March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

March (25-31)
2025
Current Affairs
MCQs
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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Economic & Social Issues (ESI) MCQs

1. By how much has India’s GDP grown in the last 10 years, according to the IMF?
a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 90%
d) 105%
e) 120%
Answer: d) 105%
Explanation: As per the IMF, India’s GDP has increased from $2.1 trillion in 2015 to $4.3 trillion in 2025, marking a 105% growth
over the last decade.

2. Which country is India projected to surpass by the third quarter of FY25 in terms of GDP size?
a) Germany
b) France
c) Japan
d) UK
e) Canada
Answer: c) Japan
Explanation: India’s GDP is currently $4.3 trillion, while Japan’s GDP is at $4.4 trillion with no significant growth over the last
decade. This means India is expected to surpass Japan by the third quarter of FY25 and become the fourth-largest economy.
▪ India's GDP grows 105% in 10 years, now at $4.3 trillion: IMF
▪ India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has grown by 105% in the last ten years, doubling from $2.1 trillion in 2015 to $4.3 trillion
in 2025.
▪ This strong growth has positioned India as the world's fifth-largest economy, behind the US, China, Germany, and Japan.
According to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), India is on track to surpass Japan by the third quarter of FY25 and could be
just behind the US and China by 2027.
▪ India's economic growth in the past decade has outpaced several major global economies. While India’s GDP increased by 105%,
the US and China saw growth of 66% and 44%, respectively. Other developed nations, such as Germany, France, and the UK,
recorded significantly lower growth rates.
▪ With Japan’s GDP currently at $4.4 trillion and showing no growth over the last decade, India is projected to overtake it within the
next year. Germany, with a GDP of $4.9 trillion, is the next target, and India is expected to surpass it by 2027, making it the third-
largest economy in the world.
▪ India’s rise to economic power has been marked by key milestones:
• In 2007, India reached its first $1 trillion GDP mark, taking 60 years to do so.
• By 2014, GDP had doubled to $2 trillion.
• Despite the COVID-19 slowdown, India crossed $3 trillion in 2021.
• The jump from $3 trillion to $4 trillion took just four years.
▪ At this pace, India could continue adding $1 trillion to its economy every 1.5 years, with projections suggesting it could become a
$10 trillion economy by 2032.
▪ Currently, the US remains the world's largest economy with a GDP of $30.3 trillion, followed by China at $19.5 trillion. If India's
rapid growth continues, it could narrow the gap with these two economic giants within the next decade

3. At the current growth rate, by what year is India expected to become a $10 trillion economy?
a) 2028
b) 2030
c) 2032
d) 2035
e) 2040
Answer: c) 2032

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Explanation: India has been adding $1 trillion to its GDP approximately every four years. If this pace accelerates to every 1.5
years, India is projected to reach a $10 trillion economy by 2032.

4. What is the primary objective of the PM-WANI scheme?

a) Providing free Wi-Fi to rural households
b) Expanding digital infrastructure through public Wi-Fi hotspots
c) Distributing Wi-Fi-enabled mobile devices
d) Providing 5G services to urban areas
e) Developing indigenous mobile phone manufacturing
Answer: b) Expanding digital infrastructure through public Wi-Fi hotspots
Explanation: The PM-WANI (Prime Minister’s Wi-Fi Access Network Interface) aims to increase internet accessibility by
setting up public Wi-Fi hotspots across the country, promoting digital inclusion.

5. As of March 20, 2025, how many PM-WANI Wi-Fi hotspots have been installed across India?
a) 1,50,000
b) 2,00,000
c) 2,78,439
d) 3,50,000
e) 5,00,000
Answer: c) 2,78,439
Explanation: The latest data shows that India has installed 2,78,439 PM-WANI Wi-Fi hotspots as of March 20, 2025, significantly
expanding internet accessibility.

6. How many candidates have been trained/oriented under the PMKVY scheme from 2015 to 2024?
a) 80 lakh
b) 1 crore
c) 1.2 crore
d) 1.6 crore
e) 2 crore
Answer: d) 1.6 crore
Explanation: Since its launch in 2015, the PMKVY scheme has trained or oriented 1,60,33,081 (1.6 crore) candidates till
December 31, 2024.

7. Which initiative under PMKVY 4.0 aims to integrate skilling, education, and employment opportunities?
a) Skill India Mission
b) Digital India Initiative
c) Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH)
d) Startup India Programme
e) PM-DAKSH Yojana
Answer: c) Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH)
Explanation: The Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH) has been launched under PMKVY 4.0 to connect skilling, education,
employment, and entrepreneurship ecosystems for trained candidates.

8. What is the primary purpose of One Stop Centres (OSCs) under the Mission Shakti scheme?
a) To provide digital literacy training for women
b) To offer legal and medical assistance to women in distress
c) To provide financial aid to female entrepreneurs
d) To promote self-defense training programs
e) To increase women’s participation in politics
Answer: b) To offer legal and medical assistance to women in distress
Explanation: One Stop Centres (OSCs) provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, including
legal aid, medical assistance, temporary shelter, and counseling.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

9. As of January 31, 2025, how many One Stop Centres (OSCs) are operational across India?
a) 500
b) 650
c) 812
d) 1,000
e) 1,200
Answer: c) 812
Explanation: A total of 812 One Stop Centres (OSCs) are operational across India as of January 31, 2025, providing crucial
support services to women.

10. Since the inception of the OSC initiative in April 2015, how many women have been assisted?
a) 5 lakh
b) 7.5 lakh
c) 10.80 lakh
d) 12 lakh
e) 15 lakh
Answer: c) 10.80 lakh
Explanation: From April 1, 2015, to January 31, 2025, over 10.80 lakh women have received assistance through One Stop
Centres (OSCs) in India.

11. What was the reference period for recording activities in the Time Use Survey 2024?
a) 12 hours
b) 18 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 36 hours
e) 48 hours
Answer: c) 24 hours
Explanation: The TUS 2024 recorded activities for a 24-hour period, from 4:00 AM on the previous day to 4:00 AM on the day
of the interview.
REPORT: TIME USE IN INDIA, 2024 (JANUARY – DECEMBER 2024)
The National Statistics Office (NSO), MoSPI completed the second all-India Time Use Survey (TUS) conducted during January –
December, 2024, following the first survey conducted during January – December, 2019.
The distinguishing feature of Time Use Survey from other household surveys is that it can capture time disposition on different
aspects of human activities. Indeed, time-use surveys are particularly useful for capturing all forms of work: work in the household
sector, as well as work that is not accounted for in national accounts, such as unpaid domestic work and caring for household
members.
The report is brought out within a span of three months from the completion of the survey work. A Fact Sheet highlighting the major
findings of the survey was brought out in the month of February, 2025.

Key Highlights of the Results of Time Use Survey (TUS), 2024

• Participation and time spent in paid activities: In the population of age 15-59 years, 74.5% male and 24.9% female
participated in paid activities spending on an average 421 minutes and 305 minutes respectively in such activities in a day.
• Participation in SNA production and non-SNA production activities: 79.2% male and 43.4% females in the age group
15-59 years participated in SNA production activities, while 45% male and 93.9% females participated in non-SNA production
activities during the reference day.
• Commuting for employment related activities: Male commuters (for employment related activities) in the age group 15-
59 years, spent 77 minutes on average in a day in commuting compared to 67 minutes spent by their female counterparts.
• Domestic and caregiving activities for household members continues to be borne by the female members of the households,
although participation of male members in such activities have increased: 26.4% male and 83.1% females participated in
domestic services for household members in normal days. In ‘other days’ (i.e., weekly off-days, holidays etc.), male and female
participation in such activities were 32.2% and 67.5% respectively.
• Use of mass media: 87.4% of younger people in the age group 15-29 years in urban areas and 73.4% in rural areas reported
to have used mass media in a day. They spent 126 minutes and 116 minutes respectively in using mass-media.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

• Time spent by children in extracurricular activities: Children in the age group 6-14 years, spent 61 minutes in
extracurricular activities while participating in such activities. Younger participants in the age group 15-29 years spent 74
minutes in a day on an average in extracurricular activities.

Features of the survey

i. In this survey, information on activity particulars was collected for each household member of age 6 years and above, with a
reference period of 24 hours starting from 4:00 AM on the day before the date of interview to 4:00 AM on the day of the interview.
The reference period of 24 hours was split into 48 time slots, each of duration of 30 minutes. In case of multiple activities in a time
slot the activities which were performed for 10 minutes or more were recorded, subject to a maximum three activities in a time slot.
ii. The activities reported by the respondents, were codified following the International Classification of Activities for Time Use
Statistics 2016 (ICATUS 2016).
iii. Information on time use was collected through Computer Assisted Personal Interviewing (CAPI).
iv. Coverage: This survey covered 1,39,487 households (rural: 83,247 and urban: 56,240). Information on time use was collected
from each member of age 6 years and above of the selected households. This survey enumerated 4,54,192 persons of age 6 years and
above (rural: 2,85,389 and urban: 1,68,803).
v. Presentation of the estimates: all-India and State level estimates for persons of age 6 years and above, obtained from the Time
Use Survey, 2024, have been presented in the Report.

Major Indicators: The major indicators generated from TUS, 2024 are described here.
Participation Rate: Participation rate in a day in any activity is calculated as the percentage of persons performing that activity
during the day.
Average Time Spent in a Day Per Participant: Average time spent in a day per participant for any activity is calculated by
considering those who participated in the activity.
Average Time Spent in a Day Per Person: Average time spent in a day per person for any activity is calculated by considering all
the persons irrespective of whether they participated in the activity or not. By this approach, distribution of total time of 1440
minutes of a day per person in different activities is derived.

12. How was the 24-hour reference period divided in the Time Use Survey 2024?
a) 24 one-hour slots
b) 30-minute intervals with a maximum of two recorded activities
c) 48 time slots of 30 minutes each
d) 12 two-hour slots
e) 60-minute intervals with a maximum of three recorded activities
Answer: c) 48 time slots of 30 minutes each
Explanation: The 24-hour reference period was divided into 48 time slots, each of 30 minutes. If multiple activities occurred
in a slot, up to three activities lasting 10 minutes or more were recorded.

13. Which international classification system was used to codify activities in the Time Use Survey 2024?
a) International Standard Classification of Occupations (ISCO)
b) International Classification of Activities for Time Use Statistics (ICATUS) 2016
c) International Labour Organization (ILO) Work Classification
d) Global Economic Time Use Index (GETUI)
e) National Household Activity Standards (NHAS)
Answer: b) International Classification of Activities for Time Use Statistics (ICATUS) 2016
Explanation: Activities in the Time Use Survey 2024 were classified according to the International Classification of Activities
for Time Use Statistics (ICATUS) 2016.

14. How many individuals aged 6 years and above were covered in the Time Use Survey 2024?
a) 3,92,157
b) 4,12,389
c) 4,54,192
d) 4,75,623
e) 5,02,145

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Answer: c) 4,54,192
Explanation: The survey covered 4,54,192 individuals aged 6 years and above, including 2,85,389 in rural areas and
1,68,803 in urban areas.

15. What is the "Participation Rate" in the Time Use Survey 2024?
a) The percentage of individuals engaged in an activity at least once a month
b) The percentage of individuals performing an activity during the reference day
c) The total number of hours spent on economic activities
d) The percentage of working-age individuals engaged in full-time work
e) The total minutes spent by individuals on a single activity
Answer: b) The percentage of individuals performing an activity during the reference day
Explanation: The Participation Rate in TUS 2024 refers to the percentage of individuals performing an activity during the
reference day.

16. How is the "Average Time Spent in a Day Per Participant" calculated in the Time Use Survey 2024?
a) By averaging the time spent by all survey respondents
b) By including only individuals who participated in an activity
c) By considering the highest and lowest time spent and calculating the median
d) By summing up all time spent and dividing by the number of households
e) By using a fixed assumption of 8 hours per working day
Answer: b) By including only individuals who participated in an activity
Explanation: The "Average Time Spent in a Day Per Participant" is calculated only for individuals who participated in the
activity, rather than all survey respondents.

17. How is the "Average Time Spent in a Day Per Person" calculated in the Time Use Survey 2024?
a) By considering all individuals, regardless of their participation in the activity
b) By counting only employed individuals
c) By focusing on specific economic sectors
d) By excluding individuals below 18 years
e) By including only household-related activities
Answer: a) By considering all individuals, regardless of their participation in the activity
Explanation: The "Average Time Spent in a Day Per Person" is calculated for all individuals, regardless of whether they
participated in the activity, helping to distribute the total 1,440 minutes of a day across various activities.

18. What was the percentage of male participation in SNA (System of National Accounts) production activities in the 15-
59 age group?
a) 45.3%
b) 62.7%
c) 74.5%
d) 79.2%
e) 83.6%
Answer: d) 79.2%
Explanation: 79.2% of males in the 15-59 age group participated in SNA production activities, which include market-based
economic activities.

19. What was the percentage of female participation in non-SNA production activities?
a) 67.2%
b) 78.5%
c) 85.4%
d) 91.1%
e) 93.9%
Answer: e) 93.9%
Explanation: 93.9% of females participated in Non-SNA production activities, which include unpaid domestic work and
caregiving.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

20. How much time did young people (15-29 years) in rural areas spend using mass media daily?
a) 96 minutes
b) 104 minutes
c) 110 minutes
d) 116 minutes
e) 126 minutes
Answer: d) 116 minutes

21. What is the range of the NREGS wage hike for FY 2025-26?
a) 1.5% - 5.2%
b) 2.33% - 7.48%
c) 3.25% - 6.85%
d) 4.1% - 8.2%
e) 5.0% - 9.0%
Answer: b) 2.33% - 7.48%
Explanation: The wage increase under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) for FY
2025-26 ranges between 2.33% and 7.48%, depending on the state.

22. Which state has the highest NREGS wage rate for FY 2025-26?
a) Punjab
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Haryana
d) Maharashtra
e) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: c) Haryana
Explanation: Haryana recorded the highest NREGS wage rate of ₹400 per day, with an absolute increase of ₹26 per day, the
highest among all states.

