27/03/2025 A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122018, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 180
360 FTS-KCET-03 Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics Electric Charges and Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Chemistry Solution, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics,
Mathematics Relations & Functions (Class XI & XII), Inverse Trigonometric Functions, Matrices, Determinants

Physics

1. Two charges +4e and +e are at a distance x apart. At 3. Five charges +q, +5q, –2q, + 3q and –4q are situated as
what distance, a charge q must be placed from charge +e shown in the figure. The electric flux due to this
so that it is in equilibrium configuration through the surface S is

(1) x/2

(2) 2x/3

(3) x/3

(4) x/6

2. Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long

straight wire of radius 1mm. The charge per cm length of
the wire is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical surface of
(1)
5q

radius 50 cm and length 1m symmetrically encloses the ∈0

wire as shown in the figure. The total electric flux passing

4q
through the cylindrical surface is (2) ∈0

3q
(3) ∈0

q
(4) ∈0

4. An infinite number of electric charges each equal to 5

nano-coulomb (magnitude) are placed along X-axis at x =
1 cm, x = 2 cm, x = 4 cm x = 8 cm ………. and so on. In the
setup if the consecutive charges have opposite sign, then
the electric field in Newton/Coulomb at x = 0 is
1 9 2 2
( = 9 × 10 N − m /c )
4πε0

(1) 12 × 10
4

(2) 24 × 10
4

(3) 36 × 10
4

(4) 48 × 10
4

(1)
Q

ε0

100Q
(2) ε0

10Q
(3) (π ε0 )

100Q
(4) (π ε0 )

1
FTS-KCET-03

5. Two equal charges are separated by a distance d. A third 8. Figures below show regular hexagons, with charges at
charge placed on a perpendicular bisector at x distance the vertices. In which of the following cases the electric
will experience maximum coulomb force when field at the centre is not zero
d
(1) x =
√2

(2) x =
d

d
(3) x =
2√2

d
(4) x =
2√3

6. A small sphere carrying a charge ‘q’ is hanging in

between two parallel plates by a string of length L. Time
period of pendulum is T0. When parallel plates are
charged, the time period changes to T. The ratio T/T0 is
equal to
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
9. An electron is moving towards x-axis. An electric field is
along y-direction then path of electron is

qE 1/2 (1) Circular

(1) (
g+
m
)
g (2) Elliptical

3/2
(3) Parabola
(2) (
g

qE
) (4) None of these
g+
m

10. Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a

1/2
charged body. If the electric field at A and B are EA and
(3) (
g
)
g+
qE

m
EB respectively and if the displacement between A and B
is r then
(4) None of these

7. In a Millikan's oil drop experiment the charge on an oil

drop is calculated to be 6.35 × 10 C . The number of
−19

excess electrons on the drop is

(1) 3.9
(2) 4
(3) 4.2
(4) 6

(1) EA > EB

(2) EA < EB

(3) EA =
EB

EB
(4) EA =
r2

2
FTS-KCET-03

11. The electric flux for Gaussian surface A that enclose the 16. →

charged particles in free space is (given q1 = –14 nC, q2 When an electric dipole P is placed in a uniform electric
→ → →
= 78.85 nC, q3 = – 56 nC) field E then at what angle between P and E the
value of torque will be maximum
(1) 90°
(2) 0°
(3) 180°
(4) 45°

17. Equal charges q are placed at the vertices A and B of an

equilateral triangle ABC of side a. The magnitude of
electric field at the point C is
(1) 103 Nm2 C–1 q

(1) 4πε0 a2

(2) 103 CN-1 m–2

√2 q
(2)
(3) 6.32 ´ 103 Nm2C–1 4πε0 a2

(4) 6.32 ´ 103 CN-1m–2 (3)

√3 q

2
4πε0 a

12. Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude e are placed inside q

a cube. The total electric flux coming out of the cube will (4) 2πε0 a2

be
18. In a hydrogen atom, the distance between the electron
(1) 8e

ε0 and proton is 2.5 × 10 m . The electrical force of −11

attraction between them will be

(2) 16e

ε0
(1) 2.8 × 10
−7
​N
e
(3) ε0
(2) 3.7 × 10
−7
N

(4) Zero
(3) 6.2 × 10
−7
N

13. Two parallel plates separated by a distance of 5 mm are

(4) −7

kept at a potential difference of 50 V. A particle of 9.1 × 10 N

mass 10–15 kg and charge 10–11 C enters in it with a 19. Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are
velocity 107 m/s The acceleration of the particle will be suspended by insulating threads of length L from a hook.
This arrangement is taken in space where there is no
(1) 8
10 m/s
2
gravitational effect, then the angle between the two
suspensions and the tension in each will be
(2) 5
5 × 10 m/s
2

2
Q
(1) 180 ,
o 1

(3) 5
10 m/s
2 4πε0
(2L)
2

(4)
2
3 2
2 × 10 m/s (2) o
90 ,
1 Q

2
4πε0 L

14. Two infinite plane parallel sheets separated by a distance 2

d have equal and opposite uniform charge densities σ. (3) 180 ,

o 1 Q

2
4πε0 2L
Electric field at a point between the sheets is
2
Q
(1) Zero (4) 180 ,
o

4πε0
1

2
L

σ
(2) ε0
20. An isolated solid metallic sphere is given +Q charge. The
σ charge will be distributed on the sphere
(3) 2ε0

