Mcqs of support and movement (Crack mdcat 25 With waqas Aijaz korai)

1. Movement vs. Locomotion

1. What is the difference between movement and locomotion?
• a) Movement is changing position, while locomotion is movement in search of food.
• b) Movement and locomotion are the same.
• c) Locomotion is a type of movement used for reproduction.
• d) Locomotion occurs only in animals.
Answer: a

2. Human Skeleton
2. What is the primary function of the human skeleton?
• a) To store food.
• b) To produce blood cells and provide shape and support.
• c) To secrete hormones.
• d) To control body movements.
Answer: b
3. What is osteology the study of?
• a) Muscles.
• b) Bones.
• c) Cartilage.
• d) Tendons.
Answer: b
4. How many bones are in the human skeleton at birth?
• a) 250
• b) 300
• c) 206
• d) 500
Answer: b
5. How many bones are in the human skeleton in adulthood?
• a) 300
• b) 200
• c) 206
• d) 100
Answer: c

3. Structure of Bone
6. What is the main composition of bone?
• a) Collagen fibers, minerals, and water.
• b) Proteins, carbohydrates, and water.
• c) Calcium, proteins, and fats.
• d) Fibrous tissue and fat.
Answer: a
7. What is the cancellous or spongy bone found in?
• a) Diaphysis (shaft).
• b) Epiphysis (ends).
• c) Medullary cavity.
• d) Periosteum.
Answer: b
8. What is the outer covering of bone called?
 • a) Endosteum.
• b) Periosteum.
• c) Cartilage.
• d) Ligament.
Answer: b
9. What is the function of the periosteum?
• a) To produce blood cells.
• b) To provide attachment for tendons and blood vessels.
• c) To form bone marrow.
• d) To secrete calcium.
Answer: b
10. What is the inner layer of the bone that contains osteogenic cells?
• a) Periosteum.
• b) Endosteum.
• c) Medullary cavity.
• d) Articular cartilage.
Answer: b
11. What are osteoblasts responsible for?
• a) Breaking down bone material.
• b) Producing bone matrix.
• c) Creating cartilage.
• d) Maintaining bone density.
Answer: b
12. What is the role of osteocytes in bone?
• a) To secrete the bone matrix.
• b) To repair damaged bones.
• c) To maintain bone tissue and promote healing.
• d) To store calcium.
Answer: c
13. Which cells break down bone material during remodeling?
• a) Osteoblasts.
• b) Osteocytes.
• c) Osteoclasts.
• d) Chondrocytes.
Answer: c

4. Structure of Cartilage
14. What is cartilage primarily made of?
• a) Collagen fibers and minerals.
• b) Collagen fibers, proteoglycans, and water.
• c) Bone cells and collagen.
• d) Calcium and phosphorus.
Answer: b
15. What is the role of cartilage in joints?
• a) To store minerals.
• b) To provide cushioning, reduce friction, and protect bones during movement.
• c) To produce blood cells.
• d) To secrete bone matrix.
Answer: b
16. Which type of cartilage is found between the ribs and sternum?
 • a) Fibrocartilage.
• b) Elastic cartilage.
• c) Hyaline cartilage.
• d) Bone cartilage.
Answer: c
17. Which type of cartilage is most flexible and strong?
• a) Fibrocartilage.
• b) Elastic cartilage.
• c) Hyaline cartilage.
• d) Bone cartilage.
Answer: b
18. Where is fibrocartilage found?
• a) In the ear.
• b) In the knee joint.
• c) In the intervertebral discs.
• d) In the ribs.
Answer: c

5. Differences Between Bone and Cartilage

19. Which of the following is true about bone and cartilage?
• a) Bone is soft and cartilage is hard.
• b) Bone is calcified, while cartilage is not.
• c) Bone forms blood cells, while cartilage does not.
• d) All of the above.
Answer: b
20. Which of the following is a function of bone?
• a) To cushion joints.
• b) To provide protection and support.
• c) To reduce friction.
• d) To secrete collagen.
Answer: b
21. What is the main difference in the water content between bone and cartilage?
• a) Bone contains 80% water and cartilage contains 10-20% water.
• b) Bone contains 10-20% water and cartilage contains 80% water.
• c) Both contain 50% water.
• d) Both contain no water.
Answer: b
22. Which of the following is a characteristic of cartilage?
• a) Cartilage forms blood cells.
• b) Cartilage is calcified.
• c) Cartilage is covered by periosteum.
• d) Cartilage is softer than bone.
Answer: d

