Discussion Overview

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• Clear understanding of concepts.
• Develop a strategic way to answering questions effectively.
• Identify and revisit the repeated themes

The Hot, Wet, Equatorial Climate

Q) "Each day is more or less the same, the morning
is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun
climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark
clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and
lightning. But rain is soon over." Which of the
following regions is described in the above
passage? (2015)
A. Savannah
• Outstanding Feature: Uniformity in
B. Equatorial Temperature throughout the year - mean
C. Monsoon monthly temperatures are always around
27° C with very little variation.
D. Mediterranean
• No Winter
Answer: B
• Cloudiness and Heavy Precipitation -
moderates the daily temperatures
• 5 degree and 10 degree north and south of
equator
• Land and Sea Breeze - equable climate
• Diurnal Range of temperature is small and
so is annual range

The Hot, Wet, Equatorial Climate

 • Relative humidity – high (over 80 percent)
• Periods of Max rainfall – April and October
• Precipitation is heavy - Annual average is
- Shortly after equinox
always above 150 cm. In some regions the
annual average may be as high as 250 – 300 • Least Rainfall – After June and Dec solstice
cm.
• Well distributed throughout the year - No
Month without rain
• Convectional Rainfall (Cumulonimbus
clouds)– Thunder + lightening
• Mountainous Regions – Orographic
Rainfall - Equatorial highlands – • High Temperature + High Rainfall –
Cameroon highlands in Malaysia , Kenyan luxuriant vegetation – Rainforests
highlands in East Africa
• Amazon Lowlands – Dense Forest– Selvas
• Intermittent showers – Convergence of air
• Growing season all year around- seeding ,
currents at doldrums
flowering ,fruiting and decaying – no
seasonal pattern
• Distinct layer arrangement - Stratifictaion
thick canopy - Multiple species
• Tropical hardwood+ Climbing plants +
epiphytes +parasitic plants
• Forest clearings- Lumbering or Shifting
cultivation
 • Secondary forest called Bekular in Q) Which of the following is/are unique
Malaysia characteristic/characteristics of Equatorial
Forests? (2013)
• Coastal areas and brackish swamps,
mangrove forests thrive. 1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with
crowns forming a continuous canopy.
• Rapid deterioration
2. Co-existence of a large number of species.
• of soil - Misconception – soil is rich-
3. Presence of numerous varieties of
• leaf fall and decomposition by bacteria -
epiphytes.
once humus is used and natural vegetation
cover is removed- downpour wash out Select the correct answer using the codes given
most of the nutrients - soil erosion. below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
• Equatorial Forest
• The rainforest biome is typically found
between the Tropics of Cancer and
Capricorn.
• The equatorial tropical rainforest is found
within 5 degrees north and south of the
equator .
• The equatorial rainforest supports the
greatest biodiversity (number and types of
living organisms in an area) on Earth. This
is the result of abundant moisture and
sunlight.
• Wet equatorial climate, is characterized by • High temperature and abundant rainfall
consistently high temperatures (around 30 support a luxuriant tropical rain forest.
°C [86 °F]), with plentiful precipitation
• From the air, the tropical rain forest
(150–1,000 cm [59– 394 inches]) on most
appears like a thick canopy of foliage,
afternoons., heavy cloud cover, and high
broken only where it is crossed by large
humidity, with very little annual
rivers or cleared for cultivation.
temperature variation.
_____________________________________________
 • All plants struggle upwards (most C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
ephiphytes) for sunlight resulting in a incorrect
peculiar layer arrangement. D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct
Answer: D
• Note - high temperature and moisture of
tropical rain forests cause dead organic
matter in the soil to decompose quickly –
recycling nutrients back to the ecosystem.
• Tropical rainforest soils are often deep but
not particularly fertile.
• This is partly due to the fact that huge
amounts of some mineral nutrients are
tied up inside the vegetation rather than
being free in the soil at any given time –
soil is itself poor in nutrients because they
do not stay in soil long enough to
accumulate .
_____________________________________________

_____________________________________________ Q.) “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any

other biome and as a result the soil surface is often
Q. Consider the following statements: (2023)
almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is
Statement-I: largely composed of plant forms that reach up into
the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or
The soil in tropical rainforests is rich in nutrients.
growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper
Statement-II: branches of trees.” This is the most likely
The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain description of (2021)
forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to A. coniferous forest
decompose quickly.
B. dry deciduous forest
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
C. mangrove forest
the above statements?
D. tropical rain forest
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct Answer: D
explanation for Statement-I • The hot and humid conditions make these
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are rainforests an ideal environment for
correct and Statement-II is not the correct bacteria and other microorganisms , they
explanation for Statement-I quickly decompose matter on the forest
floor. In other biomes, such as the
 deciduous forest, the decomposition of leaf Answer: D
litter adds nutrients to the soil. But in the Warm Temperate (Mid-Latitude) Climates-C
tropical rainforest, plants grow so fast that
they rapidly consume the nutrients from • Marine West Coast Climate (Cfb)
the decomposed leaf litter. As a result, • Marine west coast climate is located
most of the nutrients are contained in the poleward from the Mediterranean climate
trees and other plants rather than in the soil. on the west coast of the continents.
• Epiphytes - these are plants which live on • The main areas are: Northwestern Europe,
the branches of trees high up in the canopy. west coast of North America, north of
They get their nutrients from the air and California, southern Chile, southeastern
water, not from the soil. Australia and New Zealand.
• Due to marine influence, the temperature
is moderate and in winter, it is warmer
than for its latitude.
• The mean temperature in summer months
ranges from 15°-20°C and in winter 4°-10°C.
The annual and daily ranges of temperature
are small. Precipitation occurs throughout
the year.
• Precipitation varies greatly from 50-250cm
_____________________________________________

Koeppen Classification
UPSC 2024
 This causes a complete reversal of the
direction of the wind during summer and
the rise of the Southwest monsoon.

_____________________________________________

The Tropical Monsoon And Tropical

Marine Climate
Q) The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical
characteristic of (2014)
A. Equatorial climate
The Tropical Monsoon and Tropical Marine
B. Mediterranean climate
Climate
C. Monsoon climate
D. All of the above climates
Answer: C
How to Guess

Sun Overhead Tropic of Cancer and Capricorn

• Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes

place over the Indian subcontinent because
in winter there is a high-pressure area in
the north of the Himalayas & there is a low- What happens in Summer?
pressure area over the ocean to the south. So What happens in Winter?
cold and dry winds blow from the
Summer Conditions – South East and South West
Himalayan region towards the ocean.
monsoon
• In summer due to high temperatures, a
Winter Conditions – North East Monsoon and
low-pressure area develops over interior North West Monsoon
Asia as well as over northwestern India.
The Tropical Marine Climate
• Eastern Coast – Trade Winds
• Convectional Rainfall
• Orographic Rainfall
• Without distinct Dry Period
• Favourable to Tropical Cyclones and
Hurricanes.
_____________________________________________ Alternate - Hot + Rainy [Trade Winds Strong
during Summer] and Cool + Dry Season
The Savanna or Sudan Climate
Q) Which one of the following is the characteristic
climate of the Tropical Savannah Region? (2012)
A. Rainfall throughout the year
B. Rainfall in winter only
C. An extremely short dry season
D. A definite dry and wet season
Tropical Savannah Region :
Answer: D
• Savannas grow in tropical regions 8° to 20°
from the Equator.
• Conditions are warm to hot in all seasons.
• Mean annual precipitation is generally 80
to 150 cm.
• Alternating Dry and Wet Season -
• Mean monthly temperatures are about 10 to
20 °C in the dry season and 20 to 30 °C in
the wet season
• The dry season is typically longer than the
It lies in both the hemispheres wet season.
_____________________________________________
The Temperate Continental Or Steppe Climate
Q) “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the
people used to be nomadic herders.” The above
statement best describes which of the following
regions? (2013)
Alternate Hot and Cool Season- Sun Overhead
between Tropic of Cancer and Capricorn A. African Savannah
 B. Central Asian Steppe • Rainfall due to Ocean Currents
C. North American Prairie
D. Siberian Tundra
Answer: A

Value Addition

• Steppe's climate is continental with

extremes of temp.
• Rainfall is expected to be light.
• The mid-latitude (Central Asian) grassland
were once home to pastoral nomads like
Kirgiz, Kazakh and Kalmuks, Mongols.
_____________________________________________
The Temperate Continental or Steppe Climate
The Hot Desert And Mid – Latitude Desert
Climate
Q. What could be the main reason/reasons of the
formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?
(2011)
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure
cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean
currents.
Southern Hemisphere
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
• Narrowness of Temperate portions
in this context?
• Restricted in Area
A. 1 only
• Less continental
B. 2 only
• Maritime Influence C. Both 1 and 2
• Mild Winters D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A _____________________________________________
• The main reason for the formation of Q) Which of the following leaf modifications
African and Eurasian desert belt is that it is occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
located in the subtropical high pressure (2018)
cells. 1. Hard and waxy leaves
• It is under the influence of cold currents, 2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
which leads to higher aridity.
3. Thorns instead of leaves
The Hot Desert and Mid Latitude Desert Climate
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
• Hot Deserts lie astride the Sub – Tropical
High-Pressure Belts where the air is • Wax coatings on leaves prevent water loss
descending. through evaporation.

