B787 Bank all quest

Test ID: 4

Name: ___________________________ Date: _March 3, 2021_

1. (120). When the IND LTS switch is held in the TEST position, how are the MCP display windows
tested?

(A). All liquid crystal displays on the MCP blink on for 2 seconds, then off for 1 second and repeat
until the TEST switch is released.

(B). During the light TEST the liquid crystal displays on the MCP blink on and off at 1 second
intervals.

(C). Both A and B

(D). None of the Above

REF: 1.30.7=

2. (280). Which statement is correct in regard to the fixed ELT mounted to the TOP of the fuselage?

(A). The ELT is always ON and cannot be deactivated

(B). The ELT can be deactivated by placing the ELT switch to RESET 5 minutes , then ON

(C). The EICAS alert message ELT ON is displayed if the transmitter is activated.

(D). None of the above.

REF: 1.45.3 = 24112019

3. (60). Entry and cargo door, wind limits in opened condition is :

(A). 65 knots

(B). 50 knots

(C). 40 knots

(D). 30 knots

REF: 1.40.19=

4. (360). Select the correct statement regarding " Flight Lock " feature of cabin door handle.

(A). Each door handle is automatically locked when ground speed is greater than 100 knots

(B). Flight Locks are unlocked when ground speed is less than 40 knots

(C). Flight Locks are unlocked , if electrical power is removed or failed.

(D). All of the above are correct

REF: 1.40.27 = 04042020

5. (230). EICAS message EMER LIGHTS could be due to either of the following reasons

(A). The emergency lights are on

(B). The emergency lights switch is not ARMED

(C). The emergency lights switch is OFF

(D). Either (A) or (B) above

REF:1.60.2

6. (450). OFAR has the following systems.

(A). Oxygen system

(B). Smoke Detection System

(C). Handset for communication system

(D). All of the above.

REF: 1.47.9 = 04042020

7. (240). The airplane has two types of push button switches

(A). primary action and secondary action

(B). alternate action and momentary action

(C). primary action and momentary action

(D). direct action and alternate action.

REF: 1.30.1=24112019

8. (260). The Common core system (CCS) provides a common computing network and data exchange
system for the majority of airplane systems. Which statement is correct?

(A). CCS operation must be turned ON manually before each flight by pressing the control switch.

(B). There are no CCS controls or indications for normal operations.

(C). The CCRs isolate ALL faults

(D). Both CCRs startup at the same time.

REF: 1.40.1=24112019
9. (400). The OFCR is to be occupied by flight crew members trained in the use of :

(A). The crew rest evacuation routes.

(B). Fire fighting procedure in OFCR

(C). Actions during Decompression procedure in OFCR

(D). All of the above

REF: 1.46.1 = 04042020

10. (330). " DOOR AFT E / E ACCESS " EICAS message Indicates :

(A). AFT entry and exit doors are not closed and secure

(B). The Electrical and Electronic access door in the AFT is not closed and secure

(C). AFT bulk cargo door is not closed

(D). None of the above.

REF: 1.60.1 = 03042020

11. (40). Prior to taxi, takeoff, and landing the Door Power Assists and Escape Slides must be checked
for proper indications. Select all indications that apply from those listed below.

(A). The door mode selector is at the top of the red band.

(B). The manual symbolic indicator is not illuminated.

(C). The automatic mode symbolic indicator is illuminated steady.

(D). All of the above are correct.

REF: 1.30.19=

12. (80). Which of the following statements are correct concerning the evacuation signal system when the
flight deck EVAC COMMAND switch is in the ON position?

(A). EVAC COMMAND EICAS warning is displayed on the flight deck.

(B). EVAC lights flash at the designated flight attendant switch panels.

(C). An aural horn sounds in the cabin at all flight attendant locations with evacuation controls

(D). All of the above are correct.

REF: 1.45.1=
13. (30). Which are the correct indications of a properly entered emergency access code?

(A). Produces a warning level EICAS message to the flight crew and an amber light on the key
pad.

(B). Produces a green light on the key pad.

(C). Produces an EICAS advisory message.

(D). None of the above

REF: 1.30.24=

14. (180). The EICAS alert message ELT ON is displayed if the transmitter is activated. How can the ELT
be deactivated?

(A). Once activated ELT cannot be deactivated

(B). By placing the ELT switch to RESET momentarily (1 to 3 seconds), then ARMED

(C). ELT can be deactivated only by the Engineer

(D). None of the above

REF:1.45.2

15. (380). Select the correct statement regarding Flashlights :

(A). Flashlight illuminate automatically when they are removed from stowage bracket.

(B). Flashlight can be extinguished only by placing the flashlight back into the stowage bracket

(C). The Flashlight batteries cannot be recharged.

(D). All of the above are correct.

REF: 1.45.4 = 04042020

16. (130). A fully charged battery provides at least ______ minutes of operation for emergency Light?

(A). 20

(B). 15

(C). 10

(D). 30

REF: 1.40.6=
17. (270). Flashlight are stored throughout the airplane. Select the correct statement:

(A). To save battery life , switch them OFF while not needed.

(B). A fully charged battery provides a minimum of 10 minutes of operation.

(C). The rechargeable batteries are always kept at maximum charge.

(D). These high intensity flashlight illuminate automatically when they are removed from the
stowage bracket.

REF: 1.45.3=24112019

18. (200). Passenger cabin oxygen masks would drop

(A). When PASS OXYGEN switch in the flight deck is selected on

(B). Automatically when the cabin altitude is reaching 14,500 feet

(C). With the help of Manual Release Latch located next to each cabin PSU

(D). Any of the above

REF:1.40.18

19. (350). Do not operate the entry and cargo doors with winds at the doors of more than ....... knots.
Select the correct value from the
following .

(A). 30 knots

(B). 40 knots

(C). 65 knots

(D). 60 knots

REF: 1.40.19 = 04042020

20. (250). Alternate action switches have two positions

(A). On and Reset

(B). On and OFF

(C). OFF and RESET

(D). AUTO and FAULT.

REF: 1.30.1=24112019
21. (370). Select the correct statement regarding Bulk Cargo door :

(A). Bulk cargo doors are on both sides of the airplane.

(B). It opens UP and into the cargo area.

(C). It is on the Right side of the airplane

(D). All of the above are correct.

REF: 1.40.29 = 04042020

22. (100). The passenger cabin oxygen system is supplied by gaseous oxygen stored in small high
pressure cylinders. The passenger oxygen masks automatically drop from the passenger service units
(PSUs) prior to the cabin altitude reaching the greater of:

(A). 13,500 feet.

(B). The origin airfield altitude +1500 feet or destination airfield +1500 feet.

(C). 14,500 feet.

(D). Both (B) and (C) are correct.

REF: 1.40.18=

23. (20). The microphone in the oxygen mask is disabled when

(A). The left hand side oxygen mask stowage box door is closed.

(B). The oxygen mask harness is deflated.

(C). The RESET/TEST lever is pushed.

(D). Both (A) and (C) are correct.

REF: 1.30.34=

24. (300). 'DOOR FD OVHD' EICAS message means :

(A). The FWD cargo door are not closed

(B). The flight deck overhead door is not closed and secure.

(C). All flight deck door including overhead door is not closed and secure.

(D). The electrical and electronic access door is not closed and secure.

REF: 1.60.1= 02042020

25. (390). Select the correct statement regarding " Condition Light Indication " on the flash light bracket :

(A). when it illuminates One Green flash during Test , indicates a normal Battery charge

(B). Illuminated One Red Flash during Test indicates the Battery should be replaced .

(C). Red Light Flashes every Ten seconds It means the Battery has reached its end of life.

(D). All of the above are correct.

REF: 1.45.4 = 04042020

26. (220). Passenger cabin oxygen supplied by gaseous oxygen stored in small high pressure cylinders
once started is available for approximately

(A). 15 minutes

(B). 30 minutes

(C). 45 minutes

(D). 60 minutes

REF:1.40.18

27. (290). Which is the normal operating position of the EVAC COMMAND SWITCH?

(A). The ON switch position in cockpit and ARM at the flight attendant panel

(B). The STBY switch position is the normal operating position .

(C). The ARM switch position is the normal operating position .

(D). The ON switch position is the normal operating position .

REF: 1.45.1=24112019

28. (430). Location of OFAR is :

(A). Overhead area between 1 L and 1 R

(B). Overhead area between 3 L and 3 R

(C). Overhead area between 4 L and 4R

(D). Overhead area between 5 L and 5 R

REF: 1.47.1 = 04402020

29. (50). The entry and cargo door operation (opening or closing) wind limit is :

(A). 65 knots
(B). 50 knots
(C). 40 knots
(D). 30 knots

REF: 1.40.19=

30. (440). The OFAR has no ventilation below ............... Feet.

(A). 30,000
(B). 20,000
(C). 15,000
(D). 6,000 -8,000 ft

REF: 1,47.2. = 04042020

31. (410). If the smoke is detected in OFCR then, " SMOKE DETECTED DR 1 UPR REST “ message will
appear on which panel .

(A). Cabin attendant panels.

(B). Flight Deck EICAS

(C). UPPER deck OFCR warning panel

(D). All of the above places .

REF: 1.46.15 = 4042020

32. (110). The indicator lights test switch turns on all non-graphical display annunciators and indicators to
make sure they are working. Which of the following statements accurately describes what happens when
the switch is held in the TEST position?

(A). All the annunciator lights illuminates to full brightness for 10 seconds to check the bulbs, then
dims the lights for the next 20 seconds. If the switch is held longer than 30 seconds all
annunciator lights return to full brightness.

(B). Illuminates all annunciator bulbs to full brightness for 10 seconds to check the bulbs, then
dims the lights as long as the switch is held.

(C). Both A and B

(D). None of the Above

REF: 1.30.7=
33. (340). Select the correct statement about " Turning Radius " in B787 aircraft.

(A). The Wing tip swings the largest arc while turning.

(B). Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within 15 feet of the wing tip.

(C). Minimum pavement width for 180 degree turn is 42.2 meters

(D). All of the above are correct.

REF: 1.10.2 = 04042020

34. (310). " DOORS AUTO / MANUAL " EICAS message means:

(A). Two or more doors are not closed and secure.

(B). All passenger doors are in the automatic and manual mode.

(C). Some passenger entry doors are in the automatic mode and some are in the manual mode.

(D). All passenger entry doors are in the manual mode.

REF: 1.60.1 =03042020

35. (320). " EMER LIGHTS " EICAS message means

(A). The emergency lights are ON.

(B). The emergency light switch is not " ARMED "

(C). Either A or B condition

(D). None of the above

REF: 1.60.2 = 03042020

36. (450). B787 has how many Cabin Air Compressors (CAC )?

(A). 4 electric CAC

(B). 2 pneumatic CAC

(C). 7 electric CAC

(D). 2 pneumatic and 2 electric CAC

REF: 2.20.1= 23112019

37. (470). Power Electronics Cooling System ( PECS) indication ( QTY ) can be viewd on :

(A). EICAS display

(B). Captain's PFD

(C). STATUS display of MFD

(D). None of the above

REF: 2.10.8= 442020

38. (500). Select the correct statement regarding Shoulder and Foot heaters :

(A). Shoulder Heaters are available in flight only

(B). Foot Heaters are available on ground and In- flight , when packs and recirculation fans are
ON.

(C). Both A and B are correct

(D). None of the above

REF: 2.10.4= 442020

39. (170). Select the correct statement(s) regarding the Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS)
(A). It is a cooling system meant for the FWD E/E equipment compartment.
(B). It is a liquid cooling system meant for the large motor power distribution system located in the
AFT E/E equipment compartment.

(C). The liquid quantities and the status for each PECS (liquid cooling) loops are displayed on the
STATUS page.

(D). Both (B) and (C)

REF: 2.20.10=

40. (400). When the FWD EQUIP COOLING automatically switches to OVRD mode

(A). Forward cargo heat and overboard vent valves are opened

(B). Vent fan and both supply fans are commanded ON

(C). Cabin differential pressure helps to create a reverse flow of air across the equipment which
then exits through the override valve to an overboard venturi

(D). Cabin differential pressure helps to create a flow of outside air across the equipment which
then is used to heat the cabin

REF: 2.20.9=
41. (220). The landing altitude information is provided to the Pressurization System;
(A). From the FMC if the “LDG ALT” selector is in AUTO.
(B). Manually through the “LDG ALT” selector if the same is in MAN.
(C). By the FMC independent of the position of the “LDG ALT” selector.
(D). (A) and (B) are correct.
REF: 2.10.8=

42. (440). If a depressurization event occurs, the outflow valves close to preserve cabin pressure and it is
important that the flight crew not attempt to manually close the outflow valves during the descent. The
outflow valves drive full open for the remainder of the flight after;

(A). the airplane reaches 15,000 feet

(B). the airplane reaches 10,000 feet

(C). the airplane reaches 14,000 feet

(D). the airplane reaches 15,000 feet or descends below the cabin altitude

REF: 2.30.2=

43. (80). “PACK MODE L” message is displayed on EICAS.

(A). PACK L is inoperative.
(B). PACK L may be recovered by pressing the AIR CONDITION RESET switch.
(C). PACK L is now in standby cooling mode.
(D). PACK L must be shut down immediately.
REF: 2.50.2=

44. (90). Mark the correct statement(s) regarding Alternate Ventilation System
(A). It is an alternate means of ventilating the cabin and flight deck in the event of both packs
inoperative.
(B). The AVS activates automatically in case of a failure of both packs.
(C). The AVS activates automatically in case all CACs fail.
(D). Both (b) and (c) are correct.
REF: 2.20.4=

45. (200). When the FMC climb path has a planned level segment;
(A). The Cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) maintains a constant value of cabin altitude.
(B). The CPCS continues to increase the cabin altitude during the planned level segment.
(C). The CPCS decreases the cabin altitude for the planned level segment.
(D). The CPCS stops functioning during the planned level segment
REF: 2.30.1=
46. (480). On the FWD Equipment Cooling Switch " OVRD " (amber) illuminates, it indicates SMOKE /
OVRD mode is operating because:

(A). Switch is selected OFF manually

(B). Both FWD equipment cooling fans have failed.

(C). The smoke / Override mode is automatically selected by the smoke detection system.

(D). Any one of the above conditions.

REF: 2.10.2 = 442020

47. (100). The target temperature of each passenger cabin temperature zone;
(A). Once set can be modified only by using the CABIN TEMP selector in the flight deck.

(B). Cannot be changed using the cabin management system.

(C). May be further modified ±6°C, within range of 18°C to 29°C using the cabin management
system.
(D). All the above statements are false.
REF: 2.20.4=

48. (210). The Cabin Pressure Control System maintains a constant value of cabin altitude for a level
segment during a climb;

(A). If it is an unplanned level segment.

(B). When VNAV is disengaged.

(C). Irrespective of whether it is a planned or unplanned level segment.

(D). Only in circumstances (A) and (B)

REF: 2.30.1=

49. (250). During ground and flight operation both packs are normally selected to AUTO. Which of the
following is / are true for, how the cabin air compressors (CACs) are regulated during engine starts?

(A). For normal engine starts, all CACs are commanded off during initial start sequence

(B). On the ground the CACs are commanded off when the first engine fuel control switch is
selected on.

(C). For an in-flight starter assisted engine start, only one CAC runs to maintain pack

(D). Both (A) and (C) are correct.

REF: 2.20.2=
51. (130). The forward equipment cooling and ventilation system goes to override mode;
(A). If both FWD supply fans fail in-flight.
(B). If in-flight excessive temperature is detected in the FWD equipment cooling system.
(C). If smoke is detected in the FWD equipment cooling system or FWD cargo area.
(D). Either (a) or (b) or (c)

REF: 2.20.9=

52. (380). The CABIN TEMP selector sets a master reference temperature between 18º C and 29º C and
allows for;
(A). Master reference temperature to be further increased or decreased automatically or manually
to set target temperatures for each temperature zone.

(B). Target temperatures of each passenger cabin temperature zone may be further modified plus
or minus 3º C, within the range of 18º to 29º C, using the cabin management system.

(C). Temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature controls the pack outlet temperature

(D). All of the above

REF: 2.20.4=

53. (280). The Alternate Ventilation System (AVS) provides an alternate means of ventilating the cabin
and flight deck in the event that both packs are inoperative. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A). The system consists of a flight deck switch and a dedicated flush inlet valve and duct that
delivers outside air flow downstream of the left pack outlet.
(B). When the valve is open, no alternate ventilation flow occurs when airplane is pressurized
normally.
(C). Both A and B
(D). None of the above
REF: 2.20.4=

54. (20). In the smoke/override mode of the FWD Equipment Cooling System;
(A). The forward cargo heat and overboard vent valves are closed.
(B). The forward equipment cooling override valve is commanded to the override position.
(C). Both supply fans and the vent fan are commanded off.
(D). All of the above will occur.
REF: 2.20.9=

55. (140). In the override mode of the FWD equipment cooling system

(A). Forward cargo heat and overboard vent valves are opened

(B). Cabin differential pressure draws air through flight deck panels and the forward E/E racks to
create a reverse flow of air across the equipment, then exits through the override valve to
an overboard venturi.

(C). Forward equipment cooling override valve is commanded to the close position

(D). A smoke removal procedure has to be done to improve ventilation.

REF: 2.20.9=
56. (420). Pressurization System Automatic Operation ensures

(A). For takeoff, the system supplies a small positive pressurization prior to rotation to cause a
smooth cabin altitude transition to the cabin altitude climb schedule

(B). During descent, cabin altitude decreases to slightly below the FMC planned landing altitude

(C). The pressurization system enters descent mode slightly before the FMC descent point

(D). A and B above are correct

REF:2.30.1/2

57. (270). Air Conditioning Reset (AIR COND RESET) Switch. Pushing the reset switch accomplishes the
following:
(A). Resets any latched air conditioning faults and attempts to restart normal operation.
(B). Resets any trim air valves held closed due to overheat, control or valve failure.
(C). Attempts to reset any failed recirculation fan.
(D). All of the above are correct.
REF: 2.10.3=

58. (410). Select the correct statement;

(A). For normal engine starts, all CACs are commanded off during initial start sequence with
corresponding PACK L and PACK R messages shown on EICAS. Packs do not restart
until at least two minutes after the engine start sequence is initiated and the engine is
running.

(B). For normal engine starts, all CACs are commanded off during initial start sequence with
corresponding PACK L and PACK R messages inhibited. Packs do not restart until at
least two minutes after the engine start sequence is initiated.

(C). For normal engine starts, all CACs are commanded off during initial start sequence with
corresponding PACK L and PACK R messages inhibited. Packs do not restart until at
least two minutes after the engine start sequence is initiated and the engine is running.

(D). None of the above

REF: 2.20.2=

59. (160). “EQUIP OVBD VLV AFT” displayed on EICAS:

(A). The AFT equipment cooling overboard valve is closed
(B). The AFT equipment cooling overboard valve has failed in the open position.
(C). The AFT equipment cooling overboard valve has failed to open.
(D). None of the above
REF: 2.20.10=
60. (110). The pack outlet temperature is normally controlled by:
(A). The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature.
(B). The temperature zone requiring the hottest temperature.
(C). As per the outlet temperature of the CAC that feeds the pack.
(D). As per the average of the flight deck and individual cabin zone temperature settings.
REF: 2.20.4=

61. (390). All cargo compartments i.e. FWD, BULK & AFT, are capable of carrying live animals and have
CARGO TEMP switches available in the flight deck to maintain a target temperature of 21º C.

