SBI PO Prelims 2024-25 Memory Baser Question Paper ( 8-March-2025) (Shift 1)

Q1. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best
combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a
grammatically and logically correct statement.
The company’s sudden announcement of layoffs was seen as _______ by many employees, who did not
feel the decision had been _______ from the beginning.
(a) abrupt, predetermined
(b) strategic, unexpected
(c) transparent, concealed
(d) calculated, improvised
(e) reckless, justified

Q2. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best
combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a
grammatically and logically correct statement.
The government’s response to the economic crisis was widely criticized as _______ and only served to
_______ public frustration.
(a) deliberate, intensify
(b) prudent, alleviate
(c) swift, suppress
(d) ineffectual, exacerbate
(e) measured, pacify

Q3. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best
combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a
grammatically and logically correct statement.
The athlete’s return to the field after a year-long injury was both _______ and _______, as fans wondered if
he could regain his former strength.
(a) unexpected, reassuring
(b) anticipated, uncertain
(c) disappointing, celebrated
(d) inevitable, dismissed
(e) predictable, unnoticed

Q4. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best
combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a
grammatically and logically correct statement.
The whistleblower’s testimony was so _______ that it left lawmakers scrambling to _______ the allegations
before they could gain further traction.
(a) uninformative, dismiss
(b) baseless, ignore
(c) damning, counter
(d) neutral, endorse
(e) unfounded, deny
Q5. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best
combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a
grammatically and logically correct statement.
The new scientific discovery was hailed as _______ but also met with skepticism, as researchers sought to
_______ the results through further experiments.
(a) revolutionary, replicate
(b) trivial, ignore
(c) debatable, obscure
(d) conclusive, pacify
(e) marginal, amplify

Directions (6-12): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The corresponding letter of that
part is the answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, then choose option ‘No error’ as your
answer response. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

Q6. The pack of wolves (A)/ were seen roaming (B)/ near the deserted village (C)/ at dawn. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Q7. She narrowly escaped (A)/ to fall into the (B)/ deep trench (C)/ near the cliff’s edge. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Q8. Despite being warned (A)/ about the storm, he insisted (B)/ to go for a (C)/ late-night drive. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Q9. He pretended (A)/ that he knows nothing (B)/ about the secret plan (C)/ discussed in the meeting.
(D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q10. Not only he (A)/ ignore the warnings, (B)/ but he also (C)/ mocked the elders. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Q11. She found (A)/ an unique solution (B)/ to the complex (C)/ logistical problem. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Q12. The rebels planned (A)/ to blow out (B)/ the bridge before (C)/ reinforcements arrived. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Directions (13-21): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
With the United States recently lifting its ban on online betting, the digital gambling landscape has
experienced a significant paradigm shift, redefining the intersection between technology and wagering.
Once constrained by stringent regulations, platforms facilitating poker, online casinos, and sports
betting are now flourishing, attracting an influx of new participants, particularly among the youth. This
legislative reversal has catalyzed a global ripple effect, influencing betting dynamics in Europe and
beyond. In response to this shift, several companies are launching innovative gambling platforms to
capitalize on the growing demand.
Unlike traditional casinos, which rely on physical establishments, online betting platforms leverage
advanced digital algorithms, artificial intelligence, and blockchain technology to ensure seamless
transactions and enhanced security. The immediacy of placing wagers from mobile applications,
coupled with the gamification of betting interfaces, has rendered the experience far more engaging than
conventional casino gambling. Furthermore, the integration of live-streaming services within sports
betting platforms has heightened real-time interaction, thereby allowing users to engage with the
experience in ways never seen before.
One of the most pronounced impacts of this digital transition is the surge in sports engagement. With
online betting becoming more accessible, the younger demographic is demonstrating a heightened
interest in various athletic competitions, including football, basketball, and eSports. Europe, a
longstanding hub for both regulated gambling and sports culture, has particularly benefited from this
trend. Increased viewership and participation in sporting events, coupled with a surge in revenue
streams for clubs and leagues, have fortified the economic structure of professional athletics. Moreover,
the adoption of responsible gambling initiatives across European jurisdictions has helped mitigate some
of the potential downsides of digital wagering.
However, despite these apparent advantages, the rapid expansion of online betting carries inherent
risks. The accessibility and anonymity afforded by digital gambling platforms can foster addictive
behaviors, particularly among impressionable youth. A lack of financial literacy among new bettors
exacerbates the potential for substantial monetary losses, while the gamified nature of online casinos
may obscure the psychological toll of compulsive gambling. If left unchecked, what was once a
recreational activity can quickly devolve into a destructive vice, draining financial resources and leading
to social isolation. Additionally, concerns surrounding data privacy, fraudulent schemes, and
unregulated markets persist, raising ethical questions about the long-term sustainability of online
betting.
As the online gambling industry continues to evolve, striking a balance between economic benefits and
responsible gaming policies will be paramount. Without adequate safeguards, the societal costs of
unchecked digital betting could outweigh its economic and recreational merits.

