Series : Y7XWZ SET~1

. - >
Roll No. Q.P. Code 57/7/1
- -
-
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.
> NOTE
(I) - (I) Please check that this question paper
27 contains 27 printed pages.
(II) - - (II) Q.P. Code given on the right hand side
- - of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by
the candidate.
(III) - 33 (III) Please check that this question paper
contains 33 questions.
(IV) (IV) Please write down the Serial
, - Number of the question in the
answer-book at the given place
before attempting it.
(V) - 15 (V) 15 minute time has been allotted to read
- this question paper. The question paper
will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 10.15 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the candidates
10.30 - will read the question paper only and
- will not write any answer on the
answer-book during this period.

BIOLOGY (Theory)
3 70
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 70

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(i) - 33

(ii) -
(iii) 1 16 1

(iv) 17 21 - 2

(v) 22 28 - 3

(vi) 29 30 - 4
- -
(vii) 31 33 - 5

(viii) - ,

(ix) -
(x)

1 16 , 1
16 1=16

1. - - ?
(A) 10 40 bp

(B)

(C)

(D)

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General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five sections Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A questions number 1 to 16 are multiple choice type questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B questions number 17 to 21 are very short answer type questions.
Each question carries 2 marks.
(v) Section C questions number 22 to 28 are short answer type questions. Each
question carries 3 marks.
(vi) Section D questions number 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. Each question has subparts with internal choice in
one of the subparts.
(vii) Section E questions number 31 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
Sections B, D and E of the question paper. A candidate has to write answer for
only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(ix) Kindly note that there is a separate question paper for Visually Impaired
candidates.
(x) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A

Questions no. 1 to 16 are Multiple Choice Type Questions, carrying 1 mark

each. Choose the best option. 16 1=16

1. What are minisatellites ?

(A) 10 40 bp sized small sequences within the genes.

(B) Short coding repetitive sequences region on the eukaryotic genome.

(C) Short non-coding repetitive sequences forming a large portion of

eukaryotic genome.

(D) Regions of coding strand of DNA.

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2. ,
(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

3.

(A)

(B)
(C)
(D)

4.

(i) -
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
:

(A) (ii), (iii), (v), (vi), (iv), (i)

(B) (ii), (v), (iii), (vi), (iv), (i)

(C) (v), (ii), (iii), (vi), (i), (iv)

(D) (ii), (iii), (vi), (iv), (v), (i)

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2. Identify the incorrect statement regarding PCR.
(A) Two sets of primers are required during polymerisation.
(B) The process of replication is repeated multiple times to produce
one billion copies.

(C) Thermostable DNA polymerase is used for extension of primers.

(D) Annealing is required to separate both the strands of template
DNA.

3. The following information is about drugs and tobacco. Select the correct
statement from the options given below.
(A) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery.

(B) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate.

(C) Barbiturates when given to criminals makes them tell the truth.

(D) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as

a painkiller.

4. Given below are the events that are observed in an artificial

hybridisation programme. Arrange them in the correct sequential order
and select the correct option.
(i) Re-bagging
(ii) Selection of parents
(iii) Bagging
(iv) Dusting the pollens on stigma
(v) Emasculation
(vi) Collection of pollens from male parent
Options :
(A) (ii), (iii), (v), (vi), (iv), (i)
(B) (ii), (v), (iii), (vi), (iv), (i)
(C) (v), (ii), (iii), (vi), (i), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (vi), (iv), (v), (i)

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5. -
?
(A) (ZZ)

(B) XO

(C) XO

(D) (XX)

6.

(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,

7.

- ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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5. Which of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of
determining the sex in the given options ?
(A) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.
(B) XO type of chromosomes determine male sex in grasshoppers.
(C) XO condition in humans determines female sex.
(D) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.

6. Choose the option that correctly describes the gynoecium of Michelia :

(A) Multicarpellary, Apocarpous (B) Bicarpellary, Apocarpous
(C) Multicarpellary, Syncarpous (D) Bicarpellary, Syncarpous

7. The given graph shows the range of variation among population

members, for a trait determined by multiple genes. If this population is
subjected to disruptive selection for several generations, which of the
following distributions is most likely to result ?

Choose the correct option :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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8.
?
(A) -

(B) -

(C) -

(D) IgA

9. - ?
(A) -
(B)

(C)

(D) -

10.
280, 200, 40 50

(A) 80 (B) 70

(C) 10 (D) 90

11. 2·4% ,
(A) 8·1% (B) 12·9%

(C) 7·3% (D) 5·1%

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8. Which one of the following immune system components does not
correctly match with its respective role ?

(A) Interferons Secreted by virus-infected cells and protect

non-infected cells from further viral infection.

(B) Macrophages Mucus-secreting cells that trap microbes entering

into the body.

