CODE-YY

NEET–II (2016) TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTIONS

(HELD ON SUNDAY 24th JULY, 2016)
1. Which one of the following generates new genetic 6. Taylor conducted the experiment to prove
combinations leading to variation ? semiconservative mode of chromosome replication
(1) Sexual reproduction on :
(2) Nucellar polyembryony (1) Dros ophila melanogaster
(3) Vegetative reproduction (2) E. coli
(4) Parthenogenesis (3) Vinca rosea
Ans. (1) (4) Vicia faba
2. Match column-I with column-II and select the Ans. (4)
correct option using the codes given below : 7. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from
one linkage group to another is called :
(1) Translocation
Column-I Column-II (2) Crossing-over
(3) Inversion
(a) Pistils fused together (i) Gametogenesis
(4) Duplication
(b) Formation of gametes (ii) Pistillate Ans. (1)
8. The equivalent of a structural gene is :
(c) Hyphae of higher (iii) Syncarpous (1) Operon
Ascomycetes (2) Recon
(3) Muton
(d) Unisexual female (iv) Dikaryotic (4) Cistron
flower
Ans. (4)
9. A true breeding plant is :
(1) near homozygous and produces offspring of its
a b c d own kind
(1) i ii iv iii (2) always homozygous recessive in its genetic
(2) iii i iv ii constitution
(3) iv iii i ii
(3) one that is able to breed on its own
(4) ii i iv iii
(4) produced due to cross-pollination among
Ans. (2)
unrelated plants
3. In majority of angiosperms :
Ans. (1)
(1) reduction division occurs in the mgaspore
10. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA
mother cells
as well as ribozyme in bacteria ?
(2) a small central cell is present in the embryo sac
(1) 23 S rRNA (2) 5.8 S rRNA
(3) egg has a filiform apparatus
(3) 5 S rRNA (4) 18 S rRNA
(4) there are numerous antipodal cells
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1)
11. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for :
4. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought
(1) availability of oxygen throughout the process
about by the agency of :
(2) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
(1) birds (2) bats
(3) purification of product
(3) water (4) insects or wind
Ans. (4) (4) addition of preservatives to the product
5. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent Ans. (1)
to : 12. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same
(1) megaspore mother cell restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a
(2) megaspore recombinant plasmid using :
(3) megasporangium (1) Polymerase-III (2) Ligase
(4) megasporophyll (3) Eco RI (4) Taq polym erase
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
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NEET-II (2016)
1 3. Which of the following is not a component of 21. Red list contains data or information on :
downstream processing ? (1) threatened species
(1) Preservation (2) Expression (2) marine vertebrates only
(3) Separation (4) Purification (3) all economically important plants
(4) plants whose products are in international trade
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
14. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces 22. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi ?
blunt ends ? (1) They are heterotrophic
(1) Xho I (2) Hind III (2) They are both unicellular and multicellular
(3) Sal I (4) Eco RV (3) They are eukaryotic
Ans. (4) (4) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
15. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four Ans. (4)
year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) 23. Methanogens belong to :
deficiency ? (1) Dinoflagellates (2) Slime moulds
(3) Eubacteria (4) Archaebacteria
(1) Immunotherapy (2) Radiation therapy
Ans. (4)
(3) Gene therapy (4) Chemotherapy 24. Select the wrong statement :
Ans. (3) (1) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
16. How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have (2) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in
been identified till date by Norman Myers ? water
(1) 34 (2) 43 (3) 17 (4) 25 (3) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible
Ans. (1) (4) 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls
of diatoms.
17. The primary pro ducers o f th e deep-sea
Ans. (3)
hydrothermal vent ecosystem are :
25. The lable of a herbarium shet does not carry
(1) Blue-green algae information on :
(2) Coral reefs (1) Local names (2) height of the plant
(3) Green algae (3) date of collection (4) name of collector
(4) Chemosynthetic bacteria Ans. (2)
Ans. (4) 26. Conifers are adapated to tolerate extreme
environmental conditions because of :
18. Which of the following is correct for r-selected
(1) thick cuticle (2) presence of vessels
species ?
(3) broad hardy leaves (4) superficial stomata
(1) Small number of progeny with small size
Ans. (1)
(2) Small number of progeny with large size 27. Which one of the following statements is wrong ?
(3) Large number of progeny with small size (1) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and
(4) Large number of progeny with large size Gra cilaria
Ans. (3) (2) Laminaria and Sargassu m are used as food
19. If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction '–' sign (3) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in
the immediate environment
to detrimental and '0' sign to neutral interaction,
(4) Algin is o btained from red algae, and
then the population interaction represented by '+'
carrageenan from brown algae.
'–' refers to :
Ans. (4)
(1) Commensalism (2) Parasitism 28. The term 'polyadelphous' is related to :-
(3) Mutualism (4) Amensalism (1) Corolla (2) Calyx
Ans. (2) (3) Gynoecium (4) Androecium
20. Which of the following is correctly matched ? Ans. (4)
(1) Parthenium hysterophorus – Threat to biodiversity 29. How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania,
(2) Stratification – Population
Salvia, Allium, Aloe , mustard, groundnut, radish,
gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths
(3) Aerenchyma – Opuntia
in their flowers ?
(4) Age pyramid – Biome (1) Five (2) Six (3) Three (4) Four
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)
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3 0. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of :- 39. Which of the following biomolecules is common to
(1) Pisum (2) Cassia respiratio n-mediat ed breakdown of fat s,
(3) Brassica (4) Trifolium carbohydrates and proteins ?
Ans. (3) (1) Pyruvic acid
31. Free-central placentation is found in :- (2) Acetyl CoA
(1) Brassica (2) Citrus (3) Glucose-6-phosphate
(3) Dianthus (4) Argemone (4) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
32. Cortex is the region found between :- 40. A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across
(1) Endodermis and pith a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was
(2) Endodermis and vascular bundle tested chemically. Which one of the following test
results indicates that it is phloem sap ?
(3) Epidermis and stele
(1) Low refractive index (2) Absence of sugar
(4) Pericycle and endodermis
(3) Acidic (4) Alkaline
Ans. (3)
Ans. (4)
33. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses :-
41. You are given a tissue with its potential for
(1) Are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into
differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the
vessels
following pairs of hormones would you add to the
(2) Are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem
medium to secure shoots as well as roots ?
vessels
(1) Auxin and abscisic acid
(3) Originate in the lumen of vessels
(2) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
(4) Characterize the sapwood
(3) IAA and gibberellin
Ans. (1)
(4) Auxin and cytokinin
34. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is :-
Ans. (4)
(1) Ligase (2) Deoxyribonuclease
42. Phytochrome is a :-
(3) Lysozyme (4) Ribozyme
(1) Lipoprotein (2) Chromoprotein
Ans. (4)
(3) Flavoprotein (4) Glycoprotein
35. Select the mismatch :-
Ans. (2)
(1) Protists-Eukaryotes
43. Which is essential for the growth of root tip ?
(2) Methanogens-Prokaryotes
(1) Ca (2) Mn (3) Zn (4) Fe
(3) Gas vacuoles-Green bacteria
Ans. (1)
(4) Large central vacoules - Animal cells
44. The process which makes major difference between
Ans. (4) C 3 an d C 4 plant s is :-
36. Select the wrong statement :- (1) Photorespiration (2) Respiration
(1) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells. (3) Glycolysis (4) Calvin cycle
(2) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism Ans. (1)
(3) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan. 45. Which one of the following statements in not
(4) Pilli and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility correct?
of bacterial cells (1) In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise
Ans. (4) from the internodes present in the modified stem.
37. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is :- (2) Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water,
(1) Ribosome (2) Mesosome drains oxygen from water that leads to the death
(3) Lysosome (4) Microsome of fishes.
Ans. (3) (3) Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction
38. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in:- are called clone
(1) G2 ph ase (2) M phase (4) Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive
(3) S phase (4) G 1 phase structures are called zoospores.
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)
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NEET-II (2016)
4 6. The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption 52. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen,
of sodium is :- progesterone are produced by :-
(1) Bowman's capsule (1) Fallopian tube (2) Pituitary
(2) Descending limb of Henle's loop (3) Ovary (4) Placenta
(3) Distal convoluted tubule Ans. (4)
(4) Proximal convoluted tubule 53. If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is
Ans. (4) homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability
47. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD ? of their son being colour-blind is :-
(1) Lippes loop (2) Cu7 (1) 0.75 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 0.5
(3) LNG-20 (4) Multiload 375
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
54. Genetic drift operates in :-
48. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
(1) Non-reproductive population
vasectomy ?
(2) Slow reproductive population
(1) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
(2) Irreversible sterility (3) Small isolated population
(3) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid (4) Large isolated population
(4) No sperm occurs in epididymis Ans. (3)
Ans. (4) 55. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of
49. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due heterozygous individual is represented by :-
to in vitro fretilization is transferred into :- (1) pq (2) q2 (3) p 2 (4) 2pq
(1) Fimbriae (2) Cervix Ans. (4)
(3) Uterus (4) Fallopian tube 56. The chronological order of human evolution from
Ans. (3) early to the recent is :-
50. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway (1) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis 
of transport of sperms ? Australopithecus  Homo erectus
(1) Rete testis  Vas deferens  Efferent ductules (2) Australopithecus  Homo habilis 
 Epididymis Ramapithecus  Homo erectus
(2) Efferent ductules  Rete testis  Vas deferens (3) Australopithecus  R amapith ecus 