• On the western coast the presence of Cold • Leaves are also smaller on desert plants.
Currents. • Many plants in the desert conserve water by
• Trade winds blow off - shore and not having any leaves at all.
Westerlies which are on-shore blow • Many cacti have spines in place of leaves,
outside desert limits. which conduct photosynthesis , small
• Whatever wind reaches the desert blow structures also reflect light, further
from cooler to warmer regions, and their reducing water loss, cacti will grow
relative humidity is lowered making temporary root systems and absorb water.
condensation almost impossible. _____________________________________________
• Distance from the Sea (away from the rain World Climate – PYQ - Themes
bearing winds) and sheltered by high
• Equatorial Climate
mountains all around them- Rain shadow
region • Monsoon Climate

• The main reason for the formation of • Savanah Climate

African and Eurasian desert belt is that it is • Steppe Climate
located in the subtropical high pressure
• Desert Climate
cells.
Koeppen Classification: Marine West Coast
• It is under the influence of cold currents,
Climate
which leads to higher aridity.
Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature C. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by
water vapour that is concentrated in the
lower atmosphere.
D. Infrared waves are a part of visible
spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar
radiation.
Answer: C
• Water vapor is the most abundant
greenhouse gas in the Earth's atmosphere,
and it has strong absorption properties in
the infrared portion of the electromagnetic
spectrum. As infrared radiation passes
through the atmosphere, water vapor
molecules can absorb and re-emit a
significant portion of the longwave
radiation – option c
Q. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the _____________________________________________
air is slowly raising the temperature of the Q) Normally, the temperature decreases with the
atmosphere, because it absorbs (2012) increase in height from the Earth’s surface,
A. The water vapour of the air and retains its because (2012)
heat. 1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards
B. The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation. only from the Earth’s surface
C. All the solar radiations. 2. There is more moisture in the upper
atmosphere.
D. The infrared part of the solar radiation.
3. The air is less dense in the upper
Answer: D
atmosphere.
_____________________________________________
Select the correct answer using the codes given
Q. With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, below:
which one of the following statements is
A. 1 only
correct?(2023)
A. The total amount of insolation received at B. 2 and 3 only
the equator is roughly about 10 times of that C. 1 and 3 only
received at the poles.
D. 1, 2 and 3
B. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds
Answer: C
of insolation.
• Giveaway : Statement 2
 • Since the atmosphere is warmed from the
ground up, and since the air is at its most
dense near the surface of the earth, the air
near the surface is going to be able to retain
much more heat than the air at higher
elevations due to the increased amounts of
air molecules; higher elevations have fewer
air molecules and consequently can't retain
as much heat.
• Water vapour decreases rapidly with
Altitude .
_____________________________________________
Q) Normally, the temperature decreases with the
increase in height from the Earth’s surface,
because (2012)
1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards
only from the Earth’s surface.
2. There is more moisture in the upper
atmosphere. Answer: D

3. The air is less dense in the upper • Terrestrial Radiation : The insolation
atmosphere. received by the earth is in short waves forms
and heats up its surface. The earth after
Select the correct answer using the codes given
being heated itself becomes a radiating
below:
body and it radiates energy to the
A. 1 only atmosphere in long wave form. This energy
B. 2 and 3 only heats up the atmosphere from below. This
process is known as terrestrial radiation.
C. 1 and 3 only
• The long wave radiation is absorbed by
D. 1, 2 and 3
the atmospheric gases particularly by
Answer: C carbon dioxide and the other green house
_____________________________________________ gases.

UPSC 2024 • Thus, the atmosphere is indirectly heated

by the earth’s radiation.
• The atmosphere in turn radiates and
transmits heat to the space. Finally the
amount of heat received from the sun is
returned to space, thereby maintaining
 constant temperature at the earth’s surface 3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
and in the atmosphere 4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to
_____________________________________________ coasts
Q) The annual range of temperature in the interior Select the correct answer using the codes given
of the continents is high as compared to coastal below:
areas. What is/are the reason/reasons? (2013)
A. 1 only
1. Thermal difference between land and water
B. 1 and 2 only
2. Variation in altitude between continents
C. 2 and 3 only
and oceans
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
Answer: A
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to
coasts _____________________________________________

Select the correct answer using the codes given Q. Consider the following statements(2023)
below: Statement-I:
A. 1 only The temperature contrast between continents and
B. 1 and 2 only Oceans is greater during summer than in winter.

C. 2 and 3 only Statement-II

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 The specific heat of water is more than that of land

surface.
Answer: A
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
• Areas in the interior of India are far away the above statements?
from the moderating influence of the sea.
A. Both Statement-l and Statement-II are
Such areas have extremes of climate.
correct and Statement-II is the correct
• There may or may not be much difference explanation for Statement-I
between the altitudes of land and ocean.
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-1I are
• Winds do not contribute enough to the correct and Statement-II is not the correct
variations in temperature. explanation for Statement-I
• Coastal region receive more rainfall. C. Statement-1 is Correct but Statement-II is
_____________________________________________ incorrect

Q) The annual range of temperature in the interior D. Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is
of the continents is high as compared to coastal correct
areas. What is/are the reason/reasons? (2013) Answer: D
1. Thermal difference between land and water •
2. Variation in altitude between continents • The specific heat capacity of water is much
and oceans greater than the land - more heat is
 required to raise the temperature of one
gram of water by 1 degree than one gram of
land.
• During winter land cools down faster and
to a large extent compared to Oceans
leading to significant temperature
difference.
_____________________________________________
UPSC 2024
• In January the isotherms deviate to the
north over the ocean and to the south over
the continent. This can be seen on the North
Atlantic Ocean.
• The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf
Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the
Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the
isotherms bend towards the north.
• Over the land the temperature decreases
sharply and the isotherms bend towards
south in Europe.
_____________________________________________

Interior of the Earth - Earthquakes

Answer: A
UPSC 2024

Answer: D
• The material in the upper mantle portion
is called magma. Once it starts moving
 towards the crust or it reaches the surface,
it is referred to as lava.
• The material that reaches the ground
includes lava flows, pyroclastic debris,
volcanic bombs, ash and dust and gases
such as nitrogen compounds, sulphur
compounds and minor amounts of
chlorene, hydrogen and argon.
_____________________________________________
Q. Consider the following statements: (2023)
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded
earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate
to and fro in the direction of wave
propagation whereas in S waves, the
particles vibrate up and down at right
angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C

• P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of

the wave -exerts pressure - creates density
differences - stretching and squeezing of the
material.
• The direction of vibrations of S-waves is
perpendicular to the wave direction in -
create troughs and crests in the material.
_____________________________________________

El-Nino, La- Nina

Q. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent
floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from
El Nino? (2011)
1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold
ocean temperature in equatorial Indian
Ocean whereas El Nino is characterised by
unusually warm ocean temperature in the
equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west
monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect
on monsoon climate
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
_____________________________________________
Answer: D
Water in the Atmosphere
UPSC 2024
 Earth's surface and thus cause warming
effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
• Statement 1 is not correct: Low, thick
Answer: A
clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and
Water Vapour in the atmosphere cool the surface of the Earth.
• The vapour content in the atmosphere • Statement 2 is not correct: High, thin clouds
ranges between zero and 5 percent by primarily transmit incoming solar
volume. Clinically water vapor is very radiation; at the same time, they trap some
important constituent of the atmosphere . of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted
• The atmospheric vapour is received by the Earth and radiate it back downward,
through evaporation of moisture and water thereby warming the surface of the Earth.
from water bodies, vegetation and soil _____________________________________________
cover. Q.) In the context of which of the following do
• Vapour depends on temperature and some scientists suggest the used of cirrus cloud
therefore it decreases from equator to thinning technique and the injection of sulphate
poleward in response to decreasing aerosol into stratosphere? (2019)
temperature towards the poles. A. Creating the artificial rains in some regions.
• The content of vapour also decreases B. Reducing the frequency and intensity of
upwards( altitude). tropical cyclones.
• More than 90 percent of total atmosphere C. Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind
vapour is found upto a height of 5 km. on the Earth.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
D. Reducing the global warming.
_____________________________________________
Answer: D
Q. Consider the following statements: (2022)
• The geo-engineering technique known as
1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) could
and cool the surface of the Earth. limit rising temperatures that are causing
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of climate change.
infrared radiation emanating from the
 • This would introduce aerosols into _____________________________________________
the stratosphere to create a cooling effect Q) During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the
via global dimming, which occurs skies is produced by the (2013)
naturally from volcanic eruptions.
1. Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the
• It appears that stratospheric aerosol sky.
injection, at a moderate intensity, could
2. Lightning that separates the nimbus clouds.
counter most changes to temperature and
precipitation, take effect rapidly, have low 3. Violent upward movement of air and water
direct implementation costs, and be particles.
reversible in its direct climatic effects. Select the correct answer using the codes given
• Cloud thinning strategy would be used to below:
shoot powder over cirrus clouds, which A. 1 only
would thin out their coverage and alter
their radiative effects over Earth. B. 2 and 3

• Thinning the clouds, according to some C. 1 and 3

researchers could allow more heat to escape D. None of the above produces the thunder
into space
Answer: D
_____________________________________________
Q ) Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy
night? (2019)
A. Clouds absorb the radiation released from
the Earth’s surface.
B. Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
C. The Earth’s surface would have low
temperature on cloudy nights.
D. Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground
• Thunder is the sound caused by lightning.
level.
Answer: B • The sudden increase in pressure and
temperature from lightning produces rapid
• Dew is the result of water changing from a expansion of the air surrounding and
vapor to a liquid. within a bolt of lightning. In turn, this
• Dew forms as temperatures drop and expansion of air creates a sonic shock
objects cool down. wave, similar to a sonic boom, which
produces the sound of thunder.
• But when sky is cloudy ,clouds send the
earth s radiation back to ground so the _____________________________________________
ground never gets cold enough for the dew Distribution of Oceans and Continents
to form.
Q) Consider the following statements: (2018)
 1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed life reduced the carbon dioxide content of
every few hundred thousand years. the atmosphere, it also started to produce
oxygen. So, when living beings originated,
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000
they did modify the atmosphere.
million years ago, there was 54% oxygen
and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they
modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Distribution of Ocean and Continents

• Earth's magnetic field has reversed its

polarity many times over the millennia.
• When Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago, it
had almost no atmosphere. As Earth
cooled, an atmosphere formed mainly
from gases spewed from volcanoes which
included hydrogen sulfide, methane, and
10 to 200 times as much carbon dioxide as
today’s atmosphere.
• Life started to have a major impact on the
environment once photosynthetic
organisms evolved. While photosynthetic
 • Interglacials, on the other hand, are
periods of warmer climate between glacial
periods.
• Continental Drift : moved some animals
,some animals stuck there
• Continental Drift : moved some animals
,some animals stuck there

• A glacial period (alternatively glacial or

glaciation) is an interval of time (thousands
of years) within an ice age that is marked
_____________________________________________ by colder temperatures and glacier
Q) Which of the following phenomena might advances.
have influenced the evolution of organisms ? • Interglacials, on the other hand, are
(2014) periods of warmer climate between glacial
1. Continental drift periods.

