SCIENCE PRETEST

Earth Science and General Information 8. While many different gases are found in the
atmosphere, a number do NOT contribute
1. Of the following, the rock that is most significantly to solar heating of the
resistant to both chemical and mechanical atmosphere. Which TWO of the following
weathering is: gases do NOT absorb much heat?
a. Shale a. carbon dioxide
b. Limestone b. nitrogen
c. Marble c. water vapor
d. Quartzite d. oxygen

9. Global climate change is being attributed to

2. Which of the following energy sources does
the atmospheric increase in what two gases
NOT originally come from the Sun?
produced by human activities?
a. Wind
a. ozone and carbon monoxide
b. Ocean and Thermal energy conversion
b. ozone and methane
c. Geothermal
c. nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide
d. Hydroelectric
d. methane and carbon dioxide
3. A volcano which is composed of lava flows
10. In geological studies, all the following are
and pyroclastic material and which is steep-
TRUE of P waves except that they:
sided and very tall is known as:
a. are body waves
a. Syncline
b. travel like sound waves
b. Composite cone
c. can pass through liquids
c. Anticline
d. are slower than S waves
d. None
11. In geological studies, arkose contains which
4. The solidified lava of a volcano belongs to
of the following minerals which gives it a
which rock family?
reddish color?
a. Igneous
a. Orthoclase
b. Metamorphic
b. Calcite
c. Sedimentary
c. Aragonite
d. Fossilized
d. Quartz
5. In geological studies, a dome shaped
12. Which of the following pairs contains one
intrusion is called a:
igneous and one sedimentary rock?
a. Volcanic neck
a. shale and marble
b. Laccolith
b. sandstone and quartzite
c. Nuee ardente
c. granite and limestone
d. Caldera
d. obsidian and gneiss
6. Iceland has a great deal of volcanic activity.
13. Igneous rocks that form from magma are
The reason for this is:
known as:
a. it was formed above a mid-ocean rift.
a. Minerals
b. it is part of the "Ring of Fire".
b. Granite
c. two tectonic plates are rubbing against
c. Intrusive rocks
each other under Iceland
d. Gneiss
d. the American plate is diving under the
European plate in this region.
14. Which of the following is the name of the
partly melted rock layer on which the plates
7. The tanning rays of the sun are called:
move?
a. infrared rays
a. Lithosphere
b. visible light
b. Asthenosphere
c. ultraviolet rays
c. Hydrosphere
d. gamma rays
d. Outer core
SCIENCE PRETEST
15. What is the name given to a region where 22. Brass gets discolored in air because of the
one plate of the earth's crust is sliding under presence of which of the following gases in
another? air?
a. Induction zone a. Oxygen
b. Abduction zone b. Hydrogen sulphide
c. Subduction zone c. Carbon monoxide
d. Fun zone d. Nitrogen

16. The name of a rapid rise of coastal water that 23. Which of the following is a nonmetal that
accompanies the arrival of a cyclone is remains liquid at room temperature?
called: a. Phosphorous
a. Hurricane b. Bromine
b. Storm surge c. Chlorine
c. Tidal wave d. Helium
d. Cyclonistat

17. Certain substances are classified as water

pollutants, others as air pollutants and still
others as land pollutants. Which of the
following pollutes all three parts of our
environment?
a. Fluorocarbons
b. Smog
c. Acid rain
d. Ozone

18. Of the following four geologic periods, which 24. The highest elevation on this topographic
is the oldest? map can be no more than about,
a. Devonian a. 25 meters
b. Silurian b. 34 meters
c. Permian c. 45 meters
d. Jurassic d. 49 meters