(A). True

(B). False

REF: 2.20.6=generic

62. (290). Which of the following statements about the cargo Temperature Control systems is / are
correct?
(A). The forward and bulk cargo compartments have independent temperature control systems
(B). Selecting the AUTO setting on the BULK CARGO TEMP switch turns on the bulk ventilation
fan to allow for live animal transport.
(C). The forward cargo compartment is capable of carrying live animals. Automatic ventilation
ensures that odors do not go from the cargo compartment to the flight deck or passenger
cabin.
(D). All of the above are correct.
REF: 2.20.5/6=

63. (520). Select the correct statement regarding AVS ( Alternate Ventilation System ) :-

(A). Provide alternate means of ventilating cabin and flight deck when both packs are inoperative
in flight.

(B). Aircraft must be unpressurized before AVS system switch in ALTN

(C). AVS allows fresh outside air to be drawn into the Air distribution system

(D). All of the above conditions are correct.

REF: 2.20.4 =442020

64. (60). For an in-flight starter assisted engine start;

(A). All CACs go to off.
(B). One CAC on each side goes off.
(C). Only one CAC will run.
(D). All the CACs will run.
REF: 2.20.2=
65. (360). Selecting the recirculation fans OFF changes the amount of fresh air to the passenger cabin

(A). True

(B). False

REF:2.20.3

66. (70). Engine anti-ice valve closes automatically:

(A). During start
(B). For bleed air over temperature or over pressure
(C). When fire switch is pulled or when bleed leak is detected
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 2.40.1=

67. (430). EICAS advisory message LANDING ALTITUDE defines.

(A). That the Landing Altitude Selector on O/H panel is set in normal (pushed-in) mode and the
FMC is not supplying landing altitude, OR

(B). That the landing altitude is unavailable from the FMC & the cabin altitude controller assumes
a landing altitude of 2,000 feet, OR

(C). That the Landing Altitude Selector on O/H panel is set in MAN (pulled-out) mode,

(D). All of the above satisfy the given condition

REF:2.30.3/2.50.2

69. (50). For Normal engine starts;

(A). All CACs are put to standby

(B). All CACs are commanded off during initial start sequence.

(C). One CAC will be commanded to off on each side.

(D). All CACs are on.

REF: 2.20.2=

70. (120). Flight deck shoulder heaters are available

(A). Only on ground
(B). Only in-flight
(C). Only when pack is on
(D). Only when the recirculation fan is on
REF: 2.10.4=
71. (180). WING ANTI-ICE selector in AUTO, power supply to the thermal mats on the leading edge slats
continues

(A). As long as icing conditions are detected and airplane is in flight

(B). As long as icing conditions are detected and airplane is in flight or speed is above 50 knots
on ground

(C). As long as icing conditions are detected and airplane is in flight or speed is above 75 knots
on ground

(D). As long as icing conditions are detected and airplane is in flight or speed is above 75 knots
on ground and until the clean up cycle is complete

REF: 3.20.3=

72. (220). .. In flight , Wing Ice protection system is powered On and Operates without input from
automatic Ice Detection system (with TAT less than 25 degree).
... With Flaps out of UP, Stickshaker logic is set for icing conditions .
Above statements are true for which position of " Wing Anti Ice Selector "

(A). OFF

(B). AUTO

(C). ON

(D). Neutral

REF: 3.10.1 =442020

73. (270). Icing Idle is selected when ?

(A). Engine Anti Ice is ON

(B). When Wing Anti Ice is ON
(C). In both the cases either Engine or Wing Anti-Ice is ON
(D). There is Nothing like Icing Idle, It is covered by MInimum Idle.

REF: 7.20.8=442020.

75. (260). When Both Pack Inlet Anti-Ice systems are failed, the following EICAS Message will be
Displayed.

(A). ANTI - ICE AIR COND

(B). ANTI- ICE COOLING

(C). ANTI- ICE PACKS

(D). ANTI- ICE LOSS PACKS

REF: 3.30.1=442020
76. (80). Select correct statement regarding engine anti-ice leak detection system:
(A). Engine anti-ice does not have leak detection system
(B). There is one common detection system for leak detection
(C). If an anti-ice duct leak is detected the respective engine anti-ice valve closes
(D). If an anti-ice duct leak is detected the respective engine anti-ice valve open
REF: 3.20.2=

77. (40). Engine anti-ice system uses:

(A). Bleed air to provide engine core and cowl inlet ice protection
(B). Electric heating
(C). Bleed air for engine core and electric heating for cowl inlet ice protection
(D). Electric heating for engine core
REF: 3.20.1=

78. (50). Engine anti-ice can be operated:

(A). In flight only
(B). On the ground only
(C). On the ground and in flight
(D). In flight above FL 100
REF: 3.20.1=

79. (60). Automatic operation of engine anti-ice system is:

(A). Inhibited in air
(B). Inhibited below FL 100
(C). Inhibited on the ground
(D). Active on the ground
REF: 3.20.1=

80. (130). Select correct statement regarding windshield wipers/washers:

(A). Forward windows are equipped with independently controlled, Three-speed wipers
(B). Captains and First officers windshields are equipped with windshield washers system
(C). Side windows have two-speed wipers
(D). Only (a) and (b) are correct
REF: 3.20.3=

81. (70). Engine anti-ice valve:

(A). Does not close automatically during engine start
(B). Does not close automatically when bleed air over temperature is detected
(C). Closes automatically during engine start
(D). Does not close automatically in any case
REF: 3.20.2=
82. (210). Three pitot probes and two angle of attack probes are electrically heated for anti-ice protection
when:

(A). Probe heat in AUTO while on ground and /or in flight , at any time when ON.

(B). On the ground when TAT is below 10deg C. Always in Flight.

(C). Either engine is operating

(D). Both Engines are operating.

REF: 3.20.4=23112019

83. (30). Automatic ice detection:

(A). Is inhibited above 300kt speed
(B). Is inhibited on ground below 75 knots
(C). Is inhibited on ground above 100 knots
(D). Is inhibited in air below 200 knots
REF: 3.20.1=

84. (10). Automatic ice detection system has:

(A). One icing condition detector

(B). Two icing condition detector
(C). Three icing condition detector
(D). Four icing condition detector
REF: 3.20.1=

85. (90). Wing anti-ice is inhibited:

(A). On ground below 75 knots
(B). On ground below 130 knots
(C). In air above 300 knots
(D). Not inhibited on ground
REF: 3.20.2=

86. (240). " INOP " Indications Illuminated amber on Window Heat Switches, which of the following
condition(s) is/are TRUE

(A). The Switch is OFF

(B). An Overheat is Detected

(C). A System Fault has Occured

(D). Any one of the above conditions

REF: 3.10.3= 442020

88. (20). Icing condition detectors are heated:
(A). Electrically
(B). Pneumatically
(C). Both Electrically and Pneumatically
(D). Cannot be heated
REF: 3.20.1=

89. (200). Automatic ICE detection is :

(A). inhibited on takeoff untill 50 ft AGL

(B). inhibited on takeoff untill 20 ft AGL

(C). Inhibited on the ground below 75 knots

(D). Inhibited on the ground below 80 knots

REF: 3.20.1=23112019

90. (110). Pack inlet anti-ice functions automatically:

(A). With signals from the automatic ice detection system
(B). Operation is inhibited on ground
(C). Operation is inhibited when TAT is above 10c
(D). All above are correct
REF: 3.20.3=

91. (120). All flight deck windows are:

(A). Electrically heated
(B). The forward windows have exterior surface anti-icing protection and interior surface anti-
fogging protection
(C). The side windows have interior surface anti-fogging protection
(D). All above are correct
REF: 3.20.4=

92. (230). ... The Engine Anti Ice valves are commanded OPEN (without input from automatic Ice
Detector).
... With Flaps out of UP, Stick Shaker Logic is set for Icing Condition.
Above statement is true for which position of “Engine Anti Ice Selector"

(A). OFF

(B). AUTO

(C). ON

(D). Commanded

REF: 3.10.2=442020
93. (250). IAS/MACH window is blank when the FMC controls the speed. When changing from TO/GA to
V/S, FPA, or ALT, the window automatically displays - choose the correct answer

(A). the flap placard speed minus 5 knots (flaps extended)

(B). 250 knots (flaps up)

(C). a speed value entered in the IAS/MACH window after TO/GA was pushed

(D). All of the above

REF:4.10.4

94. (290). In respect of ATC uplinked Heading/Track function, for conditional clearances, pushing the
ACCEPT switch displays the new heading or track value automatically in the lower line only after the
clearance condition is met.

(A). True

(B). False
REF:4.10.10

95. (350). HUD provides lateral guidance for takeoff roll and rejected Takeoff

(A). HUD Takeoff requires the ILS or GLS to be auto tuned

(B). HUD guidance becomes active when the airplane approaches the runway center line and
airplane heading is within 45º of runway heading

(C). Only B above is correct

(D). Both A & B above are correct

REF:4.20.7

96. (400). Select the correct statement

(A). A "NO AUTOLAND" alert appears on the PFD and HUD if the autopilot remains engaged
below 100 feet RA during an approach in which autopilot is flying a FMC computed
glidepath

(B). A "NO AUTOLAND" appears on EICAS with Caution if fault occurs after LAND 3 or LAND 2
is annunciated, or approach has been selected but does not engage by 300 AGL

(C). A "NO AUTOLAND" appears on EICAS with Advisory if fault occurs before LAND 3 or LAND
2 is annunciated

(D). All the above are correct

REF:15.10.8
97. (10). When either Flight Director switch is ON , the Autopilot engages in the following mode(s)

(A). selected Flight Director mode (s).

(B). HDG HOLD or TRK HOLD and V/S OR FPA
(C). HDG SEL OR TRK SEL AND V/S OR FPV
(D). will not engage any mode , as switch function is inhibited on ground
REF: 4.10.1

98. (380). With flaps out of up, Flight Envelope Protection is only available in FLCH and TO/GA modes

(A). True

(B). False
REF:4.20.25

99. (280). Select the correct statement

(A). When VNAV is selected and VNAV commands a descent with the MCP altitude window
above the current airplane altitude, the autopilot starts the descent

(B). When on an instrument approach using VNAV, selecting the missed approach altitude does
not interfere with the VNAV descent

(C). When VNAV is selected and VNAV commands a climb with the MCP altitude window below
the current airplane altitude, the autopilot starts the climb

(D). All the above are correct

REF:4.10.8

100. (110). What is the meaning of " NO ACTIVE ROUTE" in the CDU help window :-
(A). LNAV is selected but airplane is not on a heading to intercept the active leg
(B). LNAV is selected and active FMC route is not available
(C). LNAV is selected within 2.5 NM of the active leg
(D). Any one of the above condition is correct.
REF: 4.10.6

101. (40). In Flight with the Autopilot disengaged and both Flight Director switches OFF , the first Flight
Director switch positioned to ON activates the Flight Director in :-
(A). Currently selected autopilot modes
(B). HDG HOLD or TRK HOLD and V/S or FPA
(C). HDG SEL or TRK SEL and V/S or FPV
(D). any one of the above
REF: 4.10.2

102. (410). Which statement satisfies Autoland approach mode

(A). At 500 feet Runway alignment starts in strong crosswind conditions

(B). During flare FDs roll & pitch bar retract from view

(C). Autothrottle disconnects with thrust levers in reverse

(D). All of the above

REF:4.20.18/4.20.12
103. (20). If Autopilot (A/P) engage switches are pushed , and aircraft is on ground with flaps out of up ,
the Autopilot engages in which mode :-
(A). Selected Flight Director mode(s)
(B). HDG HOLD or TRK HOLD and V/S OR FPA
(C). HDG SEL OR TRK SEL AND V/S OR FPV
(D). Will not engage any mode, as switch function is inhibited on ground

REF: 4.10.1

104. (320). Autopilot rudder commands are added only during an autopilot approach and landing & the
autopilot controls nose wheel steering during rollout after an automatic landing

(A). True

(B). False
REF:4.20.1

105. (260). ATC Uplinked Speed can be transferred to the upper line only if the IAS/MACH upper line was
open

(A). True

(B). False
REF:4.10.5

106. (80). Climb / Continuous (CLB/CON) thrust switch is inoperative under following condition :-
(A). on the ground
(B). below 400 ft during takeoff
(C). in both A and B conditions together
(D). either A or B conditions
REF: 4.10.3

107. (340). When the Autopilot is in a degraded mode, the EICAS message "AUTOPILOT" accompanies

(A). Master Warning Lights & Aural Siren

(B). Master Warning Lights & Aural Beeper

(C). Master Caution Lights & Aural Siren

(D). Master Caution Lights & Aural Beeper

REF:4.30.1

108. (330). Besides other means, the autopilots can also be disengaged by overriding the control column,
control wheel, or rudder pedals with or without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated

(A). True

(B). False
REF:4.20.2
109. (300). When Approach (APP) Switch on the MCP is pushed

(A). localizer / lateral path captures when intercept track angle is within 120º of localizer course

(B). glideslope/glidepath captures when intercept track angle is within 80º of localizer or final
approach course

(C). Only A above is correct

(D). Both A & B are correct

REF:4.10.16

110. (30). When both Flight Director switches are OFF , the Autopilot engages in :
(A). selected Flight Director mode (s)
(B). HDG HOLD or TRK HOLD and V/S OR FPA
(C). HDG SEL OR TRK SEL AND V/S OR FPV
(D). will not engage any mode , as switch function is inhibited on ground
REF: 4.10.2

111. (230). On the ground, any one FD switch positioned ON arms the flight director in the takeoff go-
around (TO/GA) roll and pitch modes and the FMA appears on both PFDs and HUDs.

(A). True

(B). False
REF:4.10.2

112. (240). Autopilot DISENGAGE Bar when pulled down results in - find the most appropriate answer

(A). Sounds an aural warning & illuminates the master warning lights

(B). Disables bank angle protection

(C). A above is correct

(D). Both A & B above are correct

REF:4.10.2

113. (210). The AFDS provides autopilot guidance for Instrument Landing System (ILS), GPS Landing
System (GLS) and approaches utilizing Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN). Which of the following
statements are correct relating to Integrated Approach Navigation?
(A). Approaches flown with IAN procedures always use FMC computed glidepath (G/P) for
vertical path guidance.
(B). IAN requires using the APP switch on the MCP to arm roll and pitch modes as the airplane
nears the final approach segment.
(C). Pushing the LOC/FAC switch arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral
flight path to a runway using an ILS localizer beam or a lateral path provided by the FMC.
(D). All of the above are correct.
REF: 4.20.16
114. (60). Which are the correct statement(s) , when AUTOPILOT (A/P) DISENGAGE BAR is in pull down
position :-
(A). Enables autopilot engagement.
(B). disables bank angle protection
(C). hide the AMBER and BLACK stripes
(D). All of the above are correct
REF: 4.10.2

115. (370). The autothrottle can support stall protection if armed and disconnected by advancing thrust to
maintain minimum maneuvering speed or the speed set in the MCP, whichever is greater, except in FLCH
or TOGA pitch modes

(A). True

(B). False
REF:4.20.11

116. (310). The Autoflight systems provide controls as below

(A). The AFDS does not have direct control of the flight control surfaces

(B). The autopilot controls the elevators, ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers through the fly-by-wire
flight control system

(C). Only A above is correct

(D). Both A & B above are correct

REF:4.20.1

117. (390). During a go-around, with first push of TO/GA switch auto throttle activates in THR mode and
with the second push of TO/GA switch, auto throttle activates in thrust THR REF mode

(A). True

(B). False
REF:4.10.21

118. (120). A/T advances or retards thrust levers to provide 500 FPM vertical speed for each 1000 feet
altitude change in which of the following mode :-
(A). VNAV PTH
(B). VNAV SPD
(C). FL CH SPD
(D). TO/ GA
REF: 4.10.8
119. (180). ATC Heading, Track and Bank Angle Controls. The upper line displays the selected heading
or track and the lower line displays uplinked ATC heading or track target. The selected heading or track is
displayed on the PFD, HUD and ND. Which of the following statements is / are correct?
(A). For immediate clearances, pushing the datalink ACCEPT switch displays the clearance
heading or track value in the lower line of the window.
(B). Pushing the uplink transfer (XFR) switch transfers the value from the lower line to the upper
line. Pushing the datalink CNCL switch removes the clearance from the lower line.
(C). For conditional clearances, pushing the ACCEPT switch displays the new heading or track
value automatically in the lower line only after clearance condition is met.
(D). All of the above are correct.
REF: 4.10.10

120. (420). During a descent in VNAV SPD, the autothrottle may activate in HOLD mode and does not
support stall protection

(A). True

(B). False
REF:4.20.11

121. (140). When V/S or FPA is selected while in FLCH or VNAV , and the autothrottle switch is ARM then
A/T activates in which mode :--
(A). THR REF
(B). THR
(C). SPD
(D). MCP SPD
REF: 4.10.12

122. (150). The upper line displays speed selected by the IAS / MACH selector and lower line displays
uplinked ATC clearance. During climb the selected speed automatically changes from IAS to MACH at
____ Mach and during descent it automatically changes from MACH to IAS at ______ KIAS.

(A). 0.82/280

(B). 0.83/300

(C). 0.84/310

(D). 0.85/320
REF: 4.10.4/5

123. (70). If the autothrottle (A/T) ARM switches are arm , than the selected autothrottle activates
automatically, if the following AFDS mode is selected
(A). VNAV
(B). FL CH
(C). TO/GA
(D). Any one of the above
REF: 4.10.3
124. (130). In which of the following mode ,AFDS attempts to reach the MCP selected altitude within two
minutes if possible with available thrust , otherwise A/T uses IDLE or CLB thrust to reach the MCP
selected altitude .
(A). VNAV PTH
(B). VNAV SPD
(C). VNAV ALT
(D). FL CH SPD
REF: 4.10.8

125. (90). In IAS/ MACH window upper line displays speed selected by the IAS / MACH selector and
lower line displays .............
(A). flap placard speed minus 5knots ( flap extended)
(B). FMC control speed value
(C). Uplinked ATC speed clearance
(D). speed in Mach format
REF: 4.10.4

126. (200). Using ILS or GLS signals, the HUD takeoff system provides lateral guidance on the HUD for
takeoff roll and rejected takeoff. Select the statement(s) below that is / are correct in describing HUD
guidance during takeoff :
(A). Selecting a HUD TAKEOFF departure in the FMC and turning on either flight director enables
the guidance and sets HUD TO/GA as the active FMA roll mode.
(B). Once the airplane approaches the runway center line and airplane heading is within 45º of
runway heading, guidance becomes active and the ground roll reference symbol and
localizer deviation pointer appear.
(C). The lateral flight director bar on the PFD also moves with the guidance commands, and is
certified for use during a low visibility takeoff.
(D). Both a and b are correct.
REF: 4.20.14

127. (220). With both FDs off Autopilot can be selected in any Roll & Pitch Modes

(A). True

(B). False

128. (40). The Tuning and Control Panels (TCP) are used to tune and control;
(A). VHF & HF.
(B). SATCOM.
(C). Cabin Interphone and other airplane systems such as SELCAL.
(D). All of the above.
REF: 5.20.2

129. (60). When “-------- - X - ----------“ is displayed on the TCP

(A). There is no electrical power supply to the affected radio(X).
(B). The affected radio(X) is in data mode.
(C). The affected radio (X) is inoperative.
(D). All the above statements are not correct.
REF: 5.20.3
130. (170). The date mode can be selected and deselected by pushing the frequency transfer switch
when the word DATA is displayed on the active radio line. When a VHF or HF radio is in the data mode, it
is not available for voice communications. If the VHF radio is in the voice communications mode and the
DATA mode is desired on that radio TCP, how is DATA selected?
(A). Push the frequency transfer switch.
(B). Step through the list of standby frequencies until DATA appears select it to STBY, then push
the frequency transfer switch.
(C). Request a DATA frequency through Data Link, type it into the scratch pad and select it to the
Active frequency line.
(D). None of the above
REF: 5.20.5

131. (190). Choose the correct answer

(A). An oxygen mask microphone at a crew member station is enabled and the boom microphone
is disabled when the oxygen mask stowage doors are open.