 Epididymis Homo habits  Homo erectus
(3) Rete testis  Efferent ductules  Epididymis  (4) Ramapithecus  Australopithecus 
Vas deferens Homo habilis  Homo erectus
(4) Rete testis  Epididymis  Efferent ductules Ans. (4)
 Vas deferens
57. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
Ans. (3)
events in the origin of life ?
51. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
I. Formation of protobionts
correct option using the codes given below :-
II. Synthesis of organic monomers
Colum n I Column II III. Synthesis of organic polymers
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
a Mons pubis i Embryo formation
(1) II, III, I, IV (2) II, III, IV, I
b Antrum ii Sperm (3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, III, II, IV
c Trophectoderm iii Female external genitalia Ans. (1)
58. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must
d Nebenkern iv Graafian follicle
fulfill the traits given below, except :-
Cod es : (1) It should be unstable structurally and chemically
a b c d (2) It should provide the scope for slow changes that
(1) iii i iv ii are required for evolution
(2) i iv iii ii (3) It should be able to express itself in the form of
(3) iii iv ii i 'Mendelian characters'
(4) iii iv i ii (4) It should be able to generate its replica
Ans. (4) Ans. (1)
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5 9. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes 64. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be
transcription on one strand of the DNA which is a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving
called the :- effluents from :-
(1) Alpha strand (2) Antistrand (1) Petroleum industry
(3) Template strand (4) Coding strand
(2) Sugar industry
Ans. (3)
60. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of :- (3) Domestic sewage
(1) Superior males and females of different breeds (4) Dairy industry
(2) More closely related individuals within same breed Ans. (1)
for 4-6 generations
65. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated
(3) Animals within same breed without having
by :-
common ancestors
(1) MacArthur
(4) Two different related species
Ans. (4) (2) Verhulst and Pearl
61. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS (3) C. Darwin
causative agent HIV ?
(4) G.F. Gause
(1) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
Ans. (4)
(2) HIV does not escape but attacks the aquired
immune response. 66. Which of the following National Parks is home to
(3) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule the famous musk deer or hangul?
of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of (1) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh
reverse transcriptase.
(2) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir
(4) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical
molecules of single-stranded RNA and two (3) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
molecules of reverse transcriptase. (4) Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)
62. Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine
67. A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in:-
fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty acids ?
(1) Mrigala (2) Mackerel (1) Increased population of fish due to lots of
(3) Mystus (4) Mangur nutrients.
Ans. (2) (2) Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
63. Match Column –I with Column–II and select the (3) Increased population of aquatic organisms due
correct option using the codes given below to minerals
(4) Drying of the lake due to algal bloom
Column-I Column-II
Ans. (2)
(a) Citric acid (i) Trichoderma 68. The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain
shall occur in :-
(b) Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
(1) crab (2) eel
(c) Statins (iii) Aspergillus (3) phytoplankton (4) seagull
(d) Butyric acid (iv) Monascus Ans. (4)
69. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by
Cod es :
bacteria?
a b c d
(1) Tetanus and mumps
(1) i iv ii iii
(2) iii iv i ii (2) Herpes and influenza
(3) iii i ii iv (3) Cholera and tetanus
(4) iii i iv ii (4) Typhoid and smallpox
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
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NEET-II (2016)
7 0. Match Column–I with Column–II for housefly 75. Oxidative phosphorylation is :-
classification and select the correct option using the (1) Addition of phosphate group to ATP.
codes given below : (2) Formation of ATP by energy released from
electrons removed during substrate oxidation.
Co lumn-I Column-II
(3) Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group
a Family (i) Diptera from a substrate to ADP
(4) Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
b Order (ii) Arthropoda
Ans. (2)
c Class (iii) Muscidae
76. Which of the following is the least likely to be
d Phylum (iv) Insecta involved in stabilizing the three–dimensional folding
of most proteins?
Cod es :
(1) Hydrophobic interaction
a b c d
(2) Ester bonds
(1) iv iii ii i
(3) Hydrogen bonds
(2) iv ii i iii
(3) iii i iv ii (4) Electrostatic interaction
(4) iii ii iv i Ans. (2)
Ans. (3) 77. Which of the following describes the given graph
71. Choose the correct statement. correctly ?
(1) All reptiles have a three–chambered heart.
(2) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum.
(3) All mammals are viviparous.
(4) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.
Ans. (4)
72. Study the four statements (A–D) given below and
select the two correct ones out of them :
(A) Definition of biological species was given by
Ernst Mayr.
(B) Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants.
(C) Binomial nomenclature system was given by
R.H. Whittaker.
(D) In unicellular organisms, reproduction is
synonymous with growth.
The two correct statements are (1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence
(1) A and D (2) A and B of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(3) B and C (4) C and D (2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence
Ans. (1) of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
73. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which (3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence
part of the reproductive system? of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(1) Testes (2) Vas deferens (4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence
(3) Seminal vesicles (4) Mushroom glands of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)
74. Smooth muscles are :- 78. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which
(1) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated checkpoint should be predominantly activated?
(2) Voluntary, spindle–shaped, uninucleate
(1) M (2) Both G 2 /M and M
(3) Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
(3) G1 /S (4) G2 /M
(4) Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
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7 9. Match the stages of meiosis in Column–I to their 84. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active
characteristic features in Column–II and select the sites for myosin for cross–bridge activity during
correct option using the codes given below : muscle contraction.
(1) Sodium (2) Potassium
Column-I Column-II (3) Calcium (4) Magnesium
Ans. (3)
a Pachytene i Pairing of homologous
85. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number
chromosomes
can cause clotting disorder, leading to exceassive
b Metaphase-I ii Terminalization of loss of blood from the body.
chiasmata (1) Neutrophils (2) Thrombocytes
(3) Erythrocytes (4) Leucocytes
c Diakinesis iii Crossing over takes
Ans. (2)
place
86. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on
d Zygotene iv Chromosomes align at hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular
equatorial plate glucose uptake and utilization.
(1) Secretin (2) Gastrin
Cod es : (3) Insulin (4) Glucagon
a b c d Ans. (3)
(1) ii iv iii i 87. Osteoporosis, an age–related disease of skeletal
(2) iv iii ii i system, may occur due to :-
(3) iii iv ii i (1) Decreased level of estrogen
(4) i iv ii iii
(2) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation
Ans. (3)
of joints.
80. Which hormones do stimulate the production of
(3) Immune disorder affecting neuro–muscular
pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
junction leading to fatigue.
(1) Cholecystokinin and secretin
(4) High concentration of Ca ++ and Na + .
(2) Insulin and glucagon
Ans. (1)
(3) Angiotensin and epinephrine
88. Serum differs from blood in :-
(4) Gastrin and insulin
(1) Lacking clotting factors
Ans. (1)
81. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the (2) Lacking antibodies
lungs is :- (3) Lacking globulins
(1) Less than that in the blood (4) Lacking albumins
(2) Less than that of carbon dioxide Ans. (1)
(3) Equal to that in the blood 89. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some
(4) More than that in the blood air always remains in the lungs which can never be
Ans. (4) expelled because :-
82. Choose the correct statement. (1) There is a positive intrapleural pressure
(1) Ph otoreceptors in the human eye are (2) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the
depolarized during darkness and become atomospheric pressure.
hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus. (3) There is a negative pressure in the lungs.
(2) Receptors do not produce graded potentials. (4) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling
(3) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure. at the lung walls
(4) Meissner's corpuscles are thermo receptors. Ans. (4)
Ans. (1) 90. The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine
83. Graves' disease is caused due to :- gland because :-
(1) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland (1) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus
(2) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland (2) It secretes enzymes
(3) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland (3) It is provided with a duct
(4) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland (4) It only stores and releases hormones
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
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NEET-II (2016)
NEET–II (2016) TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTIONS
(HELD ON SUNDAY 24th JULY, 2016)
9 1. A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate 9 2. The potential difference (V A – VB) between the points
separation d and capacitance C is filled with four A and B in the given figure is :-
dielectric materials having dielectric constants k 1 , 3V
VA 2 1 VB
k2 , k3 and k 4 as shown in the figure below. If a single + –
A I=2A B
dielectric material is to be used to have the same
(1) + 6 V (2) + 9 V (3) – 3 V (4) + 3 V
capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric
constant k is given by :- Ans. (2)
2 3V 1
A/3 A/3 A/3
Sol. A B
2A
VB = V A – (2 × 2) – 3 – (2 × 1) VA – VB = 9V
d/ 2
93. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a
d
230 V main supply. When a resistance R is
connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb
A
consumes 500 W. The value of R is :-
(1) 26  (2) 13  (3) 230  (4) 46 
2 3 1
(1) k  k  k  k  k Ans. (1)
1 2 3 4
Bulb
R
1 1 1 1 3 Sol.
(2) k  k  k  k  2k 130 V
100 V
1 2 3 4
500 W
(3) k = k 1 + k 2 + k 3 + 3k 4

