  I 6
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
I 9  I11 I10  I12 I12  I14 I11  I13
1
2
  1  x 
69. 1 
[ x ]  log    dx is equal to
 1  x 
2

(1) 2log(1/2) (2) 0 (3) -1/2 (4) 1


 x (sin x)dx 
2
70.

2
(1)  2 (2) (3) 0 (4) 2 2
2

2
sin 3 x cos x
71. 0 sin 4 x  cos4 x dx 
  
(1)  (2) (3) (4)
2 4 8

3
f ( x)
72. 
0 f ( x)  f
   3 x 
dx 
 
 3 
2   
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 3 6
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

4
sin x  cos x
73. 0 7  9sin 2 x dx is equal to
1og 3 1og 3 1og 7 1og 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 36 12 24

2

 sin
6
74. x cos 4 x dx =
0

  3 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
256 512 512 512
x
dt 
75. The value of x that satisfies the equation  t t 1
2

12
is
2

(1) 1 (2) 0 (3)  2 (4) 2


1 1 1 1 1
76. Lim  1/ n  2/ n  3/ n     2  

n n e e e e 
(1) 1  e 2 (2) 1  e2 (3) e 2  1 (4) e 2  1
77.  1 24 34 n4 
Lim        
n  1  n 5 25  n5 35  n5 n5  n5 

1 1 1
(1) log3 (2) log 5 (3) log5 (4) log 5 2
5 3 2
1 n 2
78. Lim
n
 (k x) 
n3 k 1
x x x
(1) x (2) (3) (4)
2 3 4
 
79.  12 2 3 3 n n 
Lim 
n   5

 n 2

5 2
(1) 1 (2) (3) 0 (4)
2 5

80. 1  1 1 1 1 
Lim 1     
n  n 2 3 4 n

(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 1 (4) 2 2

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PHYSICS
81. A series L-C-R circuit is shown in the figure. Where the inductance of 10H, capacitance
40  F and resistance 60  are connected to a variable frequency 240V source. The
current at resonating frequency is

(1) 4A (2) 2A (3) 5.4A (4) 5.8A


82. The coils of a step-down transformer have 500 and 5000 turns. In the primary coil an AC
current of 4A at 2200V is sent. The value of the current and potential difference in the
secondary coil is
(1) 20A, 220V (2) 0.4A, 22000V (3) 40A, 220V (4) 40A, 22000V
83. An electromagnetic wave travel in a medium with a speed of 2  108 ms-1. The relative
permeability of the medium is 1. Then, the relative permittivity is
(1) 1.75 (2) 2 (3) 2.28 (4) 2.75
84. If the current through an inductor increases from 2A to 3A. The magnetic energy stored
in the inductor increases by
(1) 125% (2) 225% (3) 50% (4) 75%
85. In the given circuit I is independent of the resistance R6. Then

1 1 1 1
(1) R1R2 R5  R3 R4 R6 (2)   
R5 R6 R1  R2 R3  R4
(3) R1R4  R2 R3 (4) R1R3  R2 R4
86. A current carrying coil experiences a torque due to a magnetic field. The value of the
torque is 80% of the maximum possible torque. The angle between the magnetic field and
the normal to the plane of the coil is
3 4
(1) 300 (2) 450 (3) tan 1   (4) tan 1  
4 3

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87. A wire shaped in a regular hexagon of side 2 cm carries a current of 4A.The magnetic
field at the centre of hexagon is
c d

b e
O

a r

(1) 4 3  105 T (2) 8 3  105 T (3) 3  105 T (4) 6 3  105 T


88. In the circuit shown in figure, power developed across 1  , 2  and 3  resistances are
in the ratio.

(1) 1:2:3 (2) 4:2:27 (3) 6:4:9 (4) 2:1:27


89. A metallic wire loop of side () 0.1m and resistance of 1  is moved with a constant

velocity in a uniform magnetic field of 2 Wbm 2 as shown in the figure. The magnetic
field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The loop is connected to a network of
resistors. The velocity of loop, so as to have a steady current of 1mA in loop is