Q13. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
(I) The legalization of online betting in the United States has influenced global betting trends, including
in Europe.
(II) Traditional casinos are becoming obsolete due to the growing popularity of online gambling
platforms.
(III) The integration of technology, such as AI and blockchain, has improved security in online gambling.
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q14. Which of the following is a concern regarding online betting, based on the passage?
(a) Traditional casinos will completely disappear in the near future.
(b) Online gambling companies may manipulate algorithms to increase losses.
(c) The increased engagement in sports may create biased betting outcomes.
(d) A lack of proper financial education may lead to severe monetary losses for new bettors.
(e) Governments will completely ban online betting again due to its risks.

Q15. Identify the INCORRECT statement based on the passage.

(a) The U.S. legalization of online betting has influenced global gambling trends, impacting regulations
and betting dynamics in other countries.
(b) Online gambling companies have successfully eliminated gambling addiction through AI-driven
detection and prevention systems.
(c) The passage highlights that gamification in digital betting can make gambling more addictive by
obscuring its long-term consequences.
(d) Both A and B
(e) All are incorrect
Q16. Identify the correct synonym for "engage" based on its usage in the passage.
(a) Capture
(b) Captivate
(c) Emerge
(d) Replace
(e) Evolve

Q17. Based on the passage, how has the U.S. decision to legalize online betting impacted global
gambling trends?
(a) It has primarily benefited U.S. sports leagues, while the global gambling industry remains unaffected
due to differing regulatory structures.
(b) The passage suggests that U.S. legalization has caused a worldwide increase in problem gambling,
overwhelming responsible gambling initiatives.
(c) The ripple effect of this decision has influenced European markets by increasing sports engagement
and enhancing revenue streams for clubs and leagues.
(d) The passage implies that U.S. legalization has had minimal influence outside its borders, as most
online gambling companies operate independently of U.S. laws.
(e) The global sports industry has opposed this change, fearing that the rise of online betting could
reduce traditional in-person viewership.

Q18. What potential risk associated with online betting does the passage emphasize the most?
(a) The complete lack of gambling regulations worldwide, which has allowed fraudulent activities to
flourish.
(b) The psychological and financial dangers of unchecked digital gambling, particularly among young
and inexperienced users.
(c) The negative impact of online betting on professional sports, leading to a decline in revenue and
viewership.
(d) The erosion of traditional casino culture due to the increasing preference for digital betting
platforms.
(e) The long-term economic instability of online gambling companies due to increasing competition and
market saturation.

Q19. Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to the opposite of "vice" as used in
the passage?
(a) Corruption
(b) Virtue
(c) Immorality
(d) Sin
(e) Depravity
Q20. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
(I) The reversal of online betting laws in the U.S. has only influenced gambling trends in the country
itself.
(II) The integration of live-streaming within sports betting platforms has transformed how users engage
with betting.
(III) Online betting platforms integrate live-streaming services to enhance real-time engagement.
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) All (I), (II), and (III)
(e) Only (I)

Q21. Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to "launching" as used in the
passage?
(a) Terminating
(b) Initiating
(c) Encouraging
(d) Preponing
(e) Withdrawing

Directions (22-25): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with three words in
bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct.