2 230 V
(4) k = (k + k 2 + k 3 ) + 2k 4
3 1
V2 100 2
Ans. (1) Rbulb =   20 
P 500
Sol. Circuit can be redrawn as
R 130
C1 C2 According to question 
R bulb 100
A/3 A
k1 R 130
   R = 26 
20 100
k4
k2 94. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into
a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at
A/3 k3 the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a
circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the
d/2 d/2 centre of this coil of n turns will be :-
1 1 1 (1) 2nB (2) 2n 2 B (3) nB (4) n 2 B
 
C C1 C 2 Ans. (4)
R
d 1 1 Sol. Since  = 2 R = n(2 r)  r 
  n
A 0 k A  k1  k 2  k3  A 0 k 4
0
d /2 0 i
3 d/2 For one turn B  an d
2R
2 3 1  n2 i
 k  k k k  k For n turn B '  0 ni  B   0  n 2B
1 2 3 4 2r 2R
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9 5. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a 98. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region
of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time
uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in 
equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it dB
at a rate . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the
dt
by 60° is W. Now the torque required to keep the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region
magnet in this new position is :- of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then
the e.m.f. generated is :-
3W 2W
(1) (2)
2 3 ×× ×
× × × × r×
× × ×
× × ×× × R R
× × ××
W × ×
(3) (4) 1
3 3W 2

Ans. (4) dB 2
(1)  R in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
Sol.  = PE sin 60° .....(1) dt
W = PE (1 – cos60°) .....(2) 
dB 2
From (1) and (2) (2)  r in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt
 3 /2 (3) Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
 = W 3  
W 1/ 2
dB 2 dB 2
(4)  r in loop 1 and  r in loop 2
9 6. An electron is moving in a circular path under the dt dt
influence of a transverse magnetic field of Ans. (2)
3.57 × 10 –2 T. If th e value of e/m is Sol. For Loop 1
 
1.76 × 10 11 C/kg, the frequency of revolution of  dB  2 dB
 
ind   A   cos 0   r  
the electron is :-  dt   dt 
(1) 62.8 MHz (2) 6.28 MHz For Loop 2, ind = 0 as no flux linkage
99. The potential differences across the resistance,
(3) 1 GHz (4) 100 MHz
capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and
Ans. (3) 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power
factor of this circuit is :-
eB
Sol. f= (1) 0.8 (2) 1.0 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.5
2 m Ans. (1)
1.76 10 11 3.57 10
 2
VL  VC 10 0  40 3
f Sol. tan     or  = 37°
2  3.14 VR 80 4
f = 10 9 H z or 1 GHz
4
97. Which of the following combinations should be Power factor = cos  = cos 37° = or 0.8
5
selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used 100. A 100  resistance and a capacitor of 100 
for communication ? reactance are connected in series across a 220 V
source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the
(1) R = 15 , L = 3.5 H, C = 30 F peak value of the displacement current is :-
(2) R = 25 , L = 1.5 H, C = 45 F (1) 4.4 A (2) 11 2 A (3) 2.2 A (4) 11 A
(3) R = 20 , L = 1.5 H, C = 35 F Ans. (3)
(4) R = 25 , L = 2.5 H, C = 45 F 0 22 0 2
Sol. (id )max  (ic max
)  0i  
Ans. (1) Z 100 2 100 2

Sol. For Better tuning, Q-factor must be high.