(B). The oxygen mask microphone is disabled and the boom microphone is enabled when the left
oxygen mask stowage box door is closed and the RESET/TEST lever is pushed

(C). Only B above is correct

(D). Both A & B above are correct

REF:1.30.35

132. (10). If the "CAB" transmitter select switch on the Audio Control Panel is pushed twice within one
second:

(A). A priority call to the attendant station at L1 is initiated

(B). A normal cabin call which is already initiated will get reset.
(C). All calls from cabin side will be de-activated for 30 minutes.
(D). All the above statements are wrong
REF: 5.10.1

133. (240). EICAS advisory message RADIO TRANSMIT CAPT is displayed

(A). A microphone switch on Captain's side is on resulting in a radio to transmit for 30 seconds or
more.

(B). A microphone switch on Captain's side is on resulting in a radio to transmit for 60 seconds or
more.

(C). A microphone switch on any station is on resulting in a radio to transmit for 30 seconds or
more.

(D). A microphone switch on Captain's side is transmitting but does not prevent any other station
to transmit
REF:5.50.1
134. (370). Which position of the MIC/ INT switch Keys the boom microphone or Oxygen mask on the
selected RADIO TRANSMITTER or other system.

(A). MIC

(B). Center

(C). INT

(D). Neutral

REF: 5.10.2=542020

135. (320). How a normal priority call from the cabin displayed to the pilots.?

(A). TCP CABIN ALERT

(B). CABIN ALERT EICAS message

(C). TCP CABIN CALL

(D). CABIN CALL EICAS message

REF: 5.30.2=23112019

136. (360). Which position of the MIC/ INT switch Keys the boom microphone or Oxygen mask on the
flight Interphone.

(A). MIC

(B). Center

(C). INT

(D). Neural

REF: 5.10.2=542020

137. (130). Mark the correct statement(s) about the SATCOM calls.
(A). An incoming SATCOM call is annunciated by a SELCAL chime.
(B). A CALL light also illuminates on the ACP in case of an incoming SATCOM call..
(C). A SATCOM call can be answered only on the handset.
(D). Both (a) and (b) are correct.
REF: 5.20.6
138. (150). The radio communications systems consist of a very high frequency (VHF) communication
system, a high frequency (HF) communication system, the satellite communication system, and the
selective calling system. Three ice/data radios, designated VHF L (left), VHF C (center),and VHF R (right)
are installed. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the VHF communication
system?
(A). Each VHF radio is controlled only through its respective TCP.
(B). When a VHF radio is tuned to frequency 121.5, all flight crew automatically monitor the radio.
The receiver lights on all audio control panels illuminate.
(C). Only one VHF radio can operate in the data mode at a time.
(D). In the event of electrical power loss, the left VHF radio and left TCP continue to operate on
standby power.
REF: 5.20.2

139. (160). The selected radio for each TCP is indicated by ACTIVE and STBY titles above the large
white text of the radio name (L,C,R) and the current frequencies assigned. What is / are the correct
step(s) for selecting a stored frequency and making it the active frequency?

(A). Digitally entering the stored frequency into the scratch pad then selecting it to the active line.
(B). Stored frequencies are accessed from the main VHF page by using the standby frequency
step control. Selecting UP or DN scrolls through the stored frequencies
(C). Once the desired frequency is displayed in STBY, pushing the frequency transfer switch
makes it active.
(D). Both b and c are correct.
REF: 5.20.3

140. (100). A VHF or HF radio in data mode can be reverted to voice communication mode by;
(A). Transferring a voice frequency into the ACTIVE frequency window.
(B). The radio automatically reverts to voice mode after being load shed and re-energized.
(C). There is no need as voice communication is possible during data mode.
(D). Options (a) and (b) are correct
REF: 5.20.5

41. (310). How can the service interphone system be connected to the flight interphone system?

(A). Through the TCP

(B). Through the ACP
(C). Through the service interphone switch on the overhead panel
(D). Through the flight deck handset.

REF: 5.10.21=23112019

142. (350). By pushing which transmitter select switch twice within one second, places a priority call to a
selected cabin station

(A). SATCOM

(B). MIC

(C). CAB

(D). CAB ans SATCOM at the same time.

REF: 5.10.1 =542020

143. (250). What happens if you push the CAB transmitter select switch on the Audio Control Panel
(ACP) twice within one second?

(A). Deselects the transmitter

(B). Deselects receiver audio

(C). it places a call to the purser station

(D). It places a priority call to a selected cabin station.

REF: 5.10.1

144. (230). Select the correct statement

(A). ATC uplinked clearance can contain both a radio frequency and a transponder code. Both
frequency and the code will appear in the scratch pad together on TCP

(B). ATC uplinked clearance can contain only one item at a time i.e. either a radio frequency or a
transponder code

(C). Uplinked VHF & VHF frequencies appear together on scratch pad

(D). One clearance containing both a radio frequency and a transponder code will appear in the
scratch pad only when the appropriate page is displayed on the TCP
REF:5.20.4

145. (340). Which EICAS communication message will appropriate when pilot received alert over cabin
interphone

(A). CABIN CALL

(B). CABIN READY

(C). CABIN ALERT

(D). GROUND CALL

REF: 5.50.2=542020

146. (140). Mark the correct statement(s) regarding a Ground crew call to the Flight deck.
(A). The call will be alerted in the flight deck by an EICAS communication message "GROUND
CALL".
(B). The call can be answered by selecting MIC switch position of an ACP mic/interphone switch
or control wheel switch.
(C). a hand microphone push-to-talk switch
(D). All the above statements are correct.
REF: 5.30.1
147. (110). An EICAS message “RADIO TRANSMIT CAPT” is displayed. This means that;
(A). VHF or HF radio transmits for more than 30 seconds,
(B). The Captain’s TCP has failed.
(C). The Captain’s microphone is unable to transmit in radio mode.
(D). All the above statements are false.
REF: 5.50.1

148. (80). What is the display on the TCP if an ATC uplink containing a VHF frequency is accepted?
(A). The uplink frequency is displayed in the scratchpad preceded by a UL indicator.
(B). The indications will come only on AUX Display.
(C). The uplink frequency is automatically displayed on the STBY line on VHF main page
(D). None of the above
REF: 5.20.4

149. (70). When on standby power only mode, the following TCP(s) are available
(A). all three TCP
(B). only The Right (F/O) TCP and centre TCP
(C). only The Captain (Left) TCP is available
(D). None of the TCPs , only ISFD will be available.
REF: 5.20.3

150. (260). How many Frequencies can we you store on the STORED VHF pages of the TCP?

(A). 12

(B). 24

(C). 40

(D). 50

REF: 5.10.7

151. (330). The airplane's automatic dependant surveillance (ADS) can be in contact with up to ____
different facilities at one time.

(A). 2

(B). 3

(C). 5

(D). 10

REF: 5.40.78=23112019
152. (30). As the Quick Donning Oxygen Mask stowage unit doors are open;
(A). The microphone in the oxygen mask gets enabled.
(B). The boom microphone gets enabled.
(C). There is a separate switch for the microphone in the oxygen mask.
(D). Both (a) and (b) are correct.
REF: 5.10.20

153. (290). There are three independent VHF voice /Data radios . Which one(s) is/are configured for voice
communication only?

(A). VHF L

(B). VHF C

(C). VHF R

(D). VHF L and VHF R.

REF: 5.20.3=23112019

154. (120). The SATCOM main menu page allows the crew to;
(A). Initiate and answer SATCOM calls
(B). Monitor call status
(C). Access lower level pages
(D). All of the above.
REF: 5.20.6

155. (50). Select the correct statement(s) regarding VHF radios.

(A). All the three VHF radios can be configured for voice as well as data communication.
(B). VHF L is configured for voice communication only.
(C). VHF R is configured for data communication only.
(D). Both (b) and (c) are correct
REF: 5.20.3

156. (280). There are three independent VHF voice/data radios. Which one(s) can be used for both voice
or data communication?

(A). VHF L and VHF R

(B). VHF L and VHF C

(C). VHF C

(D). VHF C and VHF R

REF: 5.20.3=23112019
157. (180). Following switching can be done at AFT AISLE STAND PANEL ACP

(A). CAB and SAT switches cannot be selected at the same time for cabin to SATCOM
conferencing

(B). Pushing the CAB transmitter select switch twice within one second places a priority call to a
selected cabin station

(C). Both A & B above are correct

(D). Only B above is correct

REF:5.20.6/5.10.1

158. (20). Generator Control (GEN CTRL) Switches in ON:

(A). arms generator control breaker (allows it to close automatically when power is available)
(B). closes generator field
(C). Both (a) & (b)
(D). None of the above
REF: 6.10.2=

159. (190). In Flight , the RAT deploys automatically , in the following condition(S)
(A). Any one Engine has failed
(B). All three hydraulic system pressure are LOW
(C). Any one APU generator fails
(D). Any one of the above
REF: 6.20.3=

160. (270). Mark the most appropriate statement related to automatic deployment of RAT
(A). loss of all electrical power to captain’s and first officer’s flight instruments
(B). both engines have failed.
(C). loss of all four EMPs and an engine fails on takeoff or landing
(D). Any of the above
REF: 6.20.3=

161. (180). The Main Battery provides power for :

(A). Refueling Operations
(B). Towing Operations
(C). Electric Braking as backup source
(D). All of the above
REF: 6.20.4=

162. (290). EICAS message " MAIN BATTERY DISCH" means

(A). The Main Battery is discharging
(B). The Hot Battery bus is not energized
(C). One of the cause given in A or B has occurred
(D). The Main Battery is Failed
REF: 6.30.1=
163. (30). Generator Control (GEN CTRL) Switches in OFF:
(A). opens generator control breaker
(B). opens generator field
(C). resets fault protection systems
(D). All of the above
REF: 6.10.3=

164. (230). Primary source of power for flight control electronics is :

(A). PMG
(B). PMA
(C). Main Battery Power
(D). APU Battery Power
REF: 6.20.5=

165. (220). Total RPDUs for the electrical load distribution are :-
(A). 4
(B). 15
(C). 17
(D). 12
REF: 6.20.5=

166. (260). External Power ON MODE is active when :-

(A). at least one APU generator is ON
(B). First Forward external power receptacle is connected but not selected ON , and there are no
other power sources
(C). at least one forward external power receptacle is connected and selected ON with the APU
and Engine generators Off,
(D). All of the above
REF: 6.20.12=

167. (60). AFT External Power (AFT EXT PWR) Switch:

(A). Push – (if AVAIL light illuminated) closes aft external power contactor.
(B). Push – (if ON light illuminated) closes aft external power contactor.
(C). Either (a) or (b)
(D). All of the above
REF: 6.10.4=

168. (460). Electrical sources for flight control electronics/power have three redundancies provided by

(A). Two engine driven PMGs, one per engine, airplane's 28 Vdc bus distribution system and a
backup system of dedicated batteries.

(B). Three engine driven PMGs, airplane's 28 Vdc bus distribution system and a backup system
of dedicated batteries.

(C). Four engine driven PMGs, airplane's 28 Vdc bus distribution system and a backup system of
dedicated batteries.

(D). None of the above are correct

REF:6.20.5
169. (250). Which mode is active when the first forward external power receptacles is connected (not
selected ON) and there are no other power sources?
(A). Ground Handling Mode
(B). Ground Service Mode
(C). On - Ground Battery Only Mode
(D). External Power ON mode
REF: 6.20.10=

170. (50). APU Generator (APU GEN) Switches OFF:

(A). Closes generator control breaker
(B). Closes generator field
(C). Resets fault protection systems
(D). All of the above
REF: 6.10.3=

171. (120). The electrical power sources are:

(A). one Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
(B). one main battery & one APU battery
(C). three flight control Permanent Magnet Generators
(D). All of the above
REF: 6.20.3/4=

172. (10). Forward External Power (FWD EXT PWR) Switches :

(A). Push – (if AVAIL light illuminated) closes forward external power contactor.
(B). Push – (if ON light illuminated) closes forward external power contactor.
(C). Push – (if AVAIL light illuminated) opens forward external power contactor.
(D). None of the above.
REF: 6.10.2=

174. (110). The electrical power sources are:

(A). four variable frequency engine starter/generators
(B). two variable frequency APU starter/generators
(C). three external AC power receptacles
(D). All of the above
REF: 6.20.1=

175. (300). The Cabin / Utility switch controls :-

(A). Passenger Seat system , Galley , Video surveillance cameras
(B). In-flight entertainment system,Passenger Seat system , Galley , Video surveillance cameras
and cabin lights
(C). In-flight entertainment system,Passenger Seat system , Video surveillance cameras and
flight deck personal electronic device power outlets
(D). galleys , most cabin lights and other non-essential cabin utility loads
REF: 6.10.3=
176. (200). The Electrical System of the B787 uses following power voltages :-
(A). 115 Vac
(B). 110Vac
(C). 28 Vdc
(D). (A) , (C) and 235 Vac
REF: 6.20.1=

177. (510). EICAS message MAIN BATTERY LOW means ?

(A). Main Battery is discharging

(B). APU and Main Battery water is Low Level.

(C). Main Battery Charge is LOW.

(D). Main Battery water is Low Level.

REF: 6.30.1=442020

178. (170). Primary source of electrical power for EEC is

(A). PMG
(B). PMA
(C). PMC
(D). APU
REF: 6.20.5=

179. (240). On ground which electrical MODE is active ,when the battery switch is selected to ON while
the airplane is on ground and there are no other power source connected :-
(A). Ground Handling Mode
(B). Ground Service Mode
(C). On - Ground Battery Only Mode
(D). External Power ON mode
REF: 6.20.11=

180. (370). There are four main 235 Vac buses, designated L1, L2, R1 and R2. These buses can be
energized by several different sources, depending on the source availability and the operation being
conducted. On the ground, with only the APU power available (no external power or engine generator
power), each APU generator energizes ___ of the ___ main 235 Vac buses.
(A). One; two
(B). Two; four
(C). One; four
(D). one; two
REF: 6.20.7=
182. (130). Select the correct statement :
(A). The engine starter/generators function as electrically powered starter motors for engine start.
(B). The Engine starter/generators function as engine driven generators once the engines are
running
(C). Both (a) & (b)
(D). None of the above
REF: 6.20.1=

183. (210). Electrical power for APU start can be provided by :-

(A). AFT external power receptecles
(B). APU Battery or Engine generated Power
(C). Main Battery with RAT deployed
(D). none of the above
REF: 6.20.2=

184. (380). There are multiple 28 Vdc buses. Which of the following is / are true of the 28 V dc power
distribution system?
(A). The 235 Vac system provides power to the 28 Vdc system through power conversion
devices.
(B). Two electrical brake power supply units regulate power for the exclusive use of the airplane
electric brake system. Each of the two power supplies receive separate 28 Vdc inputs.
(C). The higher amperage (greater than 10 amps) loads are distributed by the RPDUs. The lower
amperage (10 amps or less) are distributed directly by the bus system.
(D). Both a and c are correct.
REF: 6.20.8/9

185. (160). APU starter(s) can be powered by

(A). FWD external power.
(B). An engine generator.
(C). The APU battery.
(D). Either (a) or (b) or (c).
REF: 6.20.2=

187. (70). AFT External Power ON Light is illuminated :

(A). Aft external power is powering the large motor power system for right engine start.
(B). Aft external power is plugged in and power quality is acceptable
(C). Both (a) & (b)
(D). All of the above.
REF: 6.10.4=

188. (140). Select a correct statement

(A). Each engine has two 235 Vac variable frequency starter/generators.
(B). Electrical power for engine start can be provided by external power, APU generated power, or
the opposite engine’s generated power.
(C). The electrical system automatically selects both starter/generators to engage
(D). All of the above
REF: 6.20.1=
189. (420). In addition to traditional electrically powered systems, the 787 electrical system powers engine
start, pressurization, stabilizer trim, and wheel brake systems

(A). True

(B). False

REF:6.20.1

190. (310). The IFE switch controls :-

(A). Passenger Seat system , Galley , Video surveillance cameras
(B). In-flight entertainment system,Passenger Seat system , Galley , Video surveillance cameras
and cabin lights
(C). In-flight entertainment system,Passenger Seat system , Video surveillance cameras and
flight deck personal electronic device power outlets
(D). galleys , most cabin lights and other non-essential cabin utility loads.
REF: 6.10.2=

191. (350). The engine has two starter / generators function as electrically powered starter motors for
engine start, and as engine driven generators once the engines are running. Each engine has two
235Vac variable frequency starter generators. L1 and L2 are connected to the left engine. R1 and R2 are
connected to the right engine. Both function as starters to electrically start the engine. What power
sources are available to the engine starters for ground start?
(A). APU generated power.
(B). External power.
(C). Opposite engine’s generated power.
(D). All of the above
REF: 6.20.1=

193. (180). APU battery powers

(A). APU Controller, air inlet door
(B). APU Fuel Shut-off Valve
(C). DC Fuel Pump.
(D). APU fire detection system.
REF: 7.30.2=

194. (640). Choose the most appropriate answer

(A). During ground starts, the autostart system monitors engine parameters

(B). During a windmilling in-flight start, the EEC monitors engine parameters

(C). The EEC automatically selects the appropriate ignitor(s) for successive ground or in-flight
starts

(D). (A) & (B) above are correct

REF:7.20.11
195. (700). How many and what are the levels of control of the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) in
Alternate Mode ?

(A). Primary and secondary

(B). Primary and Back up

(C). Soft and Hard

(D). Primary , secondary and backup.