19. During which period, in the earth's history, 25. A day on Saturn takes about 10 Earth hours.
did MOST dinosaurs become extinct? Which fact would best explain this short
a. Carboniferous day?
b. Cretaceous a. Saturn is less dense than Earth.
c. Quaternary b. Saturn is much farther from the Sun
d. Triassic than Earth.
c. Saturn rotates more rapidly than
20. The deep, least productive part of a lake is Earth.
called the: d. Saturn’s orbit has greater eccentricity
a. Littoral zone than Earth’s.
b. Profundal zone
c. Photic zone 26. In an area where a river has cut deep into
d. Limnetic zone Earth, there are several layers of very
different rock exposed. The oldest rock layer
21. Which of the following does NOT affect sea is most likely to be the layer that is
level change? a. Below the other layers
a. Antarctic ice sheet b. The thickest layer
b. Small glaciers and ice caps c. The richest in fossils
c. Arctic sea ice d. Igneous intrusive rock
d. Greenland ice sheet
SCIENCE PRETEST
30. Although many ancient civilizations
designated certain patterns of stars as
constellations, they never included planets
in their constellations. What feature of
planets, as opposed to stars, explains this?
a. They look bigger than stars.
b. They are more difficult to see than stars.
c. There are not enough of them to form a
constellation.
d. They do not maintain fixed positions
27. A student models an impact crater on the relative to other planets or stars.
Moon by dropping a marble from a known
height onto a pan of smooth flour. Before
reaching any conclusions about the results
of this simple experiment, the student
repeats the activity several times so that
a. differences produced by standard
variability in conditions become
clear.
b. she can produce as large a crater as
possible before measuring a diameter
c. her ability to simulate a meteor impact
becomes more realistic with practice.
d. she can illustrate a perfectly circular
crater for her write-up of the experiment.

28. Which of the following statements best

31. At which location would earthquakes be
describes how the planets of the solar
least likely to occur?
system formed?
a. 1
a. They are condensed rings of matter
b. 2
thrown off by the young Sun.
c. 3
b. They are the remains of an exploded
d. 4
star once paired with the Sun.
c. The Sun captured them from smaller,
older nearby stars.
d. They formed from a nebular cloud of
dust and gas.

29. Evidence suggests that Earth is about 4.6

billion years old, even though no Earth rocks
have been found that can be dated at more
than 4 billion years old. This discrepancy is
most likely caused by Earth’s original crust
being
a. difficult to date so precisely
b. subject to extensive erosion 32. Which of these statements is best illustrated
c. blasted away during Earth’s formation by this diagram?
d. destroyed by solar radiation a. Animals under water eat plants.
b. Land animals exhale oxygen into water.
c. Water-dwelling animals breathe carbon
dioxide.
d. Plants can take in carbon dioxide
from air or water.
SCIENCE PRETEST
37. Which diagram best models the movement of
coastal air during the afternoon?

a.

33. What causes the wind deflection from the b.

north and south poles?
a. the rotation of Earth on its axis
b. the oblate shape of Earth
c. the tilt of Earth’s axis relative to its
orbital plane
c.
d. the difference in total land mass of the
two hemispheres