220 2
o L L 1 L
1  (id )max   2.2 A
 Q     100 2
R LC  R  R C As we are asked amplitude of displacement current.
R and C should be small and L should be high. So, need not worry about charge on capacitor.

17
NEET-II (2016)
1 01. Two identical glass ( g = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of 1 03. The interference pattern is obtained with two
focal length f each are kept in contact. The space coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the
between the two lenses is filled with water Imax  Imin
(w = 4 / 3). The focal length of the combination interference pattern, the ratio will be :-
Imax  Imin
is :-
(1) 4f/3 (2) 3f/4 (3) f/3 (4) f n 2 n
(1) (2)
Ans. (2) (n  1) 2 (n  1) 2
n 2 n
4 (3) (4)
µ 2= n 1 n 1
3
Ans. (4)
I1 n
Sol. 3 µ3= 3
Sol. Let 
µ 1= 2 1
2 2
2 2

Imax – Imin

 I1  I2  – I1 – I2
4 I1 I2 
2 2 
Imax  Imin 
I1  I2  
I1 – 2 2(I1  I2 ) I
f1 f3
Dividing numerator and denominator by I 2
f2
2 I1
R I2 2 n
f1  f3  = R = f (given) required ratio  
3  I1  n 1

2  –1   I 1 
2   2 
1 04. A person can see clearly objects only when they lie
–R –3 3
f2   R– f between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order
4  2 2
2  –1  to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision
3 
to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens,
1 1 1 1
    1   – 2   1 the person has to use, will be :-
feq f1 f2 f3 f  3f  f (1) concave, – 0.2 diopter
1 4 3f (2) convex, + 0.15 diopter
 f  3f  feq 
eq 4 (3) convex, + 2.25 diopter
1 02. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index (4) concave, – 0.25 diopter
1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when Ans. (4)
viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when Sol. As we want to correct myopia. So, far point must
viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) go to infinity.
v = –4 m, u = – , P = ?
of the slab is :-
1 1 1 1 1
(1) 12 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 10 P=  –  – = – 0.25 D
f v u –4 
Ans. (1) (–) implies concave mirror
Sol. H R1 H R2 105. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed
immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm.
O1 O O2 The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel
beam of wavelength 5 × 10–5 cm. The distance of
the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from
H app H app
1 2 the centre of the screen is :-
(1) 0.20 cm (2) 0.15 cm
HR
H app =  H R  g H app (3) 0.10 cm (4) 0.25 cm
g
Ans. (2)
So, H R1  g H app 1 and H R2  g H app 2 Sol. f = D = 60 cm
For first minima,
So, thickness = H R1  H R2
D 5 10 –7 60 5 10 –3 60

3 3 y   = 0.15 cm
=  g H app 1  Happ 2  =  5  3   8 12 cm a 2 10 10
–2 –2
2
2 2
18
 CODE-YY
1 06. Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength  Ans. (1)
fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff Sol. Transition : 3 2 Wavelength 
wavelength ( 0 ) of the emitted X-ray is :- Transition : 4 3 Wavelength '

2m 2 c 2 3 1  1 1 
(1) 0  (2) 0 =   R H Z2  2  2 
h2  2 3    '  20   '  20 
1  1 1   7 7
2mc 2 2h  R H Z2  2  2 
(3) 0  (4) 0  ' 3 4 
h mc
Ans. (3) 1 09. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes.
The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and
h h
Sol.   p 85% decay of the same radioactive substance is :-
p 
(1) 45 (2) 60 (3) 15 (4) 30
p2 h2 Ans. (2)
E 
2m 2m 2 Sol. decay 40% 85%
hc Remaining 60% 15%
Also in X-ray E 
0 t1 t1
2  2 
60%  30%  15%
hc h2 2mc 2 t = 2t 1/2 = 60 min.
    0 
0 2m  2 h 110. For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage
1 07. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a across the collector resistance of 2 k  is 4 V. If the
current amplification factor of the transistor is
cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum
100 and the base resistance is 1 k , then the input
energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When
signal voltage is :-
photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no
(1) 30 mV (2) 15 mV
photoelectrons will reach the anode A, if the (3) 10 mV (4) 20 mV
stopping potential of A relative to C is :- Ans. (4)
(1) – 1 V (2) – 3 V Sol. = 100; V 0 = 4V; R i = 10 3 ;
(3) + 3 V (4) + 4 V R0 = 2 × 10 3 ; V i = ?
Ans. (2) V0 R 4 2 10 3
 0   10 0 
Vi Ri Vi 10 3
1
Sol. eVs  mv 2max  h   0  Vi = 20 mV
2 111. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as
2 = 5 – 3 eV shown in the figure below. The current flowing
through the resistance R 1 will be :-
In second case

eVs = 6 – 3 = 3 eV Vs = 3 V.
R1
D1 D2
 V AC = –3 V
108. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the
3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of 10V R2 3 R3 2
wavelength . When it jumps from the 4th orbit to
the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the
(1) 1.43 A (2) 3.13 A
photon will be :-
(3) 2.5 A (4) 10.0 A
20 20 Ans. (3)
(1)  (2) 
7 13 Sol. Current will not flow through D 1 as it is reverse
biased. Current will flow through cell, R 1 , D 2 and R 3 .
16 9
(3)  (4)  10
25 16  i = 2.5 A
2 2

19
NEET-II (2016)
1 12. What is the output Y in the following circuit, when 1 15. In the given figure, a = 15 m/s 2 represents the total
all the three inputs A,B,C are first 0 and then 1 ? acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise
direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given
A instant of time. The speed of the particle is :-
B P Y
Q
C

°
(1) 1,0 (2) 1,1 (3) 0,1 (4) 0.0

30
R
O a
Ans. (1)

A AB
P (1) 5.7 m/s (2) 6.2 m/s
Sol. B Q y = (AB)C
C (3) 4.5 m/s (4) 5.0 m/s
for A = B = C = 0 ; y = 1 Ans. (1)
for A = B = C = 1 ; y = 0
v2
113. Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) Sol. acos30° = a c 
R
and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are three
fundamental constants. Which of the following 3
 v2  aR  v2 = 32.47  v  5.7 m/s
combinations of these has the dimension of length? 2
116. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60° and
hc Gc hG hG gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the
(1) (2) (3) (4)
G h3 /2 c3 / 2 c5 / 2 figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the
wall on the ball will be :-
Ans. (3)
m
Sol.   h x G yc z
x y z V
M0 L1 T 0 = (ML2 T–1 ) (M–1 L3 T –2 ) (LT –1 )
= M x–y L2x+3y+z T –x–2y–z 60°
Equat ing :
60 °
1 1 3
xy0  x  ; y  ;z   V
 2 2 2
2 x  3y  z  1 
hG
x  2y  z  0     3 /2
mV mV
c (1) (2) (3) mV (4) 2mV
2 3
1 14. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same
Ans. (3)
time in a straight line and their positions are
represented by x p (t) = at + bt 2 and x Q (t) = ft – t 2 . Vcos6 0°
m
60 °
At what time do the cars have the same velocity ?
Vsin60° V
af fa
(1) (2) Sol. 60°
2(1  b) 2(1  b)
Vcos6 0° 60°
a f af
(3) (4) 60°
1b 2(b  1)
m V Vsin60°
An s. (2)   
V  Vf  Vi
Sol. xP (t) = at + bt 2 xQ (t) = ft – t 2
vP = a + 2bt vQ = f – 2t   V cos 60 iˆ V sin 60 j ˆ
 