(1) 0.67 cm s 1 (2) 2 cm s 1 (3) 3 cm s 1 (4) 4 cm s 1


90. The average power output of a point source of an electromagnetic radiation is 1080W.
The maximum values of the rms value of the electric field at a distance of 3m from the
source is
(1) 20 Vm 1 (2) 40 Vm 1 (3) 60 Vm 1 (4) 90 Vm 1
91. A magnetic suspended in a uniform magnetic field is heated, so as to reduce its magnetic
moment by 19%. By doing this, the time period of the magnet approximately
(1) increase by 11% (2) decrease by 19%
(3) increases by 19% (4) decreases by 4%

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92. The resultant magnetic moment of three magnetic dipoles, each of the magnetic moment
M shown in the arrangement is
M M

900

(1) 2M (2) ( 2  1)M (3) ( 2  1)M (4) M


93. The magnitude of the axial field due to a short bar magnet at a distance of 50cm from its
mid-point is [The magnetic moment of the bar magnet is 0.4(A-m2)]
(1) 3.2  107 T (2) 1.6  107 T (3) 6.4  107 T (4) 4.8  107 T
94. Electromagnetic waves of energy flux 75  104Wm 2 incidents normally on a surface of
area 40cm2 . If the surface absorbs the flux completely, the total momentum delivered to
the surface in one second is
(1) 102 kg  ms 1 (2) 103 kg  ms 1 (3) 104 kg  ms 1 (4) 105 kg  ms 1
95. When the current through an inductor is changed at from 2A to 6A in time 2s, emf
induced in it is 3V. Then, the inductance of the inductor is
(1) 1.4H (2) 0.8H (3) 1.5H (4) 0.6H
96. The equivalent resistance between A and B is 6 . The value of R1 is

(1) 20  (2) 10  (3) 5  (4) 25 


97. The value of shunt resistance that allows only 10% of main current through the
galvanometer of resistance 99  is
(1) 9 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 11

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98. What is the net force on the square coil?

(1) 25  107 N moving towards wire (2) 25  107 N moving away from wire
(3) 35  10 7 N moving towards wire (4) 35  10 7 N moving away from wire
n
99. n identical resistance are taken in which resistors are joined in series in the left gap and
2
n
the remaining resistances are joined in parallel in the right gap of a metre bridge.
2
Balancing length in cm is
n2 n2 n2 n2
(1) 100. 2 (2) 100. 2 (3) 400. 2 (4) 400. 2
n 4 n 1 n 4 n 1
100. Assertion(A): It is more difficult to move a magnet into acoil with more loops.
Reason(R): This is because emf induced in each current loop resists the motion of the
magnet.
(1) Both A & R are true and R is a correct explanation for A.
(2) Both A & R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
(3) A is true and R is false
(4) A is false, R is true
101. The equation that represents magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave which is
propagating along x-direction with wavelength 10mm and maximum electric filed
60Vm 1 in y-direction is (where, c=speed of light)
 
(1) (6  107 )sin[02  (ct  X )] k T (2) (2  107 )sin[200  (ct  X )] k T
 
(3) (2  107 )sin[200  (ct  X )] i T (4) (6  10 7 )sin[02  (ct  X )] i T
102. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has
its north tip pointing down at 300 with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the
earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.3G. Then the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic
field at the location is
3 20 2
(1) G (2) 3G (3) G (4) G
5 3 3

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103. In the circuit shown in the figure, neglecting the source resistance, the voltmeter and
ammeter readings respectively are

(1) 0V,8A (2) 150V,3A (3) 150V,6A (4) 0V,3A


104. An alternating current is given by i  (3sin t  4cos t ) A . The rms current will be
7 1 5 3
(1) A (2) A (3) A (4) A
2 2 2 2
  