34. The Moon is very hot on the side facing the

Sun and very cold on the dark side. This d.
extreme temperature difference is primarily
due to the Moon’s 38. The primitive atmosphere of Earth was
a. Mineral composition deficient in free oxygen. What process was
b. Thin atmosphere primarily responsible for the development of
c. Reflective rocks the present percentage of free oxygen in the
d. Lack of volcanic activity Earth’s atmosphere?
a. Outgassing
35. Which of these could increase average b. Photosynthesis
global temperatures? c. Volcanic eruptions
a. increased use of fossil fuels d. Oxidation of iron-based minerals
b. increased ocean algal blooms
c. decreased carbon dioxide emissions 39. Earth’s atmosphere is divided into layers
d. increased numbers of animal species that are based upon their:
a. Water content
36. The clouds that surround Venus are so thick b. Relative humidity
that the planet absorbs less sunlight than the c. Gas content
Earth. Nevertheless, Venus has a surface d. Temperature gradient
temperature of more than 400 οC. Which of
this best explains this high surface 40. Carbon in the atmosphere is most often
temperature? found as which of the following compounds?
a. The bright surfaces of the clouds reflect a. Stratospheric ozone
sunlight back on the planet. b. Fossil fuel
b. The strong winds in the atmosphere c. Carbon monoxide
produce friction. d. Carbon dioxide
c. The thick clouds in the atmosphere
prevent heat from escaping.
d. The sulfuric acid in the clouds releases
heat energy.
SCIENCE PRETEST
Biology
1. Which of the following is NOT a statement of 6. Which structure is common to plant and
the Classical Cell Theory? animal cells?
a. All cells come from pre-existing cells. a. chloroplast
b. Cells are the basic structural and b. central vacuole
functional units of living things. c. mitochondrion
c. All cells are identical. d. centriole
d. All living things are made up of cells.
7. Which of the following shows an example of
species extinction by anthropogenic
2. Which of the following structures is/are
causes?
responsible for the synthesis of proteins in
a. Approximately 4,000 years ago, woolly
the cell?
mammoths (Mammuthus primigenius)
a. Lysosomes
became extinct due to habitat loss
b. Ribosomes
caused by climate change.
c. Mitochondria
b. Tasmanian tigers (Thylacinus
d. Golgi bodies
cynocephalus) were driven to
extinction in 1936, primarily due to
3. A woman with homozygous dominant brown
habitat destruction caused by
eyes is married to a man with heterozygous
European colonizers, who introduced
dominant brown eyes. Assuming that the
competing species and engaged in
alleles for brown eyes are dominant over the
extensive hunting.
alleles for blue eyes, what is the predicted
c. Researchers believed that the extinction
genotypic ratio of their offspring ( F1
of Golden toads (Incilius periglenes)
generation)?
was driven by the spread of the deadly
a. 1:0
amphibian chytrid fungus.
b. 1:2:1
d. Dire wolves (Aenocyon dirus) struggled
c. 3:1
to compete with gray wolves (Canis
d. 1:1
lupus) for food, as gray wolves are more
adaptable and capable of surviving on a
4. If John accidentally cuts his finger with a
broader range of food sources. This
cutter while working with a piece of
competition, along with other factors,
cardboard for his project, which of the
contributed to their extinction.
following will help prevent and stop the
bleeding?
8. A process that produces cells with half the
a. Red blood cells
chromosome number of the parent cell.
b. Platelets
a. Meiosis
c. Erythrocytes
b. Fertilization
d. White blood cells
c. Sexual Reproduction
d. Mitosis
5. A reflex action is an involuntary response to
a stimulus. Which of the following shows the
9. How many chromosomes does a human
correct neural pathway for a reflex action?
somatic cell contain?
a.
a. 4 (2 pairs)
stimulus receptor sensory neuron motor neuron effector response
b. 24 (12 pairs)
c. 46 (23 pairs)
b.
d. 92 (46 pairs)
stimulus receptor motor neuron sensory neuron effector response
10. In what stage of the nitrogen cycle is
c.
ammonia converted into nitrate by bacteria
stimulus effector motor neuron sensory neuron receptor response
present in the soil?
a. Ammonification
d.
b. Denitrification
stimulus effector sensory neuron motor neuron receptor responsec. Assimilation
d. Nitrification
SCIENCE PRETEST
d. carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
