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Short Practice Test 01 _ Test Papers (PCM)

The document outlines a short practice test for Prayas JEE 2026, covering Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics with a total of 24 questions. The test has a duration of 90 minutes and a maximum score of 96 marks, with specific instructions for candidates regarding the examination process and OMR sheet completion. It includes various topics such as mathematical tools, basic concepts of chemistry, and basic mathematics principles.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
27 views

Short Practice Test 01 _ Test Papers (PCM)

The document outlines a short practice test for Prayas JEE 2026, covering Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics with a total of 24 questions. The test has a duration of 90 minutes and a maximum score of 96 marks, with specific instructions for candidates regarding the examination process and OMR sheet completion. It includes various topics such as mathematical tools, basic concepts of chemistry, and basic mathematics principles.

Uploaded by

g18shubh
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Prayas JEE (2026)

SHORT PRACTICE TEST – 01

DURATION : 60
DURATION 90 Minutes
Minutes DATE : 11/05/2025 M. MARKS : 96

Topic Covered
Physics : Mathematical Tools (Complete chapter).
Chemistry : "Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry: Nature of Matter, Classification of Matter, Properties of
Matter and their Measurement, International System of Units (S.I), Uncertainty in Measurement,
Laws of Chemical Combinations, Dalton's Atomic Theory, Atomic Mass, Atomic Mass Unit, Gram
Atomic Mass, Average Atomic Mass, Molecular Mass, Gram Molecular Mass, Average Molecular
Mass Formula Mass, Percentage Composition, Empirical and Molecular formula, Mole, Vapour
density, Atomicity, Mole Concept.
Mathematics : Basic Mathematics:
Number system, Wavy Curve Method.
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 1-hour duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 24 questions. The maximum marks are 96.
4. There are three subjects in the question paper, Subject I, II, and III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 8 questions in each part.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Marks will be deducted for a wrong response.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the
bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the
specified area may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[1]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
1. Find out the incorrect statement from below 3. The vector P = aiˆ + ajˆ + 3kˆ and Q = aiˆ − 2 ˆj − kˆ
(1) log (1 2  3) = log1 + log 2 + log3 are perpendicular to each other. The positive value
(2) log ( 2 + 3) = log ( 2  3) of a is:
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) log10 10 = 1
(3) 1 (4) zero
(4) log101 = 0
4.  ( 2 x ) dx Will be
2. Consider a vector A that lies in xy -plane. If Ax
(1) x2 + C (2) 2 x + C
and Ay are the magnitudes of its x and y -
(3) 2 x2 + C (4) − x2 + C
components respectively, then the correct
representation of A can be given by 5. A particle is simultaneously acted by two forces
equal to 4N and 3N. The net force on the particle
is
(1) 7N (2) 5N
(1) (3) 1N (4) Between 1N and 7N

6. y = x 2 cos x − 2 x sin x − 2cos x


dy dy
(1) = + x 2 cos x (2) = − x 2 cos x
dx dx
dy dy
(3) = + x 2 sin x (4) = − x 2 sin x
(2) dx dx

7. tan15° is equivalent to :
(1) (2 − 3) (2) (5 + 3 )
5− 3  5+ 3 
(3)   (4)  
(3)  2   2 

Calculate (1001)
1/3
8. .
(4) None of these (1) 10.00 (2) 10.0034
(3) 10.003333 (4) 10.003

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
9. What is the percentage composition of sulfur in 11. Acetylene and butene have empirical formula CH
sulfuric acid? and CH2 respectively. The molecular mass of
(1) 23.65 acetylene and butene are 26 and 56 respectively.
Their molecular formula respectively is:
(2) 32.65
(1) C2H4 and C4H8
(3) 56.32
(2) C2H2 and C3H6
(4) 65.23 (3) C2H2 and C4H8
(4) C6H6 and C6H6
10. How many atoms of oxygen are there in 16 g of
oxygen? 12. The mass (in g) of one mole of water is
(1) 2NA (1) 3 × 10–23 g
(2) NA (2) 36 g
(3) 18 g
(3) 1.5NA
(4) 1.5 × 10–23 g
(4) 4NA

[2]
13. The simplest formula of a compound containing 15. The number of molecules in 16 g of methane is
25% of element X (atomic weight 10) 75% of 16
(1) 3.0 1023 (2)  1023
element Y (atomic weight 10) is: 6.02
(1) X2Y (2) XY3 16
(3) X3Y (4) XY (3) 6.023 1023 (4)  1023
3.0

14. 0.5 mole of H2SO4 is mixed with 0.2 mole 16. The volume occupied by 9.2 g of NO2 at STP is:
of Ca(OH)2. The maximum number of moles (1) 44.8 L
of CaSO4 formed is: (2) 4.48 L
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.5 (3) 4480 cm3
(3) 0.4 (4) 1.5 (4) Both (2) and (3)

SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
17. The number of positive integral solution of 22. Complete set of values of ‘x’ satisfying both
( 2 − x ) ( x − 3)  0 , is
2 3
inequalities x – 3  4 and
x−5
 0 , are
( x + 1) ( x 2 − 3x − 4 )
x +1
(1) x ( −,7
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 0 (2) x  ( −, −1)

(3) x  ( −, −1)  ( 5,7


18. If 2a2 + 5b2 – 2ab – 6a – 6b + 9 = 0 where a,b 
R, then a + b is equal to (4) x  ( 5,7 
(1) 5 (2) –3
(3) 3 (4) 7
23. Complete solution set of inequality

19. Solution set of


2 x − x2
0 contains
( x − 1)( x − 5)  0 , is
( 3 + x )( 5 − x ) ( x − 3)
smallest negative integral value is (1) x  ( 3, 5)
(1) –3 (2) –2
(3) –1 (4) 0 (2) x  (1, 3)  ( 5,  )

(3) x  ( 5,  )
20. The number of integral solutions satisfying the
x2 + 2 x − 3 (4) x  ( −, 3)
inequality  0, is
x2 + 1
(1) 0 (2) 2
(3) 5 (4) 3 24. If a + b + c = 0 and a2 + b2 + c2 = 1 , then the

( )
value of 16 a 4 + b 4 + c 4 , is
21. Complete solution set of ( 2 − x )( x − 5)  0 , is (1) 8
(1) x  ( 2, 5) (2) 10
(2) x   2, 5 (3) 4
(3) x  ( −, 2  5,  ) (4) 6

(4) x  ( −, 2  5,  )

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