Create 50 questions of each unit and all questions is
objective with answers and its a subject of
optimization and techniques of bca 2nd year
Here are 50 objective (multiple-choice) questions for each unit of the BCA-4004 "Optimization
Techniques" course, along with their answers. The questions cover the key concepts as outlined in the
syllabus.
UNIT-I: Linear Programming
1. Which of the following is a requirement for a linear programming problem?
o (a) Objective function and constraints must be linear [Answer: a]
2. The region satisfying all the constraints in an LPP is called:
o (a) Feasible region [Answer: a]
3. The Simplex method is used to:
o (b) Solve linear programming problems [Answer: b]
4. In LPP, the restrictions are called:
o (c) Constraints [Answer: c]
5. The dual of a minimization problem is:
o (b) A maximization problem [Answer: b]
6. The solution to an LPP always lies at:
o (a) A corner point of the feasible region [Answer: a]
7. Slack variables are introduced to:
o (a) Convert inequalities to equalities [Answer: a]
8. Which method is graphical for two variables?
o (b) Graphical method [Answer: b]
9. If an LPP has multiple optimal solutions, what is true?
o (b) The objective function is parallel to a constraint [Answer: b]
10. A degenerate solution in simplex occurs when:
o (c) At least one basic variable is zero [Answer: c]
11. The dual of the dual is:
o (a) The primal [Answer: a]
12. The transportation problem is a special case of:
o (a) Linear programming [Answer: a]
13. The feasible region for an LPP is always:
o (b) Convex [Answer: b]
14. Surplus variables are used for:
o (c) Greater-than-or-equal constraints [Answer: c]
15. An unbounded solution in LPP means:
o (b) The objective can increase indefinitely [Answer: b]
16. If the feasible region is empty, the LPP is:
o (c) Infeasible [Answer: c]
17. The minimum number of constraints for a bounded region in 2D is:
o (b) 3 [Answer: b]
18. Artificial variables are used in:
o (a) Big-M method [Answer: a]
19. The Simplex method moves from:
o (c) One vertex to another [Answer: c]
20. The number of variables in the dual equals:
o (a) The number of constraints in the primal [Answer: a]
21. The assignment problem is a special case of:
o (b) Transportation problem [Answer: b]
22. The primal and dual have:
o (a) Same optimal value [Answer: a]
23. If all constraints are ≤, the dual variables are:
o (b) Non-negative [Answer: b]
24. The optimal solution of an LPP can be:
o (d) Unique, multiple, or unbounded [Answer: d]
25. The graphical method can solve problems with:
o (a) Two variables [Answer: a]
26. The simplex method stops when:
o (c) All Cj-Zj ≤ 0 (for maximization) [Answer: c]
27. In LPP, the objective function is:
o (a) Linear [Answer: a]
28. The dual simplex method is used when:
o (b) Solution is infeasible but optimal [Answer: b]
29. The shadow price in LPP refers to:
o (c) Marginal value of a resource [Answer: c]
30. A basic feasible solution has:
o (b) m basic variables (for m constraints) [Answer: b]
31. The simplex tableau is used for:
o (a) Iterative solution [Answer: a]
32. Redundant constraints:
o (b) Do not affect the feasible region [Answer: b]
33. The value of the objective function at an infeasible solution is:
o (d) Not meaningful [Answer: d]
34. The minimum number of variables in an LPP is:
o (a) 2 [Answer: a]
35. The dual of a dual problem is:
o (a) The primal [Answer: a]
36. A solution is optimal if:
o (a) No adjacent feasible solution improves the objective [Answer: a]
37. The simplex method requires:
o (b) Initial basic feasible solution [Answer: b]
38. If an LPP has no feasible solution, it is:
o (c) Infeasible [Answer: c]
39. The assignment problem can be solved by:
o (a) Hungarian method [Answer: a]
40. The number of constraints in the dual equals:
o (b) Number of variables in the primal [Answer: b]
41. The feasible region may be:
o (a) Bounded or unbounded [Answer: a]
42. The optimal value of the dual is:
o (a) Equal to the primal [Answer: a]
43. A slack variable is always:
o (b) Non-negative [Answer: b]
44. The simplex method can be used for:
o (a) Maximization and minimization problems [Answer: a]
45. The graphical method is not suitable for:
o (c) More than two variables [Answer: c]
46. The Big-M method is used to:
o (a) Handle artificial variables [Answer: a]
47. The feasible region for LPP is:
o (b) Intersection of half-planes [Answer: b]
48. The value of an artificial variable in the final solution should be:
o (c) Zero [Answer: c]
49. The dual variable represents:
o (a) Shadow price [Answer: a]
50. The simplex method improves the solution by:
o (c) Pivot operations [Answer: c]
UNIT-II: Game Theory
1. Game theory deals with:
o (a) Decision making under conflict [Answer: a]
2. A two-person zero-sum game means:
o (b) One's gain is other's loss [Answer: b]
3. A pure strategy is:
o (a) Always choosing the same move [Answer: a]
4. A mixed strategy is:
o (b) Randomizing over moves [Answer: b]
5. The value of a game is:
o (c) Expected payoff [Answer: c]
6. The saddle point in a payoff matrix is:
o (a) Minimum of row maxima and maximum of column minima [Answer: a]
7. If a game has a saddle point:
o (b) Both players have optimal pure strategies [Answer: b]
8. The Minimax principle is used by:
o (a) The row player [Answer: a]
9. The Maxmin principle is used by:
o (b) The column player [Answer: b]
10. The algebraic method is used for:
o (a) Solving 2x2 games without saddle point [Answer: a]
11. The graphical method is used for:
o (b) Solving 2xn or mx2 games [Answer: b]
12. Dominance in game theory means:
o (c) Eliminating inferior strategies [Answer: c]
13. A strictly dominated strategy is:
o (a) Never optimal [Answer: a]
14. The number of pure strategies in a 3x3 game is:
o (c) 3 for each player [Answer: c]
15. The payoff matrix represents:
o (b) Gains/losses of the players [Answer: b]
16. In a zero-sum game, the sum of payoffs is:
o (a) Zero [Answer: a]
17. A game with no saddle point requires:
o (b) Mixed strategies [Answer: b]
18. The value of a fair game is:
o (c) Zero [Answer: c]
19. A 2x2 game with no saddle point is solved by:
o (a) Algebraic method [Answer: a]
20. The rule of dominance can be applied to:
o (d) Rows and columns [Answer: d]
21. The optimal strategy maximizes:
o (a) Minimum gain [Answer: a]
22. The Minimax value equals Maxmin value at:
o (b) Saddle point [Answer: b]
23. The graphical method is suitable for:
o (a) 2xn or mx2 games [Answer: a]
24. The algebraic method is not suitable for:
o (c) Games larger than 2x2 [Answer: c]
25. The principle of dominance helps to:
o (b) Reduce the size of the matrix [Answer: b]
26. The expected value of a mixed strategy is:
o (a) Weighted average payoff [Answer: a]
27. A strictly dominant strategy is:
o (a) Always better than others [Answer: a]
28. A Nash equilibrium exists when:
o (b) No player can improve by changing strategy [Answer: b]
29. The payoff matrix for a zero-sum game is:
o (a) Square or rectangular [Answer: a]
30. The best response is:
o (b) The optimal counter to opponent's move [Answer: b]
31. The value of a game is unique if:
o (a) Saddle point exists [Answer: a]
32. In a 2x2 game, the value is found by:
o (b) Solving two equations [Answer: b]
33. The solution of a game gives:
o (a) Optimal strategies and value [Answer: a]
34. A dominant strategy is:
o (b) Better regardless of opponent [Answer: b]
35. If both players randomize, the game is:
o (c) Mixed strategy game [Answer: c]
36. The Minimax theorem was proved by:
o (a) John von Neumann [Answer: a]
37. A pure strategy equilibrium is:
o (a) Both players use pure strategies [Answer: a]
38. The value of a game for the column player is:
o (b) Negative of row player's value [Answer: b]
39. A strictly dominated strategy should be:
o (a) Eliminated [Answer: a]
40. The number of possible strategies in a 2x3 game for row player is:
o (a) 2 [Answer: a]
41. The Minimax value is:
o (a) Maximum of row minima [Answer: a]
42. The Maxmin value is:
o (b) Minimum of column maxima [Answer: b]
43. If Minimax ≠ Maxmin, then:
o (c) Mixed strategies are needed [Answer: c]
44. The row player tries to:
o (a) Maximize payoff [Answer: a]
45. The column player tries to:
o (b) Minimize loss [Answer: b]
46. A game with a value of zero is called:
o (c) Fair game [Answer: c]
47. The solution of a game is:
o (a) Set of optimal strategies [Answer: a]
48. The payoff matrix is used to:
o (b) Analyze strategies [Answer: b]
49. The rules of dominance are:
o (a) Used to simplify games [Answer: a]
50. A Nash equilibrium is:
o (b) Stable outcome [Answer: b]
UNIT-III: Replacement Theory
1. Replacement theory deals with:
o (a) Replacement of deteriorating items [Answer: a]
2. Individual replacement policy is best for:
o (b) Items failing at random [Answer: b]
3. Group replacement policy is best for:
o (a) Items replaced at fixed intervals [Answer: a]
4. The economic life of an asset is:
o (c) Period with minimum average cost [Answer: c]
5. Replacement is needed when:
o (a) Maintenance cost increases [Answer: a]
6. The average cost method is used to:
o (b) Determine replacement period [Answer: b]
7. Sudden failure items are replaced by:
o (c) Group or individual replacement [Answer: c]
8. Gradual failure items are replaced by:
o (a) Individual replacement [Answer: a]
9. The replacement period is:
o (b) When average cost is minimum [Answer: b]
10. The salvage value is:
o (a) Value at end of useful life [Answer: a]
11. Replacement models are used for:
o (c) Both equipment and human resources [Answer: c]
12. The present worth method considers:
o (a) Time value of money [Answer: a]
13. The maintenance cost curve is:
o (b) Upward sloping [Answer: b]
14. The capital cost curve is:
o (a) Downward sloping [Answer: a]
15. The optimal replacement age is:
o (c) Where total cost is minimum [Answer: c]
16. Sudden failure items include:
o (b) Light bulbs [Answer: b]
17. Gradual failure items include:
o (a) Machines [Answer: a]
18. Replacement due to obsolescence is:
o (b) Technological replacement [Answer: b]
19. The group replacement policy is:
o (a) Economical for large numbers [Answer: a]
20. The individual replacement policy is:
o (b) Used when failures are rare [Answer: b]
21. The cost of downtime is:
o (a) Loss due to equipment failure [Answer: a]
22. The replacement interval is:
o (c) Time between replacements [Answer: c]