11. This process refers to the fusion of a haploid 17. The phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane
sperm from the father with a haploid egg is impermeable to large molecules such as
from the mother. glucose and charged inorganic ions such as
a. Asexual Reproduction sodium ions. However, these molecules are
b. Sexual Reproduction essential to several cellular processes. How
c. Parthenogenesis do these molecules enter the cell?
d. Fertilization a. Glucose enters the cell through active
transport while sodium ions enter the
12. Which of the following occurs during the cell through facilitated diffusion.
process of mitosis? b. Glucose enters the cell through active
a. It involves sex cells or gametes. transport while sodium ions enter the
b. Genetic recombination takes place. cell through passive transport.
c. It produces haploid daughter cells. c. Glucose enters the cell through
d. None of the above. facilitated diffusion while sodium
ions enter the cell through active
13. Which of the following is governed by the transport.
Laws of Mendelian Inheritance? d. Both molecules cannot enter the cell.
a. Pink color in snapdragons
b. Hitchhiker’s thumb 18. Below is a pedigree chart showing the
c. Calico cats inheritance of sickle cell anemia through a
d. Human blood type family’s generation. Having sickle cell
anemia is an autosomal recessive trait.
14. What phase of mitosis are we referring to
when the sister chromatids align at the
metaphase/equatorial plate and the spindle
microtubules are already attached to the
kinetochores of the chromosomes?
a. Metaphase
b. Telophase
c. Prophase
d. Anaphase a. If individuals II-4 and II-5 will have a
fourth child, there will be a 50% chance
15. Camels possess numerous adaptive traits it will acquire sickle cell anemia.
that enable them to thrive in desert b. Individual II-3 is a non-carrier,
environments. Which of the following is NOT unaffected male.
true regarding the adaptations of camels? c. Individual I-1 is a carrier of sickle cell
a. They have large flat feet that allow them anemia.
to spread their weight on the sand and d. If individual III-3 married a female with
avoid sinking. sickle cell anemia, only female offspring
b. Camels have thick skin for moisture will acquire the disease.
retention.
c. Camels have large humps that store 19. Below are the different stages of mitosis.
water in times of food scarcity. Which of the following events correctly
d. Camels have the ability to open and matches the stages of mitosis?
close their nostrils to prevent sand from a. Prophase: the cell's nuclear membrane
entering. remains while the nucleolus starts to
disappear
16. Cellular respiration is a metabolic pathway b. Metaphase: centrioles start to move
that produces ATP by breaking down toward the opposite poles of the cell
glucose molecules. Determine which of the c. Anaphase: the spindle fibers start to
following are the products of cellular shorten and will pull the sister
respiration: chromatids away from each other
a. oxygen, ATP, NADPH d. Telophase: the nuclear envelope breaks
b. G3P, NADP+, ADP down
c. oxygen and glucose
SCIENCE PRETEST
26. Statement 1: Stamen is known to be the male
20. Which among the chemical equations below fertilizing organ of a flower that consists of
represents the process of cellular an anther and filament.
respiration? Statement 2: The pistil is the female
a. fertilizing organ of a flower that consists of
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP
an ovary, anther, stigma, and style.
b. 6 CO2 + 6 H2O C6H12O6 + 6 O2 a. First statement is true while the second
c. C2H5OH + 3 O2 2 CO2 + 3 H2O statement is false.
d. C6H12O6 2 C2H5OH + 2 CO2 b. First statement is false while the second
statement is true.
21. Photosynthesis occurs in which of the c. Both statements are true.
following organisms: d. Both statements are false.
a. Cyanobacteria
b. Algae 27. In isotonic solution, a red blood cell remains
c. Plants in the same size and shape. Why is this so?
d. All of the above. a. The concentration of solutes inside
and outside of the cell is the same.
22. Which cellular structure is a result of apical b. Water molecules are more concentrated
modification? outside of the cell.
a. Ribosomes c. There is no movement of water in and
b. Tight junctions out of the cell.
c. Desmosomes d. This is because of the presence of cell
d. Microvilli wall.