REF: 7.20.4=23112019

196. (40). Engine EGT display on the EICAS fills amber when
(A). The maximum start EGT limit is reached.
(B). The maximum continuous EGT limit is reached.
(C). The maximum take-off EGT limit is reached.
(D). The EGT indication fails.
REF: 7.10.6

197. (390). In the alternate Mode of EEC :

(A). Loss thrust is available for the same thrust lever position as compared to normal mode of
EEC
(B). Overspeed protection for N2 (Red Line) is not available.
(C). schedule (N1 schedule) provides equal or greater thrust than the normal mode for the same
thrust lever position
(D). automatically disengages.
REF: 7.20.4=

198. (50). There are seven sets of spoilers, 4 outboard and 3 inboard of the flaperons, on the upper
surface of each wing. All three hydraulic systems supply 5 pairs of spoilers. The remaining two spoiler
pairs are individually powered by two electrical buses.
(A). True.
(B). False.
REF: 9.20.19

199. (70). Alternate pitch trim commands have priority over primary pitch trim commands in all flight
control modes. Does alternate pitch trim operate in the same manner in all flight control modes?
(A). Yes.
(B). No. In the normal mode, alternate pitch trim operates differently on the ground than it does in
flight.
(C). No. In the secondary or direct modes, alternate pitch trim operates differently on the ground
than it does in flight.
(D). Option (B) and (C) both are correct.
REF: 9.20.11
200. (420). Select the correct statement

(A). In the secondary or direct modes, primary & alternate pitch trims operate in the same manner
on the ground and in flight; the stabilizer is directly positioned when the pilot uses the
respective pitch trim switches.

(B). In the normal mode, primary pitch trim, on ground directly positions the stabilizer whereas in
flight makes inputs to the PFCs to change the trim reference speed.

(C). In the normal mode, PFCs automatically provide pitch compensation for thrust changes,
configuration changes (gear, flap, speed brake), turbulence, and turns up to 30° of bank

(D). All above are correct

REF:9.20.10

201. (60). The alternate pitch trim is controlled by the dual pitch trim switches located on the control stand
next to the parking brake lever. They are spring loaded to neutral. When both switches are pushed they:
(A). The stabilizer is directly positioned when the pilot uses the alternate pitch trim switches.
(B). In flight, the alternate pitch trim switches make changes to the trim reference speed.
(C). In the secondary or direct modes, alternate pitch trim operates the same on the ground and in
flight
(D). All of the above are correct.
REF: 9.20.11

202. (460). The autodrag function operates by deflecting the ailerons upward and raising the two most
outboard spoilers and he function is active during automatic approaches only

(A). True

(B). False
REF:9.20.20

203. (270). Mark the correct statement regarding Flaperons:

(A). The flaperons are located between the inboard and outboard flaps on both wings
(B). In the normal mode, flaperon are used for roll control with the flaps either retracted or
extended.
(C). The flaperons also droop with the trailing edge flaps to improve slow speed performance.
(D). All three statements are correct
REF: 9.20.2

204. (120). On the ground, if the speed brake lever :

(A). moves to DOWN and all spoiler panels retract if either thrust lever is advanced to the takeoff
thrust position.
(B). moves to DOWN and all spoiler panels extend if both reverse thrust levers are raised to the
reverse idle detent
(C). moves to UP and all spoiler panels retract if either thrust lever is advanced to the takeoff
thrust position.
(D). moves to DOWN and all spoiler panels retract if both thrust lever is advanced to the takeoff
thrust position.
REF: 9.10.6
205. (480). EICAS message "FLIGHT CONTROL MODE" with Caution

(A). The flight control system is in the secondary mode

(B). Two or more flight control surfaces are inoperative

(C). One or both Flight Control Surfaces switches are in the Off position

(D). The flight control system is in the direct mode

REF:9.30.1

206. (330). Primary Flight Control System Modes are:

(A). Normal, Primary and Secondry
(B). Normal, Secondry and Direct.
(C). Direct, Primary and Secondry
(D). Direct, Primary and Normal
REF: 9.20.5

207. (240). Pitch control is provided by:

(A). Two elevators
(B). A movable horizontal stabilizer
(C). The two elevators and horizontal stabilizer work together to provide pitch control.
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 9.20.2

208. (30). Vertical and lateral gust suppression enhances ride quality in the presence of gusts and
turbulence. When is gust suppression available?
(A). In all three flight control modes. The function is only active with the autopilot engaged in the
altitude hold or VNAV level flight modes.
(B). In the secondary and direct modes only.
(C). In the normal mode only. The function is only active with the autopilot engaged in the altitude
hold or VNAV level flight modes.
(D). In the normal mode only. The function is only active with the autopilot disengaged in the
altitude hold or VNAV level flight modes.
REF: 9.20.17

209. (210). The pilot controls consist of:

(A). alternate flap switches, alternate pitch trim switches, rudder trim selector
(B). the flap lever, the speedbrake lever, two control columns
(C). two control wheels, two pairs of rudder pedals,
(D). All three options (A),(B)and (C) are correct.
REF: 9.20.1

210. (360). EICAS advisory message STAB GREENBAND is displayed if:

(A). computed green band disagrees with pressure transducer data

(B). two transducer values are not within the set tolerance
C). either transducer has failed
(D). Any of the above conditions can cause the above EICAS message
REF:9.20.15
211. (140). The column cutout function :
(A). Is designed to stop the effects of uncommanded pitch trim input from jammed or failed pitch
trim switches
(B). If remains active for more than 20 sec,the stabilizer L2/R2 EICAS advisory is displayed.
(C). Is not active while on the ground.
(D). Options (A),(B)and (C) all are correct.
REF: 9.20.14

212. (170). Mark the correct statement :The slat autogap function
(A). Is only available in the primary mode when the slats are in the middle position and the
airspeed is above 225 knots.
(B). Is only available in the primary mode when the slats are in the middle position and the
airspeed is below 225 knots.
(C). Is available in the secondary mode also.
(D). The autogap trip threshold is a function of aoa(angle-of-attack) only.
REF: 9.20.23

213. (280). Mark the correct statement regarding Ailerons:

(A). The ailerons are located outboard of the outboard flaps on each wing.
(B). The ailerons and spoilers droop with the trailing edge flaps to improve slow speed
performance.
(C). During low speed flight, the ailerons operate to augment roll control.
(D). All three statements are correct
REF: 9.20.2

214. (380). In the Alternate Flaps Selection

(A). Full slat extension is available but max position for flaps is 20

(B). Flap and slat load relief are available in alternate mode

(C). Slats extend first before flaps and slats retraction is inhibited until the flaps are fully up

(D). Asymmetry and uncommanded motion protection and slat autogap and pregap are not
available
REF:9.10.9

215. (20). When is the wheel to rudder cross-tie function available in the 787?
(A). In all three flight control modes.
(B). In the secondary and direct modes only.
(C). This function increases maximum sideslip and vertical fin loads.
(D). Both (A and (C) are correct.
REF: 9.20.17
216. (290). Mark the correct statement :
(A). Yaw control is provided by a single rudder.
(B). During takeoff, the rudder becomes aerodynamically effective at approximately 60 knots.
(C). Flaps and slats provide high lift for takeoff, approach, and landing.
(D). All three statements are correct
REF: 9.20.2

217. (440). Gust Suppression - Choose the correct answer

(A). Only suppresses vertical gusts

(B). Only suppresses lateral gusts

(C). Gust suppression results in movement of control wheel, control column, or rudder pedal

(D). This function is active only with the autopilot engaged in Altitude Hold or VNAV level flight
modes
REF:9.20.17

218. (470). Choose the correct answer

(A). In the primary mode, the flaps and slats are controlled together and positioned using center
hydraulic system motors

(B). In the secondary mode the slats and flaps are controlled separately and can be positioned by
hydraulic or electric motors

(C). Slat Autogap operates in the primary mode whereas Pregap operates in the secondary mode

(D). All above are correct

REF:9.20.22

219. (230). Message FLIGHT CONTROLS is displayed if:

(A). Multiple ACE failures cause the loss of a significant number of control surfaces. or
(B). Other significant flight control system faults are detected. or
(C). Multiple hydraulic system failures cause the loss of a significant number of control surfaces.
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 9.20.1

220. (110). A digital readout on the EICAS displays rudder position in 0.2 increments from 0.0 to 1.0 unit
and in 0.5 increments between 1.0 and 17.0 units of trim. When the rudder signal is not present or invalid,
the digital readout, left / right indication and pointer _____
(A). are not displayed on the rudder position indicator
(B). are displayed on the rudder position indicator.
(C). Are displayed at the last known position.
(D). Options (B) and (C) both are correct.
REF: 9.10.5
221. (80). The 787 stabilizer is electrically controlled. In NORM (normal), electrical power is supplied to
the related stabilizer control unit. If unscheduled stabilizer motion is detected
(A). Electrical power to the related stabilizer control unit is automatically shut off.
(B). Center and / or right system hydraulic power to the related stabilizer trim control module is
automatically shut off.
(C). Electrical power to the related stabilizer control unit is manually shut off.
(D). Both a and b are correct.
REF: 9.10.5

222. (200). The primary flight control system:

(A). Uses conventional control wheel, column, and pedal inputs.
(B). Mechanically command the flight control surfaces.
(C). The system provides conventional control feel and pitch responses to speed and trim
changes.
(D). Options (A) and (C) both are correct.
REF: 9.20.1

223. (260). Mark the correct statement :

(A). The two elevators and horizontal stabilizer work together to provide pitch control
(B). The flaperons and ailerons provide roll control, assisted by asymmetric spoilers.
(C). The flaperons are located between the inboard and outboard flaps on both wings.
(D). All three statements are correct.
REF: 9.20.2

224. (40). Mark the correct statement related to Rudder Trim:

(A). Manual rudder trim operation is provided in all three flight control modes by a rudder trim
selector located on the aft aisle stand.
(B). Two rudder trim rates are available.
(C). Automatic rudder trim is provided in the normal flight control mode.
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 9.20.18

225. (320). Mark the correct statement

(A). The flight control lock FAIL light is illuminated when a lock switch is in the LOCK position and
any of the associated surfaces do not lock.
(B). The flight control surfaces automatically unlock when groundspeed exceeds 40 knots.
(C). the EICAS advisory message FLT CONTROL LOCKED is displayed when a lock switch is in
the LOCK position.
(D). Options (A),(B) and(C) are correct.
REF: 9.20.3

226. (370). Alternate PITCH TRIM Switches when pushed

(A). Directly move the stabilizer on the ground & in the air in the secondary and direct modes

(B). in the air in normal mode, change the trim reference airspeed

(C). B above is correct

(D). Both A & B above are correct

REF:9.20.11
227. (20). The NPS Deviation Pointer indicates the navigation path relative to the airplane position.Which
of the following statements is / are true regarding the NPS Deviation Pointer?
(A). It is displayed on the lateral deviation scale whenever the scale is displayed.
(B). It is displayed on the vertical deviation scale only in the descent phase of flight.
(C). It is a filled magenta triangle when parked at the deflection limit.
(D). Both(A) and(B) options are correct.
REF: 10.10.10

228. (270). ILS/GLS approach reference data appears when an appropriate approach has been selected
to the active route and is

(A). Manually tuned

(B). Auto-tuned and the airplane is < 150 NM from the destination airport, < 50 NM from Top of
Descent & FMC is in descent mode

(C). Only B above is correct

(D). Both A & B above are correct

REF:10.10.13

229. (300). HUD Slip/Skid Indicator below flight path vector symbol is available as long as flight path
vector symbol is in view

(A). True

(B). False
REF:10.12.23

230. (190). The source for Airspeed / Mach indications on the PFD Airspeed indication is :
(A). IRS
(B). ADRS
(C). FMA
(D). HUD
REF: 10.10.1

231. (150). Mark the correct statement related to Multifunction Keypad (MFK)
(A). There are two MFKs on the forward aisle stand, one on each side of the lower DU.
(B). Pushing a “Lower MFD” switch displays the associated format.
(C). Pushing the same switch a second time causes the MFD format to be removed and the
default format to be displayed.
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 10.10.52

232. (240). Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) and Required Navigation Performance (RNP)
indications are displayed when:

(A). LNAV is armed or active

(B). VNAV is active
(C). TO/GA roll mode is active
(D). Anyone of the above
REF:10.10.9
233. (90). The VSD can display a FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line for approaches that have a
designated approach angle.This display:
(A). Has a dashed line that extends 10 nautical miles for situational awareness. It is anchored to
the missed approach waypoint, not the runway.
(B). Has a dashed line that extends 20 nautical miles for situational awareness. It is anchored to
the missed approach waypoint, not the runway.
(C). Has a dashed line that extends 30 nautical miles for situational awareness. It is anchored to
the missed approach waypoint, not the runway.
(D). Has a dashed line that extends 40 nautical miles for situational awareness. It is anchored to
the missed approach waypoint, not the runway.
REF: 10.10.35

234. (110). The map and plan keys allow access to drop down menus when selected. Each key is ______
when available for selection and _____ when currently selected. All map keys and information selections
are highlighted by a _________ box when the cursor is placed on top of the item.
(A). cyan; magenta; green
(B). gray; green; magenta
(C). white; magenta; green
(D). Gray, green,cyan
REF: 10.10.44

235. (200). The source for Attitude, steering and Miscellaneous indications on PFD Attitude indications is :

(A). IRS
(B). ADRS
(C). FMA
(D). HUD
REF: 10.10.1

237. (350). Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) Attitude can be Reset either on ground or in flight

(A). True

(B). False
REF:10.20.15

238. (260). IAN Indications on PFD

(A). Final Approach Course Pointer is in view when distance from missed approach point is less
than 25 NM & airplane position is within 60º of FAC

(B). Glidepath Pointer is in view when airplane is less than 6,000 feet AFE, less than 25 NM from
missed approach point, airplane position is within 60º of FAC & airplane track is within 90º
of FAC

(C). Both A & B are correct

(D) None of the above
REF: 10.10.16/17
239. (360). The ADRS provides primary, secondary, and standby air data and gathers data from

(A). Total six static ports, three located on the left side of the airplane and three on the right side
& there are total three pitot probes

(B). Two angle-of-attack (AOA) sensors

(C). Static air temperature comes from the ADRS using total air temperature probe information

(D). All above are correct

REF:10.20.17/18

240. (630). Spar fuel valve opens when

(A). START selector is moved to START and FUEL CONTROL switch is put to RUN

(B). Either the START selector is moved to START or the FUEL CONTROL switch is put to RUN

(C). EEC controls the spar valve position irrespective of START selector or FUEL CONTROL
switch poison

(D). None of above are correct

REF:7.10.14/15

241. (380). After the hard alternate mode is selected :-

(A). Both the EEC mode switch should indicate NORM and ALTN.
(B). Both EEC mode switch should indicate ALTN only.
(C). Only the effected engine EEC mode switch should indicate ALTN.
(D). Only the effected Engine EEC mode switch should indicate NORM and ALTN.
REF: 7.20.4=

242. (620). Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) is available

(A). when the flight controls are operating in normal mode, and the EEC is in normal or alternate
modes

(B). when the flight controls are either operating in normal or secondary modes, and the EEC is in
normal modes

(C). when the flight controls are either operating in normal or secondary modes, and the EEC is in
normal or alternate modes

(D). Only during takeoff, when the flight controls are operating in normal mode, and the EEC is in
normal or alternate modes

REF:7.20.6
243. (160). EEC selects Approach Idle;
(A). To decrease acceleration time for Go-Around.
(B). In-flight when the flaps are commanded to 25 or greater.
(C). In-flight when Landing Gear is selected DOWN.
(D). All the above statements are correct.
REF: 7.20.8=

244. (290). Select the most correct statement regarding : For Engine oil system :-

(A). There is no minimum oil quantity limit and oil temperature is measured prior to entering the
engine.
(B). There is no minimum oil quantity limit and both oil temperature is measured after leaving the
engine.
(C). There is minimum oil quantity limit.
(D). There is no minimum oil quantity limit and no indication is available if there is a low oil
quantity.
REF: 7.20.15=

245. (240). In the APU attended mode, if there is APU controller failure :-
(A). APU will shutdown after cooldown period.
(B). APU will immediately shutdown.
(C). There is No EICAS advisery message.
(D). APU LIMIT caution message will be displayed.
REF: 7.30.3=

246. (440). Electronic Engine control(EEC)

(A). Does not have bulk authority over engine operation and uses thrust levers inputs to
automatically control toward and reverse trust.
(B). Have full authority over engine operation and uses both N1 and N2 RPM as the parameter for
setting thrust.
(C). Have full authority over engine operation and uses N1 RPM as parameter for setting.
(D). Have full authority only when auto is engaged.
REF: 7.20.3=

247. (90). Which of the following Secondary Engine Indication(s) are displayed only in digital counters on
EICAS?
(A). Oil Pressure and Oil Temperature.
(B). Oil Temperature and Vibration.
(C). Fuel Flow and Oil Quantity.
(D). None of the above.
REF: 7.20.2=

248. (340). Approach Idle is selected in flight if :-

(A). The flaps are commanded to less than 15
(B). The flaps are commanded to 25 or greater.
(C). The opposite engine bleed air valve is open.
(D). The flaps are commanded to 15 or greater
REF: 7.20.8=
249. (570). FUEL CONTROL Switch in RUN

(A). opens the spar fuel valve, arms the engine fuel valve (the EEC opens the valve when
required) & arms the selected ignitors (the EEC turns the ignitors on when required)

(B). opens the spar fuel valve, opens the engine fuel valve & arms the selected ignitors

(C). opens the spar fuel valve, arms the engine fuel valve & turns the ignitors on

(D). arms the spar fuel valve, arms the engine fuel valve (the EEC opens the valve when
required) & arms the selected ignitors (the EEC turns the ignitors on when required)

REF:7.10.14

250. (480). Secondary engine indications are :

(A). Displayed full time in central lower display unit.
(B). Displayed on the selected MFD and are automatically displayed when a secondary engine
parameter is exceeded.
(C). Displayed on central lower display unit only.
(D). Not to be displayed with primary engine indication.
REF: 7.20.2=

251. (190). Select the correct statement(s) with regards to APU start
(A). The Common Core System fire detection and fuel management applications are necessary to
start the APU.
(B). The APU is designed to start with no pumps operating on ground and in-flight up to 14000ft.
(C). APU can be started only with AC power.
(D). Both (a) and (b).
REF: 7.30.2=

252. (100). If an engine’s EGT crosses maximum continuous limit during take-off, then;
(A). The digital indication, the box enclosing the same change colour to amber.
(B). The dial of the EGT indication as well as the needle also become amber.
(C). Both (a) and (b)
(D). EGT indications are inhibited from changing colour to amber during take-off for five minutes.
REF: 7.20.3=

254. (300). Maximum Reverse Thrust is available :

(A). at Interlock position.

(B). When the interlock releases.
(C). Either at interlock position or after AFT of interlock position.
(D). When the forward thrust lever is at a position greater than idle.
REF: 7.20.16=
255. (500). The Secondary Engine Indications are automatically displayed when
(A). a fuel control switch is moved to cut off in flight
(B). an engine fire switch is pulled in flight
(C). engine N2 rpm is below idle in flight
(D). all above
REF: 7.20.2=

256. (10). When there is a difference between the actual engine N1 and commanded N1 and engine N1
is not closing towards commanded N1;

(A). "ENG THRUST (L or R)" alert displays on EICAS.

