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Create 50 Questions of Each Unit and All Questions

The document provides 50 objective questions for each unit of the BCA-4004 'Optimization Techniques' course, covering topics such as Linear Programming, Game Theory, and Replacement Theory. Each question is accompanied by multiple-choice options and the correct answer. The questions are designed to assess understanding of key concepts in optimization techniques relevant to the BCA 2nd year syllabus.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
32 views53 pages

Create 50 Questions of Each Unit and All Questions

The document provides 50 objective questions for each unit of the BCA-4004 'Optimization Techniques' course, covering topics such as Linear Programming, Game Theory, and Replacement Theory. Each question is accompanied by multiple-choice options and the correct answer. The questions are designed to assess understanding of key concepts in optimization techniques relevant to the BCA 2nd year syllabus.

Uploaded by

deepankalk2332
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Create 50 questions of each unit and all questions is

objective with answers and its a subject of


optimization and techniques of bca 2nd year
Here are 50 objective (multiple-choice) questions for each unit of the BCA-4004 "Optimization
Techniques" course, along with their answers. The questions cover the key concepts as outlined in the
syllabus.

UNIT-I: Linear Programming

1. Which of the following is a requirement for a linear programming problem?

o (a) Objective function and constraints must be linear [Answer: a]

2. The region satisfying all the constraints in an LPP is called:

o (a) Feasible region [Answer: a]

3. The Simplex method is used to:

o (b) Solve linear programming problems [Answer: b]

4. In LPP, the restrictions are called:

o (c) Constraints [Answer: c]

5. The dual of a minimization problem is:

o (b) A maximization problem [Answer: b]

6. The solution to an LPP always lies at:

o (a) A corner point of the feasible region [Answer: a]

7. Slack variables are introduced to:

o (a) Convert inequalities to equalities [Answer: a]

8. Which method is graphical for two variables?

o (b) Graphical method [Answer: b]

9. If an LPP has multiple optimal solutions, what is true?


o (b) The objective function is parallel to a constraint [Answer: b]

10. A degenerate solution in simplex occurs when:

o (c) At least one basic variable is zero [Answer: c]

11. The dual of the dual is:

o (a) The primal [Answer: a]

12. The transportation problem is a special case of:

o (a) Linear programming [Answer: a]

13. The feasible region for an LPP is always:

o (b) Convex [Answer: b]

14. Surplus variables are used for:

o (c) Greater-than-or-equal constraints [Answer: c]

15. An unbounded solution in LPP means:

o (b) The objective can increase indefinitely [Answer: b]

16. If the feasible region is empty, the LPP is:

o (c) Infeasible [Answer: c]

17. The minimum number of constraints for a bounded region in 2D is:

o (b) 3 [Answer: b]

18. Artificial variables are used in:

o (a) Big-M method [Answer: a]

19. The Simplex method moves from:

o (c) One vertex to another [Answer: c]

20. The number of variables in the dual equals:

o (a) The number of constraints in the primal [Answer: a]

21. The assignment problem is a special case of:

o (b) Transportation problem [Answer: b]

22. The primal and dual have:

o (a) Same optimal value [Answer: a]

23. If all constraints are ≤, the dual variables are:


o (b) Non-negative [Answer: b]

24. The optimal solution of an LPP can be:

o (d) Unique, multiple, or unbounded [Answer: d]

25. The graphical method can solve problems with:

o (a) Two variables [Answer: a]

26. The simplex method stops when:

o (c) All Cj-Zj ≤ 0 (for maximization) [Answer: c]

27. In LPP, the objective function is:

o (a) Linear [Answer: a]

28. The dual simplex method is used when:

o (b) Solution is infeasible but optimal [Answer: b]

29. The shadow price in LPP refers to:

o (c) Marginal value of a resource [Answer: c]

30. A basic feasible solution has:

o (b) m basic variables (for m constraints) [Answer: b]

31. The simplex tableau is used for:

o (a) Iterative solution [Answer: a]

32. Redundant constraints:

o (b) Do not affect the feasible region [Answer: b]

33. The value of the objective function at an infeasible solution is:

o (d) Not meaningful [Answer: d]

34. The minimum number of variables in an LPP is:

o (a) 2 [Answer: a]

35. The dual of a dual problem is:

o (a) The primal [Answer: a]

36. A solution is optimal if:

o (a) No adjacent feasible solution improves the objective [Answer: a]

37. The simplex method requires:


o (b) Initial basic feasible solution [Answer: b]

38. If an LPP has no feasible solution, it is:

o (c) Infeasible [Answer: c]

39. The assignment problem can be solved by:

o (a) Hungarian method [Answer: a]

40. The number of constraints in the dual equals:

o (b) Number of variables in the primal [Answer: b]

41. The feasible region may be:

o (a) Bounded or unbounded [Answer: a]

42. The optimal value of the dual is:

o (a) Equal to the primal [Answer: a]

43. A slack variable is always:

o (b) Non-negative [Answer: b]

44. The simplex method can be used for:

o (a) Maximization and minimization problems [Answer: a]

45. The graphical method is not suitable for:

o (c) More than two variables [Answer: c]

46. The Big-M method is used to:

o (a) Handle artificial variables [Answer: a]

47. The feasible region for LPP is:

o (b) Intersection of half-planes [Answer: b]

48. The value of an artificial variable in the final solution should be:

o (c) Zero [Answer: c]

49. The dual variable represents:

o (a) Shadow price [Answer: a]

