Geography English
Geography English
37°6'
8°4'
Facts & Figures (India) Eastern most point : Kibithu (Arunachal Pradesh)
Latitudinal Extent : 8°4’ to 37°6’N Western most point : Ghuar Mota (Runn of Kutch)
Longitudinal Extent : 68°7’E to 97°25’ E Highest mountain point : 8611m Godwin Austin-K2
North-South Extent : 3214 km. States : 29
East-West Extent : 2933 km. Union Territories : 8
Land Area : 3287263 sq. km. Largest State (area): Rajasthan (342,239 sq.km.)
Land Frontier : 15200 kms. Smallest State (area): Goa (3,702 sq. km.)
Coast line (inc. island) : 7516.6 kms.
Largest State (population):Uttar Pradesh (199,28,1477)
Southern most point of mainland : Kanyakumari
Smallest State (population): Sikkim (607,688)
Southern most point of Indian Territory: Indira Point
Total Districts : 808
Northern most point : Indira Col
Eastern Ghats are in the form of residual The longest glacier is Siachin in the Nubra
mountains which are not regular but broken valley, which is more than 72 km long (biggest
at intervals. The Eastern and the Western glacier in the world).
Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.
Batura, Hispar are the other important glaciers
6. Type of Himalayas in this region.
valley. The Chumbi River flows through this Pradesh and Myanmar Naga Hills
pass. Manipuri Hills – Border between Manipur
(ix) Jalep La (Pass) – At the tri-junction of and Myanmar
India- China-Bhutan. The Teesta river has Mizo Hills.
created this pass. Patkai Bum and Naga Hills form the watershed
between India and Myanmar.
7. The North- Eastern Himalayas
Extension of Purvanchal continues in Myanmar
Patkai Bum – Border between Arunachal as Arakan Yoma – then Andaman and Nicobar
Islands.
Patkai hills – border between Arunachal The northern plain of India is formed by three
Pradesh and Myanmar. river systems, i.e. the Indus, the Ganga and the
Manipuri hills – border between Manipuri and Brahmaputra; along with their tributaries.
Myanmar. Manipur has loktak lake and
Mizoram has molassis basin which are soft The northern plains are the largest alluvial tract
unconsolidated deposits. of the world. These plains extend approximately
3200 km from west to east.
8. Northern Plains According to recent estimates, the average depth
of alluvium in the southern side of the plain
Youngest physiographic feature in India.
varies between 1300-1400m, while towards the
Depositional flood plain created by Himalayan
Shivaliks, the depth of alluvium increases. The
rivers like Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra and maximum depth of over 8000m has been reached
Yamuna. Densely populated with 30% of world in parts of Haryana.
population on 10% of worlds agricultural land.
TYPE OF NORTHERN PLAIN
Mikir
ge
Naga
an
iR
Hills
al
e
av
ng Barail
Ar
Ra
a Rajmahal Range
dhy Hills
n
Vi Mizo Hills
e
e
ng
ng
Ra
Ra
ra
pu
la
t
ka
Sa
ai
Gir Hills
M
Garhjat Hills
Ajanta Range
Ha Nayagarh Hills
ris
hC
ha
B
nd
ra
T
Ra
a
ng
e
A
y
S e a
o
G
Palkonda Hills
B
A r a b i a n
Nilgiri Hills
R
Velikonda Range
n
E
Port Blair
g
Shevaroy Hills
T
Annamalai Hills
S
l
A
Cardamom Hills
E
2. Khadar – new flood plains with very fertile soil This is formed by the Indus and its tributaries;
like Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej.
3. Bangar – old flood plains with calcerous
A major portion of these plains is in Pakistan.
kanker formation; less fertile
Ganga Plains
4. Terai – bad drainage with swampy land.
The Ganga plains lie between the Yamuna
9. Mountain Ranges catchment in the west to the Bangladesh border
in the East.
10. Regional Division of Northern Plain The lower Ganga plain has been formed by the
down warping of a part of the Peninsular India
Punjab Plain between Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya
The Punjab plains form the western part of the plateau and subsequent sedimentation by the
northern plain. Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.
In the east, the Delhi-Aravali ridge separates it Brahmaputra Plains
from the Ganga plains.
This plain forms the eastern part of the northern
Its western boundary is formed by the Indo- The northern segment of the peninsular plateau
Bangladesh border as well as the boundary of is known as the Central Highlands.
the lower Ganga Plain. Its eastern boundary is Location:
formed by Purvanchal hills. i) North of Narmada River.
The region is surrounded by high mountains ii) They are bounded to the west by the Aravallis.
on all sides, except on the west. iii) Satpura ranges (formed by a series of
The whole length of the plain is traversed by scarped plateaus) lie in the South.
the Brahmaputra. General Elevation: 700-1,000 m above the mean
11. Peninsular Plateau sea level and it slopes towards the north and
The Peninsular Plateau lies to the south of the Malwa plateau Bundelkhand plateau
Northern Plains of the India. Baghelkhand plateau Chhotanagpur plateau
Delhi ridge in the north-west (extension of 2. The Deccan Plateau
Aravalis), the Rajmahal hills in the east, Gir
The Deccan Plateau lies to the south of the
range in the west, and The Cardamom hills in
the south constitute the outer extent of the Narmada River and is shaped as an inverted
peninsular plateau. triangle.
On the basis of prominent relief features, the It is bordered by:
peninsular plateau can be divided into three i) The Western Ghats in the west,
broad groups : ii) The Eastern Ghats in the east,
The Central Highlands iii) The Satpura, Maikal range and Mahadeo
The Deccan Plateau hills in the north.
The North-eastern Plateau. It is volcanic in origin, made up of horizontal
1. The Central Highlands layers of solidified lava forming trap structure
Pamir Gland
Kunlu
n Cat
egory
Hindu
Kush
Ka
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K2 akor
INDIA RELIEF
La am
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Su
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Narm Satp Maha
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600 – 1,200
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Coromandel Coast
te
300 – 600
Eas
0 – 300 Andaman
Eucalyptus
Mal
Hills
sea
Mountain Range
avar
Kaveri River
6
C
oas
Car
(2,695) (India)
India
da
mom
Hind Ocean
Rakesh Yadav Readers Publication Pvt. Ltd
originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli case of inland drainage by joining a lake or
Range, near Ajmer and flows towards the playa e.g. the Sambhar Lake. The lakes and the
southwest into the Rann of Kutch. playas have brackish water which is the main
The region north of Luni is known as the Thali source of obtaining salt.
or sandy plain.
14. Coastal Plain
There are some streams which disappear after It extends from Rann of Kutch to Sunderbans.
flowing for some distance and present a typical
and eastern coastal plain. these days after lying dormant for 200 years.
mostly the right bank tributaries originating The Jamuna in Bangladesh Major left bank
The Chambal, Sind, Betwa, Ken and Tons are the Dhansari (South)
Kalang
Dibang Lohit
Brahmaputra
Ghaghara
Subansiri
G
Dhubri
an
Yamuna Ma
da
Tista na
s
k
Ganga Kosi
Ramganga
Pa
Gomati Dhansiri
d
ma
Banas
Kopil
Chambal Dhasan
Kali Sindh Ken Son Mayurakshi
Parvati Betwa Koel
Narmada River Meghna
Mahanadi River
Hooghly
Tapti River
God
avari
Bh River
R i im a
ve
r
ve na
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is
Ri
Kr
Ka
ver
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Pranhita.
800
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Lokpavn,i Patk,l
Sm
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Arkava ,it Dha rtn.j
Kaban ,i Bokad,
Bhavan ,i Ama rva
it
Am arva
h
.ti
Tapi Multai in betul Dist, (M.P.)
18. Important Towns on the Bank of
730 Rivers
Jhansi Betwa
Hyderabad
ANDHRA Pondicherry (Yanam)
PRADESH
Panaji
GOA
Bangalor
Pondicherry (Mahe) Andaman
Lakshadweep &
Kavarat Nicobar
Islands Islands
INDIA
AN
JAMMU LADAKH
G
&
AF
KASHMIR
HIMACHAL HIMACHAL
PRADESH PRADESH
PUNJAB
CHINA
(TIBET)
UTTARAKHAND
L
HARYANA HA
DELHI New Delhi NAC H
NEP U
AR AD E
S
AL
PR
UTTAR BHUTAN
PRADESH
RAJASTHAN
BIHAR
BANGLADESH
JHARKHAND
MADHYA
GUJARAT
H
PRADESH
AR
ISG
TT
ODISHA
HA
CH
SOIL
Soil type Depth of Soil pH
soil in cm range
Humid Sub- tropical South of Himalayas: Uttarpradesh, Mild winters and extremely hot
Climate (with dry winters) Bihar, West bengal, Assam. summers, rainfall: 100 to 200cm
anually, mostly during south west
monsoon.
Mountain Climate Himalayan region (above 6000m Cold winters, mild summers, rainfall
or more) eg: Jammu & Kashmir, varies greatly (63.5–254 cm),
Himachal pradesh, Uttrakhand, increases with elevation.
Arunachal pradesh.
Desert Soils
Mangrove Soils
Bluish green color due to sulphide.
Can’t support plants but only mangroves. Present in coastal areas of all states.
Snowfields
The area under snow and glaciers is about 4 million hectares. The high peaks of the Greater Himalayas,
Karakoram, Ladakh, and Zaskar are covered by ice and glaciers.
The soils in these areas is immature, generally without soil erosion, It remains frozen and is
unsuitable for the cultivation of crops.
Soils in India
Types States where Found Composition Crops Grow
(Occurrence)
Alluvial Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Rich in potash and lime Large variety of rabi and
Bihar and Jharkhand but deficient in nitrogen kharif crops such as
and phosphorus. wheat, rice, sugarcane,
cotton and jute etc.
J
W
B J
W
J
W
W
R
J
B
W
R R
W R
R
23. AGRICULTURE
Agriculture remains the most important vector of the Indian economy. More than 50% of Indian depends
upon agriculture for their livelihood.
• Biggest Employment Provider: Approx 50% of Indians depend up on agriculture sector. This makes
it a more important sector than the industry and the services.
Agricultural crop year in India is from July to June. The Indian cropping season is classified into
three main seasons based upon Monsoon-
(i) Kharif (ii) Rabi (iii) Zaid
Kharif Crops of India Sown in summers between May and July, and harvested after the rains, in
September and October. Eg: Rice, Jowar, Bajra, Maize, Cotton, Jute, Sugarcane, Tobacco, Groundnut,
Pulses, etc.
Rabi Crops of India Sown at the beginning of winter and harvested before the onset of the summer
season, between Feb and April. Eg: Wheat, barley, oilseeds, gram, potatoes, etc.
Zaid Crops They are raised between April and June. E.g. : Melon, watermelon, cucumber, toris, leafy
Cash Crops of India (Commercial Crops) Grown mainly for the market, only a small portion of the
product is consumed by the farmers themselves (Cotton, Sugarcane etc.)
Major Agricultural Facts
State which produces largest amount of food grains – Uttar Pradesh
Largest Rice producing state in India –West Bengal
Which state produces largest amount of wheat – Uttar Pradesh
State which produces maximum amount of Maize – Andhra Pradesh
The states greatest amount of coarse cereals – Karnataka and Rajasthan
The largest mustard and rapeseed producing state – Rajasthan
Largest oilseed producing state – Gujarat
State with largest Soyabean production- Madhya Pradesh
Largest Sugarcane producing state – Uttar Pradesh
Maximum cotton producing state – Gujarat
N
N
STA
INDIA
NI
HA
Srinagar
G
AF
Jammu Tawi
RAILWAY MAP
Amritsar
Jalandhar City Simla
PAKISTAN Ludhiana Chandigarh Ambala Cantt.
CHINA
Batininda Dehra Dun
Kunuksheua
Raiwala
Sri Ganga Nagar City Jakhal Panipat
Surajgarh Rohtak Moradabad
Hisar
Rewari NEWDELHI Barelly NEP
Lalgarh
Kashganj Shahjahanpur
AL
Bikaner Alwar Mathura Gangtok Itanagar
Phalodi Bharatpur Tundla Farukhabad Narkatiaganj
BHUTAN
Phulera Amguri
Agra Lucknow Siliguri New Jaipalgurl
Merta Rd. Jaipur Kanpur Haibargaon
Jodhpur Ajmer Sultanpur Siwan Dispur
Sawari Madhopur
Alt Lumding
Luri Marwar Allahabad Varanasi Patna Katihar
Kota Jhansi
Manikpur Mugalsarai Bhagalpur Silchar
Mavli Chunar Mokama
Chittaurgarh Guna Gaya Madhupur BANGLADESH
Ruthiyai Bina Satna Azimganj
Palanpur
Bhildi Katni Garwa Rd.
New Bhuj Nagda Maksi Bokaro Sltarampur Agartala
Gandhinagar Ratlam Bhopal Jabalpur Ranchi Banddhaman
Ahmedabad Ujjain
Tatanagar Calcutoa
Kanalus Rajkot Vadodara Itarsi Nainpur
Indoor
Rourkela Kharagpur
MYANMAR
Jetalsar Khandwa Amla Bilaspur (BURMA)
Dhola Bharuch Tumsar Rd. Jharsuguda
Rupsa
Raipur
Prachi Rd. Udhna Nagpur Durg Jakhapura
Jalgaon Abhanpur
Titgarh Bhubaneshwar
Tadail
Kalyan Manikgarh Puri
Mudkhed Singapur Rd.
Mumbai Parbhari
Pune Naupada
Nizamabad Koraput
Kurduwadi
Kazipet Kottavalasa Vizianagaram
Hyderabad
Dornakal
Miraj Wadi Samalkot
Vijayawada
Nadikudi Bay
Belgaum Guntur
Hospet of
Vasco-da-gama
Hubli Guntakal Bengal
Cuddapah
Arabian Chikjajur Dharmavaram
Birur Renigunta
Sea
Mangalore Bangalore Chennai (Madras)
Hassan
Jolarpeuai
Mysore
Villupuram
ANDMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS
Salem (INDIA)
Kozhikode Vriddhachalam
Lakshadweep Sharanur
Coimbatore
Karur Tiruchchirappali
Islands Thrisur Pollachi Dindigul
Ernakulam Madurai
LEGEND Virudhunagar
International Boundary Kayankulam
Tenkasi
Important Broad Gauge Line Tiruneveli
Other Broad Gauge Line Nagercoil
Metre Gauge
Narrow Gauge Line SRI LANKA
Capital
Major Railway Junction
INDIAN OCEAN
R
a
h
stjan
& season
West
leaves in Tropical Rainfall 50-70 cm, Trees are
the su
tnetd
dry Babu ,l
Acacai,
Bengal South-
W es
tn
r
Mundra
Kandla
Kolkata
Sikka Daltej
Haldia
Mumbai
J.N.P.T. Paradip
Ratnagiri
Goa Visakhapatnam
Kakinada
New Mangalore
Ennore
Chennai
Cochin
Tuticorin
K
a
c
h
ch
h
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 183
&
Sau
a
rsh
a
rt
water
29. Major Ports InMajor
29. India Ports (West-East Coast of India)
Port Name Location Key Features
Kolkata Port West Bengal Only riverine port in
(Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) from Bay of Bengal;
India; 128 km
inland Twin
dock systems: KDS
& HDC; Known as
Gateway to Eastern
India".
Paradip Port Odisha Located at
Mahanadi river
confluence; First
major port on east
coast after
independence; All-
weather deep-water
port with 12m depth.
New Mangalore Port Karnataka Located at
Panambur on
Gurupura river; Well
connected by NH-
17 and railways.
Cochin Port Kerala Natural harbour on
Willingdon Island;
Known as "Natural
gateway to South-
West India".
Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) Maharashtra Previously Nhava
Sheva; Largest
container port in
India (55%
container cargo);
Built to reduce
Mumbai Port
pressure; Fully
mechanized with
latest tech.
Mumbai Port Maharashtra Natural harbour on
Salsette Island; One
of the oldest modern
ports; 10-12m depth
allows big ships.
Kandla Port (Deendayal Port) Gujarat Tidal port in Gulf of
Kutch, 48 km from
Bhuj; Built post-
partition (Karachi
port lost); Major
crude oil import
handler.
Visakhapatnam Port Andhra Pradesh Deepest port in
India; Known for
bulk cargo handling
on the east coast.
Note:
• These ports are managed by the Port Trust of India under the Major Port Trust Act.
• Vadhavan, Sagar, and Dugarajapatnam are newly proposed ports to enhance India's maritime
infrastructure.
N INDIA
JAMMU & KASHMIR
Srinagar
National Highway
HIMACHAL
PRADESH CHINA
PAKISTAN PUNJAB Shimla (Tibet)
Chandighar UTTARANCHAL
ARUNCHAL PRADESH
1 Dehradun
HARYANA
DELHI
NE SIKKIM
PAL Itanagar
UTTAR
PRADESH Gangtok
BHUTAN
RAJASTHAN
Jaipur
Lucknow ASSAM NAGALAND
15 2 Kohima
8 31 Dispur
Patna
3 Shillong Imphal
BIHAR
GUJARAT MEGHALAYA MANIPUR
Gandhinagar MADHYA PRADESH Ranchi Agartala
WEST TRIPURA Aizawl
Bhopal JHARKHAND BENGAL MIZORAM
CHHATTISGARH Calcutta
Baipur
6 BANGLADESH
DIU ORISSA
DAMAN MAHARASHTRA 7 Bhubaneshwar
Mumbai
DADAR & NAGAR (Bombay)
HAVELI
5
Hyderabad
ARABIAN SEA ANDHRA
4 PRADESH
YANAM BAY OF BENGAL
Panal (Pondicherry)
GOA
KARNATAKA
Chennai
Bangalore (Madras)
LAKSHADWEEP Port Blair
PONDICHERRY
MAHE (Puduchchery)
(Pondicherry) TAMIL NADU KARAIKAL ANDMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS
KERALA (Pondicherry)
Thiruvananthapuram
Southern Belt Karnataka, Tamil Nadu Gold, Iron Ore, Chromite, Manganese,
Bauxite
South Western Belt Karnataka and Goa, Kerala Iron Ore, Copper, Bauxite, Manganese,
Granite, Clay
North Western Belt Rajasthan, Gujarat Copper, Lead, Zinc, Mica, Manganese, Ste-
atite, Sandstone, Granite, Marble, Gypsum,
Fuller's Earth, Dolomite, Limestone
NO N- ME TA L IC M INE RA L S
N
TA C H I N A
IS
P AK
TIBET
N E
PA
L BHUTAN
BANGLA-
DESH
Tro pic of Ca nc er
MYANMAR
BAY OF
BENGAL
ARABIAN
SEA M IC A
ASBES TO S
AN
G YPS U M
DA
LI ME STO N E
MA N
D O LO M ITE
AN
D IAM O N D
D NICOBA R I
(IND IA )
ANDAMAN
ATO M IC M IN ER ALS
SEA
LAKSHADWEEP SALT
(INDIA)
AN SL
KILO ME TR ES
D
LANKA
I N D I A N O C E A N
was set up in Chennai in 1904. By 1970, India only had five national parks.
National parks in India are IUCN category II List of National Parks in India
protected areas.