(B). Affected engine’s commanded N1 sector on EICAS display fills amber.
(C). Both (a) & (b) are correct.
(D). None of the above are correct.
REF: 7.10.5=

257. (80). “RUNNING” displays in green on an engine N2 indication on the EICAS;

(A). If the FUEL CONTROL switch is in RUN.
(B). If the engine is at or above idle.
(C). If the concerned engine is being dry motored.
(D). Both (a) and (b).
REF: 7.10.9=

258. (250). Select the most appropriate statement regarding inflight start
(A). Crossbleed start is required if airspeed is below the recommended airspeed for start.
(B). Crossbleed start is required if airspeed is above the recommended airspeed for start.
(C). Windmill start can be done inflight.
(D). Only Crossbleed start can be done inflight.
REF: 7.20.11=

259. (60). In-Flight Engine Start Envelope will appear on EICAS;

(A). if the affected engine fire switch is in.
(B). if FUEL CONTROL switch in CUTOFF or N2 below idle rpm.
(C). Both options (A) and (B) are correct
(D). Both options (A) and (B) are wrong.
REF: 7.10.7=

260. (450). The Engines of 787 are :-

(A). Dual Rotor, axial flow, high bypass ratio high compression.
(B). Dual Rotor, radial flow, high bypass ratio high compression.
(C). Dual Rotor, centripetal flow, high bypass ratio high compression.
(D). Dual Rotor, axial flow, high bypass ratio of low compression.
REF: 7.20.1=
261. (140). When the FUEL CONTROL switch is put to RUN
(A). Opens the spar fuel valve.
(B). Arms the engine fuel valve.
(C). Arms the selected igniters.
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 7.10.14=

262. (310). When the amber REV indication is displayed above each digital N1 indication:-
(A). Reverse thrust levers cannot be moved beyond the interlock position.
(B). Maximum Reverse Thrust is available.
(C). when the reverser is in transit
(D). No reverse thrust is available.
REF: 7.20.16=

263. (120). During an auto-start on ground the EEC aborts the auto-start sequence immediately in which
of the following circumstances;
(A). A HOT start is detected.
(B). A HUNG start is detected.
(C). No N1 rotation.
(D). No EGT rise.
REF: 7.20.10=

264. (320). If the EICAS advisory message ENG REV LIMITED (L or R) is displayed then
(A). The reversers cannot be deployed when commanded, or can deploy only with reverse thrust
limited to idle
(B). The reversers can deploy with maximum reverse thrust.
(C). The reverse thrust levers can be moved beyond the interlock position.
(D). None of the above.
REF: 7.20.16=

265. (130). For cargo compartment fire extinguishing:

(A). Three fire extinguishing bottles are installed
(B). Four fire extinguishing bottles are installed
(C). Six fire extinguishing bottles are installed
(D). Eight fire extinguishing bottles are installed
REF: 8.20.6=

266. (250). Cargo compartment fire protection consists of these systems

(A). smoke detection and fire extinguishing

(B). smoke detection and overheat detection
(C). smoke detection and overheat detection and fire extinguishing
(D). overheat detection and fire extinguishing
REF: 8.20.4=22112019
267. (80). Select the correct statement regarding APU fire extinguishing system:
(A). There are two APU fire extinguishing bottles
(B). There is one APU fire extinguishing bottle
(C). Rotating the switch in either direction discharges the extinguishing bottle into APU
compartment
(D). Both (b) and (c) are correct
REF: 8.20.4=

268. (90). Which is the correct about main wheel well fire protection:
(A). The main wheel well has only fire detection
(B). The main wheel well has only overheat detection
(C). The main wheel well has fire and overheat detection
(D). The main wheel well has fire and overheat detection and extinguishing system
REF: 8.20.4=

269. (210). How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are installed in the B787

(A). One Bottle

(B). Two Bottle

(C). Three Bottle

(D). Four Bottle.

REF: 8.20.4=22112019

270. (180). What does the Engine Bottle Discharged ( ENG BTL DISCH ) amber light indicate ?

(A). The extinguisher bottle is overheated

(B). The extinguisher bottle is discharged or has low pressure

(C). The bottle is armed to be discharged

(D). The extinguisher bottle has over pressure.

REF: 8.10.3=22112019

271. (30). Engine fire protection consists of:

(A). Only fire extinguishing system
(B). Only overheat detection and extinguishing system
(C). Fire detection, overheat detection and extinguishing system
(D). Only overheat detection and extinguishing system
REF: 8.20.1=
272. (220). FIRE EICAS message are displayed as:

(A). Advisory and fire bell

(B). Warning and a Fire bell

(C). Caution and a fire bell

(D). Warning and a beeper.

REF: 8.30.1=22112019

273. (140). Lavatory fire protection system consists of:

(A). Lavatory fire detection system only
(B). Lavatory fire detection and waste container fire extingushing system
(C). Fire extinguishing system only
(D). There is no fire protection system for lavatory
REF: 8.20.7=

274. (70). Indications of an APU fire warning are:

(A). The fire bell sounds, the master warning light illuminate, EICAS warning message FIRE APU
is displayed
(B). APU fire switch fire warning light illuminate
(C). APU fire switch unlocks
(D). All options are correct
REF: 8.20.4=

275. (50). Indications of an engine overheat are:

(A). The caution beeper sounds
(B). The master CAUTION light illuminate and the EICAS caution message OVERHEAT ENG (L
or R) displayed
(C). Master WARNING light illuminate
(D). As in (a) and (b)
REF: 8.20.2=

276. (190). When do the Engine fire Switches automatically unlock ?

(A). For a fire warning or when the FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF

(B). Smoke is detected and the FUEL CONTROL switch is in RUN.

(C). Engine overheat is detected and the FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF

(D). Engine overheat is detected and the FUEL CONTROL switch is in RUN.

REF: 8.10.1=22112019
277. (240). How is the fire and overheat detection system tested ?

(A). Manually ( push and hold)

(B). Automatic and Manually ( push and hold)

(C). Automatic

(D). None of the above .

REF: 8.20.7=22112019

278. (200). There are fire detection and extinguishing systems for the :

(A). APU , Engines , Lavatories , main gear well

(B). APU , Cargo compartments engines , main gear and nose gear wells

(C). APU , Cargo compartments engines , main gear well

(D). APU , Cargo compartments, engines , Lavatories.

REF: 8.20.1=22112019

279. (120). Cargo compartment fire protection system consists of:

(A). Cargo compartment smoke detection only
(B). Cargo compartment fire extinguishing only
(C). Cargo compartment smoke detection and fire extinguishing
(D). Cargo compartment overheat detection
REF: 8.20.5=

280. (40). Indications of an engine fire are:

(A). The fire bell sounds, master warning light illuminates
(B). The EICAS warning message FIRE ENG (L or R) is displayed, engine fire switch LEFT or
RIGHT fire warning light illuminates
(C). The engine FUEL CONTROL (L or R) switch fire warning light illuminate
(D). All the indications in (a), (b) and (c)
REF: 8.20.2=

281. (20). There are fire detection and extinguishing system for:
(A). Engines, APU, Wheel wells, Cargo compartments and Lavatories
(B). Engines, APU, Cargo compartments and Lavatories
(C). Engines, Wheel wells and Cargo compartments
(D). APU, Lavatories and Wheel wells
REF: 8.20.1=
282. (100). The indications for main wheel well overheat are:
(A). The caution beeper sounds and the master caution light illuminate
(B). The caution beeper sounds, the master caution light illuimnate and the EICAS caution
message OVERHEAT WHEEL WELL is displayed
(C). The caution beeper sounds, the master warning light illuminates
(D). Master caution light and master warning light illuminate
REF: 8.20.5=

283. (170). On board overheat detection systems are located at

(A). Engines

(B). APU

(C). Cargo compartment

(D). Lavatory

REF:8.20.1

284. (150). The autodrag function operates

(A). by deflecting the ailerons upward and raising the two most outboard spoilers
(B). to assist in glideslope/glidepath capture when the airplane is on or above the vertical path.
(C). only in landing configuration ;flaps 25 or 30 and the thrust levers are at idle.
(D). Options (A),(B)and (C) all are correct.
REF: 9.20.20

286. (160). the flap load relief system :

(A). protects the flaps from excessive air loads.
(B). Automatically retracts the flaps to a safe position appropriate to the airspeed If flap airspeed
placard limits are exceeded with the flaps in the 15 through 30 position.
(C). protects the flaps from excessive air loads in the primary mode.
(D). Options (A),(B)and (C) all are correct.
REF: 9.20.23

287. (180). Mark the correct statement(s) : Cruise Flaps function:

(A). Is an automated function and only available in the normal mode.
(B). Is an automated function and only available below 25,000 feet
(C). Is an automated function and only available between 0.54 and 0.87 mach.
(D). Options (a) and (c) both are correct.
REF: 9.20.24
288. (250). Roll control is provided by:
(A). two flaperons
(B). two ailerons
(C). fourteen spoilers
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 9.20.2

289. (90). Stabilizer position is displayed on EICAS and on the flight control synoptic. The EICAS
indication is displayed on the ground at power-up and blanks if a following condition is satisfied
(A). Gear up for 10 seconds, or 60 seconds after liftoff
(B). Gear up for 10 seconds, or 120 seconds after liftoff
(C). Gear up for 60 seconds, or 10 seconds after liftoff
(D). Gear up for 20 seconds, or 60 seconds after liftoff
REF: 9.20.14

290. (40). The approach reference displays selected ILS/GLS identifier or frequency, approach front
course
(A). True.
(B). False
REF: 10.10.13

291. (50). Which of the following statements accurately describe elements of the PFD altitude indications?
(A). The selected altitude box is highlighted in white between 900 feet and 300 feet prior to
reaching the selected altitude.
(B). The selected altitude box is highlighted in amber between 900 feet and 300 feet prior to
reaching the selected altitude.
(C). The selected altitude box is highlighted in red between 900 feet and 300 feet prior to reaching
the selected altitude.
(D). The selected altitude box is highlighted in white between 1000 feet and 300 feet prior to
reaching the selected altitude.
REF: 10.10.9

292. (70). In the reversion mode, the PFD with mini-map is cropped to fit within a Multi Function Display
window (one-half of a Display Unit). All PFD symbology remains in the same relative position referenced
to the airplane symbol center.
(A). True
(B). False
REF: 10.10.25

293. (30). The Approach Deviation Pointer indicates the selected approach path relative to the airplane
position. Select the correct statement or statements relative to the approach deviation pointer from the list
below:
(A). It is an unfilled triangle for FAC or G/P when not captured.
(B). unfilled diamond for LOC or G/S when not captured
(C). filled diamond when LOC or G/S is captured (active FMA)
(D). All (A), (B) and (C) are correct
REF: 10.10.13
294. (120). Map Centering Keys are available only in the PLAN mode.
(A). True.
(B). False
REF: 10.10.47

295. (340). Display Unit Failure Automatic Switching

(A). If an outboard DU fails, the PFD automatically moves to the outboard MFD window of the
inboard DU. sides and the AUX display is removed. The PFD is cropped on both sides
and the AUX display is removed.

(B). The EICAS transfer switch on each EFIS control panel can still function normally.

(C). When both outboard DUs fail, the AUX display is not shown on any DU.

(D). All above are correct

REF.10.20.6

296. (180). The Auxiliary (AUX) Display is located outboard of each PFD Units and contains the following
information :
(A). Flight number
(B). UTC time
(C). Transponder code
(D). All of the above.
REF: 10.20.16

297. (170). mark the correct statement related to Cursor Control Device (CCD)
(A). The left CCD controls the left inboard display unit.
(B). The left CCD controls lower display unit cursor position and operation.
(C). The right CCD controls the right inboard display unit and the lower display unit cursor position
and operation
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 10.10.55

298. (10). The source for Airspeed / Mach indications on the PFD Airspeed indication is :
(A). IRS
(B). ADRS
(C). FMA
(D). HUD
REF: 10.10.1

299. (250). Navigation source annunciating on PFD as ILS/FMC means Horizontal Scale is ILS Localizer
& Vertical Scale is NPS

(A). True
(B). False
REF:10.10.16
300. (280). Vertical Situation Display (VSD)

(A). VSD 3º Reference Line dashed line extends 10 NM for situational awareness and ensures
terrain clearance

(B). Decision Gates are displayed on the FMC approach glidepath angle line or 3º reference line
at 500 feet and 1,000 feet AFE

(C). VSD Corridor Track mode - dashed lines are offset by 0.5 RNP from instantaneous track of
airplane

(D). All above are correct

REF:10.10.36

301. (140). Pushing the left or right Multifunction Display Switch (MFD) switch selects the on-side MFD
location (left or right window on each upper display unit) that is affected by pressing display switch(es).
(A). True
(B). False
REF: 10.10.50

302. (210). Mini map on the PFD displays the following information(s) :-
(A). Current IRS heading
(B). Track
(C). Heading information
(D). All of the above
REF: 10.10.2

303. (310). HUD TO/GA Reference Line

(A). On ground displayed on ground when flight director TO/GA mode is active, and groundspeed
is greater than 65 knots

(B). In flight displayed when flight director TO/GA mode is active

(C). Is inhibited during ILS/GLS approach

(D). Only A & B above are correct

REF:10.12.20

304. (330). AIR DATA/ATT source selector controls the source of airspeed, altitude and attitude
information for the associated PFD and HUD

(A). The display system is designed to automatically reconfigure to compensate for most faults
(B). The non-normal (ALTN) position provides the capability for manual selection of PFD and
HUD sources.
(C). Both A & B are correct
(D). None of the above
305. (160). When pushed, the Alpha / Number keys on the MFK put the selected character in the
scratchpad.
(A). True.
(B). False
REF: 10.10.53

306. (400). Select the correct statement regarding " AOA SPD " message on PFD

(A). It is a Backup Air speed based on AOA and Inertial Data.

(B). Displayed when The ADRS airspeed is not available.

(C). AIR DATA / ATT Selector has been Placed in ALTN Position.

(D). All of the above are correct.

REF: 10.10.26=442020

307. (220). The PFD Altitude Trend Vector Indicates expected altitude

(A). Ten seconds ahead in time based on the current engine performance.

(B). Ten seconds ahead in time based on the current vertical speed.

(C). Six seconds ahead in time based on the current vertical speed.

(D). Six seconds ahead in time based on the current engne performance.

REF: 10.10.18

308. (100). The VSD Terrain Profile Line represents the highest terrain within the enroute corridor. The
terrain profile ine :
(A). Represents the highest points of the terrain below and ahead of the airplane.
(B). The VSD terrain uses the same color coding that is used to depict GPWS on the lateral map.
(C). The terrain is depicted so the true altitude separation between the airplane and the terrain is
shown.
(D). All of the above are correct..
REF: 10.10.36

309. (320). Ground Deceleration Scale and pointer indicate the actual deceleration rate being achieved,
as provided by the corresponding autobrake setting

(A). Displayed on landing

(B). Displayed on takeoff if a deceleration is sensed with the groundspeed above 50 knots, and
airplane is still on ground
(C). Removed from display when groundspeed decreases below 25 knots
(D). All above are correct
REF:10.12.27
310. (60). The selected track bug and the selected heading bug may be displayed at the same time.
(A). True.
(B). False.
REF: 10.10.24

311. (380). In the ECL;

(A). Current line item box does not move to the next incomplete line item until the line item with
the timer is complete and the timer is done.

(B). The dual database feature allows two ECL databases to be available & used on ground or in
air

(C). A non-normal checklist that has deferred items is complete when all line items before the
deferred line items are complete. The checklist complete except deferred items indicator
may not show at the bottom of the page

(D). All above are correct

312. (230). Weather Radar Test (WXR TEST) when pushed on WX Radar page 2/2

(A). Tests weather radar system operation without transmitting

(B). With WXR selected on any ND or PFD minimap, a test pattern and PWS symbol display
along with any fault messages that result from the test

(C). When on the ground, selecting WXR on the EFIS control panel and TEST on the TCP WXR
page 2/2 activates a 12 second test

(D). All above are correct

REF:11.10.25/26

313. (280). In case of backup air data being unavailable, ISFD altitude (ISFD ALT) and ISFD airspeed
(ISFD SPD) are displayed on the PFDs

(A). True

(B). False
REF:11.20.3

314. (30). In the event of an unrecoverable loss of all FMC displays, a backup navigation capability is
available through :
(A). The Control Display Units
(B). The Tuning and Control Panels
(C). The SAARU
(D). (A) and (C) both options are correct.
REF: 11.50.1
315. (260). IRU Alignment

(A). Components of IRS are IRUs and AHRUs.

(B). When the GPS system is operating normally there is no requirement for the flight crew to
enter present position on the CDU POS INIT page
(C). If the GPS position is not available during the alignment, the dashes are replaced with boxes
and present position must be entered to complete the alignment
(D). All above are correct
REF:11.20.4

317. (290). WXR Radar

(A). Max display range on ND & MINI Map is 320 NM

(B). Weather radar system performs various levels of self test on power up, during each sweep,
and when descending through 2,300 feet AGL

(C). Turbulence can be sensed by the weather radar with or without precipitation

(D). All above are correct

REF:11.20.16

318. (130). On the FMC hold page , the time displayed below the field Title HOLD AVAIL is which time:-
(A). Displays time the airplane will next pass the holding fix.
(B). Displays holding time available before requiring reserve fuel to reach the destination
(C). both of the above time
(D). none of the above.
REF: 11.43.38

319. (100). If the IRS cannot supply correct attitude position , track and ground speed data , then EICAS
message will be :
(A). NAV INERTIAL SYS
(B). NAV SINGLE GPS
(C). NAV IRU
(D). NAV UNABLE RNP
REF: 11.60.3

320. (200). Automatic Highlight Box Positioning - choose the correct answer

(A). Autotabbing only operates when a function key is used to enter a page

(B). Autotabbing is enabled on the following FMC pages- ROUTE 1/X, PERF INIT & TAKEOFF
REF 1/2

(C). The pilot cannot move the highlight box with either the CCD or the CCS to any active area
within a page in the autotabbing sequence

(D). Autotabbing is available during any phase of flight

REF:11.10.12
321. (50). Mark the correct statement regarding alternate navigation:
(A). When alternate navigation is in use, LNAV and VNAV are not available.
(B). The ALTN NAV RADIO page provides a backup means of tuning the ILS frequency and
course or GLS channel into the left integrated navigation receiver (INR).
(C). Left side ILS or GLS deviations are then displayed on the ISFD.
(D). ALL are correct.