2. Glacial cycles • Continental Drift : moved some animals

,some animals stuck there
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Additional Information : Evidences of
Continental Drift Theory
A. 1 only
• The Matching of Continents
B. 2 only
• Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans
C. Both 1 and 2
• Tillite
D. Neither 1 nor 2
• Placer Deposits
Answer: C
• Distribution of Fossils
• A glacial period (alternatively glacial or
glaciation) is an interval of time (thousands _____________________________________________
of years) within an ice age that is marked
Atmospheric Circulation and Weather
by colder temperatures and glacier
Systems
advances.
UPSC 2024 • The Coriolis force is directly proportional
to the angle of latitude . It is maximum at
poles and is absent at the equator. It
becomes maximum at the poles due to
minimum rotational speed of the earth
while it becomes zero at the equator .
• The magnitude of Coriolis force is
determined by wind speed. The higher the
wind speed , the greater is the deflection of
wind direction due to resultant greater
deflective( Coriolis) force .
_____________________________________________
Answer: C
Q. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger
and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?
(2011)
1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as
compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern
hemisphere as compared to northern
hemisphere
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
• The direction of surface winds is usually D. Neither 1 nor 2
controlled by the pressure gradient and the
Answer: A
rotation of the earth . Because of rotation of
the earth along it’s axis the winds are
deflected. The force which deflects the
direction of winds is called deflection
force.This force is called Coriolis force .
Because of Coriolis force all the winds are
deflected to the right in the northern
hemisphere while they are deflected to the
left in the southern hemisphere with
respect to the rotating earth.
 • Coriolis force acts identically in both the
Hemispheres.
• Due to less landmass, the winds
experience a lesser frictional force in the
Southern Hemisphere compared to the
Northern Hemisphere.
_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following statements: (2015)
1. The winds which blow between 30 N and 60 • Westerlies flow between latitudes 30-60
S latitudes throughout the year are known degrees North and 30-60 degrees South. The
as westerlies. statement mentions 30N-60S.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains • Winter Rains in India : This is a non-
in North Western region of India are part of monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by
westerlies. the Westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is/are _____________________________________________
correct?
Q) Consider the following statements: (2020)
A. 1 only
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern
B. 2 only Hemisphere only.
C. Both 1 and 2 2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
D. Neither 1 nor 2 3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone
Answer: B is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the
surroundings.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C
• Jet streams occur in both the Northern and
Southern Hemispheres.
• Jet streams occur in both the Northern and
Southern Hemispheres.
• Extra-tropical cyclones may not always
have an eye.
• Eye :It is warmer and not colder for a
tropical cyclone. The warmer temperature is
what drives the storm
• Note : Tropical cyclones are characterized
and driven by the release of large amounts
of latent heat of condensation as moist air is
Additional Information – Jetstreams
carried upwards and its water vapor
condenses. This heat is distributed
vertically, around the center of the storm.
Thus, at any given altitude (except close to
the surface where water temperature
dictates air temperature) the environment
inside the cyclone is warmer than its outer
surroundings.
• Eye :It is warmer and not colder for a
tropical cyclone.
The warmer temperature is what drives the
storm.
_____________________________________________
Q) In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific
regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not
originate. What is the reason? (2015)
A. Sea surface temperatures are low
 B. Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom • Where the ITCZ is drawn into and merges
occurs with a monsoonial circulation, it is
C. Coriolis force is too weak sometimes referred to as a monsoon trough,
a usage that is more common in Australia
D. Absence of land in those regions and parts of Asia.
Answer: B
• The conditions favourable for the formation
and intensification of tropical storms are:
o Large sea surface with temperature
higher than 27° C;
o Presence of the Coriolis force; (
o Small variations in the vertical wind
speed;
o A preexisting weak- low-pressure
area or low-levelcyclonic
circulation;
o Upper divergence above the sea
level system.
• Tropical cyclone formation also requires a
trigger that initiates convection. One such
trigger is the intertropical convergence
zone (ITCZ), where warm sea-surface
temperatures and convergence of surface
trade winds foster convection (rising air).
ITCZ does not shift Towards South
Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions
in tropical latitudes.
• Intertropical Convergence Zone
• The Intertropical Convergence Zone known
by sailors as the doldrums or the calms
because of its monotonous windless
weather, is the area where the northeast and
the southeast trade winds converge.
• It encircles Earth near the thermal equator
though its specific position varies
_____________________________________________
seasonally. When it lies near the
geographic Equator, it is called the near- Motions of the Earth
equatorial trough.
Q) Variations in the length of daytime and Therefore, a larger part of this hemisphere
nighttime from season to season are due to (2013) receives sunlight.
A. the earth’s rotation on its axis • In contrast, the Southern Hemisphere is
B. the earth’s revolution round the sun in an away from the sun. It, therefore, has shorter
elliptical manner days and longer nights. During the other
half of the year, the Southern Hemisphere is
C. latitudinal position of the place
inclined towards the sun. Hence, it has
D. revolution of the earth on a tilted axis longer days and shorter nights.
Answer: D _____________________________________________
Q) On 21st June, the Sun (2019)
A. does not set below the horizon at the Arctic
Circle
B. does not set below the horizon at Antarctic
Circle
C. shines vertically overhead at noon on the
Equator
D. shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of
Capricorn
Answer: A

• Variations in the length of daytime and

nighttime from season to season are due to
the revolution of the earth on a tilted axis.
• The North Pole is inclined towards the sun
• On its path around the sun, the earth's axis and the places beyond the Arctic Circle
always remains inclined to one side. experience continuous daylight for about
Because of this constant inclination in one six months.
direction, the Northern Hemisphere
• Since a large portion of the Northern
remains inclined towards the sun or faces
Hemisphere is getting light from the sun, it
the sun during one half of the year.
is summer in the regions north of the
 equator. The longest day and the shortest
night at these places occur on 21st June.
_____________________________________________
Q. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of
the year normally occurs in the : (2022)
A. First half of the month of June
B. Second half of the month of June
C. First half of the month of July
D. Second half of the month of July
Answer: B
• The summer solstice, also known as estival Answer: D
solstice or midsummer, occurs when one _____________________________________________
of Earth's poles has its maximum tilt
toward the Sun Composition and Structure of Atmosphere
• During the Northern Hemisphere's UPSC 2024
summer solstice—which always falls
around June 21—the Southern Hemisphere
gets its winter solstice.

_____________________________________________
UPSC 2024

Answer: A
• The troposphere is the lowermost layer of
the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km
 and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near 3. Gravitational force
the poles and about 18 km at the equator. 4. Plate movements
• Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at 5. Rotation of the earth
the equator because heat is transported to
great heights by strong convectional 6. Revolution of the earth
currents. Which of the above are responsible for bringing
_____________________________________________ dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

Q. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
the lower stratosphere. What could be the B. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
appropriate explanation? (2011)
C. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
lower stratosphere.
Answer: D
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower
stratosphere. • Geothermal energy- Volcanoes – Mid
Oceanic Ridges
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
in this context? • Gravitational force – Tides – Gravitational
Pull of Moon – Coastal Erosion
A. 1 only
• Plate movements –Earthquakes
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 • Revolution of the earth - responsible for
seasons + monsoon + landslides and soil
D. Neither 1 nor 2 erosion – Changes in surface
Answer: C _____________________________________________
The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in
the lower stratosphere.
• The clouds and water vapour are limited to
the troposphere. They are not present in the
stratosphere.
• Lower stratosphere, unlike the
troposphere, is also free from any vertical
winds.
_____________________________________________

Application Based Question

Q30) Consider the following: (2013)
1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
Q) Consider the following factors: (2012) until it reaches South America. At Brazil,
1. Rotation of the Earth some of it goes north and some goes south.

2. Air pressure and wind Atmospheric Pressure and Planetary Winds :

3. Density of ocean water • Example - Gulf Stream in the Atlantic and

the Kuroshio in the Pacific move in
4. Revolution of the Earth northeastern direction under the influence
Which of the above factors influence the ocean of the westerlies.
currents?
Coriolis Force - Rotation of the Earth :
A. 1 and 2 only
• Point - Clockwise direction in the northern
B. 1, 2 and 3 hemisphere and in Anti-Clockwise
C. 1 and 4 direction in the southern hemisphere

D. 2, 3 and 4 Temperature difference :

Answer: B • Example : Equator the ocean water is about

8 cm higher in level than in the Middle
Ocean Currents
latitudes.