50. The simplex method improves the solution by:

o (c) Pivot operations [Answer: c]


UNIT-II: Game Theory

1. Game theory deals with:

o (a) Decision making under conflict [Answer: a]

2. A two-person zero-sum game means:

o (b) One's gain is other's loss [Answer: b]

3. A pure strategy is:

o (a) Always choosing the same move [Answer: a]

4. A mixed strategy is:

o (b) Randomizing over moves [Answer: b]

5. The value of a game is:

o (c) Expected payoff [Answer: c]

6. The saddle point in a payoff matrix is:

o (a) Minimum of row maxima and maximum of column minima [Answer: a]

7. If a game has a saddle point:

o (b) Both players have optimal pure strategies [Answer: b]

8. The Minimax principle is used by:

o (a) The row player [Answer: a]

9. The Maxmin principle is used by:

o (b) The column player [Answer: b]

10. The algebraic method is used for:

o (a) Solving 2x2 games without saddle point [Answer: a]

11. The graphical method is used for:

o (b) Solving 2xn or mx2 games [Answer: b]

12. Dominance in game theory means:

o (c) Eliminating inferior strategies [Answer: c]

13. A strictly dominated strategy is:


o (a) Never optimal [Answer: a]

14. The number of pure strategies in a 3x3 game is:

o (c) 3 for each player [Answer: c]

15. The payoff matrix represents:

o (b) Gains/losses of the players [Answer: b]

16. In a zero-sum game, the sum of payoffs is:

o (a) Zero [Answer: a]

17. A game with no saddle point requires:

o (b) Mixed strategies [Answer: b]

18. The value of a fair game is:

o (c) Zero [Answer: c]

19. A 2x2 game with no saddle point is solved by:

o (a) Algebraic method [Answer: a]

20. The rule of dominance can be applied to:

o (d) Rows and columns [Answer: d]

21. The optimal strategy maximizes:

o (a) Minimum gain [Answer: a]

22. The Minimax value equals Maxmin value at:

o (b) Saddle point [Answer: b]

23. The graphical method is suitable for:

o (a) 2xn or mx2 games [Answer: a]

24. The algebraic method is not suitable for:

o (c) Games larger than 2x2 [Answer: c]

25. The principle of dominance helps to:

o (b) Reduce the size of the matrix [Answer: b]

26. The expected value of a mixed strategy is:

o (a) Weighted average payoff [Answer: a]

27. A strictly dominant strategy is:


o (a) Always better than others [Answer: a]

28. A Nash equilibrium exists when:

o (b) No player can improve by changing strategy [Answer: b]

29. The payoff matrix for a zero-sum game is:

o (a) Square or rectangular [Answer: a]

30. The best response is:

o (b) The optimal counter to opponent's move [Answer: b]

31. The value of a game is unique if:

o (a) Saddle point exists [Answer: a]

32. In a 2x2 game, the value is found by:

o (b) Solving two equations [Answer: b]

33. The solution of a game gives:

o (a) Optimal strategies and value [Answer: a]

34. A dominant strategy is:

o (b) Better regardless of opponent [Answer: b]

35. If both players randomize, the game is:

o (c) Mixed strategy game [Answer: c]

36. The Minimax theorem was proved by:

o (a) John von Neumann [Answer: a]

37. A pure strategy equilibrium is:

o (a) Both players use pure strategies [Answer: a]

38. The value of a game for the column player is:

o (b) Negative of row player's value [Answer: b]

39. A strictly dominated strategy should be:

o (a) Eliminated [Answer: a]

40. The number of possible strategies in a 2x3 game for row player is:

o (a) 2 [Answer: a]

41. The Minimax value is:


o (a) Maximum of row minima [Answer: a]

42. The Maxmin value is:

o (b) Minimum of column maxima [Answer: b]

43. If Minimax ≠ Maxmin, then:

o (c) Mixed strategies are needed [Answer: c]

44. The row player tries to:

o (a) Maximize payoff [Answer: a]

45. The column player tries to:

o (b) Minimize loss [Answer: b]

46. A game with a value of zero is called:

o (c) Fair game [Answer: c]

47. The solution of a game is:

o (a) Set of optimal strategies [Answer: a]

48. The payoff matrix is used to:

o (b) Analyze strategies [Answer: b]

49. The rules of dominance are:

o (a) Used to simplify games [Answer: a]

50. A Nash equilibrium is:

o (b) Stable outcome [Answer: b]

UNIT-III: Replacement Theory

1. Replacement theory deals with:

o (a) Replacement of deteriorating items [Answer: a]

2. Individual replacement policy is best for:

o (b) Items failing at random [Answer: b]

3. Group replacement policy is best for:

o (a) Items replaced at fixed intervals [Answer: a]


4. The economic life of an asset is:

o (c) Period with minimum average cost [Answer: c]

5. Replacement is needed when:

o (a) Maintenance cost increases [Answer: a]

6. The average cost method is used to:

o (b) Determine replacement period [Answer: b]

7. Sudden failure items are replaced by:

o (c) Group or individual replacement [Answer: c]

8. Gradual failure items are replaced by:

o (a) Individual replacement [Answer: a]

9. The replacement period is:

o (b) When average cost is minimum [Answer: b]

10. The salvage value is:

o (a) Value at end of useful life [Answer: a]

11. Replacement models are used for:

o (c) Both equipment and human resources [Answer: c]