(1) Uniformly but only on surface

(4) Depends upon the location of the point
(2) Only on surface but non-uniformly
15. A positively charged particle moving along x-axis with a
certain velocity enters a uniform electric field directed (3) Uniformly inside the volume
along positive y-axis. Its (4) Non-uniformly inside the volume
Vertical velocity changes but horizontal velocity
(1)
remains constant
Horizontal velocity changes but vertical velocity
(2)
remains constant
(3) Both vertical and horizontal velocities change
(4) Neither vertical nor horizontal velocity changes

3
FTS-KCET-03

21. The ratio of electrostatic and gravitational forces acting 26. A solid conducting sphere of radius R1 is surrounded by
between electron and proton separated by a distance another concentric hollow conducting sphere of radius
5 × 10 m, will be (Charge on electron = 1.6 × 10
−11 –19 C, R2. The capacitance of this assembly is proportional to
mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg, mass of proton = R2 − R1

−27 −11 2 2
(1) R1 R2
1.6 × 10 kg, G = 6.7 × 10 N m /kg )

(1) 2.36 × 1039

R2 + R1
(2) R1 R2

(2) 2.36 × 1040 (3)

R1 R2

R1 + R2

(3) 2.34 × 1041 R1 R2

(4) R2 − R1

(4) 2.34 × 1042

27. To form a composite 16μF , 1000V capacitor from a supply
22. ABC is a right angled triangle in which AB = 3 cm and BC of identical capacitors marked 8μF , 250V , we require a
= 4 cm. And ∠ ABC = π/2. The three charges +15, + 12 minimum number of capacitors
and −20 e. s. u. are placed respectively on A, B and C.
The force acting on B is (1) 40

(1) 125 dynes

(2) 32
(3) 8
(2) 35 dynes
(3) 25 dynes (4) 2

(4) Zero 28. A condenser has a capacity 2μ F and is charged to a

voltage of 50 V. The energy stored is
23. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and
carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a (1) 25 ´ 105 Joule
force F when kept apart at some distance. A third
spherical conductor having same radius as that of B but (2) 25 Joule
uncharged is brought in contact with B, then brought in (3) 25 ´ 10 erg
contact with C and finally removed away from both. The
new force of repulsion between B and C is (4) 25 ´ 103 erg
(1) F /4 29. The dimension of (1/2) ε0 E
2
( ε0 permittivity of free space;
(2) 3F /4
E : electric field) is

(3) F /8
(1) M LT
−1

(4) 3F /8
(2) ML T
2 −2

24. The electric field in a region is radially outward with (3) ML

−1
T
−2

magnitude E = Aγ0. The charge contained in a sphere of (4) ML T

2 −1

radius γ0 centered at the origin is

30. Three identical charge are placed at the corner of an
(1) 1

4πε0
Aγ
3
0
equilateral triangle then,
(1) Potential at the centroid will be zero
(2) 4π ε0 Aγ
3
0

(2) Electric field at the centroid will be zero

4π ε0 A
(3) γ0 (3) Net electrostatic potential energy will be zero
1 A (4) Both (A) and (B)
(4) 4πε0 γ
3
0

31. A body of capacity 4 μ F is charged to 80 V and another

25. A spherical conductor of radius 2 m is charged to a body of capacity 6 μ F is charged to 30V. When they are
potential of 120 V. It is now placed inside another hollow connected the energy lost by 4 μ F capacitor is
spherical conductor of radius 6 m. Calculate the potential
to which the bigger sphere would be raised (1) 7.8 mJ
(1) 20 V (2) 4.6 mJ
(2) 60 V (3) 3.2 mJ
(3) 80 V (4) 2.5 mJ
(4) 40 V

4
FTS-KCET-03

32. The two metallic plates of radius r are placed at a 37. Two point charges 100 μ C and 5 μ C are placed at points
distance d apart and its capacity is C. If a plate of radius A and B respectively with AB = 40 cm . The work done by
r/2 and thickness d of dielectric constant 6 is placed external force in displacing the charge 5 μ C from B to C ,
between the plates of the condenser, then its capacity will
where BC = 30 cm , angle ABC = and π

be 2

1 9 2 2
= 9 × 10 N m /C
(1) 7C/2 4πε0

(2) 3C/7 (1) 9 J

(3) 7C/3 (2) 81
J
20

(4) 9C/4
(3) 9

25
J

33. In the electric field of a point charge q, a certain charge is

slowly carried from point A to B, C, D and E. Then the (4) −
9
J
4
work done by an external agent
38. Consider the combination of 2 capacitors C1 and C2, with
C2 > C1, when connected in parallel, the equivalent
capacitance is 15

4
times the equivalent capacitance of the
same connected in series. Calculate the ratio of
C2
capacitors, C1
.