Factors affecting Ocean Currents

Let us understand with relevant examples
Salinity difference :
• Point - area of high salinity will have a
greater density than the area of low salinity.
Density :
• Point : Denser water tends to sink, while
relatively lighter water tends to rise.
Physiography:
• Example : Atlantic South Equatorial
Current travels westward along the equator
_____________________________________________
Q) The most important fishing grounds of the • To escape this problem the seawater needs
world are found in the regions where (2013) to be mixed regularly to bring the nutrient
A. Warm and cold atmospheric currents meet rich deep waters up to the sunlight zone
where the phytoplankton can grow.
B. Rivers drain out large amounts of
freshwater into the sea • This is one of the reasons why cold and
warm currents convergence zones [mixing
C. Warm and cold oceanic currents meet happens – the collision of currents causes
D. Continental shelf is undulating mixing] and upwelling zones are very
productive.
Answer: C
• Furthermore, in surroundings where
• Planktons are abundant where warm and
atmospheric temperatures are often colder
cold currents meet. That make these areas
than oceanic temperatures, the top layers
important fishing grounds of the world.
of the ocean are cooled by the atmosphere.
• Note : Best fishing Zones
• This increases the density of the surface
• Oyoshio – Kuroshio Current waters and causes them to sink and
• Brazilian – Falkland Current therefore causes mixing [nutrient deficient
water sinks and nutrient rich water is
• Labrador – Gulf Stream – New Foundland
upwelled].
• Both of these factors play a role in Icelandic
waters, resulting in the very productive
ocean environment around Iceland.
_____________________________________________
Q) What explains the eastward flow of the
equatorial countercurrent? (2015)
A. The Earth's rotation on its axis
Additional Information :
B. Convergence of the two equatorial currents
• Phytoplanktons need both sunlight and
nutrients (such as nitrate and phosphate) C. Difference in salinity of water
to be able to photosynthesize. D. Occurrence of the belt of calm near the
• Sunlight is only available in the equator
uppermost layers. Answer: B
• During photosynthesis, the nutrients are
quickly used up by phytoplankton so they
are not available for long periods in the
upper layers under normal circumstances.
• This is indeed the case in tropical waters,
and as a result they are very unproductive.
 • The energy created by the motion of
molecules in the ocean is measured
through Ocean Temperature.
• Ocean Mean Temperature(OMT) is
measured up to a depth of 26 degrees
isotherm. It is measured with the help of
satellites that orbit the earth.
• In the Indian ocean, OMT is analyzed by
measuring the ocean thermal energy
during the period from January to March.
• The 26 degrees isotherm is seen at depths
varying from 50–100 meters.
• During January–March, the mean 26
_____________________________________________ degrees C isotherm depth in the
Q) With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 meters.
(OMT), which of the following statements is/are
• The temperature of the ocean water on the
correct?
surface is known as Sea Surface
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C Temperature
isotherm which is 129 meters in the south -
• Sea surface temperature (SST) is routinely
western Indian Ocean during January –
used for predicting whether the total
March.
amount of rainfall that India receives during
2. OMT collected during January –March can the monsoon season. Compared with SST
be used in assessing whether the amount of which has 60% success rate of predicting the
rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than Indian summer monsoon, OMT has 80%
a certain long -term mean. success rate.
Select the correct using the code given below: • Ocean mean temperature(OMT) is a better
A. 1 only indicator of monsoon rainfall than sea
surface temperature (SST) because it
B. 2 only measures ocean thermal.
C. Both 1 and 2 • This worked because the sea surface
D. Neither 1 nor 2 temperature is restricted to the skin of the
ocean which doesn’t have the kind of
Answer: B
impact as that of the heat content of the
• The Hindu - Ocean mean temperature can upper ocean.
better predict Indian summer monsoon.
Compared with SST which has 60% _____________________________________________
success rate of predicting the Indian Q) Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which
summer monsoon, OMT has 80% success among the following? (2015)
rate.
 1. Gravitational force of the Sun _____________________________________________
2. Gravitational force of the Moon Q) With reference to the water on the planet Earth,
consider the following statements: (2021)
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth
1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes
Select the correct answer using the code given
is more than the amount of groundwater.
below:
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and
A. 1 only
glaciers is more than the amount of
B. 2 and 3 only groundwater.
C. 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
D. 1, 2 and 3 correct?

Answer: D A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B

• The periodical rise and fall of the sea level,

once or twice a day ,mainly due to
attraction of Sun and Moon.
_____________________________________________
• Another factor is centrifugal force, which
Q . On the planet earth, most of the freshwater
is the force that acts to counter balance the
exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the
gravity.
remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
• Terms in NCERT : Movement of water (2013)
caused by meteorological effects (winds
A. is found in the atmosphere as moisture
and atmospheric pressure changes) are
and clouds
called surges. Surges are not regular like
tides. B. is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
 C. exists as groundwater during cyclones and high velocity
landward winds.
D. exists as soil moisture
Answer: C

_____________________________________________
Q. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that
mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge
against coastal calamities. How do mangroves
function as a safety hedge? (2011)
A. The mangrove swamps separate the human
settlements from the sea by a wide zone in
which people neither live not venture out
B. The mangroves provide both food and
medicines which people are in need of after
any natural disaster.
C. The mangrove trees are tall with dense _____________________________________________
canopies and serve as an excellent shelter
Q.) Consider the following statements: (2021)
during a cyclone or tsunami
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of
D. The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by
the oceans are warmer than the eastern
storms and tides because of their extensive
sections owing to the influence of trade
roots
winds.
Answer: D
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the
• The vast mangrove forests on the seaward eastern sections of oceans warmer than the
side of an estuary act as a barrier for the western sections.
coastal habitat to check the wind speed
Which of the statements given above is/are • Statement 1 is correct. Warmer water is
correct? transported westward in the ocean by the
A. 1 only Northeast trade winds in the Northern
hemisphere of the tropical zone . So, in
B. 2 only
tropical zones, the western section of ocean
C. Both 1 and 2 is warmer than eastern sections due to trade
D. Neither 1 nor 2 winds.

Answer: C • Statement 2 is correct. Similarly, the

Westerlies play an important role in
carrying the warm, equatorial waters and
winds to the western coasts of continents
(that is eastern section of the Oceans in
temperate zone). Thus, in temperate zones,
westerlies make the eastern section of the
ocean warmer than the western sections.
_____________________________________________

BASICS Answer: B
Q) Which one of the following pairs of States of • Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala)
India indicates the easternmost and westernmost passes - Nagaland-Assam-West Bengal -
State ? (2015) Odisha-Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu-
A. Assam and Rajasthan Kerala

B. Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan

C. Assam and Gujarat
D. Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
Answer: D
_____________________________________________
Q) If you travel by road from Kohima to
Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States
within India through which you can travel,
including the origin and the destination? (2017)
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9 _____________________________________________
Indian Monsoon
Q) Consider the following statements: (2012)
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases
from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the
northern plains of India decreases from east
to west.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C

• The amount of annual rainfall in the

northern plains of India decreases from
east to west.
• The duration of the monsoon decreases
from southern India to northern India.
• Southern Part of India:
• Southwest Monsoon + Retreating Monsoon
• Early Monsoon + Proximity to sea
_____________________________________________
Q) With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’
sometimes mentioned in the news while
forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the
following statements is/are correct? (2017)
1. IOD phenomenon is characterized by a
difference in sea surface temperature
between tropical Western Indian Ocean
and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El
Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B

• The Indian Ocean Dipole is an irregular

oscillation of sea-surface temperatures in
which the western Indian Ocean becomes
alternately warmer and then colder than
the eastern part of the ocean.
• An IOD can either aggravate or weaken the
impact of El Nino on Indian monsoon.
• Note - Positive IOD events are often
associated with El Niño and negative
events with La Niña

_____________________________________________
Q) When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the
following: (2012)
1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding.
Which of the above can be said to be the evidence
for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Plate Tectonics

_____________________________________________
Q) When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the
following:
1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges

• Parallel mountain ranges – Himachal, 4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding.