Andaman and : Campbell Bay National Park
The first national park in India was established
Nicobar Islands : Galathea National Park,
in 1936 as Hailey National Park, now it is known
Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park
as Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand. (Wandur National Park), Middle Button Island
State/ India/States Population Sex Ratio Population Area Total Males Females
Union Union (Females Density
tories per 1000 (Persons)
males)
India 1,21,08,54,977 943 382 3,287,263 74.04 80.9 65.6
1. Andhra Pradesh & 8,45,80,777 993 308 1,60,205 67 .0 74.9 59 .1
Telangana 1,14,840
2. Arunachal Pradesh 13,83,727 938 17 83,743 65.4 72 .6 57 .7
3. Andaman & Nicobar 3,80,58 876 46 8,249 86.6 90.3 82.4
Islands
4. Assam 3,12,05,576 958 398 78,438 72 .2 77 .8 66 .3
5. Bihar 10,40,99,452 918 1,106 94,163 61.8 71.2 51.5
6. Chandigarh 10,55,450 818 9,258 114 86.0 90.0 81.2
7. Chattisgarh 2,55,45,198 991 189 1,35,191 70.3 80.3 60.2
8. Daman & Diu 2,43,247 618 2,191 102 87.1 91.5 79.5
9. Dadra & Na.Haveli 3,43, 709 774 700 491 76.2 85.2 64.3
10. Gujarat 6,04,39,692 919 308 1,96,021 78.0 85.8 69.7
11. Goa 14,58,545 973 394 3,702 8l.17 92.6 84.7
12. Himachal Pradesh 68,64,602 972 123 55,673 82.8 89.5 75.9
13. Haryana 2,53,51,462 879 573 44,200 75.6 84.1 65.9
14. Jammu & Kashmir 1,25,42,302 889 124 2,22,236 67.2 76.8 56.4
15. Jharkhand 3,29,88,134 949 414 79,784 66.4 76 .8 55.4
16. Karnataka 6,10,95,297 973 319 1,91,791 75.4 82 .5 68.1
17. Kerala 3,34,06,061 1,084 860 3,88,63 94.0 96.1 92.1
18. Lakshadweep 64,473 947 2,149 32 91.8 95.6 87.9
19. Manipur 28,55,794 985 128 22,327 79.2 86.1 72.4
20. Mizoram 10 ,97,206 976 52 21,081 91.3 93 .3 89.3
21. Madhya Pradesh 7,26,26,809 931 236 3,08,252 69.3 78 .7 59.2
22. Maharashtra 11 ,23,74,333 929 365 3,07,713 82.3 88.4 75.9
23. Megha1aya 29,66,889 989 132 22,249 74.4 76.0 72.9
24. Nagaland 19 ,78,502 931 119 16,579 79.6 82.8 76.1
6,07,688
Literacy Rate
Total Person Literacy Rate ......................... 73%
Males .....................................................82.14%
35. Tribes
Adivasis : Tribals of Bastar district, Chhattisgarh.
Angami : Tribals of Nagaland.
Abor : Tribals of Arunachal Pradesh.
Apatanis : Tribals of Arunachal Pardesh.
Badagas : Tribals of Nilgiri region in Tamil Nadu.
Baiga : Tribals of Madhya Pradesh.
Bakkrowals : People of Jammu and Kashmir who rear sheep and goats.
Bhils : People of Dravidian stock now living in central India (MP) and Rajasthan.
Bhotias : Tribals of Garhwal and Kumaon regions in Uttarakhand, and Sikkim and West Bengal.
Bhuia : Tribals of MP
Birhors : A tribal group of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Orissa.
Chang : Tribals found in North-East
Chenchus : Tribals of Andhra Pradesh.
Chutra : Tribals of Assam
Gaddis : Tribals of Himachal Pradesh who rear sheep.
Gallong : Tribals found in North-East
Garos : Hill tribe of Meghalaya and Assam.
Gonds : Tribals inhabiting forests in Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa.
Gujjars : Animal rearers of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.
Irula : Tribals of Tamil Nadu
Jaintias : Hill tribe of Meghalaya and Assam.
Jarawas : One of the oldest tribes of Andaman and Nicobar Islands inhabiting little Andamans.
Kanikar : Tribals found in Tamil Nadu
Katkari : Tribals of MP
Kharia : Tribals of MP
Khasa : Tribals of Jaunsar Bhabar region in Uttarakhand.
Khasis : Hill tribe of Meghalaya and Tripura.
Khonds : Tribals inhabiting parts of Orissa.
Kol : Tribals of Madhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.
Kolam : Tribals of Andhya Pradesh
Kotas : Tribals of Nilgiri Hills in Tamil Nadu.
Kuki : A tribe of Manipur, Assam, Nagaland and Tripura.
194
Lahaulas : Tribals inhabiting Lahaul region in Himachal Pradesh. CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
Lepchas : Original tirbal inhabitants of Sikkim.
CHAPTER – 01
World Geography
1. Solar System
Our galaxy is milky way Galaxy (or the Akash 1. Largest/Biggest Planet ................... Jupiter
Ganga). It is spiral in shape. 2. Smallest Planet ............................ Mercury
There are eight planets in the Solar system. 3. Satellites of Earth ............................. Moon
The sequence of planets according to their 4. Nearest planet to the Sun ............. Mercury
distance from the Sun is Mercury, Venus, Earth, 5. Earth’s twin ..................................... Venus
Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune. The 6. Brightest Planet .............................. Venus
sequence of planets according to their size (in
7. Brightest Star ................................... Ceres
discending order i.e., from big to small) is
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Earth, Venus, 8. Planets with rings around .............. Saturn
Mars, Mercury. 9. Red Planet ......................................... Mars
Important Facts 10. Blue Planet ....................................... Earth
11. Green Planet ................................ Neptune
2. The Earth
Shape
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 1
hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds relative to ally, except in the Equatorial region where day
distant stars. and night are of equal duration year-round.
It causes the cycle of day and night, the rise Northern Hemisphere Seasons
and fall of tides, and deflection of air and ocean From 21 March to 23 September, the Northern
currents due to the Coriolis force. Hemisphere receives more sunlight, leading to
Sidereal vs. Solar Day: A sidereal day (23 longer days and shorter nights.
hours, 56 minutes) is slightly shorter than a The Arctic Circle experiences 24 hours of day-
solar day (24 hours), as Earth needs to rotate a light on 21 June (Land of Midnight Sun).
bit more to align with the Sun.
As one moves poleward, the day length in-
If Earth didn't rotate, one side would be per- creases, with six months of continuous day-
petually hot and bright, while the other would light at the North Pole.
remain frozen and dark.
Earth's rotation is gradually slowing down, Southern Hemisphere Seasons
which may be linked to an increase in earth- From 23 September to 21 March, the Southern
quakes, as suggested by scientists in 2018. Hemisphere receives more sunlight, leading to
longer days.
Revolution
Similar to the North Pole, the South Pole expe-
Earth completes one revolution around the Sun riences six months of continuous daylight dur-
in 365 days and 6 hours, leading to a leap year ing this period.
every 4 years.
Circle of Illumination
The Earth's orbit is elliptical, with an average
distance of 150 million kilometers from the Sun. The Circle of Illumination divides the Earth into
the day and night sides.
Earth revolves around the Sun at a speed of
108,000 km/h or 27 km/s on average. This circle results from Earth's spherical shape,
with one hemisphere exposed to sunlight while
The Earth moves slower when farther from the
the other remains in darkness.
Sun and faster when closer.
Cause of Seasonal Change
Perihelion
Earth's 23.5° tilt from its vertical axis causes
The point when Earth is at its minimum dis- seasonal changes.
tance from the Sun, occurring on 3 January.
Earth's movement on its axis and orbit around
At perihelion, Earth is about 147 million km the Sun leads to continuous positional changes
away from the Sun. with respect to the Sun.
It is winter in the Northern Hemisphere dur- These changes result in varying insolation,
ing this time. causing seasonal variations.
Aphelion Major Positions Responsible for
The point when Earth is at its maximum dis- Seasonal Variation
tance from the Sun, occurring on 6 July.
At aphelion, Earth is about 152 million km
1. Position on 21st June (Summer Solstice):
away from the Sun.
Known as Mid-Summer.
It is summer in the Northern Hemisphere dur-
ing this time. Northern Hemisphere experiences the longest
day and shortest night.
Length of Days and Nights Sun shines perpendicularly over the Tropic of
If Earth were not tilted, day and night would Cancer.
be equal year-round. Marks the start of summer in the Northern Hemi-
Without Earth's revolution around the Sun, sphere and winter in the Southern Hemisphere.
one hemisphere would experience long days 2. Position on 22nd December (Winter Solstice):
and short nights, and the other the reverse. Known as Mid-Winter.
The duration of days and nights varies season- Southern Hemisphere experiences the longest
day and shortest night.
2 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
Sun shines perpendicularly over the Tropic of known as the "diamond ring effect" occurs,
Capricorn. where the Sun's light forms a ring around the
Marks the start of summer in the Southern Moon.
Hemisphere and winter in the Northern Hemi-
TIDES
sphere.
Tides are the periodic rise and fall of sea levels
3. Positions on 21st March and 23rd September
caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon and
(Equinoxes):
the Sun on Earth.
Sun shines directly overhead on the equator, mak- High Tide occurs when the water level is at its
ing day and night equal in duration worldwide. highest, and Low Tide when it's at its lowest.
21st March: Vernal Equinox, spring in the The Moon's gravity exerts a stronger effect, cre-
Northern Hemisphere, autumn in the Southern ating tidal bulges on opposite sides of Earth,
Hemisphere. leading to two high and two low tides every day
23rd September: Autumn Equinox, autumn in (semi-diurnal tide cycle).
the Northern Hemisphere, spring in the South- Spring Tides occur during full and new moons
ern Hemisphere. when the Sun, Moon, and Earth align, causing
Both hemispheres experience similar seasons higher than normal tides; Neap Tides occur
at these times. during the first and third quarters of the moon
Dawn and Twilight when the Sun and Moon are at right angles,
leading to weaker tides.
Dawn: The brief period between sunrise and
full daylight. FACTS
Twilight/Dusk: The period between sunset and Southampton (Southern England) experiences
complete darkness caused by diffused light as tides four times a day due to tidal waves enter-
the Sun is below the horizon. ing through both the English Channel and the
North Sea.
Solar Eclipse
London and Kolkata have become major ports
Occurs when the Moon passes between the due to the tidal waves in the Thames and
Earth and the Sun, blocking the Sun's light. Hooghly rivers, respectively.
Can only happen during a new moon phase. In India, the Gulf of Cambay (tidal range 11-
Types include total, partial, and annular 12m) and Kutch (tidal range 8m) offer good pros-
eclipses depending on the alignment and dis- pects for developing tidal energy plants.
tance between the Sun, Moon, and Earth.
Lunar Eclipse 3. Roation of Earth
Occurs when the Earth passes between the Sun The earth has two main motions:
and the Moon, casting a shadow on the Moon. (i) Rotation (ii) Revolution
Can only happen during a full moon phase.
Rotation
Types include total, partial, and penumbral
eclipses, depending on the degree of the Earth's The earth rotates around its axis. The earth
shadow covering the Moon. rotates from west to east. The period of rotation
is known as the earth-day.
FACTS
Effects of the Rotation of the Earth
The longest total solar eclipse of the 21st cen-
tury took place on 22nd July, 2009. Causation of day and night
Solar eclipses emit a high amount of ultravio- This leads to the difference of 1 hour between
let rays, making it unsafe to view them with the two meridians which are 15°apart.
naked eye. Deflection of ocean currents and winds.
During a total solar eclipse, a phenomenon Rise and fall of tides every day
Revolution
It is earth’s motion in its elliptical orbit around the sun.
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 3
One revolution is completed in 365 1/
Lies between the Tropic of Cancer and Experiences moderate temperatures due to
Tropic of Capricorn. slanted sunlight, as the sun's rays are less
The Sun is exactly overhead at least once a direct.
year at all latitudes in this region. Frigid Zone:
Receives the maximum heat due to direct Lies between the Arctic Circle and North
sunlight. Pole in the Northern Hemisphere, and be-
Temperate Zone: tween the Antarctic Circle and South Pole
Located between the Tropic of Cancer and in the Southern Hemisphere.
Arctic Circle in the Northern Hemisphere, Characterized by permafrost conditions as
and between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Sun does not rise high above the hori-
Antarctic Circle in the Southern Hemisphere. zon in these polar regions.
4 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
Longitude (8): Norway, Sweden, Finland, Russia, the
Longitude is the angular distance of a place United States (Alaska), Canada, Denmark
east or west from the Prime Meridian. (Greenland) and Iceland.
Measured by imaginary vertical lines called Water bodies that Arctic Circle passed
meridians, which meet at the North and South through: Engulfs the entire Arctic Ocean.
poles. Tropic of Cancer
The Prime Meridian is located at 0° longitude,
passing through Greenwich Observatory near 1
Located at 23 N latitude.
London. 2
There are 180 longitudes on both the east and Sun is directly overhead on June 21, marking
west sides of the Prime Meridian, making a to- the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere.
tal of 360 longitudes.
Countries that Tropic of Cancer passes through
Distance between two adjacent longitudes is
about 111.32 km, which varies with proximity There are 16 countries, 3 continents and 6 wa-
to the poles. ter bodies through which the Tropic of Cancer
passes.
The distance between meridians is shorter near
the poles and longer at the equator due to • Africa: Egypt, Libya, Niger, Algeria, Mali, West-
Earth's curvature. ern Sahara, Mauritania
All meridians converge at the North and South • North America: Bahamas (Archipelago), Mexico
poles. • Asia: Taiwan, China, Myanmar, Bangladesh,
The Prime Meridian crosses only Antarctica in India, Oman, United Arab, Emirates, Saudi
the Southern Hemisphere. Arabia
The Eastern Hemisphere lies to the east of the • Water Bodies: Indian Ocean, Atlantic Ocean,
Prime Meridian, and the Western Hemisphere Pacific Ocean, Taiwan Strait, Red Sea, Gulf of
lies to the west. Mexico
Earth is geoid in shape and rotates 360° in 24 Equator
hours.
Located at 0° latitude, divides the Earth into
Earth moves 15° of longitude every hour. the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
It takes 4 minutes for the Earth to move 1° of The only great circle, all other latitudes are
longitude. smaller circles.
Greenwich Mean Time Countries that the Equator passes through
Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) refers to the Mean Equator passes through 13 countries, 3 conti-
Solar Time at the Royal Greenwich Observa- nents and 3 water bodies.
tory in England. • Africa: Maldives, Indonesia, Kiribati (Oceania)
The meridian at 0° longitude, where GMT is • North America: Gabon, Congo, Democratic Re-
measured, is known as the Prime Meridian. public of Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Sao Tome and
GMT helps to avoid confusion and ambiguity Principe, Somalia
caused by different local time zones. • Asia: Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil
It has been used as a standard for designating • Water Bodies: Atlantic Ocean, Pacific Ocean,
epochs and time references globally. Indian Ocean.
1 1
Located at 66 N latitude. Located at 23 S latitude.
2 2
Experiences 6 months of day and 6 months of Sun is directly overhead on December 22, mark-
night. ing the longest day in the Southern Hemisphere.
Has 24 hours of daylight due to Earth's axial tilt. Countries that Tropic of Capricorn passes
Countries that Arctic Circle passed through There are 10 countries, 3 continents and 3
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 5
water bodies through which the Tropic of Cap- It is an imaginary line passing through the mid-
ricorn passes Pacific Ocean.
• South America: Argentina, Brazil, Chile, Para- The IDL roughly follows the 180° longitude
guay (north-south) on Earth's surface.
• Africa: Namibia, Botswana, South Africa, When traveling westward across the IDL, a day
Mozambique, Madagascar is added, and when traveling eastward, a day
• Australia is dropped.
• Water Bodies: Indian Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, The IDL deviates eastward at the Bering Strait
Pacific Ocean to avoid dividing Siberia.
It also deviates westward to include the Aleu-
Antarctic Circle tian Islands and Alaska.
1
Located at 66 S latitude. South of the equator, the IDL shifts to align with
2
the time zones of some island groups, like Fiji
Similar to the Arctic Circle but in the Southern and Tonga, with New Zealand's time.
Hemisphere.
The IDL curves around Fiji, Tonga, and other
Seasons are opposite to those in the Northern islands to avoid confusion with local time zones.
Hemisphere.
Some islands, such as Fiji and Tonga, follow
Countries that Antarctic Circle passed through Asian or New Zealand Standard Time.
Antarctic territory claimed by Argentina, Aus- Other islands, like Samoa, prefer American
tralia, Chile, France, New Zealand and the Standard Time.
United Kingdom; Adelaide Island (claimed by
Argentina, Chile and the United Kingdom);
Balleny Islands (claimed by New Zealand). Local Time
Water bodies that Antarctic Circle Local Time refers to the time at a specific loca-
passed through: Southern Ocean. tion on Earth, determined by the Sun's position.
Prime Meridian Local Mid-Day Time is when the Sun is directly
overhead at a location.
Located at 0° longitude, passing through
Greenwich, London. The Earth takes 24 hours to complete a full revo-
lution (360°), passing through 15° longitude per
Used to calculate time on Earth (Greenwich
hour, or 1° every 4 minutes.
Mean Time, GMT).
GMT (Greenwich Mean Time) is the reference
Moving eastward from Prime Meridian adds 4
point used for calculating local times worldwide.
minutes per degree, and moving westward sub-
tracts 4 minutes per degree. The world is divided into 24 time zones.
Russia, the largest country, spans 165° of lon-
Countries that the Prime Meridian gitude and has 11 time zones.
passes through In India, there is a 2-hour time difference be-
There are 8 countries, 3 continents and 6 water tween the easternmost (Arunachal Pradesh)
bodies through which the Prime Meridian passes. and westernmost (Dwarka, Gujarat) points.
• Africa: Algeria, Mali, Burkina Faso, Ghana, Standard Time
Togo
• Europe: United Kingdom, France, Spain An imaginary line passing through the central
meridian of a country.
• Antarctica: Antarctica
It is followed throughout the country to avoid
• Water Bodies: Arctic Ocean, Norwegian Sea,
inconvenience due to time differences between
Greenland Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Atlantic
different places.
Ocean, Southern Ocean
Example: The Standard Meridian of India is at
The International Date Line 82.5° E longitude, passing through Mirzapur
The International Date Line (IDL) was estab- (Amravati Chauraha), Uttar Pradesh.
lished in 1884.
6 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
The time at this longitude is the Indian Stan- they reach 6.9 km/sec. This change in seismic
dard Time (IST), which is the official time for wave velocity is indicative of differences in rock
the entire country. composition and pressure.
5. Interior Structure of Earth The average density of the upper crust is 2.8 g/
The Earth is composed of distinct layers, and cm³, while the lower crust has a higher average
the landforms on its surface are closely con- density of 3.0 g/cm³. This difference in density is
nected to the structure of its interior. thought to be a result of the increasing pressure
While the Earth's interior is primarily studied from the layers above, and the boundary marking
in the field of geology, the study and analysis this change is called the Conrad Discontinuity.
of the landforms on Earth's surface fall under The Earth's crust is primarily composed of silica
the domain of geomorphology. (Si) and aluminum (Al), which is why it is also
Various studies and evidence regarding Earth's known as SIAL.
density reveal that the core is the densest part, Moho Discontinuity
with a density of approximately 11.0 g/cm³. This
high density is believed to result from the pres- Beneath the lower crust lies the upper mantle,
ence of heavy metallic elements, primarily iron and the boundary between the two is known as
and nickel (NiFe). the Moho Discontinuity. This boundary marks a
sharp increase in density and a sudden decrease
Temperature increases with depth, rising by
in the velocity of seismic waves. It was first dis-
12°C per Km for the first 100 km, followed by
covered in 1909 by the Croatian seismologist
a slower increase of 2°C/km up to 300 km.
Andrija Mohorovicic, whose name it bears.
Beyond this depth, the temperature contin-
ues to rise at a rate of 1°C per Km. Tectoni- MANTLE
cally active regions tend to have relatively The Earth's mantle lies beneath the crust and
higher temperatures. extends to a depth of about 2,900 kilometers
Structure of the Earth from the Moho discontinuity. At the boundary
between the crust and the mantle, seismic
waves experience a sudden increase in speed,
Based on the research by the International ranging from 7.9 to 8.1 km/sec, signifying a
Union of Geodesy and Geophysics (IUGG), the change in rock density. The mean density of
Earth is classified into three primary layers: the mantle is approximately 4.6 g/cm³.
