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The document provides a summary of recent developments in India, including the Ministry of Agriculture's estimates for Kharif and Rabi crop production for 2024-25, which are 1663.91 LMT and 1645.27 LMT respectively. It also discusses the addition of six properties to India's UNESCO tentative list, the release of the World Air Quality Report 2024 highlighting severe pollution levels, and the introduction of the Immigration and Foreigners Bill 2025 aimed at streamlining immigration laws. Additionally, it covers the Indian Ports Bill 2025, the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, and the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund's objectives.

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2nd Week March

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Weekly Optimum Current Q & A PDF – Based On Recent Exam Trends Second Week of March ( 9th March – 17th

k of March ( 9th March – 17th March 2025)

National /State News

1. In March as per report Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has released Second Advance Estimates of production of Major Agricultural Crops
(Kharif & Rabi) for the year 2024-25.
What is the estimated Kharif foodgrain production for the year 2024-25?
A. 1456.12 LMT
B. 1234.56 LMT
C. 1663.91 LMT
D. 1789.23 LMT
E. 1142.56 LMT

• The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has released Second

Advance Estimates of production of Major Agricultural Crops (Kharif & Rabi)
for the year 2024-25.
• The crop area received from the States have been validated and triangulated
with information received from Remote Sensing, Weekly Crop Weather
Watch Group and other agencies. These have been considered while finalising
the estimates.
•
• The Kharif foodgrain production is estimated at 1663.91 LMT, and Rabi foodgrain production is estimated at 1645.27 LMT.
• Kharif Rice production is estimated at 1206.79 LMT as compared to 1132.59 LMT in 2023-24, showing an increase of 74.20 LMT.
• Production of Wheat is estimated at 1154.30 LMT, which is higher by 21.38 LMT as compared to previous year production of 1132.92
LMT.
• Production of Shree Anna (Kharif) is estimated at 137.52 LMT and Shree Anna (Rabi) is estimated at 30.81 LMT.
• Production of Tur and Gram is estimated at 35.11 LMT and 115.35 LMT, respectively and the production of Lentil is estimated at 18.17
LMT.
• The production of Soybean is estimated at 151.32 LMT and production of Rapeseed & Mustard is estimated at 128.73 LMT.
• The production of Cotton is estimated at 294.25 Lakh Bales (of 170 Kg each) and production of Sugarcane is estimated at 4350.79 LMT.
• These estimates have been primarily prepared on the basis of information received from States. The Second Advance Estimates covers
Kharif and Rabi Season, the summer season shall be incorporated in the Third Advance Estimates.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

2. Recently as per report a set of six properties have been added to India's tentative list by the Unesco's World Heritage Centre.
Which of the following is not among the six properties that have been listed to tentative list by the Unesco's World Heritage Centre?
A. Gupta Temples in north India
B. Rock Art Sites of Chambal Valley
C. Mudumal Megalithic Menhirs
D. Chausath Yogini Temples
E. Ashokan Edict Sites

• A set of six properties-including some considered

serially, such as Ashokan Edict Sites and Chausath
Yogini Temples spread across multiple states-have
been added to India's tentative list by Unesco's
World Heritage Centre.
• Addition to the World Heritage Centre's tentative list
is mandatory if a property is to be nominated for
inscription to World Heritage List in future.

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Weekly Optimum Current Q & A PDF – Based On Recent Exam Trends Second Week of March ( 9th March – 17th March 2025)

• The six properties added to the tentative list include Kanger Valley National Park in Chhattisgarh; Mudumal Megalithic Menhirs in Telangana; serial
nomination of Ashokan Edict Sites along the Mauryan Routes (multiple states); serial nomination of Chausath Yogini Temples (multiple states); serial
nomination of Gupta Temples in north India (multiple states), and the palace-fortresses of the Bundelas in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
• With these additions, India now has 62 sites on the tentative list. The 'tentative list' is an inventory of properties each country intends to consider for
Unesco nomination.
• At present, a total of 43 properties from India are inscribed on Unesco World Heritage List, including 35 in the 'Cultural' category, seven in 'Natural' and
one in 'Mixed' category.
• India hosted a World Heritage Committee meeting for the first time in 2024, during which the Moidams-the mound-burial system of the Ahom Dynasty in
Assam-was accorded the coveted Unesco tag.
• India adds six properties to tentative list for Unesco recognition | India News - Business Standard

3. In March as per report World Air Quality Report 2024 has been released by Swiss air quality technology company IQAir.
The report looked at the data from over 40,000 air quality monitoring stations across 138 countries, territories, and regions, and was analysed by IQAir’s
air quality scientists.
Which of the following is not among the top 5 polluted cities in world?
A. Dhaka
B. Mullanpur
C. Delhi
D. Karaganda
E. Byrnihat

• The World Air Quality Report 2024 has been released by

Swiss air quality technology company IQAir.
• The report looked at the data from over 40,000 air quality
monitoring stations across 138 countries, territories, and
regions, and was analysed by IQAir’s air quality scientists.
• Byrnihat (Assam) is the most polluted city globally, while
Delhi remains the most polluted capital.
• India ranked fifth in air pollution in 2024, improving from
third place in 2023.
• The World Air Quality Report 2024 by IQAir highlights severe
pollution in India, with 13 of the world's 20 most polluted
cities located in the country.
• Delhi has once again been ranked as the world’s most
polluted capital, surpassing other cities in the National
Capital Region (NCR) in 2023.
• The report that analysed a critical pollutant particulate
matter 2.5 (PM2.5) data from over 40,000 air quality
monitoring stations across 8,954 locations in 138 countries,
finds Chad — a central African country — as the most
polluted country last year, followed by Bangladesh,
Pakistan, Congo and India by exceeding the WHO standards
of acceptable limit of that pollutant multiple times.
• Seven countries met the WHO annual average PM2.5 guideline of 5 µg/m3: Australia, Bahamas, Barbados, Estonia, Grenada, Iceland, and New Zealand.
• Top 5 most polluted cities are - Byrnihat (India), Delhi (India), Karaganda (Kazakhstan), Mullanpur (India), Lahore (Pakistan).
• Most Polluted Cities: With 13 of 20 most polluted cities, India ranks 5th globally | India News - The Times of India Explained: Delhi’s air worst among capitals,
Byrnihat’s the world’s most foul, finds new report | Explained News - The Indian Express

4. In March as per report government introduced the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 in Parliament.
Immigration and Foreigners Bill 2025 aims to streamline immigration laws, strengthen national security, and impose stricter penalties for violations.
As per bill using forged travel documents for entry, stay, or departure could lead to jail terms of two to seven years and fines ranging from _________.
A. ₹5 lakh to ₹15 lakh
B. ₹2 lakh to ₹10 lakh
C. ₹3 lakh to ₹5 lakh

D. ₹1 lakh to ₹10 lakh

E. ₹1 lakh to ₹15 lakh

5. In March as per report Union government introduced The Immigration and Foreigners Bill,
2025, which it said is aimed at strengthening India’s borders and streamlining the law
governing immigration and foreigners.
The Bill repeals and replaces the _________.
1. Indian Nationality Act 1972
2. Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939
3. Foreigners Act, 1946
4. Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920
5. Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000.

Select the correct source code:

A. Only 1,4 and 5
B. Only 2,3,4 and 5
C. Only 4 and 5
D. Only 3 and 5
E. All of the above

• The government introduced the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025.

• The bill aims to replace colonial-era laws, including the Foreigners Act, 1946, the
Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920, the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, and the
Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000.
• The objective is to enhance national security, control immigration procedures, and
introduce stricter penalties on foreigners who violate entry and stay conditions.
• The bill states that any person entering or leaving India must have a valid passport and
visa. Further, a foreigner staying in India must have the valid documents unless
exempted under Section 33.
• Further, the bill aims to mandate registration for foreigners upon arrival, restricting their movement, name changes, and access to protected and
restricted areas.
• As per the bill, violations will attract heavy penalties. Arriving in India without a valid passport or visa may attract imprisonment of up to five years and a
fine of up to Rs 5 lakh.
• Foreigners using forged documents could face a jail term of two to seven years, with fines ranging from Rs 1 lakh to Rs 10 lakh.
• Additionally, overstaying, violating visa conditions or trespassing in restricted areas could result in three years imprisonment and fine of up to Rs 3 lakh.
• Transport carriers carrying foreigners without valid documents will be held liable and can be fined up to Rs 5 lakh.
• The bill also gives authority to immigration officers to arrest individuals without a warrant and empowers the central government to regulate the
movement of foreigners.
• No person can not leave the country if their presence is required by any authorised agency.
• Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025: What are the proposed laws and penalties on violation? - The Economic Times

6. Indian Ports Bill, 2025, which has been approved by the cabinet and is likely to be introduced in the second half of Parliament’s budget session, proposes
to make 23 violations as criminal offences, including those related to safety and (marine) pollution at ports, oil spills and waste disposal.
The bill proposes to have penalties ranging between _________and imprisonment in some cases.
A. Rs 10,000 and Rs 1 lakh
B. Rs 50,000 and Rs 2 lakh
C. Rs 20,000 and Rs 5 lakh
D. Rs 50,000 and Rs 5 lakh
E. Rs 10,000 and Rs 2 lakh

• To bring sweeping changes in the 118-year-old Indian Ports Act, the govt has proposed that all ports — major and minor — will have to report any
incident that threatens pollution of coastal waters and damage to their properties and provide data on trade and commerce.

• The Indian Ports Bill, 2025, which has been approved by the cabinet and is likely to
be introduced in the second half of Parliament’s budget session, proposes to make
23 violations as criminal offences, including those related to safety and (marine)
pollution at ports, oil spills and waste disposal.
• The bill proposes to have penalties ranging between Rs 10,000 and Rs 2 lakh, and
imprisonment in some cases.
• The bill also proposes to designate big ports as “major ports”, which can be either
major ports owned by the central government or minor ones by private players and
state governments.
• The new Indian Ports Bill 2025, which seeks to repeal the over century old Indian
Ports Act 1908, with a carrot – and – stick approach.
• Amongst other major changes beyond statutory validation of the Maritime State
Development Council, it will be chaired by the Union Shipping Minister with
advisory powers extending to non-major ports in India (earlier it was just the 12
major ports).
• India’s New Ports Bill: Stricter safety, pollution control, and penalties but transparent
charges, easier dispute resolution - The Hindu BusinessLine

7. In March as per report Lok Sabha passed the Oilfields (Regulation and
Development) Amendment Bill, 2024 on March 12, 2025, marking a significant step
in modernising India’s oil and gas sector.
The new Bill replaces imprisonment with financial penalties, increasing the
maximum fine to _________.
A. ₹10 lakh
B. ₹20 lakh
C. ₹15 lakh
D. ₹25 lakh
E. ₹30 lakh

• Lok Sabha passed the Oilfield (Regulatory and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024. The Bill was earlier passed by
the Rajya Sabha on 3rd December, 2024.
• The Bill seeks to update the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Act, 1948, bringing clarity to resource
governance, attracting private investment, and addressing environmental concerns.
• The scope of mineral oils have been broadened by the amendment to include hydrocarbons such as crude oil,
natural gas, petroleum, condensate, coal bed methane, shale gas, and oil.
• However, it explicitly excludes coal, lignite, and helium, likely because these are governed under the Mines and
Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
• The Bill replaces the term ‘mining leases’ with ‘petroleum leases’, which will now govern exploration, production,
and disposal activities.
• The violations of the Oilfields Act, 1948, could previously result in imprisonment of up to six months or a fine of
₹1,000, or both. The new Bill replaces imprisonment with financial penalties, increasing the maximum fine to ₹25
lakh.
• If violations continue, an extra fine of up to ₹10 lakh per day may be imposed. The move shifts the focus from
criminal prosecution to financial deterrents for non-compliance.
• The government aims to use this Bill to strengthen domestic oil and gas production, reducing dependence on
imports. Currently, India imports over 85 per cent of its crude oil and about 50 per cent of its natural gas, making
energy security a critical issue.
• Press Release:Press Information BureauDecoded: What does the Oilfields Bill 2024 mean for India's energy sector? |
Industry News - Business Standard

8. Consider the following statement regarding Agriculture Infrastructure Fund. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. The Fund of Rs. 1 lakh crore under the scheme will be disbursed from FY 2020-21 to FY2025-26.
2. The support under the scheme will be provided for the duration of FY2020-21 to FY2032-33.
3. Under the scheme, Rs. 1 Lakh Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans with interest subvention of 3% per annum.

4. Credit guarantee coverage under CGTMSE for loans up to Rs. 2 Crores is provided under the scheme.
5. Each entity is eligible to get the benefit of the scheme for up to 20 projects located in different LGD codes.

• AIF was introduced with a vision to transform

the agriculture infrastructure landscape of the
country.
• The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund is a medium -
long term debt financing facility for investment
in viable projects for post- harvest management
infrastructure and community farming assets
through interest subvention and credit
guarantee support.
• The Fund of Rs. 1 lakh crore under the scheme
will be disbursed from FY 2020-21 to FY2025-26
and the support under the scheme will be
provided for the duration of FY2020-21 to
FY2032-33.
• Under the scheme, Rs. 1 Lakh Crore will be
provided by banks and financial institutions as
loans with interest subvention of 3% per annum
and credit guarantee coverage under CGTMSE
for loans up to Rs. 2 Crores.
• Further, each entity is eligible to get the benefit of the scheme for up to 25 projects located in different LGD codes.
• News Link - Press Release:Press Information Bureau (pib.gov.in)

9. Consider the following statement regarding Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) Scheme. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. This is a one-time scheme announced in Budget 2023 and will remain available for a two-year period, i.e., up to March 2025.
2. The scheme offers a maximum deposit facility of up to Rs 2 lakh in the name of women or girls for a tenure of 2 years.
3. A minimum of Rs. 1000 and any sum in multiples of one hundred rupees may be deposited in an account subject to a maximum of Rs. 2 lakhs.
4. It offers a fixed interest rate of 7.0 percent. Interest shall be compounded every quarter and credited to the account.
5. The account holder can withdraw up to 40% of the account balance after one year from the account opening date as a partial withdrawal.

• Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) Scheme is a one-time scheme announced in Budget 2023 and will remain available for a two-year period, i.e.,
up to March 2025.
• It is a risk-free scheme dedicated towards women's and girls’ of all age groups.
• The scheme offers a maximum deposit facility of up to Rs 2 lakh in the name of women or girls for a tenor of 2 years.
• The deposit amount under this scheme is limited.
• A minimum of Rs. 1000 and any sum in multiples of one hundred rupees may be deposited in an account subject to a maximum of Rs. 2 lakhs.
• It offers a fixed interest rate of 7.5 percent. Interest shall be compounded on a quarterly basis and credited to the account.
• The Maturity period/Lock-in period of the scheme is 2 years from the date of opening of the account.
• However, the account holder can withdraw up to 40% of the account balance after one year from the account opening date as a partial withdrawal.
• There is a provision of multiple account opening under this scheme with a condition that a woman can open a second MSSC accou nt after a minimum gap
of three months from the opening of the existing account.
• However, the total deposit, including all the accounts, should not exceed Rs 2 lakh.
News Link - Centre unlikely to extend Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme | Economy & Policy News - Business Standard (business-standard.com)

10. Consider the following statement regarding Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) scheme was launched formally by the Union Minister of Women and Child Development in 2017.
2. Under, PMMVY maternity benefits of ₹8,000/- is provided directly to the Bank/Post Office account of the beneficiary in Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)
mode for first child.
3. Cash incentive of ₹6,000/- is also provided under PMMVY to eligible beneficiaries for second child subject to the second child being a girl to promote
positive behavioural change towards girl child.
4. Additionally, Rs. 1,000 is provided under the Janani Suraksha Yojana post-institutional delivery.

5. The Rs. 5,000 is provided in three installments. The first installment of Rs. 1,000 is paid at the time of registration of the pregnancy, second installment
of Rs. 2,000 is paid at the time of completing 6 months of pregnancy and third installment of Rs. 2,000 is received after the birth and registration of birth
of such child and after such child receives the first cycle of immunization for BCG

• The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is being implemented as per provision under Section 4 of the National Food Security Act (NFSA),
2013 which provides for financial support for pregnant and lactating mothers.
• It is a Centrally Sponsored Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) scheme launched in 2017.
• Under, PMMVY maternity benefits of ₹5,000/- is provided directly to the Bank/Post Office account of the beneficiary in Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)
mode for first child.
• The eligible beneficiary receives the remaining cash incentive as per approved norms towards Maternity Benefit under Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) after
institutional delivery so that on an average, a woman gets ₹6,000/-.
• Cash incentive of ₹6,000/- is also provided under PMMVY to eligible beneficiaries for second child subject to the second child being a girl to promote
positive behavioural change towards girl child.
• The Rs. 5,000 is provided in three installments.
• The first installment of Rs. 1,000 is paid at the time of registration of the pregnancy.
• The second installment of Rs. 2,000 is paid at the time of completing 6 months of pregnancy and receiving at least one antenatal checkup.
• The third installment of Rs. 2,000 is received after the birth and registration of birth of such child and after such child receives the first cycle of
immunization for BCG, OPV, DPT and Hepatitis-B.
• Implementation of the scheme is closely monitored by the central and state governments through PMMVY-CAS, a web-based software application.
• The application is interoperable with Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) and Public Financial Management System7(PFMS) for
authentication of unique beneficiaries and their Bank Accounts.
• News Link - Press Release:Press information Bureau (pib.gov.in) doc20221195901.pdf (pib.gov.in)

11. In March as per report PB-SHABD, a 24/7 news hub, has completed one year since its launch in March 2024. What is the full form of SHABD?
A. Hub for Audio-Visual Dissemination
B. Shared Media for Broadcast and Distribution
C. Shared Hub for Audio-Visual Broadcast and Distribution
D. Shared Audio-Visuals for Broadcast and Dissemination
E. Simplified Hub for Audio-Visual Data

• Prasar Bharati's PB-SHABD (Prasar Bharati-Shared Audio-Visuals for Broadcast and Dissemination), launched in March 2024, is celebrating its first
anniversary.
• The platform provides free access to media organizations, offering over 1,000 daily news stories across more than 50 categories, such as agriculture,
technology, foreign affairs, and politics.
• The service, which will remain free until March 2026, aims to support smaller media outlets by providing logo-free content in text, video, picture, and
audio formats in all major Indian languages.
• PB-SHABD offers extensive coverage through a network of over 1,500 reporters and 60 dedicated edit desks.
• The content provided through PB-SHABD is logo-free, and no credit is required on using content from this platform. Additionally, the service includes a
Live Feed feature, offering exclusive coverage of live events such as events of national importance as well as various press briefings, all without logo.
• Press Release:Press Information BureauPB-SHABD completes one year: Free subscription extended till March 2026 to support media organisations

12. Recently PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (PMSGMBY), the world’s largest domestic rooftop solar initiative, has crossed a historic milestone with 10 lakh
homes now powered by solar energy as of March 10.
Which of the following is not among the top 5 states with the highest number of households benefiting under the PM Surya Ghar?
A. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Rajasthan

• PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (PMSGMBY), the world’s largest domestic rooftop solar initiative, has achieved a historic milestone with 10 lakh homes
now solar-powered as of 10th March 2025.

• Launched by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on 13th February 2024, this
transformative scheme is rapidly reshaping India’s energy landscape. With 47.3 lakh
applications received, the initiative has already disbursed ₹4,770 crore in subsidies to 6.13
lakh beneficiaries, making solar energy more accessible than ever.
• The scheme’s easy financing options, including collateral-free loans up to ₹2 lakh at a
6.75% subsidized interest rate through 12 Public Sector Banks, have further accelerated
adoption.
• With a seamless 15-day subsidy transfer process and zero electricity bills for many
beneficiaries, the scheme is not just powering homes but also empowering people.
• Every solar installation under PMSGMBY offsets carbon emissions equal to planting 100
trees, driving India towards a cleaner, greener, and self-reliant future.
• The scheme has seen remarkable progress across several states. Notably, Chandigarh and
Daman & Diu have achieved 100% of their government building rooftop solar targets,
leading the nation in clean energy adoption. States like Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat,
and Tamil Nadu are also performing exceptionally well, contributing significantly to the
overall installation figures.
• Top 5 states with the highest number of households benefiting under the PM Surya Ghar:
Muft Bijli Yojana - Gujarat, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Rajasthan.
Press Release:Press Information BureauIndia’s Solar Revolution: PM Surya Ghar achieves
milestone of 10 lakh solar installations

13. Recently as per report Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) has targeted to install
solar power projects on rooftops of _________ lakh households equalling about 10.5
gigawatts capacity in the next financial year, beginning April 2025.
A. 25 lakh
B. 35 lakh
C. 40 lakh
D. 45 lakh
E. 50 lakh

• The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) has

targeted to install solar power projects on rooftops of 35 lakh
households equalling about 10.5 gigawatts capacity in the
next financial year, beginning April 2025.
• For 2025-26, the scheme has been allocated a budget of ₹20,000 crore to complete 35 lakh installations equalling around 10.5 GW capacity.
• During FY26, a budget estimate (BE) of ₹26,549.38 crore has been allocated to the Ministry, which is an increase of about 53.48 per cent on the RE of
₹17,298.44 crore for FY25.
• PM Surya Ghar accounts for more than three-fourth of the total budgeted spending on MNRE’s central sector schemes and projects ( ₹26,399.37 crore),
which includes solar power, wind power, renewable energy sources (RES) and green hydrogen mission.
• Recently Minister for New & Renewable Energy Pralhad Joshi announced on X (formerly Twitter) that the Ministry has achieved 10 lakh installations
under PM Surya Ghar scheme.
• In FY25, which ends this month, the Ministry had set a target of installing solar power projects on rooftops of 25 lakh households. However, it expects to
install 12 lakh projects till March 31, 2025.
• Under the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, the Ministry aims at solarizing one crore households by providing free electricity up to 300 units every month
through rooftop solar installations. The government has allocated around ₹75,000 crore and it has to be implemented by FY27.
• MNRE targets solar installations at 35 lakh households under PM Surya Ghar in FY26 - The Hindu BusinessLine

14. In March as per report a massive avalanche struck a BRO project site near ___________ trapping 22 workers under ice, with ongoing rescue operations by
the Indian Army and ITBP.
A. Khardung village
B. Mana village
C. Leh village
D. Joshimath village
E. Sonamarg village

• A massive glacier avalanche struck a Border Roads Organisation (BRO) project site in Mana
village, Uttarakhand, leaving 22 workers trapped under ice. The rescue operations, led by the
Indian Army and Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), have been hampered by continuous
snowfall.
• An avalanche is typically triggered when material on a slope breaks loose from its
surroundings; this material then quickly collects and carries additional material down the
slope.
• The IBEX Brigade is a specialized unit of the Indian Army, known for its expertise in high-
altitude operations.
• Recently, led rescue operations in Mana Village, Chamoli district, Uttarakhand, following a
glacier avalanche.
• The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is a statutory body under the ownership of the Ministry
of Defence of the Government of India.
• Uttarakhand avalanche: What is it, how does it happen, and what led to the disaster | India
News - The Times of India Uttarakhand avalanche: 33 rescued, search for 22 | India News - The
Indian Express

15. Consider the following statement regarding Prime Minister Internship Scheme (PMIS). Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. The Prime Minister Internship Scheme is spearheaded by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
2. The scheme targets individuals aged 21 to 24 who are currently not enrolled in any full-time academic program or employment,
offering them a unique chance to kick-start their careers.
3. Each intern will be supported with monthly financial assistance of ₹5,000, supplemented by one-time financial assistance of
₹6,000.
4. The internship opportunities span 27 sectors, including oil, gas, energy, travel, hospitality, automotive, and banking and financial
services, etc.
5. Internships under the Prime Minister Internship Scheme will be for a duration of one year (12 months).