as vP = v Q  V cos 60 iˆ V sin 60 jˆ
 
a + 2bt = f – 2t 
V  2V cos 60 iˆ
Impulse
fa  
 t I  P  m V  m(2V cos 60 ) = mV
2(1  b)
20
 CODE-YY
1 17. A bullet of mass 10g moving horizontally with a Ans. (4)
velocity of 400 ms –1 strikes a wooden block of mass Sol. Since both bodies are identical and collision is elastic.
2 kg which is suspended by a light inextensible string Therefore velocities will be interchanged after
collision.
of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of
vA = –0.3 m/s and v B = 0.5 m/s
the block is found to rise a vertical distance of
10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out 119. A particle moves from a point (2iˆ  5j)
ˆ to
horizontally from the block will be :-
ˆ when a force of
(4 ˆj  3k) ˆ N is applied.
(4iˆ  3j)
(1) 120 ms –1 (2) 160 ms –1
How much work has been done by the force ?
(3) 100 ms –1 (4) 80 ms –1 (1) 5 J (2) 2 J (3) 8 J (4) 11 J

Ans. (1) Ans. (1)


Sol. W  F.s  4iˆ  3jˆ . 2i jˆ 3kˆ  8 3 5J
 
 
Sol.
1 20. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m
with moments of inertia I A and I B (IB > I A) have equal
5m kinetic energy of rotation. If L A and L B be their
angular momenta respectively, then :-
2kg v1
(1) LB > L A (2) LA > L B
0.1 m v2
10gm
2kg LB
(3) LA = (4) LA = 2L B
400 m/ s 2

Ans. (1)
Applying momentum conservation
L2A L2
10 10 Sol. KA = K B   B
 40 0  0 2 v 1  v 2 2I A 2I B
10 00 1000

 4 = 2v 1 + 0.01v 2 ......(1)  IB > I A  L2A  L2B LA < L B

Applying work energy theorem for block 1 21. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating
W = KE about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass
and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical
1
 2 × 10 × 0.1 = ×2 ×v 1
2 axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere.
2
The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation
 v1 = (Esp here / Ecylinder) will be :-
2 = 1.4 m/s
Putting the value of v is equation (2) (1) 1 : 4 (2) 3 : 1
1

4 = 2 × 1.4 + 0.01 v 2 v2 = 120 m/s (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 5

Ans. (4)
118. Two identical balls A and B having velocities of Sol.
0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s respectively collide elastically
in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after 1 1 2
Esp here = Is 2   MR2  2
the collision respectively will be :- 2 2 5

(1) –0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s 1 1 MR 2

Ecylinder = Ic (2)2    4 2
2 2 2
(2) 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

(3) –0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s E sph ere 1


E cylinder 5
(4) 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s
21
NEET-II (2016)
1 22. A light rod of length has two masses m 1 and m 2
 GM 
att ached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of Sol. g   3er 0 < r  Re
 Re 
the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod
and passing through the centre of mass is :- GM e
g r  Re
r2
(1) (m1 + m 2 )2 (2) m1m 2  2

GMe
m1m 2 2 m1  m 2 2 g R
2

(3) m  m  (4) m 1m 2

1 2

Ans. (3)
r1 r2 O R r
Sol. m1 (CM) m2
 1 24. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth
(of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total
m2 m1 energy of the satellite in terms of g 0 , th e value of
r1  , r2 
m1  m 2 m1  m 2 acceleration due to gravity at the earth's surface,
is :-
m1 m 2 2
Icm  m 1r12  m 2 r22  
m1  m 2
2mg 0 R 2 2mg 0 R 2
(1) (2) 
1 23. Starting from the centre of the earth having radius Rh R h
R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is
shown by :- mg 0 R 2 mg 0 R2
(3) (4) 
2(R  h) 2(R  h)
g
Ans. (4)
(1)
GMe m
O R r Sol. Total energy = 
2(R  h)

g GMe g0 R 2
 g0   Me 
R2 G
(2)
mg 0 R2
O R r  Energy = 
2(R  h)

g 1 25. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from

(4 cm × 2 cm) to (5 cm ×4 cm). If the work done
(3) is 3 ×10 –4 J, the value of the surface tension of the
liquid is :-
O R r
(1) 0.2 Nm –1 (2) 8.0 Nm –1

g (3) 0.250 Nm –1 (4) 0.125 Nm –1

(4) Ans. (4)

Sol. W = T(2 A)
O R r
Ans. (4) W 3  10 4
 T  4
 0.125 Nm 1
2 A 2  12 10

22
 CODE-YY
1 26. Th ree liquids of densities  1 ,  2 and  3 heat lost = heat gained
(with 1 > 2 > 3 ), having the same value of surface sh (100 °C – ) = s c
tension T, rise to the same height in three identical sh 100 C
capillaries. The angles of contact 1 , 2 and 3 obey:-  =  100 C 
(sh  sc )  sc 
 1  s 
h

(1)  1  2  3    sc / s <1 1 + s c / s <2
2 h h

100 C
> or > 50°C
 2
(2)   1  2  3 
2 1 28. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in
10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume
 that Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The
(3)  1  2  3  0 temperature of the body at the end of next
2
10 minutes will be :-
 4 7 3
(4) 0  1  2  3  (1) T (2) T (3) T (4) T
2 3 4 2
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4) Sol. Newton's laws of cooling
2 T cos  T1  T2  T  T2 
Sol. h=  k 1  T
gr t  2 
as r, h, T are same 3 T  2T  5T 2T  T  3T 
 k   10  k  2  ...(i)
cos  10  2   
  constant
 2T  T'  2T  T ' 
 k  T
10  2 
cos 1 cos 2 cos 3
  
1 2 3 2T  T'  T' 
  k   ...(ii)
as 1 > 2 > 3 10 2 
 cos 1 > cos 2 > cos 3 By solving (i) and (ii)
 1 < 2 < 3 3
T'  T
As water rises must be acute 2
So, 0 1 < 2 < 3 < /2 1 29. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a
process described by the equation PV 3 = constant.
127. Two identical bodies are made of a material for The heat capacity of the gas during this process is
which the heat capacity increases with temperature.
3 5
One of these is at 100 °C, while the other one is (1) 2 R (2) R (3) R (4) R
2 2
at 0°C. If the two bodies are brought into contact,
Ans. (2)
then, assuming no heat loss, the final common x
Sol. PV = constant (Polytropic process)
temperature is :- Heat capacity in polytropic process is given by
(1) less than 50 °C but greater than 0 °C  R 
(2) 0 °C C  C V  1  x 
 