23. The replacement of human resources is based on:
o (a) Efficiency and cost [Answer: a]
24. The replacement policy aims to:
o (b) Minimize total cost [Answer: b]
25. The average cost per period is:
o (c) Total cost divided by number of periods [Answer: c]
26. The present value of future costs is:
o (a) Discounted cost [Answer: a]
27. The replacement model assumes:
o (b) Predictable failure rates [Answer: b]
28. The cost of replacement includes:
o (a) Purchase and installation [Answer: a]
29. The replacement of items with increasing maintenance cost is:
o (c) Gradual failure model [Answer: c]
30. The replacement of items with sudden failure is:
o (b) Probabilistic model [Answer: b]
31. The optimal group replacement period is:
o (a) Where total expected cost is minimum [Answer: a]
32. The replacement of items before failure is:
o (b) Preventive replacement [Answer: b]
33. The replacement of items after failure is:
o (a) Corrective replacement [Answer: a]
34. The replacement policy is influenced by:
o (c) Cost and reliability [Answer: c]
35. The decision to replace is based on:
o (a) Economic considerations [Answer: a]
36. The replacement of items with constant failure rate is:
o (c) Memoryless property [Answer: c]
37. The cost of replacement is minimized by:
o (a) Optimal scheduling [Answer: a]
38. The replacement of items with decreasing efficiency is:
o (b) Gradual failure model [Answer: b]
39. The replacement of items with age is:
o (a) Age replacement policy [Answer: a]
40. The replacement of items with usage is:
o (b) Usage replacement policy [Answer: b]
41. The replacement interval for group policy is:
o (c) Fixed period [Answer: c]
42. The replacement of items with random failure is:
o (a) Probabilistic model [Answer: a]
43. The replacement of items with known life is:
o (b) Deterministic model [Answer: b]
44. The replacement of items with variable life is:
o (c) Stochastic model [Answer: c]
45. The replacement of items with increasing failure rate is:
o (a) Bathtub curve [Answer: a]
46. The replacement of items with decreasing failure rate is:
o (b) Infant mortality [Answer: b]
47. The replacement of items with constant cost is:
o (c) Not economical [Answer: c]
48. The replacement of items with increasing cost is:
o (a) Economical [Answer: a]
49. The replacement of items with decreasing cost is:
o (b) Not required [Answer: b]
50. The replacement model is used for:
o (c) Both equipment and human resources [Answer: c]
UNIT-IV: PERT and CPM
1. PERT stands for:
o (a) Program Evaluation and Review Technique [Answer: a]
2. CPM stands for:
o (b) Critical Path Method [Answer: b]
3. PERT is:
o (a) Probabilistic [Answer: a]
4. CPM is:
o (b) Deterministic [Answer: b]
5. The critical path is:
o (a) Longest path in the network [Answer: a]
6. The critical path determines:
o (b) Project duration [Answer: b]
7. Slack is:
o (a) Difference between latest and earliest times [Answer: a]
8. The earliest start time is:
o (a) Earliest time an activity can begin [Answer: a]
9. The latest finish time is:
o (b) Latest time an activity can finish without delaying the project [Answer: b]
10. Dummy activities are used to:
o (a) Maintain logical relationships [Answer: a]
11. The expected time in PERT is:
o (c) (Optimistic + 4 × Most Likely + Pessimistic)/6 [Answer: c]
12. The variance of an activity in PERT is:
o (b) ((Pessimistic - Optimistic)/6)^2 [Answer: b]
13. The standard deviation of the critical path is:
o (a) Square root of sum of variances [Answer: a]
14. Float is:
o (b) Time an activity can be delayed without affecting project [Answer: b]
15. CPM is best suited for:
o (a) Repetitive projects [Answer: a]
16. PERT is best for:
o (b) Research and development projects [Answer: b]
17. The critical path has:
o (a) Zero slack [Answer: a]
18. The project network is:
o (b) A graphical representation of activities [Answer: b]
19. The earliest finish time is:
o (a) Earliest start + duration [Answer: a]
20. The latest start time is:
o (b) Latest finish - duration [Answer: b]
21. The network diagram is used to:
o (a) Schedule activities [Answer: a]
22. The critical activity is:
o (b) On the critical path [Answer: b]
23. The float of a critical activity is:
o (a) Zero [Answer: a]
24. The project duration is:
o (b) Duration of critical path [Answer: b]
25. The earliest event time is found by:
o (a) Forward pass [Answer: a]
26. The latest event time is found by:
o (b) Backward pass [Answer: b]
27. The project is delayed if:
o (a) Any critical activity is delayed [Answer: a]
28. The expected project duration in PERT is:
o (b) Sum of expected times on critical path [Answer: b]
29. The probability of completion is found using:
o (a) Standard deviation of critical path [Answer: a]
30. The network diagram uses:
o (b) Nodes and arrows [Answer: b]
31. Dummy activities have:
o (a) Zero duration [Answer: a]
32. The earliest start of an activity depends on:
o (b) Completion of predecessor activities [Answer: b]
33. The latest finish of an activity depends on:
o (a) Start of successor activities [Answer: a]
34. The main objective of CPM is:
o (b) Minimize project duration [Answer: b]
35. The main objective of PERT is:
o (a) Minimize uncertainty [Answer: a]
36. The network diagram helps to:
o (b) Identify critical activities [Answer: b]
37. The total float is:
o (a) Latest finish - earliest start - duration [Answer: a]
38. The free float is:
o (b) Earliest start of successor - earliest finish [Answer: b]
39. The independent float is:
o (a) Amount of delay without affecting successors [Answer: a]
40. The activity with zero total float is:
o (b) Critical activity [Answer: b]
41. The project completion probability is:
o (a) Calculated using Z-score [Answer: a]
42. The PERT network is:
o (b) Event-oriented [Answer: b]
43. The CPM network is:
o (a) Activity-oriented [Answer: a]
44. The optimistic time is:
o (b) Minimum possible time [Answer: b]
45. The pessimistic time is:
o (a) Maximum possible time [Answer: a]
46. The most likely time is:
o (b) Best estimate of time [Answer: b]
47. The critical path is:
o (a) Path with longest duration [Answer: a]
48. The slack of an event is:
o (b) Latest - earliest event time [Answer: b]
49. The project can be expedited by:
o (a) Crashing critical activities [Answer: a]
50. The main advantage of PERT/CPM is:
o (c) Effective project management [Answer: c]
UNIT-V: Job Sequencing
1. Job sequencing is used to:
o (a) Minimize total elapsed time [Answer: a]
2. Johnson’s algorithm is used for:
o (b) Sequencing n jobs on 2 machines [Answer: b]
3. The objective of sequencing is:
o (a) Minimize idle time [Answer: a]
4. The number of possible sequences for n jobs is:
o (b) n! [Answer: b]
5. The optimal sequence minimizes:
o (a) Makespan [Answer: a]
6. In Johnson’s rule, the job with minimum time is:
o (b) Scheduled first or last [Answer: b]
7. The two-machine problem can be solved by:
o (a) Johnson’s algorithm [Answer: a]
8. The total elapsed time is:
o (b) Time from start of first job to end of last job [Answer: b]
9. Idle time on machines is:
o (a) Unproductive time [Answer: a]
10. The sequencing problem is:
o (c) Combinatorial optimization [Answer: c]
11. The processing order affects:
o (b) Total elapsed time [Answer: b]
12. The minimum makespan is:
o (a) Optimal solution [Answer: a]
13. The sequencing problem for 3 machines is:
o (c) More complex than 2 machines [Answer: c]
14. The job with least processing time is:
o (b) Scheduled first or last [Answer: b]
15. The number of machines in Johnson’s algorithm is:
o (a) 2 [Answer: a]
16. The Gantt chart is used to:
o (b) Visualize job schedules [Answer: b]
17. The sequencing problem aims to:
o (a) Optimize machine utilization [Answer: a]
18. The flow shop scheduling is:
o (b) Jobs processed in same order [Answer: b]
19. The job shop scheduling is:
o (a) Jobs processed in different orders [Answer: a]
20. The sequence with minimum idle time is:
o (b) Optimal sequence [Answer: b]
21. The processing time matrix shows:
o (a) Time for each job on each machine [Answer: a]
22. The sequence affects:
o (b) Completion time [Answer: b]
23. The sequencing problem is solved by:
o (a) Algorithms [Answer: a]
24. The two-machine sequencing problem is:
o (c) Solved by Johnson’s rule [Answer: c]
25. The minimum total elapsed time is:
o (a) Objective of sequencing [Answer: a]
26. The number of sequences increases:
o (b) Factorially with jobs [Answer: b]
27. The optimal sequence is:
o (a) Sequence with minimum makespan [Answer: a]
28. The idle time is:
o (b) Time machines are not working [Answer: b]
29. The sequencing problem is:
o (c) NP-hard for many machines [Answer: c]
30. The job with minimum processing time is:
o (a) Scheduled at earliest possible [Answer: a]
31. The two-machine sequencing problem assumes:
o (b) Each job processed on both machines [Answer: b]
32. The solution of sequencing problem gives:
o (a) Optimal order of jobs [Answer: a]
33. The processing time is:
o (b) Time taken by a job on a machine [Answer: b]
34. The idle time is minimized by:
o (a) Optimal sequencing [Answer: a]
35. The sequencing problem is:
o (c) Scheduling problem [Answer: c]
36. The optimal sequence is found by:
o (a) Johnson’s algorithm [Answer: a]
37. The job with least processing time is:
o (b) Scheduled first or last [Answer: b]
38. The makespan is:
o (a) Total time to complete all jobs [Answer: a]
39. The sequencing problem is:
o (b) Combinatorial [Answer: b]
40. The solution minimizes:
o (a) Total elapsed time [Answer: a]
41. The two-machine sequencing problem is:
o (c) Solved by Johnson’s rule [Answer: c]
42. The sequence affects:
o (b) Idle time [Answer: b]
43. The processing order is:
o (a) Order in which jobs are processed [Answer: a]
44. The optimal sequence:
o (b) Minimizes makespan [Answer: b]
45. The sequencing problem is:
o (c) Scheduling problem [Answer: c]
46. The Gantt chart shows:
o (a) Job schedules [Answer: a]
47. The processing time matrix is:
o (b) Input for sequencing [Answer: b]
48. The idle time is:
o (a) Time machines are not working [Answer: a]
49. The sequencing problem is:
o (c) Optimization problem [Answer: c]
50. The solution of sequencing problem is:
o (a) Optimal order of jobs [Answer: a]
These questions cover the full breadth of the syllabus for each unit, are objective in nature, and include
the correct answers as requested.