(1)
15

(2) 29

15

(1) Is least along the path AB (3) 111

80

(2) Is least along the path AD

(4) 15

11

(3) Is zero along all the paths AB, AC, AD and AE

39. Two insulated metallic spheres of 3 μF and
(4) Is least along AE
5 μF capacitances are charged to 300 V and 500 V
34. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is 5µF. When a respectively. The energy loss, when they are connected
glass plate is placed between the plates of the by a wire is
condenser, its potential becomes 1/8th of the original
(1) 0.012 J
value. The value of dielectric constant will be
(2) 0.0218 J
(1) 1.6
(3) 0.0375 J
(2) 5
(4) 3.75 J
(3) 8
(4) 40 40. Two capacitors A and B are connected in series with a
battery as shown in the figure. When the switch S is
35. Two identical charged spherical drops each of closed and the two capacitors get charged fully, then
capacitance C merge to form a single drop. The resultant
capacitance is
(1) Equal to 2C
(2) Greater than 2C
(3) Less than 2C but greater than C
(4) Less than C

36. A capacitor is used to store 24 watt hour of energy at

1200 volt. What should be the capacitance of the
capacitor
(1) 120 m F The potential difference across the plates of A is 4V
(1)
and across the plates of B is 6V
(2) 120 μ F

The potential difference across the plates of A is 6V

(3) (2)
24 μ F
and across the plates of B is 4V
(4) 24 m F The ratio of electrical energies stored in A and B is 2 :
(3)
3
(4) The ratio of charges on A and B is 3 : 2

5
FTS-KCET-03

41. Two spheres A and B of radius ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively are 47. Five balls numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using
at same electric potential. The ratio of the surface charge separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4) and (4, 1) show
densities of A and B is electrostatic attraction, while pair (2, 3) and (4, 5) show
a
repulsion. Therefore ball 1 must be
(1) b
(1) Positively charged
(2) b

a (2) Negatively charged

(3) a
2
(3) Neutral metal
2
b

(4) Perfect insulator

2

(4) b

a
2
48. A charge of 5C experiences a force of 5000N when it is
kept in a uniform electric field. What is the potential
42. 64 drops of mercury each charged to a potential of 10 V. difference between two points separated by a distance of
They are combined to form one bigger drop. The potential 1cm?
of this drop will be (Assume all the drops to be spherical)
(1) 10 V
(1) 160 V
(2) 250 V
(2) 80 V
(3) 1000 V
(3) 10 V
(4) 2500 V
(4) 640 V
49. Electric charges of 1μC, − 1μC and 2μC are placed in
43. →
A cube of side I is placed in a uniform field E , where air at the corners A, B and C respectively of an equilateral
→ triangle ABC having length of each side 10 cm. The
E = E î . The net electric flux through the cube is resultant force on the charge at C is
(1) Zero (1) 0.9 N
(2) 2
l E (2) 1.8 N
(3) 4l E
2 (3) 2.7 N

(4) 6l E
2 (4) 3.6 N

44. A body can be negatively charged by 50. A body has – 80 micro coulomb of charge. Number of
additional electrons in it will be
(1) Giving excess of electrons to it
(1) 8 × 10
−5

(2) Removing some electrons from it

(2) 80 × 10
−17

(3) Giving some protons to it

(4) Removing some neutrons from it (3) 5 × 10
14

45. The wrong statement about electric lines of force is (4) 1.28 × 10
−17

These originate from positive charge and end on 51. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q
(1) and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in a uniform
negative charge
electric field E. If its dipole moment is along the direction
(2) They do not intersect each other at a point of the field, the force on it and its potential energy are
They have the same form for a point charge and a respectively
(3)
sphere (1) 2q ⋅ E and minimum
(4) They have physical existence (2) q⋅E and p⋅E

46. For a dipole q = 2 × 10–6 C and d = 0.01 m. Calculate the (3) Zero and minimum
maximum torque for this dipole if E = 5 × 105 N/C (4) q⋅E and maximum
(1) 1 × 10
−3
Nm
−1
52. Given below are two statements.
Statement I : Electric potential is constant within and at
(2) −3 −1
10 × 10 Nm
the surface of each conductor.
(3) 10 × 10
−3
Nm
Statement II : Electric field just outside a charged
conductor is perpendicular to the surface of the conductor
(4) 1 × 10
2
Nm
2
at every point.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

6
FTS-KCET-03

53. A container has a base of 50 cm × 5 cm and height 50 56. The resultant capacitance between A and B in the
cm, as shown in the figure. It has two parallel electrically following figure is equal to
conducting walls each of area 50 cm × 50 cm. The
remaining walls of the container are thin and non-
conducting. The container is being filled with a liquid of
dielectric constant 3 at a uniform rate of 250 cm3 s−1.
What is the value of the capacitance of the container after
10 seconds?
[Given: Permittivity of free space ε0 = 9 × 10−12
C2N−1m−2, the effects of the non-conducting walls on
the capacitance are negligible]

(1) 1μF

(2) 3μF

(3) 2μF

(4) 1.5μf F

57. A parallel plate condenser has a capacitance 50µF in air

and 110µF when immersed in an oil. The dielectric
constant ‘k’ of the oil is
(1) 0.45
(2) 0.55
(1) 27 pF
(3) 1.10
(2) 63 pF
(4) 2.20
(3) 81 pF
58. The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor with no
(4) 135 pF dielectric substance but with a separation of 0.4 cm is
2μ F. The separation is reduced to half and it is filled with
54. The electric potential V at any point O (x, y, z all in metres)
a dielectric substance of value 2.8. The final capacity of
in space is given by V = 4x2volt. The electric field at the the capacitor is
point (1 m, 0, 2 m) in volt/metre is
(1) 11. 2μF
(1) 8 along negative X-axis
(2) 15. 6μF
(2) 8 along positive X-axis
(3) 16 along negative X-axis (3) 19. 2μF