1. Crust 2. Mantle 3. Core This layer constitutes around 83% of Earth's
CRUST total volume and 68% of its mass. Composed
mainly of silica and magnesium, it is often re-
The Earth's crust is the outermost layer of the ferred to as SIMA. The mantle is divided into
planet, with varying thickness. According to the three distinct layers based on seismic wave
UGG, its average thickness is about 30 km, al- velocities, as classified by the International
though some sources estimate it to be around Union of Geodesy and Geophysics (IUGG):
100 km. The crust is divided into two parts: the
1. Upper Mantle (0-200 km depth)
upper crust and the lower crust.
2. Middle Mantle (200-700 km depth)
In the upper crust, seismic P-waves travel at
speeds of 6.1 km/sec, while in the lower crust, 3. Lower Mantle (700-2,900 km depth)
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 7
Within the upper mantle, between 100 and
200 kilometers, seismic wave velocities decrease tremors to movements capable of destroying
to around 7.8 km/sec, forming the Zone of Low buildings.
Velocity. The boundary between the upper and Mild vibrations in the Earth's crust cause mi-
lower mantle, marked by a distinct change in nor tremors every few minutes, while major
density, is known as the Repetti Discontinuity. earthquakes occur less frequently and are of-
CORE ten destructive.
At the lower boundary of the mantle, specifi- Seismology is the science of studying earth-
cally at a depth of about 2,900 km, the velocity quakes, derived from the Greek word seismos,
of seismic P-waves sharply increases to 13.6 meaning "earthquake."
km/s. This abrupt change in wave speed indi- Seismographs are instruments sensitive to seis-
cates a significant shift in rock density, mark- mic waves, used to measure the intensity of
ing the boundary between the mantle and the earthquakes.
core. This boundary is known as the Weichert- Rossi-Forel Scale:
Gutenberg Discontinuity.
Measures earthquake intensity between 1
The core extends from the Gutenberg Discon- and 11 units.
tinuity down to a depth of 6,371 km, and it is
Focuses on the impact and effects of earth-
divided into two distinct regions:
quakes, particularly in relation to human
1. Outer Core: Extends from 2,900 km to 5,150 observation.
km.
Mercalli Scale:
2. Inner Core: Spans from 5,150 km to 6,371 km.
An empirical scale divided into 12 units.
The density in the outer core ranges between
Measures the effects of an earthquake, in-
10 and 12-13 g/cm³, reaching up to 13.6 g/
cluding damage to structures and human
cm³ in the inner core, making it significantly
experiences, rather than the physical prop-
denser than the surrounding mantle, with a
erties of the seismic waves.
density more than double that of the mantle it-
self. Importantly, S-waves cannot pass through Richter Scale:
the outer core due to its liquid state. A mathematical (logarithmic) scale that mea-
Within the core, there exists a boundary be- sures earthquake intensity from 0 to 9.
tween the outer and inner core, known as the For each unit increase in the Richter Scale,
Lehman Discontinuity. The inner core, which the amplitude of the earthquake wave in-
is solid, has the highest density, and the P-wave creases by a factor of 10. This scale is
velocity reaches 11.23 km/s. widely used for assessing the magnitude
Although the core constitutes only about 16% of earthquakes.
of the Earth's total volume, it accounts for 32.5% Focus (Hypocenter)
of the Earth's total mass. The core is primarily The Focus (Hypocenter) is the point be-
composed of nickel and iron (often referred to neath the Earth's surface where an earth-
as NIFE),although some silica is present, par- quake originates. It is the exact location
ticularly in the inner core. within the Earth's crust or mantle where
the strain energy stored in rocks is first
released, resulting in seismic waves.
6. Earthquake and Tsunami Epicentre
An earthquake is a vibration or oscillation of The Epicentre is the point on the Earth's
the Earth's surface caused by the elastic or iso- surface located directly above the Focus
static adjustment of rocks below the surface. (Hypocenter) of an earthquake. It is the geo-
Vibrations are caused by the sudden release of graphic location where the earthquake's
energy due to plate tectonic events within the effects are typically first felt and often most
Earth's crust. strongly experienced.
Earthquakes can range in intensity from mild Seismic Energy Releasee
8 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
The energy is stored in the Earth's crust through the Earth's interior.
due to the slow buildup of stress from tec- P-waves are compressional waves or longi-
tonic plate movements, volcanic activity, tudinal waves, meaning particles of the me-
or other geophysical processes. dium move back and forth in the same di-
The energy released is referred to as elas- rection as the wave's propagation.
tic energy because it results from the elas- P-waves travel the fastest among all seismic
tic deformation and subsequent rebound waves, moving at speeds of 5-8 km/s in the
of rocks. Earth's crust and up to 13 km/s in the mantle.
These waves can travel through all states of
matter: solids, liquids, and gases. This abil-
Classification of Seismic Waves ity distinguishes them from secondary
1. Primary Waves (P-waves) waves (S-waves), which cannot pass through
liquids.
Primary waves, also known as P-waves, are
the fastest type of seismic waves generated P-waves compress and expand the material
by an earthquake. They are the first waves they pass through, creating alternating
to be detected by seismographs and travel zones of compression (high pressure) and
rarefaction (low pressure).
they are used to determine the distance to between the arrival of P-waves and S-waves
an earthquake's epicentre. helps determine the earthquake's epicentre.
P-waves typically cause minimal damage Due to their stronger shearing motion, S-waves
because their motion is less intense com- often cause significant structural damage, es-
pared to slower surface waves. pecially to poorly constructed buildings.
2. Secondary Waves (S-waves) Comparison with P-waves:
Secondary waves, also known as S-waves,
Feature P-waves S-waves
are a type of seismic wave generated dur-
Wave Type Longitudinal Transverse
ing an earthquake. They travel slower than
Primary waves (P-waves) and are the sec- (compressional) (shear)
ond to be detected by seismographs. Speed Faster Slower
S-waves are shear waves or transverse Medium Solids, liquids, Solids only
waves, meaning particles in the medium and gases
move perpendicular to the wave's direction Destructive Power Lower Higher
of propagation. This motion creates a side- 3. Surface or Long Period Waves
to-side or up-and-down effect.
Surface waves are seismic waves that travel
S-waves travel slower than P-waves, typically
along the Earth's surface, causing signifi-
at about 60-70% of the speed of P-waves. cant damage. There are two types: Rayleigh
S-waves can only travel through solids and waves (elliptical motion) and Love waves
cannot pass through liquids or gases. This (horizontal motion). Long-period waves re-
property is critical in determining the fer to seismic waves with long wavelengths
Earth's internal composition, such as the and periods, causing slower but longer-
liquid outer core. lasting shaking, often seen in large earth-
The movement of S-waves causes rocks and quakes. They can be either surface or body
structures to shear or deform perpendicu- waves and are important for detecting dis-
lar to the direction of wave travel, making tant seismic events.
them more destructive than P-waves.
Shadow Zone
S-waves arrive at seismic stations after P-waves
but before surface waves. The time difference A shadow zone refers to a region on Earth's sur-
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 9
face where seismic waves (specifically, S-waves folded mountains, isostatic
or P-waves) from an earthquake are not de- i s -
tected. The concept of shadow zones is impor- lands, and parts of India &
tant in seismology as they provide insights into faultinduced earthquakes.
the Earth's internal structure.
1. S-Waves Shadow Zone: (Seismic Zone of India)
S-waves (secondary or shear waves) cannot Mid-Atlantic Ridge Moderate and Shallow
travel through liquids. Mid-Atlantic Ocean region
When an earthquake occurs, the S-waves Caused by the creation of
are blocked by the liquid outer core of the -focus
Earth, creating a large shadow zone. transform faults and fractures
The S-wave shadow zone is typically be-
tween 105° and 180° from the earthquake's due to diver gent plate margin.
epicenter, where no S-waves are detected
Tsunami
by seismographs.
2. P-Waves Shadow Zone: Tsunami is a Japanese word meaning "harbour
wave" and is caused by underwater earth-
P-waves (primary or compressional waves)
quakes.
can travel through both solids and liquids.
These are long waves with minimal oscillation
However, they are refracted (bent) as they
and can have a wavelength of up to 160 km.
pass through the boundary between the solid
mantle and the liquid outer core. This bend- Tsunamis travel at speeds of over 650 km/h.
ing causes a smaller P-wave shadow zone. In the open ocean, their amplitude is about 1
The P-wave shadow zone occurs between m, but their height increases significantly as
105° and 145° from the epicenter, where they approach coastal areas, causing massive
P-waves are refracted and do not reach. destruction.
Tsunamis are most common along the Pacific
Use in Determining Earth's Structure: Ring of Fire, which includes areas such as
The existence of the S-wave shadow zone led to Alaska, the Philippines, Japan, Malaysia, Indo-
the discovery of the liquid outer core because it nesia, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and India.
showed that S-waves are blocked by a liquid layer. They are strongest in convergence zones of oce-
The P-wave shadow zone helped to further un- anic plates.
derstand the outer core's properties, as the waves' The tsunami that struck Indonesia's Sumatra
refraction confirmed that the outer core is liquid, island in the Indian Ocean on 26 December
while the inner core is solid. 2004 was the result of the Indian plate subduct-
ing beneath the Burmese plate.
Different earthquake belts of the world
Earthquake Belt Percentage of Re-
gions Included Cause of Earthquakes
Total Earthquakes
10 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
ing either on or below the Earth's surface. Hawaiian volcano is an example of Basic lava cone.
Volcanism is an exogenous activity involving Stromboli, the light house of mediterranean is
magma reaching the Earth's surface, cooling, a Composite Volcano.
and solidifying. Deccan traps of India, Snake basin of USA, Ca-
Magma is ejected in two forms: central explo- nadian shield etc and Lava Plateaus.
sion or cracked ejection, influenced by the sili- Lonar in Maharashtra, Krakatoa in Indonesia
cate content in magma. etc. are Caldera Lakes.
Magma is molten rock material within the Fujiyama of Japan, Mayon of Philippines,
Earth's asthenosphere; when it emerges on the Rainier, Mt Hood, (U.S.A) etc are the examples
surface, it is termed lava. of Mixed volcano.
Magma/lava is classified based on its chemi- Mount Shastina of U.S.A, located on Shasta
cal and mineral composition: Mountain is a Parasitic cone.
Felsic minerals (light-colored) are rich in
Major Volcanoes of the World
silicate, quartz, and feldspar.
Mafic minerals (dark-colored) include magne-
Volcano Country
sium-rich pyroxene, amphibole, and olivine. Volcano Country
Mauna Lao Volcanoes of Hawaii is a shield volcano. Mt. Ojos del Salado Argentina-Chile
Paracutin and Joruloo mountains of Mexico, Mt. Krakatoa Indonesia
Izalco mountain of San Salvadore, Camiguin Mt. Cotopaxi Ecuador
mountain of Philipines, Volcan-de-Fuego of Mt. Katmai Alaska (USA)
Guatemala are example of Cinder cone. Mt. Chimborazo Ecuador
Mt. Rainier USA
Plinian, Vulcanian and Strombolian volcanoes Mt. Popocatepetl Mexico
are the examples of Acidic Lava Cones.
are over 500 active volcanoes worldwide. activity but may erupt suddenly and violently.
Notable active volcanoes include Etna and Example s of dormant volcanoe s include
Stromboli in the Mediterranean, with Stromboli Vesuvius (Italy), Fuji (Japan), Krakatoa (Indo-
known as the "Lighthouse of the Mediterranean." nesia), and Narcondam Island (Andaman &
Other examples include Cotopaxi (Ecuador, Nicobar Islands, India).
world's highest active volcano), Mt. Erebus Dead or Extinct Volcanoes are those that have
(Antarctica, the only active volcano on the con- not erupted in thousands of years and show no
tinent), and Barren Island (Andaman and signs of future eruptions.
Nicobar Islands, India). Examples of extinct volcanoes include Mt.
Dormant Volcanoes are those that have been quiet Kenya and Mt. Kilimanjaro (East Africa),
after eruptions and show no immediate signs of Chimborazo (Ecuador), Popa (Myanmar),
Demband and Koh-i-Sultan (Iran), and
Aconcagua (Andes mountains).
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 8. Tides 11
The periodical rise and fall of sea level, once or
twice a day, mainly due to attraction of Sun and
Moon is known as a tide.
A. Spring tides: Higher
tide . Occur twice a
month on full moon, new moon. When Sun, Dust particles present in this layer hold the water
moon and Earth in straight line. vapour and contribute to the occurrence of
B. Neap tides: Lower tides. Occurring at twilight and the red colours of sunlight and
seven day interval between spring tides sunset.
and neap tides. Tropopause separates troposphere from stratosphere.
Sun and Moon at right angle to each other Stratosphere
forces act counter on another.
Extends from 16 km to 50 km. The temperature
Terminology related to tides: ceases to fall with the increase of height in
Ebb: Time between high tide and low tide, this layer.
when water level is falling. Stratosphere provides ideal conditions for flying
Flow or flood: Time between low tide and high large airplanes.
tide when water level is rising. Contains ozone (25-30 km from earth’s surface),
Perigee: Moon closest to Earth once a month region being called Ozonosphere.
unusually high and low tides occur. It absorbs the ultra-violet rays from the sun.
Apogee: Two weeks later, moon is farthest from Mesosphere
Earth, tidal ranges become less than average.
Perihelion: Earth is closest to Sun on 3 Jan, It extends till 80–85 km.
tidal ranges are very high and low. It is the coldest place on Earth and has an
Aphelion: Earth is farthest from Sun on 4 July, ave rage te mpe rature around -85 de gre e
tidal ranges are less than average. Celsius.
9. Structure of Atmosphere Thermosphere
Troposphere Extends to about 80-600 km.
Layer nearest to earth’s surface. Thickness Also protects earth from harmful radiation. This
varies from 8 km at the poles to 16 km at the causes increase in temperature with height in
equator. this layer.
All weather phenomenons occur here. It also protects earth from falling meteorites, as
most of them burn out in this region.
Exosphere
Here the earth’s gravity is extremely weak.
The outer part is called Magnetosphere.
Composition of the Atmosphere
(i) Nitrogen — 78%
(ii) Oxygen — 21%
(iii) Argon — 0.93%
(iv) Carbon dioxide — 0.03%
(v) Neon — 0.0018%
(vi) Helium — 0.0005%
(vii) Ozone — 0.0006%
(viii) Hydrogen — 0.00005%
10. Pressure & Winds in Atmosphere
Air in horizontal motion is Wind, And Atmospheric Pressure determines
The rise and sink of air. The pressure and winds in atmosphere determine formation of air masses
and occurrence of storms.
12 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
Atmospheric pressure World distribution of Atmospheric Pressure
Weight of air column contained in a unit area The following pressure belts oscillate with the
from mean sea level to the top of atmosphere is apparent movement of sun.
known as Atmospheric pressure. In northern hemisphere in winter, they move
It is measured in force per unit area. It is southwards and in summers northwards.
expressed in milibar/mb unit. For practical Equatorial low or Doldrum – It occurs near
purposes, the atmospheric pressure is expressed the equator the sea level pressure is low.
in kilo- pascals. Subtropical high or Horse Latitude – Along
Wind the 30 degrees North and 30 degrees South,
there are high pressure areas.
When air moves from high pressure areas to low
Sub-polar Lows – Along 60 degrees North and
pressure areas.
60 degrees South, low pressure belts.
Polar Highs – It occurs near poles, the pressure
is high.
Coriolis Force
Force exerted by rotation of Earth is known as Chinook: The dry and hot local wind on the
Coriolis force. eastern slope of the Rocky Mountains in the
It deflects the wind to right direction in Northern U.S.A. which melts the snow in winters, is also
hemisphere and to left direction in Southern called snow eater.
hemisphere. Fohn: It descends from the northern slope of
More deflection when wind velocity is high. the Alps. Fohn has the maximum effect in
Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle Switzerland.
of latitude. Hence, it is maximum at poles and Harmattan: It is also called 'doctor wind', it is
minimum(absent) at equator. a hot and dry wind blowing in the north-east
direction in the Sahara desert.
Local winds of the world
Sirocco: The hot wind blowing in the Sahara
Local wind: The winds which blow in a desert towards the Mediterranean Sea is called
particular place at a specific time and direction Sirocco.
are called local winds. Simoom: The hot and dry wind blowing in the
Black Roller: Dusty wind in the U.S.A. which The narrow, tubular and creeping wind flow
flows in the vast plains of the U.S.A. * moving at high speed in the upper layer of the
Brickfielder: The hot and dry wind blowing in troposphere is called jet flow.
Victoria province of Australia is calle d Jet flow flows from west to east, its height is
Brickfielder. up to 6-12 km and its speed is generally 120
Norwester: The wind coming down from the km/hour.
mountains in New Zealand is hot and dry and Je t stre ams are he lpful in ge ne rating
is called Norwester. atmosphe ric disturbance s, cyclone s,
Shamal: The hot and dry wind blowing in Iraq anticyclones, storms and rainfall. Jet streams
and Persian Gulf is called Shamal. also balance the heat distribution on the earth.
Santa Ana: The hot and dry dust filled wind in The effect of jet stream in the northern plains
South California is called Santa Ana. of India starts from 10 September. Due to its
Koyam Bang: The hot wind blowing in Java and effect, high air pressure is created in the
Indonesia is called Koyam Bang. northern plains and the effect of south-eastern
monsoon ends.
Jet flow
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 13
Other local names for Sirocco Lebec Spain
Name Country
Local winter and summer winds
Khamsin Egypt
Cold wind Currency region
Gibilit Libya
Chile Tunisia Williwav Alaska
Lest Madria Bora Adriatic coast
Sirocco Italy Mistral Spain and France
Bize Southern France causes surrounding air to rush into the low-
Nardor USA pressure area.
Narti USA Coriolis Effect: The Earth's rotation causes the
Ponenti Southern Africa moving air to spiral, leading to the formation of
a rotating system. This effect is stronger near
Purga Tundra region
the poles and weak at the equator, which is why
Habuov Sudan cyclones rarely form near the equator.
Seistan Eastern Iran Thunderstorms: The rising air cools and
Wili-Wili Australia condenses, forming clouds and thunderstorms.
Maistrel Northern Italy As the process continues, the system grows
Pampiro Argentina, Chile, Uruguay, Brazil larger and more organized.
14 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
temperate zones. areas are built to withstand high winds and
Tornadoes: Smaller but more intense cyclonic storm surges.
systems that form over land and are associated
Notable Cyclones
with severe thunderstorms.
Historical examples of significant cyclones are often
Stages of Development included in textbooks to illustrate their impact:
Formative Stage: The initial development phase Cyclone Bhola (1970): One of the deadliest
when the low-pressure area starts to form over cyclones in recorded history, striking East
warm waters. Pakistan (now Bangladesh) and India.
Mature Stage: The cyclone re ache s its Hurricane Katrina (2005): A powerful hurricane
maximum intensity, with a well-developed eye, that caused massive damage in the United
eye wall, and organized spiral rain bands. States, especially in New Orleans.
Dissipation Stage: When the cyclone moves over 12. Water in Atmosphere
cooler waters or makes landfall, it loses its source In the environment water stays in many forms like
of energy, weakens, and eventually dissipates. moisture, dew, mist, fog, haze and clouds etc.
Impacts of Cyclones Dew in the atmosphere:
Strong Winds: Cyclones can produce extremely When moisture is deposited in form of water
powerful winds that cause widespread damage droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects, it is
to buildings, trees, and infrastructure. called dew.
Heavy Rainfall and Flooding: Cyclones bring Ideal conditions: Clear sky, calm air, high
torrential rain, which can lead to flash floods, relative humidity, cold and long nights.
landslides, and waterlogging.
Dew point > above freezing point.
Storm Surges: The combination of high winds and
Saturation of air with moisture should happen
low pressure causes ocean water to rise, creating
above Freezing point.
storm surges that can flood coastal areas.
Tornadoes: Some time s cyclone s spawn Frost in Atmosphere:
tornadoes, which add to the destructive force. When condensation takes place below freezing
Cyclone Intensity Scale point, frost is formed.
Dew point is at or below freezing point.
Cyclones are classified according to their wind
speeds using different scales like: Air temperature must be at or below the freezing
point.
Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale for
hurricanes. 13. Fog and Mist
Beaufort Scale for assessing wind force. Fog is a cloud with its base at or very near to the
ground.
Australian Tropical Cyclone Intensity Scale for
cyclones in the Southern Hemisphere. Mist contains more moisture than fog.
Evacuation Plans: Governments issue evacuation High Clouds (mean height 6 to 13 km):
warnings for areas likely to be affected. (i) Cirrus: do not give precipitation.
Early Warning Systems: Weather forecasts and (ii) Cirro-cumulus: Thin, white patch; sheet or
early warning systems help predict cyclones' layer of cloud;
paths and intensity, reducing risks to life and (iii)Cirro-stratus: mainly formed of ice-crystals.
property. Middle Clouds (mean height 2 to 6 km.):
Building Codes: Structures in cyclone-prone (i) Alto-cumulus: composed of super-cooled
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 15
liquid droplets.
(ii) Alto-stratus: precipitation may fall either DIVISION OF THE OCEAN FLOOR
as fine drizzle or snow. I. Continental Shelf
(iii) Nimbo-stratus: it is a rain, snow or sleet
Extended margins of each continent occupy
cloud; never accompanied by lightening,
shallow seas and gulf. It breaks at steep slope
thunder or hail.
known as shelf break.
Low Clouds (mean height 0 to 2 km.)
It very narrow at coast of Chile, west coast of
(i) Strato : cumulus Sumatra.
(ii) Stratus: difficult to differentiate between Largest Shelf is at Siberian Shelf in Arctic Ocean
high fog and stratus. at 1500 km in width.
(iii) Cumulus: they dissipate at night. Massive deposits over time by the continental
(iv) Cumulo-nimbus: The se clouds are shelves become source of fossil fuels.
associated with heavy rainfall, thunder,
lightning and hail; have flat top and a flat II. Continental Slope
base; it obstructs the sun. It connects the continental shelf and the ocean
basins.
14. Types of Rainfall The gradient of the slope region changes
According to its basis of origin, rainfall is primarily between 2-5 degrees.
classified into 3 major This slope boundary indicates the end of the
Types:- continents, so canyons and trenches are observed.
1. Convectional rainfall: cumulous clouds in
III. Deep Sea Plains
equatorial regions and continent interiors
especially in Northern hemisphere. Gently sloping areas of basin covered by clay
2. Orographic or relief rain: Windward slopes and silt.
receives greater rainfall because air is These are the smoothest and flattest regions of
forced to ascend mountain and expands, the Earth.
temperature decreases hence results in These are gently sloping areas of the ocean basins.
condensation.
IV. Oceanic Deep or Trenches
3. Cyclonic rain: The rains occurring due to
extra tropical cyclones. These are the deepest parts of the oceans.
15. Oceanography Oceanic trenches occur at bases of continental
slopes, along island areas.
All the water on Earth including the oceans,
seas, lakes, lagoons, rivers, ice and glaciers, They are associated with active volcanic and
water in atmosphere is called hydrosphere. Earthquake activity, this makes them significant
for Plate movement studies.
There is more water in the Southern hemisphere
as compared to Northern hemisphere. V. Mid- Oceanic Ridges
Hydrological Cycle – Circulation of water within They consist of 2 mountain chains that are
the Earth’s hydrosphere in different forms is separated by a large depression.
known as Hydrological cycle. These ranges can have peaks reaching above
The water resource in Oceans is maximum at the ocean floor as well.
71% of the planetary water. For instance, Iceland is a part of the Mid-
Availability of Water on surface of Earth : Atlantic Ridge.
Oceans > Icecaps > Glaciers & underground
water > Lakes > Soil moisture > Atmosphere> VI. Submarine Canyons
Streams & rivers > Biosphere. Deep valleys cutting across Continental Shelf,
Water resource in Oceans: Pacific ocean > often extending from mouth of large rivers.
Atlantic ocean > Indian ocean > Arctic Ocean. The Hudson Canyon is an example.
16 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
OCEAN CURRENTS found in all the major oceans of the world.
An ocean current is a continuous movement of Major Surface Ocean Currents
ocean water from one place to another.
Name
Ocean currents are created by wind, water tempera- Ocean
ture, salt content, and the gravity of the moon. Type
The current's direction and speed depend on
the shoreline and the ocean floor. Agulhas Current
Indian
They can flow for thousands of miles and are
Warm
Alaska Current
North Pacific
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 17
Great mountain ranges like
into each other causes the Earth's crust to 1. Africa (54) 30,370,000
crumple and fold. Many of the world's great 20.3% Mount
mountain ranges are fold mountains including ESLake Assal
the Andes, Himalayas, and the Rockies.
II. Fault-block Mountains Kilimanjaro
18 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
(12) (6,980m) (105m)
A mountain range consists of several parallel, long and narrow mountain ranges of different
periods, sometimes separated by plateaus or uplands.
Major Mountain Ranges of the World
Mountain Range Location Highest Point
Cordillera de Los Andes Western S America Aconcagua
Rockies Western N America Mt. Albert
Himalaya-Karakoram-Hindukush South Central Asia Mt. Everest
Great Dividing Range Eastern Australia Mt. Kosciuszka
Trans-Antarctica Mountains Antarctica Mt. Vinson Massif
Tien Shan South Central Asia Pike Poveda
Altai Central Asia Gora Belukhe
Ural Central Russia Gora Narodnaya
Kamchatka Eastern Russia Klyuchevskoya Sopka
Atlas North West Africa Jewel Toubkal
Verkhoyansk Eastern Russia Gora Mus Khaya
Western Ghats Western India Anaimudi
Sierra Madre Oriental Mexico Orizaba
Zagros
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 19
include: tains through water, ice, and wind. Examples
Fujiyama (Japan). include:
Cotopaxi (Ecuador). Vindhyas, Aravallis, Satpura, Eastern Ghats,
Relict Mountains (Residual Mountains) are Western Ghats, and Parasnath (India).
formed by the denudation of pre-existing moun- Mixed or Complex Mountains result from geo-
logical complexities and mixed rock forma-
20 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
Volcanic Plateau Formed by upliftment or extensive lava Deccan Plateau (In
spreading, often surrounded dia), Columbian
by oceanic coasts or plains. Plateau (USA).
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 21
Sahara (Libyan and
22 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
Hudson Strait
21. Lake
Lake Description
Lake Eyre Important lake in Australia.
Lake Chad Important lake in Chad.
Lake Onakal (Uganda) Man-made lake in Uganda.
Lake Aswan (Egypt) Man-made lake in Egypt.
Lake Tso Sekuru Highest lake in the world, located on the Tibetan Plateau.
Lake Titicaca Highest navigable lake in the world, located between Bolivia and Peru.
Tso Lhamo/Cholamu Lake (Sikkim) Highest lake in India (18,300 ft).
Devtal (Garhwal Himalayas) Second highest lake in India (17,745 ft).
Dead Sea Lowest lake in the world; base is 2,500 ft below sea level, very high
salinity (238%).
Lake Van (Turkey) Most saline lake in the world (330% salinity).
Caspian Sea Largest lake in the world (saltwater); Ural and Volga rivers drain
into it, salinity varies across regions.
Lake Victoria Forms the border between Uganda, Tanzania, and Kenya.
Lake Nyasa (Lake Malawi) Forms the border of Tanzania, Malawi, and Mozambique.
Lake Tanganyika Forms the border of Zaire (Congo), Tanzania, and Zambia.
Great Slave, Great Bear Lakes Located in Canada; Port Radium is near Great Bear Lake.
Lake Athabasca Located in Canada; Uranium City is near this lake.
Great Lakes of North America Includes Superior, Huron, Michigan, Erie, Ontario. Lake Supe-
rior is the largest freshwater lake in the world.
22.RIVERS
River Key Features Location/Details
Nile River Longest river in the world, originating from Lake Victoria. Africa
Aswan Dam & Lake Nasser are located on this river.
Amazon River Most voluminous river and the second longest in South America
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 23
the world.
Mississippi-Missouri Most extensive river system in the world; forms the USA
Bird's-foot Delta.
Rio-Grande Forms the political border between the North America
USA and Mexico.
St. Lawrence River Forms the biggest inland waterway of the world; North America
Niagara Falls is located on this river. (Canada and USA)
Colorado River Home to the world-famous Grand Canyon and USA
Hoover Dam.
Rhine River Busiest waterway in Europe; also called the Coal River. Europe
Rotterdam, Europe's busiest port, is located at its mouth.
Danube River Originates in the Black Forest Mountains of Germany, Europe (Germany, Austria,
24 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
of North Africa between Madeira tudes; merges with the North
and Cape Verde. Equatorial Current.
Labrador Current Cold Originates in Baffin Bay, flows along Dense fog forms where it
Newfoundland and Grand Bank, meets the Gulf Stream.
merges with the Gulf Stream near
50°W.
Brazil Current Warm Flows southward along the eastern Created by the bifurcation of the
coast of South America, near Sun Rock. South Equatorial Current; characte-
rized by high temperature & salinity.
South Atlantic Drift Cold Flows eastward at about 40°S, formed Also known as the Westerlies
by the deflection of the Brazil Current. Drift or Atlantic Drift; influ enced
by westerly winds.
Benguela Current Cold Flows northward along the western Created by the northward deflection
coast of South Africa. of the South Atlantic Drift near
the southern tip of Africa.
Other Minor Currents Warm Includes Antilles, Florida, Norwegian, These are smaller currents with
Irminger, and Rennel currents. localized effects in the Atlantic
Ocean.
24. Tropical/Subtropical and Temperate Grasslands
Tropical/Subtropical Grasslands
Grasslands Stretch
Selvas Amazon
Basin
Compos Brazil
Llanos Venezuela
Kaatinga Brazilian Highlands
Savannah N.Central Africa/Sudan
Temperate Grasslands
Grasslands Stretch
Prairies USA
Pampas Argentina
Downs Australia
Canterbury New Zealand
Pustaj Hungary
Kanto Japan
Steppe European Plain
25. Major Human Species
Caucasoids/White Skin Mongoloids/Yellow Skin Negroids/Black Skin
European Ancient Mongoloids African branch
Indo-Iranians Arctic Mongoloids Asian branch
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 25
Semites and Hemites American Indians American branch
26. Main dwellings of humans
Aul It is a tent-like dwelling of the human species found in the Caucasus mountainous
and desert regions of Europe. It is made in a circular structure by covering leather
over wood.
Igloo It is a semi-circular dwelling made of snow by the Eskimo species of the Tun-
dra region.
Izba It is a human dwelling made of triangular colored walls in the rural areas of North-
ern Russia.
Kraal It is a human dwelling made of grass by the Masai, Vandu and Kafir of Africa and the
aquatic species of Natal (South Africa).
Tipi It is a tent-shaped
dwelling made by the Red Indians living in the eastern parts of the Rocky Mountains
(America), which is mainly made from the leather of the bison bull.
Yurt It is a temporary human dwelling made of animal skins by the Khirgiz, Kalmukh and
Kazak, residents of the stumpy region of Central Asia.
27. Major tribes of the world
Tribe Related areas
Kol Chotanagpur plateau (India)
Santhal, Ho Jharkhand and Odisha
Bhil Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
Toda Nilgiri (South India)
Haisla Kintal people of British tribe.
Mongolian Natives of Mongolia.
Houn Houn tribe, possibly natives of China.
Hausa Natives of Nigeria.
Nordic White race group found in Norway.
Hopi Tribal people living in the north-eastern Arizona province of the United States of America.
Papuan Natives of Papua.
Ho-Ho tribe are Indian people living in the Olympic Peninsula of the United States of America.
Phoenician Natives of ancient Phoenicia.
Hottentot People of South Africa who are a mixture of Bushmen and Bantu.
Pokomo (Africa) are very similar to Bantu-like people in Kenya.
Inca Chavan tribe of Kulko valley of Peru country of South America.
Quichua Tribal people of central Peru.
Kamsin Samoyed people living in the upper part of Yenisei river of Siberia.
Ndonga This tribe lives in the area near Angola.
Dorova These hunter-like people live in the north of Kenya.
Negrito Found in Oceania and eastern islands of Asia. These are short-statured Negroid people.
Inuit Eskimos of North America.
Nigrillo Short-statured Negroid people who resemble Bushmen, Pygmies and are found in Africa.
Jacunda Tribe of northern Brazil.
Nordic White race group, found in Norway, Sweden, Finland and Iceland.
Kafir Residents of the South African grasslands.
26 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
Kamsin Residents of the Yenisei of Siberia.
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 27
28 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
Practice Questions
CAREERWILL
?
India's Most Loved Govt Exam & School Prep Platform
1. On which planet has a rotat- 7. Which trend is found about the (a) Magnesium oxide
ing oval of clouds, twice as wide distance between the galaxies? (b) Tin oxide
as Earth, called the 'Great Red (a) Unpredictable (b) Decreasing (c) Iron oxide
Spot' been observed for more (c) Constant (d) Increasing (d) Nitrogen oxide
than 300 years ?
[SSC CPO 2023]
[SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) Neptune (b) Mercury 8. The moon completes _________ 14. Which of the following is NOT
(c) Jupiter (d) Venus rotation on its axis as it com-
a moon of Jupiter ?
[SSC CHSL 2023] pletes one revolution around
the Earth. (a) Callisto (b) Europa
2. In early 1610, who discovered
with his newly invented telescope (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4 (c) Ganymede (d) Triton
that Jupiter has four moons? [SSC CPO2022] [SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) Simon Marius 9. Which of the following statements 15. Which of the following rocky
(b) Tycho Brahe regarding the moon is correct? planets is the fastest planet in
(c) Galileo Galilei I. The size of the illuminated our solar system – traveling
part of the moon visible from through space at about 29 miles
(d) Johannes Kepler
the Earth increases each (47 kilometers) per second?
[SSC CHSL 2022]
day after the new moon day. (a) Earth (b) Mercury
3. Who was the first to accurately II. After the full moon day, the
describe the rings of Saturn as a (c) Venus (d) Mars
sunlit part of the moon vis-
disc around the planet in 1655? ible from the Earth de-
[SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) Hideki Yukawa creases in size every day. 16. Which of the following is one of
(b) Galileo Galilei (a) Both I and II the largest spiral galaxies?
(c) Christiaan Huygens (b) Only I (a) NGC 6872 (b) Milky Way
(d) Giovanni Cassini (c) Neither I nor II (c) Cygnus A (d) Maffei 1
[SSC CGL 2022] (d) Only II [SSC CHSL 2024]
4. The _____radiation belts are gi- [SSC CPO 2022] 17. Who was the first to develop a
ant swaths of magnetically 10. Geoid is the_____of earth. mathematical predictive heliocen-
trapped highly energetic charged (a) orbit (b) axis tric model of the solar system ?
particles that surround Earth. (c) colour (d) shape (a) Nicolaus Copernicus
(a) Van Allen (b) Aurora [SSC CHSL 2024] (b) Galileo Galilei
(c) Kuiper (d) Chinook 11. Which is, by far, the closest (c) Pierre-Simon Laplace
[SSC CGL 2022] dwarf planet orbiting at only 2.8 (d) Immanuel Kan
5. How many degrees does the times Earth's distance from
[SSC CHSL 2024]
Earth rotate about its own axis the sun ?
18. The point in the orbit of an ob-
in one hour? (a) Ceres (b) Makemake
ject (such as a satellite) orbit-
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 15 (c) Eris (d) Pluto
ing the earth that is at the
[SSC CHSL 2024]
[SSC CGL 2020] greatest distance from the cen-
6. Which is the most widely ac- 12. A_______ is a cloud of dust and tre of the earth is known as:
gas inside a galaxy.
cepted model to explain the for- (a) perigee (b) apogee
mation and evaluation of the (a) black hole (b) photosphere
(c) perihelion (d) aphelion
solar system? (c) nebula (d) chromosphere
[SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) Cloud hypothesis [SSC CHSL 2024]
19. Which of the following statements
(b) Gas hypothesis 13. The colour of the surface of
Mars is red because of the pres- about planet Saturn is true?
(c) Nebular hypothesis ence of large amounts of chemi- (a) Saturn is the fourth planet
(d) Solar hypothesis cal compounds in it. What is the from the Sun and the largest
[SSC CPO 2023] name of that compound? planet in our solar system.
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 1
(b) Satellites like Enceladus d. The ITCZ moves over to the (c) 21 March and 23 September
and Titan of Saturn are plane of Ganga in Summer. (d) 23 September & 22 December
home to internal oceans, (a) Only a and c (b) a, b and c [SSC CHSL 2023]
could possibly support life. (c) Only b and c (d) a, b and d 31. From the north most to south
(c) Saturn's environment is [SSC CPO 2023] most point of India,
conducive to life. what is the extent of India?
25. The torrid zone lies between
(d) Saturn is a massive ball ____. (a) 4109 km (b) 2914 km
made up mostly nitrogen.
(a) Antarctic Circle and Tropic (c) 3214 km (d) 3785 km
[SSC CHSL 2024]
of Capricorn [SSC CHSL 2023]
20. Cosmic snowballs of frozen (b) North Pole and Arctic Circle 32. What is the zone between the arc-
gases, rock and dust that orbit tic circle and north pole called?
(c) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic
the Sun are known as_______.
of Capricorn (a) Torrid zone
(a) Meteors (b) Star
(d) Arctic Circle and Tropic of (b) Frigid zone
(c) Meteorites (d) Comets Cancer
[SSC MTS 2023]
(c) North temperate zone
[SSC CHSL 2024]
21. In which of the following months 26. Which of the following state- (d) South temperate zone
may the meteor shower named [SSC CHSL 2023]
ments is INCORRECT regard-
Lyrids be seen from Earth? ing the Coriolis force? 33. Lines joining located at equal
(a) April (b) February (a) It deflects the wind to the travel time from a common
(c) June (d) August right in the north and left centre are called:
[SSC MTS 2021] in the south. (a) Isohalines (b) Isochrones
22. At what latitude does the east- (b) It is directly proportional to (c) Isobar (d) Isobronts
erly jet stream blow over pen- the angle of altitude
[SSC CHSL 2020]
insular India during the sum- (c) Deflection is less when the
34. During October-November, the
mer months? wind is high
apparent movementof the sun
(a) 24°N (b) 30°N (d) It is absent at the equator.
is towards the _____.
(c) 14°N (d) 28°N [SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) North (b) North-East
[SSC CGL 2024] 27. Which is the Standard Merid-
ian of India? (c) North-West (d) South
23. In which month is the [SSC MTS 2023]
InterTropical Convergence (a) 81°30' E (b) 82°30' E
(c) 83°30' E (d) 84°40' E 35. The southern part of India lies
Zone (ITCZ) located around
in the _________ belt.
20°N-25°N latitude (over the [SSC CHSL 2024]
Gangetic plain) ? 28. Which is the waterbody that (a) rain (b) temperate
(a) May (b) August separates Andaman Islands (c) polar (d) warm
(c) June (d) July and Nicobar Islands? [SSC MTS 2023]
2 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
38. Which of the following state- 44. Which of the following group of 3. Around February, the cold
ments is best related to the 'pa- months is the coldest in North winds coming from the Caspian
cific ring of fire'? India? Sea and Turkmenistan bring
(a) Known for thermal power (a) February and March a cold wave along with frost
station (b) September and October and fog over the northwest-
(b) Known for volcano and ern parts of India.