• The Prime Minister Internship

Scheme(PMIS) is once again
open for applications with the
launch of Round 2 of the pilot
phase.
• In the round I of the pilot
project (October – December
2024), over 1.27 lakh
opportunities in about 745
districts were posted by around
280 companies
• The internship opportunities
span 25 sectors, including oil,
gas, energy, travel, hospitality,
automotive, and banking and
financial services, etc.
• The round II of the Pilot Project commenced in January 2025 and about 327 companies have posted more than 1.18 lakh
opportunities (both new and edited unfilled opportunities of the previous round) across the country.
• The companies selected for this were identified based on their corporate social responsibility (CSR) expenditure over the past three
years.
• Eligibility Criteria: Passed 10th, 12th, ITI, Polytechnic, or Diploma courses. Fresh graduates from non-premier institutions.
International candidates are not eligible to apply for the Prime Minister Internship Scheme.
• Eligible youth can explore and select internships based on their preferred district, state, sector, area and filter internships within a
customisable radius from their specified current address. In round 2, each applicant can apply to up to 3 internships until the
application deadline.
• The Prime Minister Internship Scheme - spearheaded by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs - is designed to harness the potential of
India's youth population by providing them with 12 month paid internships in top companies of India.
• The scheme targets individuals aged 21 to 24 who are currently not enrolled in any full-time academic program or employment,
offering them a unique chance to kick-start their careers.
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• Each intern will be supported with monthly financial assistance of ₹5,000, supplemented by one-time financial assistance of ₹6,000. Partner companies
will release ₹1000 each month and the Government will pay ₹4,000 to the candidate through the Direct Benefit Transfer to the intern's Aadhaar seeded
bank account.
• Each internship will be a combination of relevant training and professional experience (at least six months) to ensure that candidates learn and can also
apply their skills in real-world settings.
• Press Release: Press Information BureauFM Nirmala Sitharaman to launch PM Internship Scheme app on Monday | Finance News - Business Standard

16. Recently as per report which of following IIT is developing the country's first VR-enabled metaverse platform for PM Shri schools under the project called
"Gyandhara" in collaboration with Ministry of Science and Technologyto engage students'?
A. IIT Delhi
B. IIT Ropar
C. IIT Kanpur
D. IIT Guwahati
E. IIT Madras

• Learning concepts of maths and science in local languages using virtual reality will soon be possible for students at PM Shri Adarsh Vidyalayas in Assam
with the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Guwahati developing the country's first VR-enabled metaverse platform for schools.
• The project called "Gyandhara" in collaboration with Ministry of Science and Technology, and Department of Education, Assam Government will start as
a pilot initiative in 56 PM Shri schools in Assam, later this year.
• It will be enhanced through virtual reality technology to provide immersive and engaging educational content for students aged 13 to 18.
• The pilot for classes 8 to 12 will begin in 56 schools and expanded to schools across North East and the rest of the country ultimately. Three subjects
covered under the initiative are maths, science and social science.
• IIT Guwahati developing India's first VR-enabled metaverse platform for PM SHRI schools - Hindustan Times

17. In March as per report National Highways Logistics Management Limited (NHLML) and the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) signed mou to
develop a state-of-the-art Multi-Modal Logistics Park (MMLP) in ___________.
A. Patna, Bihar
B. Kolkata, West Bengal
C. Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh
D. Sahibganj, Jharkhand
E. Haldia, West Bengal

• The National Highways Logistics Management (NHLML) and Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) signed a
memorandum of understanding (MoU) to develop a state-of-the-art multi-modal logistics park (MMLP) in Varanasi, Uttar
Pradesh.
• The 150-acre park will integrate with the Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor through a 5.1 km railway line from
Jeonathpur Station and National Waterway-1 and is located 30 km from Lal Bahadur Shastri Airport.
• The logistics park is connected to NH7 via a 650m access road and is just 1.5 km from the NH7-NH2 junction.
• The road transport and highways minister Nitin Gadkari aims to bring down the logistics cost in India to 9% in two years from the current 14-16%, aimed
at making India products competitive in the global market.
• Press Release: Press Information BureauIndia signs MoU for development of state of the art multi modal logistics park in Varanasi

18. In March as per report _________ state government announced plans to launch its own satellite, soon, aiming to strengthen data access for key socio-
economic initiatives and enhance border surveillance.
A. Haryana
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Kerala
D. Assam
E. Odisha

• The Assam state government announced plans to launch its own satellite, ASSAMSAT soon, aiming to strengthen data access for key socio-economic
initiatives and enhance border surveillance.
• Assam will be the first state in the country to have its satellite.The satellite, which will be geostationary, is expected to cost between Rs 450 crore to Rs
500 crore.
• The announcement was made by Assam finance minister Ajanta Neog while tabling the Budget for the financial year 2025-26.
• The ASSAMSAT satellite can help providing dedicated services for agriculture, disaster management, infrastructure development, and security border
management and police operations.
• The satellite will be set up in collaboration with IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center) which promotes private
investment and innovation in the space sector and Indian Space Research Organisation (Isro).
• Assam Police will be encouraged to set up India's first AI-based lab to combat deepfake threats and enhance cyber surveillance.
• Further, Assam will promote bioplastic startups to establish Assam as the country's first Green Packaging Industrial Hub.
• Assam to launch its satellite, talks on with Isro for ASSAMSAT project | Budget 2025 News - Business Standard

19. In March as per report Department of Biotechnology (DBT) signed a landmark Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with _________ under the BioE3
(Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) Policy o accelerate high-performance biomanufacturing while fostering a sustainable
biotechnology ecosystem.
A. Odisha
B. Assam
C. Punjab
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Haryana

• The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and the Government of Assam signed a landmark memorandum of understanding (MoU) under the BioE3
(Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) Policy.
• This Centre-State partnership is the first of its kind under the BioE3 framework and aims to accelerate high-performance biomanufacturing while
fostering a sustainable biotechnology ecosystem in Assam.
• The BioE3 Policy, approved by the Union Cabinet on 24th August 2024, envisages to establish India as a global leader in bio-based innovations,
emphasizing sustainable biomanufacturing across various thematic areas.
• The MoU signed between DBT, and the Government of Assam formalizes a strategic collaboration in which DBT will extend its guidance and facilitate
partnerships, while the latter will spearhead initiatives by establishing a State BioE3 Cell and developing an Assam BioE3 Action Plan.
• The Union Cabinet has approved the 'BioE3' (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment) Policy, for fostering high-performance
biomanufacturing of the Department of Biotechnology.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

20. In March as per report Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) has increased the wages of Khadi artisans by 20 percent from April 1, 2025.
As per the increased rate, they will now get _______per hank spun.
A. Rs.20
B. Rs.15
C. Rs.17
D. Rs.13
E. Rs.18

• Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) Chairman Manoj Kumar said that the 'Khadi Revolution' has brought about a comprehensive change in
the lives of artisans in the past 10 years under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• The wages of Khadi artisans will be increased by 20 per cent from April 1, 2025.
• Presently, spinners get Rs 12.50 for spinning per hank on the charkha, which will be increased by Rs 2.50 from April 1, 2025. As per the increased rate,
they will now get Rs 15 per hank spun.
• The sale of Khadi and Village Industry products increased 5 times i.e. from Rs 31,000 crore to Rs 1,55,000 crore in the financial year 2023-24.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

21. In March as per report Union Coal and Mines Minister G Kishan Reddy launched nation's first-ever auction of Exploration Licences (ELs) for _________
exploration blocks for critical minerals.
A. 18
B. 13
C. 15
D. 11
E. 19

• Union Minister Shri G. Kishan Reddy and Chief Minister of Goa Dr. Pramod Sawant jointly
launched the auction of 13 Exploration Licence blocks, covering critical minerals such as Rare
Earth Elements (REE), Zinc, Diamond, Copper, and Platinum Group Elements (PGE).
• The licenses are for the exploration blocks for minerals like REE (rare earth elements), zinc,
diamond, copper, PGE (platinum group minerals) and others.
• The program also featured a Roadshow on the 5th Tranche of Auction of Critical Mineral Blocks
and the inauguration of AI Hackathon 2025, focusing on 'Mineral Targeting using AI'.
• To further encourage private participation in mineral exploration, Union Minister Shri G. Kishan
Reddy and Chief Minister Dr. Pramod Sawant awarded certificates to three newly notified
Private Exploration Agencies: M/s Earthenviro Lab Private Limited, M/s Ocean Drilling and
Exploration Pvt. Ltd and M/s Enkay Enviro Services Pvt. Ltd.
• Press Release:Press Information BureauGovt launches India's first exploration licence auction for critical minerals - The Hindu BusinessLine

22. As per a secondary market research analysis published by Bain and Company in the year 2025, Indian pharmaceutical exports ranked _________ globally
in value terms in the year 2023 and accounted for 3% of the total pharmaceutical exports.
A. 9th
B. 7th
C. 5th
D. 4th
E. 11th

• As per a secondary market research analysis published by Bain and Company in the year 2025, Indian pharmaceutical exports ranked 11th globally in
value terms in the year 2023 and accounted for 3% of the total pharmaceutical exports.
• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare have taken several measures to ensure the
quality, safety and efficacy of medicines.
• Under the policy, the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA), under the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), fixes ceiling prices under the
provisions of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

23. What is the name of the app launched by Geological Survey of India to promote and conserve India's geo-heritage sites through virtual geotourism,
interactive features, and knowledge testing?
A. Bhuvan
B. GeoGuide
C. Arth App
D. OCBIS
E. Bhuvirasat

• On March 10, 2025, the Geological Survey of India (GSI) launched the "Bhuvirasat" mobile application, a geo-heritage app, on its 175th Foundation Day.
• The app is designed to promote awareness and understanding of geo-heritage sites.
• The Union Minister also launched a Field Data Acquisition App along with Bhuvirasat.
• The developer of the app is BISAG-N. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a government agency responsible for geological mapping and research in
India.
• pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2108256

24. In March as per report Assam state government announced that the upcoming Electronic City in Jagiroad in Morigaon district will be named after
__________.
A. Jagadish Chandra Bose
B. Manmohan Singh
C. Bharat Ratna Bhupen Hazarika
D. Ratan Tata
E. APJ Abdul Kalam

• Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma announced that the upcoming Electronic City in Jagiroad in Morigaon district will be named after late
industrialist Ratan Tata.
• Ratan Tata died at the age of 86 on October 9, 2024. Under his leadership, the Tata Group expanded globally, acquiring brands such as Tetley, Jaguar
Land Rover, and Corus.
• The Assam government’s decision to name the Electronic City after Ratan Tata is a tribute to his contribution to India's industrial and technological
development.
• At the recently held Advantage Assam 2.0 Investment and Infrastructure Summit in the state, Sarma had announced the setting up of the ₹27,000 crore
Tata semiconductor assembly plant at Jagiroad.
• Tata Power integrated power companies have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) at Advantage Assam 2.0 to further its commitment to
renewable energy and sustainable development in the state.
• Assam news: Electronic City in Jagiroad renamed Ratan Tata Electronic City | Today News Electronic city to be named after Late Ratan Naval Tata in Assam -
The Economic Times

25. In March as per report Department of Posts has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the ___________ for designing and documenting
the technology architecture for the Digital Address Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI).
A. Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru
B. Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT), Hyderabad
C. Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (CDAC)
D. National Informatics Centre (NIC)
E. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Delhi

• Department of Posts has undertaken an initiative namely “Digital Address Code” aimed at establishing a digital public infrastructure for a standardized,
geo-coded addressing system in India ensuring simplified addressing solutions for citizen-centric delivery of public and private services to establish
Address as a Service (AaaS) in India.
• As a part of this initiative, the Department of Posts (DoP) has signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the Foundation for Science Innovation
and Development (FSID), Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, for designing and documenting the technology architecture for the Digital Address
Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI).
• The collaboration between the Department of Posts and FSID, IISc marks a significant step towards a seamless, efficient, and technology-driven
addressing system, reinforcing India’s leadership in digital innovation.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

26. Recently as per report government has established three AI Centres of Excellence (CoE) in Healthcare, Agriculture, and Sustainable Cities in New Delhi.
The Budget 2025 further announced a new CoE for __________with an outlay of ₹500 crore, making it the fourth such centre.
A. AI in Digital Manufacturing
B. AI in Environmental Sustainability
C. AI in Disaster Management
D. AI in Education
E. AI in Cybersecurity

• The central government will set up a centre for excellence (CoE) in Artificial Intelligence (AI) for education with an outlay of ₹500 crore,
• The CoE for AI in education is the fourth such centre to be announced. In 2023, Sitharaman announced a CoE in AI for agriculture, health, and sustainable
cities.
• India is undergoing a remarkable transformation in Artificial Intelligence, driven by the visionary leadership of PM Modi.

• For the first time in India’s history, the government is actively shaping an AI ecosystem where computing power, GPUs, and research opportunities are
accessible at an affordable cost.
• India is rapidly building a strong AI computing and semiconductor infrastructure to support its growing digital economy. With the approval of the IndiaAI
Mission in 2024, the government allocated ₹10,300 crore over five years to strengthen AI capabilities.
• A key focus of this mission is the development of a high-end common computing facility equipped with 18,693 Graphics Processing Units (GPUs), making
it one of the most extensive AI compute infrastructures globally.
• The initial phase of the mission has already made 10,000 GPUs available, with the remaining units to be added soon.
• The government has selected 10 companies to supply the GPUs, ensuring a robust and diversified supply chain.
• To further strengthen domestic capabilities, India aims to develop its own GPU within the next three to five years, reducing reliance on imported
technology.
• A new common compute facility will soon be launched, allowing researchers and startups to access GPU power at a highly subsidised rate of ₹100 per
hour, compared to the global cost of $2.5 to $3 per hour.
• The world’s first government-funded multimodal LLM initiative, BharatGen was launched in 2024 in Delhi.
• An open-source video transcreation platform developed by AI4Bhārat, Chitralekha enables users to generate and edit audio transcripts in various Indic
languages.
• A large language model optimised for Indian languages, Sarvam-1 has 2 billion parameters and supports ten major Indian languages.
• According to the Stanford AI Index 2024, India ranks first globally in AI skill penetration with a score of 2.8, ahead of the US (2.2) and Germany (1.9).
India also leads in AI Skill Penetration for Women, with a score of 1.7, surpassing the US (1.2) and Israel (0.9).
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

27. What is the name of the portal which contains data of all government schemes of different ministries– that will start publishing real-time employment
data, an outcome of schemes and projects by creating synergies across ministries/departments?
A. Jeevan
B. Shakti
C. Roshni
D. Prayas
E. Pragati

• The government is soon likely to publish integrated real-time employment data on the ‘Prayas’
portal, to present a timely picture of the job situation in the country.
• The Prayas portal–a website which contains data of all government schemes of different ministries–
will start publishing real-time employment data, an outcome of schemes and projects by creating
synergies across ministries/departments.
• The Ministry of Labour & Employment (MoLE) in recent months has held consultations with over 20
Union ministries and departments in an attempt to build synergies and integrate efforts, which
currently exists in silos.
• In the absence of real-time data, policy makers currently rely on the Periodic Labour Force Survey
(PLFS) to assess the employment scenario in the country. To an extent, the Reserve Bank of India’s
(RBI)-KLEMS database is also looked at to make such assessments.
• Real-time data on job creation soon - Jobs and Career News | The Financial Express

28. In March as per report government has announced a __________ billion fund to give a boost to the emerging creators' economy in the country and
reached out to envoys from over 100 countries seeking their participation in the first World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit (WAVES) to be held in
Mumbai.
A. $2 billion
B. $3 billion
C. $1 billion
D. $5 billion
E. $10 billion

29. Recently as per report government announced a $1 billion fund to give a boost to the emerging creators’ economy in the country and reached out to
envoys from over 100 countries seeking their participation in the first World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit (WAVES).
As per report first Indian Institute of Creative Technology (IICT) will be established at _________.

A. Noida, Uttar Pradesh

B. Goregaon, Mumbai
C. Pune, Maharashtra
D. Bengaluru, Karnataka
E. Hyderabad, Telangana

• The government announced a $1 billion fund to give a boost to the

emerging creators’ economy in the country and reached out to envoys
from over 100 countries seeking their participation in the first World
Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit (WAVES) to be held in
Mumbai.
• India is positioning WAVES to be held from May 1 to 4 as the first
convergence platform for the media and entertainment sector on the
lines of the World Economic Forum at Davos, a gathering of
international leaders from governance and business.
• The first Indian Institute of Creative Technology (IICT) will be established near Film City in Goregaon, Mumbai with the
government allocating Rs 391 crore for the project.
• Govt announces 1 billion dollar fund for creators' economy, ahead of WAVES 2025 -Centre announces $1 bn fund for
creators' economy ahead of WAVES summit | Industry News - Business Standard

30. According to the data shared by government number of enterprises registered as startups under the Startup India programme has jumped to 1.61 lakh as
of January 31, 2025.
Which of the following are among the top 3 state with most number of registered startups?
1. Odisha
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Maharashtra
5. Delhi

Select the correct source code:

A. Only 1,2 and 3
B. Only 4 and 5
C. Only 1,3 and 5
D. Only 2,4 and 5
E. All of the above

• According to the data shared by Jitin Prasada, Minister of State in the Commerce Ministry, number of enterprises registered as startups under the Startup
India programme has jumped to 1.61 lakh as of January 31, 2025.
• Maharashtra led the tally with 28,511 registered startups followed by 16,954 startups registered in Karnataka and 16,356 in Delhi.
• In terms of job creation as well, Maharashtra had the highest count of 3.17 lakh employment so far in comparison to 1.96 lakh jobs reported by startups
in Delhi and 1.95 lakh in Karnataka.
• The Startup India programme, launched in January 2016, offers startups a slew of benefits around funding, tax exemption, patent filing, public
procurement, winding up and more.
• Eligible startups should be operational for not more than 10 years and incorporated as a private limited company or a registered partnership firm or a
limited liability partnership.
• Moreover, the startup’s annual turnover should not exceed Rs 100 crore for any of the financial years since its incorporation.
• India’s startup ecosystem expands to 1.61 lakh registered entities; this many jobs created - Start Ups News | The Financial Express

31. In March as per report _________government inked an agreement with the Institute of Rural Management Anand (IRMA) to enhance the capacity of
fisheries officers and progressive farmers in the state.
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Karnataka

D. Gujarat
E. Odisha

• The Odisha government inked an agreement with the Institute of Rural Management Anand (IRMA) to enhance the capacity of fisheries officers and
progressive farmers in the state.
• The collaboration aims to enhance the capacity of fisheries officers and progressive farmers through structured residential training programmes focused
on fish market development, including training of trainers.
• Additionally, the initiative will build skills in supply chain management, organise exposure visits to successful value chains, and promote interactive
learning and collaboration among participants.
• Location: Anand, Gujarat, India.
• Odisha inks pact with IRMA for training fisheries officers, farmers | India News - Business Standard

32. In March as per report _________announced Frontier Tech Hub as a Frontier Tech Action Tank to accelerate India’s transition into a Frontier Tech Nation
and released a paper on “Quantum Computing: National Security Implications & Strategic Preparedness”.
A. NITI Aayog
B. Defence Research and Development Organisation
C. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
D. Department of Science and Technology
E. Indian Council of Medical Research

• NITI Aayog has launched the Frontier Tech Hub (NITI-FTH) and released a
strategic paper on quantum computing titled “Quantum Computing: National
Security Implications & Strategic Preparedness”.
• This initiative underscores India's commitment to leveraging emerging
technologies as it advances towards its Viksit Bharat 2047 vision.
• Frontier Tech Hub: A Catalyst for Innovation The NITI Frontier Tech Hub (NITI-
FTH) has been established as a Frontier Tech Action Tank to drive India’s
leadership in breakthrough technologies. Its primary objectives include:
• Quantum Computing and National Security As part of its mandate, NITI-FTH, in
collaboration with the Data Security Council of India, has released a paper
highlighting the rapid evolution of quantum computing and its national security
implications.
• The paper delves into: The disruptive potential of quantum computing in
cryptography, cybersecurity, and defence systems. Global strategic developments
in quantum technology and their implications for India.

• As the global Frontier Tech landscape evolves, India’s commitment to technological sovereignty and innovation-driven growth will be instrumental in
shaping the future of its economy and national security.
• Press Release: Press Information Bureau

33. In March as per report Ministry of Education launched the third edition of the Prime Minister’s Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors (PM-YUVA 3.0).
As per report __________ will oversee the implementation of PM-YUVA 3.0.
A. National Council of Educational Research and Training
B. Sahitya Akademi
C. National Book Trust
D. India Publishers Association
E. Ministry of Education

• The Ministry of Education, Department of Higher Education, launched PM-YUVA 3.0 -Prime Minister’s Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors, an Author
Mentorship programme to train young and budding authors (below 30 years of age) in order to promote reading, writing and book culture in the country,
and project India and Indian writings globally on 11th March, 2025.

• In view of the significant impact of the first two editions of PM-YUVA Scheme with large scale participation from young and budding authors in 22
different Indian languages and English, PM-YUVA 3.0 is now being launched.
• The launch of PM-YUVA 3.0 (Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors) is in tune with the Prime Minister’s vision to encourage the youth to understand
and appreciate India's rich culture.
• PM-YUVA 3.0 intends to bring to the fore the perspectives of the young generation of writers on the themes:1) Contribution of Indian Diaspora in Nation
Building; 2) Indian Knowledge System; and 3) Makers of Modern India (1950-2025) in an innovative and creative manner.
• The National Book Trust, India, under the Ministry of Education as the Implementing Agency, will ensure phase-wise execution of the Scheme under well-
defined stages of mentorship.
• A total of 50 authors will be selected through an All India Contest to be conducted through https://www.mygov.in/ from 11 March 2025 – 10 April 2025.
• Under the mentorship, a National Camp will be held for the PM-YUVA 3.0 Authors during the New Delhi World Book Fair 2026.
• Press Release:Press Information BureauGovt introduces third edition of PM-YUVA for aspiring writers

34. In March as per report Union Minister Bhupathiraju Srinivasa Varma launched three initiatives under the Steel Research Technology Mission of India
(SRTMI) to promote R&D in steel making in the country.
What is the target steel capacity for India by 2030?
A. 350 MT
B. 300 MT
C. 400 MT
D. 500 MT
E. 250 MT

• The Union government under the Steel Research Technology Mission of India (SRTMI) has launched three R&D schemes and a web portal to drive
innovation and sustainability in the steel sector.
• The SRTMI is a collaborative effort between the Indian steel industry and academia, backed by the Ministry of Steel. These initiatives will play a critical
role as India moves towards a 300 MT steel capacity by 2030.
• India has emerged as a global steel demand hub, projecting per capita consumption to rise from ~100 kg to ~158 kg before 2030.
• The schemes were launched at the 'Catalysing R&D in the Indian Steel Sector' event, organised by the Ministry of Steel, in the presence of Bhupathiraju
Srinivasa Varma, Minister of State for Steel & Heavy Industries.
• The schemes were launched at the 'Catalysing R&D in the Indian Steel Sector' event, organised by the Ministry of Steel, in the presence of Bhupathiraju
Srinivasa Varma, Minister of State for Steel & Heavy Industries.
• The three schemes launched--Challenge Method, Open Innovation Method, and Start-up Accelerator--are designed to tackle industry challenges, support
academic research, and nurture emerging steel technologies.
• Press Release: Press Information BureauGovt launches 3 SRTMI initiatives to promote in R&D in steel making | Industry News - Business Standard

35. Recently seen in news Chirang-Ripu Elephant Reserve is located in which of the following state?
A. Karnataka
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Odisha
D. Nagaland
E. Assam

• The Sikhna Jwhwlao reserve forest, located between Raimona and Manas national parks in Kokrajhar and Chirang districts, will be Assam's eighth
national park,
• The Assam Cabinet notified the Chirang-Ripu Elephant Reserve as the 8th National Park of the state.
• The new national park with an area of 316 sq. km is located along the India-Bhutan border in Kokrajhar and Chirang districts. Sikhna Jwhwlao National
Park is located between two existing national parks, Manas National Park to the east and Raimona National Park to the west.
• The golden langur found only in the region is also found in this forest, including Asian Elephants, One Horned Rhinos, Royal Bengal Tigers and animals,
birds and reptiles.
• The existing national parks in the state are Kaziranga National Park, Manas National Park, Dibru – Saikhowa National Park, Nameri National Park, Orang
National Park and Tiger Reserve (ONPTR), Dehing Patkai National Park, Raimona National Park.
• Assam govt notifies Sikhna Jwhwlao as 8th national park in the state

36. According to the latest Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) 2023-24) conducted by the National Statistics Office (NSO) under the
Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation unincorporated non-agricultural sector in India has witnessed remarkable growth over the past year,
with the number of enterprises increasing by __________.
A. 18.45%
B. 12.84%
C. 16.23%
D. 14.12%
E. 19.78%

• The National Statistics Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is responsible for conducting large scale
sample surveys on various socio-economic subjects on All India basis.
• These surveys cover the entire country except some villages of Andaman & Nicobar Islands which remain inaccessible.
• The unincorporated non-agricultural sector in India has witnessed remarkable growth over the past year, with the number of enterprises increasing by
12.84%.
• The findings reveal that the number of establishments in the sector has surged to 7.34 crore in 2023-24, up from 6.50 crore in the previous year.
• The unincorporated sector, comprising manufacturing, trade, and services (excluding construction), remains a crucial pillar of India’s economy.
• India’s unincorporated sector sees 12.84% growth, employment surges past 12 crore

37. Recently as per report government has informed Parliament that 5G services, rolled out across all states and Union Territories, are now available in
_________ out of 776 districts, including Lakshadweep.
A. 696
B. 703
C. 756
D. 773
E. 742

• Indian government (Ministry of Communications) informed Parliament that 5G services have been rolled out across all States and Union Territories (UTs)
in India and are currently available in 773 out of 776 districts, including Lakshadweep.
• As on February 28, 4.69 lakh 5G Base Transceiver Stations (BTSs) have been installed by the telecom service providers (TSPs) across the country.
• Telecom service providers (TSPs) have expanded the 5G services across the country and have gone beyond the minimum rollout obligations, as prescribed
in the Notice Inviting Application (NIA) for spectrum auction.
• With approximately 1,189.92 million subscribers as of December 2024, urban tele-density has reached 131.50 percent, while rural areas stand at 58.22
percent.
• 5G services now available in 773 out of 776 districts, says centre

38. In March as per report ___________, has become the first Indian to be honored with the Ramsar award for 'Wetland Wise Use', a globally recognised
accolade celebrating contributions to the sustainable management of wetlands.
A. Kalpana Vasisth
B. Jayshree Vencatesan
C. Mridula Kumari
D. Sanjana Kashyap
E. Rupam Mehta

• Dr Jayshree Vencatesan has become the first Indian to win the annual prestigious Ramsar Award in the 'Wetland Wise Use' category. Dr Jayshree
Vencatesan was one of the 12 women included by the Ramsar Secretariat in its second edition of Women Changemakers in the World of Wetlands.
• The Ramsar secretariat based in Gland, Switzerland announced the names of the ‘2025 Women changemakers in the world of wetlands’ on the eve of the
International Women’s Day on 7th March 2025.
• The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is the international treaty that protects the wetlands of the world. Its secretariat is located at the headquarters of
the IUCN (International Union for the Conservation of Nature) in Gland, Switzerland.
• The Women are recognised in three categories: Fostering international collaboration for wetlands , Wise use of wetlands, and Wetland protection
• Jayshree Vencatesan was honoured in the “ wise use of wetlands’ category.