Himadri and Shivaliks Which of the above can be said to be the evidence
• U-turn river courses – Rivers shifting their for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
courses . A. 1 and 2 only
• Steep gradients causing land-sliding – B. 1, 2 and 4 only
Recent Landslide in Chamoli district of
C. 3 and 4 only
Himachal Pradesh
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
• Deep gorges- Indus Gorge
Answer: D
_____________________________________________
Q) The Narmada river flows to the west, while • The Narmada originates in eastern Madhya
most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Pradesh and flows west across the state,
Why? (2013) through a narrow valley between the
1. It occupies a linear rift valley. Vindhya Range and spurs of the Satpura
Range.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the
Satpuras. • The land slopes to the east from Central
India
3. The land slopes to the west from Central
India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. None
Answer: A
Note : The slopes of central highlands are from
southwest to northeast. Rivers that flow in rift valley
• Narmada
• Tapi
• Damodar
_____________________________________________
Q. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers
originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and
parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches.
Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in
its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due
to (2011)
A. Uplift of folded Himalayan series
B. Syntaxial bending of geologically young
Himalayas
C. Geo-Tectonic disturbance in the tertiary
folded mountain chains
D. Both (a) and (b) above
• The Narmada and the Tapi flow through the
rift valley. Answer: B
_____________________________________________
Q.) The black cotton soil of India has been formed
due to the weathering of (2021)
A. brown forest soil
B. fissure volcanic rock
C. granite and schist
_____________________________________________
D. shale and limestone
Q.) ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and
Answer: B
‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes
• Deccan Plateau was as formed by volcanic seen in the news, are related to (2016)
activity that lasted millions of years, causing
A. constitutional reforms
the deposition of lava.
B. Ganga Action Plan
• Black soil is formed due to the weathering
or erosion of the basalt rocks. C. linking of rivers
D. protection of Western Ghats
Answer: D
 • To conserve and protect the bio diversity of
Western Ghats while allowing for
sustainable and inclusive development of
the region, Government of India had
constituted a High Level Working Group
under the Chairmanship of Dr.
Kasturirangan.
• The Committee had recommended that
identified geographical areas falling in the
six States of Kerala, Karnataka, Goa,
Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu may
be declared as Ecologically Sensitive Areas.
• The Committee recommended bringing just
37% of the Western Ghats under the
Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) zones —
downing from the 64% suggested by the
Gadgil Committee report.
_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following statements: (2017)
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five
states only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five states
only.
• the Himalayas are spread over Jammu &
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only. Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
Which of the statements given above is/are Sikkim, Assam, West Bengal, Arunachal
correct? Pradesh. Some extensions of Shiwaliks are
also present in Punjab and Haryana.
A. 1 and 2 only
• Western Ghats are spread over six states -
B. 3 only
Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka,
C. 2 and 3 only Kerala, Tamil Nadu.
D. 1 and 3 only • Pulicat -lies on the border of Andhra
Answer: B Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
• Note : Western Ghat Committees :
• Gadgil Report and Kasturirangan
Committee on Western Ghats
_____________________________________________
 commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala,
Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly
Q) Which of the following statements regarding
areas ofOdisha and Assam
laterite soils of India are correct? (2013)
1. They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and
UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on
these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3 only
_____________________________________________
Answer: C
Q) In India, the problem of soil erosion is
• Laterite has been derived from the Latin associated with which of the following?
word ‘Later’ which means brick. The
1. Terrace cultivation
laterite soils develop in areas with high
temperature and high rainfall. These are 2. Deforestation
the result of intense leaching due to 3. Tropical climate
tropical rains
Select the correct answer using the code given
• These soils are poor in organic matter, below:
nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron
A. 1 and 2 only
oxide and potash are in excess. Hence,
laterites are not suitable for cultivation; B. 2 only
however, application of manures and C. 1 and 3 only
fertilisers are required for making the soils
D. 1, 2 and 3
fertile for cultivation.
Answer: B
• Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra
Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for Terrace Cultivation
tree crops like cashewnut.
• Laterite soils are widely cut as bricks for
use in house construction. These soils have
mainly developed in the higher areas of the
Peninsular plateau. The laterite soils are
 • Terrace cultivation is for preventing soil
erosion on hill slopes .
• Tropical climate has nothing to do with soil
erosion.
• Deforestation is one of the leading causes
of Soil Erosion.
_____________________________________________

Q) In India, in which one of the following types

of forests is teak a dominant tree species? (2015)
A. Tropical moist deciduous forest
B. Tropical rain forest
C. Tropical thorn scrub forest
D. Temperate forest with grasslands
Answer: A

• The Moist deciduous forests are more

pronounced in the regions which record
rainfall between 100-200 cm.
• These forests are found in the northeastern
states along the foothills of Himalayas,
eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and
Odisha.
• Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla,
semul, kusum, and sandalwood etc. are the
main species of these forests.
_____________________________________________
Q.) Which one of the following regions of India
has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen
forest and deciduous forest?
A. North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
B. South-West Bengal
C. Southern Saurashtra
D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: D
_____________________________________________
Q) If you travel through the Himalayas, you are
likely to see which of the following plants
naturally growing there ? (2014)
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
 B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B

• Montane Forest+ Himalayan Forest

• On the higher slope, temperate conifer trees
like pine, fir, and oak grow. At the higher
elevation of the Himalayas, rhododendrons
and junipers are found. They can be seen
while traveling through the Himalayas as • Tropical Deciduous Forests - . Teak
they are part of the natural vegetation of the (Tectona grandis) , sal, shisham, hurra,
region. mahua (Madhuca indica), amla, semul,
kusum, and sandalwood etc.
_____________________________________________
• Jackfruit, (Artocarpus heterophyllus) -
Q. Consider the following trees(2023)
Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an
1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) evergreen tree,
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) _____________________________________________
3. Teak (Tectona grandis) Consider the following States: (2015)
How many of the above are deciduous trees? 1. Arunachal Pradesh
A. Only one 2. Himachal Pradesh
 3. Mizoram
In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet
Evergreen Forests’ occur?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C

_____________________________________________

Q) Which one of the following pairs of islands is

separated from each other by the 'Ten Degree
Channel’? (2022)
A. Andaman and Nicobar
B. Nicobar and Sumatra
C. Maldives and Lakshadweep
D. Sumatra and Java
Answer: A
• The entire group of island is divided into
two broad categories – the Andaman in the
north and the Nicobar in the south. They are
separated by a water body which is called
the Ten degree channel.
 _____________________________________________
Q) Which of the following have coral reefs ? (2014)
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
_____________________________________________
3. Gulf of Mannar
Q) Consider the following statements: (2018)
4. Sunderbans
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active
Select the correct answer using the code given
volcano located in the Indian territory.
below:
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
Nicobar.
B. 2 and 4 only
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano
erupted was in 1991 and it has remained C. 1 and 3 only
inactive since then. D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are Answer: A
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3
Answer: A
• Barren Island is India’s only active volcano.
• The Barren Island volcano saw a major
eruption in 1991. Since then it has shown
intermittent activity, including eruptions in
_____________________________________________
1995, 2005 and 2017.
Q) Which of the following is geographically
closest to Great Nicobar? (2017)
A. Sumatra
B. Borneo
C. Java
D. Sri Lanka
Answer: A
Seshachalam Hills - Tirumala Range - Eastern
Ghats in - Andhra Pradesh – Tirupati district

_____________________________________________

Physiography
Q. Consider the following statements: (2023)
1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of • The Biligirirangana Hills Karnataka - at its
Vidhya and Sahyadri Ranges. border with Tamil Nadu - Biligiri
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the Ranganatha Swamy Temple Wildlife
easternmost part of Satpura Range. Sanctuary or simply BRT Wildlife
Sanctuary.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the
southernmost part of Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: D
Amarkantak –Madhya Pradesh - at the meeting
place of the Vindhya and Satpura mountain
ranges
_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following pairs : (2014)
Hills : Region
1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
3. Maadeo Hills : Central India
4. Mikir Hills : North-East India
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4
Answer: C
Kaimur Hills - Konkan Coast - Incorrect
• Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast
• Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
• Maadeo Hills : Central India
• Mikir Hills : North-East India
Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast - Incorrect
Maadeo Hills : Central India- Correct
Mikir Hills : North-East India- Correct

_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
Q. Consider the following pairs : Peak Mountains
Q) Consider the following pairs: (2016)
(2022)
Famous Place : Region
1. Namcha Barwa — Garhwal Himalaya
1. Bodhgaya : Baghelkhand
2. Nanda Devi — Kumaon Himalaya
2. Khajuraho : Bundelkhand
3. Nokrek — Sikkim Himalaya
3. Shirdi : Vidarbha
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
4. Nasik (Nashik) : Malwa matched ?
5. Tirupati : Rayalaseema A. 1 and 2
Which of the pairs given above are correctly B. 2 only
matched?
C. 1 and 3
A. 1, 2 and 4
D. 3 only
B. 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: B
C. 2 and 5 only
D. 1, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: C
 B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
• Barak River - Barak rises in the Manipur
hills and enters the plains near Lakhipur,
Assam .The river enters Bangladesh as
Surma and Kushiyara. Later, the river is
called the Meghna and receives the
combined flow of the Ganga and
Brahmaputra.

_____________________________________________
Q) Which of the following is/are tributary/
tributaries of Brahmaputra? (2016)
1. Dibang
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Nokrek is 2. Kameng
the highest peak in West Garo Hills of
3. Lohit
Meghalaya.
Select the correct answer using the code given
_____________________________________________ below:
A. 1 only
Q) Consider the following rivers : (2014) B. 2 and 3 only
1. Barak C. 1 and 3 only
2. Lohit D. 1, 2 and 3
3. Subansiri Answer: D
Which of the above flows/flow through • All the given rivers Dibang, Kameng and
Arunachal Pradesh? Lohit are the tributaries of Brahmaputra.
A. 1 only
 • Note : The principal tributaries of the
Brahmaputra River joining from the right
are Kameng, Subansiri, Manas, Sankosh
and Teesta whereas Lohit, Dibang,
Burhidihing, Desang, Dikhow, Dhansiri
join it from the left.

• The Teesta River originates from the

Pahunri glacier and flows southward
through the Sikkim Himalaya.
• Just before the Teesta Bridge, where the
roads from Kalimpong and Darjeeling join,
the river is met by its main tributary, the
Rangeet River..

_____________________________________________ • It does not flow directly into the Bay of

Bengal.
Q) With reference to river Teesta, consider the
following statements: (2017) _____________________________________________

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that Q) Consider the following rivers: (2015)
of Brahmaputra but it flows through 1. Vamsadhara
Sikkim.
2. Indravati
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is
3. Pranahita
a tributary of river Teesta.
4. Pennar
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the
border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

Which of the statements given above is/are A. 1, 2 and 3

correct? B. 2, 3 and 4
A. 1 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2 only D. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only Answer: D
D. 1, 2 and 3 • The Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita,
Answer: B and the Manjra are principal tributaries of
the Godavari.
 C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
• Main source of water for Wular Lake is
River Jhelum
_____________________________________________
• Kolleru Lake - situated between the two
Q.) With reference to the Indus river system, of the
major river basins of the Godavari and the
following four rivers, three of them pour into one
Krishna
of them which joins the Indus direct. Among the
following, which one is such river that joins the • Kanwar jheel - It is a residual oxbow lake,
Indus direct? (2022) formed due to meandering of Burhi Gandak
A. Chenab river, a tributary of Ganga