12. The present worth method considers:

o (a) Time value of money [Answer: a]

13. The maintenance cost curve is:

o (b) Upward sloping [Answer: b]

14. The capital cost curve is:

o (a) Downward sloping [Answer: a]

15. The optimal replacement age is:

o (c) Where total cost is minimum [Answer: c]

16. Sudden failure items include:

o (b) Light bulbs [Answer: b]

17. Gradual failure items include:

o (a) Machines [Answer: a]


18. Replacement due to obsolescence is:

o (b) Technological replacement [Answer: b]

19. The group replacement policy is:

o (a) Economical for large numbers [Answer: a]

20. The individual replacement policy is:

o (b) Used when failures are rare [Answer: b]

21. The cost of downtime is:

o (a) Loss due to equipment failure [Answer: a]

22. The replacement interval is:

o (c) Time between replacements [Answer: c]

23. The replacement of human resources is based on:

o (a) Efficiency and cost [Answer: a]

24. The replacement policy aims to:

o (b) Minimize total cost [Answer: b]

25. The average cost per period is:

o (c) Total cost divided by number of periods [Answer: c]

26. The present value of future costs is:

o (a) Discounted cost [Answer: a]

27. The replacement model assumes:

o (b) Predictable failure rates [Answer: b]

28. The cost of replacement includes:

o (a) Purchase and installation [Answer: a]

29. The replacement of items with increasing maintenance cost is:

o (c) Gradual failure model [Answer: c]

30. The replacement of items with sudden failure is:

o (b) Probabilistic model [Answer: b]

31. The optimal group replacement period is:

o (a) Where total expected cost is minimum [Answer: a]


32. The replacement of items before failure is:

o (b) Preventive replacement [Answer: b]

33. The replacement of items after failure is:

o (a) Corrective replacement [Answer: a]

34. The replacement policy is influenced by:

o (c) Cost and reliability [Answer: c]

35. The decision to replace is based on:

o (a) Economic considerations [Answer: a]

36. The replacement of items with constant failure rate is:

o (c) Memoryless property [Answer: c]

37. The cost of replacement is minimized by:

o (a) Optimal scheduling [Answer: a]

38. The replacement of items with decreasing efficiency is:

o (b) Gradual failure model [Answer: b]

39. The replacement of items with age is:

o (a) Age replacement policy [Answer: a]

40. The replacement of items with usage is:

o (b) Usage replacement policy [Answer: b]

41. The replacement interval for group policy is:

o (c) Fixed period [Answer: c]

42. The replacement of items with random failure is:

o (a) Probabilistic model [Answer: a]

43. The replacement of items with known life is:

o (b) Deterministic model [Answer: b]

44. The replacement of items with variable life is:

o (c) Stochastic model [Answer: c]

45. The replacement of items with increasing failure rate is:

o (a) Bathtub curve [Answer: a]


46. The replacement of items with decreasing failure rate is:

o (b) Infant mortality [Answer: b]

47. The replacement of items with constant cost is:

o (c) Not economical [Answer: c]

48. The replacement of items with increasing cost is:

o (a) Economical [Answer: a]

49. The replacement of items with decreasing cost is:

o (b) Not required [Answer: b]

50. The replacement model is used for:

o (c) Both equipment and human resources [Answer: c]

UNIT-IV: PERT and CPM

1. PERT stands for:

o (a) Program Evaluation and Review Technique [Answer: a]

2. CPM stands for:

o (b) Critical Path Method [Answer: b]

3. PERT is:

o (a) Probabilistic [Answer: a]

4. CPM is:

o (b) Deterministic [Answer: b]

5. The critical path is:

o (a) Longest path in the network [Answer: a]

6. The critical path determines:

o (b) Project duration [Answer: b]

7. Slack is:

o (a) Difference between latest and earliest times [Answer: a]

8. The earliest start time is:


o (a) Earliest time an activity can begin [Answer: a]

9. The latest finish time is:

o (b) Latest time an activity can finish without delaying the project [Answer: b]

10. Dummy activities are used to:

o (a) Maintain logical relationships [Answer: a]

11. The expected time in PERT is:

o (c) (Optimistic + 4 × Most Likely + Pessimistic)/6 [Answer: c]

12. The variance of an activity in PERT is:

o (b) ((Pessimistic - Optimistic)/6)^2 [Answer: b]

13. The standard deviation of the critical path is:

o (a) Square root of sum of variances [Answer: a]

14. Float is:

o (b) Time an activity can be delayed without affecting project [Answer: b]

15. CPM is best suited for:

o (a) Repetitive projects [Answer: a]

16. PERT is best for:

o (b) Research and development projects [Answer: b]

17. The critical path has:

o (a) Zero slack [Answer: a]

18. The project network is:

o (b) A graphical representation of activities [Answer: b]

19. The earliest finish time is:

o (a) Earliest start + duration [Answer: a]

20. The latest start time is:

o (b) Latest finish - duration [Answer: b]

21. The network diagram is used to:

o (a) Schedule activities [Answer: a]

22. The critical activity is:


o (b) On the critical path [Answer: b]

23. The float of a critical activity is:

o (a) Zero [Answer: a]

24. The project duration is:

o (b) Duration of critical path [Answer: b]

25. The earliest event time is found by:

o (a) Forward pass [Answer: a]

26. The latest event time is found by:

o (b) Backward pass [Answer: b]

27. The project is delayed if:

o (a) Any critical activity is delayed [Answer: a]