(4) 16 along positive Z-axis (4) 22. 4μF

55. The radius of nucleus of silver (atomic number = 47) 59. A parallel plate capacitor has a plate separation of 0.01
mm and use a dielectric (whose dielectric strength is 19
is 3.4 × 10–14 m. The electric potential on the surface of KV/mm) as an insulator. The maximum potential
nucleus is (e = 1.6 × 10–19 C) difference that can be applied to the terminals of the
capacitor is
(1) 1.99 × 10
6
volt
(1) 190 V
(2) 2.9 × 10
6
volt
(2) 290 V
(3) 4.99 × 10
6
volt
(3) 95 V
(4) 0.99 × 10
6
volt (4) 350 V
60. If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is
halved and dielectric constant is doubled then the
capacitance
(1) Decreases two times
(2) Increases two times
(3) Increases four times
(4) Remain the same

7
FTS-KCET-03

Chemistry

61. What weight of glucose must be dissolved in 100 g of 67. How many grams of NaOH will be required to neutralize
water to lower the vapour pressure by 0.20 mm Hg? 12.2 grams of benzoic acid
(Assume dilute solution is being formed)
(1) 40 gms
Given : Vapour pressure of pure water is 54.2 mm Hg at
room temperature. Molar mass of glucose is 180 g mol–1 (2) 4 gms

(1) 3.59 g (3) 16 gms

(2) 3.69 g (4) 12.2 gms

(3) 4.69 g 68. If Kf value of H O is 1.86. The value of ΔTf for 0.1m
2

solution of non-volatile solute is

(4) 2.59 g
(1) 18.6
62. The solution from the following with highest depression in
freezing point/lowest freezing point is (2) 0.186
(1) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in benzene (3) 1.86
(2) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in water (4) 0.0186
(3) 180 g of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene 69. The amount of urea to be dissolved in 500 ml of water (K
(4) 180 g of glucose dissolved in water = 18.6 K mole in 100g solvent) to produce
−1

a depression of 0.186 C in freezing point is

o

63. When acetone is added to chloroform, then hydrogen

bond is formed between them.These liquids show (1) 9 g

(1) Positive deviation from Raoult's law (2) 6 g

(2) Negative deviation from Raoult's law (3) 3 g

(3) No deviation from Raoult's law (4) 0.3 g

(4) Volume is slightly increased 70. The molality of 90% H2SO4 solution is [density=1.8
gm/ml]
64. Which of the following aqueous molal solution have
highest freezing point (1) 1.8
(1) Urea (2) 48.4

(2) Barium chloride (3) 9.18

(3) Potassium bromide (4) 94.6

(4) Aluminium sulphate 71. 3.65 gms of HCl is dissolved in 16.2 gms of water. The
mole fraction of HCl in the resulting solution is
65. The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44g of
CuCl2 in 1kg of water using the following information will (1) 0.4
be (2) 0.3
(Molecular weight of CuCl2 = 134.4 and Kb­ = 0.52 K
(3) 0.2
molal-1)
(4) 0.1
(1) 0.16
72. 25ml of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with a
(2) 0.05 0.1molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a titre
litre value of
(3) 0.1 35 ml. The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was

(4) 0.2 (1) 0.07

66. The molal elevation constant of water = 0.52°C.. The (2) 0.14
boiling point of 1.0 molal aqueous KCl solution (3) 0.28
(assuming complete dissociation of KCl), therefore,
should be (4) 0.35

(1) 100.52 C
o
73. A solution that obeys Raoult's law is
(2) 101.04 C
o
(1) Normal
(3) o
99.48 C (2) Molar
(4) o
98.96 C
(3) Ideal
(4) Saturated

8
FTS-KCET-03

74. Which property is shown by an ideal solution 80. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit
highest boiling point
(1) It follows Raoult's law
(1) 0.015 M urea
(2) ΔHmix = 0

(2) 0.01 M KN O3
(3) ΔVmix = 0

(3) 0.01 M N a2 SO4

(4) All of these
(4) 0.015 M glucose
75. Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At
20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is 75 torr and that 81. In infinite dilutions, the equivalent conductances of Ba 2+

of toluene is 22 torr. The parial vapour pressure of

benzene at 20°C for a solution containing 78g of and C l are 127 and 76 ohm cm eqvt . The
− −1 −1 −1

benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is infinite dilution is

equivalent conductivity of BaC l at indefinite 2

(1) 50 (1) 101.5

(2) 25 (2) 139.5

(3) 37.5 (3) 203.5

(4) 53.5 (4) 279.5

76. A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. 82. Specific conductance of 0.1 Mm nitric acid is
The vapour pressure of the pure hydrocarbons at 20°C 6.3 × 10
−2
ohm
−1
cm . The molar conductance of solution
−1

are 440 mmHg for pentane and 120 mmHg for hexane. is
The mole fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would
be (1) 630 ohm
−1 2
cm mol e
−1

(1) 0.549 (2) 315 ohm

−1 2
cm mol e
−1

(2) 0.200 (3) 100 ohm

−1 2
cm mol e
−1

(3) 0.786 (4) 6300 ohm

−1
cm mol e
2 −1

(4) 0.478
83. Given l/a = 0.5cm , R = 50ohm, N = 1.0 . The
−1

77. Assertion : Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non- equivalent conductance of the electrolytic cell is
ideal solutions and they may have boiling points either
greater than both the components or less than both the (1) 10 ohm
−1 2
cm gm e q
−1

components.
Reason : The composition of the vapour phase is same (2) 20 ohm
−1 2
cm gm e q
−1

as that of the liquid phase of an azeotropic mixutre. (3) −1 2 −1

300 ohm cm gme q

If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is

(1) (4) −1 2 −1
the correct explanation of the assertion. 100ohm cm gme q

If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not 84. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion. concentration
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (1) 0.001 M
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true. (2) 0.005 M