• Dr. Jayshree Vencatesan is the co-founder of the Care Earth Trust, established in 2000 in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• Jayshree Vencatesan becomes first Indian to win Ramsar award for Wetland Wise Use

International / Report News

39. In March as per report Balochistan Liberation Army (BLA) insurgents attacked and hijacked the Jaffar Express traveling from Quetta to Peshawar on
March 11 in Balochistan’s Bolan district.
What was the name of the operation launched by Pakistani security forces to rescue the hostages?
A. Operation Dust
B. Operation Yellow Sky
C. Operation Blue Thunder
D. Operation Green Bolan
E. Operation Red Storm

• Balochistan Liberation Army (BLA)

insurgents attacked and hijacked the
Jaffar Express traveling from Quetta
to Peshawar on March 11 in
Balochistan’s Bolan district.
• The BLA claimed responsibility, stating that 182 people were taken hostage, 20 Pakistani military officers were killed, and a drone was shot down.
• This marks one of the largest recent attacks by Baloch insurgents amid ongoing unrest in the region.
• The nine-coach Jaffar Express, which was headed to Peshawar from Quetta, was targeted between Pehro Kunri and Gadalar in the Bolan area of Kachhi
district.
• The train, named after Mir Jaffar Khan Jamali, a Baloch tribal leader who was close to Pakistan’s founder Muhammad Ali Jinnah, began running between
the capital of Balochistan province and Rawalpindi more than 20 years ago. In 2017, the train was extended to Peshawar in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa for a
journey of more than 1,600 km, touching several important Pakistani cities along the way.
• The military launched a major operation Operation Green Bolan against the separatists from the Balochistan Liberation Army (BLA) that seized the train
the previous day.
• Balochistan is the largest but least populated of Pakistan’s four provinces – Balochistan, Sindh, Punjab and Khyber Pakhtunkhwa.
• Explained: The Baloch insurgents behind Pakistan train hijacking Jaffar Express Hijacking Timeline Operation Green Bolan - Minute Mirror

40. In March as per report India signed an agreement with __________ to promote and develop mutual collaboration in public-private partnership framework
and investment, use of financing tools, as well as economic policies.
A. Bhutan
B. Japan
C. Qatar
D. Nepal
E. Australia

• India and Qatar have signed an agreement to promote and develop mutual collaboration in public-private
partnership framework and investment, use of financing tools, as well as economic policies.
• The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on financial and economic cooperation was signed between the
two countries on February 18 during the visit of Amir of Qatar Sheikh Tamim Bin Hamad Al-Thani to India.
• The MoU signifies the commitment of both sides to work together and unlock new opportunities for investment, growth and development.
• Press Release: Press Information Bureau

41. Recently as per report __________ will host the first G20 Trade and Investment Working Group (TWGW) meeting under its presidency from March 18 to
March 20.
A. India
B. Australia
C. Brazil
D. Japan

E. South Africa

• South Africa will host the first G20 Trade and Investment Working Group (TWGW) meeting under its presidency from March 18 to March 20.
• The TIWG meeting, which will be held virtually, will bring together senior officials from G20 member countries as well as the European Union and the
African Union.
• The deputy director-general of trade at the Department of Trade, Industry and Competition, Ambassador Xolelwa Mlumbi-Peter said, this would be the
first of the four proposed meetings of the TIWG, which will culminate in the G20 trade ministers’ meeting to be hosted by South Africa in October.
• South Africa officially assumed the presidency of the G20 in December 2024 for the year 2025 under the theme “Solidarity, Equality, Sustainability”.
• South Africa to host 1st G20 Trade & Investment Working Group meeting from March 18-20 –

42. According to Financial Times Ltd.'s 'FDI Markets' data, __________has been ranked the world's No. 1 destination for greenfield foreign direct investment
(FDI) projects for the fourth consecutive year.
A. United States
B. United Kingdom
C. Dubai
D. France
E. India

• According to the Financial Times Ltd.’s ‘fDi Markets’ data Dubai has been ranked the world’s No.1 destination for
Greenfield Foreign Direct investment (FDI) projects for the fourth successive year.
• As per recent findings India has emerged as the key source country for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into Dubai
as the desert city has retailed it’s top position as Global FDI Destination in 2024.
• For the year 2024, India has surpassed USA, France and UK to become the top source countries for FDI into Dubai.
• India’s contribution to FDI inflow accounted for 21.5%, followed by the United States (13.7%), France (11%),
United Kingdom (10%), and Switzerland (6.9%) according to Dubai Department of Economy and Tourism’s Dubai
FDI Monitor.
• As per the Monitor Dubai in 2024, attracted AED52.3 billion ($14.24 billion) in estimated FDI capital, up 33.2% from AED39.26 billion ($10.69 billion) in
2023, marking the highest FDI value ever recorded in a single year for the Emirate since 2020.
• During the year, Dubai attracted 1,117 greenfield FDI projects, the most in its history.
• India emerges as top source of FDI into Dubai - The Hindu

43. In March as per report Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Mauritius counterpart Navinchandra Ramgoolam have
agreed to facilitate trade settlements in local currencies, viz Indian Rupee and Mauritian __________.
A. Rupiyah
B. Franc
C. Dinar
D. Yen
E. Rupee

• India and Mauritius inked eight MoUs, including on the use of local currencies for trade, and on sharing of White
Shipping information between their navies, following talks between PM Modi and his Mauritius counterpart Navin
Ramgoolam in Port Louis.
• Agreement between Reserve Bank of India and the Bank of Mauritius for the Establishment of a Framework to Promote
the Use of Local Currencies (INR or MUR) for Cross-border Transactions.
• The objective of this Agreement is to promote use of local currencies for current account and capital account
transactions, encourage direct exchange rate quotation, encourage setting up INR clearing centre in Mauritius
Automated and Clearing System, extend INR clearing centre to COMESA - Common Market for Eastern and Southern
Africa -countries.
• Credit facility agreement between Mauritius (as borrower) and State Bank of India (as lending bank).
• Through this credit facility arrangement, SBI (lending bank) shall be extending a Line of Credit to the tune of INR 487.6
crore to the Borrower for the purpose of financing the ‘Water Pipeline Replacement Project’ in Mauritius.

• MoU Between the Sushma Swaraj Institute of Foreign Service, Ministry Of External Affairs,
India, And Ministry Of Foreign Affairs, Regional Integration & International Trade,
Mauritius.
• MoU between Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), Ministry of
Earth Sciences, GoI and Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), Department of Continental Shelf,
Maritime Zones Administration and Exploration (CSMZAE), GOM.
• To deepen their cooperation, India and Mauritius will work closely on the successful
development and launch of the India-Mauritius satellite. As part of this initiative, Indian
Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will provide training to Mauritian scientists and
experts.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau
• PM Modi and Mauritius counterpart Ramgoolam agree to facilitate trade settlements in local
currencies PM Modi concludes successful visit to Mauritius, strengthens bilateral ties
• In a special gesture, Prime Minister Narendra Modi on handed over OCI (Overseas Citizen
Of India) cards to Mauritius President Dharambeer Gokhool and First Lady Vrinda Gokhool,
on the first day of his visit to the island nation.
• The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card is a type of immigration status provided by the
Government of India to individuals of Indian origin who have obtained citizenship in
another country.
• The card is available to foreign nationals who were born in India or are of Indian descent,
and their descendants up to the third generation.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi met Mauritius President Dharambeer Gokhool in Port Louis
, presenting him with holy water from the Ganga, collected during the recently concluded
Maha Kumbh.
• The sacred water, drawn from the Triveni Sangam in Prayagraj, symbolizes India’s spiritual and civilizational heritage.
• PM Modi gifts ‘Maha Kumbh Jal’ to Mauritius President in Port LouisPM Modi hands over OCI cards to Mauritius President, First Lady
• Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi and Prime Minister of Mauritius, H.E. Navinchandra Ramgoolam, jointly inaugurated the Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Institute of Public Service and Innovation in Reduit, Mauritius.
• This landmark project, implemented under the India-Mauritius development partnership, underscores India's commitment to capacity building in
Mauritius.
• Funded through a grant of US$ 4.74 million under a 2017 MoU, the state-of-the-art institute will cater to the training needs of Mauritian civil servants
across ministries, public offices, parastatal bodies, and government enterprises.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

44. What is the name of the highest honour of Mauritius which has been awarded to Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A. Order of St. Andrew
B. Order of the Dragon King
C. Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean.
D. Order of Mubarak Al Kabeer
E. Honorary Order of Freedom of Barbados

• Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi attended the 57th National Day celebrations
of the Republic of Mauritius as the Chief Guest.
• During the celebrations, President of the Republic of Mauritius H.E. Mr.
Dharambeer Gokhool conferred the Grand Commander of the Order of the Star
and Key of the Indian Ocean (G.C.S.K) award, the highest civilian award of
Mauritius, on Prime Minister Modi.
• This is the first time that an Indian leader is receiving this honour.
• This marks the 21st international award conferred upon Prime Minister Modi by
a foreign nation.
• Prime Minister Modi dedicated this award to the special friendship between India
and Mauritius and to the 1.4 billion people of India and their 1.3 million brothers
and sisters in Mauritius.
• During the National Day celebrations, an Indian Navy marching contingent
participated in the parade.

• An Indian Naval Ship also made a Port Call to coincide with the National Day celebrations.
• Prime Minister Modi along with Ramgoolam jointly inaugurated the Atal Bihari Vajpayee Institute of Public Service and Innovation in Mauritius.
• This was the second time that Modi was the chief guest at the National Day celebrations of Mauritius.
• Press Release: Press Information BureauPM Modi to receive highest honour of Mauritius, presents holy sangam water to President - India News | The
Financial ExpressMauritius PM bestows country’s highest honour on PM Modi - The Hindu BusinessLine

45. In March as per report Enforcement Directorate (ED) of India, have signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the Financial Crimes Commission
(FCC) of __________, to enhance cooperation in combating financial crimes, including money laundering, corruption, fraud, asset recovery, and the
financing of illicit activities.
A. Egypt
B. Qatar
C. Mauritius
D. Armenia
E. Japan

• During the recent visit of Prime Minister Narendra Modi, India and Mauritius signed an agreement to enhance
cooperation in combating money laundering, corruption, fraud, asset recovery and the financing of illicit activities.
• The collaboration between Enforcement Directorate (ED) and the Financial Crimes Commission (FCC) of Mauritius
will "bolster" financial enforcement capabilities and will also contribute to broader economic and security
cooperation between the two nations.
• ED Director Rahul Navin.
• India, Mauritius sign MoU to boost cooperation against financial crimes | External Affairs & Defence Security News -
Business Standard

46. What is the primary goal of the UN80 Initiative launched by UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres?
A. To strengthen UN's financial management
B. To update the UN for the 21st century
C. To enhance transparency and accountability
D. To promote sustainable development and human rights
E. To improve efficiencies and make the UN more cost-effective

• United Nations: UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres has announced a new initiative aimed at improving efficiencies at the 80-year-old world
organisation and making it more cost-effective, as he voiced concern over shrinking resources and liquidity crisis amid an environment of "uncertainty and
unpredictability".
• The ‘UN80 Initiative’ will come up with proposals in areas of rapidly identifying efficiencies and improvements in the way the UN works; thoroughly
reviewing implementation of all mandates given to the UN by member states.
• Guterres has appointed a dedicated internal task force led by Under-Secretary-General Guy Ryder – and composed of principals representing the entire UN
system.
• The UN General Assembly approved a $3.72 billion budget for 2025, with the US contributing 22% of the regular budget.
• UN chief announces 'UN80 Initiative' to boost efficiencies amid uncertainty | World News - Business Standard

47. In March as per report India have officially announced the launch of negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), with _________ marking a significant
step forward in their bilateral economic relationship.
A. Italy
B. France
C. Japan
D. New Zealand
E. Australia

• India and New Zealand share a longstanding partnership founded on shared democratic values, strong people-to-people
ties, and economic complementarities.
• India and New Zealand launched negotiations for a “comprehensive and mutually beneficial” free trade agreement,
paving the way for second bilateral trade deal in the Oceania after concluding an FTA pact with Australia in April 2022.
• The formal launch of the FTA negotiations followed a key meeting between India’s Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush
Goyal and New Zealand’s Trade and Investment Minister Todd McClay.
• The proposed FTA is expected to unlock new opportunities in sectors such as agriculture, services, technology, and
manufacturing, while also contributing to regional and global economic stability.
• Press Release: Press Information Bureau India and New Zealand launch Free Trade Agreement negotiations

48. In March as per report which country former president was taken into custody based on a warrant issued by the
International Criminal Court (ICC)?
A. Thailand
B. Sri Lanka
C. Philippines
D. Malaysia
E. Indonesia

• Former Philippines
President Rodrigo
Duterte was taken
into custody based
on a warrant issued
by the International
Criminal Court (ICC).
• He was accused of crimes against
humanity over his deadly “war on drugs”
during his tenure where more than 6, 000
suspects were killed which UN found that
most victims were young, poor urban
males.
• Rodrigo Duterte served as the President of the Philippines from 2016 to 2022.
• Also, earlier, the International Criminal Court (ICC) issued an arrest warrant against Russian President Vladimir Putin for alleged war crimes in Ukraine.
• The International Criminal Court (ICC) is the world’s first permanent international court established to investigate and prosecute individuals accused of
serious international crimes.
• Headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands, the ICC was established on July 17, 1998, under the Rome Statute, an international treaty, and came into force
in July 2002.
• Why former Philippines President Rodrigo Duterte was arrested on ICC warrant | Explained News - The Indian Express

49. Recently as per report resumed session of the 16th Conference of the Parties (COP16) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), which was
suspended in Cali, Colombia, reconvened in __________from February 25-27, 2025, to address outstanding issues.
A. Paris, France
B. Rome, Italy
C. Nairobi, Kenya
D. Montreal, Canada
E. Geneva, Switzerland

• The UN Biodiversity Conference (CBD COP 16), suspended earlier this year in Cali, Colombia, will reconvene from 25-27 February, 2025 in Rome, Italy, at
the headquarters of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO).
• A major focus of the resumed session: a new Resource Mobilization Strategy aimed at securing $200 billion annually by 2030 from all sources for
biodiversity initiatives and reducing harmful incentives by at least $500 billion per year by 2030.
• Parties will also explore the potential establishment of a global financing instrument for biodiversity, designed to mobilize and distribute funding
effectively.
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• Current funding comes from bilateral arrangements, private and philanthropic sources, and dedicated funds such as the Global Environment Facility (GEF)
including its Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF) and the Kunming Biodiversity Fund (KBF).
• Before COP 16 was suspended due to lack of quorum, the conference achieved groundbreaking agreements on global biodiversity protections and
implementation of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework. Governments agreed to establish the pioneering “Cali Fund,” for industries
such as pharmaceuticals, biotechnology, and agriculture—those benefiting from Digital Sequence Information (DSI) on genetic resources—to share
benefits with developing countries, indigenous peoples, and local communities.
• Countries to Resume Crucial Biodiversity Discussions in Rome, 25-27 February 2025 | Convention on Biological Diversity

50. In March as per report United States has withdrawn from the board of the ___________ dedicated to helping poor and vulnerable nations cope with
climate change-fuelled disasters.
A. The Climate Damage Fund
B. The Loss and Damage Fund
C. The U.N. Climate Fund
D. The Green Climate Fund
E. None of the above

• The US has withdrawn from the board of the recently-created Loss and Damage Fund which is meant to provide
financial support to countries ravaged by climate change disasters.
• This is the latest decision by the Donald Trump administration to disengage itself from the international climate
change framework.
• It has already pulled out of the Paris Agreement, stopped the participation of its scientists in a meeting of the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), and cancelled previously committed money for the Green
Climate Fund.
• The Loss and Damage Fund was created at the COP27 climate meeting in Egypt in 2022 after several years of
protracted negotiations.
• Developing countries, particularly small island states that face the greatest threats from climate impacts, had
been demanding financial assistance in case of climate-related disasters, arguing that they were having to suffer
due to a problem created by rich and developed countries.
• About $750 million has so far been promised for the fund, of which the US has contributed $17.5 million.
• United States quits board of UN climate damage fund, letter shows

51. Recently as per report India signed an Exchange of Notes with ___________for a technical cooperation project called "Strengthening Vocational
Education and Training in Mechatronics in India," with NCERT implementing it at the Regional Institute of Education (RIE), Bhopal.
A. South Korea
B. Bhutan
C. Egypt
D. Nepal
E. Japan

• India and South Korea have conducted signing of exchange of notes for the technical cooperation project titled 'Strengthening Vocational Education and
Training in Mechatronics in India'.
• The project will be implemented in collaboration with Korea International Cooperation Agency (KOICA) of Government of Republic of Korea.
• This is the first project being implemented with the assistance of KOICA in India.
• The project, which spans over two years, aims to establish a basis of vocational education and training in mechatronics in India and will be implemented
by NCERT at the Regional Institute of Education (RIE), Bhopal.
• The institute will help build environment to pilot education in mechatronics by preparing curriculum, textbooks, teacher's manual and equipment.
• India, Korea sign pact for exchange of notes for NCERT's Technical Cooperation project, ET Education

52. In March as per report Indian government has extended a grant of approximately _________million to the Lao People’s Democratic Republic (Lao PDR)
under the India-UN Development Partnership Fund.
A. USD 10 million
B. USD 5 million
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C. USD 3 million
D. USD 1 million
E. USD 2 million

• The Indian government has extended a grant of approximately USD 1 million to the Government of the Lao People’s Democratic Republic (Lao PDR) under
the India-UN Development Partnership Fund.
• This grant will support the project titled “Strengthening Large-Scale Food Fortification: The Case of Investing in Rice Fortification.”
• Notably, India-UN Development Partnership Fund, established by the Indian government in June 2017, provides support to projects in developing
countries that aim to contribute to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals.
• The Lao People’s Democratic Republic (Lao PDR), commonly known as Laos, is a landlocked country in Southeast Asia. Capital: Vientiane, Currency: Lao
Kip (LAK).
• India extends USD 1 million grant for food fortification project in Lao PDR – ThePrint – ANIFeed

53. In March as per report Indian gem and jewellery have inked MoUs with ___________to strengthen the trade ties between the two countries.
A. Egypt
B. Nepal
C. Australia
D. Japan
E. Thailand

• Indian gem and jewellery have inked MoUs with Thailand's jewellery trade to strengthen the trade ties between the two countries.
• The gem and jewellery exports from India to Thailand constitute 15% of the total export target for the Southeast Asian nation. Thailand is among the top
10 importers of gems and jewellery products from India.
• India's overall gross exports of gems and jewellery stood at US$ 23188.12 million in the first ten months of FY 25, showing a decline of 12.11% compared
to the same period of the previous year.
• Gems and Jewellery Research and Laboratories Centre (IIGJ-RLC) signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the Gem & Jewelry Institute of
Thailand (GIT), a public organization under Thailand's Ministry of Commerce.
• The second MoU has been inked between the Jewellers Association Jaipur and with Chanthaburi Gem and Jewellery Traders Association and the third one
is between Sitapura Gems and Jewellery Industry Association (SGJIA) and with Thai Silver Exporter Association (TSEA).
• India and Thailand sign MoUs to boost gem and jewellery exports - The Economic Times

54. Recently as per report 14th meeting of the ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus) Experts Working Group (EWG) on Counter-Terrorism is
set to take place in New Delhi from March 19 to 20, 2025.
India will co-chair the meeting with ___________, marking India’s first time leading the counter-terrorism group.
A. New Zealand
B. Australia
C. Russia
D. Japan
E. Malaysia

• The 14th meeting of ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus) Experts Working Group (EWG) on Counter-Terrorism will be held in New Delhi
from March 19 to 20, 2025. India and Malaysia will co-chair the ibid meeting.
• Delegations from 10 ASEAN members (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Vietnam, Singapore and Thailand) and
eight dialogue partners (Australia, New Zealand, RoK, Japan, China, USA and Russia) along with Timor Leste and ASEAN Secretariat will be participating
in the meeting.
• India will co-chair the EWG on Counter-Terrorism for the first time.
• On March 19, 2025, Defence Secretary Shri Rajesh Kumar Singh will deliver the keynote address during the opening ceremony.
• This will be the first meeting for activities planned for EWG on Counter-Terrorism for the ongoing cycle from 2024-2027.
• The EWGs are each co-chaired by one ASEAN member state and one dialogue partner following a three-year cycle.
• The task of the co-chairs is to lay down the objectives, policy guidelines and directions for the EWG for the three-year cycle at the commencement of the
chairmanship.

• Press Release:Press Information BureauIndia to co-chair 14th ADMM-Plus counter-terrorism meeting in New Delhi

55. According to the study presented at the World Ocean Summit revealed that India's fishery sector suffers an annual loss of __________ billion due to
wastewater contamination, highlighting the economic impact of poor water management.
A. $1.5 billion
B. $3.5 billion
C. $4.5 billion
D. $2.2 billion
E. $3.6 billion

• According to the Back to Blue initiative and the Ocean Sewage Alliance report India's fishery sector loses over $2 billion due to untreated wastewater
contaminating waterways.
• It also said the country suffers an annual economic loss of $246 million from diarrhoea caused by contaminated drinking water due to poor wastewater
management.
• Launched at the World Ocean Summit in Japan by ocean health initiative Back to Blue and the Ocean Sewage Alliance, the study highlights the high cost
of inaction in wastewater management in Brazil, India, Kenya, the Philippines and the United Kingdom.
• Among the five countries, India's fishery sector suffers the most, losing 5.4 per cent ($2.2 billion) of its economic value annually, followed by Kenya (5.1
per cent).
• Also, among the countries studied, India incurs the highest healthcare costs from diarrhoea linked to contaminated drinking w ater. With a wastewater
treatment rate of just 21 per cent, nearly three times as many people are affected, resulting in annual costs of $246 million.
• World Ocean summit aims to provide actionable insights and foster partnerships across various sectors to meet the 2030 targets outlined in United
Nations Sustainable Development Goal 14 (Life Below Water).
• India's fishery sector loses $2.2 bn annually due to water pollution: Study | Industry News - Business Standard

56. Recently as per report __________ have agreed to a peace agreement set to end nearly four decades of conflict between over disputed Nagorno-
Karabakh region.
1. Turkey
2. Palestine
3. Azerbaijan
4. Ukraine
5. Armenia

Select the correct source code:

A. Only 1,4 and 5
B. Only 3 and 5
C. Only 1 and 5
D. Only 4 and 5
E. All of the above

• Armenia and Azerbaijan have agreed to a peace agreement set to end nearly four decades of conflict between over disputed Nagorno-Karabakh region.
• Nagorno-Karabakh, referred to as Artsakh by Armenians, is a landlocked, mountainous region in the South Caucasus.
• The conflict has roots dating back well over a century into competition between Christian Armenian and Muslim Turkic and Persian influences.
• Nagorno-Karabakh is a region internationally recognized as part of Azerbaijan.
• The conflict revolves around ethnic and territorial disputes between Armenia and Azerbaijan, with Armenians seeking independence or unification with
Armenia.
• Two wars were fought for control of Azerbaijan’s Armenian-populated region of Nagorno-Karabakh – at the end of the Soviet Union and in 2020 – before
Azerbaijan seized the territory in September 2023.
• Azerbaijan regained full control of Nagorno-Karabakh following a military offensive in September 2023.
• Armenia and Azerbaijan agree treaty terms to end almost 40 years of conflict – ThePrint – ReutersFeed

57. According to the latest 'India Web3 Landscape' report by Hashed Emergent, India is rapidly emerging as a global leader in the Web3 space and is expected
to become the world's largest Web3 developer hub by ___________.
A. 2026
B. 2030
C. 2032
D. 2028
E. 2047

• The ‘India Web3 Landscape’ report, released by Hashed Emergent, highlighted India’s rapid growth in this space, with over 4.7 million developers joining
GitHub in 2024 alone.
• India is fast emerging as a global leader in the Web3 sector, with a recent report projecting the country will become the largest hub for Web3 developers
by 2028.
• This surge accounts for 17 percent of all new Web3 developers worldwide, positioning India as the second-largest base for crypto developers globally.
• Key areas of development for Indian Web3 talent include gaming, non-fungible tokens (NFTs), decentralized finance (DeFi), and real-world assets (RWAs).
• India also ranks third globally in Web3 startup founders, with over 1,200 startups operating in the sector.
• India to become world's largest Web3 developer hub by 2028: Report, ET Manufacturing

58. Consider the following statement regarding 15th edition Quacquarelli Symonds (QS) World University Rankings by Subject in 2025. Which of the following
statement is incorrect?
1. Nine Indian universities and institutions are among world's top 50 in QS subject-wise
rankings.
2. Indian School of Mines (ISM), Dhanbad, ranks 20th globally for Engineering-Mineral and
Mining, making it the country's highest-performing subject area.
3. As many as 79 Indian institutes feature in the 15th edition of the QS World University
Rankings by Subject.
4. MIT has been ranked as the No. 1 university in the world by QS World University Rankings
for 13 straight years.
5. All of the above are correct

• The Indian School of Mines (ISM) University,

Dhanbad bags the top position in India in
Quacquarelli Symonds (QS) World University
Rankings by Subject 2025.
• As many as 79 Indian institutes feature in the
15th edition of the QS World University
Rankings by Subject.
• Indian School of Mines University, Dhanbad is ranked 20th globally for Engineering –
Mineral and Mining, making it the country’s highest-performing subject area, followed
by the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT-D) in the Engineering and Technology
subject and Saveetha Institute of Medical and Technical Sciences (deemed to be
university) in Dentistry subject at 26th rank.
• As many as 79 Indian institutes feature in the 15th edition of the QS World University
Rankings by Subject.
• Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Ahmedabad is ranked 27th for Business and
Management Studies.
• The 2025 QS World University Rankings by Subject include 533 entries from 79 Indian
universities, up from 424 entries last year.
• Indian universities are particularly well represented in engineering and technology (24
institutions), followed by social sciences (20), natural sciences (19), arts and humanities
(10), and life sciences and medicine (6).
• 1,758 unique institutions have been ranked in the QS World University Rankings by
Subject 2025, an increase of 7% on the 2024 edition.
• The ranking consists of five broad subject areas, and 55 narrow subject rankings.