⁂
You can show 30 objective on each unit questions
with answers and different 4 choice of an each
question
Here are 30 objective (multiple-choice) questions with four options and answers for each unit of the BCA-
4004 "Optimization Techniques" syllabus, as per your request and the provided syllabus[1].
UNIT-I: Linear Programming
1. Which of the following is a linear programming method?
o a) Simplex method
o b) Newton’s method
o c) Secant method
o d) Bisection method
Answer: a
2. The feasible region of an LPP is always:
o a) Circular
o b) Convex
o c) Concave
o d) Irregular
Answer: b
3. The dual of a minimization problem is:
o a) Another minimization problem
o b) A maximization problem
o c) An assignment problem
o d) A transportation problem
Answer: b
4. Slack variables are used to:
o a) Convert inequalities to equalities
o b) Increase objective value
o c) Reduce constraints
o d) None of these
Answer: a
5. The solution to a linear programming problem always lies at:
o a) Center of feasible region
o b) Boundary point
o c) Corner point
o d) Any point
Answer: c
6. The graphical method is suitable for:
o a) 1 variable
o b) 2 variables
o c) 3 variables
o d) Any number of variables
Answer: b
7. Surplus variables are used for:
o a) ≤ constraints
o b) = constraints
o c) ≥ constraints
o d) None
Answer: c
8. An unbounded solution in LPP means:
o a) No solution
o b) Infinite solutions
o c) Objective function can increase indefinitely
o d) None
Answer: c
9. If the feasible region is empty, the LPP is:
o a) Unbounded
o b) Infeasible
o c) Degenerate
o d) Multiple solution
Answer: b
10. Artificial variables are introduced in:
o a) Simplex method
o b) Big-M method
o c) Dual simplex
o d) Graphical method
Answer: b
11. The simplex method moves from:
o a) Center to boundary
o b) One vertex to another
o c) Random points
o d) None
Answer: b
12. The transportation problem is a special case of:
o a) Assignment problem
o b) Linear programming
o c) Game theory
o d) Sequencing
Answer: b
13. The assignment problem is a special case of:
o a) Transportation problem
o b) Linear programming
o c) Game theory
o d) Sequencing
Answer: a
14. The dual variable is also known as:
o a) Slack variable
o b) Surplus variable
o c) Shadow price
o d) Artificial variable
Answer: c
15. The optimal solution of an LPP can be:
o a) Unique
o b) Multiple
o c) Unbounded
o d) All of these
Answer: d
16. Redundant constraints:
o a) Affect solution
o b) Do not affect feasible region
o c) Change objective function
o d) None
Answer: b
17. The Big-M method is used for:
o a) Handling artificial variables
o b) Reducing variables
o c) Increasing constraints
o d) None
Answer: a
18. The dual of the dual is:
o a) Primal
o b) Dual
o c) None
o d) Both
Answer: a
19. The value of an artificial variable in the final solution should be:
o a) Positive
o b) Negative
o c) Zero
o d) Any value
Answer: c
20. The simplex tableau is used for:
o a) Graphical solution
o b) Iterative calculations
o c) Assignment problem
o d) None
Answer: b
21. The number of constraints in the dual equals:
o a) Number of variables in primal
o b) Number of constraints in primal
o c) Number of slack variables
o d) None
Answer: a
22. The feasible region may be:
o a) Bounded
o b) Unbounded
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: c
23. A degenerate solution occurs when:
o a) All basic variables are positive
o b) At least one basic variable is zero
o c) All constraints are equalities
o d) None
Answer: b
24. The shadow price refers to:
o a) Slack variable value
o b) Marginal value of a resource
o c) Surplus variable
o d) None
Answer: b
25. The primal and dual have:
o a) Same optimal value
o b) Different optimal values
o c) No relation
o d) None
Answer: a
26. The assignment problem can be solved by:
o a) Hungarian method
o b) Simplex method
o c) Dual simplex
o d) None
Answer: a
27. The minimum number of constraints for a bounded region in 2D is:
o a) 2
o b) 3
o c) 4
o d) 5
Answer: b
28. The simplex method stops when:
o a) All Cj-Zj ≥ 0 (for maximization)
o b) All Cj-Zj ≤ 0 (for maximization)
o c) All variables are basic
o d) None
Answer: b
29. The value of the objective function at an infeasible solution is:
o a) Maximum
o b) Minimum
o c) Not meaningful
o d) Zero
Answer: c
30. The number of variables in the dual equals:
o a) Number of constraints in primal
o b) Number of variables in primal
o c) Number of slack variables
o d) None
Answer: a
UNIT-II: Game Theory
1. Game theory deals with:
o a) Decision making under certainty
o b) Decision making under conflict
o c) Decision making under risk
o d) None
Answer: b
2. A two-person zero-sum game means:
o a) Both win
o b) One’s gain is other’s loss
o c) Both lose
o d) None
Answer: b
3. A pure strategy is:
o a) Always choosing the same move
o b) Randomizing over moves
o c) Changing moves every time
o d) None
Answer: a
4. A mixed strategy is:
o a) Always choosing the same move
o b) Randomizing over moves
o c) Changing moves in sequence
o d) None
Answer: b
5. The value of a game is:
o a) Maximum gain
o b) Minimum loss
o c) Expected payoff
o d) None
Answer: c
6. The saddle point in a payoff matrix is:
o a) Minimum of row maxima and maximum of column minima