78. Which one of the following mixtures can be separated (3) 0.002 M
into pure components by fractional distillation (4) 0.004 M
(1) Benzene – toluene
85. The limiting molar conductivities ∧ for NaCl, KBr and 0

(2) Water – ethyl alcohol KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S cm mol . The ∧ for NaBr 2 −1 0

(3) Water – nitric acid is

(4) Water – hydrochloric acid (1) 278 S cm

2
mol
−1

79. Which of the following solutions will have the highest (2) 176 S cm
2
mol
−1

boiling point
(3) 128 S cm
2
mol
−1

(1) 1% glucose
(2) 1% sucrose (4) 302 S cm
2
mol
−1

(3) 1% NaCl
(4) 1% CaCl2

9
FTS-KCET-03

86. When 9.65 coulombs of electricity is passed through a 91. For lead storage battery pick the correct statements
solution of silver nitrate (atomic weight of A. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on anode is
Ag = 107.87 taking as 108) the amount of silver deposited converted into PbO2
is B. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on cathode is
(1) 10.8 mg converted into PbO2
(2) 5.4 mg C. Lead storage battery consists of grid of lead packed
with PbO2 as anode
(3) 16.2 mg D. Lead storage battery has ~ 38% solution of sulphuric
(4) 21.2 mg acid as an electrolyte
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
87. Given that E
⊝
= +1.23 V ;
O2 /H2 O (1) A, B, D only
⊝
E = 2.05 V ;
S2 O
2–
8
/SO
2−
4
(2) B, C, D only
⊝
E
Br2 /Br −
= +1.09 V ;
(3) B, C only
⊝
E
Au
3+
/Au
= +1.4 V (4) B, D only
The strongest oxidizing agent is
92. Molar ionic conductivities of divalent cation and anion are
(1) Br2 57 S cm2 mol–1 and 73 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The
molar conductivity of solution of an electrolyte with the
(2) Au3+ above cation and anion will be:
(3) (1) 260 S cm2 mol–1
2−
S2 O
8

(4) O2 (2) 130 S cm2 mol–1

88. A solution of CuSO4 electrolysed for 10 min with a current (3) 65 S cm2 mol–1
of 1.5 amperes. What is the mass of Copper deposited in
at the cathode? (4) 187 S cm2 mol–1
(1) 0.296 g 93. Saturated solution of KN O is used to make ‘salt-bridge’
3

(2) 3.01 g because

(3) 0.670 g (1) Velocity of K is greater than that of N O

+ −
3

(4) 6.02 g (2) Velocity of N O is greater than that of K

− +
3

89. The increase in the value of molar conductivity of acetic (3) Velocities of both K and N O are nearly the same
+ −

acid with dilution is due to 3

(1) Increase in interionic forces (4) KN O3 is highly soluble in water

(2) Increase in degree of ionisation 94. Electrode potentials of five elements A, B, C,D and E are
respectively – 1.36 , – 0.32, 0, – 1.26 and –0.42. The
(3) Increase in self ionisation of water reactivity order of these elements are in the order of
(4) Increase in hydrogen bonding (1) A, D, E, B and C
90. The number of moles of calcium deposited at cathode (2) C, B, E, D and A
when 5.8 A current is passed through CaCl2 solution in 5
(3) B, D, E, A and C
mins
(4) C, A, E, D and B
(1) 9.01 × 10–3
95. The anode half-reaction occurring during the discharge of
(2) 110 × 10–4 a lead storage battery is

(3) 12 × 10–3 (1) P b(s) + SO2 + O2 → P bSO4 (s)

(4) 15 × 10–3 (2) P b(s) + SO

2−

4
(aq) ⇌ P bSO4 (s) + 2e
−

(5) 50 × 10–3
+ − 2−
P bO2 (s) + 4H (aq) + 2e + SO (aq)
(3) 4

⇌ P bSO4 (s) + 2H2 O

(4) Pb
2+
(aq) + SO
2−

4
(aq) → P bSO4 (s)

96. Amount of 53 I
128
( t1/2 = 25 min) left after 75 minutes is

(1) 1/6
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/8
(4) 1/9

10
FTS-KCET-03

97. The unit of the velocity constant in case of zero order 103.The activation energy for a reaction is 9.0 K cal/mol. The
reaction is increase in the rate constant when its temperature is
increased from 298K to 308K is
(1) C onc. ×time
−1

(1) 63%
(2) C onc.
−1
×time
(2) 50%
(3) C onc.
−1
×tim e
−1

(3) 100%
(4) C onc. ×(time)
2

(4) 10%
98. If the surface area of the reactants increases, then order 104.An example of a pseudo –unimolecular reaction is
of the reaction
(1) Dissociation of hydrogen iodide
(1) Increases
(2) Hydrolysis of methyl acetate in dilute solution
(2) Decreases
(3) Dissociation of phosphorus pentachloride
(3) Remain constant
(4) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
(4) Sometimes increases and sometimes dereases
105.The order of the reaction occurring by following
99. For the reaction H2 (g) + Br2 (g) → 2H Br(g) , the mechanism should be
(i) A → A + A (fast)
experimental data suggest, rate = K[ H2 ] [Br2 ]
1/2
. The 2

(ii) A + B → AB + B (slow)
2

molecularity and order of the reaction are respectively (iii) A + B → (fast)