Q22. The ancient temple torrential (A) under the relentless force of the majestic (B) rain, leaving only
fragments of its once crumbled (C) structure scattered across the valley.
(a) ACB
(b) CAB
(c) BAC
(d) BCA
(e) No rearrangement required
Q23. The commander’s pivotal (A) to launch the offensive (B) at dawn cost the army a reluctance (C)
strategic advantage in the battle.
(a) CBA
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) CAB
(e) No rearrangement required

Q24. The detective’s astute (A) observations led to a crucial (B) clue that unraveled (C) the mystery.
(a) CAB
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) BCA
(e) No rearrangement required
Q25. The leader’s resilient (A) attitude in adversity (B) motivated his team to face challenges with
fearless (C) determination.
(a) BCA
(b) CAB
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No rearrangement required

Directions (26-30): Rearrange the following statements to form a coherent paragraph and the
answer the given questions.
(A) Their persistent efforts led to a remarkable transformation, ensuring a steady water supply and
revitalizing local farming.
(B) In the 1990s, the crisis deepened, prompting a group of determined women to take matters into
their own hands by developing innovative irrigation techniques.
(C) Additionally, policymakers announced the formulation of new programs aimed at furthering
women's empowerment in rural areas.
(D) Recognizing their contribution, the government not only praised their work but also introduced
incentives to support their initiatives.
(E) This inspiring movement has set a precedent for sustainable development and gender-inclusive
progress in the region.
(F) For decades, a village struggled with severe water shortages, impacting agriculture and daily life.

Q26. Which of the following is the correct sequence after rearrangement?

(a) FABCED
(b) FBADCE
(c) BAECDF
(d) FADCEB
(e) BCDEAF

Q27. Which of the following is the FIRST statement after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E

Q28. Which of the following is the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q29. Which of the following is the THIRD statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q30. Which of the following is the LAST statement after rearrangement?

(a) F
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Directions (31-32): In each question two columns are given, each containing three
phrases/sentences. Choose the option that will connect the phrases to form meaningful and
correct sentences.

Q31. Column I
A. Struggling to navigate the stormy seas,
B. The unexpected turn of events
C. Enduring the relentless hardships,
Column II
D. they refused to abandon hope.
E. left the entire nation in shock.
F. he emerged stronger than before.
(a) A-D
(b) B-D
(c) C-F
(d) A-E
(e) Both A-D and C-F

Q32. Column I
A. Concealing his growing frustration,
B. The sudden betrayal of his closest ally
C. Fiercely resisting the oppressive rule,
Column II
D. was an act of defiance
E. shattered his faith in loyalty
F. was rolling hills in a warm glow
(a) A-D
(b) A-E
(c) C-F
(d) B-E
(e) Both A-D and B-E
Directions (33-38): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been denoted
by letters. For each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the
options that fits the blank appropriately.
Black pepper, often referred to as the "king of spices," ________ (A) an essential component of cuisines
worldwide and has been used for centuries in both culinary and medicinal practices. It ________ (B)
originally cultivated in South Asia, particularly in India, where it thrives in humid, tropical climates. The
distinctive aroma of black pepper _________ (C) from its volatile oils, especially piperine, which
contributes to its pungency and potential health benefits.
Although black pepper __________ (D) widely used today, historical records indicate that it __________ (E)
once considered a luxury item, traded as currency in ancient markets. To preserve its full flavor, whole
peppercorns are often preferred over ground pepper, as grinding __________ (F) its essential oils to
dissipate over time.
In recent years, the rising global demand and fluctuating agricultural yields have led to an increase in
the price of black pepper, making it more expensive than before. To maximize its freshness, black pepper
should be stored in an airtight container away from heat and moisture. Whether used as a seasoning or
a medicinal remedy, black pepper remains one of the most widely consumed spices in the world.

Q33. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank A.

(a) remains
(b) signifies
(c) denotes
(d) embodies
(e) constitutes

Q34. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank B.

(a) is
(b) has
(c) had been
(d) was being
(e) was

Q35. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank C.

(a) emerge
(b) derives
(c) originates
(d) stems
(e) exudes

Q36. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank D.

(a) is
(b) was
(c) has been
(d) had been
(e) will be
Q37. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank E.
(a) has
(b) was
(c) had
(d) is
(e) are

Q38. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank F.

(a) causes
(b) had caused
(c) has caused
(d) cause
(e) will cause

Directions (39-40): Which of the following phrases given below the sentence should replace the
phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best
option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of
the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark “No correction
required” as the answer.

