Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
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1. Consider the following statements
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should
attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of
Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution
of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at
the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) 1 and III only
(d) 1, II and III
Answer: D
Explanation: All three statements are not correct and answer is D.
I. Intermediate Panchayats may not be constituted for States with population less than 20
lakhs
II. The age qualification for Panchayats at all levels is twenty-one
III. It is Governor who constitutes the State Finance Commission and not the Chief Minister
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Section 20.1.5 – Chapter 20 – Panchayats and Municipalities – (snapshot below)
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
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2. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public
servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the
Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether
incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on
the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be,
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) 1 and IV
(d) None of the above statement is correct
Answer: A
Explanation: Only the third statement is correct and answer is A
a. The power of Lokpal applies to all public servants whether posted in India or abroad.
b. The Chairperson can be CJI or any Judge or a person with impeccable integrity and
outstanding ability having special knowledge and expertise for less than 25 years in
matters relating to anti-corruption etc.
c. The Prime Minister has been specifically brought under the ambit of Lokpal with
certain subject matter exclusions.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Section 26.1.4.1, Chapter 26 – Non-Constitutional Bodies
3. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b)II only
(c) Both I and II
(d)Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as held in Epuru Sudhakar case. Statement 2 is incorrect
as held in Maruram case
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
______________________________________________________________
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Section 8.4.5.3, Chapter 8 – Union Executive (snapshot below)
4. Consider the following statements
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office
until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the
People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution
of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House,
provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been
given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b)II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d)I, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation: First and Third Statements are correct as per the provisions of the Constitution.
Second Statement is incorrect as it is not mentioned in the Constitution. The Tenth Schedule
allows the Speaker to resign immediately from his/her political party (though no Speaker has
resigned till date)
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Section 10.5.1.1, Chapter 10 – Union Parliament (grey shaded box, snapshot below)
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
______________________________________________________________
5. Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether Member of the House of the People has become subject
to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the
opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party in the Constitution of India
Which of the statements given above fare correct?
(a) I only
(b)II only
(c) Both I and II
(d)Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Explanation: Both the Statements are incorrect. It is the Speaker who decides on 10th Schedule
disqualification and not President. The word ‘Political Party’ and ‘Original Political Party’ are
mentioned in the Tenth Schedule which is part of the Constitution of India.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Section 10.4.3.2, Chapter 10 – Union Parliament (Mnemonics snapshot below)
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
______________________________________________________________
6. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1:
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect
of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories
Statement II:
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant
law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statements II explains Statement I
(b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement 1
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d)Statement 1 is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: D
Explanation: State governments have power to collect taxes on Mines and Minerals as per
recent Supreme Court Judgement in July 2024. Further, section 15 of MMDR Act, 1957
authorises State governments to make rules for granting concessions in respect of Minor
minerals. The Central government under this act can notify minor minerals. Hence Statement
I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Though the MMDR Act is not directly linked to Polity, the recent Supreme Court Judgement
in July 2024 has been covered in the monthly current affairs update on the McGraw Hill ‘edge’
platform.
7. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance
Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26
for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
______________________________________________________________
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying
out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I. III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer: C
Explanation: The second statement is incorrect as it is 41% of the net tax proceeds that need to
be shared with the States as per recommendation of 15th FC. Hence, by eliminating Statement
II, the answer can be arrived at which is C.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Section 19.4.4, Chapter 19 – Union and State relations (Key recommendation of 15th FC,
snapshot below)
8. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
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II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b)II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d)1, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation: First and Third Statements are correct as an Ordinance has the same effect as a
Parliamentary law and hence can amend any act as well as be back dated. However, as per
Article 123 an ordinance cannot be promulgated for such matter on which Parliament cannot
enact a law. Hence, Statement II is incorrect and answer is C.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Section 8.4.5.2, Chapter 8 – Union Executive (snapshot below)
9. Consider the following pairs:
State Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh The capital is named after a fort, and the State
has two National Parks
II. Nagaland The State came into existence on the basis of a
Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally
administered territory with the reorganization of States in
1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
______________________________________________________________
Answer: B
Explanation: Statement I is correct (named after fort Ita) – This is not strictly Polity but part of
the question. Statement II is incorrect as Nagaland was formed on the basis of State of
Nagaland Act, 1962 which is a Parliamentary law for reorganisation under Article 3. Statement
III is correct as Tripura was first a Category C State, then a UT and then reorganised into a
State.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
The above details with respect to Statement II and III are captured in ‘Additional Data Points’
of Chapter 6 – Union and its territory on the McGraw Hill ‘edge’ online platform which is part
of the book.