• MIT has been ranked as the No. 1 university in the world by QS World University Rankings for 13 straight years.
• Imperial College London jumps four places to take second and the University of Oxford and Harvard University are in third and fourth place respectively.
The University of Cambridge rounds out the top five
• The United States leads with 3,245 ranked entries and tops 32 of 55 subjects, with Harvard first in 19 and MIT in 12.
• The UK has 1,883 entries and tops 18 subjects.
• 9 Indian universities, institutes among top 50 in QS subject-wise rankings | India News - Business StandardMAHE improves its QS Subject Rankings in 2025 -
The Hindu BusinessLine QS World University Rankings 2025: Top Global Universities

59. Consider the following statement regarding Global Terrorism Index (GTI) 2025. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. India ranked 14th in the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) 2025.
2. Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) has released the Global Terrorism Index 2025
3. Burkina Faso ranks first in the index based on the impact of terrorism followed by Pakistan and Syria.
4. The number of countries recording a terrorist attack increased from 58 to 66.
5. All of the above are correct

• The Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) recently released the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) 2025, offering an in-depth overview of terrorism trends and
patterns.
• GTI is a comprehensive study analysing the impact of terrorism on 163 countries, covering 99.7 percent of the world’s population.
• India Ranked 14th as most impacted by terrorism.
• The Sahel region remains terrorism’s epicenter, recording for over half of all global terrorism deaths.
• Burkina Faso ranks first in the index based on the impact of terrorism. Pakistan ranks second in this index. Syria and Mali have secured the third and
fourth positions respectively.
• Islamic State (IS) has been described as the world's most dangerous terrorist organization. The number of countries recording a terrorist attack increased
from 58 to 66.
• Pakistan 2nd on Global Terrorism Index with 45% surge in terror attack deaths last year, India 14th

60. According to the recent data from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), India was the second-largest arms importer during the
period between 2020 and 2024, though the trade figures decreased by 9.3% between 2015-19 and 2020-24.
Which of the following became the largest importer of major arms in the world during the period between 2020 and 2024, clocking a nearly 100-fold rise
in imports compared with the figures for 2015–2019?
A. Pakistan
B. Ukraine
C. China
D. Russia
E. Australia

• According to the latest report from the Stockholm International Peace

Research Institute (SIPRI), Ukraine has emerged as the leading global arms
importer, accounting for 8.8% of total arms imports during the period from
2020 to 2024.
• It also stated that nearly half of Ukraine’s imports came from the United
States, which dominates the global arms export market.
• European countries have notably increased their imports of major arms and
defence weapons, experiencing a remarkable 155% rise over the past four
years (2020-2024) compared to the previous four-year period (2015-2019).
• Significantly, the five largest arms importers accounted for 35% of global
arms imports among the 162 nations classified by SIPRI as major arms
importers between 2020 and 2024.
• As of the period between 2020 and 2024, India ranked as the world’s second-
largest arms importer, accounting for 8.3% of global imports.
• However, this marked a 9.3% decline in its share compared to the previous
five-year period from 2015 to 2019.
• In terms of sourcing, Russia constituted the largest portion of India’s arms imports at 36%.

• Four countries in Asia and Oceania—India, Pakistan, Japan, and Australia— ranked among the 10 largest arms importers globally in 2020-24.
• The largest share of Indian arms imports (36%) came from Russia, a significantly smaller share than in 2015-19 (55%) and 2010-14 (72%).
• India was the biggest arms export destination for both Russia and France.
• China dropped out of the list of top 10 arms importers for the first time since 1990-94, showcasing its expanding domestic industrial base.
• Top 5 importer - Ukraine, India, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and Pakistan.
• Top 10 largest arms importing countries (2020–2024): India’s global position revealed Ukraine the world’s biggest arms importer; United States’ dominance
of global arms exports grows as Russian exports continue to fall | SIPRI

61. In March as per report which of the following country has been added to the list of Financial Action Task Force (FATF) grey list of Jurisdictions under
Increased Monitoring?
1. Bhutan
2. Japan
3. Lao PDR
4. Nepal
5. Philippines

Select the correct source code:

A. Only 3 and 5
B. Only 1 and 5
C. Only 3 and 5
D. Only 1 and 3
E. All of the above

• The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) issued a public document on February
21, 2025, regarding high-risk jurisdictions subject to a "Call for Action."
• In the latest update, Lao People's Democratic Republic (Lao PDR) and Nepal were added to the monitoring list, while the Philippines was removed after a
review.
• As of February 21, 2025 Nepal has been placed on the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) grey list. This is the second time Nepal has been placed on the
grey list, with the first occurrence being from 2008 to 2014.
• The FATF made its decision during its plenary meeting in Paris on February 17-21, 2025 citing Nepal's failure to fully implement necessary legal, policy,
and structural reforms to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
• Indeed for some time there have been concerns that the increased opportunities for money laundering in Nepal may indeed lead to its greylisting.
• The grey list, officially termed "jurisdictions under increased monitoring," includes countries with strategic deficiencies in their anti-money laundering
(AML) and counter-terrorist financing (CFT) regimes but are actively working with the FATF to address these issues.
• FATF, established in 1989, sets standards and promotes measures to combat money laundering, terrorist financing, and other financial crimes, ensuring
the integrity of the global financial system.
• Reserve Bank of India - Press Releases

Banking / Economy News

62. In March as per report which of the following bank faced accounting discrepancies in its derivatives portfolio worth about ₹1,530 crore?
A. Indian Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. IndusInd Bank
D. Bandhan Bank
E. Canara Bank

• Private sector lender IndusInd Bank has noted some discrepancies in its derivative portfolio, which
could lead to an adverse impact on its net worth by ₹1,530 crore. The Bank’s net worth stood at
₹65,102 crore as of December 2024.
• According to IndusInd Bank MD, CEO Sumant Kathpalia, the issue was first identified by the bank
itself and while the adverse impact is likely to be closer to the bank’s estimate, a thorough
investigation which will likely be completed by an external agency by April, will assess the complete
impact.
• IndusInd appointed an external agency to independently review and validate the internal findings,
according to stock exchange disclosure.
• During an internal review of processes relating to parts of its derivative portfolio, it has estimated
an adverse impact of 2.35 per cent on its networth.
• IndusInd Bank Shares & Stock Price Highlights: Stock ends 4% higher, tops Nifty 50 gainers amid
volatile market - The Hindu BusinessLine IndusInd Bank estimates ₹1,530 crore adverse impact due to
discrepancies in derivative portfolio - The Hindu BusinessLine

63. In March as per report Reserve Bank of India issued financial note regarding which bank that the bank is well-capitalised and the financial position of the
bank remains satisfactory?
A. Canara Bank
B. Kotak Mahindra Bank
C. DBS Bank
D. Bandhan Bank
E. IndusInd Bank

• The Reserve Bank of India stated that the IndusInd bank is well-capitalised and the financial
position of the bank remains satisfactory.
• As per auditor-reviewed financial results of the bank for the quarter ended December 31, 2024,
the bank has maintained a comfortable Capital Adequacy Ratio of 16.46 per cent and Provision
Coverage Ratio of 70.20 per cent.
• The Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) of the bank was at 113 per cent as on March 9, 2025, as
against regulatory requirement of 100 per cent.
• Basis the disclosures available in public domain, the bank has already engaged an external audit
team to comprehensively review their current systems, and to assess and account for the actual
impact expeditiously.
• Reserve Bank of India - Press Releases

64. In March as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been selected for the Digital Transformation Award 2025 by Central Banking, London, UK.
The central bank was awarded for its digital initiatives __________which were developed by its in-house developer team.
1. RBIDATA
2. Pravaah
3. Garuda
4. Sarthi

5. Udgam

Select the correct source code:

A. Only 2,4 and 5
B. Only 1, 2 and 5
C. Only 1,3 and 5
D. Only 2 and 4
E. All of the above

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been selected for the Digital Transformation Award 2025 by Central Banking, London, UK. The central bank was
awarded for its digital initiatives—Pravaah and Sarthi—which were developed by its in-house developer team.
• Sarthi, meaning ‘charioteer’ in Hindi, digitised all the RBI’s internal workflows. It went live in January 2023, helping employees to store and share
documents securely, improving record management and increasing the options for data analysis through reports and dashboards.
• A second stage of the digital transformation process launched in May 2024 as Pravaah (Platform for Regulatory Application, Validation and
AutHorisation) – a ‘smooth flow’ in Hindi – created a digitised means for external users to submit regulatory applications to the RBI.
• Documents submitted and processed through the Pravaah portal are then plugged into the Sarthi database, where they can be handled digitally across
the RBI’s offices, with centralised cyber security systems and digital tracking.
• Shailendra Trivedi, chief general manager-in-charge of the RBI’s IT department, led the team that delivered both systems.
• The Pravaah system has allowed more than 70 different regulatory applications to be digitised so far along with supporting work of nine RBI
departments.
• Between its launch in May and the end of 2024, over 2,000 applications had been filed through the system, marking an 80 per cent increase in monthly
applications, partly due to the increased ease of use provided by the portal.
• RBI awarded digital transformation Award 2025 for digital initiatives | Finance News - Business Standard

65. In March as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) unveiled a framework for recognising self-regulatory organisations (SROs) for the account aggregator
(AA) ecosystem, even as it invited applications for recognition of SRO-AAs.
Consider the following statement regarding self-regulatory organisations (SROs) for the account aggregator (AA) ecosystem. Which of the following
statement is incorrect?
1. Under the framework, an SRO-AA should be set up as a not-for-profit company registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013.
2. Applicant should have/ demonstrate to achieve a minimum net worth of ₹2 crore within one year after recognition as an SRO-AA by the RBI, or before
commencement of operations as an SRO-AA, whichever is earlier.
3. The shareholding of the SRO-AA should be sufficiently diversified and no entity can hold 10 per cent or more of its paid-up share capital.
4. To ensure balanced representation, the SRO-AA should have at least 25 unique entities each from FIPs and FI-Us as its members at all times.
5. All of the above are correct

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) unveiled a framework for

recognising self-regulatory organisations (SROs) for the
account aggregator (AA) ecosystem, even as it invited
applications for recognition of SRO-AAs.
• Reserve Bank of India had introduced the Account
Aggregator (AA) framework in September 2016.
• The AA framework facilitates secure and seamless exchange
of specified financial information through Non-Banking
Financial Company-Account Aggregators (NBFC-AAs), which
act as intermediaries between Financial Information
Providers (FIPs) and Financial Information Users (FI-Us).
• These FIPs and FI-Us fall under the purview of different
Financial Sector Regulators (FSRs), i.e., Reserve Bank of
India, Securities and Exchange Board of India, Insurance
Regulatory and Development Authority of India, Pension
Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India.
• Further, Department of Revenue is deemed to be the
regulator for Goods and Services Tax Network for the
purpose of onboarding the AA ecosystem.

• Under the framework, an SRO-AA should be set up as a not-for-profit company registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013.
• The applicant should have/ demonstrate to achieve a minimum net worth of ₹2 crore within one year after recognition as an SRO-AA by the RBI, or before
commencement of operations as an SRO-AA, whichever is earlier. Thereafter, the SRO-AA has to maintain the minimum required net worth on an ongoing
basis.
• The shareholding of the SRO-AA should be sufficiently diversified and no entity can hold 10 per cent or more of its paid-up share capital, either singly or
acting in concert.
• To ensure balanced representation, the SRO-AA should have at least 25 unique entities each from FIPs and FI-Us as its members at all times.
• The RBI said the applicant must have capability and resources for a robust IT infrastructure and the ability to deploy technological solutions within a
reasonable timeframe.
• SRO-AA is expected to operate with credibility, objectivity and responsibility under the overall oversight of the RBI, to promote healthy and sustainable
development of the AA ecosystem.
• Under the aegis of the SRO-AA Framework, the Reserve Bank invites applications for recognition of an SRO-AA. Interested applicants may submit their
application through PRAVAAH portal, latest by June 15, 2025.
• It is clarified that the SRO-AA shall function within the overall regulatory framework for the AA ecosystem issued by the Reserve Bank. Further, the
technical specifications will continue to be framed and published by Reserve Bank Information Technology Private Limited (ReBIT).
• Reserve Bank of India - Press Releases Reserve Bank of India - Reports RBI unveils framework for recognising SROs for account aggregator ecosystem - The
Hindu BusinessLine

66. Consider the following statement regarding Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Minimum investment in the Bonds shall be one gram with a maximum limit of subscription of five hundred grams per person per fiscal year.
2. Interest shall be paid in half-yearly rests and the last interest shall be payable on maturity along with the principal.
3. The Bonds shall be repayable on the expiration of five years from the date of issue of Gold bonds
4. The Bonds may be used as collateral for loans
5. The Bonds shall bear interest at the rate of 2.50 percent (fixed rate) per annum on the amount of initial investment.

• The Reserve Bank has fixed the final redemption price for sovereign gold bonds (SGBs) due on March 17, at Rs 8,624/gram for the
2016-17 series IV issued on March 17, 2017.
• The redemption price of the SGB shall be based on the simple average of the closing price of gold of 999 purity of the week (Monday-
Friday), preceding the date of redemption, as published by the India Bullion and Jewellers Association.
• The SGBs 2016-17 series IV was issued on March 17, 2017 under the sovereign gold bond scheme of the Centre and are repayable on
the expiration of eight years from the date of issue.
• Reserve Bank of India - Press Releases
• The Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme was launched by Government of India in November 2015, under Gold Monetization Scheme.
• Under the scheme, issues are made open for subscription in tranches by RBI in consultation with GOI. RBI Notifies the terms and
conditions for the scheme from time to time.
• SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay
the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity.
• The Bonds under this Scheme may be held by a person resident in India, being an individual, in his capacity as such individual, or on
behalf of minor child, or jointly with any other individual.
• The bond may also be held by a Trust, Charitable Institution and University. “Person resident in India” is defined under section 2(v)
read with section 2(u) of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
• The Bonds shall be denominated in units of one gram of gold and multiples thereof. Minimum investment in the Bonds shall be one
gram with a maximum limit of subscription of five hundred grams per person per fiscal year (April – March).
• The Bonds shall bear interest at the rate of 2.50 percent (fixed rate) per annum on the amount of initial investment.
• Interest shall be paid in half-yearly rests and the last interest shall be payable on maturity along with the principal.
• Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding RRBs), designated Post Offices (as may be notified), Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd
(SHCIL) and recognized stock exchanges viz., National Stock Exchange of India Limited and Bombay Stock Exchange Ltd. are authorized
to receive applications for the Bonds either directly or through agents.
• Payment shall be accepted in Indian Rupees through cash up to a maximum of ₹ 20,000/- or Demand Drafts or Cheque or Electronic
banking.
• The Bonds shall be repayable on the expiration of eight years from the date of issue of Gold bonds. Pre-mature redemption of the Bond
is permitted from fifth year of the date of issue on the interest payment dates.
• The Bonds may be used as collateral for loans. The Loan to Value ratio will be as applicable to ordinary gold loan mandated by the RBI from time to time.
The lien on the Bonds shall be marked in the depository by the authorized banks.
• Interest on the Bonds shall be taxable as per the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

• The Bonds shall be eligible for trading from such date as may be notified by the Reserve Bank of India.
• Reserve Bank of India

67. In March as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has, imposed a monetary penalty of ₹2,00,000/ on which of the following credit Information Company
for non-compliance with certain provisions of the Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act, 2005 [CIC (R) Act] and the Credit Information Companies
Rules, 2006 [CIC Rules].
A. Experian Credit Information Company of India Private Limited
B. Equifax Credit Information Services Private Limited
C. TransUnion CIBIL Limited
D. CRIF High Mark Credit Information Services Private Limited
E. ICRA Limited

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed a monetary penalty of ₹2,00,000 on Experian Credit Information Company of India
Private Limited for non-compliance with certain provisions of the Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act, 2005 and the
Credit Information Companies Rules, 2006.
• The penalty was imposed after an inspection conducted by RBI with reference to the company's financial position as on March
31, 2023, revealed non-compliance with provisions of the CIC (R) Act and the CIC Rules.
• The company failed to: Send intimation regarding discrepancy in credit information: to credit institutions within seven days of
receiving requests.
• - Update/correct credit information or intimate borrowers: regarding its inability to do so within 30 days of receiving requests for
updation/correction.
• The RBI found these charges sustained, warranting the imposition of a monetary penalty. This action is based on deficiencies in
regulatory compliance and does not affect the validity of any transaction or agreement entered into by the company
• Reserve Bank of India - Press Releases

68. In March as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has, imposed a monetary penalty of __________on JM Financial Products Limited for non-compliance
with certain provisions of the ‘Master Direction - Non-Banking Financial Company - Systemically Important Non-Deposit taking Company and Deposit
taking Company (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016’ issued by RBI.
A. ₹4.56 lakh
B. ₹3.78 lakh
C. ₹2.20 lakh
D. ₹6.45 lakh
E. ₹3.10 lakh

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed a monetary penalty of ₹3.10 lakh on JM Financial Products Limited for non-compliance with certain
provisions of the 'Master Direction - Non-Banking Financial Company' issued by RBI.
• The penalty was imposed due to the company's failure to disclose a material related party transaction in its Annual Report, which was discovered during
a statutory inspection conducted by RBI with reference to the company's financial position as on March 31, 2023 .
• After considering the company's response and oral submissions, RBI found the charge sustained, warranting the imposition of a monetary penalty.
• Reserve Bank of India - Press Releases

69. In March as per report ___________ have partnered with National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) and launched nationwide campaigns to boost
Financial Literacy programmes in the country.
A. State Bank of India
B. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
E. Securities and Exchange Board of India

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) have launched a nationwide campaign to enhance financial
literacy across India.
• These initiatives aim to empower diverse segments of the population with the knowledge and skills needed to manage their finances effectively and
safeguard against financial fraud.
• With a view to promote Financial Literacy, various Financial Literacy programmes have been initiated which are as under:
• The multi-media, multilingual public awareness campaign, "RBI Kehta Hai" uses various mediums to promote financial literacy and educate the public on
safe banking practices.
• Recognizing the need to develop standardized content to meet the requirements of general audience for financial awareness on important banking
aspects, RBI has developed Financial Awareness Messages (FAME) booklet wherein specific content has been prepared for various target groups including
senior citizens.
• National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) in collaboration with Centre for Financial Literacy (CFL) is regularly conducting Financial Education (FE)
programmes targeting audience below 18 years and above 60 years.
• NCFE has apprised that they have conducted 54 Financial Literacy programmes in the last three years for various target audience in North Eastern States
where the feedback from participants after the programmes indicate that they have gained a clear understanding of financial literacy concepts.
• Further, RBI has apprised that a Pan-India Financial Literacy and Inclusion survey based on the OECD/ INFE (International Network on Financial Education)
Toolkit was conducted in the year 2017 in 29 states and 5 Union Territories (excluding Andaman & Nicobar Islands).
• Under the survey, financial literacy was measured across three components namely financial knowledge, attitude and behaviour.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

70. Recently as per report SEBI is considering lowering the minimum application size for Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) instruments issued by non-profit
organizations (NPOs) on the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) from the current __________ to either ₹5,000 or ₹1,000, aiming to boost retail participation.
A. ₹10,000
B. ₹20,000
C. ₹30,000
D. ₹40,000
E. ₹50,000

• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed lowering the minimum application size for zero coupon zero principal (ZCZP) instruments
issued by non-profit organisations (NPOs) on the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) to either ₹5,000 or ₹1,000, down from the current ₹10,000.
• The move, aims to boost retail participation in ZCZP issuances and make it easier for individuals to contribute towards social causes.
• ZCZP instruments allow individuals to donate money to NPOs listed on the SSE without any expectation of returns.
• SEBI’s latest proposal follows its November 2023 decision to halve the minimum issue size of ZCZP from ₹1 crore to ₹50 lakh and reduce the minimum
application size for donors from ₹2 lakh to ₹10,000.
• The move comes as issuers highlighted that while retail interest in giving through the SSE is increasing, the current ₹10,000 minimum application size
could be a barrier for many contributors.
• The Social Stock Exchange (SSE) was first proposed by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in the Union Budget 2019-20 as a platform to channel capital
towards social enterprises and non-profits.
• Sebi: Sebi proposes lower application size for ZCZP - The Economic Times

71. In March as per report Finance Ministry has notified the issuance of Zero Coupon Bonds (ZCBs) by Power Finance Corporation (PFC).
Consider the following statement regarding Zero Coupon Bonds (ZCBs). Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Zero coupon bonds are bonds that do not pay interest during the life of the bonds.
2. The notification has capped the number of bonds of PFC to be issued at 10 lakhs.
3. The period of PFC bond is ten years and one month from the date of issuance.
4. The bond is scheduled to be issued on or before March 31, 2027.
5. All of the above are correct

• Finance Ministry has notified Zero Coupon Bond (ZCB) for Power Finance Corporation. The company can raise up to ₹10,000 crore.
• The Ministry of Finance has granted PFC permission to issue ZCBs to raise capital for infrastructure projects, especially in the power sector.
• ZCB is an instrument that doesn’t pay interest during its term, but instead is sold at a discount to its face value. There will be no periodic payment of
interest.
• The name of the bond is Ten Year Zero Coupon Bond of Power Finance Corporation Ltd. The period of life of the bond is ten years and one month from the
date of issuance.

• The bond is scheduled to be issued on or before March 31, 2027. The notification has capped the number of bonds to be issued at 10 lakhs.
• According to the notification, the bond will be issued with a discount of ₹49,546 for a face value of ₹1 lakh.
• Finance Ministry notifies 10-year Zero Coupon Bond of Power Finance Corporation - The Hindu BusinessLine

72. In March as per report Sebi reduced the processing time for a rights issue of equity shares to ________ days in a bid to make it a preferred route of
fundraising.
A. 23 days
B. 21 days
C. 15 days
D. 3 days
E. 7 days

• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) has reduced the timeline for completing rights issues to 23 days from 126 days.
• This will allow companies to raise capital faster through rights issues as compared to preferential issues, which take 40 days.
• The new rule would come into effect from April 7, 2025.
• The regulator has also provided flexibility of allotment to specific investors in the rights issue.
• Sebi rights issues timeline: Sebi cuts timeline to complete rights issues to just 23 days - The Economic Times

73. According to the government’s written responses in the Rajya Sabha Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was the net seller of over
__________ billion between June and December to support the Indian Rupee.
A. $42 billion
B. $36 billion
C. $25 billion
D. $56 billion
E. $21 billion

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was a net seller of over $36 billion in the
foreign exchange market between June and December 2024 in an attempt to
stabilise the rupee.
• The RBI, which sold over $53 billion and purchased about $16.5 billion during
the seven-month period, continues to monitor global developments affecting
the exchange rate. This means that net sale was over $36 billion.
• The Indian Rupee's decline was partly due to global economic uncertainty,
including the US elections and a rise in the US Dollar Index by 7% from
October 2024 to January 2025.
• The depreciation could benefit exporters by making Indian products more
competitive, though it may also raise import costs.
• RBI net sold over $36 billion during June-Dec of FY25 to support rupee - The Hindu BusinessLine

74. Recently as per report capital markets regulator Sebi's total income rose 48 per cent year-on-year to _________crore in 2023-24, driven by increased
earnings from fees and subscriptions.
A. Rs 2,568 crore
B. Rs 2,987 crore
C. Rs 2,623 crore
D. Rs 2,451 crore
E. Rs 2,075 crore

• Capital markets regulator Sebi's total income rose 48 per cent year-on-year to Rs 2,075 crore in 2023-24, driven by increased earnings from fees and
subscriptions.