(3) 50 °C 3
Given that PV = constant  x = 3 ...(1)
(4) more than 50 °C also gas is monoatomic f = 3 ...(2)
Ans. (4) by formula
Sol. Let  be the final common temperature. Further, fR R
C 
let s c and s h be the average heat capacities of the 2 1 x
cold and hot (initially) bodies respectively (where s c
3 R
< sh given) C R R
2 2
From, principle of calorimetry,

23
NEET-II (2016)
1 30. The temperature inside a refrigerator is t 2 °C and Ans. (2)
the room temperature is t 1 °C. The amount of heat
m
delivered to the room for each joule of electrical Sol. T  2
k
energy consumed ideally will be :-
m
3  2 ...(1)
t 2  273 t1  t 2 k
(1) t  t (2) t  273
1 2 1
m 1
5  2 ...(2)
k
t1 t1  273
(3) t  t (4) t  t (1)2 9 m 9
1 2 1 2 2
   m 
(2) 25 m  1 16

Ans. (4) 1 33. The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the
same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe
Sol. Heat delivered = Q 1
L metre long. The length of the open pipe will be
t 2  273 Q 2 Q 1 W Q 1
COP( ) =    1 L
t 1  t2 W W W (1) (2) 4 L (3) L (4) 2 L
2

Q1 t  273 t  273 Ans. (4)

 1  2  1 Sol. For second overtone (3 rd harmonic) in open organ
W t 1  t2 t1  t 2
pipe,
1 31. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume 3 2
 0    0
V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The 2 3
mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of for first overtone (3 rd harmonic) in closed organ pipe,
the following gives the density of the gas ? 3 4  C 4L
 C   
(1) P/(kTV) (2) mkT 4 3 3
2  0 4L
(3) P/(kT) (4) Pm/(kT) So,    0  2L
3 3
Ans. (4) 1 34. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have
frequencies (n – 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose
P RT
Sol.  (Gas equation) to give beats. The number of beats produced per
 Mw
second will be :-
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4
PM w P  (mN A ) Pm
   RT  kN T  Ans. (2)
A kT
Sol. Net beat frequency
1 32. A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of = LCM of individual beat frequencies
= LCM of [(n, n–1), (n, n+1), (n–1, n+1)]
a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has
= LCM of (1, 1, 2)
negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled = 2 Hz
down and released, it oscillates with a time period So, no. of beats per second = 2
of 3s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the 135. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with
time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value an electric field intensity 2 ×10 5 N/C. It experiences
of m in kg is :- a torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole,
if the dipole length is 2 cm, is :-
16 9 (1) 5 mC (2) 7 µC (3) 8 mC (4) 2 mC
(1) (2)
9 16 Ans. (4)
Sol.  = PE sin 
3 4  = q  E sin 
(3) (4) 4 = q × 2 × 16 –3 × 2 × 10 5 sin 30°
4 3
 q = 2 mC

24
NEET-II (2016)
NEET–II (2016) TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTIONS
(HELD ON SUNDAY 24th JULY, 2016)
1 36. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately 1 40. The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the
strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following following species is :
reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour ? (1) Br– > CN – > NH 3 > C 6 H 5 –
(1) C + 2H 2 SO 4 CO 2 + 2SO 2 + 2H 2 O (2) CN – > Br – > C 6 H 5– >NH 3
(2) CaF 2 + H 2 SO 4  CaSO 4 + 2HF (3) NH 3 > CN – > Br– > C 6 H 5–
(3) Cu + 2H 2 SO 4  CuSO 4 + SO 2 + 2H 2 O (4) CN – > C 6 H 5– > Br – > NH 3
(4) 3S + 2H 2 SO 4  3SO 2 + 2H 2 O Ans. (4)
Ans. (2) Sol. Trans effect order – CN  C 6 H 5  Br   NH 3
Sol. CaF 2 + H 2 SO 4 CaSO 4 + 2HF
1 41. Which one of the followng statements related to
In this reaction, oxidation number of none of the
lanthanons is incorrect ?
atom is not changed. Hence H 2 SO 4 is not acting as
(1) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than
oxidising agent. aluminium
137. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have (2) Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing
electron density along the axes ? agent in volumetric analysis
(3) Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
(1) d z2 ,d x 2  y 2 (2) d xy ,d x 2 y2
(4) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius
(3) d z2 ,d xz (4) d xz ,d yz decreases from Pr to Lu.
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)
Sol. dz2 and dx 2 –y2 has electron density concentrated on Sol. (1) Lanthanon's are less reactive than aluminium due
the axis. to high IP (Lanthenoid contraction)
(2) Ce +4 is good oxidising agent and easily converted
138. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF 4 into Ce +3
are : (3) Eu(63) = 4f 7 5d 0 6s 2 , Eu+2 = 4f 7
(1) Planar triangle, sp 3 d3 (4) In lanthenoids series 'Ce' to Lu ionic radius regular
(2) square planar, sp d
3 2 decreases and covalent character increase, basic
character of hydroxide decrease
(3) octahedral, sp d 3 2
142. Jahn-Teller effect not observed in high spin
(4) trigonal bipyramidal, sp 3 d complexes of :-
Ans. (3) (1) d4 (2) d9 (3) d7 (4) d8
Sol. XeF 4 , AB 4 L2  sp 3d 2 Ans. (4)
Sol. John Teller effect explain axial distortion in perfect
 geometry  octahedral octahedral geometry. It is present in d 4 high spin,
 shape  square planar d7 low spin and d 9 co nfiguations which have odd
139. Among the following which one is a wrong number of electrons in eg set.
statement? A weak John Teller effect in also present in d 7 high
spin complex which has odd number of electrons
(1) SeF 4 and CH 4 have same shape
in the set.
(2) I3+ has bent geometry 143. Which of the following can be used as the halide
(3) PH 5 and BiCl 5 do not exist component for Friedel-Crafts reaction ?
(4) p-d bonds are present in SO 2 (1) Chloroethene (2) Isopropyl chloride
(3) Chlorobenzene (4) Bromobenzene
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
Sol. (1) SeF 4 –sp 3 d, lp = 1, shape = see-saw
CH 4 –sp 3 , lp = 0, shape =tetrahedral CH 3
C
(2) I3 –sp 3 , lp =2, shape = bent/angular H CH3
Sol. + CH CH Cl 
Anhy AlCl3

(3) PH 5 = d-orbital contraction absent CH 3 cumene
BiCl 5 = due to inert pair effect
(Bi +5 act as OA, Cl – act as RA) But in chlorobenzene, Bromobenzene, chloroethene
(4) SO 2 : O=S=O lone pair of halogen are delocalised with  bonds,
so attain double bond character.
P -d, P –P both type bonds are present
8
 CODE-YY
1 44. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are 1 46. In pyrrole
coplanar ? 4 3