o b) Maximum of row minima and minimum of column maxima
o c) Any point in the matrix
o d) None
Answer: b
7. If a game has a saddle point:
o a) Both players use mixed strategies
o b) Both players have optimal pure strategies
o c) No optimal solution
o d) None
Answer: b
8. The Minimax principle is used by:
o a) Row player
o b) Column player
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: a
9. The Maxmin principle is used by:
o a) Row player
o b) Column player
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: b
10. The algebraic method is used for:
o a) Solving 2x2 games without saddle point
o b) 3x3 games
o c) 2x3 games
o d) None
Answer: a
11. The graphical method is used for:
o a) 2x2 games
o b) 2xn or mx2 games
o c) nxn games
o d) None
Answer: b
12. Dominance in game theory means:
o a) Eliminating superior strategies
o b) Eliminating inferior strategies
o c) Adding new strategies
o d) None
Answer: b
13. A strictly dominated strategy is:
o a) Never optimal
o b) Sometimes optimal
o c) Always optimal
o d) None
Answer: a
14. The number of pure strategies in a 3x3 game is:
o a) 2 for each player
o b) 3 for each player
o c) 4 for each player
o d) None
Answer: b
15. The payoff matrix represents:
o a) Gains/losses of one player
o b) Gains/losses of both players
o c) Only losses
o d) None
Answer: b
16. In a zero-sum game, the sum of payoffs is:
o a) Zero
o b) One
o c) Two
o d) None
Answer: a
17. A game with no saddle point requires:
o a) Pure strategies
o b) Mixed strategies
o c) No strategies
o d) None
Answer: b
18. The value of a fair game is:
o a) Positive
o b) Negative
o c) Zero
o d) None
Answer: c
19. The rule of dominance can be applied to:
o a) Rows
o b) Columns
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: c
20. The optimal strategy maximizes:
o a) Minimum gain
o b) Maximum loss
o c) Minimum loss
o d) None
Answer: a
21. The Minimax value equals Maxmin value at:
o a) Any point
o b) Saddle point
o c) Mixed strategy
o d) None
Answer: b
22. The expected value of a mixed strategy is:
o a) Weighted average payoff
o b) Maximum payoff
o c) Minimum payoff
o d) None
Answer: a
23. A Nash equilibrium exists when:
o a) Both players randomize
o b) No player can improve by changing strategy
o c) One player dominates
o d) None
Answer: b
24. The best response is:
o a) Any move
o b) The optimal counter to opponent’s move
o c) Random move
o d) None
Answer: b
25. The value of a game for the column player is:
o a) Same as row player
o b) Negative of row player’s value
o c) Double the row player’s value
o d) None
Answer: b
26. A strictly dominated strategy should be:
o a) Used
o b) Eliminated
o c) Randomized
o d) None
Answer: b
27. The Minimax value is:
o a) Maximum of row minima
o b) Minimum of row maxima
o c) Maximum of column minima
o d) None
Answer: a
28. The Maxmin value is:
o a) Maximum of column minima
o b) Minimum of column maxima
o c) Maximum of row minima
o d) None
Answer: b
29. If Minimax ≠ Maxmin, then:
o a) Pure strategies are optimal
o b) Mixed strategies are needed
o c) No solution
o d) None
Answer: b
30. The game is fair if:
o a) Value is positive
o b) Value is negative
o c) Value is zero
o d) None
Answer: c
UNIT-III: Replacement Theory
1. Replacement theory deals with:
o a) Replacing deteriorating items
o b) Replacing only new items
o c) Replacing only old items
o d) None
Answer: a
2. Individual replacement policy is best for:
o a) Items failing at fixed intervals
o b) Items failing at random
o c) Items never failing
o d) None
Answer: b
3. Group replacement policy is best for:
o a) Items replaced at fixed intervals
o b) Items replaced at random
o c) Items never replaced
o d) None
Answer: a
4. The economic life of an asset is:
o a) Maximum period
o b) Minimum period
o c) Period with minimum average cost
o d) None
Answer: c
5. Replacement is needed when:
o a) Maintenance cost increases
o b) Maintenance cost decreases
o c) No maintenance cost
o d) None
Answer: a
6. The average cost method is used to:
o a) Find maximum cost
o b) Determine replacement period
o c) Find minimum cost
o d) None
Answer: b
7. Sudden failure items are replaced by:
o a) Group replacement
o b) Individual replacement
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: c
8. Gradual failure items are replaced by:
o a) Individual replacement
o b) Group replacement
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: a
9. The replacement period is:
o a) When cost is maximum
o b) When average cost is minimum
o c) When cost is zero
o d) None
Answer: b
10. The salvage value is:
o a) Value at end of useful life
o b) Initial value
o c) Maximum value
o d) None
Answer: a
11. Replacement models are used for:
o a) Equipment
o b) Human resources
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: c
12. The present worth method considers:
o a) Time value of money
o b) Only current cost
o c) Only future cost
o d) None
Answer: a
13. The maintenance cost curve is:
o a) Downward sloping
o b) Upward sloping
o c) Flat
o d) None
Answer: b
14. The capital cost curve is:
o a) Downward sloping
o b) Upward sloping
o c) Flat
o d) None
Answer: a
15. The optimal replacement age is:
o a) Where cost is maximum