28. The expected project duration in PERT is:

o (b) Sum of expected times on critical path [Answer: b]

29. The probability of completion is found using:

o (a) Standard deviation of critical path [Answer: a]

30. The network diagram uses:

o (b) Nodes and arrows [Answer: b]

31. Dummy activities have:

o (a) Zero duration [Answer: a]

32. The earliest start of an activity depends on:

o (b) Completion of predecessor activities [Answer: b]

33. The latest finish of an activity depends on:

o (a) Start of successor activities [Answer: a]

34. The main objective of CPM is:

o (b) Minimize project duration [Answer: b]

35. The main objective of PERT is:

o (a) Minimize uncertainty [Answer: a]

36. The network diagram helps to:


o (b) Identify critical activities [Answer: b]

37. The total float is:

o (a) Latest finish - earliest start - duration [Answer: a]

38. The free float is:

o (b) Earliest start of successor - earliest finish [Answer: b]

39. The independent float is:

o (a) Amount of delay without affecting successors [Answer: a]

40. The activity with zero total float is:

o (b) Critical activity [Answer: b]

41. The project completion probability is:

o (a) Calculated using Z-score [Answer: a]

42. The PERT network is:

o (b) Event-oriented [Answer: b]

43. The CPM network is:

o (a) Activity-oriented [Answer: a]

44. The optimistic time is:

o (b) Minimum possible time [Answer: b]

45. The pessimistic time is:

o (a) Maximum possible time [Answer: a]

46. The most likely time is:

o (b) Best estimate of time [Answer: b]

47. The critical path is:

o (a) Path with longest duration [Answer: a]

48. The slack of an event is:

o (b) Latest - earliest event time [Answer: b]

49. The project can be expedited by:

o (a) Crashing critical activities [Answer: a]

50. The main advantage of PERT/CPM is:


o (c) Effective project management [Answer: c]

UNIT-V: Job Sequencing

1. Job sequencing is used to:

o (a) Minimize total elapsed time [Answer: a]

2. Johnson’s algorithm is used for:

o (b) Sequencing n jobs on 2 machines [Answer: b]

3. The objective of sequencing is:

o (a) Minimize idle time [Answer: a]

4. The number of possible sequences for n jobs is:

o (b) n! [Answer: b]

5. The optimal sequence minimizes:

o (a) Makespan [Answer: a]

6. In Johnson’s rule, the job with minimum time is:

o (b) Scheduled first or last [Answer: b]

7. The two-machine problem can be solved by:

o (a) Johnson’s algorithm [Answer: a]

8. The total elapsed time is:

o (b) Time from start of first job to end of last job [Answer: b]

9. Idle time on machines is:

o (a) Unproductive time [Answer: a]

10. The sequencing problem is:

o (c) Combinatorial optimization [Answer: c]

11. The processing order affects:

o (b) Total elapsed time [Answer: b]

12. The minimum makespan is:

o (a) Optimal solution [Answer: a]


13. The sequencing problem for 3 machines is:

o (c) More complex than 2 machines [Answer: c]

14. The job with least processing time is:

o (b) Scheduled first or last [Answer: b]

15. The number of machines in Johnson’s algorithm is:

o (a) 2 [Answer: a]

16. The Gantt chart is used to:

o (b) Visualize job schedules [Answer: b]

17. The sequencing problem aims to:

o (a) Optimize machine utilization [Answer: a]

18. The flow shop scheduling is:

o (b) Jobs processed in same order [Answer: b]

19. The job shop scheduling is:

o (a) Jobs processed in different orders [Answer: a]

20. The sequence with minimum idle time is:

o (b) Optimal sequence [Answer: b]

21. The processing time matrix shows:

o (a) Time for each job on each machine [Answer: a]

22. The sequence affects:

o (b) Completion time [Answer: b]

23. The sequencing problem is solved by:

o (a) Algorithms [Answer: a]

24. The two-machine sequencing problem is:

o (c) Solved by Johnson’s rule [Answer: c]

25. The minimum total elapsed time is:

o (a) Objective of sequencing [Answer: a]

26. The number of sequences increases:

o (b) Factorially with jobs [Answer: b]


27. The optimal sequence is:

o (a) Sequence with minimum makespan [Answer: a]

28. The idle time is:

o (b) Time machines are not working [Answer: b]

29. The sequencing problem is:

o (c) NP-hard for many machines [Answer: c]

30. The job with minimum processing time is:

o (a) Scheduled at earliest possible [Answer: a]

31. The two-machine sequencing problem assumes:

o (b) Each job processed on both machines [Answer: b]

32. The solution of sequencing problem gives:

o (a) Optimal order of jobs [Answer: a]

33. The processing time is:

o (b) Time taken by a job on a machine [Answer: b]

34. The idle time is minimized by:

o (a) Optimal sequencing [Answer: a]

35. The sequencing problem is:

o (c) Scheduling problem [Answer: c]

36. The optimal sequence is found by:

o (a) Johnson’s algorithm [Answer: a]

37. The job with least processing time is:

o (b) Scheduled first or last [Answer: b]

38. The makespan is:

o (a) Total time to complete all jobs [Answer: a]

39. The sequencing problem is:

o (b) Combinatorial [Answer: b]

40. The solution minimizes:

o (a) Total elapsed time [Answer: a]


41. The two-machine sequencing problem is:

o (c) Solved by Johnson’s rule [Answer: c]

42. The sequence affects:

o (b) Idle time [Answer: b]

43. The processing order is:

o (a) Order in which jobs are processed [Answer: a]

44. The optimal sequence:

o (b) Minimizes makespan [Answer: b]

45. The sequencing problem is:

o (c) Scheduling problem [Answer: c]

46. The Gantt chart shows:

o (a) Job schedules [Answer: a]

47. The processing time matrix is:

o (b) Input for sequencing [Answer: b]

48. The idle time is:

o (a) Time machines are not working [Answer: a]

49. The sequencing problem is:

o (c) Optimization problem [Answer: c]

50. The solution of sequencing problem is:

o (a) Optimal order of jobs [Answer: a]

These questions cover the full breadth of the syllabus for each unit, are objective in nature, and include
the correct answers as requested.