23. Which states recorded the lowest increase in NREGS wages?

a) Rajasthan, Bihar, West Bengal
b) Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, Telangana
c) Karnataka, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh
d) Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand
e) Maharashtra, Uttarakhand, Odisha
Answer: b) Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, Telangana
Explanation: The lowest NREGS wage hike of ₹7 per day was recorded in Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
Nagaland, and Telangana.

24. From which date will the new NREGS wage rates be effective?
a) January 1, 2025
b) March 1, 2025
c) April 1, 2025
d) May 1, 2025
e) June 1, 2025
Answer: c) April 1, 2025
Explanation: The revised NREGS wage rates will come into effect from April 1, 2025.

25. On what basis are NREGS wage rates fixed?

a) Based on state government recommendations
b) Changes in the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW)
c) Based on the Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
d) Changes in the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL)
e) Fixed annually without considering inflation
Answer: d) Changes in the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL)

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Explanation: NREGS wage rates are determined based on CPI-AL, which reflects inflation in rural areas, ensuring that wages
keep pace with the cost of living.

26. Which ministry is launching Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025?

a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA)
c) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
d) Ministry of Finance
e) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Answer: b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA)
Explanation: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is launching Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 to support Scheduled Tribe
(ST) entrepreneurs.

27. Which event will host Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025?

a) India Economic Summit 2025
b) Atma Nirbhar Bharat Startup Fest 2025
c) Startup Mahakumbh 2025
d) Global Tribal Entrepreneurs Conference 2025
e) Bharat Business Forum 2025
Answer: c) Startup Mahakumbh 2025
Explanation: Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 will be held as part of Startup Mahakumbh 2025, scheduled from April 3-5,
2025, at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.

28. Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 is part of which national celebration?

a) Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav
b) Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh
c) Startup India Mission
d) Make in India Initiative
e) Digital India Movement
Answer: b) Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh
Explanation: Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 is a flagship initiative under Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, commemorating the
150th birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda.

29. What is the corpus of the Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Tribes?
a) ₹10 crore
b) ₹25 crore
c) ₹50 crore
d) ₹75 crore
e) ₹100 crore
Answer: c) ₹50 crore
Explanation: The Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Tribes has an initial corpus of ₹50 crore, dedicated to supporting
entrepreneurship and innovation in tribal communities.

30. Which institutions are partnering with MoTA to support tribal entrepreneurs?
a) IIM Calcutta, IIT Delhi, IFCI Venture Capital Funds Limited
b) NITI Aayog, RBI, SIDBI
c) IIT Bombay, IIM Ahmedabad, NABARD
d) Ministry of Commerce, SEBI, CII
e) FICCI, World Bank, IMF
Answer: a) IIM Calcutta, IIT Delhi, IFCI Venture Capital Funds Limited
Explanation: MoTA has partnered with IIM Calcutta, IIT Delhi, IFCI Venture Capital Funds Limited, and leading industry
associations to strengthen the tribal startup ecosystem.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

31. How many ST-founded startups will participate in Startup Mahakumbh 2025?
a) 25+
b) 35+
c) 45+
d) 55+
e) 65+
Answer: c) 45+
Explanation: More than 45 startups founded by Scheduled Tribe (ST) entrepreneurs, including those incubated at IIM Calcutta,
IIM Kashipur, and IIT Bhilai, will participate in Startup Mahakumbh 2025.

32. What special initiative is MoTA launching for tribal students at Startup Mahakumbh 2025?
a) 200 tribal students to receive entrepreneurship fellowships
b) 150 tribal students to receive scholarships for startup exposure
c) 500 tribal students to be given financial aid for business setup
d) 300 students to participate in the Startup India Bootcamp
e) 100 tribal students to receive mentorship from unicorn founders
Answer: b) 150 tribal students to receive scholarships for startup exposure
Explanation: 150 tribal students will receive scholarships to gain first-hand exposure to India’s startup landscape at Startup
Mahakumbh 2025.

33. How many students from Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) will attend Startup Mahakumbh 2025?
a) 50
b) 75
c) 100
d) 125
e) 150
Answer: c) 100
Explanation: 100 students from Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) will attend Startup Mahakumbh and undergo a
special boot camp at IIT Delhi.

34. Which program will facilitate ST students to interact with entrepreneurs and investors?
a) Skill India Initiative
b) Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
c) Digital India Mission
d) Startup India Mentorship Program
e) Stand-Up India Initiative
Answer: b) Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
Explanation: 50 ST students from Unnat Bharat Abhiyan will get the opportunity to interact with entrepreneurs and
investors at Startup Mahakumbh 2025.

35. According to Tracxn, which country ranks 2nd in total funding raised by women-led startups?
A) China
B) United Kingdom
C) Germany
D) India
E) Canada
Answer: D) India
Explanation: India ranks 2nd globally after the US in total funding raised by women-led startups, with $26.4 billion in funding.

36. Which sector has received the highest funding among women-led startups in India?
A) Fintech
B) Retail
C) Enterprise Applications

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D) Edtech
E) HealthTech
Answer: B) Retail
Explanation: The retail sector attracted the most funding ($7.8 billion) among women-led startups, followed by edtech ($5.4 billion)
and enterprise applications ($5 billion).

37. Which city leads in the number of women-led startups and funding in India?
A) Mumbai
B) Delhi
C) Hyderabad
D) Chennai
E) Bengaluru
Answer: E) Bengaluru
Explanation: Bengaluru leads in the number of women-led startups and total funding raised in India.

38. In 2024, what was India’s global rank in funding for women-led startups?
A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 3rd
D) 4th
E) 5th
Answer: C) 3rd
Explanation: In 2024, India ranked 3rd globally in funding for women-led startups, after the US and the UK.

39. What is the primary objective of the Dx-EDGE initiative launched by NITI Aayog, CII, and AICTE?
A) To provide financial assistance to MSMEs
B) To support digital transformation for MSMEs
C) To improve employment opportunities in MSMEs
D) To facilitate MSME exports
E) To establish new MSME training centers
Answer: B) To support digital transformation for MSMEs
Explanation: The Digital Excellence for Growth and Enterprise (Dx-EDGE) initiative was launched to assist MSMEs in adopting
digital technologies for business growth.

40. Who launched the 2nd edition of Trade Watch Quarterly (TWQ) for Q2 FY25?
A) Nirmala Sitharaman
B) Dr. Arvind Virmani
C) Shaktikanta Das
D) Raghuram Rajan
E) Ajay Seth
Answer: B) Dr. Arvind Virmani
Explanation: Dr. Arvind Virmani launched the Trade Watch Quarterly (TWQ) for July-September 2024 (Q2 FY25).

41. As per Trade Watch Quarterly (Q2 FY25), India’s total trade grew by what percentage?
A) 2.5%
B) 4.2%
C) 5.67%
D) 6.3%
E) 7.1%
Answer: C) 5.67%
Explanation: India’s total trade grew by 5.67% to USD 839 billion in Q2 FY25.

42. What was the trade deficit with Free Trade Agreement (FTA) partners as per Trade Watch Quarterly (Q2 FY25)?
A) USD 10 billion
B) USD 18 billion
C) USD 22 billion

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

D) USD 26 billion
E) USD 30 billion
Answer: D) USD 26 billion
Explanation: The trade deficit with FTA partners reached USD 26 billion as per Trade Watch Quarterly (Q2 FY25).

43. Which of the following core industries recorded a decline in production in February 2025?
A) Coal
B) Steel
C) Cement
D) Crude Oil
E) Electricity
Answer: D) Crude Oil
Explanation: Crude oil production declined by 5.2% in February 2025 compared to February 2024.

44. What is the weightage of the Eight Core Industries in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
A) 30.45%
B) 35.62%
C) 40.27%
D) 45.19%
E) 50.21%
Answer: C) 40.27%
Explanation: The Eight Core Industries account for 40.27% of the weight in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

45. Which core industry recorded the highest growth in February 2025?
A) Fertilizers
B) Cement
C) Steel
D) Electricity
E) Refinery Products
Answer: B) Cement
Explanation: Cement production increased by 10.5% in February 2025, the highest among the eight core industries.

46. As of March 24, 2025, how many Ayushman cards had been created under the AB PM-JAY scheme?
A) 10 crore
B) 24 crore
C) 36.9 crore
D) 42 crore
E) 50 crore
Answer: C) 36.9 crore
Explanation: More than 36.9 crore Ayushman cards were created under AB PM-JAY as of March 24, 2025.

47. In March 2024, the eligibility criteria under AB PM-JAY were expanded to include which category?
A) Farmers
B) MSME workers
C) Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) and Anganwadi Workers (AWWs)
D) Senior citizens above 80 years
E) Private school teachers
Answer: C) Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) and Anganwadi Workers (AWWs)
Explanation: In March 2024, the government included 37 lakh ASHAs, Anganwadi Workers (AWWs), and Anganwadi Helpers
(AWHs) under AB PM-JAY.

48. In October 2024, AB PM-JAY coverage was expanded to provide free treatment benefits to which group?
A) Women below the poverty line
B) Government employees

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

C) Senior citizens aged 70 years and above

D) People with disabilities
E) Daily wage laborers
Answer: C) Senior citizens aged 70 years and above
Explanation: On October 29, 2024, the government expanded AB PM-JAY to cover approximately 6 crore senior citizens aged 70
years and above.

49. What is the annual treatment benefit provided under AB PM-JAY?

A) ₹1 lakh
B) ₹2 lakh
C) ₹3 lakh
D) ₹5 lakh
E) ₹10 lakh
Answer: D) ₹5 lakh
Explanation: Under AB PM-JAY, eligible beneficiaries receive up to ₹5 lakh per year for secondary and tertiary healthcare services.

50. Which of the following is NOT an initiative taken to increase private hospital participation in AB PM-JAY?
A) Introduction of a revised Health Benefit Package (HBP)
B) Hospital-specific call center (14413)
C) Virtual and physical capacity-building of hospitals
D) Direct government funding to private hospitals for infrastructure development
E) Monitoring claim settlements at the highest level
Answer: D) Direct government funding to private hospitals for infrastructure development
Explanation: The government has taken several steps to encourage private hospitals to participate in AB PM-JAY, but direct
infrastructure funding is not one of them.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Banking and Finance MCQs

51. How much unclaimed deposit amount has been transferred to the DEA Fund by public sector banks between 2019-
20 and 2024-25?
A) ₹30,000 crore
B) ₹35,000 crore
C) ₹40,000 crore
D) ₹45,000 crore
E) ₹50,000 crore
Answer: D) ₹45,000 crore
Explanation: The Ministry of Finance reported that public sector banks transferred ₹45,000 crore in unclaimed deposits to the DEA
Fund during this period.

52. RBI launched which portal in 2023 to help users search for unclaimed deposits?
A) DAKSH
B) UDGAM
C) SAMBHAV
D) SUVIDHA
E) SAHAJ
Answer: B) UDGAM
Explanation: The RBI’s UDGAM portal, launched in 2023, allows users to search for unclaimed deposits across 30 banks.

53. The Equalisation Levy (EL) on online advertisements in India will be abolished from which date?
A) April 1, 2024
B) April 1, 2025
C) April 1, 2026
D) March 31, 2025
E) March 31, 2026
Answer: B) April 1, 2025
Explanation: The Government of India has proposed abolishing the 6% Equalisation Levy on online advertisements from April 1,
2025, to prevent retaliatory tariffs from the US.

54. Which country had imposed retaliatory tariffs on India due to the Equalisation Levy?
A) China
B) United Kingdom
C) United States
D) France
E) Germany
Answer: C) United States
Explanation: The US had raised concerns over India’s Equalisation Levy, leading to the decision to abolish it.

55. India and Japan signed loan agreements worth ₹9,800 crore for projects in which of the following states?
A) Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Assam, Punjab, and Chennai
B) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, and Assam
C) Karnataka, Kerala, West Bengal, Punjab, and Assam
D) Rajasthan, Delhi, Assam, Telangana, and Tamil Nadu
E) Odisha, Delhi, Assam, Gujarat, and Punjab
Answer: A) Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Assam, Punjab, and Chennai
Explanation: The loan agreements were signed for projects in Tamil Nadu, Delhi Metro, Assam, Punjab, and Chennai Seawater
Desalination.

56. What does the ADB-funded SMILE program aim to improve in India?
A) Digital banking infrastructure
B) Logistics efficiency and multimodal connectivity

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

C) MSME credit availability

D) Renewable energy sector
E) Financial literacy in rural areas
Answer: B) Logistics efficiency and multimodal connectivity
Explanation: The SMILE Program aims to enhance logistics infrastructure, reduce costs, and improve trade efficiency under the
National Logistics Policy and PM Gati Shakti.

57. Which of the following is NOT a key focus area of the SMILE program?
A) Standardizing warehousing infrastructure
B) Strengthening multimodal logistics
C) Promoting digitalization in trade logistics
D) Expanding microfinance services in rural India
E) Enhancing efficiency in external trade logistics
Answer: D) Expanding microfinance services in rural India
Explanation: The SMILE program focuses on logistics, warehousing, trade efficiency, and digitalization but does not directly address
microfinance.

58. Which financial index ranks GIFT City among the top 15 financial centers in the Asia-Pacific region?
A) Global Financial Competitiveness Index
B) World Bank Financial Stability Index
C) Global Financial Centres Index (GFCI)
D) International Financial Development Index
E) OECD Financial Ranking
Answer: C) Global Financial Centres Index (GFCI)
Explanation: GIFT City’s ranking improved in GFCI 37, securing a position among the top 15 financial centers in the Asia-Pacific
region.

59. In the latest Global Financial Centres Index (GFCI 37), what was GIFT City’s ranking in fintech?
A) 30th
B) 35th
C) 40th
D) 45th
E) 50th
Answer: C) 40th
Explanation: GIFT City climbed from 45th to 40th in the fintech ranking of the GFCI 37 report.

60. IREDA secured a JPY 26 billion loan from SBI Tokyo under which type of funding arrangement?
A) Sovereign Loan
B) Green Bond
C) External Commercial Borrowing (ECB)
D) Bilateral Trade Agreement
E) Venture Capital Funding
Answer: C) External Commercial Borrowing (ECB)
Explanation: IREDA obtained a JPY 26 billion loan from SBI Tokyo under a 5-year ECB agreement to support renewable energy
funding.

61. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India signed an MoU with which organization to enhance audit
processes using AI, ML, and big data analytics?
A) ISRO
B) BISAG-N
C) NITI Aayog
D) NIC
E) CSIR
Answer: B) BISAG-N
Explanation: The CAG signed an MoU with BISAG-N to improve audit processes by leveraging AI, ML, and big data analytics.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

62. Where was the 3rd edition of Sourcex India 2025 inaugurated?
A) Mumbai
B) New Delhi
C) Kolkata
D) Bangalore
E) Hyderabad
Answer: B) New Delhi
Explanation: The 3rd edition of Sourcex India 2025 was inaugurated at the Yashobhoomi Convention Centre, New Delhi.

63. Who is the Director General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) who inaugurated Sourcex India 2025?
A) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
B) Santosh Kumar Sarangi
C) Nirmala Sitharaman
D) Piyush Goyal
E) Ramesh Abhishek
Answer: B) Santosh Kumar Sarangi
Explanation: Santosh Kumar Sarangi, the Director General of Foreign Trade, inaugurated Sourcex India 2025.

64. Who has been appointed as India’s new Finance Secretary?

A) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
B) Ajay Seth
C) Nirmala Sitharaman
D) Subhash Chandra Garg
E) Shaktikanta Das
Answer: B) Ajay Seth
Explanation: Ajay Seth, a 1987-batch IAS officer, has been appointed as India’s new Finance Secretary.

65. Which foreign currency is accepted for HDFC Bank's ‘Diplomat or Embassy Fixed Deposit’?
A) Euro
B) Japanese Yen
C) US Dollar
D) British Pound
E) Swiss Franc
Answer: C) US Dollar
Explanation: HDFC Bank's ‘Diplomat or Embassy Fixed Deposit’ is available only in US Dollars.

66. Who has been appointed as the Managing Director and CEO of IFCI Ltd.?
A) Rahul Bhave
B) Amit Kumar
C) Sanjay Gupta
D) Ramesh Kumar
E) Nirmal Singh
Answer: A) Rahul Bhave
Explanation: Rahul Bhave has been appointed as the Managing Director and CEO of IFCI Ltd.

67. Which of the following factors contributed to the surge in External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) inflows in 2024-
25?
A) Higher interest rates
B) Lower global benchmark interest rates
C) Strengthening of the Indian Rupee
D) Increased foreign investments
E) Reduction in inflation
Answer: B) Lower global benchmark interest rates
Explanation: The surge in ECB inflows was driven by lower global benchmark interest rates, which reduced ECB costs.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

68. AU Small Finance Bank raised ₹770 crore via which type of bonds?
A) Tier-I Bonds
B) Convertible Bonds
C) Tier-II Bonds
D) Corporate Bonds
E) Green Bonds
Answer: C) Tier-II Bonds
Explanation: AU Small Finance Bank raised ₹770 crore through 10-year Tier-II Bonds at a coupon rate of 9.2%.

69. What is the primary objective of the High-Level Committee set up by SEBI?
A) To review the RBI’s monetary policy
B) To evaluate financial products for retail investors
C) To review governance rules, conflict of interest, and disclosure obligations for top officials
D) To improve banking sector regulations
E) To enhance corporate tax compliance
Answer: C) To review governance rules, conflict of interest, and disclosure obligations for top officials
Explanation: SEBI set up the High-Level Committee to review governance, conflict of interest, and disclosure rules for top officials.

70. Which of the following is NOT a partner in the skill development initiative for the BFSI sector under PayPal’s CSR
initiative?
A) NSDC
B) RBI
C) PayPal
D) Multiple Indian cities
E) FICCI
Answer: B) RBI
Explanation: The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) and PayPal have partnered to provide skill development in the
BFSI sector, but RBI is not directly involved in this partnership.

71. Which bank has partnered with NIACL to offer various insurance solutions to its customers?
A) Bank of India
B) HDFC Bank
C) State Bank of India
D) ICICI Bank
E) Axis Bank
Answer: A) Bank of India
Explanation: Bank of India has partnered with NIACL to offer insurance solutions, including health, motor, personal accident, home,
and commercial insurance products.

72. Where was the 3rd session of the India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee (JTC) held?
A) Kampala
B) New Delhi
C) Mumbai
D) Nairobi
E) Addis Ababa
Answer: B) New Delhi
Explanation: The 3rd session of the India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee was held in New Delhi on 25th-26th March 2025.

73. What was the key objective of the 3rd session of the India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee?
A) To discuss defense cooperation
B) To enhance bilateral trade and economic collaboration
C) To finalize trade agreements for minerals only
D) To discuss tourism opportunities
E) To introduce a free trade agreement

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Answer: B) To enhance bilateral trade and economic collaboration

Explanation: The session aimed to enhance, deepen, and diversify the bilateral trade between India and Uganda, addressing various
sectors like minerals, agriculture, and infrastructure.

74. Which of the following was NOT a key area discussed for enhancing cooperation between India and Uganda?
A) Electric vehicles
B) Dairy products
C) Artificial Intelligence
D) Critical minerals including Rare Earth Elements
E) Pharmaceuticals
Answer: C) Artificial Intelligence
Explanation: Key areas discussed included minerals, agriculture, electric vehicles, and pharmaceuticals, but Artificial Intelligence
was not a focus of this session.

75. What significant provision does the Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024, allow?
A) Provides unlimited nominees for bank accounts
B) Raises the threshold for ‘substantial interest’ from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore
C) Increases the tenure of bank directors to 15 years
D) Eliminates KYC requirements for all account holders
E) Reduces the limit for ‘substantial interest’
Answer: B) Raises the threshold for ‘substantial interest’ from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore
Explanation: The Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024, raises the threshold for ‘substantial interest’ in banks from ₹5 lakh to ₹2
crore.

76. What is the primary purpose of the $150 million loan agreement signed between ADB and Shriram Finance?
A) To support large-scale infrastructure projects
B) To improve access to finance for MSMEs and promote electric vehicle adoption
C) To fund renewable energy initiatives
D) To enhance agricultural exports
E) To support the construction of new banking infrastructure
Answer: B) To improve access to finance for MSMEs and promote electric vehicle adoption
Explanation: The loan aims to improve access to finance for MSMEs and support the adoption of electric vehicles in India, in line
with the country’s EV30@30 initiative.

77. Which of the following banks was fined by the RBI for KYC non-compliance?
A) HDFC Bank
B) ICICI Bank
C) Punjab National Bank
D) Axis Bank
E) Bank of India
Answer: A) HDFC Bank
Explanation: HDFC Bank was fined ₹75 lakh by the RBI for failing to comply with KYC regulations.

78. Which of the following banks was penalized ₹68.20 lakh by the RBI for failing to comply with financial regulations?
A) Punjab & Sind Bank
B) ICICI Bank
C) State Bank of India
D) Bank of Baroda
E) Canara Bank
Answer: A) Punjab & Sind Bank
Explanation: The RBI imposed a penalty of ₹68.20 lakh on Punjab & Sind Bank for non-compliance with financial regulations.

79. What is the new development regarding the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS) from March 2025?
A) The government has introduced long-term gold deposits
B) Medium and long-term gold deposits under the GMS are discontinued

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

C) Short-term deposits are discontinued

D) The scheme has been scrapped entirely
E) The GMS will now accept gold in the form of jewelry
Answer: B) Medium and long-term gold deposits under the GMS are discontinued
Explanation: The Indian government decided to discontinue Medium-Term (5-7 years) and Long-Term (12-15 years) deposits under
the Gold Monetisation Scheme from March 2025.

80. What will continue under the Gold Monetisation Scheme after the discontinuation of medium and long-term
deposits?
A) Short-Term Bank Deposit (1-3 years)
B) Long-Term Gold Deposits
C) Medium-Term Gold Deposits
D) Short-Term and Long-Term Gold Deposits
E) Gold Jewelry Deposits
Answer: A) Short-Term Bank Deposit (1-3 years)
Explanation: The Short-Term Bank Deposit (1-3 years) under the Gold Monetisation Scheme will continue even after the
discontinuation of medium and long-term gold deposits.

81. What is the focus of the $150 million loan agreement between ADB and Shriram Finance?
A) Support for electric vehicles and women entrepreneurs
B) Funding for large-scale infrastructure projects
C) Support for renewable energy projects
D) Loans for MSMEs in the agriculture sector
E) Promoting digital banking initiatives
Answer: A) Support for electric vehicles and women entrepreneurs
Explanation: The loan aims to provide financial support to MSMEs with a focus on electric vehicle financing and women
entrepreneurs.

82. What new guideline has SEBI issued for intraday index derivative monitoring?
A) Eliminating position limits for index derivatives
B) Mandating stock exchanges to monitor intraday position limits
C) Reducing the monitoring frequency for intraday positions
D) Allowing higher position limits for index derivatives
E) Introducing a new tax on index derivatives
Answer: B) Mandating stock exchanges to monitor intraday position limits
Explanation: SEBI has mandated stock exchanges to monitor intraday position limits for index derivatives, with a minimum of four
position snapshots during trading hours.

83. How much loan did the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) raise from SBI Tokyo for renewable
energy projects?
A) ₹1,476 crore
B) ₹26 billion
C) ₹2,500 crore
D) ₹50 billion
E) ₹1,200 crore
Answer: A) ₹1,476 crore
Explanation: IREDA raised JPY 26 billion (₹1,476 crore) from SBI Tokyo to fund renewable energy projects.

84. Which organization signed six Official Development Assistance (ODA) loans with India?
A) ADB
B) World Bank
C) JICA
D) IMF
E) AIIB

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Answer: C) JICA
Explanation: Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) signed six ODA loans with India to support projects like Delhi Metro
expansion and seawater desalination.

85. Which country has become the 11th member of the BRICS-backed New Development Bank (NDB)?
A) Japan
B) Indonesia
C) South Korea
D) Mexico
E) Argentina
Answer: B) Indonesia
Explanation: Indonesia has joined the BRICS-backed New Development Bank (NDB), becoming its 11th member.

86. Which bank was fined ₹75 lakh by the RBI for KYC non-compliance?
A) HDFC Bank
B) ICICI Bank
C) Punjab & Sind Bank
D) Bank of Baroda
E) Axis Bank
Answer: A) HDFC Bank
Explanation: HDFC Bank was fined ₹75 lakh by the RBI for non-compliance with KYC regulations.

87. What is the new feature introduced by Zuno General Insurance in its motor insurance products?
A) Electric vehicle insurance
B) No-claim bonus
C) Pay-How-You-Drive (PHYD)
D) Comprehensive accident coverage
E) Family insurance coverage
Answer: C) Pay-How-You-Drive (PHYD)
Explanation: Zuno General Insurance introduced Pay-How-You-Drive (PHYD) as a standard feature, using mobile telematics to
track driving habits and offer personalized premiums.

88. Which company has received in-principle approval from SEBI to launch a mutual fund business?
A) Aditya Birla Capital
B) HDFC Asset Management
C) ASK Group
D) ICICI Prudential
E) Reliance Mutual Fund
Answer: C) ASK Group
Explanation: SEBI granted in-principle approval to ASK Group, backed by Blackstone Inc., to launch its Mutual Fund business.

89. What new business did MobiKwik launch in the financial sector?
A) MobiKwik Payments Gateway
B) MobiKwik Securities Broking Private Limited (MSBPL)
C) MobiKwik Insurance
D) MobiKwik Digital Banking
E) MobiKwik Wealth Management
Answer: B) MobiKwik Securities Broking Private Limited (MSBPL)
Explanation: MobiKwik entered the stock broking and derivatives trading business by launching MobiKwik Securities Broking
Private Limited (MSBPL).

90. What is the new AI-powered solution launched by Poonawalla Fincorp in collaboration with IIT Bombay?
A) AI-based customer service system
B) AI-driven underwriting system
C) AI-based financial advisory tool

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

D) AI-powered investment platform

E) AI-backed fraud detection system
Answer: B) AI-driven underwriting system
Explanation: Poonawalla Fincorp collaborated with IIT Bombay to develop an AI-powered underwriting system to enhance
financial decision-making.

91. What is the revised GDP growth forecast for India for FY26 according to S&P Global?
A) 6.3%
B) 6.5%
C) 6.7%
D) 7.0%
E) 6.8%
Answer: B) 6.5%
Explanation: S&P Global revised India’s GDP growth forecast for FY26 to 6.5%, down from the earlier projection of 6.7%.

92. Which organizations has SIDBI partnered with to support textile MSMEs?
A) ICAI and FICCI
B) CMAI and SICS
C) FISME and CII
D) AIMA and CII
E) DICCI and SMESAC
Answer: B) CMAI and SICS
Explanation: SIDBI signed MoUs with the Clothing Manufacturers’ Association of India (CMAI) and Sachin Industrial Co-operative
Society (SICS) to provide collateral-free loans for MSMEs in the textile sector.

93. What benefit does the ‘Shaurya Salary Account’ offer to IAF personnel?
A) High interest rate on savings
B) Zero-balance salary account with insurance benefits
C) Free insurance coverage for family
D) Higher pension payouts
E) Discounted loans
Answer: B) Zero-balance salary account with insurance benefits
Explanation: Bandhan Bank’s 'Shaurya Salary Account' offers a zero-balance account for IAF personnel, veterans, and families,
along with insurance benefits, special interest rates, and pension processing support.

94. What technology is used in Poonawalla Fincorp's new AI-powered credit solution?
A) Blockchain and AI
B) Neural Networks and Big Data
C) Large Language Models (LLMs) and Machine Learning (ML)
D) Cloud computing and AI
E) Predictive Analytics and AI
Answer: C) Large Language Models (LLMs) and Machine Learning (ML)
Explanation: Poonawalla Fincorp developed an AI-powered underwriting solution using Large Language Models (LLMs) and
Machine Learning (ML) to automate credit decision-making.