• Of the total income, the regulator earned a fee income of Rs 1,851.5 crore, which was way higher than Rs 1,213.22 crore garnered in the preceding
financial year.
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) acknowledged that fees and subscriptions are the major sources of its income.
• This category of income included earnings from annual fees and subscriptions, listing fees contribution from stock exchanges, income generated from
registration, renewal, application and offer documents filed by companies and market infrastructure institutions.
• Sebi income rises 48% to Rs 2,075 cr in FY24, driven by fees, subscriptions | Markets News - Business Standard

75. In March as per report National Housing Bank (NHB), a statutory body under the Government of India has released the Report on Trends and Progress of
Housing in India, 2024 pursuant to provisions of Section 42 of National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
As per report Banks account for _________% whereas Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) account for __________% of housing loans.
A. 60%, 40%
B. 73%, 27%
C. 81%, 19%
D. 56%, 44%
E. 70%, 30%

• National Housing Bank (NHB), a statutory body under the Government of India has released the
Report on Trends and Progress of Housing in India, 2024 pursuant to provisions of Section 42 of
National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
• The report broadly covers the housing scenario and house price movements, flagship programmes
of GoI on housing sector, role of Primary Lending Institutions (PLIs) in providing housing credit,
performance of Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) and outlook for the sector.
• Banks account for 81% whereas Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) account for 19% of housing
loans.
• Individual housing loans outstanding as on 30-09-2024 stood at ₹33.53 lakh crore, showing growth
of 14% over the corresponding period of previous year.
• As on 30-09-2024, EWS & LIG accounted for 39%, MIG accounted for 44% and HIG accounted for
17% of outstanding individual housing loans.
• Individual housing loan disbursements during half year ended 30-09-2024 were ₹4.10 lakh crore
while disbursements during the year ended 31-03-2024 were ₹9.07 lakh crore.
• For the quarter ended September 2024, the Housing Price Index (NHB-RESIDEX) recorded y-o-y
increase of 6.8% as compared to 4.9% during previous year.
• Green buildings: Only 5% of buildings are classified as green.
• Regional Disparity in Finance: Southern (35%), Western (30%), Northern (28%), Eastern (5.4%) , North Eastern States (0.68%).
• Major initiatives of GoI, such as PMAY-G, PMAY-U, impact assessment of PMAY-U, Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF), Affordable Rental
Housing Complexes (ARHC) scheme, etc. have been covered in the report.
• The report identifies regional disparities in credit flow and vulnerability to climate related risks, as some of the key challenges to be addressed by the
sector.
• National Housing Bank is a statutory body established under National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
• It supervises Housing Finance Companies, however regulatory powers (including registration of HFCs) have been transferred to Reserve Bank of India
(RBI)
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

76. According to the latest report from the National

Housing Bank (NHB) ___________leads the country
with a home loan market share of 35.31%.
A. North India
B. West India
C. East India
D. South India
E. Northeast India

• According to the latest report from the National Housing Bank (NHB) Housing loan penetration in eastern India continues to lag far behind other regions.
• The report reveals that South India leads the country with a home loan market share of 35.31%, followed by Western India at 30.73%, and Northern
states at 25.56%.
• As of September 2024, eastern and northeastern states have significantly lower shares, with eastern states accounting for just 6.90% and northeastern
states contributing only 0.93% of the total individual housing loans.
• Fourteen states, including Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Kerala, Haryana, Delhi,
West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, and Punjab, together contributed nearly 91% of the total home loan outstanding.
• As of September 30, 2024, the total home loan outstanding across the country stood at Rs 33.53 lakh crore. Public sector banks held the largest share at
43.8%, followed by private sector banks at 37.5%, and housing finance companies at 18.7%.
• Housing loan penetration in eastern India lags, NHB report highlights regional disparities

77. In March as per report Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has identified three Domestic Systemically Important Insurers
(D-Slls) for the year 2024-25.
Which of the following is not among the Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-Slls) for the year 2024-25?
1. United India Insurance Corporation of India
2. Life Insurance Corporation of India
3. General Insurance Corporation of India
4. New India Assurance Co Ltd
5. National Insurance Co Ltd

Select the correct source code:

A. Only 1,3 and 5
B. Only 2,3 and 4
C. Only 1 and 5
D. Only 3 and 5
E. All of the above

• State-owned Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), The New India Assurance Company and General Insurance
Corporation of India (GIC Re) have retained the domestic systemically important insurers (D-SIIs) tag.
• The three insurers have been identified as D-SIIs for 2024-25, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
(IRDAI) said on the decisions and discussions at its 129th meeting on March 12.
• D-Slls refer to insurers of such size, market importance and domestic as well as global inter connectedness whose distress
or failure would result in a significant dislocation in the domestic financial system.
• Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC): Formation: Established on September 1, 1956, following the nationalization of
the life insurance industry in India. Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra, India. Chief Executive Officer & Managing
Director: Shri Siddhartha Mohanty.
• New India Assurance Company: Formation: Founded on July 23, 1919, by Sir Dorabji Tata. Headquarters: Mumbai,
Maharashtra, India. Chairman-cum-Managing Director: Ms. Girija Subramanian.
• General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re): Formation: Incorporated on November 22, 1972, as a private company
under the Companies Act, 1956, in Bombay (now Mumbai). Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra, India.
• LIC, New India Assurance, GIC Re remain D-SIIs - The Hindu

78. In March as per report Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (Irdai) has approved ___________as the
India's first private reinsurer and country second reinsurer after GIC Re.
A. Valueattics Reinsurance
B. Brisk Reinsurance
C. IndiaRe Insurance
D. Aura Reinsurance
E. ITI Re Reinsurance

• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has approved the R2 license for Valueattics Reinsurance, marking it as the first
private sector reinsurance company in the country.

• Valueattics Re, backed by Canadian billionaire Prem Watsa’s Fairfax group and Kamesh Goyal, Founder and Chairman of
Go Digit General Insurance Ltd, will reportedly commence operations with an initial paid-up capital of Rs 210 crore.
• An R2 license is the second stage of regulatory approval required to establish an insurance or reinsurance company in
India. It is granted by the IRDAI after a company completes the initial scrutiny process.
• Currently, public sector General Insurance Corporation (GIC Re) is the only reinsurance company operating in India.
• At present, there are 13 foreign reinsurance branches (FRBs) set up by global reinsurance companies, including Munich
Re, Swiss Re, and Lloyd’s of London, operating in India.
• In 2016, ITI Re had received approval from Irdai for reinsurance, but it surrendered the licence without doing business
because of operational factors.
• Valueattics Reinsurance set to become India's first private reinsurer | Start Ups - Business Standard

79. In March as per report a consortium of ___________ banks led by State Bank of India (SBI) has executed the transfer of
___________crore worth stressed loans belonging to Jaiprakash Associates Ltd (JAL) to National Asset Reconstruction
Company Ltd (NARCL), which is known as country’s ‘bad bank’.
A. 15, ₹ 11,100
B. 10, ₹ 17,400
C. 25, ₹ 12,700
D. 20, ₹ 18,900
E. 18, ₹ 14,200

• In a landmark move, a consortium of 25 banks led by State Bank of

India (SBI) has executed the transfer of ₹ 12,700 crore worth stressed
loans belonging to Jaiprakash Associates Ltd (JAL) to National Asset
Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL), which is known as country’s ‘bad
bank’.
• The completion of the transfer done in a 15:85 model means that the
banks will, this quarter, get cash amounting to ₹1,905 crore that could
be taken to their profit and accounts this quarter.
• The consideration for the balance amount (₹10,795 crore) would come
as security receipts (SRs) issued by NARCL to these banks.

• Meanwhile, insolvency process of Jaiprakash Associates will continue and the deadline for Expression of Interest (EOI) submission has been extended to
March 25. Final recovery for banks from SRs depends on outcome of the resolution.
• JAL was categorised as a non-performing asset (NPA) in 2016 and was admitted to bankruptcy court last year.
• In January, NARCL had emerged as the sole suitor to acquire Jaiprakash’s stressed loan.
• Banks offload ₹12,700 crore Jaiprakash loans to NARCL in landmark deal - The Hindu BusinessLine

80. Recently as per report overall credit disbursement to priority sectors including Agriculture, MSME and Social Infrastructure by banks in 2019 was
₹23,01,567 crores, which has risen to __________crores in 2024, recording an increase of 85% over the six-year period.
A. ₹42,73,161 crores
B. ₹56,12,123 crores
C. ₹81,45,117 crores
D. ₹22,33,196 crores
E. ₹27,51,188 crores

• Ministry of Finance stated in a latest update that overall credit disbursement to priority sectors including Agriculture, MSME and Social Infrastructure by
banks in 2019 was Rs 23,01,567 crores, which has risen to Rs 42,73,161 crores in 2024, recording an increase of 85% over the six-year period.
• Within priority sector lending, the overall credit disbursement to the agriculture sector has seen steady and positive growth from 2019 to 2024. In 2019,
the total disbursement to the sector was Rs 8,86,791 crore, and by 2024, it has significantly increased to Rs 18,27,666 crore (Data for Agriculture includes
credit disbursement towards agriculture infrastructure by banks).
• The overall credit disbursement to the MSME sector has also increased steadily from Rs 10,99,055 crore in 2019 to Rs 21,73,679 crore in 2024.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

81. Recently as per report minimum life insurance benefit of__________ will now be provided if an EPF member passes away without completing a full year of
continuous service.
A. Rs 10,000
B. Rs 15,000
C. Rs 50,000
D. Rs 20,000
E. Rs 25,000

• The Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) has recently introduced key updates to the Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI) scheme.
• These revisions were approved during the 237th meeting of the Central Board of Trustees (CBT), chaired by Union Labor Minister Mansukh Mandaviya.
• A minimum life insurance benefit of Rs 50,000 will now be provided if an EPF member passes away without completing a full year of continuous service.
• This amendment is expected to increase benefits for over 5,000 in-service death cases annually.
• Previously, EDLI benefits were denied in cases where a member's death occurred after a gap in contributions, considering it as death outside of service.
• Under the revised scheme, if a member dies within six months of their last contribution, the EDLI benefit will be granted— provided their name remains
on the employer’s rolls. This change is anticipated to benefit over 14,000 such cases every year.
• To minimise litigation, the penalty for delayed PF remittances has been standardised at 1 per cent per month.
• EPFO new rules: Rs 50,000 minimum benefit for short service tenure | Personal Finance - Business Standard

82. Recently as per report the "Incentive Scheme for the promotion of RuPay Debit Cards and low value BHIM-UPI transactions Person to merchant (P2M)"
has significantly contributed to the growth of digital payments in the country.
Government has set up a ___________ mission to promote digital payments and strengthen the digital payments ecosystem in the country.
A. BharatNet
B. e-RUPI
C. PMGDISHA
D. DIGIDHAN
E. Pradhan Mantri Digital Payments

• The "Incentive Scheme for the promotion of RuPay Debit Cards and low value BHIM-UPI transactions Person to merchant (P2M)" has significantly
contributed to the growth of digital payments in the country. T
• The total digital payment transactions have grown from 8,839 crore in FY 2021-22 to 18,737 crore in FY 2023-24, with a CAGR of 46%.
• This growth has been driven by Unified Payment Interface (UPI), which grew at a CAGR of 69%, increasing from 4,597 crore transactions in FY 2021-22 to
13,116 crore transactions in FY 2023-24.
• UPI has captured around 70% of total digital payment transactions in FY 2023-24.
• The Government has set up a DIGIDHAN mission to promote digital payments and strengthen the digital payments ecosystem in the country. An incentive
scheme has been implemented since FY 2021-22 to incentivise the banks and other ecosystem partners for promotion of digital payments including
promotion of UPI.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

83. Consider the following statement regarding NPS Vatsalya scheme. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. All minor citizens (age below 18 years) are eleigible under the scheme.
2. Account can be opened in the name of a minor and operated by parent or guardian. Minor will be the beneficiary.
3. Subscriber to make a minimum contribution of Rs 1000/- per annum. There is no limit on the maximum contribution.
4. After three years of opening the NPS vastsalya account, partial withdrawals are allowed.
5. Up to 50% of the corpus can be withdrawn for specific purposes, including education, medical treatment for certain illnesses, or disabilities over 75%.

• More than 100,000 babies have opted for the NPS Vatsalya scheme, which was launched in September last year to allow parents to save for their children
by investing in pension accounts.
• Eligibility for NPS Vatsalya as follows - All minor citizens (age below 18 years).
• Both the child and the parent must be Indian citizens. All parties must comply with the Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements.
• Account can be opened in the name of a minor and operated by parent or guardian. Minor will be the beneficiary.

• Scheme can be opened through various Points of presence regulated by Pension Fund Regulatory Authority of India (PFRDA)such as major banks, India
Post, Pension Funds and Online platform (e-NPS).
• Contribution: Subscriber to make a minimum contribution of Rs 1000/- per annum. There is no limit on the maximum contribution.
• PFRDA will provide multiple investment choices to subscribers. Subscribers can take exposure in government securities, corporate debt, and equity in
different proportions based on risk appetite and desired returns.
• On attaining the age of majority, the plan can be converted seamlessly into a normal NPS account.
• After three years of opening the NPS vastsalya account, partial withdrawals are allowed. Up to 25% of the corpus can be withdrawn for specific purposes,
including education, medical treatment for certain illnesses, or disabilities over 75%.
• Once the child attains the age of 18, the corpus of up to Rs 2.5 lakh can be withdrawn entirely and if it exceeds, the 20% can be withdrawn and the rest
80% can be used for annuity purchase in the NPS.
• In the unfortunate event of a subscriber's death, the entire corpus is given to the nominee, usually the guardian. If the guardian dies, a new guardian
must be assigned after completing a new KYC.
• If both parents die, a legal guardian can manage the account without further contributions until the child turns 18.
• Over 100,000 babies enrolled for NPS Vatsalya, says PFRDA Chairperson | Personal Finance - Business Standard Press Release Detail: Press Information
Bureau (pib.gov.in)

84. In March as per report Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) has revised the charges for NPS, including those for Points of
Presence (POPs), with the aim of incentivizing them to promote and distribute NPS and provide better customer service.
As per report fees for the initial registration of subscribers may reach___________.
A. Rs 200
B. Rs 400
C. Rs 600
D. Rs 800
E. Rs 500

• The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) has announced the latest charges for opening National Pension Account (NPS) online
and offline.
• These charges apply to NPS (All Citizen and Corporate) and NPS-Lite models.
• Note that the charges for services under the NPS-Vatsalya account align with those of the NPS-All Citizen model.
• The service charge will be effective from January 31, 2025.
• Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman proposed in the Union Budget 2025 that taxpayers who contribute to NPS Vatsalya accounts would be eligible for
an additional Rs 50,000 tax deduction under Section 80CCD(1B), which would be the same as the tax benefits offered for regular NPS contributions.
• According to the PFRDA Master Circular released on February 4, 2025, “The charges that can be collected for services rendered in respect of the NPS-
Vatsalya account at any time shall be the same as the charges that be collected under NPS- All Citizen Model as stipulated by the Authority from time to
time.”
• NPS account opening - For initial subscriber registration, a charge of up to Rs 400 is collected upfront. The initial contribution is subject to a fee of up to
0.50% of the contribution amount, with a maximum limit of Rs 25,000.
• Non-financial transactions - For non-financial transactions, a fee of up to Rs 30 may be levied.
• If the annual contribution is between Rs 1,000 and Rs 2,999, the charge is Rs 50 per year. For annual contribution between Rs 3000 and 6000 would be Rs
75 and in case of contribution above Rs 6000 the maximum charge would be Rs 100.
• For e-NPS transactions (subsequent contributions), a charge of up to 0.20% of the contribution is applicable, with a maximum limit of Rs 10,000.
• A trail commission for D-Remit contributions is also levied at up to 0.20% of the contribution, capped at Rs 10,000,
• Persistency charges are payable only if a subscriber remains associated with a (Point of Presence) PoP for more than six months in a financial year.
• The minimum contribution per transaction is Rs 500, and the minimum annual contribution is Rs 1,000.
• NPS charges revised by PFRDA: Know the latest charges applicable for NPS, NPS-Lite, NPS Vatsalya - The Economic Times

85. Recently as per government report Banks have written off non-performing assets (NPAs) or bad loans worth about Rs 16.35 trillion in last 10 financial
years.
In which financial year was the highest amount of NPAs written off?
A. 2018-19
B. 2014-15
C. 2019-20
D. 2016-17
E. 2022-23
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• Banks have written off non-performing assets (NPAs) or bad loans worth about Rs 16.35 trillion in
last 10 financial years.
• Highest amount of Rs 2,36,265 crore was written off during financial year 2018-19 while NPAs worth
Rs 58,786 crore were written off in 2014-15, the lowest in the last 10 years.
• During 2023-24, banks wrote off bad loans of Rs 1,70,270 crore, lower than Rs 2,16,324 crore done in
the previous financial year.
• Banks write off non-performing assets (NPAs), including those in respect of which full provisioning
has been made on completion of four years, as per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines and
policy approved by banks' boards.
• As per RBI data, as on December 31, 2024, scheduled commercial banks had 29 unique borrower
companies, which have been classified as NPAs and each of them have outstanding of Rs 1,000 crore
and above, she said, adding aggregate outstanding in these accounts were Rs 61,027 crore.
• Banks wrote off bad loans worth Rs 16.35 trillion in last 10 years: Govt | Finance News - Business
Standard

86. In February as per report ___________ has launched India's first fully compliant, self-hosted CKYC
(Central KYC) solution, enabling financial institutions to seamlessly transition to the new CERSAI
compliance framework.
A. Kaleidofin
B. Perfios
C. FinBox
D. Signzy
E. Decentro

• Decentro, a leading fintech infrastructure platform, has launched India’s first fully compliant, self-hosted CKYC (Central KYC) solution, enabling financial
institutions to seamlessly transition to the new CERSAI compliance framework.
• This innovation eliminates third-party dependencies, allowing banks, NBFCs, and insurers to onboard customers faster while ensuring regulatory
adherence.
• In response to the recent CERSAI circular from the last quarter of 2024, financial institutions can no longer process CKYC data via third-party service
providers. Instead, they must host and manage CKYC search, download, and upload functions in-house.
• Rohit Taneja, Co-Founder & CEO of Decentro.
• Decentro Unveils India’s First Self-Hosted CKYC Solution to Align with CERSAI’s New Compliance Mandate - Elets BFSI

87. In March as per report Kuhoo Finance has received approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for a non-banking financial company (NBFC) licence,
enabling it to offer loans from its own books.
With this approval, Kuhoo Finance can now offer loans of up to Rs __________ for a range of academic programmes, including management.
A. Rs 1 crore
B. Rs 3 crore
C. Rs 5 crore
D. Rs 4 crore
E. Rs 2 crore

• WestBridge Capital-backed student loan fintech startup Kuhoo Finance has received approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for a non-banking
financial company (NBFC) licence, enabling it to offer loans from its own books.
• With this approval, Kuhoo Finance can now offer loans of up to Rs 2 crore for a range of academic programmes, including manag ement, engineering,
medical, executive education, and upskilling courses.
• Founded in 2021, the company uses data science and artificial intelligence (AI)-driven credit models to assess students' employability.
• Student loan fintech startup Kuhoo Finance secures RBI approval for NBFC licence, ET BFSI

88. According to data from the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), Flipkart-backed super.money rose to become the fifth-largest third-party
player on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), processing 139.10 million transactions in February—less than a year after launching operations.

Which of the following is not among the top 5 party player on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
A. super.money
B. Amazon Pay
C. Google Pay
D. PhonePe
E. Paytm

• According to data from the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), Unified Payments Interface
(UPI) transactions worth Rs 21,96,481.69 crore were conducted in February 2025.
• This was slightly lower than January's figure of Rs 23,48,037.12 crore, reflecting a minor decline in
transaction value.
• Flipkart-backed super.money rose to become the fifth-largest third-party player on the Unified
Payments Interface (UPI), processing 139.10 million transactions in February—less than a year after
launching operations.
• In January 2025, Cred held the fifth position with total UPI transactions worth Rs 49,482.95 crore,
whereas Super.money was in the seventh spot with Rs 4,565.57 crore.
• In February 2024, PhonePe, which is expected to launch its initial public offering (IPO) in 2025, topped the list with UPI transactions worth Rs 9,15,586.00
crore. It was followed by Google Pay (Rs 6,37,264.65 crore), Paytm (Rs 1,59,569.47 crore), Cred (Rs 38,649.61 crore), and Amazon Pay (Rs 6,278.02 crore).
• Flipkart-backed super.money joins top five UPI apps club: NPCI data | Finance News - Business Standard

89. DRTs are quasi judicial bodies established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 (DRT Act).
At present, ________ DRTs and _______ DRATs are functioning across the country.
A. 35, 4
B. 31, 7
C. 33, 3
D. 39, 5
E. 30,5

• DRTs are quasi judicial bodies established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 (DRT Act).
• DRTs play a crucial role in enforcing creditor rights and expediting debt recovery processes under Indian law.
• DRTs can take cases from banks for disputed loans above Rs 20 Lakh.
• The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets & Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act) provides access to banks and
financial institutions covered under the Act for recovery of secured debts from the borrowers without the intervention of the Courts at the first stage.
• At present, 39 DRTs and 5 DRATs are functioning across the country. Each DRT and DRAT are headed by a Presiding Officer and a Chairperson,
respectively.
• News Link - Press Release: Press Information Bureau (pib.gov.in)

90. What is the name of the HCL Technologies Chairperson who has emerged as one of the wealthiest people in India and ranked as the richest woman in the
nation?
A. Falguni Nayar
B. Sudha Murty
C. Roshni Nadar Malhotra
D. Indra Nooyi
E. Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw

• HCL Technologies Chairperson Roshni Nadar Malhotra has emerged as one of the
wealthiest people in India and ranked as the richest woman in the nation after her father,
Shiv Nadar, gifted her a stake in HCL Tech, Vama Delhi earlier this month.
• The billionaire founder of HCL Tech, Shiv Nadar, decided to gift his daughter 47 per cent of
his stake in HCL Corporation and Vama Delhi as his succession plan.