Q39. Despite of the heavy storm, the fishermen decided to set sail early in the morning.
(a) Despite the heavy storm
(b) In spite the heavy storm
(c) Even despite the heavy storm
(d) Although of the heavy storm
(e) No correction required

Q40. Had he known about the crisis, he would help his colleagues before leaving.
(a) he would had helped
(b) he would helped
(c) he will help
(d) he would have helped
(e) No correction required

Directions (41-45): The table shows the flats occupied by public sector employees in four
different buildings, ratio of flats occupied public sector and private sector employees and
percentage of vacant flats. Read the table and answer the following questions.

Note – 1. Occupied flats in A is 300.

2. Total flats in the building = occupied flats + vacant flats.
Q41. In A, the ratio of flat occupied by female working in public sector is 120 which is 20% more
than flat occupied by male and Private sector. Find the sum of flat occupied by male in public
sector and female in private sector.
(a) 80
(b) 90
(c) 100
(d) 150
(e) 120

Q42. In building F, the ratio occupied to vacant flat is same as building B and flats occupied by
public sector employees is the average of flats occupied by private sector employees in A and B.
If the vacant flats in F is 2/5th of flats occupied by public sector employees. Find the total flats
occupied by private sector employees in F.
(a) 25
(b) 39
(c) 24
(d) 50
(e) 20

Q43. Find the ratio of vacant flats in C and occupied flats in B together to flats occupied by private
employees in C and flats occupied by public sector employees in D.
(a) 5:6
(b) 17:11
(c) 10:11
(d) 1:1
(e) 12:11

Q44. In D, 20% of the public sector employees have car and remaining have bike and 40% of the
private sector employees have bikes and remaining have cars. Find the difference between public
sector employees have bike and private sector employees have car.
(a) 50
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 125
(e) 120

Q45. If the number of flats in a floor is 2.5x and number of flats in each floor is same. Find the
sum of number of floor in C and D.
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) 12
Directions (46-50): Read the following pie chart and bar graph carefully and answer the
questions given below. The bar graph shows total number of magazines and newspapers
published by five different publishers. The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the
newspapers published by these publishers.
Note: The total number of magazines published by A is 50.

Q46. The total number of newspapers published by F is 25% more than that of by C and the total
number of magazines published by B and F in the ratio of 7:4 respectively. Find the difference
between the total number of magazines and newspapers published by F.
(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 35
(d) 30
(e) 20
Q47. 40% of the number of magazines published by A are sold and 20% of the number of
newspapers published by A are unsold, then find the ratio of the total number of magazines and
newspapers sold by A.
(a) 7:12
(b) 5:11
(c) 3:13
(d) 4:19
(e) 5:16

Q48. The ratio of sports to fashion magazines published by D is in the ratio of 5:4 respectively.
The number of sports magazines published by D is what percentage of the total number of
newspapers published by A?
(a) 125%
(b) 80%
(c) 65%
(d) 75%
(e) 100%

Q49. The total number of newspapers published by G is 4X more than that of E and the total
number of magazines published by G is X less than that of A, then find the total number of
newspapers and magazines together published by G.
(a) 250
(b) 150
(c) 190
(d) 180
(e) 215

Q50. The total number of magazines published by B and F together 12X. Find the average number
of magazines published by F and D.
(a) 110
(b) 120
(c) 90
(d) 130
(e) 125

Q51. A and B started a business, and their investment was in the ratio of 4:5, respectively. At the
end of a year the 30% of the dividend is equally distributed, and the remaining dividend is
distributed in their profit share. If the difference between the dividend share of A and B is Rs
280, then find the total profit (in Rs)?
(a) 3200
(b) 3600
(c) 3800
(d) 4000
(e) 4400
Q52. The average age of (X+14) students in a class is X years. When the ages of two teachers are
included, the average age increases by one year. If the sum of their age is 64 years, then find X?
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 14
(e) 16

Q53. A person invests some amount on simple interest and at the end of the year the amount
becomes 13 times of the amount invested by the man. If the numeric value of rate of interest per
annum is thrice of time, find rate of interest.
(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 60
(e) 90