16.1 Human Skeleton and its Divisions:

23. Which part of the human skeleton protects the brain, spinal cord, and thoracic organs?
A) Appendicular skeleton
B) Axial skeleton
C) Pelvic girdle
D) Pectoral girdle
Answer: B) Axial skeleton

24. How many bones are in the axial skeleton?

A) 80
B) 126
C) 28
D) 206
Answer: A) 80

25. Which of the following is NOT a cranial bone?

A) Parietal
B) Temporal
C) Nasal
D) Sphenoid
Answer: C) Nasal

26. The auditory ossicles consist of how many bones?

A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 2
Answer: A) 6

27. Which of the following bones is part of the vertebral column?

A) Femur
B) Coccyx
C) Scapula
D) Sternum
Answer: B) Coccyx

28. How many pairs of ribs are in the human body?

A) 12
B) 14
C) 24
D) 10
Answer: A) 12

29. Which of the following is the primary function of the appendicular skeleton?
A) Protects the brain
B) Supports the body’s organs
C) Facilitates movement and supports limbs
D) Produces blood cells
Answer: C) Facilitates movement and supports limbs

30. The pelvic girdle is composed of how many coxal bones?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 1
D) 3
Answer: A) 2

31. Which of the following is a type of synovial joint?

A) Suture
B) Hinge
C) Symphysis
D) Syndesmosis
Answer: B) Hinge

32. Which bone is part of the pectoral girdle?

A) Femur
B) Scapula
C) Tibia
D) Sternum
Answer: B) Scapula

16.2 Disorders of the Skeleton:

33. What is spondylosis?

A) Inflammation of the joints
B) Degenerative changes in vertebrae
C) A fracture of the spinal column
D) An autoimmune disease
Answer: B) Degenerative changes in vertebrae

34. What is the most common cause of sciatica?

A) Compression of the sciatic nerve
B) Inflammation of the spinal cord
C) Herniated intervertebral disc
D) Arthritis
Answer: A) Compression of the sciatic nerve

35. A herniated disc is also known as a:

A) Spinal tumor
B) Slip disc
C) Vertebral fracture
D) Bone spur
Answer: B) Slip disc

36. Which condition is characterized by the body’s immune system attacking joint membranes?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Gout
D) Ankylosing spondylitis
Answer: B) Rheumatoid arthritis

37. What causes gout?

A) Infection of the joints
B) Uric acid crystals in the joints
C) Breakdown of cartilage
D) Lack of blood supply to joints
Answer: B) Uric acid crystals in the joints

38. What is the primary feature of ankylosing spondylitis?

A) Inflammation of the spine
B) Formation of bone spurs in joints
C) A fracture in the spine
D) Fluid buildup in joints
Answer: A) Inflammation of the spine

16.3 Types of Bone Fractures:

39. What is a simple fracture?

A) Bone pierces through the skin
B) Bone is broken into multiple pieces
C) Bone cracks but does not break the skin
D) Bone is compressed
Answer: C) Bone cracks but does not break the skin

40. What is a compound fracture?

A) Bone is completely broken but not exposed
B) Bone pierces the skin and is exposed to the outside
C) Bone is broken into several pieces but does not pierce the skin
D) Bone is broken into fragments inside the body
Answer: B) Bone pierces the skin and is exposed to the outside

41. A complicated fracture involves:

A) Only the bone
B) Damage to surrounding structures such as blood vessels and nerves
C) Minor hairline cracks
D) Fracture in multiple locations
Answer: B) Damage to surrounding structures such as blood vessels and nerves

42. Which symptom is most commonly associated with bone fractures?

A) Intense pain at the fracture site
B) Severe headache
C) Excessive sweating
D) Loss of consciousness
Answer: A) Intense pain at the fracture site

43. What is the common symptom of a compound fracture?

A) Bruising without swelling
B) Bone visible through the skin
C) Localized fever
D) Sudden loss of movement
Answer: B) Bone visible through the skin

44. What does a complicated fracture typically cause?

A) Nerve and blood vessel damage
B) Swelling without deformity
C) Complete bone healing without further treatment
D) Sudden joint instability
Answer: A) Nerve and blood vessel damage

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Repair Process of Simple Fractures

45. What is the first stage in the repair of a simple fracture?

A) Fibrocartilaginous callus formation
B) Bony callus formation
C) Hematoma formation
D) Remodeling of bone

Answer: C) Hematoma formation

46. What is the primary role of the hematoma in the fracture repair process?
A) To form new bone tissue
B) To stabilize the fracture and provide a foundation for healing
C) To provide nutrients to the injured bone
D) To absorb calcium for bone growth