(C) B-Lymphocytes Produce antibodies in response to pathogens into

blood to fight with them.

(D) IgA Present in colostrum in early days of lactation to protect

infants from diseases.

9. Which one of the following is not the product of transgenic experiments ?

(A) Pest-resistant crop variety

(B) High nutritional value in grains

(C) Drought-resistant crops

(D) Production of insulin by rDNA technique

10. A biologist studied the population of rats in a granary. He found the

average natality was 280, average mortality was 200, immigration was
40 and emigration was 50. The net increase in population is :

(A) 80 (B) 70

(C) 10 (D) 90

11.
species diversity is :

(A) 8·1% (B) 12·9%

(C) 7·3% (D) 5·1%

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12.

(A) -
(B) (ELISA)

(C) II

(D)

13 16 , (A) (R)
(A), (B), (C) (D)

(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)

(B) (A) (R) , (R), (A)

(C) (A) , (R)

(D) (A) , (R)

13. (A) : - CO2

(R) :

14. (A) : S

(R) :

15. (A) :

(R) : X-

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12. Out of the following, select the correct match :

(A) Transgenic cow milk Human beta-lactalbumin protein

(B) ELISA Antigen antibody interaction
(C) Corn Borer Cry II Ab gene
(D) Cotton plant Meloidegyne Incognitia

For Questions number 13 to 16, two statements are given one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to
these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

13. Assertion (A) : Swiss cheese is characterized by large holes due to CO 2

production.

Reason (R) : It is ripened by growing a specific fungi.

14. Assertion (A) : Replication of DNA takes place in S phase of the cell
cycle.
Reason (R) : DNA replication and cell division cycle should be highly
coordinated.

15. Assertion (A) : A male individual always inherits haemophilia from his
mother.
Reason (R) : The gene for haemophilia lies on X-chromosome.

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16. (A) :

(R) : ori

17. ( ) 1997

( )
2

18. ( ) 2

( ) 2

(i) 50 ?

(ii) ,

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16. Assertion (A) : A piece of DNA inserted into an alien organism generally

does not replicate, if not inserted into a chromosome.

Reason (R) :

where DNA replication is initiated.

SECTION B

17. (a) Name the Indian crop variety for which, in 1997, an American

company got patent rights through the US Patent and Trademark

Office. This is considered a case of Biopiracy. Justify. 2

OR

(b) State two purposes for which the Indian Government has set up

GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee). 2

18. (a)

OR

(b) Give reasons for the following : 2

(i) Why can a woman generally not conceive a child after

50 years of age ?

(ii) Polar bodies are formed during oogenesis and not during

spermatogenesis.

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19.

15
( )

3 4 -
( )

2 -
( )

1·5 900 (cc)

( )

( ) 15

( ) - ,

( ) -

( ) 1·5

20. ( ) ,
?
2

( )
-
? 2

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19. A few stages and their respective time period in the evolutionary history
of human beings are mentioned in the flowchart given below :

15 mya Primates walking like gorillas and chimpanzees existed. (a)

3 4 mya Man-like primates walked in Eastern Africa. Fossils of

their bones were discovered. (b)

2 mya This ancestor lived in the East African grasslands and ate
fruits. (c)

1·5 mya This hominid had a brain size of 900 cc and probably ate
meat. (d)

Based on the above information, answer the following questions : 2

(a) Name one primate about 15 mya.

(b) Name one place where fossils of primates were discovered in

Eastern Africa.

(c) Name the ancestor that lived in the East African grasslands about
2 mya.

(d) Name the hominid that was found around 1·5 mya.

20. (a) How does a human body respond when vaccine is introduced into
it ? It is said that vaccinations are a must for a healthy society.
Justify. 2

OR

(b) Humans have innate immunity for protection against pathogens

that may enter the gut along with food. What are the two barriers
in our body that protect it from such pathogens ? 2

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21.

( )
( )
( ) 1

22.

( )

( )

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21. A karyotype of a human suffering from a certain disorder is given below :

(a) Identify the disorder.

(b) Write the symptoms of the disorder.

(c) Give reason for such a disorder. 1

SECTION C

22. A village health worker was taking a session with women. She tells them
that one has to be careful while using oral pills as a method of birth
control. Wrong usage can actually promote conception.

(a) Analyse the above statement and compare the merits and demerits
of using oral pills and surgical methods of birth control.

(b) Village women are confused as to how a thin metallic copper loop
can provide protection against pregnancy. Explain the mode of
action of IUDs. Give two points. 3

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23. ( ) -
-
( ) - -

24.