95. What is the interest rate change for small savings schemes in Q1FY26?
A) Reduced by 0.5%
B) Increased by 0.25%
C) Retained at the same level
D) Increased by 1%
E) Reduced by 1%
Answer: C) Retained at the same level
Explanation: The Ministry of Finance retained the interest rates for small savings schemes for April-June 2025, unchanged for five
consecutive quarters.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

96. What is the maximum loan amount that Luminous Power Technologies is offering under its solar financing
partnership with SBI?
A) ₹2 crore
B) ₹5 crore
C) ₹10 crore
D) ₹20 crore
E) ₹50 crore
Answer: C) ₹10 crore
Explanation: Luminous Power Technologies partnered with SBI to offer solar loan financing, with customers eligible for loans up to
₹10 crore, repayable over 10 years.

97. What is the unique feature of Axis Bank's partnership with JP Morgan for USD payments?
A) Real-time dollar clearing via blockchain
B) Offline dollar payment system
C) Cross-border payments through Swift
D) USD payments via mobile app
E) USD payment through cryptocurrency
Answer: A) Real-time dollar clearing via blockchain
Explanation: Axis Bank and JP Morgan have partnered to offer 24x7 USD payments using the blockchain-based Kinexys platform,
enabling real-time dollar clearing.

Which component of the Gold Monetisation Scheme did the government discontinue from March 26, 2025?
A) Short-Term Deposit
B) Long-Term Government Deposit (LTGD)
C) Medium-Term and Long-Term Government Deposit (MLTGD)
D) Gold Investment Bonds
E) Sovereign Gold Bonds

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Answer: C) Medium-Term and Long-Term Government Deposit (MLTGD)

Explanation: The government discontinued the Medium-Term and Long-Term Government Deposit (MLTGD) components of the Gold
Monetisation Scheme from March 26, 2025.
Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS)
The Union Government has decided to discontinue the Medium-Term and Long-Term Government Deposit (MLTGD) components
of the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS) based on its performance. However, banks may continue to offer Short-Term Bank
Deposits (STBD) under the scheme. Additionally, the Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB) scheme was also discontinued earlier.

GMS Overview:
• GMS combines the earlier Gold Deposit Scheme and Gold Metal Loan scheme, launched on 15th September 2015. It aims to
reduce India’s reliance on gold imports and mobilize gold held by households and institutions into the formal economy.

Components of GMS:
1. Short-Term Bank Deposit (1-3 years): Variable interest rate, determined by banks.
2. Medium-Term Government Deposit (5-7 years): 2.25% interest rate.
3. Long-Term Government Deposit (12-15 years): 2.5% interest rate.

Interest Rates Under GMS:

• MLTGD: Interest rate is decided by the Union Government in consultation with the RBI.
• Short-Term Deposits: Interest rate is determined by the banks.

Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB):

• Introduced in 2015 to reduce demand for physical gold and channel savings into financial instruments.
• Offers 2.5% interest on initial investment, with interest credited semi-annually.

98. What is the maximum loan amount SBI and Luminous Power Technologies are offering for solar financing?
A) ₹5 crore
B) ₹7 crore
C) ₹10 crore
D) ₹15 crore
E) ₹20 crore
Answer: C) ₹10 crore
Explanation: SBI and Luminous Power Technologies are offering loans up to ₹10 crore for MSMEs, corporates, and institutions to
finance solar energy projects.

99. What is the purpose of Bank of Baroda’s mDigiNext app?

A) Track stock market trends
B) Manage personal finances
C) Address corporate cash management needs
D) Monitor government bond investments
E) Apply for personal loans
Answer: C) Address corporate cash management needs
Explanation: Bank of Baroda launched the mDigiNext app to help corporate customers with cash management, providing features
like transaction creation, authorisation, and real-time inquiries.

100. Which country now accounts for the largest share of remittances to India according to RBI’s survey?
A) UAE
B) Canada
C) US
D) UK
E) Australia

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Answer: C) US
Explanation: According to RBI’s 6th round of the remittances survey, the US now holds the largest share of remittances to India,
accounting for 27.7%.

101. What change did SEBI make regarding foreign portfolio investor (FPI) disclosures?
A) Lowered the investment threshold for disclosures
B) Increased the disclosure frequency
C) Doubled the investment threshold for disclosures
D) Eliminated the disclosure requirement
E) Reduced the disclosure requirement
Answer: C) Doubled the investment threshold for disclosures
Explanation: SEBI has approved a proposal to double the investment threshold for FPI disclosures from ₹25,000 crore to ₹50,000
crore.

102. What was the total GST collection for March 2025, making it the second-highest ever recorded?
A) ₹1.76 lakh crore
B) ₹2.05 lakh crore
C) ₹1.96 lakh crore
D) ₹1.85 lakh crore
E) ₹1.90 lakh crore
Answer: C) ₹1.96 lakh crore
Explanation:
India’s GST collections for March 2025 reached ₹1.96 lakh crore, making it the second-highest collection after April 2024. This
increase was driven by an 8.8% rise in domestic revenue and a 13.6% growth in import revenue. The net GST revenue stood at ₹1.76
lakh crore, reflecting a 7.3% year-on-year growth, highlighting strong tax compliance and economic stability.
GST Collections so far Month

March 2025 Rs.1.96 lakh crore

February 2025 Rs.1.83 lakh crore

January 2025 Rs. 1.95 lakh crore

December 2024 Rs 1.77 lakh crore

November 2024 Rs 1.82 lakh crore

October 2024 Rs 1.87 lakh crore

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

RBI Circulars and RBI in news MCQs

102. What is the increased loan limit for education under the revised PSL guidelines by RBI?
A) ₹20 lakh
B) ₹25 lakh
C) ₹30 lakh
D) ₹35 lakh
E) ₹40 lakh
Answer: B) ₹25 lakh
Explanation: The loan limit for education under PSL has been increased from ₹20 lakh to ₹25 lakh per individual, improving access
to higher education.
RBI Revises Priority Sector Lending (PSL) Guidelines
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The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced new Priority Sector Lending (PSL) guidelines, effective April 1, 2025. Changes include
enhanced loan limits, expanded eligibility for renewable energy loans, and revised targets for Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs) at
60% of ANBC or CEOBSE. Loans to individual women beneficiaries no longer have a cap, and financial institutions failing to meet PSL
targets must contribute to the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF).
✓ Revised Priority Sector Lending (PSL) Guidelines 2025 – Key Updates by RBI
✓ The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced revised Priority Sector Lending (PSL) guidelines under the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949. These updates are aimed at enhancing credit flow to priority sectors and promoting inclusive growth
in the Indian economy.

➢ Key Changes in PSL Guidelines (2025)

1. Higher Loan Limits for Education
• The loan limit for education under PSL has been increased from ₹20 lakh to ₹25 lakh per individual, improving
access to higher education.
2. Renewable Energy Loans
• Loan limits for renewable energy projects (e.g., solar power, biomass, and micro-hydel plants) raised from ₹30 crore to
₹35 crore per borrower.
• Loans for individual households for renewable energy remain capped at ₹10 lakh per borrower.
3. Revised PSL Targets for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs)
• The PSL target for UCBs has been reduced to 60% (from 75%) of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit
Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE), whichever is higher.
4. Increased Housing Loan Limits
• Specific loan limits for housing have been set: Rs 50 lakh for centers with populations of 50 lakh and above, Rs 45 lakh for
centers with populations between 10 and 50 lakh, and Rs 35 lakh for centers with populations below 10 lakh. Maximum
dwelling unit costs have also been defined.
5. Expansion of the ‘Weaker Sections’ Category
• The RBI has expanded the list of eligible borrowers under the ‘Weaker Sections’ category to include transgenders,
promoting financial inclusion and ensuring better credit access for underprivileged communities.

➢ Understanding Priority Sector Lending (PSL)

✓ What is PSL?
Priority Sector Lending (PSL) is an RBI-mandated policy requiring banks to allocate a fixed percentage of their loans to
sectors that face credit shortages but are crucial for inclusive growth.
What are Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs)?
• PSLCs are tradable certificates issued against priority sector loans, allowing banks to meet PSL targets through market-
based instruments.

❖ Evolution of Priority Sector Lending

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

• Gadgil Committee (1969) proposed the 'Area Approach', leading to the Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) for regional credit
planning.
• Nariman Committee (1969) supported the Gadgil Committee and recommended that each Public Sector Bank adopt
specific districts as Lead Banks to strengthen PSL.
• PSL was formalized in 1972 following the RBI’s Informal Study Group report (1971).
• Initial PSL targets (1974): Banks were advised to increase PSL to 33.3% by 1979.
• Krishnaswamy Committee (1980) recommended a 40% PSL target by 1985, with sub-targets for agriculture and
weaker sections.
• Usha Thorat Committee (2009) endorsed the continuation of LBS due to its role in expanding PSL.

❖ PSL Targets for Banks (2025)

Bank Category PSL Target

Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) & Foreign Banks (with ≥ 20 40% of ANBC or CEOBE, whichever is higher
branches in India)

Foreign Banks (with < 20 branches in India) 40% of ANBC or CEOBE (Export Credit: Min. 32%,
Non-Export: 8%)

Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) & Small Finance Banks (SFBs) 75% of ANBC or CEOBE, whichever is higher

❖ Consequences for Missing PSL Targets

• Banks failing to meet PSL targets must contribute to the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) and other
designated funds at fixed interest rates, ensuring funds still reach priority sectors.
• Foreign banks (with < 20 branches in India) cannot buy PSLC General to meet their 8% non-export target, but they
can purchase PSLCs for Agriculture, MSMEs, and Small & Marginal Farmers.
These revised PSL guidelines for 2025 aim to improve financial access, support economic development, and strengthen
priority sector lending in India.

103. What is the revised loan limit for renewable energy projects under the PSL guidelines for 2025?
A) ₹30 crore
B) ₹35 crore
C) ₹40 crore
D) ₹50 crore
E) ₹60 crore
Answer: B) ₹35 crore
Explanation: The loan limit for renewable energy projects such as solar power, biomass, and micro-hydel plants has been raised
from ₹30 crore to ₹35 crore per borrower under the revised PSL guidelines.

104. What is the new PSL target for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) under the revised guidelines?
A) 60% of ANBC or CEOBE
B) 65% of ANBC or CEOBE
C) 70% of ANBC or CEOBE
D) 75% of ANBC or CEOBE
E) 80% of ANBC or CEOBE
Answer: A) 60% of ANBC or CEOBE
Explanation: The PSL target for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) has been revised to 60% of ANBC or CEOBE, down from the
previous target of 75%.

105. What is the new PSL loan limit for housing in centers with populations of 50 lakh and above?
A) ₹35 lakh
B) ₹40 lakh
C) ₹45 lakh

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

D) ₹50 lakh
E) ₹60 lakh
Answer: D) ₹50 lakh
Explanation: Under the new PSL guidelines, the loan limit for housing has been set at ₹50 lakh for centers with populations of 50
lakh and above.

106. Which new category has been added to the "Weaker Sections" under the revised PSL guidelines?
A) Women entrepreneurs
B) Transgenders
C) Rural artisans
D) Fishermen
E) Tribal populations
Answer: B) Transgenders
Explanation: The RBI has expanded the list of eligible borrowers under the ‘Weaker Sections’ category to include transgenders,
promoting financial inclusion.

107. What is the PSL target for Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) and Foreign Banks with ≥ 20 branches in India?
A) 30% of ANBC or CEOBE
B) 35% of ANBC or CEOBE
C) 40% of ANBC or CEOBE
D) 45% of ANBC or CEOBE
E) 50% of ANBC or CEOBE
Answer: C) 40% of ANBC or CEOBE
Explanation: Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) and Foreign Banks with ≥ 20 branches in India are required to maintain 40% of
ANBC or CEOBE for Priority Sector Lending (PSL).

108. What will happen if banks fail to meet their PSL targets?
A) They will be fined a fixed amount
B) They will be required to contribute to the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)
C) They will face closure
D) They will be required to reduce interest rates for priority sector loans
E) They will be banned from further lending
Answer: B) They will be required to contribute to the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)
Explanation: Banks that fail to meet their PSL targets must contribute to the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) and
other designated funds to ensure that credit continues to flow to priority sectors.

109. What is the PSL target for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Small Finance Banks (SFBs) as per the revised
guidelines?
A) 50% of ANBC or CEOBE
B) 60% of ANBC or CEOBE
C) 70% of ANBC or CEOBE
D) 75% of ANBC or CEOBE
E) 80% of ANBC or CEOBE
Answer: D) 75% of ANBC or CEOBE
Explanation: Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Small Finance Banks (SFBs) have a higher PSL target of 75% of ANBC or CEOBE,
ensuring a significant focus on priority sectors.

110. Which of the following is true about the revised PSL guidelines for individual households seeking renewable energy
loans?
A) Loan limit is capped at ₹5 lakh
B) Loan limit is capped at ₹10 lakh
C) Loan limit is capped at ₹15 lakh
D) No loan cap is specified for renewable energy loans
E) Loan cap is ₹20 lakh

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Answer: B) Loan limit is capped at ₹10 lakh

Explanation: Loans for individual households for renewable energy projects remain capped at ₹10 lakh per borrower under the
revised PSL guidelines.

111. What is the new PSL loan limit for housing in centers with populations between 10 lakh and 50 lakh?
A) ₹30 lakh
B) ₹35 lakh
C) ₹40 lakh
D) ₹45 lakh
E) ₹50 lakh
Answer: B) ₹35 lakh
Explanation: The PSL guidelines set a housing loan limit of ₹35 lakh for centers with populations between 10 lakh and 50 lakh.

112. What is the PSL target for Foreign Banks with fewer than 20 branches in India?
A) 40% of ANBC or CEOBE
B) 30% of ANBC or CEOBE
C) 20% of ANBC or CEOBE
D) 10% of ANBC or CEOBE
E) 50% of ANBC or CEOBE
Answer: A) 40% of ANBC or CEOBE
Explanation: Foreign Banks with fewer than 20 branches in India are also required to maintain a PSL target of 40% of ANBC or
CEOBE.

113. The 8th State Level Coordination Committee (SLCC) meeting by RBI was held in which city?
A) Gangtok
B) Shillong
C) Kolkata
D) Guwahati
E) Silliguri
Answer: A) Gangtok
Explanation: The 8th State Level Coordination Committee (SLCC) meeting was held in Gangtok, Sikkim, on March 26, 2025.