105. A short magnetic needle is placed in a magnetic field B i in the direction ( 3 i  j ) . The
needle experiences a torque of 0.06N-m. If the same magnetic needle is placed in a
  
magnetic field 2B j in the direction ( i  3 j ), the torque experienced by it is
(1) 0.12 N-m (2) 0.84 N-.m (3) 0.10 N-m (4) 0.03N-m
106. An L-C resonant circuit contains a 400pF capacitor and an inductor of 400  H , It is
coupled to an antenna. Wavelength of radiated electromagnetic wave is
(1) 754m (2) 377m (3) 377 cm (4) 796m
107. Lenz’s law is consequence of the law of conservation of
(1) Charge (2) Momentum (3) Mass (4) Energy
108. Four resistors A, B, C and D form a Wheatstone bridge as shown in the figure. The
bridge is balanced when C=100  . If A and B are interchanged, the bridge balances for
C=121  . The value of D is

(1) 10  (2) 100  (3) 110  (4) 120 

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109. Two long straight parallel conductors A and B carrying currents 4.5A and 8A
respectively, are separated by 25cm in air. The resultant magnetic field at a point which is
at a distance of 15cm from conductor A and 20cm from conductor B is
(1) 2  105 N (2) 2  104 N (3) 105 N (4) 104 N
110. A proton and an alpha particle moving with energies in the ratio 1:4 enter a uniform
magnetic field of 3T at right angles to the direction of magnetic field. The ratio of the
magnetic forces acting on the proton and the alpha particle is
(1) 1:2 (2) 1:4 (3) 2:3 (4) 1:3
111. The power consumed when 10V voltage is applied to a series combination of 10 resistors
of each 1 is Ps and the power consumed when the same 10V is applied to the parallel
combination of these 10 resistors is Pp. The value of Ps / Pp is

(1) 10 (2) 100 (3) 0.1 (4) 0.01


112. A conducting rod PQ of length 1m is moving with a uniform speed 2ms -1 in a uniform
magnetic field of 4T which is directed into the paper. A capacitor of capacity 10  F is
connected as shown in the figure. Then, the charge on the plates of the capacitor are

(1) q A  80 C , qB  80 C (2) q A  80 C , qB  80 C


(3) q A  1.25C , qB  1.25 C (4) q A  1.25 C , qB  1.25C
113. Which of the following is/are the property/properties of a monochromatic
electromagnetic wave propagating in the free space?

1. Electric and magnetic fields will have a phase difference .
2
2. The energy of the wave is distributed equally between electric and magnetic fields.
3. The pressure exerted by the wave is the product of its speed and energy density.
4. The speed of the wave is equal to the ratio of the magnetic field to the electric filed.
(1) 1 & 3 (2) Only 2 (3) 2 & 3 (4) Only 4

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114. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it
through 600. The torque required to maintain the needle in this position will be
3
(1) 3W (2) W W (3) (4) 2W
2
60
115. The impedance of an LR circuit with L  mH, R= 8 and frequency 50Hz is

(1) 1.3 (2) 14.3 (3) 20 (4) 10
116. An inductor and a resistor of 25 are connected in series to an AC source of voltage
100sin(100 t ) volt. if the impedance of the circuit is 50  , the average power dissipated
per cycle in the circuit is
(1) 10W (2) 25W (3) 50W (4) 100W
117. Electromagnetic waves are produced by
(1) Charges at rest only
(2) Changes in uniform motion only
(3) Accelerated or decelerated charges only
(4) An uncharged stable particle at rest
118. A solenoid has the length 1m and the area of cross-section 0.02m2. If number of turns in
the solenoid is 5000 then the self inductance of the solenoid is
(1) 0.2  henry (2) 0.4  henry (3) 0.02  henry (4) 0.04  henry
119. The resultant resistance between A and B in the given figure is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6