𝟐
Q54. The speed of stream is 16𝟑% of downstream speed of the boat and the boat covers 120 km
upstream in five hours. If the boat covers D-3 km downstream and D+30 (at speed of boat in still
water) in 5.5 hours, then find the value of D?
(a) 55
(b) 75
(c) 80
(d) 60
(e) 45

Q55. Two vessels X and Y contains mixture of milk and water. Vessel X contains milk and water
in the ratio of 5 : 3 respectively, while vessel Y contains mixture of milk and water in the ratio of
7 : 5 respectively. The difference between milk and water in vessel Y in equal to water in vessel
X. If water in vessel Y is 5 liters more than milk in vessel X, then find the total mixture in vessel
X?
(a) 156
(b) 126
(c) 120
(d) 16
(e) 88

Q56. The sum of age of X, Y and Z is 190 years. The difference between age of X & Y is twice the
difference between age of Y & Z. If the ratio of age of Y to that of Z is 7 : 9, then find minimum the
possible age of X (in years) Given, age of X< age of Y and all age in integer?
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 36
(d) 25
(e) Can’t determined
Q57. The cost price of an article is Rs. X and it marked up 40% above cost price, while discount
allowed on the marked price is 20%. If the cost price is Rs 100 less and the selling price is Rs. 80
more, then profit received on the article is 60%. Find the original selling price of the article (in
Rs.)?
(a) 540
(b) 720
(c) 840
(d) 560
(e) 600

Q58. A man invested Rs. (X-2500) on simple interest for five years 3 days at rate of 8.006% in
scheme A and he invested Rs X on compound interest for 2 years 2 days at rate of 10% p.a. in
scheme B. If the approximate difference between interest received form the both schemes is Rs.
900, then find amount invested in scheme A (in Rs.)?
(a) 5000
(b) 5500
(c) 7840
(d) 7500
(e) 5600

Directions (59-60): Find the wrong number in the following number series.

Q59. 8, 21, 41, 72, 116, 175, 257

(a) 257
(b) 116
(c) 21
(d) 175
(e) 41

Q60. 5040 720 120 24 8 2

(a) 720
(b) 120
(c) 5044
(d) 2
(e) 8

Directions (61-65): Read the information and answer the following questions.
The information is about the total people who like three different games i.e. volleyball, chess and cricket.
The people who like only volleyball is (x+10) and people who like only chess is 15 less than that of
Volleyball. People who like only cricket is 28. Average number of people who like only one game is 21.
People who like all the games together is 50. The ratio of people who like volleyball and chess together
and chess and cricket together is 1:2. Total people who like chess is 96.
Q61. Find the ratio of people who like only cricket and chess together to people who like only
volleyball.
(a) 24:25
(b) 25:24
(c) 15:16
(d) 10:9
(e) 5:4

Q62. Find the difference between people who like only one game to people like all the games
together.
(a) 20
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 12
(e) 14

Q63. The number of people who like only volleyball and cricket together is double the people
who like only cricket. Find the people who like volleyball.
(a) 120
(b) 125
(c) 143
(d) 110
(e) 115

Q64. Find the value of x.

(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 10
(e) 5

Q65. The ratio of male and female who like chess is 7:5, then females who like chess is what
percentage more/less than the people who like all the games together.
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 90%
(d) 80%
(e) 25%

Q66. A is five consecutive even numbers series and B is five consecutive odd numbers series.
The third term of series A is 3 more than third term of series B. If sum of first term of both series
is 397, then find the sum of third term of series A and B?
(a) 403
(b) 407
(c) 405
(d) 401
(e) 409
Q67. The area of a rectangle is 528 cm2 more than the area of a circle. And the ratio of length to
𝟕
breadth of the rectangle is 26 : 11. If radius of the circle is th of the breadth of the rectangle,
𝟏𝟏
then find the radius of circle (in cm)?
(a) 14
(b) 10.5
(c) 28
(d) 21
(e) 7

Q68. Ten years ago, the average age of A and B was 30 years. Eight years hence, the ratio of age of
𝟕
A to that of B will be 5 : 7. If the age of C five years ago was 𝟗th of the age of B three years ago, then
find the present age of C (in years):?
(a) 40
(b) 35
(c) 45
(d) 48
(e) 32

Directions (69-70): Following are the questions based on two statements and answer the
following based on the given statements.