( )
( ) ,
?
( ) 3

25. -
, ? 3

26. ( ) ?
( ) -

(i)
(ii) 3

27. ( )
( ) ?
( )
3

28.
:
3

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23. (a)
geographical area starts from a point and literally radiates to other

(b) Cite an example where more than one adaptive radiation has
occurred in an isolated geographical area. Name the type of
evolution your example depicts. 3

24.
oligopeptide with the amino acids, Lysine Serine Proline Tyrosine.
(a) Write the codons in correct sequence for the four amino acids.
(b) If first adenine in DNA is substituted by guanine, what will be the
sequence of amino acids in the new oligopeptide ?
(c) Write the anticodons for these amino acids. 3

25. A person is suffering from high grade fever. Which symptoms will help to
identify if he/she is suffering from Typhoid, Pneumonia or Malaria ? 3

26. (a) Why are transgenic animals so called ?

(b) With the help of an example each, explain the role of transgenic
animals in the following :
(i) Vaccine safety
(ii) Biological products 3

27. (a) Mention any two advantages of micropropagation techniques.

(b) Write in brief how the process is carried out in the laboratory.

(c) Name any two important food plants grown commercially by this
method. 3

28. Name the type of food chains responsible for the flow of larger fraction of
energy in an aquatic ecosystem and a terrestrial ecosystem, respectively.
Mention any two differences between the two food chains. 3

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 29 30 - 3 - -

29. 4

( ) 1

( ) ? 2

( ) (i) ? 1

( ) (ii) ? 1

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 SECTION D

Questions No. 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each question has

3 sub-questions with internal choice in one sub-question.

29. Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow. 4

(a) Identify the figure and state its importance. 1

(b) Why is air diffused into the aerator tank ? Explain. 2

(c) (i) What changes take place in the settling tank ? 1

OR

(c) (ii) How is BOD related to organic matter present in the water ? 1

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30.
4

A B

( ) A B 1

( ) B 2

( ) (i) B 1

( ) (ii) , B
1

31. ( )
,

( ) 5

(i)

(ii) ,

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30. The following question is based on pollination. Study the figures
carefully and answer the questions that follow. 4

Pollens

Figure A Figure B

(a) Give the scientific terms for the processes taking place in Figures A
and B respectively. 1
(b) Mention two conditions necessary for the process occurring in
Figure B. 2

(c) (i) State one advantage and one disadvantage of the process
occurring in Figure B. 1
OR
(c) (ii) Name one plant where, in some flowers only, the process in
Figure B takes place and give the reason responsible for it. 1

SECTION E

31. (a) Write the features a molecule should have to act as a genetic
material. In the light of the above features, evaluate and justify the
suitability of the molecule that is preferred as an ideal genetic
material. 5
OR
(b) Differentiate between the following : 5

(i) Polygenic Inheritance and Pleiotropy

(ii) Dominance, Codominance and Incomplete dominance

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32. ( ) ,

C
D

2+1+2=5

(i) A, B, C D

(ii)
?
(iii)

( )

/ / /

(Q)
(P)

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32. (a) Study the given diagram showing the sectional view of a seminiferous
tubule.

A
Secondary
spermatocyte
B
Primary
spermatocyte
C
D

Answer the following questions : 2+1+2=5

(i) Label A, B, C and D in the figure.

(ii) What will be the number of chromosomes in secondary

spermatocyte and spermatid respectively ?

(iii) Explain the terms Spermiogenesis and Spermiation.

OR

(b) Study the figures given below showing initial stages in the
formation of female gametophyte and answer the questions that
follow.

Micropylar end Micropylar end Micropylar end

Nucellus Nucellus

(Q)
(P)

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 (i) (P) (Q)
(ii) I. (P)
(Q) ?
II. (Q) ?
?
III.
?
IV. 5

33. ( ) (i) ?

?
I.
II.
III.

(ii) -
? 5

( ) (i) - ,

N=
r=

(ii)
,
(iii) ,
(iv) - ?
5

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 (i) Identify (P) and (Q).

(ii) I. What kind of division does cell (P) undergo to form (Q) ?
II. How many (Q) cells form the embryo sac ? What is the
name given to such kind of development ?
III. How many free nuclear mitotic divisions will the
functional megaspore undergo to form the embryo sac ?
IV. Describe the structure of a mature female gametophyte. 5

33. (a) (i) How does alien species invasion cause a decline in
biodiversity ? Explain.
How have the following contributed to biodiversity loss ?
I. Nile Perch
II. Lantana and Eichhornia
III. Clarias gariepinus
(ii) Why have certain regions been declared as biodiversity
hotspots by environmentalists of the world ? Name any two
such regions in India. 5
OR

(b) (i) Write an equation for Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth Curve

where :
N = Population density at t
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(ii) Draw a graph for a population whose population density has
reached carrying capacity.
(iii) Draw a growth curve where resources are non-limiting to
growth of population.
(iv) Which growth curve is considered more realistic and why ?
Explain. 5

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