CH 3 CN
(1) C=C (2) –— 5
CH 3 CN .. 2

N1
H
Th e electron density is maximum on :-
(1) 2 and 4 (2) 2 and 5
(3) (4) (3) 2 and 3 (4) 3 and 4
Ans. (2)

Ans. (3) 4 3

5 .. 2 + + + +
H H H H N 1 N N N N
H H H H H
H H (I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)
Sol.
H H H H Maximum electron density at (2) and (5)
as resonating structures III & IV are more stable than
All carbons are sp 2 hybridised (II) & (V) so are major contributor.
145. Which one of the following structures represents
147. Which of the following compounds shall not
nylon 6,6 polymer ?
produced propene by reaction with HBr followed
H2 H2 by elimination of direct only elimination reaction ?
H2 H2 C H C H
C H C C C (1) H 2 C=C=O
(1) C C 6
6
CH 3 CO OH
NH 2 Cl H2
(2) H C–C–CH
3 2Br
O
H2 H (CH2 )6 –NH
(2) C ( C) N H 2 C—CH 2
C 2 C

H2 n (3) C
O H2
H2 H2
C H C H
(3) C C H2
66 (4) H 3 C–C–CH 2OH
NH 2 CH 3
Ans. (1)
H2 H2
C H C H Sol.
(4) C C
66
NH 2 NH 2 H Br Elimination
H 2 C CH 2 CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 H 3 C CH CH 2
Ans. (2) C
Sol. H2 Br

(CH 2 )4 COOH + H 2 N (CH 2 )6 NH 2 H Br Elimination

HOOC CH 3 —CH 2 —CH 2 —OH H 3 C CH CH 2
Adipic acid Hexamethylene diamine

Br O
Polymerisation H Br
CH 2 =C= O H2 C C OH H3 C C Br
O O
C (CH 2 )4 C NH (CH 2 )6 NH CH 3 –CH 2 –CH 2 –Br 
n
E lim ination
 CH 3 –CH=CH 2

9
NEET-II (2016)
1 48. Which one of the following nitro-compounds does
not react with nitrous acid ? CHO CHO
H OH HO H
H3C
H OH H OH
(1) H 3 C–C–NO 2 Sol. CH 2 OH CH 2 OH
H3C
D-Erythrose D-Threose
CH 3
H 3C C
(2) H
NO 2 CHO CHO
O
HO H H OH
H2 HO H HO H
H 3C C
(3) C NO 2 CH 2 OH CH 2 OH
H2
L-Erythrose L-Threose
H2
H 3C C 1 51. In the given reaction
(4) CH NO 2
H 3C
Ans. (1) + HF
  P
0 C
Sol. 3°-Nitro compound does not react with HNO 2
because of absence of –H
the product P is :-
149. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that
the genetic information flows from :-
(1) DNA  RNA Proteins
(2) DNA  RNA Carbohydrates
(3) Amino acids Proteins DNA (1) (2)
(4) DNA  Carbohydrates  Proteins
Ans. (1)

Sol. DNA 

Transcription
 RNA 
Translation
 Protein
150. The correct corresponding order names of four
aldoses with configuration given below F
CHO CH O F

H OH HO H (3) (4)

H OH H OH
CH 2 OH CH 2 OH
CH O CH O Ans. (1)
HO H H OH + 
H
HO H HO H Sol. Carbocation
(HF)
CH 2 OH CH 2 OH
respec tively, is :-
(1) L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose
(2) D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose
H 
(3) L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose ESR
+
(4) D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose (alkylation)
Ans. (2)
[Friedel Craft reaction]

10
 CODE-YY
1 52. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A 1 54. The correct structure of the product A formed in
reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO 2 to give an
the reaction
unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol,
forms a beatiful coloured compound C with the
molecular formula C 12 H 10 N2 O. The structure of O
compound A is :-
H 2 (gas, 1 atmosphere)
CN CONH 2 Pd/ carbon, ethanol
A is :-

(1) (2)

OH OH
NH 2 NO 2

(3) (4) (1) (2)

Ans. (4)
OH O

NO 2 NH 2 N 2· Cl
(3) (4)
HNO 2
Sn+ HCl
Reduction
(A) Aniline (B) Ans. (4)
Benzene Diazonium
chloride
Sol.
Ph—OH O O
N N OH
H 2 gas, (1 atmosphere)
p -Hydroxy azo benzene (red colour dye)
Sol. 
Pd /Carbon,Ethanol


1 53. Consider the reaction 1 55. Which among the given molecules can exhibit
tautomerism ?
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Br + NaCN CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CN + NaBr

This reaction will be the fastest in O O

(1) N,N'-dimethylformamide (DMF) O Ph
Ph
(2) water
I II III
(3) ethanol
(1) Both I and II (2) Both II and III
(4) methanol
(3) III only (4) Both I and III
Ans. (1)
Ans. (3)
Sol. CH 3 –CH 2 –CH 2 Br + NaCN CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CN+
NaBr
O OH
This reaction follows by S N
2 path, which is favoured
by polar aprotic solvents like DMF, DMSO, etc.
Sol. H
H
H C N Me
DMF (Dimethyl formamide) Keto form Eno l form
O Me

11
NEET-II (2016)
1 56. The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic 159. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm 3
acids solution of AgNO 3 with electrolytic conductivity of
5.76 × 10 –3 S cm –1 at 298 K is

COOH COOH COOH (1) 0.086 S cm 2 /mol

(2) 28.8 S cm 2 /mol

O O
(3) 2.88 S cm 2 /mol
I II III
(4) 11.52 S cm 2 /mol
is Ans. (4)

(1) III > II > I (2) II > I > III Sol. C = 0.5 mol / dm 3

 = 5.76 × 10 –3 S cm –1
(3) I > II > III (4) II > III > I
T = 298 K
Ans. (4) 3
  1000 5.76 10

m    11 .52 Scm 2 /mol
Sol. Acidic Strength M 0.5
1 60. The decomposition of phosphine (PH 3 )on tungsten
COOH COOH CO OH at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because
O the
> >
O
(+I) (1) rate is independent of the surface coverage
more(—I) less (—I)
(2) rate of decomposition is very slow
1 57. The compound that will react most readily with (3) rate is proportional to the surface coverage
gaseous bromine has the formula
(4) rate is inversely proportional to the surface
(1) C4 H 10 (2) C2 H 4 coverage
(3) C3 H 6 (4) C2 H 2 Ans. (3)

Ans. (3) Sol. The decomposition of PH 3 on tungsten at low

pressure is a first order reaction because rate is
Sol. Gaseous Bromine reacts with alkene to give allylic proportional to the surface coverage.
substituted product by free radical mechanism
161. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the
CH 3 –CH=CH  H2C C
Br2  gas 
CH 2 electrolytes used for the coagulation of As 2 S3 are
2 
H
Br
given below :
1 58. Which one of the following compounds shows the I. (NaCl) = 52, II. (BaCl 2 ) = 0.69,
presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond ?
III. (MgSO4 ) = 0.22
(1) Cellulose
The correct order of their coagulating power is
(2) Concentrated acetic acid
(1) III > II > I (2) III > I > II
(3) H2O2
(3) I > II > III (4) II > I > III
(4) HCN
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1)