B. Jhelum _____________________________________________

C. Ravi UPSC 2024

D. Sutlej
Answer: D

Answer: B

_____________________________________________
Q. Consider the following statements: (2023)
1. Jhelum River passes Wular Lake
2. Krishna Rive directly feeds Kolleru
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed
Kanwar Lake. _____________________________________________
How many of the statements given above are Q) Consider the following pairs: (2019)
correct? Famous Place : River
A. Only one 1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
B. Only two 2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
 3. Hampi : Malaprabha Gujarat (Sardar Sarovar), Uttar Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above are correctly (Matatila), Odisha (Balimela), Jharkhand
matched? (Tilaiya) and Andhra Pradesh and
Telangana (Nagarjuna Sagar).
A. 1 and 2 only
_____________________________________________
B. 2 and 3 only
Q) With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman,
C. 1 and 3 only Sargol and Khatu are the names of (2021)
D. 1, 2 and 3 A. Glaciers
Answer: A B. mangrove areas
• Pandharpur -pilgrimage town - C. Ramsar sites
Chandrabhaga River - Maharashtra
D. Saline lakes
• Tiruchirapalli - Kaveri River - Tamil Nadu,
Answer: D
India.
• Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are
• Hampi - Tungabhadra River – Temples
names of towns with or near saline lakes.
_____________________________________________
Note:
Q) What is common to the places known as Aliyar,
• Sambhar, Degana, Didwana Kuchaman,
Isapur and Kangsabati? (2019)
Lunkaransar-Tal, and Pachpadra –
A. Recently discovered uranium deposits Rajasthan – Salt Water Lakes
B. Tropical rain forests _____________________________________________
C. Underground cave systems Q) Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
D. Water reservoirs (2018)

Answer: D A. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

• Aliyar (Tamil Nadu) Isapur (Maharashtra) B. Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

and Kangsabati (West Bengal) are water C. Nainital (Uttarakhand)
reservoirs, where water level reached much
D. Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
below the normal capacity.
Answer: A
• Note : From Current Affairs : At present,
around 18 reservoirs have water level below • Kodaikanal Lake- a manmade lake -
50 per cent of normal storage capacity. Of Tamilnadu, India.
these, six reservoirs (Sholayar, Lower _____________________________________________
Bhawani, Vaigai, Mettur Stanley, Aliyar,
Q.) Consider the following rivers: (2021)
Parambikulam) are in Tamil Nadu, three
(Isapur, Yeldari, Pench (Totaladoh) in 1. Brahmani
Maharashtra, two (Vanivilas Sagar, 2. Nagavali
Tungabhadra) in Karnataka, two (Tawa,
3. Subarnarekha
Barna) in Madhya Pradesh, one each in
 4. Vamsadhara
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 3 • Nagavali River forms a prime river of north
Answer: B eastern Andhra Pradesh and southern
Odisha. The origin of Nagavali River lies in
the eastern slopes of the Eastern Ghats near
Lakhbahal.
• Vamsadhara river rises in the Eastern Ghats
on the border Kalahandi district and
Rayagada district of Odisha.
_____________________________________________

Q) Which of the following is/are the formation- PIB

characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal? (2013)
• Besides high ash content, another
1. High ash content reason for entrained gasifiers (that
2. Low sulphur content operate at higher temperatures than
fluidised bed gasifiers), commonly
3. Low ash fusion temperature used in IGCC plants abroad, being not
Select the correct answer using the codes given suitable for Indian coal is its high ash
below: fusion temperature of about 1,500
A. 1 and 2 only • However, Indian coal’s sulphur
B. 2 only content is low, about 0.5 per cent.

C. 1 and 3 only _____________________________________________

D. 1, 2 and 3 Q) Consider the following statements: (2013)

Answer: A 1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.

• Indian Coal has comparatively higher 2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.

ash content than imported coal due to 3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
drift theory of formation of coal Which of the statements given above is/are
deposits in India. Coal seams formed correct?
due to drift theory contains higher ash
A. 1 and 2
as compared to in-situ theory of
 B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. None
Answer: B
• Gondwana is famous for Coal Fields
not Natural Gas. Coal formed about
350 million years ago in the
Carboniferous age is called Gondwana
Coal.
• Dharwar – Iron,Manganese etc
• Mica – Kodarma Mines , Jharkhand
• Note : Distribution of Coal in India
• Gondwana coal fields [250 million
years old]
_____________________________________________
• Tertiary coal fields [15 – 60 million
years old] Q. With reference to two non-conventional energy
sources called ‘coal bed methane’ and ‘shale gas’,
_____________________________________________
consider the following ‘statements:
Q) In which of the following regions of India are
1. Coal bed methane is the pure methane gas
shale gas resources found? (2016)
extracted from coal seams, while shale gas
1. Cambay Basin is a mixture of propane and butane only that
2. Cauvery Basin can be extracted from fine-grained
sedimentary rocks.
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
2. In India abundant coal bed methane sources
Select the correct answer using the code given
exist, but so far no shale gas sources have
below:
been found.
A. 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
B. 3 only correct?
C. 2 and 3 only A. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2 only
Answer: D C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
_____________________________________________
Q. About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal B. 4 only
required for the manufacture of batteries for
C. 1 and 3 only
electric motor vehicles, is produced by(2023)
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
A. Argentina
Answer: D
B. Botswana
_____________________________________________
C. the Democratic Republic of the Congo
Q. With reference to India, consider the following
D. Kazakhstan
statements: (2022)
Answer: C
1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
_____________________________________________
2. Monazite contains thorium.
Q. Consider the following pairs: (2023)
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire
Port Well known as Indian coastal sands in India.
1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India 4. In India, Government bodies only can
registered as a company process or export monazite.
2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned Which of the statements given above are correct ?
port in India
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. Visakhapatnam Port : Largest container, port in
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
India
C. 3 and 4 only
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched? D. 1,2, 3 and 4

A. Only one pair Answer: B

B. Only two pairs • Monazite is a mineral - rare earths and

thorium-a prescribed substance to be
C. All three pairs
handled by the Department of Atomic
D. None of the pairs Energy (DAE).
Answer: B • Accordingly, Indian Rare Earths Ltd.
_____________________________________________ (IREL) wholly owned by the Govt. of
India, under the administrative control
Q) Consider the following minerals:
of the Dept. of Atomic Energy (DAE)
1. Bentonite utilises monazite mainly for
2. Chromite production of rare earth compounds,
and thorium, as needed in the
3. Kyanite
Department of Atomic Energy.
4. Sillimanite In India
• Note - Thorium is mainly obtained
Which of the above is/are officially designated as from monazite and ilmenite in the
major minerals? beach sands along the coast of Kerala
A. 1 and 2 only and Tamil Nadu. World’s richest
 monazite deposits occur in Palakkad • NH4 - Bengaluru-Chennai
and Kollam districts of Kerala, near
• NH6 - Surat-Kolkata
Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh
and Mahanadi river delta in Odisha • NH15 - Samakhiali in Gujarat with
Pathankot in Punjab
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
Q. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available
certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of Q) In India, the steel production industry requires
which one of the fallowing? (2023) the import of (2015)

A. Aluminium A. saltpetre

B. Copper B. rock phosphate

C. Iron C. coking coal

D. Titanium D. All of the above.

Answer: D Answer: C

• Heavy mineral sands - seven minerals • The coal found in India is mainly of
- ilmenite, leucoxene (brown ilmenite), non-coking quality and hence coking
rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and coal has to be imported.
monazite. Ilmenite (FeO.TiO2 ) and • Coke is used as a fuel and as a reducing
rutile (TiO2 ) are the two chief minerals agent in smelting iron ore in a blast
of titanium. - constituents of beach furnace.
sand deposits found right from Moti
• Note : Metallurgical coal or coking coal
Daman-Umbrat coast (Gujarat) in the
is a grade of coal that can be used to
west to Odisha coast in the east.
produce good-quality coke – naturally
_____________________________________________ occurring sedimentary rock – key
Q) Consider the following pairs: (2014) material in the production of steel.

National Highway Cities connected • Saltpetre – Potassium Nitrate – not

used for Steel
1. NH4 : Chennai and Hyderabad
• Rock phosphate - fertlizer
2. NH6 : Mumbai and Kolkata
_____________________________________________
3. NH15: Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None
Answer: D
Q) Which of the following is the chief _____________________________________________
characteristic of ‘mixed farming’? (2012)
Q. The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by
A. Cultivation of both cash crops and food humid climate with high temperature throughout
crops. the year. Which one among the following pairs of
crops is most suitable for this region? (2011)
B. Cultivation of two or more crops in the
same field. A. Paddy and cotton

C. Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops B. Wheat and Jute

together. C. Paddy and Jute
D. None of the above. D. Wheat and cotton
Answer: C Answer: C
• Mixed farming is a type of farming
which involves both the growing of
crops and the raising of livestock.
Note:
• Mixed Cropping: Two or more crops
are grown on a same piece of land
simultaneously.
_____________________________________________
Q) Which one of the following best describes the
main objective of 'Seed Village Concept’? (2015)
A. Encouraging the farmers to use their
own farm seeds and discouraging
_____________________________________________
them to buy the seeds from others
Q) Consider the following crops:
B. Involving the farmers for training in
quality seed production and thereby to 1. Cotton
make available quality seeds to others 2. Groundnut
at appropriate time and affordable cost
3. Rice
C. Earmarking some villages exclusively
for the production of certified seeds 4. Wheat

D. Identifying the entrepreneurs in Which of these are Kharif crops?

villages and providing them A. 1 and 4
technology and finance to set up seed B. 2 and 3 only
companies
C. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
D. 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C A. 1 and 2
Rabi Crops B. 3 only
• BMWLPG – C. 2 and 3
• Wheat D. None
• Barley Answer: B

• Gram • Seed Replacement Rate is the

percentage of area sown out of the total
• Pulses
area of crop planted in the season by
• Mustard using certified/quality seeds other
• Linseed than the farm saved seed.

Kharif Crops • India has a National Seeds Policy 2002.