23. A eukaryotic DNA from one cell measures 28. Statement 1: The outermost covering of the
nearly two meters long if taken and stretched leaf is called the epidermis which consists of
out from the cell. With this length, how does guard cells, with a pores called stomata
the long dna molecule fit inside the nucleus which facilitates gas exchange.
of every cell? Statement 2: The lower epidermis is
a. It is tightly coiled around histones. generally made up of more stomata
b. It undergoes supercoiling. compared to the upper epidermis.
c. It forms a superhelix structure. a. First statement is true while the second
d. All of the above. statement is false.
b. First statement is false while the second
24. Which of the following BEST shows an statement is true.
example of simple diffusion? c. Both statements are true.
a. Water molecules moving into a plant cell d. Both statements are false.
after rain
b. Red food coloring moving through
the water until it becomes pink 29. Using a compound microscope, you were
c. Water molecules leaving the cells of a able to observe cells undergoing mitotic cell
freshwater fish when placed in a division. If the cells are from an onion root,
saltwater tank which of the following processes could you
d. Ice melts at room temperature observe?
a. The replication of centrioles.
25. Aside from the presence of membrane- b. The formation of a cell plate between
bound organelles, eukaryotes are distinct two new cells.
from prokaryotes due to their ________? c. The pinching-in of the cell membrane to
a. Ability to perform protein synthesis form two nuclei.
b. B. Mode of reproduction d. The pairing of homologous
c. C. Presence of DNA chromosomes.
d. D. Ability to undergo cell division
SCIENCE PRETEST
30. Which structure prevents the plant cell from 35. All are proper ways of using a compound
bursting when placed in a hypotonic microscope, except?
solution? a. Use the fine adjustment knob to move
a. Central vacuole the stage quickly and bring the object in
b. Cell membrane focus.
c. Cell wall b. Place the slide on the stage and secure
d. Plant cytoskeleton it with the stage clips.
c. To acquire the greatest amount of light,
31. Why is a cell membrane selectively adjust the iris diaphragm and light
permeable? intensity.
a. To control the flow of substances in and d. Do not touch the glass part of the lenses
out of the cell. with your fingers, instead use special
b. To provide the structural integrity of the lens paper.
cell.
c. To maintain the shape of the cell. 36. Which of the following statements on active
d. To allow the entry of all substances transport is incorrect?
inside the cell. a. It is highly selective.
b. It transports molecules against their
32. Which of the following statements about concentration gradient.
carbohydrates is incorrect? c. It requires ATP.
a. It is not a constituent of nucleic acids. d. An example of active transport is
b. It is an energy source; the hydrolysis of facilitated diffusion.
these compounds releases energy
c. during oxidation. 37. Which of the following statements regarding
d. It serves as a storage compound in the prokaryotes and eukaryotes is true?
form of glycogen. a. All prokaryotes are unicellular, while all
e. It serves as a structural component in eukaryotes are multicellular.
cell membranes. b. B. Some prokaryotes are multicellular,
while some eukaryotes are unicellular.
33. Several hormones play a role in regulating c. Some prokaryotes are unicellular, while
the menstrual cycle. Which of the following all eukaryotes are multicellular.
does NOT show the correct hormone- d. All prokaryotes are unicellular, while
function relationship involving the menstrual some eukaryotes are unicellular.
cycle?
a. Progesterone prepares the 38. It refers to the process where specialized
endometrium for pregnancy. structures are acquired by cells after cell
b. Estrogen triggers the release of LH division to benefit the cell.
which causes ovulation. a. Cell Transformation
c. FSH stimulates the thickening of the b. Cell Modification
lining of the uterus. c. Cell Alteration
d. LH triggers the release of an egg from d. Cell Mutation
the ovary.
39. It is a network of tubular and vesicular
34. Which of the following are not proteins? structures that is responsible for the
a. Enzymes detoxification of drugs in liver cells.
b. Hormones a. Peroxisomes
c. Antibodies b. B. Lysosomes
d. None of the above c. C. Rough ER
d. D. Smooth ER
SCIENCE PRETEST