Answer: B) To stabilize the fracture and provide a foundation for healing

47. Which type of cells are responsible for the formation of the fibrocartilaginous callus during fracture repair?
A) Osteoclasts
B) Osteoblasts
C) Chondrocytes
D) Fibroblasts

Answer: D) Fibroblasts

48. How does the fibrocartilaginous callus contribute to the healing process?
A) It provides a temporary bridge between bone ends and stabilizes the fracture
B) It produces new bone cells
C) It absorbs blood at the fracture site
D) It directly initiates bone remodeling

Answer: A) It provides a temporary bridge between bone ends and stabilizes the fracture

49. What happens during the bony callus formation stage?

A) Cartilage is laid down around the fracture site
B) Osteoblasts produce bone tissue that replaces the fibrocartilaginous callus
C) Fracture site remains mobile to promote healing
D) The fracture site becomes inflamed

Answer: B) Osteoblasts produce bone tissue that replaces the fibrocartilaginous callus

50. Which cells are involved in the remodeling phase of bone healing?
A) Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
B) Chondrocytes and fibroblasts
C) White blood cells
D) Endothelial cells

Answer: A) Osteoblasts and osteoclasts

51. How long can the remodeling phase of bone healing last?
A) Few days
B) Few weeks
C) Several months to years
D) Permanent

Answer: C) Several months to years

Types of Joint Injuries

52. What is the primary cause of dislocations?

A) Inflammation of ligaments
B) Trauma or impact forcing bones out of position
C) Arthritis
D) Muscle spasms

Answer: B) Trauma or impact forcing bones out of position

53. What are the typical symptoms of a dislocation?

A) Pain, swelling, joint deformity, limited range of motion
B) Swelling, bruising, and redness
C) Aching and mild discomfort
D) Stiffness without pain

Answer: A) Pain, swelling, joint deformity, limited range of motion

54. Which of the following is a common treatment for a dislocation?

A) Ice and rest
B) Reduction by a medical professional
C) Massage therapy
D) Immobilization using bandages

Answer: B) Reduction by a medical professional

55. What is a sprain?

A) A tear in a muscle
B) A stretching or tearing of ligaments
C) A bone fracture
D) A dislocation of joints

Answer: B) A stretching or tearing of ligaments

56. What is the most common symptom of a sprain?

A) Severe bleeding
B) Joint deformity
C) Pain, swelling, and bruising
D) Loss of sensation

Answer: C) Pain, swelling, and bruising

57. What is the general first-aid treatment for a mild sprain?

A) Apply heat to the injury
B) Use compression and elevate the injury
C) Immediate surgery
D) Perform exercises on the injured joint

Answer: B) Use compression and elevate the injury

First-Aid Treatment for Joint Injuries and Fractures

58. What is the primary purpose of rest in treating joint injuries or fractures?
A) To increase swelling
B) To prevent further movement and damage
C) To increase blood flow to the injury
D) To speed up the healing process

Answer: B) To prevent further movement and damage

59. How does a cold compress help in treating fractures or joint injuries?
A) It increases blood flow to the injury site
B) It constricts blood vessels to reduce swelling and pain
C) It stimulates muscle contraction
D) It increases joint mobility

Answer: B) It constricts blood vessels to reduce swelling and pain

60. Why is compression important in injury treatment?

A) To immobilize the joint
B) To control swelling and support the injured area
C) To encourage faster bone growth
D) To prevent bruising

Answer: B) To control swelling and support the injured area

61. What is the purpose of elevating the injured part above heart level?
A) To improve muscle flexibility
B) To allow fluid to drain and reduce swelling
C) To increase pain
D) To apply pressure to the wound

Answer: B) To allow fluid to drain and reduce swelling

Types of Muscles
62. Which of the following muscle types is involuntary and lacks striations?
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Smooth muscle
C) Cardiac muscle
D) None of the above

Answer: B) Smooth muscle

63. Where are smooth muscles primarily found in the body?

A) In the heart
B) In the walls of blood vessels and hollow organs
C) In the skeletal muscles
D) In the liver

Answer: B) In the walls of blood vessels and hollow organs

64. What is the primary characteristic of cardiac muscle?

A) Voluntary control
B) Striated appearance and intercalated discs
C) No striations and slow contraction
D) Multinucleated

Answer: B) Striated appearance and intercalated discs

65. Where is cardiac muscle located?

A) In the walls of blood vessels
B) In the heart
C) In the digestive system
D) In the arms and legs