Q69. What will be respective ratio of saving of V & D.

3th
I. Income of V is 4% less than that of S and the ratio of expenditure of V to that of S is 7 : 8. D spend 5
of his income.
II. S save Rs. 14000 and V saves Rs. 14800. Income of D is Rs. 2000 more than that of S.
(a) Only statement I is sufficient
(b) Only statement II is sufficient
(c) Statement I and II both together is sufficient
(d) Either statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient
(e) Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient

Q70. What is age of R after two years.

I. Average age of A and N is 24 years and ratio of age of R to A is 2 : 3.
II. N is 4 years elder than S and ratio of age of S to R is 1 : 2
(a) only statement I
(b) Only statement II
(c) Both I and II together
(d) Both statements together are not sufficient
(e) Either I or II alone
Directions (71-73): In each question below, some statements are given followed by some
conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts. Now, decide which of the two given conclusions logically
follow from the statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Q71. Statements:
All apple are orange.
Only a few orange are fruit.
Some apple is not red.
Conclusions:
I. All fruit being apple is a possibility.
II. Some red are orange.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) None follows

Q72. Statements:
Only trains are planes.
Some cars are trains.
All cars are ships.
Conclusions:
I. Some planes being ships is a possibility.
II. All trains can never be cars.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) None follows

Q73. Statements:
No cups are mugs.
Only a few cups are plates.
All mugs are spoons.
Conclusions:
I. No plates being spoons is a possibility.
II. All cups can never be plates.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) None follows
Q74. Find the odd one out.
(a) JMH
(b) TWR
(c) EHC
(d) QTO
(e) ORK

Q75. How many pairs of digits are in the number ‘83573971, each of which have as many digits
between them (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them according to
English Numeric Series?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) More than four

Directions (76-80): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are designated on different posts in a company but not in given order.
The designations are CEO (Chief Executive Officer), CFO (Chief Financial Officer), CTO (Chief Technical
Officer), CMO (Chief Marketing Officer), VP (Vice President), GM (General Manager), AGM (Assistant
General Manager), DGM (Deputy General Manager), Manager. These designations are given in the
decreasing order of seniority from CEO to Manager respectively.
Odd number of persons are senior to B. Four persons are in between B and H. C is two designations
senior to H. The number of persons designated between B and C is two less than the number of persons
senior to E. A is four designations junior to G. The number of persons junior to G is four more than the
number of persons senior to F. D is not Assistant General Manager.

Q76. The number of persons junior to I is same as the number of persons senior to ___.
(a) G
(b) H
(c) C
(d) A
(e) F

Q77. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) F is designated as Chief Technical Officer
(b) Less than four persons are in between G and B
(c) A is immediate junior to D
(d) Equal number of persons are senior and junior to E
(e) A is senior to General Manager

Q78. Which of the following pair of designation and person is/are correct?
(a) Assistant General Manager - I
(b) Vice President - D
(c) Chief Marketing Officer - F
(d) Manager - E
(e) All are correct
Q79. Among which pair of persons, first person is three designations senior to second person?
(a) G-A
(b) C-I
(c) H-F
(d) D-B
(e) B-E

Q80. Who among the following is two designations junior to I?

(a) H
(b) E
(c) A
(d) C
(e) G

Directions (81-85): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
14 persons sit in two parallel rows in such a way that 7 persons sit in each row. B, C, D, E, F, G, H – sit in
row 1 and face north while P, Q, R, S, T, U, V – sit in row 2 and face south. The persons do not sit in the
given order. The persons of both rows face each other.
T faces the one who sits third to the left of G. Number of persons to the left of G is one more than the
number of persons to the right of P. The one who faces P sits immediate right of B. F neither sits at the
extreme ends nor adjacent to G. More than two persons sit between F and the one who faces V. Number
of persons sit between T and V is same as the number of persons sit between D and E. S sits third to the
right of Q. Two persons sit between C and D who sits opposite to R.