114. As per the RBI's recent announcement, what is the revised fee for financial transactions (cash withdrawals) at
ATMs?
A) ₹17
B) ₹18
C) ₹19
D) ₹20
E) ₹21
Answer: C) ₹19
Explanation: The RBI has increased the ATM interchange fee for financial transactions (cash withdrawals) to ₹19, up from ₹17.

115. How many free ATM transactions can metro area customers make at other banks per month as per the new RBI
revision?
A) 3 free transactions
B) 4 free transactions
C) 5 free transactions
D) 6 free transactions
E) 7 free transactions
Answer: C) 5 free transactions
Explanation: Customers in metro areas can make 5 free ATM transactions at other banks per month.

116. What is the extended amortization period for pension liabilities granted to Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) by the
RBI?
A) 3 years
B) 5 years

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

C) 7 years
D) 10 years
E) 15 years
Answer: B) 5 years
Explanation: The RBI has extended the amortization period for RRBs to an additional 5 years from FY25 to absorb the additional
expenditure arising from the revision in pensions.

117. From which date are Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) mandated to implement the pension scheme as per the RBI
guidelines?
A) November 1, 2000
B) November 1, 1995
C) November 1, 1993
D) January 1, 1990
E) March 1, 2000
Answer: C) November 1, 1993
Explanation: The RBI has mandated that RRBs implement the pension scheme retroactively from November 1, 1993.

118. What is the minimum annual allocation required from RRBs towards pension liability as per the RBI's extended
guidelines?
A) 10% of total pension liability
B) 15% of total pension liability
C) 20% of total pension liability
D) 25% of total pension liability
E) 30% of total pension liability
Answer: C) 20% of total pension liability
Explanation: RRBs are required to allocate at least 20% of total pension liability annually under the revised guidelines.

119. RBI has allowed standalone primary dealers (SPDs) to participate in which of the following operations?
A) Only overnight repo operations
B) Only long-term Variable Rate Repo operations
C) All repo operations, irrespective of the tenor
D) Only Marginal Standing Facility
E) Only daily Variable Rate Repo operations
Answer: C) All repo operations, irrespective of the tenor
Explanation: RBI has now allowed SPDs to participate in all repo operations, irrespective of the tenor, conducted by the central
bank.

120. What is the new aggregate liquidity limit for standalone primary dealers (SPDs) under the Standing Liquidity
Facility, effective from April 2, 2025?
A) ₹10,000 crore
B) ₹12,000 crore
C) ₹15,000 crore
D) ₹20,000 crore
E) ₹25,000 crore
Answer: C) ₹15,000 crore
Explanation: RBI has increased the aggregate liquidity limit for SPDs under the Standing Liquidity Facility to ₹15,000 crore,
effective from April 2, 2025.

121. What is the limit for Ways and Means Advances (WMA) for the Government of India for the first half of FY2025-26
(April to September 2025)?
A) ₹1,00,000 crore
B) ₹1,50,000 crore
C) ₹2,00,000 crore
D) ₹2,50,000 crore
E) ₹3,00,000 crore

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Answer: B) ₹1,50,000 crore

Explanation: The WMA limit for the Government of India for the first half of FY2025-26 has been set at ₹1,50,000 crore.

122. At what point does the RBI trigger the fresh floatation of market loans for the Government of India?
A) When 50% of the WMA limit is utilized
B) When 75% of the WMA limit is utilized
C) When 100% of the WMA limit is utilized
D) When 25% of the WMA limit is utilized
E) When 10% of the WMA limit is utilized
Answer: B) When 75% of the WMA limit is utilized
Explanation: The RBI triggers the fresh floatation of market loans when the Government of India utilizes 75% of the WMA limit.

123. What is the interest rate on WMA (Ways and Means Advances) according to the recent RBI guidelines?
A) Repo Rate
B) 1% above the Repo Rate
C) 2% above the Repo Rate
D) 3% above the Repo Rate
E) 4% above the Repo Rate
Answer: A) Repo Rate
Explanation: The interest rate on WMA is set at the prevailing Repo Rate.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Agriculture and Rural Development (ARD) MCQs

124. Which initiative is focused on boosting female labor force participation by connecting rural women to self-help
group (SHG) job opportunities?
A) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
B) Rural Development Ministry & UNICEF YuWaah Partnership
C) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme
D) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana
E) Atal Pension Yojana
Answer: B) Rural Development Ministry & UNICEF YuWaah Partnership
Explanation: The partnership between the Ministry of Rural Development and UNICEF YuWaah aims to empower rural women by
connecting them to job opportunities through SHGs and supporting initiatives like 'Computer Didi Centers' and 'Didi ki Dukan.'

125. What is the total length of road constructed under Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna (PMGSY) from 2022 to
February 2025?
A) 45,000 km
B) 50,000 km
C) 60,000 km
D) 69,666 km
E) 80,000 km
Answer: D) 69,666 km
Explanation: A total of 69,666.09 km of road length has been constructed under PMGSY from 2022 to February 2025 as part of
various ongoing interventions.

126. What is the budget allocated for Phase IV of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna (PMGSY) for the construction of
roads from 2024-25 to 2028-29?
A) ₹50,000 crore
B) ₹60,000 crore
C) ₹70,125 crore
D) ₹80,000 crore
E) ₹90,000 crore
Answer: C) ₹70,125 crore
Explanation: The budget allocated for PMGSY Phase IV for constructing roads from 2024-25 to 2028-29 is ₹70,125 crore.

127. How much road length is proposed to be constructed under Phase IV of PMGSY by 2028-29?
A) 50,000 km
B) 55,000 km
C) 60,000 km
D) 62,500 km
E) 70,000 km
Answer: D) 62,500 km
Explanation: Under PMGSY Phase IV, a total of 62,500 km of road length is proposed to be constructed by 2028-29.

128. Which program aims to make India a global leader in Technical Textiles by focusing on research, market growth,
exports, and skill development?
A) Make in India
B) National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM)
C) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY)
D) National Skill Development Mission
E) Digital India Program
Answer: B) National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM)
Explanation: The National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM), launched in 2020, aims to make India a global leader in technical
textiles through research, market growth, and skill development.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

129. How much budget has been allocated to the National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM) till 2025-26?
A) ₹1,000 crore
B) ₹1,200 crore
C) ₹1,480 crore
D) ₹1,500 crore
E) ₹2,000 crore
Answer: C) ₹1,480 crore
Explanation: The National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM) has been allocated a budget of ₹1,480 crore till 2025-26 to promote
technical textiles in India.

130. What is the goal of the National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM) regarding skill development?
A) Train 10,000 individuals
B) Train 25,000 individuals
C) Train 50,000 individuals
D) Train 75,000 individuals
E) Train 1 lakh individuals
Answer: C) Train 50,000 individuals
Explanation: The NTTM aims to train 50,000 individuals in technical textiles to boost expertise and workforce in this sector.

131. According to FAO, what percentage of the global food supply depends on just nine crops, including rice, wheat, and
maize?
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
E) 80%
Answer: C) 60%
Explanation: FAO reports that 60% of the global food supply depends on just nine crops, including rice, wheat, and maize.

132. How much subsidy has the Cabinet approved for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers for Kharif 2025?
A) ₹30,000 crore
B) ₹35,000 crore
C) ₹37,216 crore
D) ₹40,000 crore
E) ₹42,000 crore
Answer: C) ₹37,216 crore
Explanation: The Cabinet has approved a subsidy of ₹37,216.15 crore for P&K fertilizers for Kharif 2025 to ensure affordable and
reasonable rates for farmers.

133. What is the central support amount approved for the Kosi Mechi Intra-State Link Project of Bihar under PMKSY-
AIBP?
A) ₹2,500 crore
B) ₹3,652.56 crore
C) ₹4,000 crore
D) ₹5,000 crore
E) ₹6,000 crore
Answer: B) ₹3,652.56 crore
Explanation: The Cabinet has approved a central support of ₹3,652.56 crore for the Kosi Mechi Intra-State Link Project under
PMKSY-AIBP to complete the project by March 2029.

134. What is the additional annual irrigation potential expected to be created in Bihar's Kosi Mechi Intra-State Link
Project?
A) 1,50,000 hectares
B) 2,10,516 hectares
C) 2,50,000 hectares

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

D) 3,00,000 hectares
E) 4,00,000 hectares
Answer: B) 2,10,516 hectares
Explanation: The Kosi Mechi Intra-State Link Project is expected to provide 2,10,516 hectares of additional annual irrigation in
Bihar's Kharif season.

135. Which scheme has the Union Cabinet approved to encourage farmers to adopt Natural Farming across India?
A) National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)
B) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY)
C) National Agriculture Market (eNAM)
D) Soil Health Management Scheme
E) National Agricultural Development Program (NADP)
Answer: A) National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)
Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) to encourage 1 crore farmers to adopt
Natural Farming across India till the 15th Finance Commission period.

136. What is the total outlay approved for the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)?
A) ₹1,500 crore
B) ₹2,481 crore
C) ₹3,000 crore
D) ₹3,500 crore
E) ₹4,000 crore
Answer: B) ₹2,481 crore
Explanation: The total outlay for the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) is ₹2,481 crore, with the Centre-State share of
90:10 for Hilly & North Eastern States and 60:40 for all other States.

137. How many Krishi Sakhis have been trained on Soil Health & Natural Farming under the NMNF scheme?
A) 50,000
B) 60,000
C) 70,021
D) 80,000
E) 1 lakh
Answer: C) 70,021
Explanation: Under the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) scheme, 70,021 Krishi Sakhis have already been trained on
Soil Health & Natural Farming.

138. How much loan amount has been disbursed to farmers via the e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi (e-KUN) portal as of 17th March
2025?
A) ₹21,00,000
B) ₹21,61,700
C) ₹22,50,000
D) ₹23,00,000
E) ₹25,00,000
Answer: B) ₹21,61,700
Explanation: A total loan amount of ₹21,61,700 has been disbursed to farmers via the e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi (e-KUN) portal.

139. How many banks are currently onboarded on the e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi (e-KUN) portal?
A) 20
B) 22
C) 24
D) 26
E) 30
Answer: D) 26
Explanation: As of now, 26 banks are onboarded on the e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi (e-KUN) portal for providing loans to farmers.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

140. Until when has SEBI extended the suspension of derivatives trading in seven agricultural commodities?
A) March 2024
B) March 2025
C) March 2026
D) March 2027
E) March 2028
Answer: C) March 2026
Explanation: SEBI has extended the suspension of derivatives trading in seven agricultural commodities until March 2026 to curb
speculation and price volatility.

141. What is the milk production target for India under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) in the next five years?
A) 250 MMT
B) 275 MMT
C) 300 MMT
D) 350 MMT
E) 400 MMT
Answer: C) 300 MMT
Explanation: The government aims to increase India's milk production from 239 million metric tons (MMT) to 300 MMT in the next
five years under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM).

142. Which project won the National Award for Excellence in Integrated Water Resources Management 2024?
A) Kosi Mechi Intra-State Link Project
B) Tamil Nadu Irrigated Agriculture Modernisation Project (TNIAMP)
C) National Irrigation Plan
D) Ganga Rejuvenation Project
E) Narmada Valley Development Project
Answer: B) Tamil Nadu Irrigated Agriculture Modernisation Project (TNIAMP)
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu Irrigated Agriculture Modernisation Project (TNIAMP) won the National Award for Excellence in
Integrated Water Resources Management 2024 for its success in enhancing irrigation systems.

143. How much total investment was made in the Tamil Nadu Irrigated Agriculture Modernisation Project (TNIAMP)?
A) ₹1,500 crore
B) ₹2,000 crore
C) ₹2,500 crore
D) ₹3,249.12 crore
E) ₹4,000 crore
Answer: D) ₹3,249.12 crore
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu Irrigated Agriculture Modernisation Project (TNIAMP) had a total investment of ₹3,249.12 crore,
which helped rehabilitate several irrigation systems.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Most Important Current Affairs MCQs

144. What is the name of the 2nd frigate launched by Goa Shipyard Limited under Project 1135.6 Follow-on Ships?
A) Tavasya
B) Triput
C) Tarini
D) Vikrant
E) Vayu
Answer: A) Tavasya
Explanation: The 2nd frigate of Project 1135.6, named "Tavasya," was launched by Goa Shipyard Limited.

145. Who will receive Maharashtra's highest civilian award, the Maharashtra Bhushan, in 2025?
A) Lata Mangeshkar
B) Ram Sutar
C) Narendra Modi
D) Sachin Tendulkar
E) Raj Thackeray
Answer: B) Ram Sutar
Explanation: Veteran sculptor Ram Sutar, the creator of the Statue of Unity, will receive the Maharashtra Bhushan Award.

146. Where did India host the 14th ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meeting on Counter-Terrorism in 2025?
A) New Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Bengaluru
D) Chennai
E) Hyderabad
Answer: A) New Delhi
Explanation: India hosted the 14th ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus) Experts Working Group on Counter-
Terrorism in New Delhi.

147. Which railway zone in India became the first to achieve 250 million tons of originating freight in FY 2024-25?
A) Northern Railway
B) Eastern Railway
C) East Coast Railway
D) Southern Railway
E) Western Railway
Answer: C) East Coast Railway
Explanation: East Coast Railway (ECoR) became the first railway zone in India to achieve 250 million tons of originating freight in
FY 2024-25.

148. Which university secured top ranks in two categories at the National Hackathon "Hack the Future"?
A) IIT Gandhinagar
B) Plaksha University, Chandigarh
C) IIT Delhi
D) Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology
E) NIT Trichy
Answer: B) Plaksha University, Chandigarh
Explanation: Plaksha University, Chandigarh, secured top ranks in two categories at the National Hackathon "Hack the Future."

149. Which Indian startup has partnered with Liquid Robotics (a Boeing company) for enhancing undersea domain
awareness?
A) Sagar Defence Engineering
B) Bharat Dynamics Limited
C) Paras Defence & Space Technologies Ltd

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

D) Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology

E) DRDO
Answer: A) Sagar Defence Engineering
Explanation: Liquid Robotics has signed an MoU with Sagar Defence Engineering to enhance undersea domain awareness and
support Indo-Pacific defence collaborations.