120. Three rings, each with equal radius r are placed mutually perpendicularto each other and
each having centre at the origin of coordinate system. I is current passing through each
ring. The magnetic field value at the common centre is

0 0 0


(1) 0 (2) ( 3  1) (3) 3 (4) 2
2 r 2r 2r

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CHEMISTRY
121. If the resistance of 0.1M KCl solution in a conductance cell is 300Ω and conductivity is
0.013Scm-1, then the value of cell constant is

(1) 3.9 cm-1 (2) 39 m-1 (3) 3.9 m-1 (4) 0.39 cm-1
122. Molar conductivities at infinite dilution  m for Ba(OH)2, BaCl2 and NH4Cl are 457.0,
0

240.6 and 2130 Scm2 mol-1 respectivley. The  m for ammonium hydroxide
0

in Scm mol 


2 1
is
(1) 1683.2 (2) 1080.2 (3) 2130.0 (4) 2238.2
123. The number of Faradays required to completely deposit magnesium from 1L to 0.1M
MgCl2 aq. Solution is
(1) 0.2 (2) 2 (3) 0.1 (4) 0.4
124. The electrode potential of chlorine electrode is maximum, when the concentration of
chloride ion in the solution (in mol L-1) is X. What is the value of X?
(1) 2.5  103 (2) 7.5  103 (3) 7.5  102 (4) 2.5  102
125. A lead storage battery is discharged. During the charging of this battery, the reaction that
occurs at anode, is
(1) PbSO4 (s)  2e  Pb(s)  SO42 (aq)
(2) PbSO (s)  2H O(1)  PbO (s)  SO 2 (aq)  4H  (aq)  2e
4 2 2 4

(3) PbSO4 ( s )  Pb 2 (aq)  SO42 (aq)


(4) PbSO4 (s )  2 H 2O(1)  2e  PbO2 ( s )  SO42 (aq)  2 H  (aq)
126. Consider a gas phase reaction which occurs in a closed vessel 2A→4B+C
The concentration of B is found to be increased by 5  103 molL-1 in 10seconds. The rate
of disappearance of A (in mol L-1s-1) is
(1) 4.75  104 (2) 7.5  104 (3) 1.25  104 (4) 2.5  104
127. For a reaction A  B  P, the following data are provided

Entry [A] in M [B] in M Initial rate(M/s)


1 0.02 0.02 2  102

2 0.02 0.04 4  102

3 0.04 0.04 8  102

The rate constant for this reaction in standard unit is


(1) 5 (2) 1.2 (3) 2.4  104 (4) 50

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128. The time required for completion of 93.75% of a first order reaction is x minuites. The
half life of it(in minutes) is
(1) x/8 (2) x/2 (3) x/4 (4) x/3
129. The rate of a first order reaction doubles when the temperature changes from 300K to
310K. The activation energy of the reaction (in kJ mol-1) is
(1) 43.33 (2) 53.33 (3) 63.33 (4) 73.33
130. Which of the following are the correct representations of a zero order reaction, where A
represents the reactant?

(1) (2) (3) (4)


x
131. The graph drawn between log   and log(p) is shown below with intercept OA. What
m
is the value of (-) at a pressure of 0.3 atm? (log2=0.30, log3=0.477)

(1) 0.6 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.7


1 x
132. If the value of is equal to 1 in Freundlich adsorption isotherm, then =(x=mass of
n m
absorbate, m=mass of the absorbent, p=pressure of the gas)
K
(1) (2) Kp (3) K (4) 0
p
133. Consider the following statements for a gold sol
i. It is macromolecular colloid ii. It is a lyophobic sol
iii. It is a negatively charged sol iv. It is a multimolelcular colloid
v. It is an associated colloid
The correct statements are
(1) i, ii, iii only (2) ii, iii, iv only (3) ii, iv, v only (4) i, iv, v only