(1) (1)
3 1
2, 1
2 2

(2) 3

2
,
3

2
(2) 3
1

(3) 1, 1 (3) 2

(4) 1,
1 (4) None of these
2

106.A radioactive element decays at such a rate that after 15

100.The incorrect order indicated against the rate of reaction
minutes only 1/10 of the original amount is left. How many
more minutes will be needed when only 1/100 of the
K
A+B → C is
original amount will be left
d[C] (1) 1.5 minutes
(1) Rate = dt
= K[A] , Order = 1
(2) 15.0 mintues
(2) Rate =
d[C]
= K[A] [B] , Order = 2 (3) 16.5 minutes
dt

(4) 30 minutes
−d [A]

(3) Rate = dt
= K [A] [B]
0
, Order = 2 107.For a given reaction t1/2 =
1
. The order of the reaction
Ka

is
−d [A] (1) 1
(4) Rate = K [A] , Order = 1
dt
(2) 0
(3) 3
101.For any reaction, if we plot a graph between time ‘t’ and
log(a − x) , a straight
simple line is obtained. The order of reaction (4) 2
is
108.75% of a first order reaction is completed in 30 minutes.
(1) Zero What is the time required for 93.75% of the reaction (in
minutes)
(2) One
(1) 45
(3) Two
(2) 120
(4) Three
(3) 90
102.What is the half-life of a radioactive substance if 75% of a
given amount of the substance disintegrates in 30 (4) 60
minutes
(1) 7.5 minutes
(2) 25 minutes
(3) 20 minutes
(4) 15 minutes

11
FTS-KCET-03

109.The Arrhenius equation expressing the effect of 115.The unit of electrochemical equivalent is
temperature on the rate constant of a reaction is
(1) Gram
(1) k = e
− Ea /RT

(2) Gram/ampere
(2) k = Ea /RT
(3) Gram/coulomb
(3) k = log
e
Ea
(4) Coulomb/gram
RT

116.Amount of electricity that can deposit 108 gm of silver

(4) k = Ae
− Ea /RT

from AgNO3 solution is

110.The rate constant is doubled when temperature increases
(1) 1 ampere
from 27°C to 37°C. Activation energy in kJ is
(2) 1 coulomb
(1) 34
(3) 1 faraday
(2) 54
(4) None of the above
(3) 100
(4) 50 117.Use of electrolysis is
(1) Electroplating
111. A first order reaction with respect to the reactant A has a
rate constant of 6 sec–1. If we start with [A] = 0.5 mol/litre, (2) Electrorefining
then in what time the concentration of A becomes 0.05 (3) (a) and (b) both
mol/litre
(4) None of these
(1) 0.384 sec
118.In electrolysis of aqueous copper sulphate, the gas at
(2) 0.214 sec anode and cathode is
(3) 3.84 sec
(1) O2 and H2

(4) 0.402 sec

(2) SO2 and H2

112. For a reaction A → B, the rate of reaction quadrupled (3) H2 and O2

when the concentration of A is doubled. The rate
expression of the reaction is r = K(A) . when the value n
(4) SO3 and O2

of n is
119.Electrolyte can conduct electricity because
(1) 1 Their molecules contain unpaired electrons, which
(1)
(2) 0 are mobile
(3) 3 Their molecules contain loosely held electrons which
(2)
get free under the influence of voltage
(4) 2
The molecules break up into ions when a voltage is
113. (3)
A + 2B → C + D . If −
d[A]
= 5 × 10
−4 −1
mol l
−1
s , then applied
dt

d[B] The molecules are broken up into ions when the

− is (4)
dt electrolyte is fused or is dissolved in the solvent
(1) 2.5 × 10
−4
mol l
−1 −1
s 120.If for a hypothetical reaction, Ea = 0 at 273 K, then find the
ratio of the rate constants at 383 K.
(2) 5.0 × 10
−4
mol l
−1 −1
s

(1) 10
(3) 2.5 × 10 − 3mol l
−1 −1
s
(2) 1
(4) 1.0 × 10
−3
mol l
−1 −1
s
(3) 0
114.Which of the following shows electrical conduction (4) 100
(1) Potassium
(2) Graphite
(3) Diamond
(4) Sodium

Mathematics

12
FTS-KCET-03

121.The domain of sin −1

( log x) is 127.If R is a relation from a finite set A having m elements to a
3
finite set B having n elements, then the number of
(1) [–1, 1] relations from A to B is
(2) [0, 1] (1) 2mn
(3) [0, ∞]
(2) 2mn–1
(4) [
1

3
, 3]
(3) 2mn

122.If f : R→S defined by f (x) = sin –

x − √3 cos x + 1 is onto, (4) mn
then the interval of S is 128.If Na = [an : n ∈ N }, then N5 ∩ N7 =

(1) [–1, 3]
(1) N7

(2) [1, 1]
(2) N
(3) [0, 1]
(3) N35

(4) [0, –1]

(4) N5

123.The number of reflexive relations of a set with four

elements is equal to 129.If the domain of the function
√x2 −25

(1) 216 f (x) = + log

10
(x
2
+ 2x − 15) is (–∞, α) ∪ [β, ∞),
(4− x2 )

(2) 212 then α2 + β3 is equal to

(1) 175
(3) 28
(2) 150
(4) 24
(3) 125
124.Let N be the set of natural numbers and a relation R on N
(4) 140
be defined by
R = {(x, y) ∈ N × N : x
3 2
− 3x y − xy
2
+ 3y
3
= 0} 130.Let A = {a, b, c}, B = {b, c, d}, C = {a, b, d, e}, then A ∩
Then the relation R is (B ∪ C) is