• She will acquire a 44.17 per cent stake which was held by Vama Delhi and a 0.17 per cent stake from HCL Corp, making Malhotra the largest shareholder
of HCL Corp. which gives her majority controlling powers in an Indian IT major.
• With this shareholding change, this has made Roshni Nadar Malhotra the richest from India after Reliance's Mukesh Ambani and Adani Group's Gautam
Adani.
• Who is Roshni Nadar Malhotra? — Richest woman in India, ranks 3rd wealthiest after Ambani, Adani | Company Business News

91. Recently as per report Retail food inflation eased for the four consecutive months of 3.61% and to a 21-month low of 3.75% in February. In the current CPI
series, with base year 2012, ‘food and beverages’ carry a weight of ____________%.
A. 54.7%
B. 48.9%
C. 39.9%
D. 45.9%
E. 59.9%

• Retail food inflation eased for the four

consecutive months to a 21-month low of 3.75%
in February compared to 5.97% in January, as
prices of vegetables, pulses and spices declined
with winter harvest arriving in the markets.
• The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of
the average change overtime in the prices paid
by urban consumers for a market basket of
consumer goods and services.
• The main component in the consumer price index
is food and beverages (45.86 per cent of total
weight), followed by Housing – 10.07, Fuel and
Light – 6.84, Clothing and Footwear – 6.53, Pan,
tobacco and intoxicants – 2.38, Miscellaneous –
28.32.
• Currently, CPI is calculated using 2012 as a base year.
• There are four types of CPI are as follows: CPI for Industrial Workers (IW). CPI for Agricultural Labourer (AL). CPI for Rural Labourer (RL). CPI
(Rural/Urban/Combined).
• Of these, the first three are compiled by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Fourth is compiled by the NSO in the Ministry of
Statistics and Programme Implementation.
• Food inflation plunges to 21-month low at 3.75% in February - Economy News | The Financial Express

92. Recently as per report Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inched up a bit to 2.4 per cent in February. Which of the
following is given the highest weightage of approx 63% in Wholesale Price Index?
A. Clothing and Footwear
B. Fuel and Light
C. Housing
D. Manufacturing
E. Food and Beverages

• Wholesale price inflation marginally rose to 2.38 per cent in February due to expensive manufactured food
items like vegetables oil and beverages.
• The positive rate of inflation in February 2025 is primarily due to the increase in prices of manufacture of food
products, food articles, other manufacturing, non-food articles and manufacture of textiles.
•
• Manufacturing is given the highest weightage of approx 64% followed by primary articles (22%) and Fuel, power, light & lubricants(14%).
• The Office of the Economic Adviser in the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce & Industry is responsible for compiling
WPI and releasing it.
• Wholesale inflation rate inched up to 2.4% in February - The Hindu BusinessLine
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93. Recently as per report ____________ have partnered with SpaceX’s Starlink to provide satellite internet in India, marking a shift from the telecom
industry's earlier resistance to launching Starlink without spectrum auctions.
1. Tata Sky
2. Vodafone Idea
3. Bharti Airtel
4. Reliance Jio
5. BSNL

Select the correct source code:

A. Only 1,4 and 5
B. Only 2 and 5
C. Only 3 and 4
D. Only 3,4 and 5
E. All of the above

• Bharti Airtel and Reliance Jio have partnered with SpaceX’s Starlink to provide satellite internet in India, marking a shift from the telecom industry's
earlier resistance to launching Starlink without spectrum auctions.
• Starlink is a low-earth orbit (LEO) satellite constellation with over 7,000 satellites that provide internet access to users via ground terminals.
• It is owned by Elon Musk's SpaceX and is available in around 40 countries.
• The satellites constantly orbit the earth, blanketing practically its entire habitable surface with coverage, as long as a given terminal on the ground has
visibility to the sky.
• Jio Platforms has signed a deal with Elon Musk’s SpaceX to bring Starlink’s internet services to India, a day after close rival Bharti Airtel announced a
similar deal.
• Similar to Airtel, this deal is contingent upon SpaceX receiving its own authorisations to sell Starlink in India. Jio Platforms is a subsidiary of Reliance
Industries.
• Starlink promises to offer internet services at faster speeds and lower latency than fixed line broadband service providers.
• Starlink Nears India Launch: 7 key facts about the satellite internet service | Starlink Internet Speed, Work All you Need to Know

94. According to Morgan Stanley, India will be the world's third-largest economy by ___________ as it becomes the world's most sought-after consumer
market and gains share in global output, driven by macro stability influenced policy and better infrastructure.
A. 2026
B. 2030
C. 2028
D. 2032
E. 2035

• According to the Morgan Stanley India will be the world's third-largest economy by 2028 as it
becomes the world's most sought-after consumer market and gains share in global output, driven
by macro stability influenced policy and better infrastructure,
• From a USD 3.5 trillion economy in 2023, the Indian economy is projected to expand to USD 4.7
trillion in 2026, which will make it the fourth largest in the world behind the US, China and
Germany.
• In 2028, India will overtake Germany as its economy will expand to USD 5.7 trillion.
• According to Morgan Stanley, India was the 12th largest economy in the world in 1990, slipped to
13th position in 2000 before rising to 9th rank in 2020 and 5th in 2023.
• India's share in the world GDP is projected to rise from 3.5 per cent to 4.5 per cent in 2029.
• Morgan Stanley expected inflation will be 4.3 per cent year-on-year in FY2026-27, lower than 4.9
per cent in FY2025.
• India to become world's third-largest economy by 2028: Morgan Stanley | Economy & Policy News -
Business Standard

95. In March as per report HDFC Bank announced that it will act as an agency bank for the Government of India and help Senior Citizens’ Savings Scheme
scheme deposits, while providing seamless service to customers.
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Consider the following statement regarding Senior Citizens’ Savings Scheme. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. The Senior Citizen Savings Scheme interest rates are revised on a quarterly basis.
2. The minimum deposit is Rs.1,000 and the maximum is Rs.30 lakh.
3. The maturity period of SCSS is 5 years. However, individuals can extend the maturity period for 3 more years by submitting an application.
4. Individuals can open more than one SCSS account.
5. Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) are eligible to open a SCSS.

• HDFC Bank, India’s leading private sector bank, announced that it will now accept deposits under the Senior Citizens’ Savings Scheme (SCSS), a savings
instrument run by the Government of India for the elderly.
• HDFC Bank will act as an agency bank for the Government of India and help source scheme deposits, while providing seamless service to customers.
• Apart from the post office, as many as 26 government and private banks offer the Senior Citizens' Savings Scheme (SCSS). HDFC Bank is the latest addition
to this list of financial institutions offering the SCSS scheme.
• business-standard.com/finance/personal-finance/hdfc-bank-is-now-accepting-deposits-under-senior-citizens-savings-scheme-
125031700398_1.html#:~:text="HDFC Bank will act as,bank said in a statement.
• Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) is a government-backed retirement benefits program. Senior citizens who are resident in India can invest a lump
sum in the scheme, individually or jointly, and get access to regular income along with tax benefits.
• The Senior Citizen Savings Scheme interest rates are revised on a quarterly basis. Interest is compounded quarterly.
• The maturity period of SCSS is 5 years. However, individuals can extend the maturity period for 3 more years by submitting an application. The
application for an extension of maturity should be within one year from the date of maturity.
• Individuals can appoint nominees either while opening an SCSS account or after opening the account.
• Individuals can open more than one SCSS account. They may open another account either by themselves or a joint account with their spouse.
• The minimum deposit is Rs.1,000 and the maximum is Rs.30 lakh. The deposits can be made in multiples of Rs.1,000.
• An individual who has attained the age of 60 years or above on the date of opening of an account or an individual who has att ained the age of 55 years
or more but less than 60 years and has retired under Superannuation, VRS or Special VRS, can open an account.
• Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) are not eligible to open a SCSS.
• The current interest rate applicable to SCSS is 8.2% p.a. This interest rate is applicable from 1st April 2024 until 31st March 2025.
• Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) 2025 - Interest Rate, Tax Benefits, Eligibility, Rules and Opening SCSS Account

96. In March as per report TransUnion CIBIL has announced partnership with _________ and launched initiative, named 'CIBIL Jaagran', to promote financial
literacy and credit awareness in India.
A. Indian Banks' Association
B. Fintech Association for Consumer Empowerment
C. Microfinance Institutions Network
D. National Association of Street Vendors of India
E. Small Industries Development Bank of India

• TransUnion CIBIL and the Fintech Association for Consumer Empowerment (FACE) announced that they are partnering to promote financial literacy and
credit awareness in India.
• The initiative, named 'CIBIL Jaagran', seeks to improve credit education and facilitate easy access to credit for consumers via FinTech solutions.
• Under the agreement, TransUnion CIBIL will provide knowledge and expertise and will develop co-branded and customized educational content.
• FACE, the Reserve Bank of India recognised Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO) in the FinTech sector, will work with its network of 165 plus FinTech
members to promote financial literacy and credit awareness among consumers.
• Financial Literacy: TransUnion CIBIL and FACE partner to launch Consumer Education initiative, ET BFSI

97. According to a report released by the market intelligence platform Tracxn, tech startups co-led by women secured only $1 billion in funding in 2024, a 25
per cent year-on-year (Y-o-Y) decline.
In 2024, India ranked globally at which position in terms of funding raised by startups co-led by women?
A. 1st
B. 5th
C. 3rd
D. 2nd
E. 7th

• According to a report released by the market intelligence platform Tracxn ahead of International
Women’s Day on March 8, tech startups co-led by women secured only $1 billion in funding in
2024, a 25 per cent year-on-year (Y-o-Y) decline.
• The report titled ‘Women-led Startups in India Report 2025’ highlights key trends in funding,
sectoral growth, unicorn journeys, and global positioning.
• India is home to over 7,000 active women-led startups, accounting for 7.5 per cent of all active
startups in the country.
• In the tech space, women-led startups have collectively raised $26.4 billion to date, with 2021
being the highest funded year at $6.3 billion.
• In 2024, India ranked third globally in terms of funding raised by startups co-led by women, after
the US and the UK, accounting for 3.96 per cent of funding raised by women-led startups across
the globe.
• The retail sector takes a strong lead based on investments raised by women-led startups, securing
$7.8 billion in all-time funding, followed by ed-tech ($5.4 billion) and enterprise applications ($5
billion).
• Bengaluru leads in the number of women-led startups and total funding raised to date, followed
by Mumbai and Delhi NCR. India's women-led unicorn journey has experienced highs and lows,
marked by a surge in 2021 with 8 new unicorns and steady growth in 2019 (3), 2020 (4), and 2022
(5). However, 2017, 2023, and 2024 saw no new unicorns, indicating fluctuating momentum.
• India leads global GenAI adoption, but women's participation remains low | Industry News - Business Standard Women-led tech startups' funding drops
25% in 2024, says Tracxn report | Start Ups - Business Standard

98. In March as per report ___________launched a co-branded diesel exhaust fluid 'Genuine DEF' in collaboration with Tata Motors.
A. Reliance Industries Limited
B. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
C. Oil India Limited
D. Indian Oil Corporation
E. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited

• Public sector oil marketing firm HPCL launched a co-branded diesel exhaust fluid 'Genuine DEF' in collaboration with Tata Motors.
• The co-branded diesel exhaust fluid will be available across 23,000 fuel stations of the Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) pan-India as well
as over 2,000 authorised outlets of Tata Motors.
• The high quality Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) solution will drive optimal vehicle performance, boost drivetrain efficiency, and extend the vehicle's longevity.
• By using the co-branded Genuine DEF, Tata Motors customers can conveniently enhance vehicle efficiency, while ensuring compliance of emission and
environmental norms.

99. Recently as per report India’s state-run refiners will fully commission the world’s longest liquefied
petroleum gas pipeline by June, a key development that will sharply cut fuel transportation costs
and help prevent deadly road accidents.
Indian Oil, Bharat Petroleum Corp. and Hindustan Petroleum Corp. have jointly formed IHB to lay
the ________kilometer-long pipeline from Kandla on the west coast to the northern city of
Gorakhpur.
A. 2,200 kilometer
B. 2,800 kilometer
C. 2,600 kilometer
D. 2,700 kilometer
E. 2,900 kilometer

• India’s state-run refiners will fully commission the world’s longest liquefied petroleum gas pipeline
by June, a key development that will sharply cut fuel transportation costs and help prevent deadly
road accidents.

• The $1.3 billion project will likely replace hundreds of trucks that travel across the length and breadth of the country to move the fuel from refineries to
bottling plants, raising the risk of accidents.
• Indian Oil, Bharat Petroleum Corp. and Hindustan Petroleum Corp. have jointly formed IHB to lay the 2,800-kilometer-long pipeline from Kandla on the
west coast to the northern city of Gorakhpur.
• The ambitious project, Kandla Gorakhpur Petroleum Pipeline (KGPL), passes through Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
• Gujarat: 1,076 kilometres, Madhya Pradesh: 621 kilometres, Uttar Pradesh: 1,108 kilometres.
• The IHB Limited, which is a combination of three of the major public sector undertakings, is implementing the KGPL project, which is as follows: Indian
Oil Corporation (IOCL): 50% stake, Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL): 25% stake and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL): 25%
stake.
• The first phase will be commissioned in March, and will be fully operational from the middle of this year.
• The network will be capable of annually transporting about 8.3 million tons of LPG, or about 25% of India’s total demand. India currently has an LPG
pipeline network of almost 5,000 kilometers.
• Before KGPL, the Jamnagar-Loni pipeline, at 1,415 kilometres, was India’s longest LPG pipeline.
• India builds world’s longest LPG pipeline to cut costs & deadly road accidents - The Economic Times

100. In March as per report __________has partnered with Youth4Jobs Foundation to support women sellers with disabilities by providing essential resources,
tools, and training to succeed in the digital e-commerce ecosystem.
A. Meta India
B. Amazon India
C. Google India
D. Microsoft India
E. Apple India

• Ecommerce major Amazon India has partnered with Youth4Jobs Foundation to support women sellers with disabilities by providing essential resources,
tools, and training to succeed in the digital e-commerce ecosystem.
• Under the partnership, Amazon Saheli programme will conduct workshops and provide onboarding and account management support for these women
sellers.
• The alliance aims to bridge the gap between talented women with disabilities and wider market opportunities, and help them leverage the Amazon
platform to grow their business online.
• Amazon India partners with Youth4Jobs to empower women sellers with disabilities - The Economic Times

101. Recently as per report India's oldest index fund _________, completed 25 years on March 6, 2025, marking its legacy as one of India's most enduring index
funds, launched in March 2000.
A. SBI Magnum Index Fund
B. HDFC 50 Index Fund
C. Franklin India Prima Fund
D. ICICI Prudential Nifty Index Fund
E. UTI Nifty 50 Index Fund

• India's oldest index fund, the UTI Nifty 50 Index Fund, completed 25 years on March 6, 2025, marking its legacy as one of India's most enduring index
funds, launched in March 2000.
• Since its launch, the fund has delivered a return of 11.51%, meaning an initial investment of ₹10 lakh would have grown to approximately ₹1.5 crore
today.
• While this return is commendable, active large-cap funds have outperformed it over a 25-year period, with the average return for the large-cap category
at 12.39%.
• The UTI Nifty 50 Index Fund is an index fund, meaning it aims to replicate the performance of the Nifty 50 index, a broad market index that comprises 50
of the largest and most liquid Indian companies listed on the National Stock Exchange.
• CitiCorp resolves issue with Sebi; India's 1st index fund completes 25 yrs | Markets News - Business Standard

102. In March as per report __________has achieved a top 1% ranking in S&P Global's 2025 Sustainability Yearbook, making it the only automobile
manufacturer globally to achieve this distinction based on its Corporate Sustainability Assessment (CSA).

A. Hero MotoCorp
B. Hyundai Motor India
C. Mahindra & Mahindra
D. Maruti Suzuki
E. Tata Motors

• Mahindra & Mahindra has secured a spot in the top 1 per cent of S&P Global’s 2025 Sustainability Yearbook.
• According to S&P Global’s website, M&M is the only automobile manufacturer worldwide to be in the top 1 per cent of the companies recognised for
leading sustainability initiative across various sectors, based on S&P Global’s annual Corporate Sustainability Assessment (CSA).
• The company has been recognised for its performance on environmental, social, and governance (ESG) principles.
• The ranking places the Indian automaker among a group of 780 companies chosen from over 7,690 firms assessed globally for the 2025 edition.
• The company scored 82 out of 100 in the S&P Global Corporate Sustainability Assessment — a 12-point rise from last year and its fourth consecutive year
on the index.
• This recognition comes after Mahindra’s recent leadership ranking in the 2024 Dow Jones Sustainability World Index for the automotive sector.
• M&M ranks in top 1% of S&P Global's corporate sustainability assessment | Company News - Business Standard

103. In March as per report __________ has became the first bank to execute the first ever trade in Gold by any bank on IIBX under Special Category Client –
Nominated Bank Category.
A. Indian Bank
B. HDFC Bank
C. Bandhan Bank
D. ICICI Bank
E. Axis Bank

• India International Bullion Exchange announces that on 28th February 2025 HDFC Bank has executed the first ever trade in Gold by any bank on IIBX
under Special Category Client – Nominated Bank Category.
• This trade to import Gold through IIBX ecosystem by HDFC Bank, the largest private sector bank of the country, paves the way for other Nominated Banks
to follow and start importing bullion through IIBX.
• HDFC Bank is one of India's largest private sector banks, known for its strong financial services, innovative banking solutions, and extensive reach across
the country.
• Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra, India. Managing Director (MD) & CEO: Sashidhar Jagdishan
• HDFC Bank executes first trade in gold through IIBX - The Hindu BusinessLine Emailing PRESS RELEASE by IIBX HDFC Bank trade$8a3ffae8-134b-41ca-9b14-
9ad98133b5e5.pdf

104. In March as per report Paytm, announced a strategic partnership with _________ to provide its Soundbox and card machines to the bank’s merchant
partners.
A. Indian Bank
B. RBL Bank
C. Bandhan Bank
D. Axis Bank
E. Canara Bank

• Paytm, India’s leading payments and financial services company, announced a strategic partnership with RBL Bank to provide its Soundbox and card
machines to the bank’s merchant partners.
• Under this agreement, RBL Bank merchants will gain access to Paytm’s technology infrastructure including real-time transaction monitoring and instant
settlement through the Paytm for Business dashboard.
• The payment solutions will support multiple payment methods including UPI, RuPay credit card on UPI, UPI Lite, debit and credit cards, along with EMI
options.
• Expanding on this innovation, the Paytm NFC Card Soundbox allows 'Tap and Pay' transactions at small shops for debit and cred it card users.
• Paytm expands digital payment solutions through RBL Bank partnership - The Hindu BusinessLine

105. In March as per report __________has announced it now supports UPI Trading Blocks (also known as Single Block Multiple Debits), a feature that enables
seamless automatic payment deductions directly from bank accounts for equity trading.
A. Axis Bank
B. Paytm
C. Zerodha
D. Google Pay
E. PhonePe

• Paytm has announced that Paytm UPI now supports UPI Trading Blocks (also known as Single Block Multiple Debits), a feature that enables seamless
automatic payment deductions directly from bank accounts for equity trading.
• This new functionality allows investors to block funds in their accounts without needing to transfer large sums to broker apps in advance, ensuring a
secure and efficient trading experience.
• Built on NPCI’s UPI infrastructure, the feature ensures that funds remain in users' bank accounts and continue earning interest until a trade is executed.
• Also known as Single Block Multiple Debits, UPI Trading Blocks allow investors to authorise fund blocking directly from their bank accounts while placing
trade requests on brokerage apps.
• Paytm introduces UPI Trading Blocks with auto payment from bank accounts | Personal Finance - Business Standard

106. Recently as per report 360 ONE Private Equity Fund and Bharti Life Ventures Private Ltd (BLVPL) have submitted a combination notice to the Competition
Commission of India (CCI) for approval of a proposed transaction to acquire a __________ per cent stake in Bharti AXA Life Insurance Company Ltd (Bharti
AXA Life).
A. 30%
B. 25%
C. 10%
D. 20%
E. 15%

• 360 ONE Private Equity Fund and Bharti Life Ventures Private Ltd (BLVPL) have submitted a combination notice to the Competition Commission of India
(CCI) for approval of a proposed transaction involving Bharti AXA Life Insurance Company Ltd (Bharti AXA Life)
• 360 ONE, through its schemes or affiliates, will initially acquire equity shares of Bharti AXA Life from BLVPL. Subsequently, both 360 ONE and BLVPL will
subscribe to additional equity shares in Bharti AXA Life.
• 360 ONE is looking to acquire a 15 per cent stake in Bharti AXA Life Insurance through this deal.
• 360 ONE Private Equity Fund is a SEBI-registered Category II Alternative Investment Fund investing across sectors in India and globally.
• BLVPL is a holding company within the Bharti Group, which owns Bharti AXA Life. Bharti AXA Life Insurance Company Ltd (Bharti AXA Life), a private life
insurance provider with a nationwide presence of 212 branches.
• In March 2024, BLVPL acquired AXA’s 49 per cent stake in Bharti AXA Life Insurance, thereby gaining full ownership of the company. BLVPL is equally
owned by Bharti Enterprises Holdings Pvt Ltd and Bharti Overseas Private Limited, entities fully controlled by the Mittal family.
• 360 ONE, Bharti Life Ventures seek CCI nod for stake acquisition in Bharti AXA Life Insurance - The Hindu BusinessLine

107. In March as per report ___________ announced its membership in the AI-RAN Alliance, global initiative that works on the development and deployment
of AI-driven solutions within Radio Access Networks (RAN) to better connect devices to the internet.
A. Tata Consultancy Services
B. HCL Technologies
C. Wipro
D. Tech Mahindra
E. Infosys

• Tech Mahindra, global provider of technology consulting and digital solutions, announced its membership in the AI-RAN Alliance.
• This global initiative works on the development and deployment of AI-driven solutions within Radio Access Networks (RAN) to better connect devices to
the internet.
• Tech Mahindra will leverage its expertise in network architecture, AI, Open RAN and 5G technologies to support the alliance’s mission of driving
innovation and efficiency of next-generation networks.

• Alliance members will focus on building ‘AI or RAN’ where AI will be used to improve spectral efficiency, integrating AI and RAN processes to utilise
infrastructure effectively and generate AI-driven revenue opportunities.
• Tech Mahindra joins the AI-RAN Alliance - The Hindu BusinessLine

108. In March as per report __________has signed a memorandum of understanding with the Confederation of Indian Industry - Indian Green Building Council,
to provide accessible and affordable financing solutions for developers and home buyers.
A. Indian Overseas Bank
B. Bank Of Baroda
C. Punjab National Bank
D. State Bank Of India
E. Canara Bank

• Public sector Indian Overseas Bank has signed a memorandum of understanding with the Confederation of Indian Industry - Indian Green Building
Council, to provide accessible and affordable financing solutions for developers and home buyers.
• As per the collaboration, Indian Overseas Bank would offer preferential financing options to developers engaged in construction of IGBC-rated green
buildings.
• The bank would also provide tailored financial support to home buyers purchasing residential units in the IGBC - certified projects.
• KS Venkatagiri, Executive Director, CII Indian Green Building Council (IGBC)..
• Indian Overseas Bank & CII IGBC Partner for Green Building Finance: Rediff Moneynews

109. In March as per report ___________ bank has announced the appointment of acclaimed actress, Vidya Balan, as its first-ever brand ambassador.
A. Indian Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. Canara Bank
D. ICICI Bank
E. Federal Bank

• Federal Bank, one of India's leading private sector banks with an impressive legacy over the years, announced the appointment of acclaimed actress,
Vidya Balan, as its first-ever brand ambassador.
• The announcement was made during a special ceremony in Mumbai, where Ms. Balan was presented with a commemorative memento by Mr. K.V.S.
Manian, Managing Director & CEO of Federal Bank.
• Federal Bank is one of India’s leading private sector banks, known for its strong digital banking capabilities and customer-centric approach.
• Federal Bank has Representative Offices in Dubai and Abu Dhabi that serve as a nerve center for Non-Resident Indian customers in the UAE. The Bank
also has an IFSC Banking Unit (IBU) in Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City).
• Headquarters: Aluva, Kerala, India.
• Federal Bank appoints Vidya Balan as brand ambassador - The Hindu

110. In March as per report Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) signed MoU with __________ for financing MSMEs for growth and
development of MSME Ecosystem.
A. Federal Bank
B. Indian Bank
C. Canara Bank
D. Bandhan Bank
E. Axis Bank

• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) and The Federal Bank Limited (FBL) have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to enhance
financial support for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
• The partnership aims to provide funding solutions for project finance, machinery and equipment purchases, working capital needs, and loans against
property.

• SIDBI, established in 1990, serves as the principal financial institution for MSME promotion and development in India. It provides direct and indirect
lending, supports emerging startups through its Fund of Funds initiative, and acts as a nodal agency for MSME-oriented government schemes.
• SIDBI Established: April 2, 1990. Headquarters: Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India. Chairman & Managing Director (CMD): Sivasubramanian Ramann.
• SIDBI and Federal Bank Join Hands to Boost MSME Financing | Entrepreneur

111. In March as per report ___________ announced the launch of its Goods and Services Tax (GST) payment facility, strengthening its digital banking offers.
A. Indian Bank
B. Bandhan Bank
C. Yes Bank
D. Canara Bank
E. Axis Bank

• Yes Bank announced the launch of its Goods and Services Tax (GST) payment facility, strengthening its digital banking offers.
• The facility enables corporates and sole proprietor businesses to meet their tax obligations securely in lesser time using the bank's Retail and Corporate
Internet Banking platforms, as well as any of its extensive branch network.
• Taxpayers, through this integration, can now generate GST challans on the official GST portal (www.gst.gov.in) and pay GST by either selecting Yes Bank
NetBanking.
• Prashant Kumar, Managing Director & CEO, Yes Bank.
• Yes Bank goes live with GST payment facility, BFSI News, ET BFSI

112. In March as per report _________ has launched its Digital Balance Confirmation Certificate through the PSB Alliance Pvt. Ltd portal to eliminate manual
processes.
A. Canara Bank
B. Indian Bank
C. Bandhan Bank
D. Axis Bank
E. ICICI Bank

• In a move to eliminate manual processes, Canara Bank has launched its Digital Balance Confirmation Certificate through the PSB Alliance Pvt. Ltd portal.
• This initiative reduces the time required for auditors to complete the auditing process by replacing the traditional manual approach with a seamless
digital solution, according to the comapany.
• Previously, auditors had to approach banks individually with authority letters to obtain Balance Confirmation Certificates, a time-consuming process.
• Canara bank launches Digital Balance Confirmation Certificate to eliminate manual processes - The Hindu BusinessLine

113. In March as per report __________ has announced a multi-year alliance with Xiaomi India to pre-install its mobile app marketplace on devices sold in the
country.
A. Meta
B. Amazon
C. Google
D. Samsung
E. Indus

• Walmart-owned Indus Appstore has announced a multi-year alliance with Xiaomi India to pre-install its mobile app marketplace
on devices sold in the country.
• Xiaomi smartphones in India will also replace its app marketplace GetApps with Indus Appstore on existing devices.
• This comes at a time when PhonePe is looking to list in the Indian markets. The Indus Appstore is looking to challenge Google Play
Store and this strategic partnership with Xiaomi is a push to drive adoption.
• PhonePe launched Indus Appstore in February 2024 with zero per cent fee on in-app purchases.
• The app marketplace also allows developers to list their apps in 12 Indian languages apart from English as well as upload media
and videos to their app listings in these languages.