National Seed Policy was launched in
• Rice
2002 for intellectual property
• Maize protection to new varieties, planned
• Sorghum development; protection of the interest
of farmers and encourage conservation
• Bajra
of agro-biodiversity.
• Soybean
• Private companies are operating in
• Cotton supplying seeds- Hybrid Seeds
_____________________________________________ _____________________________________________
Q) In the context of food and nutritional security Q) In the context of food and nutritional security
of India, enhancing the 'Seed Replacement Rates' of India, enhancing the 'Seed Replacement Rates'
of various crops helps in achieving the food of various crops helps in achieving the food
production targets of the future. But what is/are production targets of the future. But what is/are
the constraint/constraints in its wider/greater the constraint/constraints in its wider/greater
implementation ? implementation ?
1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place. 1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
2. There is no participation of private sector 2. There is no participation of private sector
seed companies in the supply of quality seed companies in the supply of quality
seeds of vegetables and planting materials seeds of vegetables and planting materials
of horticultural crops. of horticultural crops.
3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding 3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding
quality seeds in case of low value and high quality seeds in case of low value and high
volume crops. volume crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given Select the correct answer using the code given
below: below:
 A. 1 and 2 balance by harnessing, conserving and
developing degraded natural
B. 3 only
resources such as soil, vegetative cover
C. 2 and 3 & water through watershed
D. None management initiatives.
Answer: B • The outcomes of IWMP are prevention
_____________________________________________ of soil run-off, regeneration of natural
vegetation, rain water harvesting and
Q) What are the benefits of implementing the recharging of the ground water table.
‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme?
_____________________________________________
1. Prevention of soil runoff
Q ) (2020)
2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with
seasonal rivers 1. "The crop is subtropical in nature.

3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of 2. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at

groundwater table least 210 frost -free days and 50 to 100
centimeters of rainfall for its growth.
4. Regeneration of natural vegetation
3. A light well -drained soil capable of
Select the correct answer using the code given
retaining moisture is ideally suited for the
below:
cultivation of the crop."
A. 1 and 2 only
Which one of the following is that crop?
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
A. Cotton
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. Jute
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. Sugarcane
Answer: C
D. Tea
Answer: A
• Giveaway Point - 200 Frost Free Days
: Cotton
• Temperature: Between 21-30°C
• Rainfall: Around 50-100cm –Light
Rainfall
• Soil Type: Well-drained black cotton
soil of Deccan Plateau.
• Integrated watershed development
• Hard-frost is injurious to cotton
programme no where mentions
cultivation and it requires at least 210
interlinking of rivers.
frost-free days.
• It envisages restoring the ecological
• It requires high temperature and
 bright sunshine for its growth.
_____________________________________________
Q.) Among the following, which one is the least
water efficient crop? (2021)
Q. Among the following States, which one has the
A. Sugarcane most suitable climatic conditions for the
B. Sunflower cultivation of a large variety of orchids with
minimum cost of production, and can develop an
C. Pearl millet
export oriented industry in this field? (2011)
D. Red gram
A. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: A
B. Arunachal Pradesh
• Among the given options, its water
C. Madhya Pradesh
requirement is 1800-2200 mm/season
which is highest. It takes about 210 D. Uttar Pradesh
litres of water to produce 1 kg of sugar Answer: B
cane.
• Arunachal Pradesh has the highest
• Water footprint of sunflower is 7– 9 number of orchid species (around 622
litre per kg. species) reported from the state.
• Millets are sown in dry areas with • Arunachal Pradesh has also been
minimal irrigation. Pearl millet is a termed as 'Orchid Paradise of India'
drought tolerant crop. because of the maximum
• As Red gram is a rain-fed crop grown concentration of orchid species (about
in assured rainfall areas, usually it 40% of the country) in the State.
does not need any irrigation. _____________________________________________
Q. A state in India has the following
characteristics: (2011)
1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant
over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the
above characteristics?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Gujarat
C. Karnataka
_____________________________________________
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: B
_____________________________________________

INDIA
Q) Siachen Glacier is situated to the (2020)
A. East of Aksai Chin
B. East of Leh
C. North of Gilgit
D. North of Nubra Valley
Answer: D

_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following pairs: (2019)
Glacier : River
By Elimination 1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
3. Milam : Mandakini
4. Siachen : Nubra
5. Zemu : Manas
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 5

Depicting Disputes D. 3 and 5

Answer: A

_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following pairs: (2015)
Place of Pilgrimage - Location
1. Srisailam - Nallamala Hills
2. Omakareshwar - Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar - Mahadeo Hills • Srisailam - Nallamala Hills (Andhra
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? Pradesh).

A. 1 only • Omkareshwar - Mandhata hills

B. 2 and 3 only • Giveway - The Pushkar valley -

Aravalli hills.
C. 1 and 3 only
_____________________________________________
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q) From the ecological point of view, which one
Answer: A
of the following assumes importance in being a
Pushkar - Mahadeo Hills ? good link between the Eastern Ghats and the
Western Ghats? (2017)
A. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
B. Nallamala Forest
 C. Nagarhole National Park Biosphere Reserve between the Western
Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats.
D. Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
• Note :
Answer: A
• Nallamala Forest : Andhra Pradesh
• Sathyamangalam forest range is a
• Nagarhole National Park : Karnataka (
significant wildlife corridor in the
Western Ghats)
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the
Western Ghats and the rest of the • Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve : Andhra
Pradesh ( Eastern Ghats)
Eastern Ghats.
_____________________________________________
Note:
Q) Consider the following pairs:
• Nallamala Forest : Andhra Pradesh
1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve : Garo Hills
• Nagarhole National Park : Karnataka (
Western Ghats) 2. Logtak (Loktak): Lake Barail Range

• Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve : 3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills

Andhra Pradesh ( Eastern Ghats) Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Sathyamangalam + Nagarhole A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None
Answer: A
Nokrek Biosphere Reserve : Garo Hills

Seshachalam

• Sathyamangalam forest range is a Logtak (Loktak): Lake Barail Range

significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri
 D. None
Answer: D

Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills

_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following pairs: (2013)
National Park : River flowing through the Park
1. Corbett National Park : Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3
 1. Nagarhole National park
2. Papikonda National Park
3. Sathyamagalam Tiger Reserve
4. Wayanand Wildlife Sanctuary
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
• Kaveri River Basin
• Note : River Basin - Area of land
drained by a river and its branches

• Nagarhole National Park - Karnataka.

• Papikonda National Park - Andhra
Pradesh. River Godavari flows
through Papikonda National Park.
• Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve -
Tamil Nadu. It is located at the
confluence of two distinct
geographical regions of bio diversity
landscape; Western Ghat and Eastern
_____________________________________________ Ghat.
Q) Which of the following Protected Areas are • Wayanad Wildlife- Kerala
located in Cauvery basin?
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve _____________________________________________
Q. Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs States
(2022)
1. Ghataprabha – Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar –Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar –Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon –Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above are not correctly
matched?
A. Only one pair
B. Only two pairs
C. Only three pairs
D. All four pairs
Answer: C
_____________________________________________

World
UPSC 2024

Nagarhole National Park

Answer: B
 Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa -
Region Mountain Range Type of
Incorrect
Mountain

Not Vosges Block

Central Mountain
Asia,
Europe

Europe Alps Fold

mountains

Pantagonia – Incorrect

North Appalachians Fold

America mountains

South Andes Fold

America mountains

_____________________________________________
Q) Which one of the following pairs is correctly
matched? Geographical Feature Region (2013)
A. Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia
B. Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa
C. Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa
D. Okavango Basin: Patagonia
Answer: B
Atlas Mountains: North-Western Africa – correct
 C. Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
D. Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Se
Answer: B

_____________________________________________
Q) What is the correct sequence of occurrence of
the following cities in South-East Asia as one
proceeds from south to north? (2014)
Abyssinian Plateau – Ethiopia
1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 4-2-1-3
B. 3-2-4-1
C. 3-4-1-2
D. 4-3-2-1
Answer: C

_____________________________________________
Q) Turkey is located between (2014)
A. Black Sea and Caspian Sea
B. Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
_____________________________________________
Q) The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes
appears in the news in the context of the events
related to _____________________________________________
A. Central Asia UPSC 2024
B. Middle East
C. South-East Asia
D. Central Africa
Answer: B

Answer: B
• Finland and Russia do not share
border with North Sea
_____________________________________________
Q) Which one of the following countries of South-
West Asia does Not open out to the Mediterranean
Sea? (2015)
A. Syria
B. Jordan
C. Lebanon
D. Israel
Answer: B
_____________________________________________
Q. Consider the following pairs: (2023)
Area of conflict mentioned in news Country
where it is located
1.Donbas : Syria
2.Kachin : Ethiopia
3.Tigray : North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: D
Area of conflict mentioned in news Country _____________________________________________
where it is located
Q. Consider the following pairs(2023)
1.Donbas : Ukraine
2.Kachin : Myanmar Regions often Reason for being in
mentioned in news news
3.Tigray : Ethiopia
1. North Kivu and War between Armenia
Ituri and Azerbaijan
 2. Nagorno-Karabakh Insurgency in
Mozambique

3. Kherson and Dispute between Israel

Zaporizhzhia and Lebanon

How many of the above pairs are correctly

matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
_____________________________________________
D. None
Q) Consider the following pairs: (2018)
Answer: D
Towns sometimes mentioned in news – Country
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Yemen
3. Mosul - Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Answer: B
• Aleppo - Syria,
• Kirkuk and Mosul -Iraq
• Majar - i - Sharif - Afghanistan.
_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following pairs: (2018)
Regions Sometimes Mentioned in News -
Country
1. Catalonia - Spain
2. Crimea - Hungary
 3. Mindanao - Philippines Mindanao - Philippines - Insurgency.
4. Oromia - Nigeria
Which of the pair given above are correctly
matched?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: C
• Catalonia - Spain – Referendum
• Crimea – Ukraine – Russia
• Mindanao - Philippines - Insurgency.
• Oromia - Ethiopia - Ethnic clashes.
Catalonia - Spain – Referendum