(1) An equivalence relation (1) {a, b, c}

(2) Reflexive and symmetric, but not transitive (2) {b, c, d}

(3) Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive (3) {a, b, d, e}

(4) Symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive (4) {e}

125.The inverse of y = 5logx is 131.A function f(x) is given by f (x) =

5
x

, then the sum of the

x
5 +5

(1) x = ylog5 series is equal to:

1 2 3 39
f ( )+f ( )+f ( )+…+f ( )
20 20 20 20

(2) x = 5logy (1) 19

(3)
1

x = y
log 5
(2) 29

(3)
1 49
(4) log y
2
x = 5

(4)
39

126. 2
Let be defined by . Then
α 5x+3
f : R−{ } → R f (x) =
6 6x−α

132.Let f : N → N be a function such that f(m + n) = f(m) + f(n)

the value of α for which (fof)(x) = x, for all x ∈ R −{
α

6
} , is for every m, n ∈ N. If f(6) = 18, then f(2). f(3) is equal to
(1) 54
(1) 5
(2) 18
(2) 8
(3) No such α exists (3) 6
(4) 36
(4) 6

13
FTS-KCET-03

133.For all real numbers x and y, it is known that the real 139.If sum of the first 21 terms of the series
valued function f satisfies f(x) + f(y) = f (x +y). If f (1) =7, log 1
/2
x + log 1
/3
x + log 1
/4
x+… , where x > 0 is 504,
9 9 9

then ∑ 100

r=1
f (r) is equal to then x is equal to
(1) 7 × 51 × 102 (1) 81
(2) 6 × 50 × 102 (2) 243
(3) 7 × 50 × 102 (3) 9
(4) 6 × 25 × 102 (4) 7
(5) 7 × 50 × 101 140.Range of f(x) = x 2
+3+
1
is
x2 +1

134.Domain of the function, f (x) = 1

is
√x2 −4
(1) R
(1) [-2,2] (2) (−∞, 4)

(2) (-2,2) (3) R − {±1}

(3) (−∞, −2) ∪ (2, ∞)

(4) [4, ∞)

(4) (−∞, −2] ∪ [2, ∞)

141.The range of the function f (x) = √−−−−− −−−−−
3 − x + √2 + x is:

135.Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {3, 4, 5}.Then AΔBequals – −−

(1) [√5, √10 ]

(1) {1, 2}
– –
(2) [√2, √7]

(2) {3, 4}
– −−
(3) [√5, √13 ]

(3) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
– −−
(4) [2√2, √11 ]
(4) {1, 2, 5}

142.If A and B are any two sets, then A∩ (A ∪ B) is equal to

136.Let A and B be two disjoint sets such that n(A ∪ B) = 100
n(A∪B) (1) A
and n(A) = 3n(B), then equals
n(A)×n(B)
(2) B
(1) 1

15
(3) A
c

(2) 1 (4) B
c

25

143.tan −1 1
+ tan
−1 1
=
(3) 1

75
2 3

(1) 0
(4) 1

50
(2) π/4

137.The number of elements in the power set of the set {{1, 2},
3} is (3) π/2

(1) 2 (4) π

(2) 4 144.
The value of cos
−1
(cos
5π

3
) + sin
−1
(sin
5π

3
) is
(3) 6
(1) 0
(4) 8
π
(2)
138.In a group of 200 people, 150 people can play cricket and 2

100 people can play football then the number of people (3) 2π

who can play both of games are 3

(1) 25 (4) 10π

(2) 50 145.If cot

−1
x + tan
−1
3 =
π

2
, then x =
(3) 75
(1) 1/3
(4) 100
(2) 1/4
(3) 3
(4) 4

14
FTS-KCET-03

146. 2
153.If −1 −1 −1
then x =
The range of f (x) = 4sin −1
(
2
x
) is cot α + cot β = cot x,
x +1

(1) α +β

(1) [0, 2π]

(2) α −β

(2) [0, π]
1+αβ
(3)
(3) [0, 2π)
α+β

αβ−1
(4) [0, π) (4) α+β

147.sin −1 −1
is equal to 154.If
x + cos x
A = tan
−1
x , then sin 2A =

π
(1) 2x
4
(1) √1−x2
π
(2) 2
2x
(2) 1−x2
(3) –1
(3)
2x
(4) 1 1+x2

148. −1 1 (4) None of these

tan (90° − cot ) =
3

155.If sin
−1
x + cot
−1
(
1
) =
π
, then x =
(1) 3 2 2

(1) 0
(2)
2

1
(2)
(3) 1

3
√5

(4)
1 (3) √5
√10

149.tan −1 1 −1 2 (4) √3

( ) + tan ( ) = 2
11 12

156.tan −1 3
+ tan
−1 3
− tan
−1 8
=
(1) tan
−1
(
33

132
) 4 5 19

π
(1) 4
(2) tan
−1
(
1

2
)
π
(2) 3

(3) tan
−1
(
132

33
)
π
(3) 6

(4) None of these

(4) None of these
150.If −1 −1 2π
then −1 −1
sin x + sin y =
3
, cos x + cos y =
157.If cos
−1
x + cos
−1
y + cos
−1
z = 3π, then xy + yz + zx =

(1) 2π
(1) 0
3

π (2) 1
(2) 3

(3) 3
π
(3) 6
(4) –3
(4) π
158.
If then x =
−1 x −1 5 π
sin + cosec ( ) = ,
151.If tan
−1
x + 2 cot
−1
x =
2π
, then x =
5 4 2