REF: 11.50.1/4

323. (310). FMC Position updating

(A). FMC provides the best position accuracy when GPS data is not available. Therefore,
inhibiting of
(B). DME/DME navigation is not required for RNP AR approaches
(C). When VOR frequencies are manually selected it precludes the FMC from autotuning other
VOR/DME frequencies for position updating; however, the FMC continues to tune
DME/DME pairs for position updating With GPS NAV ON, the TO/GA update is inhibited
(D). All above are correct
REF:11.31.7

324. (60). Which of the following is true of the 787 FMC entry-error messages?
(A). FMC entry-error messages display in the CDU help window. Push the CLR MSG key or for
some messages enter a corrected entry on the CDU to clear the message.
(B). FMC entry-error messages display on the CDU scratchpad and illuminate the CDU message
light (MSG). Push the CLEAR key to remove the message before any data can be
entered into the scratchpad.
(C). FMC entry-error messages display on the CDU scratchpad and illuminate the CDU message
light (MSG).
(D). FMC entry-error messages not display in the CDU help window. Push the CLR MSG key or
for some messages enter a corrected entry on the CDU to clear the message.
REF: 11.60.25

325. (390). At powerup, the three FMCs are designated as master, spare and backup. The spare
(standby) FMC automatically becomes active and assumes all FMC functionality in the event the master
FMC fails. The backup FMC then assumes the role of the spare FMC. This transition occurs automatically
and is not apparent to the crew. Active LNAV and VNAV are deselected and will require manual
reactivation

(A). True
(B). False
REF:11.32.5

326. (400). EO ACCEL HT displays the altitude above airport (height above airport, corrected for
temperature and barometric setting)

(A). True

(B). False
REF:11.40.51/52
327. (170). During cruise , the information regarding crosstrack error, Vertical track error , RNP and ANP
are available together on the following FMC page :-
(A). REF NAV DATA PAGE
(B). ACT RTG LEGS PAGE
(C). PROGRESS PAGE 2 OF 4
(D). PROGRESS PAGE 4 OF 4
REF: 11.42.69

328. (80). If the crew entered present position did not pass one of the IRU comparison check , or the IRU
is ready to transition to NAV and has not received a present position , then FMC message on the help
window title will be :
(A). Prediction Unavailable
(B). Alignment reinitiated
(C). Enter Inertial position
(D). Discontinuity
REF: 11.60.10/11.20.4

329. (40). In alternate navigation all new waypoints are entered as latitude and longitude. The number of
waypoints that can be entered for navigation is:
(A). Five
(B). Three
(C). One
(D). Two
REF: 11.50.1

330. (150). VNAV activates at :-

(A). 50 ft RA
(B). 400 ft RA
(C). 400 ft AGL
(D). 400 ft AAE
REF: 4.10.7

332. (250). Air Data Reference System (ADRS)

(A). The ADRS is completely independent of the IRS

(B). When ADRS air data is invalid and the AIR DATA/ATT switch is in the AUTO position,
backup airspeed (AOA SPD) and/or backup altitude (GPS ALT) are automatically
provided by the IRS and GPS systems
(C). B above is correct
(D). Both A & B above are correct
REF:11.20.3

333. (320). When EICAS advisory message LNAV BANK ANGLE LIM is displayed, bank angle is limited
by available thrust or buffet. Reducing the thrust limit on the THRUST LIM CDU page can reduce the
effect.

(A). True

(B). False
REF:11.31.13
334. (370). Engine Out after takeoff

(A). EO SID - When in data base, FMC will automatically load the EO SID as a flight plan
modification. The modification may be either executed or erased.

(B). VNAV Climb (Engine Out) - the FMC engine out climb function is active, the pitch mode is
VNAV SPD, the command speed is EO SPD, and the reference thrust limit is CON

(C). Both A & B are correct

(D) None of the above

REF:11.41.16/17

335. (110). If both pilots' displays use the same ILS or GLS source , then EICAS message will be :
(A). SGL SOURCE APPROACH
(B). SINGLE SOURCE FD
(C). SINGLE FMC
(D). NONE OF THE ABOVE
REF: 11.60.3

336. (350). During descent & approach, VNAV commands a descent and starts approach in VNAV PTH
at commanded speed.

(A). Extending flaps from UP to 1 arms go-around; EICAS displays GA as the reference thrust
limit

(B). Selection of landing flaps (25 or 30) changes the reference thrust limit to GA

(C). Prior to extending flaps to a landing position and with VNAV PTH and CRZ reference thrust
limit, pressing TO/GA changes the reference thrust limit to GA

(D). All above are incorrect

REF:11.31.35

337. (240). Global Positioning System (GPS) function

(A). Left and right GPS receivers are independent and supply data to the IRS which in turn
supplies hybrid GPS inertial position to the FMC

(B). In the event that the IRS becomes inoperative, the GPS supplies position and track data
directly to the FMC

(C). If the IRS becomes inoperative during flight, the FMC automatically uses GPS data to
navigate. No EICAS message is displayed

(D). All above are correct

REF:11.20.1
339. (380). EICAS advisory message FUEL FLOW ENG L/R is displayed. This provides an alert for a
potential engine fuel leak downstream of the fuel flow sensors. This type of leak will not trigger the FUEL
DISAGREE message because the leaking fuel decreases the CALCULATED fuel quantity at the same
rate as the TOTALIZER quantity :

(A). True
(B). False
REF:11.32.4/5

340. (120). When alternate navigation is in use , the following MODES are available :
(A). LNAV
(B). VNAV
(C). AUTOPILOT AND AUTOTHROTTLES MAY BE AVAILABLE
(D). ALL OF THE ABOVE
REF: 11.50.1

342. (20). Which of the following is a true description of the Cross track Error (XTK ERROR) depiction on
Progress Page 4?
(A). Displays present cross track error from the desired LNAV course.
(B). L or R indicates left or right of course.
(C). Errors in excess of 99.99 nm display as 99.99 nm.
(D). all are correct.

REF: 11.42.70

344. (220). ALERT/Transponder Control (XPDR CTL) - With ALERT/XPDR CTL set to ON, even a
functional ATP no longer controls the transponder/ TCAS mode, ILS glideslope inhibit, and aural cancel
functions.

(A). True
(B). False
REF:11.10.21

345. (330). ND Map Displays

(A). An inactive route displays as a dashed white line

(B). An activated, but not yet executed route, displays as an alternating white/ magenta dashed
line
(C). The active route displays in magenta
(D). All above are correct
REF:10.40.14

346. (270). IRU backup in flight

(A). IRU is capable of complete alignment while in flight

(B). If both IRUs fail, the FMC will continue to receive a hybrid GPS inertial position solution using
the AHRUs inertial sensors combined with GPS position
(C). Only A above is correct

(D). Both A & B are correct

REF:11.20.5
347. (110). Mark the correct statement :
(A). Total fuel quantity is displayed on the primary EICAS display
(B). Tank quantities are displayed on the FUEL synoptic display.
(C). Total fuel quantity is displayed on the FUEL synoptic display.
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 12.20.1=

348. (90). Fuel quantity in the tanks can be measured by:

(A). Sensors in each tank
(B). Sensors in cockpit
(C). Sensors in E&E bay
(D). Fuel quantity can not be measured
REF: 12.20.1=

349. (410). With FUEL TO REMAIN selector pushed on the fuel jettison panel:

(A). Automatically selects the MLW fuel-to-remain quantity.

(B). Manually selects the fuel- to- remain quantity

(C). Automatically selects the MLW fuel- to- remain quantity plus 3000kgs in each main tank

(D). Automatically selects the MLW fuel- to- remain quantity calculated by the FMS at touch
down.

REF: 12.10.3.=22112019

350. (220). In case of less than all engines/generators are operating and sufficient electrical power may
not be available to operate all fuel pumps:
(A). The fuel system automatically determines the best pumps to operate.
(B). Certain fuel pumps may be load shed until enough electrical power is available
(C). The indications that a fuel pump has load shed is that pump will be labelled LOAD SHED on
the fuel synoptic
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 12.20.2=

351. (310). Fuel Jettison FAULT Light Illuminated amber indicates:

(A). A system fault has occurred.
(B). Fuel jettison is inoperative.
(C). Both options (A) and (B) are correct.
(D). Fuel jettison is armed.
REF: 12.10.3=
353. (450). EICAS message “FUEL IN CENTER " means?

(A). The center tank fuel quantity is at the level where the pump switches must be OFF.

(B). The center tank fuel quantity is at the level where the pump switches must be ON.

(C). Both A and B are correct.

(D). None of the above

REF: 12.30.2=442020

354. (360). EICAS Display - A solid white fuel imbalance pointer is displayed if

(A). The FUEL IMBALANCE message is not displayed and the main tank fuel differs by more
than 100 kilograms

(B). Either the crossfeed valve is open or the balance system is ON

(C). Both A & B above have to be satisfied

(D). Either of A or B above can cause this condition

REF: 12.10.5

355. (100). Total fuel quantity is displayed on:

(A). Fuel synoptic display

(B). Primary EICAS display
(C). Both options (A) and (B) are correct
(D). Total fuel quantity is not displayed.
REF: 12.20.1

356. (210). Mark the correct statement:

(A). When the main tank fuel pump switches are off, the switch PRESS lights illuminate and the
EICAS advisory messages FUEL PUMP (L, R, FWD, or AFT) display.
(B). When the center fuel pump switches are off, the switch PRESS lights and pump pressure
EICAS messages are inhibited.
(C). When the center fuel pump switches are off, the switch PRESS lights illuminates.
(D). Options (A) and (B) both are correct.
REF: 12.20.2=

357. (270). Mark the correct statement regarding surge tanks:

(A). Surge tanks are provided in each wing.
(B). Fuel in the surge tanks and fuel remaining in the refueling manifold is drained into the main
tanks.
(C). Surge tanks are provided outboard of each main tank.
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 12.20.2=
358. (130). Expanded fuel indications are displayed :
(A). When non-normal conditions occur
(B). Not displayed in any condition.
(C). Any time by pressing switch on the fuel panel.
(D). Only main tanks are displayed in Expanded fuel indications
REF: 12.20.1=

359. (170). Each fuel tank contains :

(A). Two AC–powered fuel pumps.
(B). Two DC–powered fuel pumps.
(C). One AC–powered fuel pump.
(D). One AC–powered and one DC-powered fuel pumps.
REF: 12.20.1=

360. (350). Fuel balance operation is inhibited when

(A). A center tank pump is on

(B). On ground and engines are running

(C). In flight fuel jettison system is active

(D). All of the above

REF: 12.20.3

361. (70). The fuel jettison system allows jettison from all fuel tanks. After fuel jettison is complete fuel
remains in each main tank is :
(A). 3000 kilograms
(B). 4,545 kilograms
(C). 3,500 kilograms
(D). 3,900 kilograms
REF: 12.20.7=

362. (230). The indications that the pump is load shed :

(A). The pump switch PRESS light is illuminated.
(B). Pump is labelled LOAD SHED on the fuel synoptic.
(C). Both options (A)and (B)are correct.
(D). there is no indication of pump to be load shed.
REF: 12.20.2=

363. (380). Choose the correct answer

(A). A single pump can supply sufficient fuel to operate one engine under all conditions

(B). Center tank fuel pumps are override/jettison pumps

(C). Fuel in the surge tanks drain into the main tanks

(D). All above are correct

REF:12.20.1/2
364. (340). Mark the correct statement regarding Nitrogen Generation System:

(A). It provides automatic full time flammability protection for the fuel system.
(B). It generates nitrogen enriched air to displace fuel vapors in all fuel tanks.
(C). The nitrogen enriched air minimizes fuel flammability during normal flight and ground
operations.
(D). All three options (A),(B)and (C) are correct.
REF: 12.20.10=

365. (490). Once the jettison is completed how much quantity of fuel will remain in each main tank

(A). 390 kgs

(B). 3900 kgs

(C). 3000 kgs

(D). None of the above

REF: 12.20.7 = 442020

366. (260). Mark the correct statement regarding DC powered fuel pump:
(A). The DC pump operates automatically to provide fuel to the APU.
(B). The DC pump operates automatically to provide fuel to the Left Engine.
(C). It has no controls or indicators, other than the fuel synoptic display.
(D). Options (A) and (C) both are correct.
REF: 12.20.2=

367. (250). DC powered fuel pump is located :

(A). In the left main tank.
(B). In the right main tank.
(C). In the center tank.
(D). There is no DC powered fuel pump in any tank.
REF: 12.20.2=

368. (460). EICAS message “FUEL DISAGREE " means?

(A). Fuel in the main tank Left and Right are not equal.

(B). Fuel in the Centre Tank and Fuel in the Main Tank ( L+R ) are not equal .

(C). The Totalize fuel quantity and FMC calculated fuel quantity disagree

(D). None of the above

REF: 12.30.2 =442020

369. (40). Which of the following conditions will cause the expanded fuel indications to appear?
(A). The airplane is on the ground and both engines are shut down.
(B). The balance system is active.
(C). The balance system is selected on and the fuel is already balanced.
(D). Options (A),(B) and (C) all are correct.
REF: 12.10.5=

370. (160). Mark the correct statement:

(A). Fuel temperature is displayed on the fuel synoptic display.
(B). Minimum fuel temperature is displayed on the fuel synoptic display.
(C). Both statements (A) and (B) are correct.
(D). None of the above

REF: 12.10.7=

372. (200). Center Fuel Pump Pressure (PRESS) Lights Illuminates:

(A). Amber when fuel pump output pressure is low and pump selected ON
(B). Red when fuel pump output pressure is low and pump selected ON
(C). Illumination is inhibited when the center tank fuel pump switch is selected off
(D). Options (A) and (C) both are correct.
REF: 12.10.1=

373. (80). In B787-8, Fuel is contained in:

(A). Center tank

(B). Left tank main
(C). Right Tank main
(D). All options are correct
REF: 12.20.1=

374. (140). Display of fuel temperature is :

(A). On the primary EICAS display.
(B). The temperature is normally displayed in white
(C). It is displayed in amber when the fuel temperature approaches maximum.
(D). All options are correct
REF: 12.20.1=

375. (60). APU fuel is supplied from :

(A). any AC fuel pump supplying fuel to the right fuel manifold
(B). any AC fuel pump supplying fuel to the left fuel manifold.
(C). Right main tank DC fuel pump.
(D). Both (B) and (C) are right options are correct.
REF: 12.20.2=
376. (290). Mark the correct statement:
(A). With the main tank pumps ON, a scavenge system operates automatically to transfer any
remaining center tank fuel to the main tanks
(B). Fuel transfer begins when either main tank quantity is less than approximately 16,000
kilograms and the center tank pumps are off
(C). The system is inhibited if the engine is on suction feed.
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 12.20.2=

378. (300). Fuel balance is automatically commanded off for :

(A). Fuel is balanced
(B). FUEL DISAGREE message is displayed
(C). FUEL QTY LOW message is displayed
(D). Any of the above three conditions will command Fuel balance to automatically off.
REF: 12.10.2=

379. (280). FUEL LOW CENTER message displayed on EICAS :

(A). The level of the message is advisory.
(B). The center tank fuel quantity is at the level where the pump switches must be off.
(C). The expanded FUEL QTY display appears.
(D). All Options (A),(B)and (C) are correct.
REF: 12.30.2 / 12.10.4=

380. (430). Each fuel tank contains

(A). Two AC powered fuel pumps

(B). Three AC powered fuel pumps
(C). Two DC powered fuel Pumps
(D). Two AC powered and One DC powered fuel pump.
REF: 12.20.01=22112019

381. (180). Mark the correct statement regarding fuel pumps:

(A). The two center tank fuel pumps are override/jettison pumps
(B). These pumps have a higher output pressure than the left and right main tank fuel pumps.
(C). The center tank fuel is used before wing tank fuel..
(D). All options are correct.
REF: 12.20.1=

382. (1390). What does EICAS message HYD PRESS C1 mean ?

(A). The C1 pump temperature is high.

(B). Hyd pressure pump C1 is running with full pressure .

(C). The C1 pump pressure is LOW

(D). The C1 Pump is vibrating with pressure

REF: 13.30.1 =442020
383. (1350). On the STATUS display Hydraulic QTY display is indicating RF ( white) What does it mean ?

(A). Reservior Quantity is leaking

(B). Reservior Quantity is Overfilled

(C). Reservior Requires Refilling

(D). None of the above

REF: 13.10.8/3=442020

384. (1430). Due to some system failure if One or more demand pump are temporarily stopped to
conserve electrical power , How this will be indicated ( Message) on the HYD synoptic.?

(A). PUMP OFF

(B). C1 and C2 PUMP OFF

(C). LOAD SHED

(D). None of the above.

REF: 13.10.7=442020

385. (110). The right hydraulic system powers:

(A). the left engine thrust reverser
(B). flight controls
(C). nose gear steering
(D). All of the above
REF: 13.20.1=

386. (290). The synoptic symbol of a hydralic electric motor pump (EMP) turns white or amber when
output pressure is less than or equal to _____________ psi .

(A). 1500
(B). 2000
(C). 2800
(D). 3000
REF: 13.10.5=21112019

387. (270). Where can hydraulic quantity and pressure be monitored

(A). Status Display or the Hydraulic Synoptic Display.
(B). EICAS
(C). PFD
(D). ND
REF: 13.10.3/4=
388. (140). How many independent hydraulic systems are there?
(A). One
(B). Two
(C). Three
(D). Four
REF: 13.20.1=

389. (1400). What does EICAS message HYD PRESS DEM L mean ?

(A). Left pump is demanding for maintenance.

(B). The LEFT demand pump pressure is low when commanded ON
(C). The hyd demand pump is suppling sufficient pressure.
(D). All of the above

REF: 13.30.1 =442020

390. (330). RAM AIR TURBINE ( RAT) pressure light PRESS is illuminating (white) during flight , what
does it mean :
(A). RAT is deployed
(B). Centre System Primary Flight Control hydraulic pressure is greater than 3000 psi
(C). Both A and B are correct
(D). None of the above.
REF: 13.10..2 =442020

391. (150). Which of the hydraulic systems primary power source is powered by Engine driven pumps
(EDPs)?
(A). Left and right
(B). Left and center
(C). Right and center.
(D). Left, right and center
REF: 13.20.1=

392. (160). Which of the hydraulic systems primary power source is powered by Electric motor pumps
(EMPs)
(A). Left
(B). Center
(C). Right
(D). Left, right and center
REF: 13.20.2=

393. (200). Which hydraulic system or systems normally power Right and left wing spoilers
(A). Left
(B). Center
(C). Right
(D). Left, right and center
REF: 13.20.1/2=
394. (210). Which hydraulic system or systems normally power Flaps and slats
(A). Left
(B). Center
(C). Right
(D). Left, right and center
REF: 13.20.2=

395. (180). Which hydraulic system or systems normally power Flight controls
(A). Left
(B). Center
(C). Right
(D). Left, right and center
REF: 13.20.1/2=

396. (1370). On the Hydraulic synoptic if EMP or EDP indications are showing Rectangle of low intensity ,
what does it mean ?

(A). Pump output pressure exceeds 2000psi

(B). Signal(s) from pumps are invalid or missing

(C). Pump output pressure is lower than 2000psi

(D). None of the above

REF: 13.10.5 =442020

397. (1360). Three Isolation Valves in the center Hydraulic system are :

(A). NRIV , NGIV and RSIV

(B). RSIV , AEIV , and NRIV

(C). NGIV , RSIV and AEIV

(D). None of the above.

REF: 13.10.4 =442020

399. (320). The following Isolation valve(s) is / are located in centre hydraulic system

(A). NGIV
(B). RSIV
(C). AEIV
(D). ALL OF THE ABOVE
REF: 13.20.2= 21112019
400. (70). C1 and C2 Pump FAULT Lights illuminated amber when :–

(A). low primary pump pressure

(B). excessive primary pump fluid temperature, or
(C). pump selected OFF
(D). All of the above
REF: 13.10.2=

401. (280). Hydraulic Quantity is displayed :

(A). In liters
(B). In quarts
(C). As percentage of the normal service level ( 100 % is the normal service level)
(D). As percentage of normal service level ( 1.00 is the normal service level)
REF: 13.10.3=21112019

402. (250). Supplementary hydraulic power for periods of high system demand is provided by
(A). Electric motor pumps (EMPs)
(B). Engine driven pumps (EDPs)
(C). Power Transfer Units
(D). None of the above
REF: 13.20.1=

403. (300). The left and right hydraulic systems each has :

(A). 1 EDP as primary and 1 ram air turbine (RAT ) as backup

(B). 2 EDP as primary and 1 EMP as demand pump
(C). 1 EDP as primary and 1 EMP as demand pump
(D). 1 EDP as primary and 1 RAT as demand pump.