Sol. In acetic acid, H 2 O 2 and HCN inter molecular 1

Sol. Coagulation power 
coagulation value
hydrogen bo nd present but in cellulose
intramolecular hydrogen bond present. So, the order is III > II > I
12
 CODE-YY
1 62. During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, 1 65. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution
the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is
gas using a current of 3 amperes is (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 220 minutes (2) 330 minutes (3) 0 (4) 1
(3) 55 minutes (4) 110 minutes Ans. (2)

Ans. (4) Sol. Ba(OH)2 is strong electrolyte, so its 100% dissociation

occurs in solution
Sol. 2Cl   Cl2  g   2e 
Ba  OH 2  Ba 2 aq  2OH  aq
 
E
W  it
96 500
Van't Hoff factor = total number of ions present in
35.5 solution i =3
0.1  71  3 t(sec)
96 500 166. The percentage of pyridine (C 5 H 5 N) that forms
t (s) = 6433.33 sec +
pyridinium ion (C5 H 5 N H) in a 0.10 M aqueous
t(min) = 107.22 min  110 min. pyridine solution (K b for C 5 H 5 N = 1.7 × 10 –9 ) is

163. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which
(1) 0.77% (2) 1.6%
n = 3 and l = 1 ?
(3) 0.0060% (4) 0.013%
(1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 2 (4) 6
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Pyridine (C 5 H 5 H 5 N) is a weak base
Sol. n=3, l =1 3p
Kb = C2
Total 2 electron can fit in the orbital of 3p
164. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is 1.7  10 9

changed isothermally from p i to p f, the entropy 0.1
change is given by
4
  1.3 0 10
 pf   pi 
(1) S = nRT ln   (2) S = RT ln   %  1.30 10 4
100
 pi   pf 

%  0.013%

 pf   pi  1 67. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the

(3) S = nR ln   (4) S = nR ln  
 pi   pf  coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca 2+ ) and
fluoride ion (F –) are
Ans. (4)
(1) 8 and 4 (2) 4 and 8

Tf P (3) 4 and 2 (4) 6 and 6

Sol. S  nC pm n nR n i
Ti Pf Ans. (1)

For isothermal T i = T f, ln1 = 0 Sol. In CaF 2 , the coordination numbers for

Pi Ca +2 = 8
S  nR n
Pf
F  4
13
NEET-II (2016)
1 68. If the E°cell for a given reaction has a negative value,
Sol. NaCl  aq   Na (aq  Cl  aq 
which of the following gives the correct 0. 1M 0 0
relationships for the values of G° and K eq ? 0 0.1M 0.1 S
(1) G° < 0; K eq >1
AgCl  s 

 Ag  aq   Cl aq 
 

(2) G° < 0; K eq <1

a 0 0
(3) G° > 0; K eq <1 a S S S  0.1

(4) G° > 0; K eq >1 Ksp = 1.6 × 10 –10 = [Ag + ] [Cl–] = S (0.1+S)
Ksp is small, S is neglected with respect to 0.1 M
Ans. (3)
1.6 × 10 –10 = S × 0.1
Sol.  E0cell  ve S = 1.6 × 10 –9 M
171. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form
 G 0  nF E cell
0
two compounds XY 2 and X 3 Y2 . When 0.1 mole of
G 0   ve  G  0 XY2 weigh s 10 g and 0.05 mole of X 3 Y2 weighs
9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are
 G 0  2.303RT log K eq
(1) 20, 30 (2) 30, 20
 K eq  1
(3) 40, 30 (4) 60, 40
1 69. Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal
solution ? Ans. (3)

(1) P = Pobs – P =0 Sol. Let atomic weight of x is A x and y is A y

calculated by Raoult's law

(2) G mix = 0 10
n xy2  0.1 
A x  2A y
(3) H mix = 0

(4) U mix = 0 A x  2A y  100 ...(1)

Ans. (2)
9
n x3 y2  0.05 
Sol. For an ideal solution H mix  0 3 A x  2A y

3A x + 2A y = 180 ...(2)
U mix  0
on solving eq. (1) and (2)
S mix  0 Ax = 40, A y = 30
According to G mix  H mix  T S mix 172. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode
 G mix  0 during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in
Incorrect answer, is G mix =0 60 seconds is (charge on electron = 1. 60 × 10 –19 C)

170. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product (1) 3.75 × 10 20 (2) 7.48 × 10 23

1.6 × 10 –10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be (3) 6 × 10 23 (4) 6 × 10 20

(1) 1.6 × 10 –11 M Ans. (1)

(2) zero Sol. Q = ne
(3) 1.26 × 10 –5 M i.t = n.e

(4) 1.6 × 10 –9 M 1  60 20
n  3.75 10 electrons
1. 6 10 1 9
Ans. (4)

14
 CODE-YY
1 73. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule 177. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in
–
(1) accepts OH from water releasing proton NO 2 , NO 3 and NH 4 respectively are

(2) combines with proton from water molecule (1) sp, sp2 and sp 3
+
(3) contains replaceable H ion (2) sp 2 , sp and sp 3

(4) gives up a proton (3) sp, sp 3 and sp 2

Ans. (1) (4) sp 2 , sp 3 and sp

Ans. (1)
Sol. B(OH)3 + H 2 O  [B(OH)4 ]– + H +
Sol. NO 2  sp Linear
1 74. AlF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due
to the formation of NO 3  sp 2 Trigonal planar

(1) AlH3 (2) K[AlF3 H] NH 4  sp 3 Tetrahedral

(3) K3 [AlF3 H 3 ] (4) K3 [AlF6 ] 178. Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most
likely to behave as a Lewis base ?
Ans. (4)
(1) CF4 (2) SiF4
Sol. AlF3 + 3KF  K3 [AlF6 ]
(3) BF 3 (4) PF 3
1 75. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized
Ans. (4)
iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because
Sol. PF 3 act as Lewis base due to present of lone pair
(1) zinc has lower negative electrode potential than on P atom.
iron 179. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic
and isostructural ?
(2) zinc has higher negative electrode potential than
iron (1) SO 23 , NO 3 (2) ClO 3, SO 23 
(3) zinc is lighter than iron
(3) CO 23  , NO 3 (4) ClO 3, CO 2
3
(4) zinc has lower melting point than iron
Ans. (2 & 3)
Ans. (2)

Sol. Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than Sol. (2) In SO 23  ,ClO 3 , No. of electrons = 42,

iron, so iron cannot be coated on zinc. Shape : Pyramidal

176. The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as (3) In CO 3 2 ,NO 3 , No. of electrons = 32
Shape : trigonal planar
(1) milk of lime
180. In context with beryllium, which one of the following
(2) aqueous solution of slaked lime statements is incorrect ?

(3) limewater (1) Its salts rarely hydrolyze.

(4) quicklime (2) Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric.

(3) It is rendered passive by nitric acid.

Ans. (1)
(4) it forms Be 2 C.
Sol. Aqueous solution of slaked lime  lime water
Ans. (1)
Suspension solution of slaked lime  milk of lime
Sol. Be salts are covalent nature, so easily hyrolysed.
15