–
(1) 4
(1) √2
(2) 5
(2) 3
(3) 1
(3) –
√3
(4) 3
√3−1
(4) 159. 2

The domain of the function is

−1 x
√3+1
f (x) = sin (log 2 ( ))
2

152.If −1
then y will be
tan(x + y) = 33 and x = tan 3,
(1) [– 2, 0) ∪ (0, 1)

(1) 0.3 (2) [1, ∞) ∩ [– 2, 2]

(2) tan
−1
(1.3)
(3) [– 2, – 1] ∪ [1, 2]

(3) tan
−1
(0.3) (4) (– ∞, 1] ∩ [– 2, 2]

(4) tan
−1
(
1

18
)

15
FTS-KCET-03

160. 167.
. If A–1 = αI + βA, α, β ∈ R, I is 2 × 2
1 2 1 2
If A = [ ] and I is the identity matrix of order 2, Let A = [ ]
−3 −4 −1 4

then A2 equals identity matrix, then 4(α – β) is

(1) –3A – 2I (1) 8

(2) –3A + 2I (2) 5

(3) 3A – 2I (3) 4
(4) 3A + 2I (4) 2
161.If |A| = 3, then |adj(adjA)| is equal to (where A is 2 × 2 168. 2 3
order matrix) Let A = [ ] , a ∈ R be written as P + Q where P is a
a 0

(1) 6 symmetric matrix and Q is skew symmetric matrix. If

(2) 3 det(Q) = 9, then the modulus of the sum of all possible
values of determinant of P is equal to
(3) 27
(1) 24
(4) 9
(2) 18
162.If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that |A| = 5 and
(3) 45
1 0 0
⎡ ⎤
(4) 36
B = ⎢0 −1 0⎥ , then the value of |2AB| is equal to
⎣
0 0 1
⎦
169. cos
π
sin
π

Let A = (
5

π
5

π
) and B = A + A2 + A3 + A4, then
(1) –10 − sin
5
cos
5

(2) 10 (1) |B| = 0

(3) –40 (2) |B| > 0
(4) 40 (3) |B| < 0
163.Let A = ( aij ) be a square matrix where (4) B is a symmetric matrix
aij =
1

2
(i
2
−j )
2
then A is 170.Let the system of linear equations
4x + λy + 2z = 0
(1) Unit matrix
2x – y + z = 0
(2) Symmetric matrix μx + 2y + 3z = 0, λ, μ∈R.
has a non-trivial solution. Then which of the following is
(3) Skew symmetric matrix
true?
(4) Null matrix (1) μ = –6, λ∈R
164.If I is the identity matrix of order 3, then −1
is (2) λ = 3, μ∈R
3 I
3

(1) 0 (3) μ = 6, λ∈R

(2) 3I3 (4) λ = 2, μ∈R

(3) I3 171.The number of distinct real roots of

∣ sin x cos x cos x ∣
(4) Does not exist ∣ ∣
in the interval is
π π
cos x sin x cos x = 0 − ≤ x ≤
∣ ∣ 4 4

165.The number of possible orders of a matrix having 9 ∣ cos x cos x sin x ∣

elements is
(1) 2
(1) 1
(2) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(3) 3
(4) 3
(4) 4
166.If A is a non – singular matrix such that
then
1 6 −1
(A − 2I) (A − 3I) = O, A+ A =
5 5

(1) O
(2) I
(3) 2I
(4) 3I

16
FTS-KCET-03

172.If x, y, z are in arithmetic progression with common 176.If A is a square matrix such that aij = (i + j)(i – j), then for A
difference d, x ≠ 3 d, and the determinant of the matrix to be non-singular the order of the matrix can be
–
4√2
⎡
3 x
⎤ (1) 2 × 2
⎢4
–
5√2 y ⎥ is zero, then the value of k2 is :
⎣ ⎦ (2) 3 × 3
5 k z

(3) 5 × 5
(1) 12
(4) 7 × 7
(2) 36
177. 2 −1
(3) 72 The value of ‘a’ for which the matrix A = [ ] is
a 4
(4) 6
singular, is
173.If A is 4 × 4 matrix and det(3A) = K{det(A)}, then K is equal (1) a = 4
to
(2) a = –4
(1) 12
(3) a = 8
(2) 9
(4) a = –8
(3) 27
178.Let A be a square matrix of 3 × 3 order and |A| = 5. The
(4) 81
value of |4A| is
174.If A is a square matrix of 2 × 2 order and A (1) 64
−4 1 2 −2
[ ] = [ , then 17A is equal to
] (2) 25
−1 −4 −2 3
(3) 320

(1) [
−8 7
]
(4) 640
11 −8
179.If A is a skew-symmetric matrix of order 3, then the matrix

(2) [
−9 6
]
A4 is
11 −9
(1) Skew symmetric matrix
−5 4 (2) Symmetric matrix
(3) [ ]
3 −5
(3) Diagonal matrix
−10 6 (4) Zero matrix
(4) [ ]
11 −10
180.If A is matrix of order 3 × 3 and |A| = 625, then ∣
∣
A
∣
∣
is
5

175.If A is matrix of 3 × 3 order and |A| = 625, then ∣

A
∣ is equal to
∣ 5 ∣

equal to (1) 25
(1) 25 (2) 125
(2) 125 (3) 5
(3) 5 (4) 1/5

(4)
1

17