Q81. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group, who among
the following is not related to the group?
(a) U
(b) V
(c) H
(d) D
(e) R

Q82. How many persons sit between U and the one who faces F?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five

Q83. What is the position of H with respect to the one who sits opposite to S?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Immediate left
(c) Fourth to the right
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) Third to the right
Q84. Which of the following statement is true?
I. Four persons sit to the right of U
II. E sits immediate right of G
III. F is the only neighbor of H
(a) Only II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only III
(d) Only I
(e) Only I and II

Q85. If V is related to E, P is related to B, in the similar way, Q is related to whom?

(a) G
(b) D
(c) F
(d) H
(e) C

Directions (86-90): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I - are placed one above the other but not necessarily in the same order.
At most two boxes are placed above the box A. Two boxes are placed between box A and box H. Box E is
placed adjacent to box H. The number of boxes placed between box A and box E is two less than the
number of boxes placed between box E and box G. Box B is placed just above box D which is two places
above the box C. Box F is placed two places above box I.

Q86. How many boxes are placed between Box G and Box A?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five

Q87. Which of the following boxes is placed at the topmost position?

(a) A
(b) G
(c) B
(d) F
(e) H

Q88. Which box is placed exactly between Box F and Box C?

(a) B
(b) G
(c) H
(d) D
(e) E
Q89. What is the correct position of Box E from the topmost position?
(a) Fourth
(b) Fifth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh
(e) Eighth

Q90. If box E is related to box B and box H is related to box D then in the same way which box is
related to box I?
(a) Box A
(b) Box F
(c) Box C
(d) Box H
(e) Box G

Directions (91-95): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Seven persons study in three different universities viz. Oxford, Cambridge and Texas. Minimum two but
not more than three persons study in the same university. Each of them like different colour.
P likes brown but does not study in Texas. T study only with Q but they do not study in Texas. S and the
one who likes white study in the same university. V and the one who likes maroon study in the same
university. The ones who like grey and green study neither in the same university nor in Texas. T does
not study in Oxford. The one who likes silver and grey study in the same university. V study with more
than one person. Q does not like silver. R does not study in Oxford. R does not like Gold and Maroon. S
and U do not like gold.

Q91. Which of the following persons study in Oxford?

(a) P, R
(b) S, V
(c) P, S, V
(d) P, Q, T
(e) None of these

Q92. Who likes the white color?

(a) Q
(b) S
(c) R
(d) V
(e) None of these

Q93. Which of the following colors does T like?

(a) Green
(b) Gold
(c) Maroon
(d) Silver
(e) None of these
Q94. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) P and S study in the same university.
(b) T likes grey color.
(c) R studies in Texas.
(d) The one who likes silver studies in Cambridge.
(e) Both (c) and (d)

Q95. Who among the following studies in Texas?

(a) R and the one who likes grey
(b) S and the one who likes white
(c) V and the one who likes green
(d) Q and the one who likes silver
(e) None of these

Directions (96-100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Seven persons i.e., A, B, C, D, E, F and G but not necessarily in the same order are living in a seven-floor
building such that the ground floor is numbered as 1, just above it is floor 2, then the topmost floor is
numbered as 7. Each person likes different colors i.e., Green, Red, Violet, Purple, Black, Pink and White
but not necessarily in the same order.
G lives on even number floor but three floors above the one who likes Black. There are as many persons
live above the one who likes Purple as below the one who likes Black. C lives two floors above the one
who likes white who lives on odd numbered floor. C does not like Black. B lives two floors above the one
who likes Violet. The one who likes green lives just above the one who likes Pink. More than three
persons live between E and F who lives just above D.

Q96. Who lives on the second topmost floor?

(a) A
(b) G
(c) C
(d) B
(e) E

Q97. How many floors are between the persons who like Red and Black?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None

Q98. The numbers of persons live above C is one less than the numbers of persons live below
____________?
(a) The one who likes White
(b) The one who likes Pink
(c) The one who likes Violet
(d) The one who likes Purple
(e) The one who likes Black
Q99. Who among the following lives just above the one who likes Green?
(a) The one who likes Violet
(b) The one who likes Red
(c) The one who likes White
(d) The one who likes Purple
(e) The one who likes Black

Q100. Which of the following statements is true?

I. G does not live on prime numbered floor
II. A lives above the one who likes red
III. At least two floors gap between G and F
(a) Only III
(b) Both I and II
(c) Only I
(d) Both II and III
(e) None is true