(c) December and January
earthquakes (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) October and November
(c) Known for only glacial for- (b) 2 and 3 only
[SSC CGL 2024]
mations (c) 1, 2 and 3
45. The tropical cyclones in Aus-
(d) Known for tropical (d) 1 and 3 only
tralia are known as ________.
rainforests [SSC CGL Tier-II, 2023]
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 3
54. How many controls are there (c) The annual precipitation in (c) 'Monsoon' type of climate is
globally that influence the cli- Meghalaya is over 400 cm. found mainly in south and
mate of a particular zone? (d) Some parts like the Tamil southeast Asia.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 3 Nadu's coast gets a large (d) India experiences compara-
[SSC CPO 2023] portion of its rains during tively stronger winters as
55. When was the Indian Meteoro- October and November. compared to central Asia.
logical Department, which col- [SSC CPO 2023] [SSC CHSL 2024]
lects data on temperature, 59. Which of the following codes sig- 63. The target for the first commit-
rainfall, wind, etc., and makes nify the Cold Climate with Dry ment period of the Kyoto Proto-
weather forecasts, established Winters according to Koeppen? col is to reduce emissions of
by the Government of India? greenhouse gasses by 5.2%
(a) EF (b) Df (c) ET (d) Dw
from 1990 levels?
(a) 1873 (b) 1879 [SSC CPO 2022]
(a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 7
(c) 1876 (d) 1875 60. Which of the following state- [SSC CHSL 2023]
[SSC CPO 2023] ments regarding orographic
64. The summer months experience
56. Choose the INCORRECT state- rainfall is correct? __________ in the northern part
ment related to monsoon. (a) It occurs mainly during of India.
(a) The intensity and position summer and is common (a) rising air pressure
of the high-pressure area, over equatorial doldrums in (b) falling air pressure
east of Madagascar, affects the Congo basin.
(c) decreasing temperature
the Indian Monsoon (b) This type of precipitation oc- (d) heavy rain
(b) The Southwest Monsoon curs when warm, humid air [SSC MTS 2023]
winds blow over the warm strikes on a mountain range. 65. What type of climate do the two
oceans, gather moisture and (c) This precipitation is heavy island regions of India,
bring widespread rainfall but of short duration, highly Lakshadweep and Andaman and
over the mainland of India. localised and is associated Nicobar Islands experience?
(c) The difference in pressure with minimum amount of (a) Humid subtropical climate
over Tahiti (Pacific Ocean), cloudiness. (b) Hot semi-arid climate
and Darwin in northern
(d) This type of precipitation is (c) Tropical warm climate
Australia (Indian Ocean) is
characterised by seasonal (d) Subtropical highland climate
computed to predict the in-
reversal of winds that carry [SSC CHSL 2022]
tensity of the monsoons.
oceanic moisture. 66. The climatic diversity of India
(d) The western cyclonic dis- [SSC CHSL 2024] is characterised by its distinc-
turbances occur due to
61. Which theory describes the tiveness, and one of the follow-
withdrawal or the retreat of
collective effects of changes in ing factors does NOT contrib-
the monsoon
Earth's movements on its cli- ute to it is ___________.
[SSC CPO 2023]
mate over thousands of years? (a) longitudinal extent
57. Which winds blow across the
(a) Milankovitch theory (b) latitudinal extent
Asian continent at latitudes north
of the Himalayas roughly parallel (b) Copernicus' heliocentric theory (c) topography
to the Tibetan highlands ? (c) Plate tectonics theory (d) vegetation
[SSC MTS 2024]
(a) Trade winds (d) Continental drift theory
67. Which state lies in the rain
(b) Jet streams [SSC CHSL 2024]
shadow region of the Arabian Sea
(c) Southwest winds 62. Which of the following state- branch of the southwest monsoon?
(d) Northwest winds ments about climate is INCOR-
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Gujarat
[SSC CPO 2023] RECT?
(c) Goa (d) Kerala
58. Choose the INCORRECT state- (a) India's climate has charac- [SSC MTS 2024]
ment out of the following. teristics of tropical as well
68. What is the usual term used to
(a) There is an increase in rain- as subtropical climates. describe the climate of India?
fall generally from east to (b) Coastal areas of India expe- (a) Polar climate
west in the Northern Plains. rience less contrasts in
(b) Tropical monsoon
(b) Most parts of the country temperature conditions as
(c) Desert climate
receive rainfall from June compared to the interior of
the country. (d) Arid climate
to September. [SSC MTS 2023]
4 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
69. What is 'Mahawat' in India? (c) Stratomerge (c) Arabic word
(a) Cold waves during the win- (d) Tropomerge (d) Greek word
ter season [SSC CHSL 2024] [SSC CHSL 2020]
(b) Cloud burst during the mon- 76. What is the purpose of the 83. Atmospheric temperature usu-
soon season Earth's magnetic field? ally decreases with altitude,
(c) Cyclonic rainfall during the (a) To provide an energy source but sometimes this phenom-
for life on Earth enon gets reversed in the tro-
winter season
(b) To control the Earth's climate posphere. This phenomenon is
(d) Hot and dry winds during known as _________.
the summer season (c) To shield the Earth from so-
lar wind and cosmic radiation (a) Temperature Inversion
[SSC MTS 2023]
(d) To cause the tides in the ocean (b) Adiabatic Lapse Rate
70. Which winds are also known by
the name of 'Roaring Forties' ? [SSC CHSL 2023] (c) Global Warming
77. What is the average temperature (d) Temperature Convection
(a) Polar easterlies
of Chennai in the cold season? [SSC MTS 2024]
(b) westerly winds
(a) 20° - 21° Celsius 84. What is the main objective of
(c) Polar winds the 'Graded Response Action
(b) 32° - 33° Celsius
(d) Trade winds Plan'?
(c) 24° - 25° Celsius
[SSC MTS 2022] (a) legalizing illegal colonies
(d) 29° - 30° Celsius
71. The day to day condition of the (b) To control the cases of ma-
[SSC CPO 2022]
atmosphere at a place with re- laria
78. In India, from June to September
spect to the temperature, hu- (c) introduction of electric ve-
which type of weather prevails?
midity, rainfall, wind speed etc. hicles
is called _______ at that place. (a) Autumn (b) Winter
(c) Spring (d) controlling air pollution
(a) climate (b) weather [SSC MTS 2023]
(c) environment (d) ecology (d) Monsoon / Rainy season
[SSC CPO 2022]
85. Exfoliation is a form of _________.
[SSC MTS 2023]
79. At what height do the Jet (a) physical weathering
72. What kind of radiation is ab-
Streams blow in India during (b) chemical weathering
sorbed by the ozone layer?
winter months? (c) mass wasting
(a) Green radiation
(a) 9-15 km (b) 9-17 km (d) biochemical weathering
(b) Infrared radiation (c) 9-16 km (d) 9-13 km [SSC CGL 2024]
(c) Visible radiation [SSC CPO 2022] 86. The outermost part of the Earth
(d) Ultraviolet radiation 80. __________ is a naturally occur- is known as __________.
[SSC CGL 2024] ring phenomenon that is re- (a) volcano (b) the crust
73. A dense mass of water drops on sponsible for the heating of the (c) the core (d) the mantle
smoke or dust particles in the Earth's surface and atmosphere. [SSC CGL 2024]
lower atmosphere layers is re- (a) Radiation 87. Which of the following is a yel-
ferred to as: (b) Global warming lowish green to green coloured
(a) mist (b) blizzard (c) Greenhouse effect gemstone often found in mafic
(c) frost (d) smog (d) Global heating and ultramafic igneous rocks
[SSC CGL 2024] [SSC CPO 2020]
such as basalt, gabbro, dunite,
74. The upper portion of the earth 81. In which layer of atmosphere diabase and peridotite?
is known as: does the meteorites burn up on (a) Bornite (b) Olivine
(a) Stratosphere entering from space? (c) Tremolite (d) Garnet
(b) Troposphere (a) Stratosphere [SSC CHSL 2023]
(c) Lithosphere (b) Thermosphere 88. What type of rocks were once ig-
(d) Mesosphere (c) Mesosphere neous or sedimentary, but have
[SSC CGL 2024] (d) Exosphere metamorphosed as a result of in-
75. The zone separating the tropo- [SSC CHSL 2023] tense heat and/or pressure
sphere from the stratosphere 82. The term 'monsoon' is derived within the Earth’s crust?
is called the __________. from a/an: (a) Granite (b) Quartzite
(a) Tropopause (a) Italian word (c) Sandstone (d) Basalt
(b) stratospause (b) Latin word [SSC CHSL 2022]
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 5
89. ________ plains are formed due 96. Mushroom rocks are formed 102. The name of the strait between
to the weathering of soluble rocks due to _____. the Pacific and Arctic oceans,
such as limestone and dolomite. (a) glacial deposition separating the Chukchi Pen-
(a) Glacial (b) Karst insula of the Russian Far East
(b) deposition of sea waves from the Seward Peninsula of
(c) Deposition (d) Desert (c) running water erosion Alaska, is the :
[SSC CHSL 2021]
(d) wind erosion (a) Davis Strait
90. The igneous, sedimentary and [SSC MTS 2022] (b) Florida Strait
met amorphic r ocks ar e 97. Which of the following rocks (c) Bering Strait
interconvertible through a con- floats in water?
(d) Messina Strait
tinuous process called: (a) Glacial (b) Karst [SSC CGL 2024]
(a) lithification (c) Deposition (d) Desert 103. Due to the attraction of the sun
(b) metamorphism [SSC CHSL 2021] and the moon, what is the fre-
(c) rock cycle 98. Which of the following is the quency of up and falls of ocean
(d) weathering and erosion largest crustal plate on Earth water in a day ?
[SSC MTS 2024] with an ar ea of over (a) Two (b) Three
103,000,000 km2 ? (c) Four (d) One
91. The layer made up of unconsoli-
dated rock, dust, soil, etc. that (a) South American plate [SSC CGL 2023]
is deposited on a bed rock sur- (b) African plate 104. Which is the correct sequence
face like a blanket is known as: (c) Eurasian plate of oceans according to size
(a) Talus (b) Regolith (d) Pacific plate (from largest to smallest) ?
(c) Scree (d) Protolith [SSC CGL 2024] (a) Pacific Ocean > Antarctic
99. In the context of water bodies, Ocean > Indian Ocean > At-
[SSC MTS 2024]
Neap Tides occur : lantic Ocean
92. Layers of varying thickness (b) Pacific Ocean > Indian
(a) when the earth, moon and
are found in which type of rock? Ocean > Antarctic Ocean >
sun line up in a straight line
(a) Igneous rock Atlantic Ocean
(b) when the sun and moon are
(b) Sedimentary rock on the opposite sides (c) Pacific Ocean > Atlantic
(c) Metamorphic rock Ocean > Indian Ocean >
(c) when there is so much in-
Antarctic Ocean
(d) Volcanic rock terference by continents
[SSC MTS 2024] (d) Pacific Ocean > Indian
(d) when the sun and moon are
93. The steep rocky coast rising Ocean > Atlantic Ocean>
at right angles to each other
Antarctic Ocean
almost vertically above sea wa- [SSC CGL 2024]
[SSC CGL 2023]
ter is called ______.
100. Which of the following is a land-
(a) sea caves (b) sea cliff 105. The percentage of earth’s water
locked Salt Lake in South-West
found in the oceans is _________.
(c) sea arches (d) ox-bow lake Asia between Israel and Jordan?
(a) 94 percent (b) 97.2 percent
[SSC MTS 2022] (a) Don Juan Pond
(c) 90.2 percent (d) 92.2 percent
94. The core of the Great Himalayas (b) Aral Sea
[SSC CGL 2022]
is composed of ______. (c) Caspian Sea
106. How thick is the lithosphere?
(a) Slate (b) Granite (d) Dead Sea
(a) 25 to 45 km(b) 10 to 25 km
(c) Sandstone (d) Limestone [SSC CGL 2024]
(c) 10 to 200 km (d) 5 to 10 km
[SSC MTS 2022] 101. Which ocean is encircling the
[SSC CGL 2022]
continent of Antarctica and
95. Which of the following deter- 107. The crust is the Earth’s outer-
extends northward to 60 de-
mines the colour, texture, most layer that is less than
grees south latitude?
chemical properties, mineral, ______ percent of Earth by
content and permeability of (a) Atlantic Ocean
mass, with oceanic crust and
the soil? (b) Indian Ocean
continental crust often con-
(a) Parent rock (b) Time (c) Pacific Ocean sisting of more felsic rocks.
(c) Relief (d) Climate (d) Southern Ocean (a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 10
[SSC CGL 2024]
[SSC MTS 2022] [SSC CGL 2022]
6 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
108. In 1596, who suggested in his 114. Which is the largest continen- 121. The mohororvicic (Moho) dis-
work ‘Thesaurus Geographicus’ tal shelf in the world? continuity separates?
that the continents of the earth (a) Earth’s lithosphere and as-
(a) The shelf of India
were not always located in their thenosphere
present positions? (b) The Indian Ocean shelf
(b) Earth’s atmosphere and hy-
(a) Louis Agassiz (c) The shelf in the Pacific Ocean
drosphere
(b) Georges Cuvier (d) The Siberian shelf in the (c) Earth’s crust and the inner core
(c) Abraham Ortelius Arctic Ocean
(d) Earth’s crust and the mantle
[SSC CHSL 2022]
(d) Dan Peter McKenzie [SSC MTS 2023]
[SSC CPO 2024] 115. What is the normal air pres- 122. Which of the following is a
109. Continental Shelf which is the sure at sea level? warm current?
shallowest part of the ocean (a) 1013.25 millibars (a) Labrador current
has an average gradient of:
(b) 886.13 millibars (b) Falkland current
(a) 1° or even less
(c) 985.14 millibars (c) Canary current
(b) 2° or even less
(d) 1100.12 millibars (d) Gulf stream
(c) 8° or even less
[SSC CHSL 2020] SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Afternoon)
(d) 5° or even less
116. India is divided into how many 123. Ocean acidification is the on-
[SSC CPO 2023]
going decrease in the pH of
110. Living organisms have been on earthquake zones (seismic zones)?
the Earth’s oceans, caused by
Earth for how much percent of (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 the uptake of ______ from the
Earth’s history? [SSC CHSL 2020] atmosphere.
(a) 60% (b) 40% (c) 80% (d) 20% 117. The _____ is responsible for (a) Methane (b) carbon dioxide
[SSC CPO 2023]
Earth’s magnetic field. (c) nitrogen (d) argon
111. Choose the correct statement(s)
related to‘continentality’. (a) inner core (b) mantle [SSC MTS 2022]
(c) outer core (d) crust 124. The lowest known point on
a. The sea exerts a moderat-
earth is called ________, which
ing influence on climate. [SSC CHSL 2020]
is present in the Pacific Ocean.
b. As the distance from the sea 118. What does EL Niño refer to ?
increases, the people expe- (a) Factorial Deep
(a) Hot water current (b) Challenger Deep
rience extreme weather
conditions. (b) Pressure water current (c) Great Blue Hole
c. As one goes from the sur- (c) High air pressure (d) Great Barrier Reef
face of the earth to higher (d) Low air pressure [SSC MTS 2022]
altitudes, the atmosphere [SSC MTS 2023] 125. In coastal areas, during the
becomes less dense and night, wind blows from land to
119. Which of the following oceans
temperature decreases. sea because:
is surrounded by the continent
(a) b and c (b) Only c (a) low pressure is created on land
of North America and South
(c) a and c (d) a and b (b) land cools slower than water
America to the east?
[SSC CPO 2023]
(c) water cools slower than land
(a) Pacific Ocean
112. Movement of fault lines can cause: (d) high pressure is created at sea
(a) a flood (b) sudden rain (b) Atlantic Ocean
[SSC MTS 2022]
(c) an earthquake (c) Indian Ocean
126. The process of seepage of water
(d) a storm (d) Arctic Ocean into the ground is called ____.
[SSC CPO 2022] [SSC MTS 2023]
(a) Infiltration (b) depletion
113. The peninsular plateau of In- 120. Which of the following oceans
(c) Storage
dia was a part of which conti- extends into the Mediterra-
nent earlier? nean Sea ? (d) replenishment
[SSC MTS 2022]
(a) North America (a) Indian Ocean
127. The Shevaroy Hills are located
(b) Europe (b) Pacific Ocean
in which state of India?
(c) South America (c) Atlantic Ocean
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Odisha
(d) Africa (d) Arctic Ocean (c) Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) [SSC MTS 2023]
[SSC CGL 2023]
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 7
128. Asia is separated from Europe (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands 143. The holy mountain ‘Kailash’ is
by ______ mountains. (b) Maharashtra located in which neighbouring
(a) Himalayan (c) Gujarat country of India ?
(b) Andes Mountains (d) West Bengal (a) Pakistan (b) Afghanistan
(c) Alps [SSC CHSL 2023] (c) Bangladesh(d) China
(d) Ural 137. Which among the following [SSC MTS 2023]
[SSC CGL 2022] peaks is the highest peak of 144. The Himalayan Mount ain
129. Which of the following is also Jharkhand?
range was formed by the colli-
known as the ‘White Mountain’? (a) Kangto (b) Girnar sion of ________.
(a) Cho Oyu (b) Makalu (c) Anamudi (d) Parasnath
(a) African Plate and Austra-
(c) Dhaulagiri (d) Lhotse [SSC CHSL 2023]
lian Plate
[SSC CGL 2022] 138. Which of the following state-
ments is NOT correct? (b) Indian Plate and African
130. The Deomali is the highest
mountain peak of ______. (a) Mahendragiri is the highest Plate
(a) Assam (b) West Bengal peak in the Eastern Ghats. (c) Eurasian Plate and African
(c) Bihar (d) Odisha (b) The height of the Western Plate
[SSC CGL 2022] Ghats progressively de- (d) Indian Plate and Eurasian
131. In which of the following Indian creases from north to south. Plate
states is the Gorichen peak (c) The Western Ghats cause [SSC MTS 2023]
8 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
150. Which river originates south (a) Intensive use of manure (c) Both I and II
of the equator and flows north (b) Over-irrigation (d) Only II
through north-eastern Africa [SSC CHSL 2023]
(c) Deforestation due to mining
to drain into the Mediterra- 165. In which of the soil conserva-
nean Sea? (d) Overgrazing tion methods in the coastal
[SSC CGL 2024] and dry regions, rows of trees
(a) Lena River
(b) Nile River 158. Identify the step that is NOT a are planted to check the wind
part of decomposition. movement to protect soil cover?
(c) Amazon River
(a) Leaching (b) Humification (a) Mulching (b) Shelter belts
(d) Congo River
[SSC CPO 2024] (c) Catabolism (d) Soil erosion (c) Rock dam
151. Where are Huka Falls located ? [SSC CGL 2024] (d) Contour barriers
[SSC CHSL 2023]
(a) Germany (b) Spain 159. __________ develops on crystal-
166. In a laterite soil profile, which of
(c) New Zealand (d) Australia line igneous rocks in areas of low
the following elements is present
[SSC CPO 2023] rainfall in the eastern and south- in an excessive amount?
152. Where is Red Lake found ? ern part of the Deccan Plateau.
(a) Iron (b) feldspar
(a) Japan (b) UK (a) Red soil (b) Black soil (c) Nitrogen (d) Lime
(c) USA (d) China (c) Alluvial soil(d) Arid soil [SSC MTS 2024]
[SSC CPO 2023]
[SSC CGL 2022] 167. Laterite soil develops as a result
153. Which of the following channels of which of the following reasons?
160. ___________ are thick deposits
or straits is located between the
of glacial clay and other mate- (a) Compaction
Great Nicobar Island and
rials embedded with moraines. (b) Leaching
Indonesia's Sumatra Island?
(a) Karewas (b) Bhabars (c) High temperature only
(a) 10 degree channel
(c) Duars (d) Duns (d) Sedimentation
(b) Palk Strait
[SSC MTS 2023]
(c) Grand channel [SSC CGL 2021]
168. In which of the following states
(d) 9 degree channel 161. Which unit is used to measure
of India is the maximum extent
[SSC CHSL 2021] the concentration of contami-
of alluvial soil found?
nants in soil and sediment?