o b) Where cost is zero
o c) Where total cost is minimum
o d) None
Answer: c
16. Sudden failure items include:
o a) Machines
o b) Light bulbs
o c) Computers
o d) None
Answer: b
17. Gradual failure items include:
o a) Machines
o b) Light bulbs
o c) Computers
o d) None
Answer: a
18. Replacement due to obsolescence is:
o a) Physical replacement
o b) Technological replacement
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: b
19. The group replacement policy is:
o a) Economical for large numbers
o b) Economical for small numbers
o c) Not economical
o d) None
Answer: a
20. The individual replacement policy is:
o a) Used when failures are frequent
o b) Used when failures are rare
o c) Not used
o d) None
Answer: b
21. The cost of downtime is:
o a) Loss due to equipment failure
o b) Gain due to equipment failure
o c) No effect
o d) None
Answer: a
22. The replacement interval is:
o a) Time between purchases
o b) Time between replacements
o c) Time between failures
o d) None
Answer: b
23. The replacement of human resources is based on:
o a) Efficiency and cost
o b) Only age
o c) Only salary
o d) None
Answer: a
24. The replacement policy aims to:
o a) Maximize cost
o b) Minimize total cost
o c) Maximize downtime
o d) None
Answer: b
25. The average cost per period is:
o a) Total cost × periods
o b) Total cost ÷ number of periods
o c) Number of periods ÷ total cost
o d) None
Answer: b
26. The present value of future costs is:
o a) Discounted cost
o b) Increased cost
o c) No effect
o d) None
Answer: a
27. The replacement model assumes:
o a) Unpredictable failure rates
o b) Predictable failure rates
o c) No failure
o d) None
Answer: b
28. The cost of replacement includes:
o a) Purchase and installation
o b) Only purchase
o c) Only installation
o d) None
Answer: a
29. The replacement of items with increasing maintenance cost is:
o a) Sudden failure model
o b) Probabilistic model
o c) Gradual failure model
o d) None
Answer: c
30. The replacement of items with sudden failure is:
o a) Deterministic model
o b) Probabilistic model
o c) Stochastic model
o d) None
Answer: b
UNIT-IV: PERT and CPM
1. PERT stands for:
o a) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
o b) Project Evaluation and Review Technique
o c) Project Estimation and Review Technique
o d) None
Answer: a
2. CPM stands for:
o a) Critical Project Method
o b) Critical Path Method
o c) Critical Planning Method
o d) None
Answer: b
3. PERT is:
o a) Probabilistic
o b) Deterministic
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: a
4. CPM is:
o a) Probabilistic
o b) Deterministic
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: b
5. The critical path is:
o a) Shortest path in the network
o b) Longest path in the network
o c) Any path in the network
o d) None
Answer: b
6. The critical path determines:
o a) Project cost
o b) Project duration
o c) Project resources
o d) None
Answer: b
7. Slack is:
o a) Difference between latest and earliest times
o b) Difference between start and finish
o c) Always zero
o d) None
Answer: a
8. The earliest start time is:
o a) Earliest time an activity can begin
o b) Latest time an activity can begin
o c) Any time
o d) None
Answer: a
9. The latest finish time is:
o a) Earliest time an activity can finish
o b) Latest time an activity can finish without delaying the project
o c) Any time
o d) None
Answer: b
10. Dummy activities are used to:
o a) Maintain logical relationships
o b) Increase project duration
o c) Decrease project cost
o d) None
Answer: a
11. The expected time in PERT is:
o a) (Optimistic + Pessimistic + Most Likely)/3
o b) (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic)/6
o c) (Optimistic + Most Likely)/2
o d) None
Answer: b
12. The variance of an activity in PERT is:
o a) ((Pessimistic - Optimistic)/3)^2
o b) ((Pessimistic - Optimistic)/6)^2
o c) ((Pessimistic - Optimistic)/2)^2
o d) None
Answer: b
13. The standard deviation of the critical path is:
o a) Sum of variances
o b) Square root of sum of variances
o c) Product of variances
o d) None
Answer: b
14. Float is:
o a) Time an activity can be delayed without affecting project
o b) Extra time for project
o c) Always zero
o d) None
Answer: a
15. CPM is best suited for:
o a) Repetitive projects
o b) Research projects
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: a
16. PERT is best for:
o a) Repetitive projects
o b) Research and development projects
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: b
17. The critical path has:
o a) Zero slack
o b) Maximum slack
o c) Minimum slack
o d) None
Answer: a
18. The project network is:
o a) Table representation
o b) Graphical representation of activities
o c) List of activities
o d) None
Answer: b
19. The earliest finish time is:
o a) Earliest start + duration
o b) Latest finish - duration
o c) Any time
o d) None
Answer: a
20. The latest start time is:
o a) Earliest finish - duration
o b) Latest finish - duration
o c) Any time
o d) None
Answer: b
21. The network diagram is used to:
o a) Schedule activities
o b) Estimate cost
o c) Estimate resources
o d) None
Answer: a
22. The critical activity is:
o a) Any activity
o b) On the critical path
o c) Not on the critical path