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134. The most effective coagulating agent for antimony sulphide sol is
(1) K 2 SO4 (2) NH 4Cl (3) Al2 ( SO4 )3 (4) K 4 ( Fe(CN )6 )
135. The gold numbers of gelatin, haemoglobin and sodium acetate are 5  103 ,5  102 and
7  101 , respectively. The protective actions will be in the order
(1)Gelatin<haemoglobin<sodium acetate
(2)Gelatin>haemoglobin>sodium acetate
(3)Haemoglobin>gelatine>sodium acetate
(4)Sodium acetate > gelatine > haemoglobin
136. Match the following
List-I List-II
(Name of the mineral) (Type)
A. Calamine i. Sulphide
B. Bauxite ii. Halide
C. Kaolinite iii. Carbonate
D. Cryolite iv. Oxide
v. Silicate

The correct answer is


(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-v
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-v, D-i (4) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-ii
137. Observe the following Ellingham diagram, and identify the incorrect statement regarding
it

(1) At point ‘A’ for the reduction of Al2O3 by Mg, G 0  0 .


(2) Below 1673K, Mg can reduce Al2O3 to Al.
(3) Below 1673K, Al can reduce MgO to Mg
(4) Above 1673K, AI can reduce Mgo to Mg

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138. Match the following

List-I(Method) List-II(Metal refined)


A. Zone refining i. Sn
B. Liquation ii. In
C. Vapour phase refining iii. Zn

D. Distillation iv. Zr
v. Al
The correct answer is
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-v (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-v, C-iii, D-i (4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
139. Identify A and B respectively in the following reactions.
4 Au ( s)  8CN  (aq )  2 H 2O (aq ) 
O2 ( g )
 A(aq )  4OH  (aq ) 
Zn ( s )
 B  2 Au ( s)

(1) [ Au (CN ) 2 ] ;[ Zn(CN ) 4 ]2 (2) Au (CN )4 ;[ Zn(CN ) 4 ]2

(3) HCN ;[ Au (CN ) 4 ]2 (4) AuCN ;[ HCN ]


140. Match the following

List-I (Complex) List-II (Colour)


A. [Ni(en)3]2+ i. Green
B. [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+ ii. Blue
C. [Ni(H2O6)2+ iii. Pale blue
D. [Ni(H2O)6(en)2]2+ iv. Violet

(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
141. Arrange the oxides CrO, CrO3 and Cr2O3 in the decreasing order of acidic strength.
(1) CrO3  Cr2O3  CrO (2) CrO3  CrO  Cr2O3
(3) CrO  Cr2O3  CrO3 (4) CrO  CrO3  Cr2O3
142. Cr2+ and Mn3+ do possess d4 electronic configuration. So,
(1) Mn3+ is oxidizing agent while Cr2+ is reducing agent
(2) Both are reducing agents
(3) Mn3+ is reducing agent while Cr2+ is oxidizing agent
(4) Both are oxidizing agents
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143. Which of the following set of elements do not possess f-electrons?


(1) La,U,Lr (2) La,Th,Lr (3) La,Ac,Th (4) Ce,Ac,Th
144. The electronic configuration of Cr in Cr (CO )6 as calculated using crystal field theory is

(1) t24g eg0 (2) t23g e1g (3) t26g eg0 (4) t26g eg0

145. Which of the following types of isomerism is exhibited by [Co( NH 3 )5 ( NO2 )]( NO3 ) 2
i. Optical ii. Linkage iii. Ionization iv. Coordination
(1) ii, iii only (2) i, ii, iii only (3) i, iii ony (4) ii, iv ony
146. The formula of tris(ethane – 1,2-diamine) cobalt(III) sulphate is
(1) [Co( H 2 NCH 2CH 2 NH 2 )3 ]SO4 (2) [Co( H 2 NCH 2CH 2 NH 2 )3 ]3 ( SO3 ) 2
(3) [Co(CH 3CH 2 NHNH 2 )3 ]2 ( SO4 )3 (4) [Co( H 2 NCH 2  CH 2  NH 2 )3 ]2 ( SO4 )3
147. The set with only ambidentate ligands in the following is
(1) NO3 , Br  , C2O42  (2) NO2 , CN  , SCN 