40. Above is a pedigree chart showing the

inheritance of face freckles through a
family’s generation. Having freckles is an
autosomal dominant trait.
If individual II-3 marries a female that is
heterozygous dominant for face freckles,
what is the probability that the child will have
face freckles?
a. Water content
b. Relative humidity
c. Gas content
d. Temperature gradient
SCIENCE PRETEST
Chemistry a. Sublimation, evaporation
b. Filtration, distillation
1. There are three (3) fundamental particles that c. Sublimation, filtration
make up an atom. What are these particles d. Distillation, evaporation
and their corresponding charges?
a. Electron (-), Neutron (+), Proton (no 7. Which of the following is a compound?
charge) a. table salt
b. Electron (+), Neutron (no charge), b. sea water
Proton (-) c. diamond
c. Electron (-), Neutron (no charge), Proton d. bronze
(+)
8. Which of the following is an element?
d. Electron (no charge), Neutron (+),
a. alloy
Proton (-)
b. bronze
c. quicksilver
2. Which of the following statements is true d. milk
about ionic compounds?
a. Ionic compounds are made up of both 9. What are isotopes?
cations and anions. a. Atoms that have the same number of
b. Ionic compounds are made up of non- neutrons but different atomic numbers.
metallic elements. b. Atoms that have the same atomic
c. Ionic compounds are made up of anions number but different number of
of non-metallic elements. neutrons.
d. Ionic compounds are made up of c. Atoms that have the same number of
cations of metallic elements. protons and electrons.
d. Atoms that have the same number of
3. Which of the following statements is not true protons but different number of
about atomic structure? electrons.
a. Most of the mass of an atom is
concentrated in the nucleus. 10. What does the mass number represent?
b. An atom can gain or lose electrons a. Number of protons
without changing its charge. b. Number of electrons
c. Atoms are made up of mostly empty c. Number of neutrons
space. d. Number of protons and neutrons
d. All atoms that have the same atomic
number are atoms of the same element. 11. The empirical formula is CH2O. Its molar
mass is 180.18 g/mol. What is its molecular
4. When does an atom become positively formula?
charged? a. C2H4O2
e. If it loses protons b. C4H8O4
f. If it gains protons c. C6H12O6
g. If it loses electrons d. C8H16O8
h. If it gains electrons
12. Which of the following equations represent a
5. How would you classify a homogeneous combustion type of reaction?
liquid that cannot be separated into its a. CaO + H2O Ca(OH)2
components by distillation but can be b. 2 CH4 + 4 O2 2 CO2 + 4 H2O
decomposed by electrolysis? c. 2 N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3
a. Mixture d.
b. Compound Mg(OH)2 + H2SO4 MgSO4 + 2 H2O
c. Substance
d. Solution

13. Balancing a chemical equation should

6. Which among the following is the best way satisfy which of the following laws in
to separate a mixture of salt, water and chemistry?
ethanol?
SCIENCE PRETEST
a. Law of Multiple Proportions
b. Law of Conservation of Mass
c. Law of Definite Proportions
d. Law of Conservation of Momentum

14. How many orbitals are there for p orbitals?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

15. How many orbitals are there for s orbitals?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

16. Which of the following states that an atom

should have 8 electrons in its valence shell
to achieve a stable state?
a. Thomson’s rule
b. Rutherford’s rule
c. Octet rule
d. Chargaff’s rule

17. What is the molecular shape of CO2?

a. Bent
b. Linear
c. Octahedral
d. Tetrahedral

18. The aluminium ion is Al3+ while the sulfate

ion is SO4^2-. Given the following ions, what
is the correct formula for aluminum sulfate?
a. Al3SO4^2-
b. Al3(SO4)2
c. Al2(SO4)3
d. Al2SO12

19. What is the chemical name of the chemical

formula Na2SO3?
a. Sodium sulfide
b. Sodium sulfite
c. Sodium triosulfide
d. Sodium sulfate