150. Which company has secured a ₹142.31 crore contract from DRDO’s CHESS to develop an anti-drone laser system?
A) Paras Defence & Space Technologies Ltd
B) Bharat Dynamics Limited
C) Tata Defence Systems
D) HCL Technologies
E) Larsen & Toubro
Answer: A) Paras Defence & Space Technologies Ltd
Explanation: Paras Defence & Space Technologies Ltd has secured a ₹142.31 crore contract from DRDO’s CHESS to develop a high-
powered anti-drone laser system.

151. Sunita Williams set a record for the longest spacewalk duration by a woman. What was her record time?
A) 58 hours, 10 minutes
B) 60 hours, 5 minutes
C) 62 hours, 6 minutes
D) 65 hours, 20 minutes
E) 70 hours, 15 minutes
Answer: C) 62 hours, 6 minutes
Explanation: Sunita Williams set a record for the longest spacewalk duration by a woman, lasting 62 hours and 6 minutes.

152. Which astronaut holds the record for the longest cumulative time in space, surpassing Sunita Williams?
A) John Glenn
B) Valeri Polyakov
C) Peggy Whitson
D) Buzz Aldrin
E) Chris Hadfield
Answer: C) Peggy Whitson
Explanation: Peggy Whitson holds the record for the longest cumulative time in space at 675 days, surpassing Sunita Williams, who
has 608 days.

153. Which company has partnered with Astroscale Japan to collaborate on space debris removal and satellite
servicing?
A) SpaceX
B) Bellatrix Aerospace
C) ISRO
D) Blue Origin
E) Boeing
Answer: B) Bellatrix Aerospace
Explanation: Bellatrix Aerospace, based in Bengaluru, has signed an MoU with Astroscale Japan to collaborate on space debris
removal and satellite servicing.

154. Who has been awarded the “Sangita Kalanidhi” award for 2025 by the Music Academy?
A) Shyamala Venkateswaran
B) R K Shriramkumar
C) Thanjavur R Govindarajan
D) Madambi Subramania Namboothiri
E) Urmila Satyanarayana
Answer: B) R K Shriramkumar
Explanation: Violinist R K Shriramkumar has been awarded the “Sangita Kalanidhi” award for 2025 by the Music Academy.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

155. By how much percentage have the salaries of Members of Parliament (MPs) been increased by the Central
government in 2023?
A) 20%
B) 22%
C) 24%
D) 26%
E) 30%
Answer: C) 24%
Explanation: The Central government increased the salaries of Members of Parliament by 24%, effective from April 1, 2023.

156. Which company has become the world’s most valuable steel company, surpassing ArcelorMittal and Nucor Corp?
A) Tata Steel
B) JSW Steel
C) POSCO
D) Jindal Steel
E) Nippon Steel
Answer: B) JSW Steel
Explanation: JSW Steel has surpassed global steel giants ArcelorMittal and Nucor Corp to become the world’s most valuable steel
company with a market capitalization of $30.31 billion.

157. Who has been re-elected as the President of the New Development Bank (NDB) for a five-year term from July 7,
2025, to July 6, 2030?
A) Narendra Modi
B) Dilma Rousseff
C) Xi Jinping
D) Vladimir Putin
E) Emmanuel Macron
Answer: B) Dilma Rousseff
Explanation: Dilma Rousseff has been re-elected as the President of the New Development Bank (NDB) for a five-year term from July
7, 2025, to July 6, 2030.

158. India won both the men's and women's Kabaddi World Cup 2025. Where was the tournament held?
A) New Delhi, India
B) Tokyo, Japan
C) Wolverhampton, England
D) Sydney, Australia
E) Dubai, UAE
Answer: C) Wolverhampton, England
Explanation: India secured victory in both the men’s and women’s Kabaddi World Cup 2025, which was held in Wolverhampton,
England.

159. Which two AI projects under the India AI Mission will be showcased to the government by 2026?
A) RoboAI and NITI AI
B) Jivi AI and ParakhAI
C) BharatAI and AI Bharat
D) Parakh and Jivika
E) AI Sabha and AI Mitra
Answer: B) Jivi AI and ParakhAI
Explanation: The two AI projects under the India AI Mission that will be showcased to the government by 2026 are Jivi AI and
ParakhAI.

160. Who has been elected as the Chairman of the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) for three
years?
A) Raghavendra Singh
B) Ashok Singh Thakur

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

C) Mukul Kumar
D) Hari Kumar
E) Ramesh Singh
Answer: B) Ashok Singh Thakur
Explanation: Ashok Singh Thakur has been elected as the Chairman of the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(INTACH) for three years.

161. As of February 28, 2025, how many Jan Aushadhi Kendras (JAKs) have been opened across India under the
‘Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana’?
A) 10,000
B) 12,000
C) 15,057
D) 20,000
E) 25,000
Answer: C) 15,057
Explanation: A total of 15,057 Jan Aushadhi Kendras (JAKs) have been opened across India as of February 28, 2025, under the
'Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana'.

162. Which company has partnered with the West Bengal State Export Promotion Society (WBSEPS) to digitize MSMEs in
the state?
A) Reliance Industries
B) Vodafone Idea
C) Bharti Airtel
D) Tata Group
E) Jio
Answer: B) Vodafone Idea
Explanation: Vodafone Idea (Vi) has partnered with the West Bengal State Export Promotion Society (WBSEPS) to digitize MSMEs
in the state.

163. India and Singapore signed a Letter of Intent to develop a “Green and Digital Shipping Corridor (GDSC)” at which
event?
A) Singapore Maritime Week 2025
B) Indian Maritime Expo 2025
C) ASEAN Maritime Conference 2025
D) World Shipping Forum 2025
E) International Shipping Summit 2025
Answer: A) Singapore Maritime Week 2025
Explanation: India and Singapore signed a Letter of Intent to develop the Green and Digital Shipping Corridor (GDSC) at Singapore
Maritime Week 2025.

164. Which department issued the 'Hinges (Quality Control) Order, 2025', making BIS certification mandatory for
hinges?
A) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B) Ministry of Heavy Industries
C) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
D) Ministry of Labour and Employment
E) Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises
Answer: C) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
Explanation: The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) issued the 'Hinges (Quality Control) Order,
2025', making BIS certification mandatory for hinges from July 1, 2025.

165. India’s Social Protection Data Pooling Exercise has launched Phase 1 in how many states?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
E) 25

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Answer: B) 10
Explanation: Phase 1 of India’s Social Protection Data Pooling Exercise, covering 10 states, was launched to optimize welfare
spending and enhance India’s negotiation power.

166. The Defence Ministry of India has signed procurement contracts worth ₹6,900 crore for how many ATAGS?
A) 227
B) 307
C) 417
D) 500
E) 600
Answer: B) 307
Explanation: The Defence Ministry has signed contracts for the procurement of 307 ATAGS and 327 towing vehicles worth ₹6,900
crore.

167. Pranati Nayak won a bronze medal in which event at the 2025 FIG Artistic Gymnastics Apparatus World Cup?
A) Floor Exercise
B) Balance Beam
C) Vault
D) Uneven Bars
E) All-Around
Answer: C) Vault
Explanation: Pranati Nayak secured a bronze medal in the vault final at the 2025 FIG Artistic Gymnastics Apparatus World Cup in
Turkey.

168. Who has been appointed as a full-time member of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)?
A) Sanjay Kumar Mishra
B) Suman Berry
C) Parminder Chopra
D) Roshni Nadar
E) Jay Bhattacharya
Answer: A) Sanjay Kumar Mishra
Explanation: Sanjay Kumar Mishra, the former Enforcement Directorate (ED) chief, has been appointed as a full-time member of
the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM).

169. Who has been appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of REC Ltd.?
A) Sanjay Kumar Mishra
B) Parminder Chopra
C) Roshni Nadar
D) Suman Berry
E) Mukesh Ambani
Answer: B) Parminder Chopra
Explanation: Parminder Chopra, the CMD of Power Finance Corporation (PFC), has been given the additional charge of CMD of REC
Ltd. for three months.

170. Which company signed a ₹5,500 crore deal with Phoenix Group for outsourcing services in life & pension
administration?
A) Infosys
B) Wipro
C) TCS
D) HCL
E) Tech Mahindra
Answer: B) Wipro
Explanation: Wipro signed a 10-year agreement worth ₹5,500 crore with Phoenix Group to provide outsourcing services for life &
pension administration.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

171. What is the total amount the Indian government plans to borrow in the first half of FY26?
A) ₹6 lakh crore
B) ₹8 lakh crore
C) ₹10 lakh crore
D) ₹14.82 lakh crore
E) ₹18 lakh crore
Answer: B) ₹8 lakh crore
Explanation: The Indian government plans to borrow ₹8 lakh crore in the first half of FY26, which is 54% of the total ₹14.82 lakh
crore borrowing planned for the fiscal year.

172. The Indian Army conducted the ‘Prachand Prahaar’ military exercise in which state?
A) Jammu and Kashmir
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Rajasthan
E) Punjab
Answer: C) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: The Indian Army conducted the ‘Prachand Prahaar’ military exercise in Arunachal Pradesh, featuring tri-service
integrated warfare drills with UAVs, armed helicopters, and long-range reconnaissance aircraft.

173. India won its first Sepaktakraw World Cup gold in which category?
A) Women’s Regu
B) Men’s Regu
C) Mixed Doubles
D) Men’s Double
E) Women’s Single
Answer: B) Men’s Regu
Explanation: India won its first Sepaktakraw World Cup gold in the Men’s Regu category by defeating Japan.

174. Who has been appointed as the Director of the US National Institutes of Health (NIH)?
A) Roshni Nadar
B) Sanjay Kumar Mishra
C) Parminder Chopra
D) Jay Bhattacharya
E) Suman Berry
Answer: D) Jay Bhattacharya
Explanation: Jay Bhattacharya, a Health Policy professor at Stanford, has been appointed as the Director of the US National
Institutes of Health (NIH).

175. What is the projected size of India's e-retail market by 2030?

A) $120-$140 Billion
B) $150-$170 Billion
C) $170-$190 Billion
D) $200 Billion
E) $220-$240 Billion
Answer: C) $170-$190 Billion
Explanation: India's e-retail market is projected to reach $170-$190 billion by 2030, with Flipkart being the second-largest e-retail
platform globally.

176. Which Indian woman has been ranked as the 5th richest woman globally by the Hurun Global Rich List 2025?
A) Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw
B) Indra Nooyi
C) Roshni Nadar
D) Nita Ambani
E) Arundhati Bhattacharya

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Answer: C) Roshni Nadar

Explanation: Roshni Nadar, chairperson of HCL, has been ranked as the 5th richest woman globally with a net worth of $40 billion,
according to the Hurun Global Rich List 2025.

177. Bharti Airtel has landed the '2Africa Pearls' subsea cable in India. Which companies are in partnership for this
project?
A) Airtel, Meta, TCS
B) Bharti Airtel, center3, Meta
C) Vodafone, center3, Airtel
D) Meta, Google, Bharti Airtel
E) Bharti Airtel, Microsoft, Meta
Answer: B) Bharti Airtel, center3, Meta
Explanation: Bharti Airtel has partnered with center3 and Meta to land the ‘2Africa Pearls’ subsea cable, aiming to expand global
internet connectivity.

178. What is the percentage hike in Dearness Allowance (DA) and Dearness Relief (DR) approved for government
employees and pensioners?
A) 3%
B) 5%
C) 2%
D) 4%
E) 6%
Answer: C) 2%
Explanation: The government has approved a 2% increase in DA and DR, effective from January 1, 2025, impacting 48.66 lakh
employees and 66.55 lakh pensioners.

179. Which defence system contract was signed by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) for ₹1,801 crore?
A) Akash Missile System
B) BrahMos Cruise Missile
C) Nag Missile System (NAMIS)
D) Agni Missile System
E) Pinaka Rocket System
Answer: C) Nag Missile System (NAMIS)
Explanation: The Ministry of Defence signed a ₹1,801 crore contract for the Nag Missile System (NAMIS) with AVNL.

180. Which naval exercise between India and Russia began on March 28, 2025?
A) Malabar Exercise
B) INDRA-2025
C) Varuna Exercise
D) Pacific Vanguard
E) Indo-Russian Maritime Exercise
Answer: B) INDRA-2025
Explanation: The India-Russia naval exercise ‘INDRA-2025’ began off Chennai from March 28 to April 2, 2025, featuring advanced
naval drills and aircraft.

181. Which state topped the medal tally in the Khelo India Para Games 2025?
A) Maharashtra
B) Punjab
C) Haryana
D) Tamil Nadu
E) Kerala
Answer: C) Haryana
Explanation: Haryana topped the Khelo India Para Games 2025 medal tally with 104 medals (34 Gold, 39 Silver, 31 Bronze), setting
18 national records in athletics and para powerlifting.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

182. Which satellite, developed by Hex20 and supported by IN-SPACe and ISRO, was launched by SpaceX?
A) Cartosat-3
B) Nila
C) Astrosat-1
D) Aditya-L1
E) GSAT-30
Answer: B) Nila
Explanation: Kerala’s ‘Nila’ satellite, developed by Hex20 and supported by IN-SPACe and ISRO, was launched by SpaceX and is
designed to support solar array and antenna movement in space missions.

183. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has ranked lions as 'largely depleted'. What region has
seen the extinction of lions?
A) South Africa
B) North Africa & Southwest Asia
C) Southeast Asia
D) Central Africa
E) Eastern Europe
Answer: B) North Africa & Southwest Asia
Explanation: The IUCN 'Green Status' assessment ranks lions as ‘largely depleted,’ with lions now extinct in North Africa and
Southwest Asia, though conservation efforts have prevented extinction in other regions.

184. Who has been elected as the Chairman of INTACH (Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage)?
A) Roshni Nadar
B) Ashok Singh Thakur
C) Suman Berry
D) Jayant Chaudhary
E) Parminder Chopra
Answer: B) Ashok Singh Thakur
Explanation: Ashok Singh Thakur has been elected as the Chairman of INTACH for a three-year term.