• In November, the company rolled out a new version of its app marketplace, featuring richer visuals and user interface tweaks. Indus Appstore offers over
5 lakh mobile apps and games across 45 categories.
• Indus Appstore partners with Xiaomi India to pre-install app marketplace on devices, challenging Google Play Store. - The Hindu BusinessLine

114. Recently as per report Patanjali Ayurved Ltd,, along with Dharampal Satyapal Group, has fortyed a significant move into the insurance sector by acquiring
_________for approximately ₹4,500 crore.
A. Future Generali India Insurance
B. Raheja QBE General Insurance
C. Magma General Insurance Ltd
D. Reliance General Insurance
E. Sahara India General Insurance

• Baba Ramdev-owned Patanjali Ayurved and Dharampal Satyapal Group (DS Group) have bought a
majority stake in Magma General Insurance, backed by Adar Poonawalla-owned Sanoti Properties,
valuing the company at ₹4,500 crore.
• The deal marks Patanjali's entry into the general insurance market and its diversification into financial
services beyond ayurvedic and consumer goods.
• Following the transaction, Patanjali will become the promoter for Magma General Insurance, with a 98%
stake, giving exit to Magma.
• Recently, Magma General Insurance partnered with Hyundai India Insurance Broking to provide Magma’s
motor insurance products across the latter’s dealer network in India.
• Patanjali Ayurved enters insurance with ₹4,500 cr Magma General acquisition - The Hindu BusinessLine

115. In March as per report ____________ has signed a power purchase agreement with West Bengal State Electricity Distribution Company (WBSEDCL) for a
greenfield 1,600 MW super/ultra super critical thermal power plant.
A. Azure Power
B. AdanI Power
C. Tata Power
D. Reliance Power
E. JSW Energy

• JSW Energy signed a power purchase agreement with the state electricity company of West Bengal for a new 1,600 MW (2x800
MW) super/ultra super critical thermal power plant.
• This is the largest greenfield capacity and power purchase agreement signed by JSW Energy.
• The greenfield thermal power project, to be constructed at Salboni, is scheduled for commissioning in five years. Power purchase
agreement for the entire 1,600 MW capacity has been signed with the state for 25 years.
• The plant will utilise domestic linkage coal allocated to West Bengal. The company has commissioned Unit-2 of the Utkal thermal
power plant.
• JSW signs 1600-MW pact with West Bengal - Industry News | The Financial Express

116. In March as per report __________ has achieved a significant milestone by becoming the first two-wheeler automotive electric
vehicle (EV) manufacturer in India to receive incentives under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Automotive and
Auto Component (PLI-Auto Scheme).
A. TVS Motor Company
B. Ola Electric
C. Maruti Suzuki
D. Ather Energy
E. Hero Electric

• Ola Electric, India's largest electric vehicle company, has achieved a significant milestone by becoming the first two-wheeler
automotive electric vehicle (EV) manufacturer in India to receive incentives under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for
Automotive and Auto Component (PLI-Auto Scheme).
• The company has been granted a total incentive of Rs 73.74 crore for the Determined Sales Value of FY 2023-24 under the scheme.
• The PLI-Auto Scheme, launched by the Government of India, aims to boost domestic manufacturing in the automotive sector and
promote the adoption of advanced, clean, and sustainable mobility solutions.
• Launched in September 2021, the PLI-Auto Scheme aims to boost domestic manufacturing in the automotive sector and promote the
adoption of advanced, clean, and sustainable mobility solutions.
• With a budget outlay of Rs 25,938 crore over five years, the scheme is targeted towards reducing dependency on imports and
positioning the country as a key player in the global EV supply chain.
• Ola Electric becomes first 2W EV manufacturer to bag PLI incentives - The Economic Times

117. In March as per report __________ has achieved a remarkable double victory at the SKOCH Awards 2025, securing two prestigious
Gold Awards for its excellence in digital financial inclusion and insurance solutions.
A. ICICI Lombard
B. HDFC Bank
C. Muthoot Microfin
D. Aditya Birla Capital
E. Bajaj Finance

• Muthoot Microfin, a leading microfinance institution committed to empowering women entrepreneurs, has achieved a remarkable
double victory at the SKOCH Awards 2025, securing two prestigious Gold Awards. The accolades were presented to Sadaf Sayeed,
CEO of Muthoot Microfin, by Sameer Kochhar, Chairman of SKOCH Group.
• The company was recognized for its excellence in digital financial inclusion and insurance solutions, winning:
• Corporate Excellence - "Best Customer Application on Digital Financial Inclusion" for its groundbreaking Mahila Mitra initiative.
• BFSI Award - "Best Insurance Scheme" for its Griha Raksha Insurance Scheme, which has provided coverage to 2.66 million
beneficiaries, reinforcing Muthoot Microfin's commitment to financial security and social empowerment.
• Sadaf Sayeed, CEO, Muthoot Microfin
• Double Gold! Muthoot Microfin Shines at SKOCH Awards 2025

118. In March as per report HDFC Mutual Fund has increased its stake in ____________ above 5 per cent as the fund house purchased an
additional 1.592 million shares from the market.
A. Indian Bank
B. Bandhan Bank
C. Canara Bank
D. Axis Bank
E. IndusInd Bank

• IndusInd Bank said that the holding of HDFC Mutual Fund in the bank has crossed 5 per cent as the fund house purchased an add itional 15.92 lakh shares
from the market.
• The stake increase comes a day after IndusInd Bank announced a whopping Rs 2,100 crore discrepancy in accounting with an estimated impact of 2.35 per
cent of the bank's net worth.
• The aggregate holding of HDFC Mutual Fund Scheme in IndusInd Bank as of the close of business hours on March 11, 2025, was 5.02 per cent of the paid
up equity capital of the company.
• Prior to the stake purchase, HDFC Mutual Fund's holding was 4.82 per cent but with an additional share purchase, the holding rose to 5.02 per cent.
• HDFC MF holding in IndusInd Bank crosses 5% with additional 1.6 mn shares | Company News - Business Standard

119. According to a report by global consultancy Bain & Company India’s venture capital (VC) ecosystem witnessed a strong resurgence in 2024, with total
funding reaching __________ billion—a 43% increase compared to the previous year.
A. $18.7 billion
B. $22.6 billion

C. $13.7 billion
D. $14.3 billion
E. $26.3 billion

• According to a report by global consultancy Bain & Company, India’s venture

capital (VC) ecosystem witnessed a strong resurgence in 2024, with total funding
reaching $13.7 billion—a 43% increase compared to the previous year.
• The report highlights a sharp rise in deal activity, with 1,270 transactions
recorded, marking a 45% increase in deal volumes.
• According to the report, tech-first sectors including consumer technology,
software and SaaS (software-as-a-service), and fintech, continued to lead,
securing over 60 per cent of the total funding.
• The sharp growth was driven by significant investments in quick commerce,
edtech, and B2C commerce, with companies such as Zepto ($1.4 billion funding in
2024), Meesho ($275 million), and Lenskart ($200 million) securing major funding
rounds.
• India’s venture capital funding surges 43% to $13.7 billion in 2024

120. Recently as per report Bharti Airtel has transferred its entire __________ per cent stake in Airtel Payments Bank to wholly-owned subsidiary Airtel Limited.
A. 71.45%
B. 54.62%
C. 69.94%
D. 77.85%
E. 81.23%

• Telecom major Bharti Airtel announced that it has transferred 69.94 per cent shareholding in Airtel Payments Bank to its wholly
owned subsidiary, Airtel Limited as part of an internal re-organisation of shareholding.
• The telecom company said that the move is part of an internal re-organization of shareholding and has no impact on the ownership
of the Bank.
• Airtel Payments Bank, India's first payments bank, launched in January 2017, aims to provide accessible and inclusive banking
services, offering a range of financial services through its network of banking points.
• CEO: Anubrata Biswas .
• Bharti Airtel transfers 69.94% stake in Airtel Payments bank to Airtel Ltd | Company News - Business Standard

121. In March as per report ___________ has signed an agreement with Elon Musk’s SpaceX that might help expedite the entry of
Starlink’s satellite-based internet services in India.
A. BSNL
B. Vodafone Idea
C. OneWeb India
D. Bharti Airtel
E. Tata Sky

• Bharti Airtel has signed an agreement with billionaire Elon Musk’s satellite company
SpaceX to bring Starlink’s satellite internet services to people in India.
• This is the first such agreement to be signed in India, although it is subject to SpaceX
receiving its own authorisations to sell Starlink in India.
• SpaceX has applied for a security clearance with the Indian government, but it is
understood that its application is undergoing review at the Home Ministry.
• As part of the agreement, Airtel and SpaceX will explore offering Starlink equipment in Airtel’s retail stores, Starlink services via Airtel to business
customers, opportunities to connect communities, schools, and health centers, among many others, in some of the most rural parts of India.
• Elon Musk's Starlink internet gets closer to India launch as Airtel, SpaceX sign landmark agreement: Details - Technology News | The Financial Express

122. In March as per report Foxconn has launched its first large language model named ________ and plans to use the technology to improve manufacturing
and supply chain management.
A. AlphaFox
B. FoxGenie
C. FoxBrain
D. FoxLingua
E. FoxChat

• Taiwan’s Foxconn has launched its first large language model and plans to use the technology to improve manufacturing and
supply chain management.
• The model, named “FoxBrain,” was trained using 120 of Nvidia’s H100 GPUs and completed in about four weeks.
• The company, which assembles iPhones for Apple and also produces Nvidia’s artificial intelligence servers, said the model is
based on Meta’s Llama 3.1 architecture.
• It is Taiwan’s first large language model with reasoning capabilities that is optimised for traditional Chinese and Taiwanese
language styles.
• Nvidia provided support through its Taiwan-based supercomputer “Taipei-1” and offered technical consulting during the
model’s training.
• Taipei-1, the largest supercomputer in Taiwan, is owned and operated by Nvidia in Kaohsiung, a southern city on the island.
• Foxconn unveils its first large language model named ‘FoxBrain’ | Technology News - The Indian Express

123. In March as per report Singapore's state-owned investment firm Temasek has signed a deal to acquire approximately __________% of Haldiram Snacks
Foods Private Limited (HSFPL) for over `8,000 crore (around $1 bn).
A. 15%
B. 10%
C. 26%
D. 12%
E. 18%

• Singapore’s state-owned investment firm Temasek

has signed a deal to acquire approximately 10% of
Haldiram Snacks Foods Private Limited (HSFPL) for
over `8,000 crore (around $1 bn).
• The transaction, one of the largest in India’s
consumer sector in recent years, values the iconic
Indian snacks company at over $9 billion.
• Haldiram brand is operated by three separate
entities based in Delhi, Nagpur, and Kolkata, the
Delhi and Nagpur families merged their FMCG
operations to create HSFPL.
• The company holds a dominant position in India’s savory snacks market, commanding nearly 13% of the $6.2 billion industry.
• Haldiram’s promoters have been considering an initial public offering (IPO) within the next year, aiming to capitalise on India’s buoyant stock market.
• Under the restructuring, existing shareholders of Haldiram Snacks and Haldiram Foods International now hold 56 per cent and 44 per cent of the merged
company, respectively.
• Temasek acquires 10% stake in Haldiram's snacks business for $1 billion | Company News - Business Standard

124. Recently as per report during the 'Utkarsh Odisha-Make in Odisha Conclave,' the JSW Group, signed an MoU with the Odisha government to establish a 5
million tonnes per annum (MTPA) steel plant in __________.
A. Jagatsinghpur
B. Mayurbhanj
C. Sundergarh
D. Jajpur
E. Keonjhar

• Sajjan Jindal-led JSW Group signed an MoU with the Odisha government to set up a 5-million tonnes per annum steel plant in Keonjhar district.
• The agreement was signed in presence of Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi and Sajjan Jindal here on the first day of 'Utkarsh Odisha-Make in Odisha
Conclave'.
• The JSW (Group) will set up a 5-MTPA steel plant in Keonjhar district at an investment of around Rs 35,000 crore.
• Keonjhar district is located in the iron ore reserves belt, and the minerals were being exported to other areas from the district.
• Vineet Mittal, Chairman of Avaada Group, said it will invest Rs 20,000 crore in setting up a green ammonia project with 5-lakh tonnes capacity at
Gopalpur in Ganjam district.
• JSW Group signs MoU with Odisha govt to set up 5-MTPA steel plant in Keonjhar - The Economic Times

125. In March as per report Forbes has recently released the list of the highest paid celebrities in the world. As per report __________ became the highest paid
actor for the fifth time in a row.
A. Hugh Jackman
B. Brad Pitt
C. Ryan Reynolds
D. Kevin Hart
E. Dwayne Johnson

• Forbes has recently released the list of the highest paid celebrities in the world. Dwayne Johnson became the highest paid actor for the fifth time in a row.
• Hollywood star Dwayne Johnson aka The Rock has grabbed the top spot of highest paid actors of 2024. Dwayne became the highest -paid actor in the
world in 2024 with $88 million net earnings even though his ambitious holiday film, Red One, failed.
• Ryan Reynolds [$85 million ($100 million gross)]: Deadpool & Wolverine actor Ryan Reynolds came second in the list of highest-paid actors of 2024.
• Kevin Hart [$81 million ($108 million gross)]: Kevin Hart did multiple projects which made his huge 2024 earnings.
• Jerry Seinfeld [$60 million ($70 million gross)]: The 70-year-old Jerry Seinfeld was named a billionaire by Forbes last year. He got the fourth rank on the
list of highest-paid actors of 2024.
• Hugh Jackman [$50 million ($66 million gross)]: For Hugh Jackman, Deadpool & Wolverine ended up being the most lucrative movie of his career.
• Brad Pitt [$32 million ($42 million gross)]: The actor got the sixth rank on the list.
• Nicole Kidman [$31 million ($41 million gross)] : The 57-year-old Nicole Kidman is the highest-paid woman actor of 2024, ranked 8th overall.
• Top 10 highest paid actors in the world: Dwayne Johnson tops the list, Ryan Reynolds and Kevin Hart follow | Entertainment Gallery News - The Indian
Express

Appointment News

126. In March as per report government approved the appointment of Justice Joymalya Bagchi as a judge of the Supreme Court, where he is set to have a long
tenure of well over six years and will be in line to be the Chief Justice of India in __________.
A. September 2028
B. May 2031
C. July 2034
D. March 2029
E. August 2030

• The central government cleared the elevation of Justice Joymalya Bagchi of the
Calcutta High Court to the Supreme Court.
• The Supreme Court Collegium had on March 6 recommended the elevation of Justice
Bagchi to the apex court.

• Justice Bagchi will be the first CJI from the Calcutta HC after late CJI Altamas Kabir
who retired from office in 2013.
• He will become the Chief Justice of India in May 2031 upon retirement of Justice KV Viswanathan for a relatively short duration since he will demit office
in October 2031.
• With Justice Bagchi’s appointment, there will be 33 sitting judges out of the Supreme Court’s total sanctioned strength of 34.
• Centre appoints Calcutta High Court’s Justice Joymalya Bagchi to Supreme Court | India News - The Indian Express

127. Recently as per report Mark Carney, the newly elected leader of the Liberal Party, will take the oath as Canada’s ____________ Prime Minister along with
his cabinet.
A. 27th
B. 30th
C. 29th
D. 20th
E. 24th

• Mark Carney, who was recently elected as the leader of the Liberal Party, will take oath as Canada's 24th Prime
Minister along with his cabinet.
• He will be taking the reins from Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau after securing a win in the Liberal leadership.
• Carney, a former governor of the Bank of Canada and Bank of England, has reportedly placed all his assets into a blind
trust to avoid conflicts of interest.
• Canada's capital is Ottawa, Currency, Canadian dollar.
• Mark Carney to be sworn in as Canada’s 24th Prime Minister on March 14 - World News | The Financial Express

128. In March as per report Union government has assigned benches to 21 of the 24-newly appointed judicial and technical
members of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
There are in total ________ NCLT benches in India, with a sanctioned strength of 63 members (both judicial and
technical combined).
A. 24
B. 22
C. 16
D. 18
E. 20

• The Union government has assigned benches to 21 of the 24-newly appointed judicial
and technical members of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
• The Centre in January had appointed 24 new members to 11 NCLT Benches across the
country to fill the vacant positions.
• There are in total 16 NCLT benches in India, with a sanctioned strength of 63 members
(both judicial and technical combined).
• According to the official notification, issued by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)
the 21 new members are requested to join their respective benches “at the earliest”.
• National Company Law Tribunal is a quasi-judicial authority incorporated for dealing
with corporate disputes that are of civil nature arising under the Companies Act,2013.
• Composition: It shall consist of a President and such number of Judicial and Technical
Members as may be required.
• 21 new NCLT members get to work after SC rap over delays - Industry News | The Financial
Express

129. In March as per report Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) has officially announced that Atul
Kumar Goel has assumed charge as its new Chief Executive (CE).
As per report Atul Kumar Goel was MD and CEO of _________.
A. ICICI Bank
B. Punjab National Bank
C. State Bank Of India
D. Bank Of Baroda
E. Bank Of India

• The Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) said Atul Kumar Goel has assumed charge as Chief Executive (CE) of the Association.

• Goel was MD and CEO of Punjab National Bank (PNB) from February 2022 to December 2024. He was Chairman of IBA for two
terms – 2021-22 and 2022-23.
• He has three decades of banking experience in four Banks -- Allahabad Bank (now Indian Bank), Union Bank of India (as
Executive Director), UCO Bank (MD & CEO) and PNB (MD & CEO).
• Goel succeeds Sunil Mehta, who served as IBA’s Chief Executive from January 2020 to September 2024.
• Goel assumes charge as Chief Executive of IBA - The Hindu BusinessLine
•

130. In March as per report ___________ have approved the re-appointment of Deena Mehta as an Additional Director in the capacity
of Independent Director.
A. India Post Payments Bank
B. Jio Payments Bank
C. Paytm Payments Bank
D. Airtel Payments Bank
E. Fino Payments Bank

• Fino Payments Bank’s (FPB) Board of Directors have approved the re-appointment of Deena Mehta as an Additional Director in the capacity of
Independent Director.
• Her re-appointment as an Independent Director of the Bank for the second term is with effect from March 19, 2025 up to March 18, 2028.
• Fino Payments Bank was founded in 2017 as a payments bank, with the objective of providing financial inclusion and digital banking services to the
underserved and unbanked segments of the population.
• Deena Mehta re-appointed as Independent Director of Fino Payments Bank - The Hindu BusinessLine

Days and Obituary News

131. World Consumer Rights Day, observed annually on __________serves as an essential reminder of the need to uphold consumer rights and protection.
A. 15th March
B. 11th March
C. 14th March
D. 16th March
E. 12th March

• World Consumer Rights Day, observed annually on March 15, serves as an essential reminder of the need to uphold consumer rights and protection. The
day is an opportunity to promote the basic rights of all consumers and encourage those rights to be respected and protected.
• World Consumer Rights Day was first observed in 1983. This date was chosen to commemorate President John F. Kennedy's address to the US Congress on
March 15, 1962, where he became the first world leader to formally recognize consumer rights.
• The theme for World Consumer Rights Day 2025 is, ‘A Just Transition to Sustainable Lifestyles.’
• The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides for a three tier quasi-judicial machinery at District, State and Central levels commonly known as “Consumer
Commissions” for protection of the rights of consumers and to provide simple and speedy redressal of consumer disputes including those related with
unfair trade practices.
• The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) issued the “Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023” on 30th November, 2023.
These guidelines address and regulate 13 specific dark patterns identified in the ecommerce sector, aiming to prevent deceptive practices that mislead
consumers.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

132. In March as per report Fred Stolle a popular Hall of Fame Australian tennis player passed away. How many Grand Slam titles did Fred Stolle won?
A. 14
B. 18
C. 12
D. 19
E. 21

• Fred Stolle, a popular Hall of Fame Australian tennis player who won 19 Grand Slam titles, including two singles championships, during
a golden age in the sport for his countrymen internationally, died on March 5 at his home in Palm Desert, Calif.
• Stolle was on the strong Australian squad that won the Davis Cup, the international men’s team event, from 1964 to 1966.
• Stolle won his first singles title at the 1965 French Championships (now the French Open).
• A year later, Stolle defeated Newcombe to win the United States National Championships (now the U.S. Open), in Forest Hills, Queens.
• He won 10 men's doubles titles at Grand Slams from 1962-69. He also won seven mixed doubles at the majors.
• Australian tennis legend Fred Stolle passes away at the age of 86 | Other Sports News - Business Standard

133. In March as per report Oscar-winning actor Gene Hackman passed away. He won the Oscar for the best actor in which of the following
year?
A. 1996
B. 1971
C. 1998
D. 2001
E. 1983

• Gene Hackman, the esteemed American actor, passed away on February

26, 2025, at the age of 95. He was discovered alongside his wife, Betsy
Arakawa, in their Santa Fe, New Mexico home.
• In 1971, Hackman won the Academy Award for Best Actor for his portrayal
of Detective Jimmy "Popeye" Doyle in the crime thriller The French
Connection. This role is widely regarded as one of his most iconic
performances.
• He also won the Best Supporting Actor for his role as a villainous Sheriff in
Clint Eastwood's Western film Unforgiven (1992).
• gene hackman: Gene Hackman death: A look at the two-time Oscar winner's
family life and kids - The Economic Times

134. Who was the 10th World Chess Champion who passed away, known for
facing American chess prodigy Bobby Fischer in the historic “Match of the
Century” held in Reykjavik, Iceland?
A. Tigran Petrosian
B. Anatoly Karpov
C. Vasily Smyslov
D. Mikhail Botvinnik
E. Boris Spassky

• Boris Spassky, the Soviet chess grandmaster who became a Cold War icon after his famous defeat to
Bobby Fischer in the 1972 "Match of the Century," has died in Moscow at the age of 88.
• In 1969, he won the World Chess Championship, breaking through the ranks of Soviet chess supremacy,
which had remained unchallenged since 1948.
• His historic 1972 defeat to Bobby Fischer in the "Match of the Century" turned him into a Cold War icon,
symbolizing the intense rivalry between the Soviet Union and the United States.
• The 1972 World Chess Championship in Reykjavik, Iceland, was more than a game—it was a political spectacle. At the height of the Cold War, it became a
symbolic battleground between the Soviet Union and the United States.
• Boris Spassky, former World Chess Champion and Bobby Fischer’s famous rival, passes away at 88 - The Economic Times

Sports Award Books News

135. Consider the following statement regarding ninth edition ICC Champions Trophy 2025. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. India won ICC Champions Trophy 2025 by defeating New Zealand by four wickets in the final held at Dubai International Cricket Stadium.
2. The tournament was hosted primarily by Pakistan with India's matches played at a neutral venue (Dubai) due to security concerns.
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3. It is India third ICC Champions Trophy.