20. What is the chemical name (aqueous form) of

the chemical formula HCl?
a. Hydrogen chloride
b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Hydrogen chlorite
d. Hydrochlorite
SCIENCE PRETEST
Physics 6. You throw a ball vertically upward from the
roof of a tall building. The ball leaves your
1. A student walks 13 meters North, 5 meters hand at a point even with the roof railing with
East, 7 meters North, and 3 meters West to an upward speed of 15.0 m/s; the ball is then
attend their Physics class. What is the total in free fall. On its way back down, it just
displacement and its direction? misses the railing. Find the ball’s position
a. 20m, NE from the origin 4.00s after leaving your hand.
b. 20m, NW a. 17.48m
c. 21m, NE b. 18.48m
d. 21m, NW c. 29.95m
d. 28.95m
2. The world land speed record of 763.0 mi/h
7. A motorcycle stunt rider rides off the edge of
was set on October 15, 1997 by Andy Green
a cliff. Just at the edge his velocity is
in the jet-engine car Thrust SSC. Express
horizontal, with a magnitude of 9.0 m/s. Find
this speed in meters per second.
the motorcycle’s distance from the edge of
a. 317.92 m/s
the cliff 0.50 s after it leaves the edge of the
b. 20461.12 m/s
cliff.
c. 341.02 m/s
a. 4.5m
d. 21422.26 m/s
b. 4.6m
c. 4.7m
3. A motorcyclist heading east through a small
d. 4.8m
town accelerates at a constant 4.0 m/s^2
after he leaves the city limits. At time t = 0 he
8. A batter hits a baseball so that it leaves the
is 5.0 m east of the city-limits signpost while
bat at speed v0 = 37.0 m/s at an angle α0 =
he moves east at 15 m/s. Find his position
60°. Find the velocity of the ball at t = 2.00 s.
from city-limits signpost and velocity at t =
a. vx= 18.5m/s, vy= 12.42 m/s
2.0 s.
b. vx= 18.5m/s, vy= -12.42m/s
a. 43m, 21.5m/s
c. vx= -18.5m/s, vy= 12.42m/s
b. 35m, 23m/s
d. vx= -18.5m/s, vy= -12.42m/s
c. 35m, 21.5m/s
d. 43m, 23m/s
9. Passengers on a carnival ride move at
constant speed in a horizontal circle of
4. A motorist traveling at a constant 15 m/s
radius 5.0 m, making a complete circle in 4.0
passes a school crossing violating the
s. What is their acceleration?
school speed limit. Just as the motorist
a. 12.54 m/s^2
passes the school crossing sign, a police
b. b. 10.54 m/s^2
officer on a motorcycle stopped there starts
c. c. 12.32 m/s^2
in pursuit with a constant acceleration 3.0
d. d. 10.32 m/s^2
m/s^2. How much time elapses before the
officer passes the motorist?
10. A segment of steel rod has a length of 60m
a. 9s
when the temperature is 0°C. What will be its
b. 10s
new length when the temperature increases
c. 11s
to 50°C? α=12x10-6 (C°)-1
d. 12s
e. Number of protons
5. A coin is dropped from the tower and falls f. Number of electrons
freely from rest. What are its position and g. Number of neutrons
velocity after 3.0 s? h. Number of protons and neutrons
a. 44.145m, 29.43m/s
b. 40.215m, 29.43m/s 11. A metal bar measures 10cm at 50°F. What
c. 44.145m, 28.43m/s would be its new length at 32°F if α=1.5x10-6
d. 40.215m, 28.43m/s (C°)-1?
a. 999.9mm
b. 0.00999m
c. 0.000099km
d. 9.99 in
SCIENCE PRETEST
16. Which of the following best describes the
12. The diamond is the strongest mineral ever difference between concave and convex
recorded that can break glass. What will be lenses?
its speed of light when its index of refraction a. Concave lenses are thicker in the middle
is 2.417? and converge light rays, while convex
a. 1.32x10^8 m/s lenses are thinner in the middle and
b. 1.12x10^8 m/s diverge light rays.
c. 1.46x10^8 m/s b. Concave lenses are thinner in the
d. 1.24x10^8 m/s middle and diverge light rays, while
convex lenses are thicker in the middle
13. A 4cm tall light bulb is placed at a distance and converge light rays.
of 50cm from a concave mirror having a focal c. Both types of lenses converge light rays,
length of 15cm. Determine the image but concave lenses have a shorter focal
distance. length.
a. 22.80cm d. Both types of lenses diverge light rays,
b. 23.45cm but convex lenses have a longer focal
c. 21.43cm length.
d. 20.84cm
17. All of the following are crucial
14. A 5cm tall hoop is placed at a distance of considerations for storing temperature-
36cm from a convex mirror having a focal sensitive chemicals, EXCEPT:
length of -12cm. Determine the image size. a. Maintaining consistent temperature
a. 1.25 within the storage area is solely
b. 1.02 dependent on the type of refrigeration
c. 1.42 unit used.
d. 1.32 b. Monitoring temperature fluctuations