(3) NO2 , C2O42 , NH 3 (4) SCN  , CO, NH 3


148. The correct order of field strength of the following ligands is
(1) N 3  C2O42  NH 3  CO (2) N 3  NH 3  C2O42  CO
(3) CO  NH 3  C2O42  N 3 (4) CO  N 3  NH 3  C2O42
149. The magnetic moment of the high spin complex is 5.92BM. What is the electronic
configuration?
(1) t23g e1g (2) t24g eg2 (3) t23g eg2 (4) t25g eg0

150. The wavelengths of light absorbed by the complexes


[ Ni ( H 2O )6 ]2 ,[ Ni (en)3 ]2 ,[ Ni ( H 2O) 4 en]2 are 1 , 2 , 3 respectively. The correct order of
wavelengths is
(1) 1  2  3 (2) 3  2  1 (3) 1  3  2 (4) 2  3  1
151. Which one of the following statement is correct for d 4 ions [P=pairing energy]
(1) When  0  P , low-spin complex form
(2) When  0  P , low-spin complex form
(3) When  0  P , high-spin complex form
(4) When  0  P , both high-spin and low-spin complexess form

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

152. Among the given complexes that possess “CO” ligand bridges are
i. [Co2 (CO )8 ] ii. [ Fe3 (CO )12 ] iii. [ Mn2 (CO )10 ] iv. [ Fe2 (CO )9 ]
(1) i, ii and iii (2) ii, iii and iv (3) i, ii and iv (4) i, iii and iv
153. Least reactive alkyl chloride in a SN2 reaction is
(1) 1-Chloro butane (2) 1-Chloro 2-Methyl propane
(3) 2-Chloro 2-Methyl propane (4) 2-Chloro butne
154. Identify ‘Z’ in the following reaction sequence
 Y  Z
Anh . AlCl3
2C3 H 7 Br 
Na / Ether
 X 
Mo2O3
773 K CH 3Cl
CH3
Cl
CH2Cl CH3

(1) (2) (3) (4) Cl


155. The major product in the following reactions is
CH3

(i) Br2, UV light


(ii) Mg
(iii) CH2O
(iv)H3O
(v) PBr3
CH3
Br CH3
CH2CH2Br
CH3

CH2Br

(1) (2) (3) (4) CH2Br


156. The number of optical isomers possible for 2-bromo-3-chloro butane are
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 4 (4) 2

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 20-04-2025_AP _Sr. Elite, Target & Star _EAPCET_Part Test-02 _Q.P

157. The correct order of rates of C-Br bond ionisations of the following bromides is
Br Br
Br

(i) (ii) (iii)


(1) i>ii>iii (2) ii>iii>i (3) i>iii>ii (4) ii>i>iii
158. The reactivity of alkyl bromides.
CH3
|
i. CH 3CH 2 Br ii. CH 3  C| H  Br iii. CH 3  C  Br iv. CH 3 Br
|
CH3 CH3

Towards iodide ion in dry acetone decrease in the order


(1) iv > i > ii > iii (2) i > v > ii > iii (3) iii > ii > i > iv (4) iii > ii > iv > i
159. Identify the major products X and Y in the following reactions

HBr HBr
X Y
Peroxide
(i) (ii)
X Y
Br

(1) Br
Br
X Y

(2) Br

Br
X Y
Rxn

Br

(3)
Br
X Y

(4) Br

160. Which of the following compounds has zero dipole moment?


(1) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene (2) 1, 2-dichlorobenzene
(3) 1, 3-dichlorobenzene (4) 1-chloro-2-methylbenzene
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