REF: 13.20.1 =21112019

404. (60). L/R ENG PRIMARY Pump Switches, “FAULT” illuminated amber when :

(A). low primary pump pressure

(B). excessive primary pump fluid temperature, or
(C). pump selected OFF
(D). All of the above
REF: 13.10.2=

405. (310). One of the conditions which the centre demand pump operates is during descent from when
the gear lever is down and radio altitude is less than _______ feet until ground speed is less than
____________ knots.

(A). 1000 feet , 40 knots

(B). 2000 feet , 40 knots
(C). 2000 feet , 60 knots
(D). 1000 feet ,80 knots
REF: 13.20.2=21112019
406. (170). What type of pumps are the left and right demand pumps?
(A). Electric motor pumps (EMPs)
(B). Engine driven pumps (EDPs)
(C). Combination of both
(D). None of the above
REF: 13.20.1=

407. (240). The RAT provide hydraulic power to

(A). The primary flight controls connected to the center hydraulic system
(B). the left engine thrust reverser
(C). the reft engine thrust reverser
(D). None of the above
REF: 13.20.3=

408. (80). Select the correct statement in respect of the demand pump selectors:
(A). ON – the pump runs continuously.
(B). AUTO - the pump operates when system and/or primary pump(s) pressure is low, or when
control logic anticipates a large system demand.
(C). OFF - the pump is off.
(D). All are correct.
REF: 13.10.2=

409. (100). The left hydraulic system powers: select correct statement
(A). flight controls
(B). the right engine thrust reverser
(C). nose gear steering
(D). All of the above
REF: 13.20.1=

410. (20). Two electric motor-driven pumps (EMPs) provide hydraulic power sources for the center
hydraulic system.
The C1 and C2 ELEC pump selectors control pump operation. The two center pumps alternate as a
primary pump and demand pump. Under which of the following condition(s) do the center demand
pumps operate ( mark correct staement)

(A). System low pressure

(B). On the ground for the first three minutes after the first engine is started
(C). from takeoff thrust set until radio altitude exceeds 1000 feet
(D). All three options (A),(B) and (C) are correct.
REF: 13.20.2=21112019 correction done

411. (1410). What does EICAS message " HYD OVERHEAT DEM X " mean ?

(A). The Primary Pump Temprature is HIGH.

(B). Overheating is required for hydraulic Pump.
(C). The demand Pump Temprature is HIGH
(D). The demand Pump Temprature is LOW.
REF: 13.30.1 =4420220
412. (190). Which hydraulic system or systems normally power Nose gear steering
(A). Left
(B). Center
(C). Right
(D). Left, right and center
REF: 13.20.2=

413. (220). When does the Center Hydraulic System primary pump operates continuously
(A). groundspeed more than 40 knots,
(B). after the first engine is started
(C). after the second engine is started
(D). None of the above
REF: 13.20.2=

414. (1450). Which statement is correct regarding RAT ?

(A). RAT will never deploy automatically In- FLT.

(B). RAT control push button switch is located on the glare shield
(C). RAT provide Max. Hydraulic power of 3000psi.
(D). RAT provide hydraulic and electrical power throughout the flight envelope.

REF: 13.20.3= 442020

415. (1380). Flight controls are powered by which hydraulic system

(A). Left

(B). Right

(C). Center

(D). All of the above

REF: 13.20.4=442020

416. (340). Electric Demand Pump of Hydraulic System ( L /R ) operates when system and /or primary
pumps pressure is LOW , or when control logic anticipates a large system demand , This will happen in
which position of the Demand Pump selelctor:

(A). ON
(B). AUTO
(C). OFF
(D). Neutral
REF: 13.10.2 =442020

417. (480). The autobrake system provides braking to _________________ or until it is disarmed .

(A). 10 knots
(B). 30 knots
(C). 60 knots
(D). A complete stop.
REF: 14.20.4=2111019
418. (40). Touchdown and hydroplaning protection is provided using airplane inertial groundspeed.
Locked wheel protection is provided using a comparison with other wheel speeds. Which of the following
statements concerning antiskid protection is / are true?
(A). Antiskid Protection is provided on an individual main gear wheel basis.
(B). Antiskid Protection is provided on a main gear wheel pair basis.
(C). When a wheel speed sensor detects a skid, the braking force is reduced until skidding stops.
(D). Both options (A) and (C) are correct.
REF: 14.20.3=

419. (410). The Electro-Mechanical Brake System has four Electric Brake Actuator Controllers (EBACs),
and

(A). Thirty-two Electric Brake Actuators (EBAs), four per wheel brake.

(B). With the landing gear retracted and all doors closed, the landing gear hydraulic system is
automatically depressurized

(C). Brake temperature & tire pressure monitor system display temperature & pressure on the
GEAR synoptic.

(D). All of the above

REF:14.20.3/1/6

420. (400). The alternate landing gear extension system uses a dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic
pump and center hydraulic system fluid to extend the landing gear. Alternate extension of the Landing
Gear may be selected

(A). With the landing gear lever only in NORM position.

(B). With the landing gear lever only in DOWN position.

(C). With the landing gear lever in any position.

(D). By pushing the Landing Gear Lever Lock Override (LOCK OVRD) Switch

REF:14.20.2

421. (380). Hottest Brake (solid white) temperature value range is

(A). from 0.0 to 4.9
(B). from 3.0 to 4.9
(C). from 5.0 to 9.9
(D). None of the Above
REF: 14.10.7=
422. (360). The rudder pedal steering disconnect switch is used during a flight controls freedom of motion
check. Where is the switch located?
(A). On top of the rudder pedal adjust crank.
(B). Right side of the brake source indicator.
(C). At the top center of the nose wheel steering tiller.
(D). None of the above
REF: 14.10.2 / 3=

423. (500). In Expanded Gear Position Indication ( Non Normal Display ) , Empty Box ( in white ) means ?

(A). The associated Landing Gear is Down and Locked

(B). The associated Landing Gear is in Transit

(C). The associated Landing Gear Position Indicators are Inoperative

(D). The associated Landing Gear is UP and Locked

REF: 14.10.5=442020

424. (260). Which of the following is correct about the Nosewheel Steering

(A). The tillers can turn the nosewheels up to 90º in either direction.
(B). The tillers can turn the nosewheels up to 70º in either direction.
(C). nosewheel steering powered by the right hydraulic system.
(D). nosewheel steering powered by the left hydraulic system.
REF: 14.20.3=

425. (460). How many EBAs are provided on each main landing gear wheel brake to control the
application of braking force to the carbon disc ?

(A). 1

(B). 2

(C). 4

(D). 8
REF: 14.20.3= 21112019

426. (70). The rudder pedal steering disconnect switch is used during a flight controls freedom of motion
check. Where is the switch located?

(A). On top of the rudder pedal adjust crank

(B). Right side of the brake source indicator.
(C). At the top center of the nose wheel steering tiller.
(D). none of the above
REF: 14.10.3=
427. (270). The nosewheels have

(A). antiskid protection

(B). autobrake system
(C). parking brake
(D). No brakes
REF: 14.20.3=

428. (390). Brake Overheat (solid amber) temperature value range is

(A). from 0.0 to 4.9

(B). from 3.0 to 4.9
(C). from 5.0 to 9.9
(D). None of the Above
REF: 14.10.7=

429. (60). There are three tick marks on the nose wheel steering tiller assembly. What do they identify?

(A). Left, right and straight ahead.

(B). Neutral, maximum left, and maximum right displacements.
(C). Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(D). Maximum left, and Maximum right displacements only.
REF: 14.10.2=

430. (170). The rudder pedals can be used to turn the nose wheel upto:
(A). 6 DEG

(B). 8 DEG

(C). 13 DEG

(D). 16 DEG
REF: 14.20.3=

432. (250). Following an alternate extension, the landing gear can be retracted by
(A). Center hydraulic system, if it is operating. Select DN then UP with the gear lever to retract the
landing gear.
(B). Left hydraulic system, if it is operating. Select DN then UP with the gear lever to retract the
landing gear.
(C). Right hydraulic system, if it is operating. Select DN then UP with the gear lever to retract the
landing gear.
(D). None of the above
REF: 14.20.3=
433. (50). The parking brake electric brake actuators are clamped in position during parking brake
application and required no active power to maintain the clamping force. The feature which monitors
condition of the brakes after parking brake application and adjusts clamping force as needed during brake
cooling is called :
(A). Adjusted cooling.
(B). Clamp cooling force
(C). Park and adjust
(D). None of the above
REF: 14.20.5=

434. (530). How many EBAs are provided in Landing Gear System ?

(A). Total 32 EBAs

(B). Total 8 EBAs

(C). 32 EBAs for each Main Landing Gear

(D). None of the above.

REF: 14.20.3=442020

435. (510). On the Landing Gear Synoptic , if Indication is Solid Rectangle of amber colour , What does it
indicates ?

(A). Brake Overheat

(B). Brake Temprature value from 5.0 to 9.9

(C). Both A and B indications are correct

(D). None of the above.

REF: 14.10.7 =442020

436. (160). The nose wheel steering tiller can turn the nose wheel upto:

(A). 45 deg C

(B). 60 deg C

(C). 70 deg C

(D). 9 deg C

REF: 14.10.2=
437. (100). MAIN GEAR SIDE BRACE L,R is displayed if:
(A). Side and drag brace on the same main gear not locked
(B). Side brace on a main gear (L or R) is not locked
(C). Drag brace on a main gear (L or R) is not locked
(D). Side brace on a main gear (L or R) is locked
REF: 14.20.2=

438. (290). The EICAS advisory message ANTISKID is displayed

(A). if an antiskid fault affecting the brake system is detected or if the system is completely
inoperative
(B). The autobrake system is failed
(C). A and B
(D). None of the above
REF: 14.20.3,=

439. (280). The brake system includes

(A). antiskid protection, autobrake system,
(B). electric brake system and parking brake
(C). A and B
(D). No brakes
REF: 14.20.3=

440. (200). AUTO BRAKE advisory message is displayed when:

(A). The auto brake system is disarmed
(B). The auto brake system is inoperative
(C). Both (a) and (b) cases
(D). The auto brake system is armed
REF: 14.20.4=

441. (300). The RTO autobrake setting commands maximum braking pressure if
(A). the airplane is on the ground
(B). groundspeed is above 85 knots
(C). both thrust levers are retarded to idle
(D). All of the above together.
REF: 14.20.4=

442. (370). Brake Normal (white) temperature value range is

(A). from 0.0 to 4.9
(B). from 3.0 to 4.9
(C). from 5.0 to 9.9
(D). None of the Above
REF: 14.10.7=
443. (110). MAIN GEAR DRAG BRACE L,R is displayed if:
(A). Side and drag brace on the same gear not locked
(B). Side brace on a main gear (L or R) is not locked
(C). Drag brace on a main gear (L or R) is not locked
(D). Drag brace on a main gear is locked
REF: 14.20.2=

444. (220). When the landing gear lever is placed in the UP position
(A). gear retraction sequence is started.
(B). The EICAS landing gear position indication display changes from a green DOWN indication
to a white crosshatch in-transit indication as the landing gear retract into the wheel wells.
(C). The EICAS landing gear position indication changes to UP for 10 seconds and then blanks.
(D). All of the above
REF: 14.20.1=

445. (490). In Gear Position Indications ( Normal Display ) , Empty Box ( in white ) means ?

(A). All Landing Gear are UP and Locked

(B). One or More Landing Gear are in Transit

(C). All Landing Gear are Down and Locked

(D). All Landing Gear position Indicators are Inoperative.

REF: 14.10.5 =442020

446. (430). Nosewheel Steering authority

(A). Tillers can turn the nosewheels up to 70º & rudder pedals up to 8º in either direction

(B). Tillers can turn the nosewheels up to 80º & rudder pedals up to 8º in either direction

(C). Tillers can turn the nosewheels up to 70º & rudder pedals up to 13º in either direction

(D). Tillers can turn the nosewheels up to 70º & rudder pedals up to 11º in either direction
REF:14.20.3

447. (440). Selecting RTO prior to takeoff arms the autobrake system. The system automatically applies
maximum brake pressure when the thrust levers are retarded to idle above _____________ knots.

(A). 50 knots

(B). 60 knots

(C). 80 knots

(D). 85 knots

REF: 14.10.1=21112019
448. (30). How do the EBACs control the brake force of the wheels?
(A). There are four EBACs that control all eight main wheel brakes.
(B). There are eight EBACs that control all eight main wheel brakes.
(C). There are eight EBACs that control all four main wheel brakes.
(D). There are four EBACs that control all four main wheel brakes.
REF: 14.20.3=

449. (130). Flight deck panel annunciator lights are used with EICAS messages to
(A). help locate and identify affected systems and controls
(B). reduce potential for error
(C). both (A) and (B) are correct
(D). none of the above option is correct
REF: 15.20.12

450. (180). Mark the correct statement

(A). EICAS warning message CONFIG GEAR is displayed if Thrust lever at idle and radio altitude
less than 800 ft
(B). If The flaps are not in a takeoff position during takeoff. configuration warning CONFIG FLAPS
displays
(C). stabilizer trim not in green band, take-off configuration warning CONFIG STABILIZER
displays
(D). All options are correct
REF: 15.30.2

451. (70). Mark correct statement for Page (PG) Number indication
(A). these are displayed white
(B). displayed when more than one page of alert of memo messages exists
(C). indicates number of page selected
(D). all options are correct
REF: 15.10.2

452. (300). An RA is a prediction that another airplane will enter TCAS conflict airspace within
approximately ___ to ___ seconds. A TA is a prediction that another airplane will enter the conflict
airspace in __ to ___ seconds.
(A). 20-30; 25-45.
(B). 12-25; 30-45.
(C). 15-35; 20-48.
(D). 20-48 ,15-35
REF: 15.20.18

453. (120). Mark the correct statement :

(A). EICAS alert messages are the primary method to alert the crew to non-normal conditions
(B). EICAS communication messages direct the crew to normal communication condition and
messages
(C). both (A) and (B) are correct
(D). None of the above is correct
REF: 15.20.2
454. (310). A traffic advisory (TA) is a prediction that another airplane will enter the conflict airspace in

(A). 10 to 35 seconds

(B). 10 seconds

(C). 20 to 48 seconds

(D). 20 to 35 seconds
REF: 15.20.18

455. (250). If center tank fuel plus actual ZFW does not exceed MZFW and CG limits are Observed , then
center Tank may contain fuel upto ......................KGS with less then full main tanks.

(A). 11,000 kgs

(B). 6,000 kgs

(C). 10,000 kgs

(D). None of the above

REF: L 10.7 = 542020

456. (230). The Maximum and Minimum glidepath angles for ILS and GLS automatic landings or
approaches using IAN are :

(A). 3.25 deg and 2.5 deg respectively

(B). 2.5 deg and 3.25 deg respectively

(C). 3.5 deg and 2.25 deg respectively

(D). 2.25 deg and 3.5 deg respectively

REF: L10.5=21112019

457. (60). Select the correct Maximum Taxi Weight limitations for the 787-
(A). 228,383 kilograms
(B). 227,930 kilograms
(C). 172,365 kilograms
(D). 161,025 kilograms
REF: L.10.3=

458. (170). The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions is prohibited within ______
of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database.
(A). 25 NM
(B). 50 NM
(C). 05 NM
(D). 15 NM
REF: L.10.7=
460. (270). AS per limitation , Takeoff is permitted with Flight control system in ............. MODE .

(A). NORMAL

(B). SECONDARY

(C). DIRECT MODE

(D). Any of the above MODE

REF: L 10.6=542020

461. (280). With Both Engine Operating or One Engine Inop. condition , AUTOLAND capability may be
used with Flap setting ..........

(A). 20

(B). 25

(C). 30

(D). Any one of the above flap setting

REF: L10.5= 542020

462. (80). Select the correct Maximum Landing Weight limitations for the 787-
(A). 228,383 kilograms
(B). 227,930 kilograms
(C). 172,365 kilograms
(D). 161,025 kilograms
REF: L.10.4=

463. (210). The Maximum altitude with flaps extented is

(A). 14000 feet

(B). 20000 feet

(C). 25000 feet

(D). 22000 feet

REF: L 10.6=21112019

464. (20). The maximum takeoff and landing altitude of the 787 is?
(A). 8,000 feet pressure altitude
(B). 8,800 feet pressure altitude
(C). 8,400 feet pressure altitude
(D). 14,000 feet pressure altitude
REF: L.10.2=
465. (260). Select the correct statement regarding FUEL temperature--

(A). Tank fuel temperature prior to Take off must not be less than - 29 degree C
(B). Maximum fuel temperature at takeoff is 49 degree C
(C). In flight fuel temperature is limited to 65 degree C
(D). All of the above are correct
REF: L 10.6=542020

466. (150). Which statement is NOT correct with respect to the flight controls?
(A). Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes
in pitch, roll or yaw (e.g. large side slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at
any speed, including below Design Maneuvering Speed (VA).
(B). Takeoff is permitted only in the normal or secondary mode.

(C). Do not extend flaps above 20,000 feet.

(D). None of the above
REF: L.10.6=

467. (200). What is the minimum engage altitude for the Autopilot ?

(A). 400 feet AGL after takeoff or go around

(B). 400 feet AGL after takeoff only

(C). 100 feet AGL after takeoff

(D). 200 feet AGL after takeoff.

REF: L10.4= 21112019

468. (30). The maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component of the 787 is?
(A). 10 knots
(B). 15 knots
(C). 25 knots
(D). 18 knots
REF: L.10.2=

469. (140). Select the correct answer or answers pertaining to the following Reverse Thrust statements :
(A). Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is prohibited.
(B). Position reverse thrust levers full down (forward thrust) decelerating through 80 knots.
(C). Backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust is prohibited.
(D). Both A & C are correct.
REF: L.10.5=

470. (70). Select the correct Maximum Takeoff Weight limitations for the 787-
(A). 228,383 kilograms
(B). 227,930 kilograms
(C). 172,365 kilograms
(D). 161,025 kilograms
REF: L.10.3=
471. (110). Which condition listed below indicate an unlocked flight deck door?

(A). The access light is illuminated (red).

(B). The access light is illuminated (green).