within the storage area is essential to
15. Which of the following best explains the ensure product stability and prevent
phenomenon of red and orange sunsets? degradation.
a. Increased atmospheric scattering of c. Implementing temperature alarms and
shorter wavelengths due to the regular monitoring procedures can help
increased path length of sunlight prevent costly losses due to temperature
through the atmosphere at sunset. excursions.
b. The Sun's actual temperature decreases d. The specific temperature range required
as it approaches the horizon, emitting for storage may vary significantly
more red and orange light. depending on the chemical's properties
c. The Earth's shadow begins to obscure and intended use.
the Sun, filtering out most of the visible
spectrum except for the longer, redder 18. Which of the following best explains why
wavelengths. driving at high speeds and then braking
d. The angle of incidence of sunlight on the suddenly significantly increases the risk of
Earth's surface changes at sunset, accidents compared to driving at moderate
causing a shift in the perceived color of speeds?
the Sun. a. Increased kinetic energy at higher
speeds requires a much greater force to
decelerate, potentially overwhelming the
braking system and leading to loss of
control.
b. Higher speeds increase the likelihood of
tire blowouts, making it impossible to
control the vehicle during an emergency
braking situation.
c. The driver's reaction time is significantly
slower at higher speeds, reducing the
available time to react to unforeseen
hazards.
SCIENCE PRETEST
d. High speeds increase the severity of ladder. If his mass is m, what is his potential
any impact that does occur, leading to energy right before he falls?
more significant damage to the vehicle a. mgh2
and potentially more severe injuries to b. mgh
occupants. c. √❑
d. 2mgh
19. If a car's shock absorbers are failing or worn
out, how would a human body most likely
react during a bumpy road drive? 23. A ball drops from a height h. What more do
a. Experience significantly increased we need to calculate initial potential energy?
vertical motion, feeling more jolts and a. Elasticity of the ball
bouncing. b. Horizontal displacement
b. Feel a smoother ride due to reduced c. Final velocity
friction between the tires and the road. d. Mass
c. Experience less body roll and improved
handling in corners. 24. Which of the following is not an example of
d. Feel no noticeable difference in ride potential energy?
comfort. a. An incredibly compressed spring
b. An apple dangling off a branch
20. You need more power to start a bike from c. A candy bar
rest primarily because: d. A running woman
a. The initial acceleration phase demands
the highest power output to rapidly 25. What is the resistance in a circuit with a
increase the bike's kinetic energy. voltage of 50V and a current of 8A?
b. Overcoming the combined inertia of the a. 42Ω
bike and rider requires a significant b. 58Ω
initial force, which translates to a high c. 0.16Ω
power demand.
d. 6.25Ω
c. Friction and air resistance, while
present, are relatively minor factors 26. An electrical circuit has a total of 3.22Ω
compared to the energy required to resistance and 8V. What is the current?
overcome inertia and accelerate the a. 11.22A
combined mass of the bike and rider. b. 2.48A
d. The human body is most efficient at c. 0.403A
exerting force at moderate speeds, d. 0.089A
making it inherently more difficult to
generate the necessary power to initiate 27. An electrical circuit has a current of 8A and
motion from a standstill. 32Ω of resistance. What is the voltage?
a. 40V
21. A man stands on a tall ladder of height h. He b. 0.25V
leans over a little too far and falls off the c. 4V
ladder. If his mass is m, what is his velocity d. 256V
right before he hits the ground?
a. √❑ 28. A circuit has a current, I, a voltage, V, and a
b. (2mgh)2 resistance, R. If the voltage remains
c. g(mh)2 constant, but the current is doubled (2I),
d. √❑ what must the new resistance be?
a. 2R
b. 1/2R
c. 4R
d. 1/4R

29.
If the mass is 5kg and A = 50, what is the tension, T? Assum
22. A man stands on a tall ladder of height h. He
a. 56.1N
leans over a little too far and falls off the
SCIENCE PRETEST
b. 64.7N
c. 41.8N
d. 38.3N

30. What is the tension force on a wire holding a

10 kg ball 20 ft above the ground, if the ball
is not moving at that height? (g = 9.8 m/s^2)
a. 49N
b. 0N
c. 6N
d. 98N