Answer: B) In the heart

66. Which type of muscle is under voluntary control?

A) Smooth muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Skeletal muscle
D) None of the above

Answer: C) Skeletal muscle

Structure of Skeletal Muscle

67. What is the basic structural unit of skeletal muscle fibers?

A) Sarcomere
B) Myofibril
C) Fascicle
D) Perimysium

Answer: A) Sarcomere
68. Which connective tissue surrounds the entire muscle?
A) Endomysium
B) Epimysium
C) Perimysium
D) Myofibril

Answer: B) Epimysium

69. What is the role of the sarcolemma in muscle fibers?

A) Stores calcium ions
B) Transmits electrical impulses for muscle contraction
C) Produces ATP
D) Secretes growth hormones

Answer: B) Transmits electrical impulses for muscle contraction

70. What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum responsible for in skeletal muscle fibers?
A) Providing structural support to the fiber
B) Storing calcium ions essential for muscle contraction
C) Synthesizing proteins for muscle growth
D) Breaking down glucose for energy

Answer: B) Storing calcium ions essential for muscle contraction

Ultra Structure of Skeletal Muscle Fiber

71. What is the structure of a myofibril?

A) A bundle of connective tissue fibers
B) A long thread-like structure made up of sarcomeres
C) A single muscle fiber
D) A type of protein found in muscle

Answer: B) A long thread-like structure made up of sarcomeres

72. What are the primary protein filaments in a sarcomere?

A) Actin and myosin
B) Troponin and tropomyosin
C) Collagen and elastin
D) Hemoglobin and fibrin

Answer: A) Actin and myosin

73. What is the role of troponin in muscle contraction?

A) To bind to ATP and release energy
B) To prevent actin and myosin from interacting
C) To bind calcium and trigger muscle contraction
D) To break down glucose for energy

Answer: C) To bind calcium and trigger muscle contraction

Sliding Filament Model of Muscle Contraction

74. What is the first step in the sliding filament model of muscle contraction?
A) Myosin heads bind to ATP
B) Calcium ions bind to troponin
C) The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases glucose
D) Actin filaments move toward the center of the sarcomere

Answer: B) Calcium ions bind to troponin

75. What occurs during the power stroke of muscle contraction?

A) Myosin heads detach from actin
B) Actin filaments are pulled toward the center of the sarcomere
C) ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP
D) Calcium ions are released into the sarcoplasm

Answer: B) Actin filaments are pulled toward the center of the sarcomere

76. What is required for the myosin head to detach from actin during contraction?
A) Release of calcium
B) ATP binding to the myosin head
C) Influx of sodium ions
D) Increased muscle temperature

Answer: B) ATP binding to the myosin head

77. What happens when the nerve impulse stops in muscle contraction?
A) The muscle continues to contract
B) Calcium ions are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) ATP is broken down into energy
D) Myosin heads remain attached to actin

Answer: B) Calcium ions are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

78. The knee joint is classified as a:

A) Cartilaginous joint
B) Synovial joint
C) Fibrous joint
D) Ball-and-socket joint
(Answer: B)

79. Which muscle group is responsible for knee flexion?

A) Quadriceps
B) Hamstrings
C) Gluteal muscles
D) Calf muscles
(Answer: B)

80. Which of the following is the main function of quadriceps?

A) Flexion of the knee
B) Extension of the knee
C) Rotation of the hip
D) Plantar flexion of the foot
(Answer: B)

81. What is the primary cause of muscle fatigue?

A) Excess ATP production
B) Lactic acid accumulation
C) Low blood calcium
D) Dehydration
(Answer: B)

82. Which mineral deficiency is most associated with tetany?

A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Iron
D) Phosphorus
(Answer: B)

83. What is the main causative agent of tetanus?

A) E. coli
B) Clostridium tetani
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(Answer: B)

84. What toxin does Clostridium tetani produce?

A) Botulinum toxin
B) Endotoxin
C) Tetanospasmin
D) Exotoxin A
(Answer: C)

85. Which of the following is NOT a cause of muscle cramps?

A) Dehydration
B) Excess potassium
C) Overuse of muscles
D) Low calcium levels
(Answer: B)

86. Which organ converts lactic acid into glucose?

A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Spleen
(Answer: B)

87. What is the main difference between tetany and tetanus?

A) Tetany is caused by bacteria, while tetanus is due to electrolyte imbalance
B) Tetany involves a neurotoxin, while tetanus does not
C) Tetany is due to electrolyte imbalance, while tetanus is caused by bacteria
D) Tetany affects only skeletal muscles, while tetanus affects only smooth muscles
(Answer: C)

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