Crimea – Ukraine – Russia

Oromia - Ethiopia – Ethnic Clashes

_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following pairs:
Regions Sometimes Mentioned in News -
Country
1. Catalonia - Spain
2. Crimea - Hungary
3. Mindanao - Philippines
4. Oromia - Nigeria
Which of the pair given above are correctly
matched?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: C
_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following pairs: (2019)
Sea Bordering : Country
1. Adriatic Sea : Albania Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan

2. Black Sea : Croatia

3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco
5. Red Sea : Syria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: B
Red Sea : Syria

_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following pairs: (2020)
River : Flows into
1. Mekong : Andaman Sea
2. Thames : Irish Sea
 3. Volga : Caspian Sea
4. Zambezi : Indian Ocean
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: C
Andaman Sea
Volga : Caspian Sea

Mekong River : South China Sea

Zambezi : Indian Ocean

Thames : Irish Sea

_____________________________________________
Q. Consider the following pairs (2022)
Region often mentioned in the news Country
1. Anatolia – Turkey
2. Amhara – Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado –Spain
4. Catalonia – Italy
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched?
Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of
A. Only one pair Mozambique.
B. Only two pairs
C. Only three pairs
D. All four pairs
Answer: B

_____________________________________________
Q. The term "Levant“ often heard in the news 1. Azerbaijan
roughly corresponds to which of the following
2. Kyrgyzstan
regions ? (2022)
3. Tajikistan
A. Region along the eastern Mediterranean
shores 4. Turkmenistan

B. Region along North African shores 5. Uzbekistan

stretching from Egypt to Morocco Which of the above have borders with
C. Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Afghanistan?
Africa A. 1, 2 and 5 only
D. The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Sea
C. 3, 4 and 5 only
Answer: A
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: C
• Afghanistan is bounded to the east
and south by Pakistan (including those
areas of Kashmir administered by
Pakistan but claimed by India), to the
west by Iran, and to the north by the
Central Asian states of Turkmenistan,
Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan.
_____________________________________________
Q. Which one of the following is a part of the
Congo Basin? (2023)
A. Cameroon
• The Levant is an old term referring to
B. Nigeria
countries of the eastern
Mediterranean. Some scholars include C. South Sudan
in it Cyprus and a small part of Turkey. D. Uganda
But basically the Levant has
Answer: A
throughout history meant Syria,
Lebanon and Palestine. This means • The Basin stretches across six
Jordan, the West Bank (now under countries- Cameroon, Central African
Israeli occupation) and Israel itself are Republic, Democratic Republic of the
part of the Levant. Congo, Congo, Equatorial Guinea and
Gabon.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
Q. Consider the following countries : (2022)
Communities In News
Q) Consider the following pairs: (2013) Answer: B
Tribe : State Changpa Community
1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
• Changtang, a high plateau that
C. 1, 3 and 4 only stretches across the cold desert of
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ladakh and also in some parts of
Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer: A
• Livelihood through the rearing of
Tribe : State
Pashmina goats and also own yaks and
• Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim sheeps.
• Karbi : Assam • 1989 – Scheduled Tribes
• Dongaria Kondh : Odisha _____________________________________________
• Bonda : Odisha
_____________________________________________
UPSC 2024
Q) With reference to 'Changpa' community of
India, consider the following statements : (2014)
1. They live mainly in the State of
Uttarakhand.
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a
fine wool.
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled
Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only Answer: A

D. 1, 2 and 3 _____________________________________________
Q. The most important strategy for the
conservation of biodiversity together with
traditional human life is the establishment
of(2013)
A. Biosphere reserves
B. Botanical gardens
C. National parks
D. Wildlife sanctuaries
Answer: A
_____________________________________________
Q) Which of the following National Parks is _____________________________________________
unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation Q. Gandikota canyon of South India was created
that supports a rich biodiversity? by which one of the following rivers. (2022)
A. Bhitarkanika National Park A. Cauvery
B. Keibul Lamjao National Park B. Manjira
C. Keoladeo Ghana National Park C. Pennar
D. Sultanpur National Park D. Tungabhadra
Answer: B Answer: C
• Gandikota is a village and historical
fort on the right bank of the Pennar
river, in Kadapa district, Andhra
Pradesh, India. The fort was the centre
of power for various dynasties, such as
the Kalyani Chalukyas, Pemmasani
Nayakas, and the Golconda Sultanate.
• Keibul Lamjao National Park -
Manipur in India. Note – Sangai Deer _____________________________________________
Q) In a particular region in India, the local people
• The park is situated on the southern
train the roots of living trees into robust bridges
shore of the Loktak Lake
across the streams. As the time passes, these
• It is characterized by floating bridges become stronger. These unique 'living
decomposed plant material locally root bridges' are found in (2015)
called phumdi (floating mass of
A. Meghalaya
entangled vegetation formed by the
accumulation of organic debris and B. Himachal Pradesh
biomass with soil) C. Jharkhand
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: A • Kancheepuram - Silk Saree – Tamil
Nadu
_____________________________________________
Q) A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night
and wanted to reach his village which was
situated 5 km east of the point where he was
standing. He had no instruments to find the
direction but he located the polestar. The most
convenient way now to reach his village is to walk
in the (2012)
• Meghalaya’s double-decker and
A. direction facing the polestar
single-decker root bridges are unique
in the world and are a sight to behold. B. direction opposite to the polestar

• The bridges are tangles of massive C. direction keeping the polestar to his left
thick roots, which have been D. direction keeping the polestar to his right
intermingled to form a bridge that can
Answer: C
hold several people at a time.
• Khasi people have been trained to
grow these bridges across the raised
banks of streams to form a solid bridge,
made from roots.
_____________________________________________
Q) Consider the following towns of India :
1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi • The Pole Star - North Star or Polaris
3. Kancheepuram that lies closely in line with the axis of
the Earth's rotation "above" the North
4. Karnal
Pole, i.e., the north celestial pole.
Which of the above are famous for the production
• Therefore, it makes an excellent fixed
of traditional sarees/fabric?
point from which scientists draw
A. 1 and 2 only measurements for celestial navigation
B. 2 and 3 only and astrometry.

C. 1, 2 and 3 only _____________________________________________

D. 1, 3 and 4 Q) Electrically charged particles from space

travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can
Answer: B severely harm living beings if they reach the
• Chanderi – Chanderi Sarees - Madhya surface of the Earth. (2012)
Pradesh
What prevents them from reaching the surface of
the Earth?
A. The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them
towards its poles.
B. Ozone later around the Earth reflects them
back to outer space.
C. Moisture in the upper layers from reaching
the surface of the Earth.
• Earth's magnetic field, also known as
D. None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given the geomagnetic field, is the magnetic
above is correct. field that extends from y, where it
Answer: A interacts with the solar wind, a stream
of charged particles emanating from
Earth’s Magnetic Field
the Sun.
• The magnetic field is generated by
electric currents due to the motion of
convection currents of a mixture of
molten iron and nickel in Earth's outer
core.
• Earth's magnetic field deflects most of
the solar wind, whose charged
particles would otherwise strip away
Electrically charged particles from space
the ozone layer that protects the Earth
from harmful ultraviolet radiation.
Note
AURORA
• The typical aurora is caused by
collisions between fast-moving
electrons from space with the oxygen
and nitrogen in Earth’s upper
atmosphere.
Aurora
 Q) Which of the following has/have shrunk
immensely/dried up the recent past due to human
activities? (2018)
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 1 only

_____________________________________________ B. 2 and 3

Q) Which one of the following lakes of West C. 2 only

Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? D. 1 and 3
A. Lake Victoria Answer: A
B. Lake Faguibine
C. Lake Oguta
D. Lake Volta
Answer: B
_____________________________________________
UPSC 2024

Answer: C
• The Ivory Coast and Ghana are by far
the two largest producers of cocoa,
accounting for more than 50 percent of • Aral Sea has shrunk by about 75% of its
the world´s cocoa. original size mainly because of water
diversion for agricultural usages in
_____________________________________________
surrounding areas - Beginning about
1960, the Aral Sea’s water level was
systematically and drastically
 reduced, because of the diversion of Q. Between India and East Asia, the navigation-
water from the Amu Darya and Syr time and distance can be greatly reduced by which
Darya rivers for purposes of of the following? (2011)
agricultural irrigation. 1. Deepening the Malacca straits between
• The depth of Aral Sea has also Malaysia and Indonesia.
decreased from 68 meters in the 1960 s 2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus
to less than 10 m in the present day. between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman
• Lake Baikal- water level has gone Sea.
below critical mark multiple times ( Which of the statements given above is/are
Basically there is fluctuation in levels correct?
but not shrinkage)
A. 1 only
• Black Sea – 40% habitable space
B. 2 only
compression – due to eutrophication
and global warming ( again not C. Both 1 and 2
shrinkage ) D. Neither 1 nor 2
_____________________________________________ Answer: B
UPSC 2024

Answer: C
• The Red Sea has minimal precipitation,
less than 250 mm of rainfall every year.
• The Malacca strait is the main shipping
• Yes , No water enters Red sea from any channel between the Indian Ocean and
rivers . the Pacific Ocean and links the India,
_____________________________________________ China, Japan and South Korea. The
issue of deepening of the Malacca
strait is linked to its economic
 importance rather than “time of
navigation and distance”.
• The issue is that most of the ships
cannot pass through it and the size of
the biggest ships which can enter
through it is called Malaccamax. Now
the deepening of the strait would
certainly help in “Increasing the
volume of the business” because ships
of larger sizes can pass thru it, there is
no significance of distance and
navigation
_____________________________________________