185. Which country did India defeat to win both the men’s and women’s Kabaddi World Cup 2025?
A) Pakistan
B) England
C) Iran
D) Japan
E) South Korea
Answer: B) England
Explanation: India emerged victorious in both the men’s and women’s Kabaddi World Cup 2025 by defeating England in the finals.

186. Indian gymnast Pranati Nayak won a bronze medal in which event at the 2025 FIG World Cup?
A) Balance Beam
B) Vault
C) Floor Exercise
D) Uneven Bars
E) Rings
Answer: B) Vault
Explanation: Indian gymnast Pranati Nayak secured a bronze medal in the vault final at the 2025 FIG World Cup held in Turkey.

187. Which ministry launched the revamped website under the Digital Brand Identity Manual (DBIM) to enhance digital
governance?
A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
C) Ministry of Education
D) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
E) Ministry of External Affairs

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Answer: A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)

Explanation: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) launched the revamped website under the Digital
Brand Identity Manual (DBIM) to improve digital governance.

188. What is the main aim of the 'Baalpan ki Kavita' initiative launched by the Ministry of Education?
A) To promote Hindi nursery rhymes
B) To teach digital literacy in schools
C) To promote Indian nursery rhymes in regional languages
D) To encourage STEM education
E) To improve digital literacy in rural areas
Answer: C) To promote Indian nursery rhymes in regional languages
Explanation: The 'Baalpan ki Kavita' initiative aims to promote Indian nursery rhymes in regional languages to improve
foundational learning.

189. IN-SPACe appointed which organization as the fund manager for a ₹1,000 crore venture capital fund focused on
India's space sector?
A) SIDBI Venture Capital Limited (SVCL)
B) HDFC Venture Capital
C) ICICI Venture Capital
D) Axis Venture Fund
E) IDFC Venture Capital
Answer: A) SIDBI Venture Capital Limited (SVCL)
Explanation: IN-SPACe appointed SIDBI Venture Capital Limited (SVCL) as the fund manager for a ₹1,000 crore venture capital fund
aimed at early-stage investments in India's space sector.

190. Which sport did B. Sumeeth Reddy announce his retirement from to focus on coaching?
A) Tennis
B) Badminton
C) Table Tennis
D) Wrestling
E) Boxing
Answer: B) Badminton
Explanation: B. Sumeeth Reddy, a Commonwealth Games (CWG) medalist, retired from badminton to focus on coaching.

191. According to the MoSPI report, India’s energy intensity improved to how much in FY24?
A) 0.2165 MJ/INR GDP
B) 0.2150 MJ/INR GDP
C) 0.2180 MJ/INR GDP
D) 0.2200 MJ/INR GDP
E) 0.2250 MJ/INR GDP
Answer: C) 0.2180 MJ/INR GDP
Explanation: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) reported a drop in India's energy intensity to
0.2180 MJ per INR GDP in FY24, from 0.2192 MJ in FY23.

192. What is the theme of the International Day of Forests 2025?

A) Forests for Climate Change
B) Forests and Biodiversity
C) Forests and Food
D) Protecting Forests for Future Generations
E) Forests and Water Conservation
Answer: C) Forests and Food
Explanation: The theme for International Day of Forests 2025 is “Forests and Food”, highlighting the connection between forests
and nutrition.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

• The world celebrates International Day of Forests on March 21, 2025, highlighting the importance of forests and their role
in food security and livelihoods.
• The theme for 2025 is “Forests and Food”, emphasizing the deep connection between forests and nutrition.
• Forests are the lifelines of our planet, playing a crucial role in oxygen production, food supply, medicinal resources, and
livelihoods for millions worldwide.
• Beyond their ecological significance, forests support global food security by providing essential resources such as fruits, seeds,
roots, and wild meat for indigenous and rural communities.
• Recognizing this, the United Nations (UN) established the International Day of Forests (IDF) to raise awareness about forest
conservation and sustainability.

193. Which two organizations signed an MoU to improve public sector logistics, supply chain management, and
transparency in government audits?
A) IIM Ahmedabad & CAG India
B) IIM Mumbai & CAG India
C) IIM Bangalore & CAG India
D) IIM Kolkata & CAG India
E) IIM Lucknow & CAG India
Answer: B) IIM Mumbai & CAG India
Explanation: IIM Mumbai and the Comptroller Auditor General (CAG) of India signed an MoU to improve public sector logistics,
supply chain management, and transparency in government audits.

194. What type of vehicles did the Ministry of Defence (MoD) sign a contract for with Tata Advanced Systems Limited
(TASL)?
A) Light Utility Vehicles
B) High Mobility Vehicle (HMV) 6×6 Gun Towing Vehicles
C) Heavy Armored Vehicles
D) Tactical Vehicles
E) Multi-purpose Vehicles
Answer: B) High Mobility Vehicle (HMV) 6×6 Gun Towing Vehicles
Explanation: The Ministry of Defence signed a contract with Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) for High Mobility Vehicle
(HMV) 6×6 Gun Towing Vehicles for the Indian Army.

195. Who has been appointed as the 18th Director of the U.S. National Institutes of Health (NIH)?
A) Sanjay Kumar Mishra
B) Rajeev Suri
C) Jay Bhattacharya
D) Raghuram Rajan
E) Arvind Subramanian
Answer: C) Jay Bhattacharya
Explanation: Indian-origin professor Jay Bhattacharya was confirmed as the 18th Director of the U.S. National Institutes of Health
(NIH).

196. Sanjay Kumar Mishra, the former ED Director, has been appointed as a full-time member of which council?
A) National Security Advisory Board
B) Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)
C) Prime Minister's Office Advisory Council
D) National Economic Council
E) Central Economic Advisory Council
Answer: B) Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)
Explanation: Sanjay Kumar Mishra, the former Enforcement Directorate (ED) Director, was appointed a full-time member of the
Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM).

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

197. Which missile was successfully tested by DRDO and the Indian Navy off the coast of Odisha?
A) BrahMos
B) Astra
C) VL-SRSAM
D) Agni
E) Prithvi
Answer: C) VL-SRSAM
Explanation: The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Navy successfully tested the indigenous
Vertically-Launched Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VL–SRSAM) off the coast of Odisha. This missile is designed for ship-
based air defence.

198. Which football association has partnered with HSBC for football promotions in India and Singapore?
A) Indian Football Association
B) Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA)
C) Argentine Football Association (AFA)
D) Brazil Football Confederation
E) All India Football Federation (AIFF)
Answer: C) Argentine Football Association (AFA)
Explanation: The Argentine Football Association (AFA) signed a partnership with HSBC for football development in India and
Singapore. This collaboration includes an exhibition match featuring football legend Lionel Messi in Kochi, Kerala, in October 2025.

199. What is the value of the defence contracts signed by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) for anti-tank missiles and light
vehicles?
A) ₹2,000 crore
B) ₹2,500 crore
C) ₹3,000 crore
D) ₹1,500 crore
E) ₹4,000 crore
Answer: B) ₹2,500 crore
Explanation: The Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed contracts worth ₹2,500 crore for the procurement of anti-tank missiles and
light vehicles under the Buy (Indian-Indigenously Designed, Developed & Manufactured) category.

200. Which book by Rana Dasgupta won the 2025 Windham Campbell Prize for Non-fiction?
A) "The Empire of the Mind"
B) "Capital: A Portrait of Twenty-First Century Delhi"
C) "Fiction and Reality"
D) "The Lost River"
E) "Shadows of the Past"
Answer: B) "Capital: A Portrait of Twenty-First Century Delhi"
Explanation: Rana Dasgupta won the 2025 Windham Campbell Prize for Non-fiction for his book titled "Capital: A Portrait of
Twenty-First Century Delhi". The prize includes USD 175,000 for his literary contributions.

201. According to IUCN’s first Green Status Assessment, what status has been given to lions?
A) Critically Endangered
B) Extinct
C) Vulnerable
D) Largely Depleted
E) Least Concern
Answer: D) Largely Depleted
Explanation: The IUCN’s first Green Status Assessment classified lions as 'largely depleted'. Despite this, lions are still listed as
Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Lions are extinct in North Africa and Southwest Asia, with India’s Gir National Park being the
only habitat in Asia.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

202. Which organization did the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India partner with to enhance audit
efficiency using AI and geospatial tools?
A) NASA
B) BISAG-N
C) ISRO
D) DRDO
E) NITI Aayog
Answer: B) BISAG-N
Explanation: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India signed an MoU with BISAG-N to enhance audit efficiency
through the use of AI, geospatial tools, and big data analytics.

203. Who has been appointed as the 5th full-time member of NITI Aayog?
A) Rajiv Gauba
B) Amitabh Kant
C) Nitin Gadkari
D) Suman Berry
E) Piyush Goyal
Answer: A) Rajiv Gauba
Explanation: Rajiv Gauba, the former Cabinet Secretary, has been appointed as the 5th full-time member of NITI Aayog.

204. Which satellite was launched by Kerala-based HEX20 India aboard SpaceX’s Transporter-13 mission?
A) Nila
B) Aryabhata
C) Mangalyaan
D) Cartosat
E) Chandrayaan
Answer: A) Nila
Explanation: HEX20 India launched its first satellite, named ‘Nila’, aboard SpaceX’s Transporter-13 mission. It was developed
with support from ISRO and IN-SPACe.

205. Which state topped the medal tally at the 2025 Khelo India Para Games (KIPG)?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Haryana
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Maharashtra
E) Punjab
Answer: B) Haryana
Explanation: Haryana topped the medal tally at the Khelo India Para Games 2025 with 104 medals, including 34 Gold, 39
Silver, and 31 Bronze.

206. What was the primary focus of the 7th Act East Business Show held in Meghalaya?
A) Renewable energy collaboration
B) Enhancing economic ties between India’s Northeast, BBIN, and ASEAN nations
C) Healthcare development
D) Cultural exchanges
E) Agricultural trade agreements
Answer: B) Enhancing economic ties between India’s Northeast, BBIN, and ASEAN nations
Explanation: The 7th Act East Business Show held in Meghalaya focused on strengthening economic ties between India’s
Northeast, BBIN (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal), and ASEAN nations, aligning with Meghalaya's vision to achieve a USD 10
billion economy.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

207. Where was the 14th edition of the India-Russia naval exercise ‘INDRA’ held?
A) Mumbai
B) Goa
C) Chennai
D) Visakhapatnam
E) Kolkata
Answer: C) Chennai
Explanation: The 14th edition of the India-Russia naval exercise ‘INDRA’ was held off the coast of Chennai, focusing on
maritime security and strategic cooperation between the two nations.

208. What was the main focus of the Indian Army’s ‘Prachand Prahar’ exercise conducted in the Himalayas?
A) Counter-terrorism operations
B) High-altitude warfare
C) Amphibious operations
D) Desert warfare
E) Coastal defense
Answer: B) High-altitude warfare
Explanation: The ‘Prachand Prahar’ exercise conducted in Arunachal Pradesh was focused on high-altitude warfare and
involved the use of fighter jets, drones, helicopters, and advanced surveillance tools.

209. Who has been appointed as the brand ambassador for SRMB Steel?
A) Virat Kohli
B) Rohit Sharma
C) MS Dhoni
D) Hardik Pandya
E) Shikhar Dhawan
Answer: B) Rohit Sharma
Explanation: Indian cricket captain Rohit Sharma has been appointed as the brand ambassador for SRMB Steel, a leading
manufacturer of TMT bars.

210. Who has been appointed as the MD & Head of Consumer Banking at DBS Bank India?
A) Prashant Joshi
B) Ambuj Chandna
C) Raghav Juyal
D) Kartik Aaryan
E) Ravi Kishan
Answer: B) Ambuj Chandna
Explanation: Ambuj Chandna has replaced Prashant Joshi as the MD & Head of Consumer Banking at DBS Bank India.

211. Which semi-cryogenic engine was successfully tested by ISRO at IPRC Mahendragiri?
A) 100T thrust engine
B) 200T thrust engine
C) 500T thrust engine
D) 300T thrust engine
E) 400T thrust engine
Answer: B) 200T thrust engine
Explanation: ISRO successfully tested the 200T thrust semi-cryogenic engine at IPRC Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu, marking a key
milestone in India's space technology.

212. Which indigenous vehicle did BEML Limited unveil for Indian defense forces?
A) HMV 6×6
B) TATA 6×6

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

C) High Mobility Vehicle 12×12

D) Mahindra 12×12
E) K9 Vajra
Answer: C) High Mobility Vehicle 12×12
Explanation: BEML Limited launched the indigenous High Mobility Vehicle (HMV) 12×12 for Indian defense forces, equipped
with a BS III-compliant engine and 7-speed Allison transmission.

213. Which film won the most awards at the IIFA Awards 2025?
A) Bhool Bhulaiyaa 3
B) Laapataa Ladies
C) Kill
D) Article 370
E) Merry Christmas
Answer: B) Laapataa Ladies
Explanation: Laapataa Ladies won 10 awards at the IIFA Awards 2025, including Best Direction and Best Story (Original) in the
Popular Category.

214. Who won the Best Performance in a Leading Role (Male) at the IIFA Awards 2025?
A) Raghav Juyal
B) Kartik Aaryan
C) Lakshya Lalwani
D) Ravi Kishan
E) Kunal Kemmu
Answer: B) Kartik Aaryan
Explanation: Kartik Aaryan won the Best Performance in a Leading Role (Male) for his role in Bhool Bhulaiyaa 3 at the IIFA
Awards 2025.

215. Who was awarded the Outstanding Achievement in Indian Cinema at the IIFA Awards 2025?
A) Rakesh Roshan
B) Kiran Rao
C) Shah Rukh Khan
D) Kareena Kapoor Khan
E) Madhuri Dixit
Answer: A) Rakesh Roshan
Explanation: Rakesh Roshan was honored with the Outstanding Achievement in Indian Cinema award at the IIFA Awards
2025.