o d) None
Answer: b
23. The float of a critical activity is:
o a) Zero
o b) Maximum
o c) Minimum
o d) None
Answer: a
24. The project duration is:
o a) Duration of shortest path
o b) Duration of critical path
o c) Average of all paths
o d) None
Answer: b
25. The earliest event time is found by:
o a) Forward pass
o b) Backward pass
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: a
26. The latest event time is found by:
o a) Forward pass
o b) Backward pass
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: b
27. The project is delayed if:
o a) Any activity is delayed
o b) Any critical activity is delayed
o c) Any dummy activity is delayed
o d) None
Answer: b
28. The expected project duration in PERT is:
o a) Sum of durations of all activities
o b) Sum of expected times on critical path
o c) Average of all durations
o d) None
Answer: b
29. The probability of completion is found using:
o a) Standard deviation of critical path
o b) Mean of critical path
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: a
30. Dummy activities have:
o a) Zero duration
o b) Maximum duration
o c) Minimum duration
o d) None
Answer: a
UNIT-V: Job Sequencing
1. Job sequencing is used to:
o a) Minimize total elapsed time
o b) Maximize total elapsed time
o c) Minimize cost
o d) None
Answer: a
2. Johnson’s algorithm is used for:
o a) n jobs on 1 machine
o b) n jobs on 2 machines
o c) n jobs on 3 machines
o d) None
Answer: b
3. The objective of sequencing is:
o a) Minimize idle time
o b) Maximize idle time
o c) Minimize cost
o d) None
Answer: a
4. The number of possible sequences for n jobs is:
o a) n
o b) n!
o c) 2n
o d) None
Answer: b
5. The optimal sequence minimizes:
o a) Makespan
o b) Idle time
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: c
6. In Johnson’s rule, the job with minimum time is:
o a) Scheduled first
o b) Scheduled last
o c) Scheduled first or last
o d) None
Answer: c
7. The two-machine problem can be solved by:
o a) Johnson’s algorithm
o b) Hungarian method
o c) Simplex method
o d) None
Answer: a
8. The total elapsed time is:
o a) Time from start of first job to end of last job
o b) Time for each job
o c) Time for each machine
o d) None
Answer: a
9. Idle time on machines is:
o a) Unproductive time
o b) Productive time
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: a
10. The sequencing problem is:
o a) Linear programming
o b) Combinatorial optimization
o c) Game theory
o d) None
Answer: b
11. The processing order affects:
o a) Cost
o b) Total elapsed time
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: b
12. The minimum makespan is:
o a) Optimal solution
o b) Suboptimal solution
o c) Random solution
o d) None
Answer: a
13. The sequencing problem for 3 machines is:
o a) Simpler than 2 machines
o b) More complex than 2 machines
o c) Same as 2 machines
o d) None
Answer: b
14. The job with least processing time is:
o a) Scheduled first
o b) Scheduled last
o c) Scheduled first or last
o d) None
Answer: c
15. The number of machines in Johnson’s algorithm is:
o a) 2
o b) 3
o c) 4
o d) None
Answer: a
16. The Gantt chart is used to:
o a) Visualize job schedules
o b) Solve LPP
o c) Solve transportation problem
o d) None
Answer: a
17. The sequencing problem aims to:
o a) Optimize machine utilization
o b) Minimize cost
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: a
18. The flow shop scheduling is:
o a) Jobs processed in same order
o b) Jobs processed in different orders
o c) Random order
o d) None
Answer: a
19. The job shop scheduling is:
o a) Jobs processed in different orders
o b) Jobs processed in same order
o c) Random order
o d) None
Answer: a
20. The sequence with minimum idle time is:
o a) Random sequence
o b) Optimal sequence
o c) Suboptimal sequence
o d) None
Answer: b
21. The processing time matrix shows:
o a) Time for each job on each machine
o b) Time for each job
o c) Time for each machine
o d) None
Answer: a
22. The sequence affects:
o a) Cost
o b) Completion time
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: b
23. The sequencing problem is solved by:
o a) Algorithms
o b) Guesswork
o c) Random order
o d) None
Answer: a
24. The two-machine sequencing problem is:
o a) Solved by Hungarian method
o b) Solved by Johnson’s rule
o c) Solved by simplex method
o d) None
Answer: b
25. The minimum total elapsed time is:
o a) Objective of sequencing
o b) Random value
o c) Maximum value
o d) None
Answer: a
26. The number of sequences increases:
o a) Linearly with jobs
o b) Factorially with jobs
o c) Exponentially with jobs
o d) None
Answer: b
27. The optimal sequence is:
o a) Sequence with minimum makespan
o b) Sequence with maximum makespan
o c) Random sequence
o d) None
Answer: a
28. The idle time is:
o a) Time machines are not working
o b) Time machines are working
o c) Both
o d) None
Answer: a
29. The sequencing problem is:
o a) Linear programming
o b) NP-hard for many machines
o c) Game theory
o d) None
Answer: b
30. The solution of sequencing problem is:
o a) Optimal order of jobs
o b) Random order of jobs
o c) Maximum idle time
o d) None
Answer: a
These questions and answers are aligned with your syllabus and course outcomes[1].
1. IMG_20250514_210108.jpg