154. A river is capable of forming (a) Telangana (b) Uttar Pradesh
which of the following land- (a) DPMO (b) TDS
(c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra
scapes when the river is in its (c) PPBB (d) PPM
[SSC MTS 2023]
middle course? [SSC CPO 2024]
169. The colour of the alluvial soils
(a) Waterfalls (b) A delta 162. In which of the following pro-
varies from ________.
cesses nutrients or contami-
(c) V shaped valley (d) A meander (a) pale white to warm white
nants are carried away by wa-
[SSC MTS 2024]
ter or moved into the lower (b) light orange to dark orange
155. Which of the following is the layer of the soil ? (c) orange to red
highest navigable lake in the
(a) Leaching (b) Bleaching (d) light grey to ash grey
world?
(c) Sowing (d) Ploughing [SSC MTS 2023]
(a) Huron (b) Titicaca
[SSC CPO 2023] 170. Which of the following is in geo-
(c) Superior (d) Como 163. Which is the largest part of the graphical proximity to Sri Lanka?
[SSC MTS 2023] northern plains and is formed (a) Only Karaikal
156. Which plateaus are very fertile of older alluvium? (b) Karaikal and Yanam
because they are rich in black (a) Terai (b) Bhabar (c) Only Mahe
soil that is very good for farming? (c) Bhangar (d) Khadar (d) Only Yanam
(a) African plateau [SSC CHSL 2024]
[SSC CGL 2024]
(b) Ethiopian plateau 164. Which of the following pairs of 171. Which of the following pairs do
'soil - characteristics' is correct? NOT share any borders?
(c) Katanga plateau
I. Sandy - proportion of fine (a) Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Deccan lava plateau particles is relatively higher
[SSC CGL 2024] (b) Bhutan and Meghalaya
II. Clayey - greater proportion
157. Which of the following is the (c) Bhutan and West Bengal
of big particles
main cause of land degradation (d) Bhutan and Assam
(a) Only I
in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh? [SSC CGL 2024]
(b) Neither I nor II
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 9
172. Which of the following coun- 180. Which physical feature of In- 187. Choose the correct statements
tries has the highest Hindu dia prevents the cold winds about the islands of India.
population after India? from central Asia from enter- a. Lakshadweep Islands are
(a) Bhutan (b) Sri Lanka ing the Indian subcontinent? composed of coral islands.
(a) Indian plains b. Andaman and Nicobar is-
(c) Myanmar (d) Nepal
lands are composed of coral
[SSC CGL 2024] (b) Indian desert islands.
173. The New Moore Island is in (c) Coastal area c. It is believed that Lakshadweep
geographic proximity to: (d) Himalayas islands are an elevated por-
(a) Pakistan (b) Myanmar [SSC CGL 2024] tion of submarine mountains.
(c) Bangladesh(d) Sri Lanka 181. In which of the following dis- d. It is believed that Andaman
and Nicobar islands are an
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift) tricts of Rajasthan are the
elevated portion of subma-
174. Maldives are located to the 'Barchans' found? rine mountains.
south of which island of India? (a) Udaipur (b) Jaisalmer (a) b and c (b) a and b
(a) Japan (c) Bhilwara (d) Alwar (c) a and d (d) c and d
(b) Lakshadweep [SSC CGL 2024] [SSC CPO 2024]
(c) Sri Lanka 182. Purvanchal Himalayas does 188. What is the name of the physi-
(d) Andaman and Nicobar NOT comprise of : cal feature that is the longitu-
[SSC CHSL 2024] dinal valley lying between the
(a) Naga hills
175. The Sino - Indian border is di- Lesser Himalayas and the
(b) Pir Panjal range Siwalik in India?
vided into how many sectors?
(c) Manipur hills (a) Duns (b) Doab
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
(d) Mizo hills (c) Bhabhar (d) Terai
[SSC CHSL 2023]
[SSC CGL 2024] [SSC CPO 2024]
176. Nepal does NOT share its
183. Which of the following hills is 189. The Himalayas have uplifted
boundary with which of the fol- from which of the following geo-
lowing states in India? located in the Eastern Ghats?
synclines?
(a) Sikkim (b) Bihar (a) Naga hills
(a) Tethys geosynclines
(b) Khasi hills
(c) West Bengal(d) Manipur (b) Appalachians geosynclines
(c) Shevaroy hills
[SSC MTS 2023] (c) Caledonian geosynclines
177. Wit h which neighbour ing (d) Anamudi hills
(d) Aravalli geosynclines
[SSC CGL 2024]
country does India share the [SSC CPO 2024]
184. What is the name of the high-
Sunderbans forest? 190. The Great Indian desert/Thar
est peak of the Eastern Ghats?
(a) China (b) Pakistan desert is located on the west-
(a) Kangchenjunga ern margin of which of the fol-
(c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal (b) Mahendragiri lowing mountain ranges?
[SSC MTS 2023]
(c) Khasi (a) Vindhya range
178. Which of the following is a hill (d) Anamudi (b) Aravalli range
pass located between India and [SSC CGL 2024] (c) Eastern ghats
China? 185. When the river approaches sea (d) Satpura range
(a) Khyber Pass it breaks up into a number of [SSC CPO 2024]
(b) Pangsau Pass distributaries, each distribu- 191. Choose the correct statements
(c) Karakoram Pass tary forms its own mouth. The about the Western Ghats.
collection of sediments from all
(d) Zojila Pass a. The height of the Western
the mouths forms _______.
[SSC MTS 2021] Ghats progressively in-
(a) meanders (b) floodplains creases from north to south.
179. Which of the following is the
(c) delta (d) levee b. Mahendragiri is the highest
highest mountain in Bhutan?
[SSC CGL 2022] peak in the Western Ghats.
(a) Gangkhar Puensum 186. What is the average elevation c. The Western Ghats are higher
(b) Kula Kangri of the Eastern Ghats of India? than the Eastern Ghats.
(c) Jomolhari (a) 400 metres (b) 200 metres d. The height of the Western
(d) Gipmochi (c) 600 metres (d) 900 metres Ghats progressively de-
[SSC MTS 2021] [SSC CPO 2024] creases from north to south.
10 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
(a) b, c and d (b) a and b 197. Which of the following physical 204. Which of the following are west
(c) a and c (d) Only c and d divisions of India is densely flowing rivers?
[SSC CPO 2024]
populated? (a) Godavari and Mahanadi
192. Which of the following factors (a) The North Indian Plains
(b) Krishna and Kaveri
are responsible for railways hav- (b) The islands
(c) Ganga and Yamuna
ing not developed much in the (c) The Himalayan Range
north-eastern parts of India? (d) Mahi and Sabarmati
(d) The Thar Desert
1. Highly dissected topography [SSC CGL 2024]
[SSC CHSL 2023]
2. Dense forests 205. ‘Bhagirathi’ and ‘Alaknanda’
198. In which of the following types of
3. Low population density regions, is the maximum tem- rivers confluence at:
4. Heavy rainfall and frequent perature variation observed be- (a) Joshimath (b) Haridwar
flooding tween a day and the same night? (c) Karanprayag (d) Devaprayag
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Coastal area (b) Island [SSC CGL 2024]
(b) Only 3 and 4 (c) Desert (d) Peninsula 206. In which group of states does
(c) Only 2 and 3 [SSC MTS 2024] the Luni River flow?
(d) 1, 2 and 4 199. The Standard Meridian of In- (a) Bihar and West Bengal
[SSC CPO 2022] dia (82°30'E) passes through (b) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
193. Select the correct order of the _______ state of India.
(c) Rajasthan and Gujarat
following plateaus and ranges (a) Karnataka
from south to north in India. (d) Maharashtra and Karnataka
(b) Madhya Pradesh [SSC CGL 2024]
(a) Malwa Plateau, Vindhya
Range, Satpura Range and (c) West Bengal 207. Which of the following is NOT
Deccan Plateau (d) Punjab a tributary of the Ganga?
[SSC MTS 2023]
(b) Deccan Plateau, Vindhya (a) Yamuna (b) Gandak
Range, Satpura Range and 200. India's total length of coastline
(c) Kosi (d) Lohit
Malwa Plateau of the mainland including
[SSC CGL 2024]
(c) Deccan Plateau, Satpura Andaman and Nicobar and
Lakshadweep is ________ 208. Which of the following rivers
Range, Vindhya Range and
originates from the Himalayas?
Malwa Plateau (a) 7416.6 km (b) 7616 km
(a) Godavari (b) Tapi
(d) Malwa Plateau, Satpura (c) 7516.6 km (d) 7716 km
Range, Vindhya Range and [SSC MTS 2023]
(c) Narmada (d) Ganga
Deccan Plateau 201. Which of the following is the
[SSC CGL 2024]
[SSC CHSL 2024]
transboundary river between 209. Which of the following states is
194. The Lushai Hills are also India and Pakistan? NOT a part of the Tapi Basin?
known as _________. (a) Rajasthan
(a) Indus (b) Ravi
(a) Khasi Hills (b) Mizo Hills (b) Maharashtra
(c) Beas (d) Jhelum
(c) Naga Hills (d) Patkai Hills (c) Madhya Pradesh
[SSC CGL 2024]
[SSC CHSL 2024]
202. Which of the following rivers (d) Gujarat
195. The Himalayas' outermost
mar ks the east ern-most [SSC CGL 2023]
range is called __________.
boundary of the Himalayas ? 210. Which of the following is not a
(a) Shiwaliks
(a) Kali (b) Teesta freshwater lake in India?
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Satluj (d) Brahmaputra (a) Pulicat (b) Loktak
(c) Dhaula Dhar
[SSC CGL 2024] (c) Bhimtal (d) Nainital
(d) Pir Panjal
[SSC CHSL 2024]
203. Which of the following penin- [SSC CGL 2023]
196. Which of the following hills is sular rivers falls into the Ara- 211. The region of Ganga Brahma-
located in the Eastern most bian Sea? putra basin lies in____.
part of India? (a) Mahanadi river (a) 10°N to 10°N latitude
(a) Jaintia Hills (b) Khasi Hills (b) Krishna river (b) 30°N to 50°N latitude
(c) Garo Hills (c) Sabarmati river (c) 5°N to 10°N latitude
(d) Patkai Bum Hills (d) Godavari river (d) 10°N to 30°N latitude
[SSC CHSL 2024] [SSC CGL 2024] [SSC CGL 2022]
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 11
212. The Hundru Fall lies along the c. The Mahanadi rises in the 223. Identify the dam that is located
course of which of the follow- highlands of Chhattisgarh. in South India.
ing rivers? d. The Krishna rises from a (a) Gandhi Sagar dam
(a) Damodar (b) Sone spring near Mahabaleshwar. (b) Tilaiya dam
(c) Mahanadi (a) Only a, b and c (c) Mettur dam
(d) Subarnarekha (b) Only a, c and d (d) Rihand dam
[SSC CGL 2022] (c) a, b, c and d [SSC CPO 2023]
213. River Ken is one of the major (d) Only b, c and d 224. Dihang and Lohit are rivers in
rivers of the Bundelkhand re- [SSC CPO 2024] which of the following regions?
gion of central India and flows 219 Which of the following state- (a) Jammu and Kashmir
through two states, Madhya ments is NOT correct about
(b) Sikkim and Manipur
Pradesh and ______. River Ganga ?
(c) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (a) River Ganga flows from the
Himalayas all the way to the (d) Punjab and Himachal
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
[SSC CGL 2022] Bay of Bengal. [SSC CPO 2023]
214. A channel of a canal where (b) River Ganga in India is 225. The Bist Doab Canal System
water flows under the influ- more than 2500 km long and Makhu Canal System are
ence of gravity is called ______. and is the most populated associated with which state of
(a) lift channel river basin in the world. India?
(b) command area (c) River Ganga and its river (a) Punjab (b) Assam
basin support lots of wonder- (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gujarat
(c) warabandi system
ful wildlife, particularly river [SSC CHSL 2024]
(d) flow channel dolphins, otters, freshwater
[SSC CGL 2021] 226. The largest inland salt lake
turtles, and gharials.
215. Which of the following rivers is ‘Sambhar’ is located in the
(d) The water level of River ______of India.
joined by river Chambal from
Ganga never depends on
the south? (a) north - east (b) north - west
monsoon and climatic con-
(a) Kosi (b) Yamuna dition of the Himalaya. (c) south - west (d) south - east
(c) Teesta (d) Ganga [SSC CPO 2024] [SSC CHSL 2024]
[SSC CPO 2024] 220. In which district of Uttarakhand 227. Which of the following rivers is
216. Choose the coasts that are does the Ramganga river origi- called ‘Singi Khamban’ in Tibet?
running along the Arabian sea. nate from the Doodhatoli ranges? (a) Indus
a. Northern Circars (a) Almora (b) Brahmaputra
b. Malabar (b) Champawat (c) Kosi
c. Konkan (c) Chamoli
(d) Sutlej
d. Coromandel (d) Pauri Garhwal [SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) Only a and c(b) a, b and c [SSC CPO 2024]
228. Delhi ridge is the water divide
(c) b, c and d (d) Only b and c 221. Wit h which neighbour ing
between which of the following
country did India sign the
[SSC CPO 2024]
Farakka Treaty in 1996 for rivers?
217. Which river originates from sharing of the Ganga Waters (a) Ganges and Sind
‘Rakshastal north-western tip’ and on augmenting its flows? (b) Indus and Mahi
near Mansarovar ?
(a) Afghanistan (c) Ganges and Indus
(a) Sutlej River
(b) Bhutan (d) Ganges and Yamuna
(b) Narmada River
(c) Nepal [SSC CHSL 2024]
(c) Ravi River
(d) Bangladesh 229. Which river basin originates
(d) Tapti River [SSC CPO 2023] from the Western Ghats range
[SSC CPO 2024]
222. Which east-flowing river basin of Karnataka state and has
218. Choose the correct statement covers the states of many tributaries such as the
about the peninsular rivers. Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Noyyal, Kabini, Arkavathi and
a. The Narmada rises in the Orissa and has a Drainage
Amaravati?
Malwa plateau. area of 39,033 sq km ?
(a) Sabarmati (b) Brahmani
b. The Godavari rises from the (a) Sarada (b) Baitarani
(c) Brahmani (d) Nagavali (c) Kaveri (d) Periyar
slopes of the Western Ghats
[SSC CHSL 2023]
near Nashik. [SSC CPO 2023]
12 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
230. The Jog Falls, one of the high- 237. What is the name of a type of 245. Which of the following is the
est waterfalls in India is the waterfall with an enormous largest west flowing river in
cataract of which river? volume of water? Rajasthan?
(a) Narmada (b) Tungabhadra (a) Cascade (b) Rapid (a) Luni (b) Chambal
(c) Sharavati (d) Cauvery (c) Cataract (d) Chute (c) Banganga (d) Banas
[SSC CHSL 2023] [SSC CHSL 2023] [SSC MTS 2021]
231. With a stretch of about 724 km, 238. Jabalpur is located on the banks 246. In which Indian state is the
which river is one of the most of which of the following rivers? ‘Bhushi Lake’ located?
important rivers of peninsular (a) Ganga (b) Godavari (a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan
India? (c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra
(c) Chambal (d) Narmada
(a) Tapi (b) Beas [SSC MTS 2021]
[SSC CHSL 2023]
(c) Palar (d) Bhavani 247. In which state of India is kund or
239. On which river is Peacock Is-
[SSC CHSL 2023]
land located? Tanka used for water harvesting ?
232. Which river originates from the (a) Rajasthan
southern part of Devarayanadurga (a) Mahanadi
(b) Andhra Pradesh
hill in Tumkur district, and (b) Ganga
flows for about 221 km before (c) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Brahmaputra
joining Kaveri? (d) Punjab
(d) Yamuna
(a) Shimsha river [SSC CHSL 2021]
[SSC CGL 2024]
(b) Girna river 240. Select the odd one from the fol- 248. In which state of India was the
(c) Ghataprabha river lowing saltwater lakes on the Neeru-Meeru programme in-
(d) Waghur river basis of their formation? troduced for construction of
[SSC CHSL 2023] (a) Pulicat lake water harvesting structures?
233. Which glacier is the source of (b) Kolleru lake (a) Andhra Pradesh
river Gori Ganga which is an (b) Rajasthan
(c) Chilika lake
important tributary of river Kali?
(d) Sambhar lake (c) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Tipra Glacier
[SSC MTS 2024] (d) Punjab
(b) Milam Glacier 241. The Zaskar and the Nubra are [SSC CGL 2024]
(c) Namik Glacier tributaries of which river? 249. Identify a water-harvesting
(d) Kafni Glacier (a) Mahanadi (b) Ganga system found in Jaisalmer.
[SSC CHSL 2023]
(c) Indus (d) Kaveri (a) Guls (b) Johads
234. Which river from the following
[SSC MTS 2024]
flows through a rift valley? (c) Khadins (d) Kuls
242. Which of the following rivers
(a) Tapi flows north of the Tropic of Can- [SSC CGL 2024]
(b) Brahmaputra cer in India? 250. Which state of India has the
(c) Sabarmati (a) Mahanadi (b) Tapi maximum number of large
(d) Ganga (c) Penganga (d) Yamuna dams?
[SSC CHSL 2023] (a) Maharashtra
[SSC MTS 2024]
235. Which tributary of the Indus River 243. What is the salt measurement (b) Madhya Pradesh
originates near the Rohtang Pass
in hypersaline lagoons? (c) Odisha
at an altitude of 4,000 meters
above mean sea level ? (a) 30 to 35 (d) Rajasthan
(a) Chenab (b) Musi (b) Less than 5 [SSC CGL 2024]
(c) Beas (d) Indravati (c) Less than 100 251. Match the following dams with
[SSC CHSL 2023] (d) More than 100 the rivers on which they are built.
[SSC MTS 2024]
236. Which is the biggest tributary of
the upper Brahmaputra that origi- 244. Which lake of India is the re-
nates in the Tibetan Himalayas sult of tectonic activity?
and winds its way into India (a) Wular lake
through Arunachal Pradesh ? (b) Barapani lake
(a) Subansir (b) Yerla (c) Dal lake
(c) Musi (d) Aner (d) Loktak lake
[SSC CHSL 2023] SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Morning)
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 13
(a) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v, e-i (a) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-5 (a) Kandla (b) Kolkata
(b) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-v, e-iv (b) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-5 (c) Chennai
(c) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i, e-v (c) a-4, b-3, c-5, d- 1 (d) Visakhapatnam
(d) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-v, e-i (d) a-2, b-5, c-3, d-1 [SSC MTS 2023]
[SSC CHSL 2024]
[SSC CPO 2024] 264. The Almatti Dam of Karnataka
252. In which of the following districts 258. Which of the following state- is built over which of the fol-
is Baira Siul Dam located ? ments is correct regarding lowing rivers?
large dams? (a) Periyar (b) Sutlej
(a) Bilaspur (b) Chamba
I. They have social problems (c) Kaveri (d) Krishna
(c) Kinnaur (d) Mandi
because they displace a large [SSC MTS 2023]
[SSC CPO 2024]
number of peasants and 265. In which state of India is Tawa
253. Identify the dam that is located tribals without adequate com- dam located?
in South India. pensation or rehabilitation. (a) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Gandhi Sagar dam II. They have Environmental (b) Haryana
(b) Tilaiya dam problems because they con- (c) Rajasthan
(c) Mettur dam tribute enormously to defor- (d) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rihand dam estation and the loss of bio- [SSC CPO 2022]
[SSC CPO 2023] logical diversity. 266. On which of the following riv-
254. Which ports belong to the west- (a) Only l (b) Both l and Il ers is Pakistan constructing a
ern coast of India? dam named Diamer Basha’
(c) Only ll (d) Neither I nor Il
(a) Kandla port, Mormugao dam?
[SSC CHSL 2023]
port, Kochi port (a) Indus (b) Jhelum
(b) Kandla port, Mormugao 259. Kadana Dam of Gujarat is built
(c) Sutlej (d) Chenab
port, Chennai port over which of the following rivers?
[SSC MTS 2021]
(c) Kandla port, Mormugao (a) Mahi (b) Manjira 267. ________ leaves are used to
port, Kolkata port (c) Tapti (d) Sabarmati make bidis.