216. Who performed a tribute to Raj Kapoor at the IIFA Awards 2025?
A) Kareena Kapoor Khan
B) Shah Rukh Khan
C) Madhuri Dixit
D) Kartik Aaryan
E) Nora Fatehi
Answer: A) Kareena Kapoor Khan
Explanation: Kareena Kapoor Khan paid tribute to her grandfather, the legendary filmmaker Raj Kapoor, in a heartfelt act at the
IIFA Awards 2025.
IIFA Awards 2025: Full List of Winners and Highlights
The Silver Jubilee edition of the International Indian Film Academy (IIFA) Awards 2025 was held in Jaipur on March 8 and 9,
celebrating excellence in Indian cinema. The grand event witnessed the presence of Bollywood’s biggest stars, dazzling performances,
and a spectacular awards ceremony.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

The highlight of the evening was Kiran Rao’s "Laapataa Ladies", which emerged as the biggest winner, bagging 10 awards.
Kartik Aaryan, "Kill", and "Article 370" also took home multiple accolades.

Winners List – IIFA Awards 2025

Main Awards
• Best Performance in a Leading Role (Male): Kartik Aaryan (Bhool Bhulaiyaa 3)
• Best Performance in a Leading Role (Female): Nitanshi Goel (Laapataa Ladies)
• Best Direction: Kiran Rao (Laapataa Ladies)
• Best Performance in a Negative Role: Raghav Juyal (Kill)
• Best Performance in a Supporting Role (Female): Janki Bodiwala (Shaitaan)
• Best Performance in a Supporting Role (Male): Ravi Kishan (Laapataa Ladies)

Writing and Music Awards

• Best Story (Original) in the Popular Category: Biplab Goswami (Laapataa Ladies)
• Best Story (Adapted): Sriram Raghavan, Arijit Biswas, Pooja Ladha Surti, and Anukriti Pandey (Merry Christmas)
• Best Screenplay: Sneha Desai (Laapataa Ladies)
• Best Dialogue: Arjun Dhawan, Aditya Dhar, Aditya Suhas Jambhale, Monal Thaakar (Article 370)
• Best Music Director: Ram Sampath (Laapataa Ladies)
• Best Lyrics: Prashant Pandey (Sajni from Laapataa Ladies)
• Best Singer (Male): Jubin Nautiyal (Dua from Article 370)
• Best Singer (Female): Shreya Ghoshal (Ami Je Tomar 3.0 from Bhool Bhulaiyaa 3)

Technical Awards
• Best Sound Design: Subash Sahoo, Boloy Kumar Doloi, Rahul Karpe (Kill)
• Best Editing: Jabeen Merchant (Laapataa Ladies)
• Best Cinematography: Rafey Mahmood (Kill)
• Best Choreography: Bosco-Caesar (Tauba Tauba from Bad Newz)
• Best Special Effects: Red Chillies VFX (Bhool Bhulaiyaa 3)

Debut Awards
• Best Directorial Debut: Kunal Kemmu (Madgaon Express)
• Best Debut (Male): Lakshya Lalwani (Kill)
• Best Debut (Female): Pratibha Ranta (Laapataa Ladies)

Special Recognition
• Outstanding Achievement in Indian Cinema: Rakesh Roshan

IIFA Awards 2025 – Highlights

The two-day event featured electrifying performances by some of Bollywood’s biggest stars. Kareena Kapoor Khan paid tribute to
her grandfather, legendary filmmaker Raj Kapoor, in a heartfelt act. The stage also came alive with energetic performances from
Shah Rukh Khan, Madhuri Dixit, Nora Fatehi, and Kartik Aaryan.
Held in Jaipur, the IIFA 2025 marked a grand celebration of Bollywood’s artistic and technical excellence, continuing the
tradition of honoring the best in Indian cinema on an international platform.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

217. India made history by winning its first-ever gold medal at the 2025 Sepaktakraw World Cup. Where was the
tournament held?
A) Patna, Bihar
B) Delhi, India
C) Mumbai, India
D) Jaipur, Rajasthan
E) Kolkata, West Bengal
Answer: A) Patna, Bihar
Explanation: India won its first-ever gold medal in the 2025 Sepaktakraw World Cup in Patna, Bihar, defeating Japan 2-1 in a
thrilling final.

218. What was the final score when India's men's regu team won the gold medal at the 2025 Sepaktakraw World Cup?
A) 11-15, 15-11, 17-14
B) 15-11, 17-14, 15-11
C) 12-15, 15-10, 18-14
D) 13-15, 14-15, 17-16
E) 10-15, 13-14, 18-16
Answer: A) 11-15, 15-11, 17-14
Explanation: The Indian men's regu team won the final 2-1 against Japan, with the scoreline 11-15, 15-11, 17-14 in their favour,
marking their historic gold medal victory.
✓ India’s men’s regu team etched their names in history by clinching the gold medal at the 2025 Sepaktakraw World Cup in Patna,
Bihar.
✓ India secured a hard-fought 2-1 victory over Japan in the final, marking their first-ever gold medal in the prestigious tournament.
✓ The summit clash saw the Indian team overcome a shaky start after dropping the first set 11-15. However, they showcased
resilience and bounced back to claim the second set 15-11 and forced a decider.
✓ The final set was an intense battle with both sides going toe-to-toe. In the end, India edged past Japan 17-14, sparking
celebrations in the stadium as they were crowned world champions.

219. Which prominent figure was present at the event when the Commemorative Postage Stamp on Mata Karma was
released?
A) Shri Tokhan Sahu
B) Shri Vishnu Deo Sai
C) Shri Narendra Modi
D) Shri Amit Shah
E) Shri Rajnath Singh
Answer: B) Shri Vishnu Deo Sai
Explanation: Shri Vishnu Deo Sai, the Hon'ble Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh, was present at the release of the
Commemorative Postage Stamp on Mata Karma during her 1009th birth anniversary celebrations in Raipur.

220. Where did the DRDO and Indian Navy successfully test the Vertically-Launched Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile
(VLSRSAM)?
A) Chandipur, Odisha
B) Bengaluru, Karnataka
C) Pune, Maharashtra
D) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
E) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
Answer: A) Chandipur, Odisha
Explanation: The Vertically-Launched Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VLSRSAM) was successfully flight-tested by DRDO
and the Indian Navy from the Integrated Test Range (ITR) at Chandipur, Odisha.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

221. What is the total capital cost approved by the Cabinet for the construction of the Patna-Arrah-Sasaram corridor
(NH-119A) in Bihar?
A) Rs. 3,712.40 crore
B) Rs. 5,000 crore
C) Rs. 2,500 crore
D) Rs. 4,000 crore
E) Rs. 3,000 crore
Answer: A) Rs. 3,712.40 crore
Explanation: The Cabinet approved the construction of the Patna-Arrah-Sasaram corridor (NH-119A) in Bihar, with a total
capital cost of Rs. 3,712.40 crore.

222. What mode will be used for the development of the Patna-Arrah-Sasaram corridor?
A) Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM)
B) Public-Private Partnership (PPP)
C) Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT)
D) Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC)
E) Build-Own-Operate (BOO)
Answer: A) Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM)
Explanation: The Patna-Arrah-Sasaram corridor will be developed using the Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM), which is a
combination of public and private investment to enhance infrastructure projects.

223. What is the funding allocated for the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme approved by the Union
Cabinet?
A) Rs. 59,350 crore
B) Rs. 22,919 crore
C) Rs. 91,600 crore
D) Rs. 1,90,000 crore
E) Rs. 9,52,000 crore
Answer: B) Rs. 22,919 crore
Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme with a funding of Rs. 22,919
crore to strengthen India's electronics supply chain and make it Atmanirbhar.

224. What is the total investment expected to be attracted through the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme?
A) Rs. 91,600 crore
B) Rs. 59,350 crore
C) Rs. 4,56,500 crore
D) Rs. 2,41,000 crore
E) Rs. 17,000 crore
Answer: B) Rs. 59,350 crore
Explanation: The Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme aims to attract an investment of Rs. 59,350 crore to help build
a robust electronics manufacturing ecosystem in India.

225. What is the tenure of the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme approved by the Union Cabinet?
A) 5 years
B) 4 years
C) 6 years
D) 3 years
E) 2 years
Answer: C) 6 years
Explanation: The Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme has a tenure of 6 years, with a 1-year gestation period
before the full implementation of the scheme.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

226. Under Operation Brahma, which Indian Army unit is deploying to provide medical assistance to Myanmar after the
earthquake?
A) Shatrujeet Brigade Medical Responders
B) Northern Command Medical Corps
C) Southern Command Medical Task Force
D) 118th Medical Battalion
E) 20th Rapid Response Corps
Answer: A) Shatrujeet Brigade Medical Responders
Explanation: Under Operation Brahma, a 118-member team from the Shatrujeet Brigade Medical Responders is providing
urgent humanitarian assistance to the victims of the earthquake in Myanmar.

227. How many beds will the Medical Treatment Centre set up by the Indian Army in Myanmar during Operation
Brahma have?
A) 100-bed facility
B) 50-bed facility
C) 60-bed facility
D) 80-bed facility
E) 150-bed facility
Answer: C) 60-bed facility
Explanation: The Indian Army will establish a 60-bed Medical Treatment Centre in Myanmar as part of Operation Brahma to
provide urgent medical care to the victims of the earthquake.

228. What is the primary aim of Operation Brahma by the Indian Army in Myanmar?
A) To deploy military forces for relief
B) To provide medical and humanitarian assistance
C) To conduct peacekeeping operations
D) To evacuate Indian nationals
E) To establish a strategic military base
Answer: B) To provide medical and humanitarian assistance
Explanation: The aim of Operation Brahma is to provide medical and humanitarian assistance to the earthquake victims in
Myanmar, showcasing India's commitment to its Neighbourhood First policy.

229. What new chapter has been added to the Energy Statistics India 2025 publication?
A) Renewable Energy Development
B) Energy Account following SEEA, 2012 framework
C) Sustainable Energy Technologies
D) Energy Consumption Patterns
E) Electricity Loss Reduction Strategies
Answer: B) Energy Account following SEEA, 2012 framework
Explanation: The Energy Statistics India 2025 publication includes a new chapter on Energy Account following the System of
Environmental Economic Accounting (SEEA), 2012 framework, which provides asset accounts and physical supply and use tables
for FY 2022-23 and FY 2023-24.

230. How much has the Total Primary Energy Supply (TPES) grown in FY 2023-24 as per Energy Statistics India 2025?
A) 6.8%
B) 7.8%
C) 8.5%
D) 5.3%
E) 10.2%
Answer: B) 7.8%
Explanation: In FY 2023-24, India's Total Primary Energy Supply (TPES) has grown by 7.8%, reaching 9,03,158 KToE (Kilo
Tonnes of oil Equivalent), reflecting a healthy energy supply and consumption growth.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

231. Which energy source holds the largest share in India’s renewable energy generation potential as per the Energy Statistics
India 2025?
A) Solar Energy
B) Wind Power
C) Biomass Energy
D) Large Hydro
E) Geothermal Energy
Answer: B) Wind Power
Explanation: Wind Power holds the largest share in India's renewable energy generation potential, with 11,63,856 Megawatt
(around 55%), followed by Solar Energy (7,48,990 Megawatt) and Large Hydro (1,33,410 Megawatt).

232. How much has the installed-capacity for generating electricity from renewable resources grown from 2015 to 2024?
A) From 81,593 MW to 1,98,213 MW
B) From 91,000 MW to 2,00,000 MW
C) From 70,000 MW to 1,50,000 MW
D) From 75,000 MW to 1,80,000 MW
E) From 60,000 MW to 1,70,000 MW
Answer: A) From 81,593 MW to 1,98,213 MW
Explanation: The installed capacity for generating electricity from renewable resources in India has increased from 81,593 MW
in 2015 to 1,98,213 MW in 2024, reflecting a CAGR of 10.36%.

233. In the Khelo India Para Games 2025, how many medals were secured by the SAI Gandhinagar powerlifters?
A) 7 medals
B) 10 medals
C) 12 medals
D) 15 medals
E) 8 medals
Answer: B) 10 medals
Explanation: The SAI Gandhinagar powerlifters secured 10 medals, including seven golds, at the second Khelo India Para
Games 2025 in Delhi.

234. What is the main focus of the Notary Portal launched by the Government?
A) Certification of Lawyers
B) Appointment and Certification of Notaries
C) Digital Payments for Notaries
D) Legal Aid Services
E) Verification of Educational Certificates
Answer: B) Appointment and Certification of Notaries
Explanation: The Notary Portal provides online services for the appointment and certification of Notaries, including digitally
signed Certificates of Practice and other related services under the Notaries Act, 1952.

235. Which project has been awarded a total of Rs. 11,083 crore for port modernization as part of the Maritime India Vision
2030?
A) Renewable energy projects for ports
B) Port modernization projects
C) Smart ports project
D) New shipping routes development
E) Port security enhancement projects
Answer: B) Port modernization projects
Explanation: As part of Maritime India Vision 2030, a total of Rs. 11,083 crore has been awarded for port modernization
projects across major ports in the country from 2021-22 to 2023-24.

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 March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

236. What is the primary focus of the National Education Society for Tribal Students (NESTS)?
A) Providing sports education to tribal students
B) Establishing Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS)
C) Promoting tribal arts and culture
D) Ensuring free education for tribal students up to class 5
E) Conducting workshops on tribal welfare
Answer: B) Establishing Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS)
Explanation: NESTS focuses on establishing and managing Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS), which provide quality
education from class 6th to 12th to tribal students.

237. Where was the National Workshop on “Internationalisation of Higher Education in India” organized by NITI Aayog?
A) IIT Bombay
B) IIT Madras
C) Jawaharlal Nehru University
D) University of Delhi
E) Banaras Hindu University
Answer: B) IIT Madras
Explanation: The National Workshop on “Internationalisation of Higher Education in India” was organized by NITI Aayog at
IIT Madras in Chennai on March 29, 2025.

238. What was the key objective of the NITI Aayog workshop held at IIT Madras on March 29, 2025?
A) Discussing challenges in STEM education
B) Promoting global partnerships in higher education
C) Addressing challenges in the internationalisation of higher education
D) Reviewing the National Education Policy 2020
E) Setting up new research funding initiatives
Answer: C) Addressing challenges in the internationalisation of higher education
Explanation: The workshop aimed at addressing challenges, best practices, and policy interventions related to the
internationalisation of higher education in India, as part of the National Education Policy 2020.

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March (25-31) 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

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