You can show 30 objective on each unit questions
with answers and different 4 choice of an each
question
Here are 30 objective (multiple-choice) questions with four options and answers for each unit of the BCA-
4004 "Optimization Techniques" syllabus, as per your request and the provided syllabus[1].

UNIT-I: Linear Programming

1. Which of the following is a linear programming method?

o a) Simplex method

o b) Newton’s method

o c) Secant method

o d) Bisection method
Answer: a

2. The feasible region of an LPP is always:

o a) Circular

o b) Convex

o c) Concave

o d) Irregular
Answer: b

3. The dual of a minimization problem is:

o a) Another minimization problem

o b) A maximization problem

o c) An assignment problem

o d) A transportation problem
Answer: b

4. Slack variables are used to:


o a) Convert inequalities to equalities

o b) Increase objective value

o c) Reduce constraints

o d) None of these
Answer: a

5. The solution to a linear programming problem always lies at:

o a) Center of feasible region

o b) Boundary point

o c) Corner point

o d) Any point
Answer: c

6. The graphical method is suitable for:

o a) 1 variable

o b) 2 variables

o c) 3 variables

o d) Any number of variables


Answer: b

7. Surplus variables are used for:

o a) ≤ constraints

o b) = constraints

o c) ≥ constraints

o d) None
Answer: c

8. An unbounded solution in LPP means:

o a) No solution

o b) Infinite solutions

o c) Objective function can increase indefinitely


o d) None
Answer: c

9. If the feasible region is empty, the LPP is:

o a) Unbounded

o b) Infeasible

o c) Degenerate

o d) Multiple solution
Answer: b

10. Artificial variables are introduced in:

o a) Simplex method

o b) Big-M method

o c) Dual simplex

o d) Graphical method
Answer: b

11. The simplex method moves from:

o a) Center to boundary

o b) One vertex to another

o c) Random points

o d) None
Answer: b

12. The transportation problem is a special case of:

o a) Assignment problem

o b) Linear programming

o c) Game theory

o d) Sequencing
Answer: b

13. The assignment problem is a special case of:

o a) Transportation problem
o b) Linear programming

o c) Game theory

o d) Sequencing
Answer: a

14. The dual variable is also known as:

o a) Slack variable

o b) Surplus variable

o c) Shadow price

o d) Artificial variable
Answer: c

15. The optimal solution of an LPP can be:

o a) Unique

o b) Multiple

o c) Unbounded

o d) All of these
Answer: d

16. Redundant constraints:

o a) Affect solution

o b) Do not affect feasible region

o c) Change objective function

o d) None
Answer: b

17. The Big-M method is used for:

o a) Handling artificial variables

o b) Reducing variables

o c) Increasing constraints

o d) None
Answer: a
18. The dual of the dual is:

o a) Primal

o b) Dual

o c) None

o d) Both
Answer: a

19. The value of an artificial variable in the final solution should be:

o a) Positive

o b) Negative

o c) Zero

o d) Any value
Answer: c

20. The simplex tableau is used for:

o a) Graphical solution

o b) Iterative calculations

o c) Assignment problem

o d) None
Answer: b

21. The number of constraints in the dual equals:

o a) Number of variables in primal

o b) Number of constraints in primal

o c) Number of slack variables

o d) None
Answer: a

22. The feasible region may be:

o a) Bounded

o b) Unbounded
o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: c

23. A degenerate solution occurs when:

o a) All basic variables are positive

o b) At least one basic variable is zero

o c) All constraints are equalities

o d) None
Answer: b

24. The shadow price refers to:

o a) Slack variable value

o b) Marginal value of a resource

o c) Surplus variable

o d) None
Answer: b

25. The primal and dual have:

o a) Same optimal value

o b) Different optimal values

o c) No relation

o d) None
Answer: a

26. The assignment problem can be solved by:

o a) Hungarian method

o b) Simplex method

o c) Dual simplex

o d) None
Answer: a

27. The minimum number of constraints for a bounded region in 2D is:


o a) 2

o b) 3

o c) 4

o d) 5
Answer: b

28. The simplex method stops when:

o a) All Cj-Zj ≥ 0 (for maximization)

o b) All Cj-Zj ≤ 0 (for maximization)