(C). The FD. Door Power switch is off and the red LED is illuminated.
(D). Both B and C are correct.
REF: 1.40.20=

472. (190). The maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for takeoff and landing is :

(A). 0.08 psi

(B). 0.11 psi

(C). 0.25 psi

(D). 9.1psi
REF: 2.10.6 = 21112019

473. (10). The Maximum operating altitude of the 787 is

(A). 42,100 feet pressure altitude.
(B). 43,100 feet pressure altitude.
(C). 43,300 feet pressure altitude.
(D). 42,000 feet pressure altitude.
REF: L.10.2=

474. (90). Select the correct Maximum Zero Fuel Weight limitations for the 787-
(A). 228,383 kilograms
(B). 227,930 kilograms
(C). 172,365 kilograms
(D). 161,025 kilograms
REF: L.10.4

475. (180). Which of the following is /are true regarding the flight deck overhead door?
(A). The door can be opened only on the ground with the airplane depressurized.
(B). The door opens outward.
(C). Pull and rotate the door lock lever to the open position to open the door.
(D). Both a and b are correct.
REF: 1.40.23=
 B787 Bank all quest
Test Answer Key
C:\Users\akm lenovo 2020\Desktop\B787 Bank all quest 005.tst
Test ID: 4

1. (120). Correct Answer(s): A

2. (280). Correct Answer(s): C
3. (60). Correct Answer(s): A
4. (360). Correct Answer(s): C
5. (230). Correct Answer(s): D
6. (450). Correct Answer(s): D
7. (240). Correct Answer(s): B
8. (260). Correct Answer(s): B
9. (400). Correct Answer(s): D
10. (330). Correct Answer(s): B
11. (40). Correct Answer(s): D
12. (80). Correct Answer(s): D
13. (30). Correct Answer(s): A
14. (180). Correct Answer(s): B
15. (380). Correct Answer(s): D
16. (130). Correct Answer(s): C
17. (270). Correct Answer(s): D
18. (200). Correct Answer(s): D
19. (350). Correct Answer(s): B
20. (250). Correct Answer(s): B
21. (370). Correct Answer(s): B
22. (100). Correct Answer(s): D
23. (20). Correct Answer(s): D
24. (300). Correct Answer(s): B
25. (390). Correct Answer(s): D
26. (220). Correct Answer(s): D
27. (290). Correct Answer(s): C
28. (430). Correct Answer(s): C
29. (50). Correct Answer(s): C
30. (440). Correct Answer(s): C
31. (410). Correct Answer(s): A
32. (110). Correct Answer(s): A
33. (340). Correct Answer(s): D
34. (310). Correct Answer(s): C
35. (320). Correct Answer(s): C
36. (450). Correct Answer(s): A
37. (470). Correct Answer(s): C
38. (500). Correct Answer(s): C
39. (170). Correct Answer(s): D
40. (400). Correct Answer(s): C
41. (220). Correct Answer(s): D
42. (440). Correct Answer(s): D
43. (80). Correct Answer(s): C
44. (90). Correct Answer(s): A
45. (200). Correct Answer(s): B
46. (480). Correct Answer(s): D
47. (100). Correct Answer(s): C
48. (210). Correct Answer(s): D
49. (250). Correct Answer(s): D
50. (40). Correct Answer(s): A
51. (130). Correct Answer(s): D
52. (380). Correct Answer(s): D
53. (280). Correct Answer(s): A
54. (20). Correct Answer(s): D
55. (140). Correct Answer(s): B
56. (420). Correct Answer(s): D
57. (270). Correct Answer(s): D
58. (410). Correct Answer(s): C
59. (160). Correct Answer(s): B
60. (110). Correct Answer(s): A
61. (390). Correct Answer(s): B
62. (290). Correct Answer(s): D
63. (520). Correct Answer(s): D
64. (60). Correct Answer(s): C
65. (360). Correct Answer(s): B
66. (70). Correct Answer(s): D
67. (430). Correct Answer(s): D
68. (10). Correct Answer(s): B
69. (50). Correct Answer(s): B
70. (120). Correct Answer(s): B
71. (180). Correct Answer(s): D
72. (220). Correct Answer(s): C
73. (270). Correct Answer(s): A
74. (100). Correct Answer(s): C
75. (260). Correct Answer(s): C
76. (80). Correct Answer(s): C
77. (40). Correct Answer(s): A
78. (50). Correct Answer(s): C
79. (60). Correct Answer(s): C
80. (130). Correct Answer(s): D
81. (70). Correct Answer(s): C
82. (210). Correct Answer(s): C
83. (30). Correct Answer(s): B
84. (10). Correct Answer(s): B
85. (90). Correct Answer(s): A
86. (240). Correct Answer(s): D
87. (190). Correct Answer(s): C
88. (20). Correct Answer(s): A
89. (200). Correct Answer(s): C
90. (110). Correct Answer(s): D
91. (120). Correct Answer(s): D
92. (230). Correct Answer(s): C
93. (250). Correct Answer(s): D
94. (290). Correct Answer(s): A
95. (350). Correct Answer(s): D
96. (400). Correct Answer(s): D
97. (10). Correct Answer(s): A
98. (380). Correct Answer(s): A
99. (280). Correct Answer(s): B
100. (110). Correct Answer(s): B
101. (40). Correct Answer(s): B
102. (410). Correct Answer(s): D
103. (20). Correct Answer(s): D
104. (320). Correct Answer(s): A
105. (260). Correct Answer(s): B
106. (80). Correct Answer(s): D
107. (340). Correct Answer(s): D
108. (330). Correct Answer(s): B
109. (300). Correct Answer(s): D
110. (30). Correct Answer(s): B
111. (230). Correct Answer(s): A
112. (240). Correct Answer(s): D
113. (210). Correct Answer(s): D
114. (60). Correct Answer(s): B
115. (370). Correct Answer(s): A
116. (310). Correct Answer(s): D
117. (390). Correct Answer(s): A
118. (120). Correct Answer(s): C
119. (180). Correct Answer(s): D
120. (420). Correct Answer(s): A
121. (140). Correct Answer(s): C
122. (150). Correct Answer(s): C
123. (70). Correct Answer(s): D
124. (130). Correct Answer(s): D
125. (90). Correct Answer(s): C
126. (200). Correct Answer(s): D
127. (220). Correct Answer(s): A
128. (40). Correct Answer(s): D
129. (60). Correct Answer(s): C
130. (170). Correct Answer(s): B
131. (190). Correct Answer(s): D
132. (10). Correct Answer(s): A
133. (240). Correct Answer(s): A
134. (370). Correct Answer(s): A
135. (320). Correct Answer(s): D
136. (360). Correct Answer(s): C
137. (130). Correct Answer(s): D
138. (150). Correct Answer(s): A
139. (160). Correct Answer(s): D
140. (100). Correct Answer(s): D
141. (310). Correct Answer(s): C
142. (350). Correct Answer(s): C
143. (250). Correct Answer(s): D
144. (230). Correct Answer(s): D
145. (340). Correct Answer(s): C
146. (140). Correct Answer(s): D
147. (110). Correct Answer(s): A
148. (80). Correct Answer(s): A
149. (70). Correct Answer(s): C
150. (260). Correct Answer(s): B
151. (330). Correct Answer(s): C
152. (30). Correct Answer(s): A
153. (290). Correct Answer(s): A
154. (120). Correct Answer(s): D
155. (50). Correct Answer(s): B
156. (280). Correct Answer(s): D
157. (180). Correct Answer(s): D
158. (20). Correct Answer(s): C
159. (190). Correct Answer(s): B
160. (270). Correct Answer(s): D
161. (180). Correct Answer(s): D
162. (290). Correct Answer(s): C
163. (30). Correct Answer(s): D
164. (230). Correct Answer(s): A
165. (220). Correct Answer(s): C
166. (260). Correct Answer(s): C
167. (60). Correct Answer(s): A
168. (460). Correct Answer(s): B
169. (250). Correct Answer(s): A
170. (50). Correct Answer(s): C
171. (120). Correct Answer(s): D
172. (10). Correct Answer(s): A
173. (340). Correct Answer(s): B
174. (110). Correct Answer(s): D
175. (300). Correct Answer(s): D
176. (200). Correct Answer(s): D
177. (510). Correct Answer(s): C
178. (170). Correct Answer(s): B
179. (240). Correct Answer(s): C
180. (370). Correct Answer(s): B
181. (280). Correct Answer(s): B
182. (130). Correct Answer(s): C
183. (210). Correct Answer(s): B
184. (380). Correct Answer(s): A
185. (160). Correct Answer(s): D
186. (90). Correct Answer(s): B
187. (70). Correct Answer(s): A
188. (140). Correct Answer(s): D
189. (420). Correct Answer(s): B
190. (310). Correct Answer(s): C
191. (350). Correct Answer(s): D
192. (320). Correct Answer(s): B
193. (180). Correct Answer(s): A
194. (640). Correct Answer(s): D
195. (700). Correct Answer(s): C
196. (40). Correct Answer(s): B
197. (390). Correct Answer(s): C
198. (50). Correct Answer(s): A
199. (70). Correct Answer(s): B
200. (420). Correct Answer(s): D
201. (60). Correct Answer(s): D
202. (460). Correct Answer(s): B
203. (270). Correct Answer(s): D
204. (120). Correct Answer(s): A
205. (480). Correct Answer(s): A
206. (330). Correct Answer(s): B
207. (240). Correct Answer(s): D
208. (30). Correct Answer(s): C
209. (210). Correct Answer(s): D
210. (360). Correct Answer(s): D
211. (140). Correct Answer(s): D
212. (170). Correct Answer(s): B
213. (280). Correct Answer(s): D
214. (380). Correct Answer(s): D
215. (20). Correct Answer(s): B
216. (290). Correct Answer(s): D
217. (440). Correct Answer(s): D
218. (470). Correct Answer(s): D
219. (230). Correct Answer(s): D
220. (110). Correct Answer(s): D
221. (80). Correct Answer(s): A
222. (200). Correct Answer(s): D
223. (260). Correct Answer(s): D
224. (40). Correct Answer(s): D
225. (320). Correct Answer(s): D
226. (370). Correct Answer(s): D
227. (20). Correct Answer(s): D
228. (270). Correct Answer(s): D
229. (300). Correct Answer(s): B
230. (190). Correct Answer(s): B
231. (150). Correct Answer(s): D
232. (240). Correct Answer(s): D
233. (90). Correct Answer(s): A
234. (110). Correct Answer(s): B
235. (200). Correct Answer(s): A
236. (390). Correct Answer(s): A
237. (350). Correct Answer(s): A
238. (260). Correct Answer(s): C
239. (360). Correct Answer(s): D
240. (630). Correct Answer(s): B
241. (380). Correct Answer(s): B
242. (620). Correct Answer(s): A
243. (160). Correct Answer(s): D
244. (290). Correct Answer(s): C
245. (240). Correct Answer(s): B
246. (440). Correct Answer(s): C
247. (90). Correct Answer(s): C
248. (340). Correct Answer(s): B
249. (570). Correct Answer(s): A
250. (480). Correct Answer(s): B
251. (190). Correct Answer(s): D
252. (100). Correct Answer(s): D
253. (420). Correct Answer(s): D
254. (300). Correct Answer(s): B
255. (500). Correct Answer(s): D
256. (10). Correct Answer(s): C
257. (80). Correct Answer(s): D
258. (250). Correct Answer(s): C
259. (60). Correct Answer(s): C
260. (450). Correct Answer(s): A
261. (140). Correct Answer(s): D
262. (310). Correct Answer(s): C
263. (120). Correct Answer(s): C
264. (320). Correct Answer(s): A
265. (130). Correct Answer(s): C
266. (250). Correct Answer(s): A
267. (80). Correct Answer(s): D
268. (90). Correct Answer(s): C
269. (210). Correct Answer(s): A
270. (180). Correct Answer(s): B
271. (30). Correct Answer(s): C
272. (220). Correct Answer(s): B
273. (140). Correct Answer(s): B
274. (70). Correct Answer(s): D
275. (50). Correct Answer(s): D
276. (190). Correct Answer(s): A
277. (240). Correct Answer(s): B
278. (200). Correct Answer(s): D
279. (120). Correct Answer(s): C
280. (40). Correct Answer(s): D
281. (20). Correct Answer(s): B
282. (100). Correct Answer(s): B
283. (170). Correct Answer(s): C
284. (150). Correct Answer(s): D
285. (350). Correct Answer(s):
286. (160). Correct Answer(s): D
287. (180). Correct Answer(s): D
288. (250). Correct Answer(s): D
289. (90). Correct Answer(s): A
290. (40). Correct Answer(s): A
291. (50). Correct Answer(s): A
292. (70). Correct Answer(s): A
293. (30). Correct Answer(s): D
294. (120). Correct Answer(s): A
295. (340). Correct Answer(s):
296. (180). Correct Answer(s): D
297. (170). Correct Answer(s): D
298. (10). Correct Answer(s): B
299. (250). Correct Answer(s): A
300. (280). Correct Answer(s): B
301. (140). Correct Answer(s): A
302. (210). Correct Answer(s): D
303. (310). Correct Answer(s): D
304. (330). Correct Answer(s): C
305. (160). Correct Answer(s): A
306. (400). Correct Answer(s): D
307. (220). Correct Answer(s): C
308. (100). Correct Answer(s): D
309. (320). Correct Answer(s): D
310. (60). Correct Answer(s): B
311. (380). Correct Answer(s): A
312. (230). Correct Answer(s): D
313. (280). Correct Answer(s): A
314. (30). Correct Answer(s): B
315. (260). Correct Answer(s): D
316. (360). Correct Answer(s): D
317. (290). Correct Answer(s): B
318. (130). Correct Answer(s): B
319. (100). Correct Answer(s): A
320. (200). Correct Answer(s): B
321. (50). Correct Answer(s): D
322. (300). Correct Answer(s): B
323. (310). Correct Answer(s):
324. (60). Correct Answer(s): A
325. (390). Correct Answer(s): B
326. (400). Correct Answer(s):
327. (170). Correct Answer(s): D
328. (80). Correct Answer(s): C
329. (40). Correct Answer(s): C
330. (150). Correct Answer(s): B
331. (180). Correct Answer(s): C
332. (250). Correct Answer(s): D
333. (320). Correct Answer(s): B
334. (370). Correct Answer(s): C
335. (110). Correct Answer(s): A
336. (350). Correct Answer(s): D
337. (240). Correct Answer(s): D
338. (340). Correct Answer(s): D
339. (380). Correct Answer(s):
340. (120). Correct Answer(s): C
341. (70). Correct Answer(s): C
342. (20). Correct Answer(s): D
343. (140). Correct Answer(s): D
344. (220). Correct Answer(s): A
345. (330). Correct Answer(s): C
346. (270). Correct Answer(s): D
347. (110). Correct Answer(s): D
348. (90). Correct Answer(s): A
349. (410). Correct Answer(s): A
350. (220). Correct Answer(s): D
351. (310). Correct Answer(s): C
352. (390). Correct Answer(s): D
353. (450). Correct Answer(s): B
354. (360). Correct Answer(s): B
355. (100). Correct Answer(s): C
356. (210). Correct Answer(s): D
357. (270). Correct Answer(s): D
358. (130). Correct Answer(s): A
359. (170). Correct Answer(s): A
360. (350). Correct Answer(s): D
361. (70). Correct Answer(s): D
362. (230). Correct Answer(s): C
363. (380). Correct Answer(s): D
364. (340). Correct Answer(s): D
365. (490). Correct Answer(s): B
366. (260). Correct Answer(s): D
367. (250). Correct Answer(s): A
368. (460). Correct Answer(s): C
369. (40). Correct Answer(s): D
370. (160). Correct Answer(s): C
371. (470). Correct Answer(s): B
372. (200). Correct Answer(s): D
373. (80). Correct Answer(s): D
374. (140). Correct Answer(s): D
375. (60). Correct Answer(s): B
376. (290). Correct Answer(s): D
377. (400). Correct Answer(s): B
378. (300). Correct Answer(s): D
379. (280). Correct Answer(s): D
380. (430). Correct Answer(s): A
381. (180). Correct Answer(s): D
382. (1390). Correct Answer(s): C
383. (1350). Correct Answer(s): C
384. (1430). Correct Answer(s): C
385. (110). Correct Answer(s): B
386. (290). Correct Answer(s): B
387. (270). Correct Answer(s): A
388. (140). Correct Answer(s): C
389. (1400). Correct Answer(s): B
390. (330). Correct Answer(s): C
391. (150). Correct Answer(s): A
392. (160). Correct Answer(s): B
393. (200). Correct Answer(s): D
394. (210). Correct Answer(s): B
395. (180). Correct Answer(s): D
396. (1370). Correct Answer(s): B
397. (1360). Correct Answer(s): C
398. (50). Correct Answer(s): B
399. (320). Correct Answer(s): D
400. (70). Correct Answer(s): D
401. (280). Correct Answer(s): D
402. (250). Correct Answer(s): A
403. (300). Correct Answer(s): C
404. (60). Correct Answer(s): D
405. (310). Correct Answer(s): C
406. (170). Correct Answer(s): A
407. (240). Correct Answer(s): A
408. (80). Correct Answer(s): D
409. (100). Correct Answer(s): A
410. (20). Correct Answer(s): A
411. (1410). Correct Answer(s): C
412. (190). Correct Answer(s): B
413. (220). Correct Answer(s): C
414. (1450). Correct Answer(s): D
415. (1380). Correct Answer(s): D
416. (340). Correct Answer(s): B
417. (480). Correct Answer(s): D
418. (40). Correct Answer(s): D
419. (410). Correct Answer(s): D
420. (400). Correct Answer(s): C
421. (380). Correct Answer(s): B
422. (360). Correct Answer(s): C
423. (500). Correct Answer(s): C
424. (260). Correct Answer(s): B
425. (460). Correct Answer(s): C
426. (70). Correct Answer(s): C
427. (270). Correct Answer(s): D
428. (390). Correct Answer(s): C
429. (60). Correct Answer(s): B
430. (170). Correct Answer(s): B
431. (520). Correct Answer(s): C
432. (250). Correct Answer(s): A
433. (50). Correct Answer(s): C
434. (530). Correct Answer(s): A
435. (510). Correct Answer(s): C
436. (160). Correct Answer(s): C
437. (100). Correct Answer(s): B
438. (290). Correct Answer(s): A
439. (280). Correct Answer(s): C
440. (200). Correct Answer(s): C
441. (300). Correct Answer(s): D
442. (370). Correct Answer(s): A
443. (110). Correct Answer(s): C
444. (220). Correct Answer(s): D
445. (490). Correct Answer(s): D
446. (430). Correct Answer(s): A
447. (440). Correct Answer(s): D
448. (30). Correct Answer(s): A
449. (130). Correct Answer(s): C
450. (180). Correct Answer(s): D
451. (70). Correct Answer(s): D
452. (300). Correct Answer(s): C
453. (120). Correct Answer(s): C
454. (310). Correct Answer(s): C
455. (250). Correct Answer(s): C
456. (230). Correct Answer(s): A
457. (60). Correct Answer(s): A
458. (170). Correct Answer(s): D
459. (240). Correct Answer(s): C
460. (270). Correct Answer(s): A
461. (280). Correct Answer(s): D
462. (80). Correct Answer(s): C
463. (210). Correct Answer(s): B
464. (20). Correct Answer(s): D
465. (260). Correct Answer(s): D
466. (150). Correct Answer(s): B
467. (200). Correct Answer(s): D
468. (30). Correct Answer(s): B
469. (140). Correct Answer(s): D
470. (70). Correct Answer(s): B
471. (110). Correct Answer(s): B
472. (190). Correct Answer(s): B
473. (10). Correct Answer(s): B
474. (90). Correct Answer(s): D
475. (180). Correct Answer(s): A