4. Virat Kohli was adjudged the Player of the Tournament of the ICC Champions Trophy 2025.
5. All of the above are correct

• India ended a 12-year wait to clinch a record-extending third Champions Trophy title,
beating New Zealand by 4 wickets in the Champions Trophy 2025 final at the Dubai
International Cricket Stadium.
• India has won ICC champions Trophy 3 times, in 2002 (co-winner- Sri Lanka), 2013
and 2025.
• The tournament was hosted primarily by Pakistan with India's matches played at a
neutral venue (Dubai) due to security concerns.
• The ICC Champions Trophy is a premier One Day International (ODI) cricket
tournament featuring the world's top eight teams.
• The tournament was originally called the ICC Knockout when it began in 1998 in
Dhaka (Bangladesh). It was renamed the ICC Champions Trophy in 2002.
• It was held every two years until 2009. After that, the event transitioned to a four-
year cycle.
• Previously the top-eight ranked ODI sides would feature in the Champions Trophy.
But for the 2025 edition, the qualification used the results of the 2023 edition of the
ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup.
• The eight teams at this year’s Champions Trophy competed for $2.24 million. The
runners-up received $1.12 million, while each losing semi-finalist took home
$560,000.
• Rachin Ravindra (New Zealand) was adjudged the Player of the Tournament of the ICC Champions Trophy 2025.
• Ravindra scored 263 runs in four innings at an average 68.75 and a strike rate of over 106. His highest score of 112 came against Bangladesh.
Champions Trophy: Spinners Rohit and Rahul carry unbeaten India to third title win Champions Trophy 2025: Rachin Ravindra wins Player of the Tournament
award - Sportstar

136. Recently as per report _________ won their third Ranji Trophy title by defeating Kerala in the final in Nagpur.
A. Karnataka
B. Saurashtra
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Vidarbha
E. Mumbai

• Vidarbha won the third Ranji Trophy title by defeating Kerala. Vidarbha claimed their third
Ranji Trophy title by defeating Kerala in the final in Nagpur.
• Kerala secured their first-ever Ranji Trophy final berth after 74 years.
• It is for the third time that Vidarbha have won the Ranji Trophy title, having done so earlier
with their two consecutive wins in the 2017-18 and 2018-19 seasons.
• Vidarbha's win now also makes them one of the strongest outfits in the Indian domestic
cricket, for they had also finished as the runner-up in the Ranji Trophy last season.
• The Ranji Trophy was first introduced in 1934, with the idea of creating a competitive domestic
tournament to promote and develop cricket at the regional level.
• It is named after Maharaja Ranjitsinhji, who was a famous cricketer and the ruler of the
princely state of Nawanagar (now part of Gujarat).
• The Ranji Trophy currently features a total of 38 teams, including teams from all 28 Indian
states and four union territories, with 32 in the Elite Division and 6 in the Plate league.
• Vidarbha clinch third Ranji Trophy title, beat Kerala on 1st-innings lead | Cricket News - Business
Standard

137. In March as per report Pranav Venkatesh became the ___________ Indian to win the World Junior Chess Championship at 2025 World Junior Chess
Championship held at Petrovac, Montenegro.
A. 5th
B. 8th
C. 7th
D. 9th
E. 15th

• Grandmaster (GM) Pranav Venkatesh became the 7th Indian to win the
World Junior Chess Championship.
• GM Pranav Venkatesh won the 2025 World Junior Chess Championship after
his last match against FIDE Master Matic Lavrencic of Slovenia ended in a
draw. He topped the points table with 9 points and won the 2025 World
Junior Chess Championship title.
• The 2025 World Junior Chess Championship was organised by the international chess governing body FIDE at Petrovac, Montenegro, from 26 February to
7 March 2025.
• Chess players aged below 20 years participate in the World Junior Chess Championship.
• Pranav, who achieved his GM status in August 2022, is the 75th Chess Grandmaster of India. He is also the seventh Indian to win the World Junior Chess
Championship.
• The first Indian to win the title was the legendary Vishwanathan Anand in 2017.
• Pentala Harikrishan was the second Indian to win the title in 2004, followed by Abhijeet Gupta in 2008, Koneru Humpy in 2001, Harika Dronavalli in 2008,
and Divya Deshmukh in 2024.
• Another world champion from India: Pranav Venkatesh becomes World Junior Chess Champion

138. In March as per report Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF) has changed its name to ___________under the ‘More in Common’ brand campaign to
transform from a governing body to a broader sports movement.
A. Commonwealth Games Association
B. Commonwealth Sport Federation
C. Commonwealth Sport
D. Commonwealth Games Forum
E. Commonwealth Games Organization

• The Commonwealth Games Federation has announced its rebranding to Commonwealth Sport on Commonwealth Day, March 10. The chang e will
officially take effect from Commonwealth Day 2025.
• The organisation aims to transform from a governing body to a broader sports movement through this rebranding initiative.
• The legal entity will continue to retain the name 'Commonwealth Games Federation'.
• Commonwealth Sport CEO Katie Sadleir.
• Meanwhile, King Charles, the Patron of Commonwealth Sport, will officially launch the inaugural Commonwealth Sport King's Baton Relay for the
Glasgow 2026 Commonwealth Games at Buckingham Palace on Commonwealth Day.
• The Baton Relay will be the longest-ever relay for a Commonwealth Games, with the Commonwealth Games Associations in the 74 nations and territories
each having up to six days to organise their series of activities.
• CWG Federation rebranded as Commonwealth Sport

139. Consider the following statement regarding Sahitya Akademi Awards. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Hindi poet Gagan Gill won the Sahitya Akademi Awards in hindi language for her book on poetry Main Jab Tak Aai Bahar.
2. English writer Easterine Kire won the Sahitya Akademi Awards in english language for her novel Spirit Nights.
3. The authors and poets will receive a plaque, a shawl and an amount of ₹5 lakh in an award ceremony on March 8, 2025.
4. Along with the 22 languages enumerated in the Constitution of India, the Sahitya Akademi has recognised English and Rajasthani as languages in which
its programme may be implemented.
5. All of the above are correct

• Hindi poet Gagan Gill and English writer Easterine Kire are among the 21 recipients of the annual Sahitya Akademi Awards.

• Ms. Gill was selected for her book on poetry Main Jab Tak Aai Bahar, Ms. Kire made it to the coveted list for
her novel Spirit Nights.
• The awards relate to books first published during the five years immediately preceding the year of the
award, i.e. between January 1, 2018 and December, 31 2022.
• The authors and poets will receive a plaque, a shawl and an amount of ₹1 lakh in an award ceremony on
March 8, 2025
• Along with the 22 languages enumerated in the Constitution of India, the Sahitya Akademi has recognised
English and Rajasthani as languages in which its programme may be implemented.
• Sahitya Akademi was established in March 1954 by the government of India.
• Gagan Gill, Easterine Kire among 23 who receive Sahitya Akademi Award - The Hindu

140. In March as per report FIFA banned __________ from the 2026 World Cup for different reasons.
1. Congo
2. Mexico
3. Pakistan
4. Canada
5. Russia

Select the correct source code:

A. Only 2,4 and 5
B. Only 4 and 5
C. Only 1,3 and 5
D. Only 2 and 5
E. All of the above

• The 2026 FIFA World Cup, set to be hosted by the United States, Canada, and Mexico, will not feature three nations—Russia, Pakistan, and Congo—due to
separate controversies.
• The tournament will feature 48 teams.
• Pakistan’s suspension stems from administrative failures, Russia remains banned due to geopolitical sanctions and Congo is excluded for third-party
interference in its football federation.
• Since 1950, FIFA has banned 17 countries for violating its official regulations.
• With Pakistan Football Federation (PFF) failed to adopt a revised constitution aimed at ensuring fair and
democratic elections, it was suspended by FIFA.
• Ever since Russia invaded Ukraine in February 2022, Russian Football Union (RFU) has been banned from
FIFA and UEFA competitions. Following this decision, neither the men’s nor women’s teams can compete
in the World Cup or European Championships.
• Congo’s suspension has been imposed due to involvement of undue third-party interference in the affairs
of the Congolese Football Association (FECOFOOT).
• FIFA bans Pakistan, Russia, Congo from 2026 World Cup – Here’s why | Mint

141. In March as per report Union Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports has officially lifted the suspension on the
__________ , reinstating its status as a National Sports Federation (NSF).
A. Football Federation of India
B. Boxing Federation of India
C. Hockey Federation of India
D. Badminton Federation of India
E. Wrestling Federation of India

• THE UNION government revoked the ban imposed on the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) imposed in
December 2023 and restored on it the status of a National Sports Federation.
• The suspension was put in the aftermath of the sexual harassment charges levelled at former WFI
president Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh.

• The Indian Olympic Association had put in place an ad-hoc committee to conduct the affairs of the federation, and barred the office-bearers.
• This move came amidst ongoing protests by several renowned wrestlers, including Vinesh Phogat, Sakshi Malik, and Bajrang Punia.
• The Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) is the governing body for wrestling in India. It is responsible for promoting and developing the sport of wrestling
in the country.
• The WFI was founded in 1967, and it is affiliated with the United World Wrestling (UWW), which is the international governing body for wrestling.
• Ban lifted on Wrestling Federation of India, restoring its recognition as NSF for sports

142. Recently as per report LeBron James has become the first player in NBA history to score ___________ combined points in the regular season and
postseason.
A. 40,000
B. 30,000
C. 50,000
D. 20,000
E. 10,000

• LeBron James has once again etched his name in the history books, becoming the first player in NBA history to surpass
50,000 combined points across the regular season and playoffs.
• LeBron James reached the 50,000-point mark in the opening minutes of the Los Angeles Lakers’ matchup against the New
Orleans Pelicans.
• This achievement comes just a year after he became the all-time leading scorer in regular-season history, surpassing Kareem Abdul-Jabbar’s long-
standing record of 38,387 points.
• The gap between James and the rest of the league is staggering. Among active players, Kevin Durant is the closest to James with 35,191 total points—
still more than 15,000 behind.
• He was recently named the Western Conference Player of the Month for February, becoming the oldest player to ever win the award at 40 years old.
• LeBron James becomes first NBA player ever to surpass 50,000 career points | NBA News - The Times of India

143. Who is the author of the book titled NALANDA: How it Changed the World?
A. Saloni Mishra
B. Abhay K
C. Priti Pal
D. Ajay Gupta
E. Rajeev Shukla

• Bihar's Deputy Chief Minister Samrat Chaudhary launched 'Nalanda: How it Changed the World' at the fifth edition of the Grand Trunk Road Initiatives
held in Patna.
• The author-diplomat Abhay K said that he looks forward to reading the book and benefiting from the wisdom of Nalanda, which was and remains the
pride of Bihar.
• Abhay K. is a writer, poet, editor and translator. His latest book Nalanda: How it Changed the World published by Penguin Random House, is a bestseller.
• He received the SAARC Literary Award 2013 and was invited to record his poems at the Library of Congress, Washington DC in 2018.
• Bihar Dy CM launches author-diplomat Abhay K's new book 'Nalanda: How it Changed the World' - The TribuneDiplomat and poet Abhay K reimagines
Nalanda's legacy for future learning | Book News - Business Standard

144. Recently seen in news "Diyasalaai" (meaning "matchstick"), is the autobiography of whom among the following?
A. Medha Patkar
B. Kailash Satyarthi
C. Malala Yousafzai
D. Kiran Bedi
E. Anna Hazare

• "Diyasalaai," meaning "matchstick," is the autobiography of Nobel Peace Prize laureate Kailash Satyarthi. In this book,
he narrates his journey from humble beginnings in Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh, to becoming a global advocate for
children's rights and social justice.
• The autobiography delves into his relentless efforts to eradicate child labor and his leadership in international
movements like the Global March Against Child Labour, which spanned 186 countries.
• Kailash Satyarthi is an Indian social reformer and child rights activist who has dedicated his life to eradicating child labor
and promoting education. He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014, jointly with Malala Yousafzai, for his tireless
efforts in advocating for children's rights.

145. Recently as per report 2024 ACM A.M. Turing Award, often called the "Nobel Prize of Computing," was awarded to
_________ for their pioneering work in reinforcement learning.
A. David Silver and Satinder Singh
B. Fei-Fei Li and Jitendra Malik
C. Yoshua Bengio and Demis Hassabis
D. Geoffrey Hinton and Yann LeCun
E. Andrew Barto and Richard S. Sutton

• The 2024 ACM A.M. Turing Award, often called the "Nobel Prize of Computing," was awarded to Andrew Barto and Richard S. Sutton for
their pioneering work in reinforcement learning.
• The ACM A.M. Turing Award is the highest distinction in computer science and is often referred to as the "Nobel Prize of Computing".
• Andrew G. Barto and Richard S. Sutton were recognized for their groundbreaking work in reinforcement learning, a key approach to
developing intelligent systems.
• Reinforcement learning is a method where an agent learns to make decisions in an environment to maximize a reward.
• Barto and Sutton's research laid the conceptual and algorithmic foundations for reinforcement learning, influencing AI and ot her fields.
• Barto is a Professor Emeritus at the University of Massachusetts, Amherst, and Sutton is a Professor in Computing Science at the
University of Alberta.
• The ACM A.M. Turing Award, often called the "Nobel Prize in Computing," comes with a prize of $1 million.
• business-standard.com/technology/tech-news/ai-s-hedonistic-machines-earn-barto-sutton-top-computer-science-prize-125030501356_1.html#:~:text=Two
pioneers in the field,equivalent of the Nobel Prize

Science Technology Defence And Environment

146. In March as per report Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully completed the undocking of two satellites, part of the Space Docking
Experiment (SpaDeX) mission, marking a significant milestone in India's space exploration journey.
This accomplishment made India the fourth country after __________ in the world to achieve the feat.
1. China
2. USA
3. Russia
4. France
5. Japan

Select the correct source code:

A. Only 2 and 5
B. Only 3,4 and 5
C. Only 1,2 and 3
D. Only 4 and 5
E. All of the above

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (Isro) has successfully completed the
undocking of two satellites, part of the Space Docking Experiment (SpaDeX) mission,
marking a significant milestone in India's space exploration journey.
• India is now one of the four countries in the world to have demonstrated both docking
and undocking technology.
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• This accomplishment made India the fourth country after USA, Russia and China in the world to achieve the feat.
• The SpaDeX mission consists of two small spacecraft SDX-01 (Chaser) and SDX-02 (Target) satellites (about 220 kg each) launched by PSLV-C60.
• The SPADEX satellites were successfully docked recently. ISRO has now accomplished the pivotal operation of undocking of SPADEX satellites in the very
first attempt on 13th March, 2025.
• The undocking of the satellites took place in 460 km circular orbit with 45-degree inclination.
• The satellites are now orbiting independently and their health is normal.
• SpaDEx mission is expected to be a stepping stone for India’s future endeavours in space exploration which include getting rocks and soil from the moon
on Earth, the proposed Bharatiya Antariksha Station and landing an astronaut on the lunar surface.
• The SpaDeX spacecraft were designed and realized by the UR Rao Satellite Centre (URSC) with the support of other ISRO centers (VSSC, LPSC, SAC, IISU,
and LEOS).
• India one of four nations to demonstrate satellite docking and undocking: ISRO Chairman - The Hindu BusinessLine

147. Recently as per report India is all set to become one of the first countries to develop a long-distance hyperloop system. What is the approximate length of
the hyperloop project approved by the Ministry of Railways?
A. 10 kilometres
B. 40 kilometres
C. 50 kilometres
D. 70 kilometres
E. 80 kilometres

• Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw visited the Hyperloop testing facility at IIT Madras and said
that the Hyperloop tube, being developed with the help of the Indian Institute of Technology
Madras, will soon be the world's longest tube, measuring 410 meters in length.
• India is all set to become one of the first countries to develop a long-distance hyperloop system,
with the Ministry of Railways approving the proposal for a 40-kilometre project.
• The 410-meter-long Hyperloop test tube located at IIT Chennai is already the longest Hyperloop
test facility in Asia. Hyperloop is a high-speed train that runs in a vacuum in a tube.
• The Railway Ministry has been provided financial funding and technical assistance to the
Hyperloop project, and now, all the electronics technology for this Hyperloop project will be
developed at ICF Chennai.
• Railways clears tracks for India's first 40-kilometre hyperloop project | Start Ups - Business Standard

148. Recently as per report __________ is set to develop the world’s first combination vaccine for typhoid and shigellosis backed by the Bill & Melinda Gates
Foundation, to protect infants and children in endemic regions.
A. Zydus Lifesciences
B. Biological E
C. Bharat Biotech
D. Serum Institute of India
E. Panacea Biotec

• Zydus Lifesciences said it will undertake development of a combination vaccine

against shigellosis and typhoid.
• The company, with support from the Gates Foundation, will carry out early-stage
development, animal immunogenicity studies and regulatory preclinical toxicology
studies for this combination vaccine.
• The drug maker will collaborate with a partner for the research and co-development of a combination vaccine, using Zydus' WHO prequalified Typhoid
conjugate vaccine and Shigella vaccine from its partner.
• Zydus Lifesciences to develop world's first dual vaccine for typhoid | Company News - Business Standard

149. In March as per report Ministry of Defence (MoD) inked a capital acquisition contract with state-owned Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), Ghaziabad, for
procurement of, Low-level Transportable Radar,named _________ at a cost of ₹2,906 crore, for tracking missile fired by fighter aircrafts, helicopters and
Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs).
A. Garuda
B. Gandiva
C. Nagastra
D. Brhamstra
E. Ashwini

• Ministry of Defence (MoD) inked a capital acquisition

contract with state-owned Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL),
Ghaziabad, for procurement of ‘Ashwini’, Low-level
Transportable Radar, at a cost of ₹2,906 crore, for tracking
missile fired by fighter aircrafts, helicopters and Unmanned
Aerial Vehicles (UAVs).
• The LLTR, indigenously designed and developed by Electronics & Radar Development Establishment of Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO), is an active electronically scanned phased array radar based on state-of-the-art solid state technology.
• The radar is capable of tracking aerial targets from high-speed fighter aircraft to slow moving targets such as Unmanned Aerial Vehicles and helicopters.
• MoD inks deal with BEL for radars at a cost of ₹2,906 cr - The Hindu BusinessLine

150. In March as per report Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) successfully conducted the test launch of India’s homegrown Astra, a Beyond Visual
Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), from the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) AF MK1 prototype.
The test was carried out off the coast of ________.
A. Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
B. Chandipur, Odisha
C. Port Blair, Andaman and Nicobar Islands
D. Pune, Maharashtra
E. Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala

• The Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) successfully conducted the test launch of India’s homegrown Astra,
a Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), from the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) AF MK1 prototype. The
test was carried out off the coast of Chandipur, Odisha.
• Developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), the Astra missile is designed to
engage targets over 100 kilometers away.
• This successful test-firing marks a significant milestone toward the induction of the LCA AF MK1A variant,
bringing India closer to achieving its goal of strengthening its indigenous defense systems.
• Press Release:Press Information BureauTejas fighter jet successfully test fires air-to-air Astra missile

151. Recently as per report from January 2015 to December 2024, a total of ___________ foreign satellites and 3 Indian customer satellites have been launched
on commercial basis on-board ISRO’s PSLV, LVM3 and SSLV Launch Vehicles.
A. 302
B. 393
C. 421
D. 495
E. 589

• During the last ten years starting from January 2015 to December 2024, a total of 393 foreign satellites
and 3 Indian customer satellites have been launched on commercial basis on-board ISRO’s PSLV, LVM3
and SSLV Launch Vehicles.
• Foreign Exchange revenue generated by Government through launching of foreign satellites during the
period Jan 2015 to Dec 2024 is nearly 143 Million USD and 272 Million Euros.

• India has launched satellites of 34 countries so far, including those of developed countries since 2014 as listed below:
• United States of America (232), United Kingdom (83), Singapore (19), Canada (8), Korea (5) Luxemburg (4), Italy (4), Germany (3), Belgium (3), Finland (3),
France(3), Switzerland (2) Netherland (2), Japan (2), Israel (2), Spain (2), Australia (1), United Arab Emirates (1), Austria (1), etc.
• Press Release:Press Information Bureau

152. Consider the following statement regarding SPHEREx. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. It will explore the origins of the universe and to scour the Milky Way galaxy for hidden reservoirs of water, a key ingredient for life.
2. Spectro-Photometer for the History of the Universe, Epoch of Reionization and Ices Explorer (SPHEREx) entered a sun-synchronous orbit 650 km above
Earth.
3. It is planned for five-year mission.
4. The observatory will collect data on more than 450 million galaxies, as well as more than 100 million stars in the Milky Way.
5. Polarimetry to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere (PUNCH) mission, a solar mission will capture detailed 3D images of the solar corona, study solar
winds, and improve space weather predictions.

• NASA successfully
launched the SPHEREx
and PUNCH space
missions from California
after multiple delays.
• Spectro-Photometer for
the History of the
Universe, Epoch of
Reionization and Ices
Explorer (SPHEREx)
entered a sun-
synchronous orbit 650
km above Earth.
• During its planned two-year mission, it will collect data from 450 million galaxies and 100 million stars to create a detailed 3D sky map and study the
universe's history.
• It will create a three-dimensional map of the cosmos in 102 colors – individual wavelengths of light – and will study the history and evolution of galaxies.
• PUNCH, a solar mission comprising four small satellites, was deployed 10 minutes after launch. It will capture detailed 3D images of the solar corona,
study solar winds, and improve space weather predictions.
• It will capture detailed 3D images of the solar corona, study solar winds, and improve space weather predictions.
• First 3D Imaging of the Solar Corona Using Polarized Light
• PUNCH is the first solar mission designed to use polarized light to measure the solar corona and solar wind in 3D.
• NASA SPHEREx telescope is launched to study universe’s origins

153. What is the name of the India-Bangladesh naval exercise that took place in the Bay of Bengal in the month of March, 2025?
A. Sagar Kavach 2025
B. Bongosagar 2025
C. Samudra Shakti 2025
D. Sea Connect 2025
E. Bandhan 2025

• India and Bangladesh conducted a naval

exercise and coordinated patrol in the Bay of
Benga that provided an opportunity for both
the navies to develop closer links in tactical
planning, coordination and information
sharing for undertaking seamless maritime
operations.

• Bongosagar 2025 saw the participation of INS Ranvir from the Indian Navy and BNS Abu Ubaidah from the Bangladesh Navy.

• The enhanced synergy of naval operations between the two navies is the testament to the shared commitment of countering global security challenges
towards security and stability in the region promoting the Security And Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) initiative of India.
• business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/india-bangladesh-hold-naval-drill-in-bay-of-bengal-to-boost-synergy-125031300909_1.html
India, Bangladesh conduct naval exercise and patrol despite strained ties | External Affairs & Defence Security News - Business Standard

154. Recently as per report new four-lane highway is being built through a protected area of the Amazon rainforest to prepare for the COP30 climate summit in
Belem, Brazil.
What is the name of the highway being built through the Amazon rainforest?
A. COP30 Expressway
B. Avenida Liberdade
C. Estrada do Clima
D. Via Verde
E. Rodovia Amazonas

• A new four-lane highway, Avenida Liberdade, is being built through a

protected area of the Amazon rainforest in preparation for the COP30
climate summit in Belem, Brazil, set for November.
• Along the 13km (8-mile) stretch, trees have been cut down, and large piles
of logs mark the cleared areas.
• The road is causing deforestation, disrupting wildlife, and potentially
facilitating further land exploitation.
• The Amazon is crucial for absorbing carbon and maintaining biodiversity,
and many argue that clearing land for the road contradicts the purpose of
a climate summit.
• Stretch of Amazon cleared to build highway for COP30, sparks controversy |
World News - Business Standard

155. What is the name of the Indian Origin passengers who was onboarded on the Blue Origin New Shepherd (NS) spacecraft 10th space tourism mission?
A. Shashank Singh
B. Tushar Mehta
C. Alok Kapoor
D. Sameer Mehta
E. Parag Mehta

• Indian-origin Tushar Shah, an MIT graduate and a member of the six-person crew, successfully completed an 11-minute celestial journey on Jeff Bezos's
Blue Origin NS-30 tourism mission from West Texas in the US.
• The Perfect 10 mission of Blue Origin was the 10th crewed mission of the vehicle, which includes a reusable booster and a reusable capsule.
• Blue Origin called its latest flight NS-30 because it was the 30th overall flight of New Shepherd.
• Blue Origin’s New Shepard program has flown 52 people, including repeat astronauts, into space in its 30 space flights so far.
• Tushar Mehta became the second Indian-origin person after Gopi Thotakura to take a Blue Origin flight.
• Jeff Bezos’ Blue Origin launches 6 space tourists aboard NS-30 flight, Indian-origin Tushar Mehta among crew: Watch | Mint

156. In February as per report Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) launched its homegrown ‘Íron Dome’, which was showcased for the
first time at this year’s Republic Day parade.
What is the name of India’s advanced defence shield developed by the DRDO?
A. Raksha Kavach
B. Golden Dome
C. Iron Dome
D. Shakti Dome
E. Dharmashakti

• At the 15th edition of the Bengaluru-based biennial airshow- Aero India, India’s govt-run defence agency Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) launched its homegrown ‘Íron Dome’, called the ‘Rakshak-Suraksha Kavach’, which was showcased for the first time at this year’s
Republic Day parade.
• The complete system which is still in design stage is awaiting Government sanction.
• The Kavach is intended to secure high-end installations and assets covering a range of 250 kilometers.
• The system can be integrated into a wide range of applications, from personal soldier armour to vehicle protection, providing instant threat
neutralization capabilities.
• DRDO unveils India’s indigenous ‘Iron Dome’ at Aero India 2025 - Global Defense News - GSDN Explainer: The Golden Dome and India’s own Raksha Kavach –
A new era of missile defence - Business News | The Financial Express

157. In March as per report ____________signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Indian Army for Modular Steel Bridges in Arunachal
Pradesh.
A. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
B. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
C. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
D. Larsen & Toubro
E. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

• Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) has formalised an agreement with the Indian Army for the construction of a 130-feet-long Single Lane
Modular (SLM) Steel Bridge (70R) in Arunachal Pradesh.
• The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed by GRSE’s General Manager (Bailey Bridges) in collaboration with the Indian Army.
• GRSE has a significant track record in bridge construction and has been a key supplier of modular bridges to various organizations, including the Border
Roads Organisation (BRO) and the National Highway Infrastructure Development Corporation (NHIDCL).
• In 2022, GRSE became the first Indian company to receive the Green Channel Certification from the Indian Army for Portable Steel Bridges of the Bailey
type.
• Asia's Biggest Road ExhibitionGRSE signs MoU with Army for delivery of Bailey Bridge to forward area in Arunachal - Nagaland Post

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Weekly Optimum Current Q & A PDF – Based On Recent Exam Trends Second Week of March ( 9th March – 17th

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National /State News

• The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has released Second

• A set of six properties-including some considered

• The World Air Quality Report 2024 has been released by

D. ₹1 lakh to ₹10 lakh

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• The government introduced the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025.

• AIF was introduced with a vision to transform

• The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) has

• The Prime Minister Internship

A. Noida, Uttar Pradesh

• The government announced a $1 billion fund to give a boost to the

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• Balochistan Liberation Army (BLA)

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• The Indian School of Mines (ISM) University,

• According to the latest report from the Stockholm International Peace

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Banking / Economy News

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76. According to the latest report from the National

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• Retail food inflation eased for the four

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• Singapore’s state-owned investment firm Temasek

Days and Obituary News

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Sports Award Books News

3. It is India third ICC Champions Trophy.

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Science Technology Defence And Environment

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• Zydus Lifesciences said it will undertake development of a combination vaccine

• Ministry of Defence (MoD) inked a capital acquisition

• India and Bangladesh conducted a naval

• A new four-lane highway, Avenida Liberdade, is being built through a

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