(d) Kandla port, Haldia port, [SSC CHSL 2023] (a) Neem (b) Champa
Kochi port
260. Which of the following is (c) Betel (d) Tendu
[SSC CPO 2023]
Uttarakhand’s first gravity dam? [SSC CGL 2024]
255. Which of the following dams is
(a) Tehri dam (b) Baigul dam 268. Sundari trees are found in
located in Jharkhand?
which type of forests in India?
(a) Koyna (b) Maithon (c) Dhora dam (d) Song dam
(a) Mangrove forests
(c) Mettur (d) Sardar Sarovar [SSC CHSL 2021]
(b) Tropical deciduous forests
[SSC CPO 2020]
261. Which type of dam is a tempo- (c) The thorn forests and scrubs
256. On which river in India was rary dam constructed to exclude
the Somasila Dam built? (d) Tropical evergreen forests
water from the specific area? [SSC CGL 2024]
(a) Krishna river
(a) Coffer (b) Impounding 269. Which of the following states
(b) Tapti river
(c) Detention (d) Debris has mangrove forests?
(c) Pennar river
[SSC CHSL 2021]
(a) Telangana
(d) Sabarmati river
(b) Andhra Pradesh
[SSC CHSL 2024] 262. Where is the Baglihar Dam lo-
257. Match the pair correctly: Na- cated? (c) Rajasthan
tional Waterways Stretch (d) Manipur
(a) Gujarat
(a) NW-1 1. Kakinada - [SSC CHSL 2024]
(b) Himachal Pradesh 270. In which of the following re-
Puducherry
(b) NW-2 2. Kottapuram- (c) Jammu & Kashmir gions is the tropical evergreen
Kallam (d) Telangana forests found in India?
(c) NW-3 3. Allahabad - [SSC CHSL 2020] (a) Eastern Ghats
Haldia 263. The _______ port was devel- (b) Western Ghats
(d) NW-5 4. Sadiya- Dhubri oped after Independence to (c) Rann of Kutch
5. Talcher - ease the volume of trade on (d) Thar Desert
Dhamra the Mumbai port. [SSC CPO 2024]
14 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
271. In which of the following parts 277. Which of the following pairs of 283. Which of the following is an ex-
of India are thorn countries - name ample of a terrestrial ecosystem?
forests and scrub forests found? of grassland is correct? (a) Ponds (b) River
I. Argentina - Pampas, (c) Grasslands (d) Oceans
(a) South-eastern India
II. Brazil - Steppe [SSC MTS 2023]
(b) North-eastern India
(a) Neither I nor II 284. Which of the following states is
(c) North-western India
(b) Only II the biggest producer of Pulses?
(d) South-western India (c) Only I (a) Madhya Pradesh
[SSC CPO 2024]
(d) Both I and II (b) Haryana
272. Under which strata do trees fall?
[SSC CHSL 2023] (c) Punjab
(a) Second vertical
278 The wet temperate type of for- (d) Bihar
(b) Top vertical ests are found between a [SSC CGL 2024]
(c) Bottom vertical height of _______ metres. 285. Which of the following state-
(d) Middle vertical (a) 2000 and 3000 ments correctly defines the
[SSC CPO 2023] green revolution?
(b) 1500 and 3000
273. Which of the following is the
(c) 1000 and 2000 (a) It is a new strategy in agri-
most widespread forest type in
(d) 500 to 1000 culture to produce food
India?
[SSC CHSL 2023]
grains, especially wheat
(a) Littoral and Swamp Forest
and rice.
(b) Tropical Thorn Forests 279. Magnolia and Laurel trees are
found in which type of forest in (b) It is a new strategy to in-
(c) Montane Forests
India? crease the share of the forest.
(d) Tropical Deciduous Forests
(a) Tropical Thorn Forests (c) It is a new strategy to use
[SSC CHSL 20232]
green colour for all purposes.
274. What type of vegetation is found (b) Montane Forests
in the plateau of Meghalaya, (d) It is a new strategy to use
(c) Mangrove Forests
Sahyadri and the central and only herbal products.
(d) Tropical Deciduous Forests
southern islands of the Nicobar [SSC CGL 2024]
[SSC MTS 2024]
group? 286. The green revolution technology
280. The Ebony, Mahogany, Cin-
(a) Dry Tropical Deciduous Veg- resulted in an increase in pro-
chona etc. are trees found in
etation duction of cereal production from
which type of forests in India?
(b) Dry Tropical Thorny Vegeta- 72.4 million tons in 1965-66 to
(a) Tropical Deciduous Forests ________ million tons in 1978-79.
tion
(b) Thorny Forests (a) 150.8 (b) 165.9
(c) Alpine Vegetation
(d) Moist Tropical Semi - Ever- (c) Mangrove Forests (c) 131.9 (d) 141.2
green Vegetation (d) Tropical Evergreen Forests [SSC CGL 2024]
[SSC MTS 2024]
275. Plant varieties like bamboo, 287. According to the Agricultural
epiphytes, aini, semul, gutel 281. In which type of forests are wild
and Processed food products
and mundane are found in donkeys and camels found in Export Development Authority
which type of Indian forest? India? (APEDA) 2020-2021, which
(a) Alpine forest (a) Tropical evergreen forest state of India has the first rank
(b) Montane temperate forest (b) Mountain forest in grapes production?
(c) Moist tropical forest (c) Thorny forests and bushes (a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka
(d) Dry tropical forest (d) Mangrove forest (c) Bihar
[SSC CGL 2023] [SSC MTS 2023] (d) Uttar Pradesh
276. In the higher latitudes 282. Which of the following states is [SSC CGL 2024]
(50° - 70°) of Northern hemi- associated with the tropical 288. The headquarters of the sec-
sphere the spectacular Conif- thorn forests? ond Green Revolution cell was
erous forests are found. These (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands in ________.
are also called as ______ . (a) Raipur (b) Patna
(b) West Bengal
(a) Veld (b) Tundra (c) Kolkata
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Llanos (d) Taiga (d) Bhubaneswar
(d) Mizoram
[SSC CHSL 2023] [SSC CGL 2024]
[Graduate Level 2023]
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 15
289. Which of the following state- (c) Farmers were given mon- 299. Match the items in List-I with
ments about the aims of Na- etary support in cash to cul- those in List-II.
tional Mission for Sustainable tivate food grains. List-I
Agriculture (d) The government provided i. Blue revolution
(NMSA) of India is/are correct? seeds and other inputs at ii. Yellow revolution
1. To make agriculture more prices lower than those pre- iii. Round revolution
productive. vailing in the market.
iv. Golden revolution
2. To make agriculture more [SSC CPO 2024]
sustainable. List-II
294. Which of the following is NOT
3. To promote organic farming. a. Oilseeds
an agro-based industry?
(a) Only 1 is correct. b. Overall horticulture
(a) Jute (b) Fertiliser
(b) Only 2 and 3 are correct. c. Fish
(c) Sugar (d) Edible oil
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. d. Potato
[SSC CPO 2024]
(d) Only 1 and 2 are correct. (a) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
295. Which of the following is NOT
[SSC CGL 2024] (b) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
true with regard to the Green
290. What was a significant nega- Revolution? (c) i-c, ii-a, iii -d, iv-b
tive environmental impact of
(a) Cultivation became more (d) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
the Green Revolution? intensive in nature. [SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) Deforestation (b) In its second phase, there was
300. Which of the following types of
(b) Soil degradation a shift to from dry to wet (irri-
crops are sown at the begin-
(c) Increase in air pollution gated) cultivation in dry and
semi-arid regions of India. ning of the monsoon season?
(d) Ozone layer depletion
(c) Cultivation became more (a) Rabi crops (b) Kharif crops
[SSC CGL 2024]
291. What was the main objective extensive in nature. (c) Vital crops (d) Zaid crops
of the Second Green Revolution (d) There was change in the [SSC CHSL 2024]
in India? cropping pattern and types 301. Which of the following state-
of crops grown in its second ment/s about t he Gr een
(a) Ensuring food security in
phase.
the western states Revolu tion is/are CORRECT?
[SSC CPO 2024]
(b) Promoting conventional ag- i. India became self-suffi-
296. For Kharif crops, the tempera- cient with the introduction
ricultural practices
ture required for farming is
(c) Focusing on holistic devel- of the Green Revolution.
above 25 degrees Celsius with
opment in agriculture high humidity and annual ii. The Green Revolution led to
(d) Incr easing the use of rainfall above ________ cm2. loss of nutrients in the soil
chemical fertilizers and (a) 16 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 35 from farming the same crop
pesticides [SSC CPO 2023]
over and over again.
[SSC CGL 2024] 297. The agricultural land below the iii. The Green Revolution led to
292. Dr D.S. Athwal was known as main canal water level forms depletion of fresh ground
the ‘Father of ___________Revo- the ________. water.
lution in India’. (a) command area (a) Only i and iii
(a) Oilseed (b) Rice (b) lift system (b) Only i and ii
(c) Millet (d) Wheat (c) flow system (c) i, ii and iii
[SSC CGL 2023] (d) warebandi (d) Only ii
[SSC CPO 2023]
293. In which of the following ways [SSC CHSL 2024]
were farmers en couraged to 298. In the given main character- 302. Which of the following is the
begin to use high yielding va- istics of farming which is NOT most suitable application of
riety seeds ? a characteristic of the Indian
rainwater harvesting?
commercial farming?
(a) Farmers’ children were given (a) Used in cooking
(a) Slash and burn
free education in government (b) Irrigation
colleges and universities. (b) Insecticides and pesticides
(c) Chemical fertilisers (c) Water for pets
(b) Agricultural labourers were
(d) High yielding variety seeds (d) Use for industrial purposes
paid wages directlyby the
[SSC CHSL 2024] [SSC CHSL 2024]
government.
16 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
303. In which of the following states 310. Identify the oldest iron and 316. Where is the oldest centre of
is shifting agriculture locally steel company of India lace work located in Gujarat?
called Penda ? from the following options. (a) Kutch (b) Rajkot
(a) Andhra Pradesh (a) Tata Iron & Steel Company (c) Jamnagar (d) Ahmedabad
(b) Orissa (TISCO) [SSC CHSL 2024]
(c) West Bengal (b) Visvesvaraiya Iron & Steel 317. There is a cable manufacturing
(d) Madhya Pradesh Works facility at HCL in Rupnarainpur.
[SSC MTS 2024]
(c) Indian Iron & Steel Com- It belongs to which state?
304. The term ‘Aus’, ‘Aman’ and pany (IISCO) (a) Haryana (b) Assam
‘Boro’ are associated with
which crop in India? (d) Mysore Iron & Steel Works (c) Andhra Pradesh
(a) Maize (b) Wheat [SSC CGL 2024] (d) West Bengal
311. Identify the group of districts [SSC CHSL 2024]
(c) Jute (d) Paddy
that are NOT an example of in- 318. Select the INCORRECT pair of
SSC MTS 2024
dustrial districts of India. the location of the refinery and
305. Which type of tea in large
(a) Cuttack and Kota its state from the following
amount is exported from India
to importing countries? (b) Kanpur and Agra (a) Bina Refinery - Madhya
(a) Herbal tea (b) Regular tea Pradesh
(c) Alwar and Bhiwani
(c) Green tea (d) Black tea (b) Numaligarh Refinery - Assam
(d) Jabalpur and Bhopal
[SSC MTS 2024] [SSC CGL 2024]
(c) Koyali Refinery - Gujarat
306. Which group of crops belong to 312. Which of the following is a pub- (d) Tatipaka Refinery - Telangana
fibre crops and are produced on lic sector industry ? [SSC CHSL 2024]
a large scale in India ? (a) BHEL (b) Reliance 319. Select the INCORRECT state-
(a) Gram and tur ment from the following.
(c) Tata (d) Adani
(b) Jute and hemp (a) The development of the cot-
[SSC CGL 2024]
(c) Tea and coffee ton textile industry in Brit-
313. Which of the following is an ex- ain led to the decline of In-
(d) Wheat and rice ample of a major industrial re- dian textile producers.
[SSC MTS 2023]
gion of India? (b) Cotton clothes made in En-
307. Cultivation of rice needs high
(a) Chota Nagpur region gland had driven Indian
rainfall ________.
(b) Bhojpur-Munger clothes out of the markets of
(a) Low temperature and low
(c) Jaipur- Ajmer Europe and America in the
humidity
beginning of the 20th century.
(b) High temperature and low (d) Bilaspur-Korba
humidity (c) The Sale and Devang com-
[SSC CGL 2024]
munities of South India
(c) High temperature and high 314. Which is the first integrated
were famous for weaving.
humidity steel plant in the public sector
(d) The first cotton textile mill
(d) Low temperature and high in India?
in India was established in
humidity (a) The Visvesvaraya Iron and Bombay in 1854.
[SSC CHSL 2024] Steel Limited
[SSC MTS 2024]
308. Which of t he following is (b) Rourkela Steel Plant
termed as “sericulture”? 320. The Kolar region of Karnataka
(c) The Salem Steel Plant is famous for which mineral
(a) Cultivation of grapes
(d) Indian Iron and Steel Com- from the following ?
(b) Growing of fruits
pany (a) Coal (b) Gold
(c) Breeding of fish
[SSC CGL 2023] (c) Petroleum (d) Copper
(d) Commercial rearing of silk
worms 315. Which is the oldest aluminium 321. Which of the following is dark
[SSC MTS 2023]
refinery plant in India? reddish coloured stone used as
(a) The Damanjodi Plant raw material in aluminum
309. Which among the following
terms means growing of fruits? (b) The Muri Alumina Plant smelting?
(a) Apiculture (b) Arboriculture (c) The Mettur Plant (a) Mica (b) Gypsum
(c) Pomiculture(d) Sericulture (d) The Belgaum Plant (c) Bauxite (d) Conglomerate
[SSC CGL 2023] [SSC MTS 2022]
[SSC MTS 2023]
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 17
322. The Paithani saree weaving 329. About what percentage of pas- 336. As of 2022, which of the follow-
industry is in which state? senger traffic is carried by ing is the longest national wa-
roads in India? terway in India?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat
(a) 77% (b) 87% (a) Allahabad-Haldia stretch
(c) Maharashtra (d) Assam
(c) 57% (d) 67% (b) Sadiya-Dhubri stretch
[SSC MTS 2021]
[SSC CGL 2024] (c) Godavari-Krishna stretch
323. What is the length of the In-
330. Which of the following is an ex- (d) Kottapuram-Kollam stretch
dian Railways network, accord- ample of an eastern coast port? [SSC CPO 2024]
ing to the Railway Yearbook
(a) Mumbai Port 337. How many major ports are
2019-20?
(b) Chennai Port there in India for maritime
(a) 67,956 km (b) 1,604 km transportation?
(c) Mormugao Port
(c) 63,950 km (d) 2,402 km (d) New Mangalore Port (a) 21 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 13
[SSC CGL 2024] [SSC CGL 2024] [SSC CPO 2024]
324. According to the Indian Rail- 331. Which of the following ports 338. In India, which of the following
ways (2019-2020), which state was developed as a Satellite port modes of transportation re-
to relieve the pressure at the duces trans-shipment losses
has the largest railway track
Mumbai port? and delays in supply of petro-
in India? leum and gas?
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (a) New Mangalore Port
(a) Waterways (b) Railways
(c) Madhya Pradesh (b) Marmagao Port
(c) Pipeline (d) Roadways
(c) Deendayal Port Authority
(d) Uttar Pradesh [SSC CPO 2023]
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
[SSC CGL 2024] 339. In which year was the Konkan
[SSC CGL 2024]
325. In which of the following states Railway constructed?
332. Which waterway provides con-
is the development of rail nectivity with mainland India (a) 1998 (b) 1978
transport less, due to its geo- through the India - Bangladesh (c) 1988 (d) 2008
graphical conditions? Protocol route? [SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) Sikkim (b) Haryana (a) NW-10 (b) NW-15 340. The Atal Tunnel has been built
(c) NW-2 (d) NW-83 by Border Road Organisation at
(c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh
[SSC CGL 2023]
an altitude of 3000 metres.
[SSC CGL 2024]
Which places are connected by
326. Through which routes is the 333. Asansol, Howrah, Malda and
this tunnel?
Sealdah division come under
majority of India's interna- (a) Manali to Shimla
which railway zone of India?
tional trade carried out? (b) Shimla to Srinagar
(a) West Central Railway
(a) Railway and air (c) Shimla to Ladakh
(b) Northern Railway
(b) Sea and air (c) Central Railway (d) Manali to Lahaul-Spiti
(c) Only Railway (d) Eastern Railway [SSC CHSL 2024]
(d) Sea and railway [SSC CGL 2023] 341. Match the following ports with
[SSC CGL 2024] 334. What is the total length of the their related states correctly.
327. As of Financial year 2019, Golden Quadrilateral, built by Ports States
which of the following states the National Highways Author- 1. Mormugao port a. West Bengal
has the highest road density in ity of India (NHAI)?
2. Paradip Port b. Odisha
India? (a) 5978 km (b) 4658 km
3. Haldia Port c. Tamil Nadu
(a) Haryana (b) Tamil Nadu (c) 5790 km (d) 5846 km
4. Tuticorin Port d. Goa
[SSC CPO 2024]
(c) Kerala (d) Punjab (a) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
335. Pipelines as a means of transport
[SSC CGL 2024]
are looked after by the _________ (b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
328. By which National Waterways of the Government of India. (c) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
(NW) of India, are the delta (a) Ministry of Petroleum and (d) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a
channels of Mahanadi and Natural Gas [SSC CHSL 2024]
Brahmani rivers and East (b) Ministry of Home Affairs 342. When was air t ransport
Coast Canal connected? (c) Ministry of Railways nationalised in India?
(a) NW 1 (b) NW 3 (d) Ministry of Road Transport (a) 1950 (b) 1952
(c) NW 2 (d) NW 5 and Highways (c) 1951 (d) 1953
[SSC CGL 2024] [SSC CPO 2024] [SSC CHSL 2024]
18 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
343. Match the railway zones in col- 349. Which coal is low-grade, brown and 356. In which of the following states
umn A with their headquarters soft with high moisture content? of India, the reserves of silver
in column B. (a) Metallurgical (b) Lignite are NOT found?
Column-A Column-B (c) Bituminous (d) Anthracite (a) Odisha
(Railway zones) (Headquarters) [SSC CGL 2024]
350. What are the main energy (b) Jharkhand
1. Central a. New Delhi
sources for earth's internal (c) Andhra Pradesh
2. Northern b. Mumbai CST
heat engine? (d) Gujarat
3. Eastern c. Chennai
(a) Radiogenic heat and oce- [SSC CPO 2022]
4. Southern d. Kolkata anic tide heat 357. Match the following renewable
(a) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c (b) Heat from volcanoes and so- sources of energy with their pro-
(b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c lar heat ducing regions in India correctly.
(c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c (c) Solar heat and oceanic tide Renewable source of energy
(d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d heat 1. Tidal energy
[SSC CHSL 2024] (d) Radiogenic heat and pri- 2. Wind energy
344. Which of the following is NOT mordial heat
3. Geo Thermal energy
a characteristic of National [SSC CGL 2023]
Regions in India
Highways in India? 351. The Bailadila range of Chhattis-
garh is famous for which of the a. Gulf of Khambhat
(a) Meant for inter-state transport
following minerals ? b. Nagercoil
(b) Connect state capitals and
major cities c. Puga valley
(a) Copper (b) Bauxite
(c) Construction of bor der (a) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a (b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
(c) Iron ore (d) Coal
roads in high altitude areas (c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c (d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
[SSC CGL 2023]
(d) Maintained by the Central [SSC CHSL 2024]
Government 352. The approximate amount of 358. The district of Shivamogga that
[SSC CHSL 2023] silica present in cement is: is famous for its Iron-Ore and
345. Which of the following is NOT (a) between 27% and 35% Manganese mineral is located
a part of the six communica- in which state of India?