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
______________________________________________________________
10. With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one
(b)Only two
(c) All the three
(d)None
Answer: A
Explanation: Inter-State council is a constitutional body under Article 263. The National
Security council is an executive body and Zonal councils are Statutory bodies formed under
State Reorganisation Act, 1956. Hence answer is A.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Section 19.6, Chapter 19 – Union and State Relations (which discusses Inter-State Council as
a constitutional body and Zonal councils as statutory body)
11. Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State
acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for
his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b)II only
(c) Both I and II
(d)Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Explanation: Statement I is correct as Article 163 provides that the Governor will act as per
his/her discretion as per specific circumstances under the Constitution.
Statement II is worder incorrectly in the question. It should have been mentioned as President
of India can, of his/her own reserved a bill passed by a State Legislature for its consideration
(and not his/her consideration). However, the Statement is anyways incorrect as it is forwarded
by the President only through the Governor as per Article 201.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
______________________________________________________________
Statement I is expressly provided in Section 9.4.3, Chapter 9 – State Executive (snapshot
below)
Statement II is covered in Section 8.4.5.1 in Chapter 8 – Union Executive
12. Consider the following pairs:
Provision in the Stated under
Constitution of India
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive The Directive Principles of the
in the public services of the State State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the The Fundamental Duties
rich heritage of our composite culture
III. Prohibition of employment of The Funda-mental Rights
children below. the age of 14 years in
factories
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation: All three are correctly matched – Separation of Judiciary from Executive (Art 51-
DPSP), Valuing and preserving rich heritage and composite culture (Art 51A-Fundamental
Duties) and Prohibition of employment of children below age of 14 (Art 24 – Fundamental
Rights).
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
These are discussed in respective chapters – Chapter 14 – Fundamental Rights, Chapter 16 –
Directive Principles of State Policy and Chapter 17 – Fundamental Duties.
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
______________________________________________________________
13. Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area
under the Fifth Schedule
I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total
administration
II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain
Circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b)II only
(c) Both I and II
(d)Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Explanation: Statement I is incorrect as the State government does not lose its executive powers
but the Governor makes regulations for administering those areas as per advice given by Tribes
Advisory Council (TAC).
Statement II is also incorrect as the Fifth Schedule only provides that the Governor needs to
make a report annually or whenever required to the President with respect to administration of
these Scheduled areas. The Centre can also give directions to the State with respect to
administration of those areas. The Union does not take over total administration of such areas.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Section 22.3, Chapter 22 – Miscellaneous areas of the Constitution (grey shaded box snapshot
below)
14. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor's office
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
______________________________________________________________
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the
Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the
President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b)II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d)I, II and III
Answer: A
Explanation: There are few federal items that require ratification by at least half of the State
legislatures. Statement I and II as per Article 368 belong to that category. Statement III does
not require ratification by State legislatures.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Section 15.1.1, Chapter 15 – Amendment of the Constitution (provided in grey shaded box as
well summarised in Mnemonics – snapshot below)
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
Courseware on Polity Simplified
Prelims 2025 – UPSC CSE – Answer key for Polity questions
______________________________________________________________
15. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance
of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during
his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of
anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b)II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d)1, II and III
Answer: D
Explanation: All three statements are correct.
Article 361 specifically provides for Statement I and II. Article 194 specifically provides for
Statement III.
Courseware on Polity Simplified reference
Statement I and II are covered in Section 22.7, Chapter 22 – Miscellaneous areas of the
Constitution; Statement III is covered in Section 11.3.1 table, Chapter 11 – State Legislature
Rangarajan R, ex-IAS, AIR 46