o c) All variables are basic

o d) None
Answer: b

29. The value of the objective function at an infeasible solution is:

o a) Maximum

o b) Minimum

o c) Not meaningful

o d) Zero
Answer: c

30. The number of variables in the dual equals:

o a) Number of constraints in primal

o b) Number of variables in primal

o c) Number of slack variables

o d) None
Answer: a

UNIT-II: Game Theory

1. Game theory deals with:

o a) Decision making under certainty


o b) Decision making under conflict

o c) Decision making under risk

o d) None
Answer: b

2. A two-person zero-sum game means:

o a) Both win

o b) One’s gain is other’s loss

o c) Both lose

o d) None
Answer: b

3. A pure strategy is:

o a) Always choosing the same move

o b) Randomizing over moves

o c) Changing moves every time

o d) None
Answer: a

4. A mixed strategy is:

o a) Always choosing the same move

o b) Randomizing over moves

o c) Changing moves in sequence

o d) None
Answer: b

5. The value of a game is:

o a) Maximum gain

o b) Minimum loss

o c) Expected payoff

o d) None
Answer: c
6. The saddle point in a payoff matrix is:

o a) Minimum of row maxima and maximum of column minima

o b) Maximum of row minima and minimum of column maxima

o c) Any point in the matrix

o d) None
Answer: b

7. If a game has a saddle point:

o a) Both players use mixed strategies

o b) Both players have optimal pure strategies

o c) No optimal solution

o d) None
Answer: b

8. The Minimax principle is used by:

o a) Row player

o b) Column player

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: a

9. The Maxmin principle is used by:

o a) Row player

o b) Column player

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: b

10. The algebraic method is used for:

o a) Solving 2x2 games without saddle point

o b) 3x3 games
o c) 2x3 games

o d) None
Answer: a

11. The graphical method is used for:

o a) 2x2 games

o b) 2xn or mx2 games

o c) nxn games

o d) None
Answer: b

12. Dominance in game theory means:

o a) Eliminating superior strategies

o b) Eliminating inferior strategies

o c) Adding new strategies

o d) None
Answer: b

13. A strictly dominated strategy is:

o a) Never optimal

o b) Sometimes optimal

o c) Always optimal

o d) None
Answer: a

14. The number of pure strategies in a 3x3 game is:

o a) 2 for each player

o b) 3 for each player

o c) 4 for each player

o d) None
Answer: b

15. The payoff matrix represents:


o a) Gains/losses of one player

o b) Gains/losses of both players

o c) Only losses

o d) None
Answer: b

16. In a zero-sum game, the sum of payoffs is:

o a) Zero

o b) One

o c) Two

o d) None
Answer: a

17. A game with no saddle point requires:

o a) Pure strategies

o b) Mixed strategies

o c) No strategies

o d) None
Answer: b

18. The value of a fair game is:

o a) Positive

o b) Negative

o c) Zero

o d) None
Answer: c

19. The rule of dominance can be applied to:

o a) Rows

o b) Columns

o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: c

20. The optimal strategy maximizes:

o a) Minimum gain

o b) Maximum loss

o c) Minimum loss

o d) None
Answer: a

21. The Minimax value equals Maxmin value at:

o a) Any point

o b) Saddle point

o c) Mixed strategy

o d) None
Answer: b

22. The expected value of a mixed strategy is:

o a) Weighted average payoff

o b) Maximum payoff

o c) Minimum payoff

o d) None
Answer: a

23. A Nash equilibrium exists when:

o a) Both players randomize

o b) No player can improve by changing strategy

o c) One player dominates

o d) None
Answer: b

24. The best response is:

o a) Any move
o b) The optimal counter to opponent’s move

o c) Random move

o d) None
Answer: b

25. The value of a game for the column player is:

o a) Same as row player

o b) Negative of row player’s value

o c) Double the row player’s value

o d) None
Answer: b

26. A strictly dominated strategy should be:

o a) Used

o b) Eliminated

o c) Randomized

o d) None
Answer: b

27. The Minimax value is:

o a) Maximum of row minima

o b) Minimum of row maxima

o c) Maximum of column minima

o d) None
Answer: a

28. The Maxmin value is:

o a) Maximum of column minima

o b) Minimum of column maxima

o c) Maximum of row minima

o d) None
Answer: b
29. If Minimax ≠ Maxmin, then:

o a) Pure strategies are optimal

o b) Mixed strategies are needed

o c) No solution

o d) None
Answer: b

30. The game is fair if:

o a) Value is positive

o b) Value is negative

o c) Value is zero

o d) None
Answer: c

UNIT-III: Replacement Theory

1. Replacement theory deals with:

o a) Replacing deteriorating items

o b) Replacing only new items

o c) Replacing only old items

o d) None
Answer: a

2. Individual replacement policy is best for:

o a) Items failing at fixed intervals

o b) Items failing at random

o c) Items never failing

o d) None
Answer: b

3. Group replacement policy is best for:


o a) Items replaced at fixed intervals

o b) Items replaced at random

o c) Items never replaced

o d) None
Answer: a

4. The economic life of an asset is:

o a) Maximum period

o b) Minimum period

o c) Period with minimum average cost

o d) None
Answer: c

5. Replacement is needed when:

o a) Maintenance cost increases

o b) Maintenance cost decreases

o c) No maintenance cost

o d) None
Answer: a

6. The average cost method is used to:

o a) Find maximum cost

o b) Determine replacement period

o c) Find minimum cost

o d) None
Answer: b

7. Sudden failure items are replaced by:

o a) Group replacement

o b) Individual replacement

o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: c

8. Gradual failure items are replaced by:

o a) Individual replacement

o b) Group replacement

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: a

9. The replacement period is:

o a) When cost is maximum

o b) When average cost is minimum

o c) When cost is zero

o d) None
Answer: b

10. The salvage value is:

o a) Value at end of useful life

o b) Initial value

o c) Maximum value

o d) None
Answer: a

11. Replacement models are used for:

o a) Equipment

o b) Human resources

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: c

12. The present worth method considers:

o a) Time value of money


o b) Only current cost

o c) Only future cost

o d) None
Answer: a

13. The maintenance cost curve is:

o a) Downward sloping

o b) Upward sloping

o c) Flat

o d) None
Answer: b

14. The capital cost curve is:

o a) Downward sloping

o b) Upward sloping

o c) Flat

o d) None
Answer: a

15. The optimal replacement age is:

o a) Where cost is maximum

o b) Where cost is zero

o c) Where total cost is minimum

o d) None
Answer: c

16. Sudden failure items include:

o a) Machines

o b) Light bulbs

o c) Computers

o d) None
Answer: b
17. Gradual failure items include:

o a) Machines

o b) Light bulbs

o c) Computers

o d) None
Answer: a

18. Replacement due to obsolescence is:

o a) Physical replacement

o b) Technological replacement

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: b

19. The group replacement policy is:

o a) Economical for large numbers

o b) Economical for small numbers

o c) Not economical

o d) None
Answer: a

20. The individual replacement policy is:

o a) Used when failures are frequent

o b) Used when failures are rare

o c) Not used

o d) None
Answer: b

21. The cost of downtime is:

o a) Loss due to equipment failure

o b) Gain due to equipment failure


o c) No effect

o d) None
Answer: a

22. The replacement interval is:

o a) Time between purchases

o b) Time between replacements

o c) Time between failures

o d) None
Answer: b

23. The replacement of human resources is based on:

o a) Efficiency and cost

o b) Only age

o c) Only salary

o d) None
Answer: a

24. The replacement policy aims to:

o a) Maximize cost

o b) Minimize total cost

o c) Maximize downtime

o d) None
Answer: b

25. The average cost per period is:

o a) Total cost × periods

o b) Total cost ÷ number of periods

o c) Number of periods ÷ total cost

o d) None
Answer: b

26. The present value of future costs is:


o a) Discounted cost

o b) Increased cost

o c) No effect

o d) None
Answer: a

27. The replacement model assumes:

o a) Unpredictable failure rates

o b) Predictable failure rates

o c) No failure

o d) None
Answer: b

28. The cost of replacement includes:

o a) Purchase and installation

o b) Only purchase

o c) Only installation

o d) None
Answer: a

29. The replacement of items with increasing maintenance cost is:

o a) Sudden failure model

o b) Probabilistic model

o c) Gradual failure model

o d) None
Answer: c

30. The replacement of items with sudden failure is:

o a) Deterministic model

o b) Probabilistic model

o c) Stochastic model
o d) None
Answer: b

UNIT-IV: PERT and CPM

1. PERT stands for:

o a) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

o b) Project Evaluation and Review Technique

o c) Project Estimation and Review Technique

o d) None
Answer: a

2. CPM stands for:

o a) Critical Project Method

o b) Critical Path Method

o c) Critical Planning Method

o d) None
Answer: b

3. PERT is:

o a) Probabilistic

o b) Deterministic

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: a

4. CPM is:

o a) Probabilistic

o b) Deterministic

o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: b

5. The critical path is:

o a) Shortest path in the network

o b) Longest path in the network

o c) Any path in the network

o d) None
Answer: b

6. The critical path determines:

o a) Project cost

o b) Project duration

o c) Project resources

o d) None
Answer: b

7. Slack is:

o a) Difference between latest and earliest times

o b) Difference between start and finish

o c) Always zero

o d) None
Answer: a

8. The earliest start time is:

o a) Earliest time an activity can begin

o b) Latest time an activity can begin

o c) Any time

o d) None
Answer: a

9. The latest finish time is:

o a) Earliest time an activity can finish


o b) Latest time an activity can finish without delaying the project

o c) Any time

o d) None
Answer: b

10. Dummy activities are used to:

o a) Maintain logical relationships

o b) Increase project duration

o c) Decrease project cost

o d) None
Answer: a

11. The expected time in PERT is:

o a) (Optimistic + Pessimistic + Most Likely)/3

o b) (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic)/6

o c) (Optimistic + Most Likely)/2

o d) None
Answer: b

12. The variance of an activity in PERT is:

o a) ((Pessimistic - Optimistic)/3)^2

o b) ((Pessimistic - Optimistic)/6)^2

o c) ((Pessimistic - Optimistic)/2)^2

o d) None
Answer: b

13. The standard deviation of the critical path is:

o a) Sum of variances

o b) Square root of sum of variances

o c) Product of variances

o d) None
Answer: b
14. Float is:

o a) Time an activity can be delayed without affecting project

o b) Extra time for project

o c) Always zero

o d) None
Answer: a

15. CPM is best suited for:

o a) Repetitive projects

o b) Research projects

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: a

16. PERT is best for:

o a) Repetitive projects

o b) Research and development projects

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: b

17. The critical path has:

o a) Zero slack

o b) Maximum slack

o c) Minimum slack

o d) None
Answer: a

18. The project network is:

o a) Table representation

o b) Graphical representation of activities


o c) List of activities

o d) None
Answer: b

19. The earliest finish time is:

o a) Earliest start + duration

o b) Latest finish - duration

o c) Any time

o d) None
Answer: a

20. The latest start time is:

o a) Earliest finish - duration

o b) Latest finish - duration

o c) Any time

o d) None
Answer: b

21. The network diagram is used to:

o a) Schedule activities

o b) Estimate cost

o c) Estimate resources

o d) None
Answer: a

22. The critical activity is:

o a) Any activity

o b) On the critical path

o c) Not on the critical path

o d) None
Answer: b

23. The float of a critical activity is:


o a) Zero

o b) Maximum

o c) Minimum

o d) None
Answer: a

24. The project duration is:

o a) Duration of shortest path

o b) Duration of critical path

o c) Average of all paths

o d) None
Answer: b

25. The earliest event time is found by:

o a) Forward pass

o b) Backward pass

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: a

26. The latest event time is found by:

o a) Forward pass

o b) Backward pass

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: b

27. The project is delayed if:

o a) Any activity is delayed

o b) Any critical activity is delayed

o c) Any dummy activity is delayed


o d) None
Answer: b

28. The expected project duration in PERT is:

o a) Sum of durations of all activities

o b) Sum of expected times on critical path

o c) Average of all durations

o d) None
Answer: b

29. The probability of completion is found using:

o a) Standard deviation of critical path

o b) Mean of critical path

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: a

30. Dummy activities have:

o a) Zero duration

o b) Maximum duration

o c) Minimum duration

o d) None
Answer: a

UNIT-V: Job Sequencing

1. Job sequencing is used to:

o a) Minimize total elapsed time

o b) Maximize total elapsed time

o c) Minimize cost
o d) None
Answer: a

2. Johnson’s algorithm is used for:

o a) n jobs on 1 machine

o b) n jobs on 2 machines

o c) n jobs on 3 machines

o d) None
Answer: b

3. The objective of sequencing is:

o a) Minimize idle time

o b) Maximize idle time

o c) Minimize cost

o d) None
Answer: a

4. The number of possible sequences for n jobs is:

o a) n

o b) n!

o c) 2n

o d) None
Answer: b

5. The optimal sequence minimizes:

o a) Makespan

o b) Idle time

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: c

6. In Johnson’s rule, the job with minimum time is:

o a) Scheduled first
o b) Scheduled last

o c) Scheduled first or last

o d) None
Answer: c

7. The two-machine problem can be solved by:

o a) Johnson’s algorithm

o b) Hungarian method

o c) Simplex method

o d) None
Answer: a

8. The total elapsed time is:

o a) Time from start of first job to end of last job

o b) Time for each job

o c) Time for each machine

o d) None
Answer: a

9. Idle time on machines is:

o a) Unproductive time

o b) Productive time

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: a

10. The sequencing problem is:

o a) Linear programming

o b) Combinatorial optimization

o c) Game theory

o d) None
Answer: b
11. The processing order affects:

o a) Cost

o b) Total elapsed time

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: b

12. The minimum makespan is:

o a) Optimal solution

o b) Suboptimal solution

o c) Random solution

o d) None
Answer: a

13. The sequencing problem for 3 machines is:

o a) Simpler than 2 machines

o b) More complex than 2 machines

o c) Same as 2 machines

o d) None
Answer: b

14. The job with least processing time is:

o a) Scheduled first

o b) Scheduled last

o c) Scheduled first or last

o d) None
Answer: c

15. The number of machines in Johnson’s algorithm is:

o a) 2

o b) 3
o c) 4

o d) None
Answer: a

16. The Gantt chart is used to:

o a) Visualize job schedules

o b) Solve LPP

o c) Solve transportation problem

o d) None
Answer: a

17. The sequencing problem aims to:

o a) Optimize machine utilization

o b) Minimize cost

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: a

18. The flow shop scheduling is:

o a) Jobs processed in same order

o b) Jobs processed in different orders

o c) Random order

o d) None
Answer: a

19. The job shop scheduling is:

o a) Jobs processed in different orders

o b) Jobs processed in same order

o c) Random order

o d) None
Answer: a

20. The sequence with minimum idle time is:


o a) Random sequence

o b) Optimal sequence

o c) Suboptimal sequence

o d) None
Answer: b

21. The processing time matrix shows:

o a) Time for each job on each machine

o b) Time for each job

o c) Time for each machine

o d) None
Answer: a

22. The sequence affects:

o a) Cost

o b) Completion time

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: b

23. The sequencing problem is solved by:

o a) Algorithms

o b) Guesswork

o c) Random order

o d) None
Answer: a

24. The two-machine sequencing problem is:

o a) Solved by Hungarian method

o b) Solved by Johnson’s rule

o c) Solved by simplex method


o d) None
Answer: b

25. The minimum total elapsed time is:

o a) Objective of sequencing

o b) Random value

o c) Maximum value

o d) None
Answer: a

26. The number of sequences increases:

o a) Linearly with jobs

o b) Factorially with jobs

o c) Exponentially with jobs

o d) None
Answer: b

27. The optimal sequence is:

o a) Sequence with minimum makespan

o b) Sequence with maximum makespan

o c) Random sequence

o d) None
Answer: a

28. The idle time is:

o a) Time machines are not working

o b) Time machines are working

o c) Both

o d) None
Answer: a

29. The sequencing problem is:

o a) Linear programming
o b) NP-hard for many machines

o c) Game theory

o d) None
Answer: b

30. The solution of sequencing problem is:

o a) Optimal order of jobs

o b) Random order of jobs

o c) Maximum idle time

o d) None
Answer: a

These questions and answers are aligned with your syllabus and course outcomes[1].

1. IMG_20250514_210108.jpg

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