(b) between 37% and 45%
tion mail channels in India? (a) Karnataka (b) Jharkhand
(c) between 17% and 25% (c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan
(a) Metro channel
(b) Monthly channel (d) between 47% and 55% [SSC CHSL 2024]
(c) Rajdhani channel [SSC CGL 2023] 359. Where is the Narora Nuclear
353. The Gulf of Khambhat, the Gulf of Power plant located?
(d) Business channel
[SSC MTS 2023] Kutch and Sundarbans region (a) Tamil Nadu
346. _______ is the deepest land- provide ideal conditions for utiliz- (b) Uttar Pradesh
locked and well - protected port. ing ___________ energy in India. (c) Maharashtra
(a) Kandla (b) Mumbai (a) wind (b) thermal (d) Karnataka
[SSC CHSL 2024]
(c) Visakhapatnam (c) tidal (d) solar
(d) Paradip 360. The Mundra Thermal Power
[SSC CGL 2023] Plant is located in which dis-
[SSC MTS 2023]
354. The largest wind farm cluster trict of Gujarat?
347. In India, roads are classified in
the _____ classes according to of India is located in ______. (a) Jamnagar (b) Kutch
their capacity. (a) Gujarat (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kheda (d) Gandhinagar
[SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) seven (b) four (c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka
(c) three (d) six 361. Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh
[SSC CGL 2022]
states are rich with _________
[SSC MTS 2023] 355. Identify a conventional source of material deposits.
348. Which of the following is an energy from the following options.
inosilicate amphibole mineral (a) gold (b) petroleum
used in highway construction (a) Geothermal energy (c) silicon (d) coal
and as railroad ballast? (b) Atomic energy [SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) Shale (b) Olivine (c) Cattle dung 362. The Salal Project, also called
(c) Geyserite (d) Hornblende the Salal Hydroelectric Power
(d) Solar power
[SSC CGL 2024] Station, is on which river?
[SSC CPO 2024]
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 19
(a) Chenab (b) Krishna 371. Kawas Thermal Power Station 376. The Accelerated Female Lit-
(c) Ganga (d) Ravi is located in which of the fol- eracy Programme was initiated
lowing states? in districts where the female
[SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra literacy rate, based on the 2001
363. According to the Indian Miner- census, was _______.
als Yearbook 2020, which state (c) West Bengal(d) Rajasthan
[SSC MTS 2023] (a) below 35% (b) below 45%
has the highest production of
372. Select the most appropriate (c) below 30% (d) below 50%
manganese in India?
answer from the options given [SSC CGL 2024]
(a) Karnataka
below regarding Census 2011. 377. According to Census of India
(b) Madhya Pradesh Statement 1: The population of 2011, what is the gap between
(c) Odisha India has increased by more male and female literacy rate
(d) Maharashtra than 181 million during the de- in India?
[SSC CHSL 2023] cade 2001-2011. (a) 21.59 % (b) 18.30 %
364. Which district of Madhya Pradesh Statement 2: The percentage (c) 24.84 % (d) 16.68 %
is a leading producer of copper? decadal growth during 2001- [SSC CGL 2024]
(a) Balaghat (b) Jabalpur 2011 has registered the sharp-
378. According to the Census of In-
(c) Bhopal (d) Gwalior est decline since Independence.
dia 2011, which group of Union
[SSC CHSL 2023] (a) Both statements 1 and 2 are Territories recorded the highest
365. Which state among the follow- not correct. sex ratio?
ing has the largest reserves of
(b) Both statements 1 and are (a) Puducherry, Delhi, Andaman
gold ore in India as of 2021?
correct. and Nicobar Islands
(a) Jharkhand (b) Rajasthan
(c) Only statement 2 is correct. (b) Puducherry, Lakshadweep,
(c) Bihar (d) Karnataka
Andaman and Nicobar Is-
[SSC CHSL 2023] (d) Only stateement 1 is correct. lands
366. Which of the following river [CGL TIER II 2024]
valleys is NOT known for coal (c) Chandigarh, Puducherry,
373. When the analysis of population
deposits in India ? Lakshadweep
density is done by calculating it
(a) Mahanadi (b) Satluj through net cultivated area, then (d) Chandigarh, Puducherry,
(c) Godavari (d) Son the measure is termed as : Delhi
[SSC CGL 2024]
[SSC MTS 2024] (a) Agricultural density
367. Which of the following is a pre- (b) Physiological density 379. Accordinte to Census of India
cious mineral? 2011, which Union Territory has
(c) Gross density
(a) Hematite (b) Mica the highest slum population?
(d) Net density
(c) Bauxite (d) Platinum [SSC CGL 2024]
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
[SSC MTS 2024] 374. According to Census of India (b) Chandigarh
368. The Panchpatmali mineral de- 2011, in rural India, which (c) Puducherry
posit region is located in which state has the maximum female (d) Delhi
state from the following? workforce participation rate? [SSC CGL 2024]
(a) Haryana (b) Odisha (a) Arunachal Pradesh 380. According to the Census of In-
(c) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh dia 2011, ‘Other Religions and
(d) Rajasthan (c) Himachal Pradesh Persuasions (ORP)’ comprise
[SSC MTS 2024] (d) Andhra Pradesh how much of the population?
369. The Mumbai High region in [SSC CGL 2024] (a) 3.9 million (b) 7.9 million
the Arabian Sea is known for 375. As per the definition of Census
(c) 5.9 million (d) 9.9 million
mining _______ . of India, a ‘marginal worker’ is
[SSC CGL 2024]
(a) uranium (b) coal a person who works for:
(a) less than 183 days (or six 381. According to Census of India
(c) copper (d) mineral oil
months) in a year 2011, female adolescents in
[SSC MTS 2023]
(b) more than 183 days (or six the age group of 10-19 years
370. The Gua and Noamundi mines
months) in a year had a share of:
are located in with state of India?
(c) eight months in a year (a) 52.7% (b) 47.3%
(a) Assam (b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan (d) Jharkhand (d) 83 days in a year (c) 31.3% (d) 20.9%
[SSC MTS 2023] [SSC CGL 2024] [SSC CGL 2024]
20 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
382. On the basis of tribal popula- 389. The growth rate of India’s popu- 395. Which of the following states
tion (2011), identify the option lation has been declining since had the highest percentage of
that arranges the following ____. Scheduled Tribes in the coun-
states in ascending order. (a) 1991 (b) 1951 try as per census 2011?
A. Madhya Pradesh (a) Rajasthan
(c) 1981 (d) 1971
B. Maharashtra (b) Maharashtra
[SSC CHSL 2024]
C. Odisha (c) Madhya Pradesh
390. After independence, the Cen-
(a) C, B, A (b) B, A, C (d) Chhattisgarh
sus Act was enacted in India in
(c) C, A, B (d) B, C, A [SSC CHSL 2023]
the year __________. 396.How many phases are involved in
[SSC CGL 2023]
(a) 1960 (b) 1962 the census operations in India?
383. Which of the following periods
is referred to as a period of stag- (c) 1955 (d) 1948 (a) One (b) Two
nant or stationary phase of [SSC CHSL 2024] (c) Four (d) Three
growth of India’s population? 391. According to Census of India [SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) 1921-1941 (b) 1901-1921 2011, what was the sex ratio 397. As per Census 2011, which of the
(c) 1961-1981 (d) 1941-1961 recorded in the Union Territory following states recorded nega-
[SSC CGL 2023] of Puducherry? tive growth in child sex ratio ?
384. What is the national female (a) 890 females/1000 males (a) Maharashtra
workforce participation rate as (b) 980 females/1000 males (b) Himachal Pradesh
per the Census of India 2011? (c) 1037 females/1000 males (c) Punjab (d) Haryana
(a) 53.26% (b) 30.02% [SSC MTS 2024]
(d) 1095 females/1000 males
(c) 25.51% (d) 53.03% [SSC CHSL 2024] 398. According to the Census of In-
[SSC CPO 2024] 392. According to the Census of In- dia 2011, which State/Union Ter-
385. According to Census 2011, dia 2011, which of the following ritory has the lowest sex ratio?
which of the following lan- states is the most urbanised? (a) Punjab (b) Lakshadweep
guages is spoken by the least (a) Kerala (b) Goa (c) Daman and Diu
population in India ?
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Haryana
(a) Sanskrit (b) Dogri
(d) Punjab [SSC MTS 2023]
(c) Assamese (d) Konkani
[SSC CHSL 2024] 399. As per the Census of India
[SSC CPO 2024]
393. On the basis of highest popula- 2011, which Union Territory
386. Which Union Territory has the
lowest literacy rate, according tion growth rate (Census, recorded the lowest population
to the Census of India 2011? 2011), select the option that growth rate?
arranges the following states in (a) Lakshadweep
(a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
descending order.
(b) Delhi (b) Delhi
(A) Bihar
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (c) Daman and Diu
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Lakshadweep (d) Chandigarh
(C) Meghalaya
[SSC CPO 2024] [SSC MTS 2023]
387. The _________ birth rate indi- (a) A, B, C (b) C, A, B
400. The population of a nation in the
cates the number of live births (c) C, B, A (d) B, C, A working age group is generally
occurring during the year per [SSC CHSL 2024]
grouped between _________.
1000 population estimated at 394. According to the Census of In-
(a) 18-62 years (b) 16-60 years
midyear. dia-2011, which of the following
(a) neutral (b) positive options represents a group of (c) 15-59 years (d) 14-58 years
the most urbanized union ter- [SSC MTS 2023]
(c) negative (d) crude
ritories in India? 401. In which of the following decades,
[SSC CPO 2023]
(a) Chandigarh & Lakshadweep there was a negative growth rate
388. How many phases are involved in
(b) Delhi and Chandigarh in the Indian population?
the census operations in India?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Puducherry and Delhi (a) 1911-1921 (b) 1941-1951
(c) Four (d) Three (d) Lakshadweep & Puducherry (c) 1961-1971 (d) 1921-1931
[SSC CHSL 2024] [SSC CHSL 2024] [SSC MTS 2023]
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 21
402. Which of the following factors can famous national parks of India 414. Which of the following is de-
affect distribution of population? like Nagarhole and Bandipur? clared as a Wild Ass Sanctuary?
I. Geographical factors (a) Red angus (b) Asiatic buffalo (a) Ladakh
II. Social factors
(c) Nilgai (d) Gaur (b) Sunderbans
III. Cultural factors
[SSC CGL 2023]
IV. Economic factors (c) Spiti Valley
409. In which Biosphere Reserve is
(a) I, II, III only (b) I & II only (d) Rann of Kachchh
the largest endangered marine
(c) I, II, III & IV (d) II & III only mammal Dugong and sea [SSC CHSL 2023]
[SSC MTS 2023] turtles also found? 415. The Eld’s deer subspecies,
403. As per census 2011, which (a) Khangchendzonga Bio- which is classified as endan-
among the following states has sphere Reserve
the highest sex ratio? gered in the IUCN Red List, is
(b) Seshachalam Biosphere found only in the:
(a) Madhya Pradesh Reserve
(b) Maharashtra (a) Hemis National Park in Ladakh
(c) P achmarhi Biosphere
(c) Meghalaya Reserve (b) Ranthambore National Park
(d) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere in Rajasthan
[SSC MTS 2023] Reserve (c) Keibul Lamjao National
404. Who mentioned ecosystem as 'the [SSC CGL 2023] Park in Manipur
basic unit in ecology' in 1956? 410. In which state is Gorumara (d) Pench National Park in
(a) John Harper National Park located? Madhya Pradesh
(a) Assam (b) West Bengal [SSC CHSL 2022]
(b) Rachel Carson
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Bihar 416. The Betul, Hoshangabad and
(c) Aldo Leopold [SSC CGL 2023] Chhindwara districts of Madhya
(d) Francis Evans 411. Match the following. Pradesh is a part of which of the
[CGL TIER II 2024] 1. Ranthambore (a) Tamil Nadu following Biosphere Reserves?
405. Which endemic species of owl National Park (a) Manas (b) Seshachalam
of Central India is listed as En- 2. Bandipur (b) Rajasthan (c) Agasthyamalai
dangered in the IUCN Red List
National Park (d) Pachmarhi
since 2018?
[SSC MTS 2024]
(a) Long-eared Owlet 3. Mudumalai (c) Karnataka
National Park 417. The famous Nelapattu Bird
(b) Barn Owlet Sanctuary is located in which
(c) Forest Owlet (a) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b (b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
of the following states?
(d) Snowy Owlet (c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a (d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
(a) Tamil Nadu
[CGL TIER II 2024] [SSC CHSL 2024]
(b) Andhra Pradesh
406. As of the June 2021, how many 412. In which state is the Nanda Devi
Biosphere Reserve located? (c) Karnataka
biosphere reserves
(a) Assam (d) Madhya Pradesh
are established in India?
[SSC MTS 2023]
(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 26 (d) 15 (b) Himachal Pradesh
418. Which country is the only coun-
[SSC CGL 2024] (c) Odisha
try in the world to have both ti-
407. Which national park in the (d) Uttarakhand gers and lions?
Andaman and Nicobar Islands is [SSC CHSL 2024]
(a) Kenya (b) South Africa
home to species like Megapode, 413. Correctly match the following.
crabeating Macaque, Nicobar Pi- (c) India (d) China
States Bio-reserve
geon, and Giant Robber Crab? 1. Assam a. Pachmarhi [SSC MTS 2023]
(a) Raimona National Park 2. Madhya Pradesh b. Nokrek 419. In which of the following states
is the Srivilliputhur Elephant
(b) Campbell Bay National Park 3. Odisha c. Manas
Reserve located?
(c) Mouling National Park 4. Meghalaya d. Similipa
(a) Karnataka
(d) Papikonda National Park (a) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
(b) Telangana
[SSC CGL 2024] (b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
(c) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (c) Tamil Nadu
408. Which of the following is the
closest wild relative of domestic (d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d (d) Andhra Pradesh
cattle protected in some of the [SSC CHSL 2023] [SSC MTS 2021]
22 CAREERWILL PUBLICATION
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 43. (a) 85. (a) 127. (d) 169. (d) 211. (d) 253. (c) 295. (c) 337. (d) 379. (d)
2. (c) 44. (c) 86. (b) 128. (d) 170. (a) 212. (d) 254. (a) 296. (c) 338. (c) 380. (b)
3. (c) 45. (b) 87. (b) 129. (c) 171. (b) 213. (d) 255. (b) 297. (a) 339. (a) 381. (b)
4. (a) 46. (a) 88. (b) 130. (d) 172. (d) 214. (d) 256. (c) 298. (a) 340. (d) 382. (a)
5. (d) 47. (a) 89. (b) 131. (b) 173. (c) 215. (b) 257. (b) 299. (c) 341. (a) 383. (b)
6. (c) 48. (c) 90. (c) 132. (b) 174. (b) 216. (d) 258. (b) 300. (b) 342. (d) 384. (c)
7. (d) 49. (c) 91. (b) 133. (c) 175. (d) 217. (a) 259. (a) 301. (c) 343. (c) 385. (a)
8. (c) 50. (d) 92. (b) 134. (a) 176. (d) 218. (d) 260. (d) 302. (b) 344. (c) 386. (a)
9. (a) 51. (b) 93. (b) 135. (b) 177. (c) 219. (d) 261. (a) 303. (a) 345. (b) 387. (d)
10. (d) 52. (c) 94. (b) 136. (c) 178. (c) 220. (d) 262. (c) 304. (d) 346. (c) 388. (b)
11. (a) 53. (b) 95. (a) 137. (d) 179. (a) 221. (d) 263. (a) 305. (d) 347. (d) 389. (c)
12. (c) 54. (a) 96. (d) 138. (b) 180. (d) 222. (c) 264. (d) 306. (b) 348. (d) 390. (d)
13. (c) 55. (d) 97. (c) 139. (b) 181. (b) 223. (c) 265. (d) 307. (c) 349. (b) 391. (c)
14. (d) 56. (d) 98. (d) 140. (a) 182. (b) 224. (c) 266. (a) 308. (d) 350. (d) 392. (b)
15. (b) 57. (b) 99. (d) 141. (b) 183. (c) 225. (a) 267. (d) 309. (c) 351. (c) 393. (c)
16. (a) 58. (a) 100. (d) 142. (b) 184. (b) 226. (b) 268. (a) 310. (a) 352. (c) 394. (b)
17. (a) 59. (d) 101. (d) 143. (d) 185. (c) 227. (a) 269. (b) 311. (c) 353. (c) 395. (c)
18. (b) 60. (b) 102. (c) 144. (d) 186. (c) 228. (c) 270. (b) 312. (a) 354. (b) 396. (b)
19. (b) 61. (a) 103. (a) 145. (b) 187. (c) 229. (c) 271. (c) 313. (a) 355. (c) 397. (a)
20. (d) 62. (d) 104. (c) 146. (c) 188. (a) 230. (c) 272. (b) 314. (b) 356. (d) 398. (c)
21. (a) 63. (a) 105. (b) 147. (b) 189. (a) 231. (a) 273. (d) 315. (b) 357. (b) 399. (a)
22. (c) 64. (b) 106. (c) 148. (c) 190. (b) 232. (a) 274. (d) 316. (c) 358. (a) 400. (c)
23. (d) 65. (c) 107. (b) 149. (a) 191. (c) 233. (b) 275. (c) 317. (d) 359. (b) 401. (a)
24. (d) 66. (b) 108. (c) 150. (b) 192. (d) 234. (a) 276. (d) 318. (d) 360. (b) 402. (c)
25. (c) 67. (a) 109. (a) 151. (c) 193. (c) 235. (c) 277. (c) 319. (b) 361. (d) 403. (c)
26. (c) 68. (b) 110. (c) 152. (c) 194. (b) 236. (a) 278. (c) 320. (b) 362. (a) 404. (d)
27. (b) 69. (c) 111. (d) 153. (c) 195. (a) 237. (c) 279. (b) 321. (c) 363. (b) 405. (c)
28. (d) 70. (b) 112. (c) 154. (d) 196. (d) 238. (d) 280. (d) 322. (c) 364. (a) 406. (a)
29. (c) 71. (b) 113. (d) 155. (b) 197. (a) 239. (c) 281. (c) 323. (a) 365. (c) 407. (b)
30. (c) 72. (d) 114. (d) 156. (d) 198. (c) 240. (d) 282. (c) 324. (d) 366. (b) 408. (d)
31. (c) 73. (d) 115. (a) 157. (c) 199. (b) 241. (c) 283. (c) 325. (a) 367. (d) 409. (d)
32. (b) 74. (c) 116. (b) 158. (d) 200. (c) 242. (d) 284. (a) 326. (b) 368. (b) 410. (b)
33. (b) 75. (a) 117. (c) 159. (a) 201. (b) 243. (d) 285. (a) 327. (c) 369. (d) 411. (d)
34. (d) 76. (c) 118. (a) 160. (a) 202. (d) 244. (a) 286. (c) 328. (d) 370. (d) 412. (d)
35. (d) 77. (c) 119. (a) 161. (d) 203. (c) 245. (a) 287. (a) 329. (b) 371. (a) 413. (a)
36. (a) 78. (d) 120. (c) 162. (a) 204. (d) 246. (d) 288. (b) 330. (b) 372. (b) 414. (d)
37. (c) 79. (d) 121. (d) 163. (c) 205. (d) 247. (a) 289. (c) 331. (d) 373. (b) 415. (c)
38. (b) 80. (c) 122. (d) 164. (b) 206. (c) 248. (a) 290. (b) 332. (c) 374. (c) 416. (d)
39. (a) 81. (c) 123. (b) 165. (b) 207. (d) 249. (c) 291. (c) 333. (d) 375. (a) 417. (b)
40. (d) 82. (c) 124. (b) 166. (a) 208. (d) 250. (a) 292. (d) 334. (d) 376. (c) 418. (c)
41. (b) 83. (a) 125. (c) 167. (b) 209. (a) 251. (a) 293. (d) 335. (a) 377. (d) 419. (c)
42. (b) 84. (d) 126. (a) 168. (b) 210. (a) 252. (b) 294. (b) 336. (a) 378. (b)
CAREERWILL PUBLICATION 23