22/11/2023 Code-A_Phase-1

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Atoms & Nuclei ,Semiconductor Electronics
Chemistry: Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules
Botany: Biodiversity and Conservation
Zoology: Biotechnology and Its Applications

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A
CC-473
1. The wavelength of first line of Lyman series 3. If radius of innermost electron orbit of H–
for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the atom is 0.53 Å, then radius of n = 3 orbit is
second line of Balmer series for a hydrogen
(1) 4.77 Å
like ion. The atomic number Z of hydrogen
like ion is (2) 1.59 Å
(1) 1 (3) 0.53 Å
(2) 2 (4) 5.3 Å
(3) 3
(4) 4 4. A doubly ionised Lithium atom is excited
from its ground state (n = 1) to n = 3 state.
The wavelengths of the spectral lines for
2. Which of these cannot be the value of orbital corresponding transition are given by
angular momentum of an electron in Bohr's λ32 λ21

hydrogen atom? λ32 , λ31 & λ21 . The value of and are
λ31 λ31

(1) 3h respectively
π
(1) 8.1, 0.67
(2) 3h

4π (2) 8.1, 1.2

(3) h
(3) 6.4, 1.2
π
(4) 6.4, 0.67
(4) 3h

2π

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

5. The shortest wavelength present in Balmer 11. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of
series of spectral line is nearly decay according to the scheme.
α γ
(1) 912 Å X ⟶ Y ⟶ M
(2) 3646 Å If the mass number and atomic number of X
(3) 8208 Å are 144 and 72 respectively, then the ratio of
mass number to number of protons for M will
(4) 14592 Å be
(1) 1 : 3
6. The ratio of product of radius and time (2) 1 : 1
period of electron orbiting in 2nd and 3rd (3) 5 : 3
orbit of hydrogen atom is
(4) 2 : 1
(1) 4
9

(2) 16
12. Density of gold nucleus is 2.2 × 1017 kg/m3 .
81

(3) 32
Density of the iron nucleus is
243 (1) 1.45 × 1017 kg/m3
(4) 16
(2) 2.2 × 1017 kg/m3
243

(3) 0.5 × 1017 kg/m3

7. nd
The angular momentum of an electron in 2 (4) 0.1 × 1017 kg/m3
orbit of Li++ ion is
(1) 3h
2π
13. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the
(2) 2h
ground state to excited state
π (1) Both kinetic and potential energy will
(3) h
increase
π
(2) Both kinetic and potential energy will
(4) h

6π
decrease
(3) Potential energy will increase and
8. In Rutherford scattering experiment, if the kinetic energy will decrease
angle of deviation is 180°, then impact (4) Potential energy will decrease and
parameter will be kinetic energy will increase
(1) 1
(2) 2 14. The energy released through gamma ray
(3) Infinity emission is of the order of
(4) Zero (1) eV
(2) keV
9. Energy required for the electron excitation in (3) neV
hydrogen atom from the first to the second (4) MeV
Bohr’s orbit is
(1) 7.3 eV 15. Zener diode are used for
(2) 10.2 eV (1) Rectification
(3) 11.2 eV (2) Amplification
(4) 13.6 eV (3) Stabilization of voltage
(4) Production of carrier waves
10. What is the respective number of α and β–
particles emitted in the following radioactive 16. A nucleus of mass (M + Δm) at rest explodes
decay? M
in two nuclei each of mass 2 . The speed of
nuclei is (where c is speed of light)
− −−−
(1) 2Δm
c√
(1) 8, 6 M

−−−
(2) 8, 8 (2) Δm
2c√
(3) 6, 8 M

−−−−
(4) 6, 6 (3) 2Δmc
√
M

−−−
(4) Δm
c√
M

2
Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

17. For the stability of any nucleus 24. Generally LED is operated in
(1) Binding energy per nucleon should be (1) Reverse bias
high (2) Forward bias
(2) Binding energy per nucleon should be (3) Forward bias then reverse bias
low
(4) No biasing is required
(3) Number of protons inside the nucleus
should be high
(4) Number of neutrons inside the nucleus 25. An input signal V = V0 sinωt is applied at
should be high input of half wave rectifier. The r.m.s. value of
the output for one cycle is
(1) V 0

18. In nuclear reactions which of the following √2

conservation laws is not obeyed?
(2) V0

(1) Conservation of mass 2

(2) Conservation of linear momentum (3) 2V0

π
(3) Conservation of charge
(4) V0

(4) Conservation of total number of π

nucleons
26. Output Y for the inputs A & B in the logic gate
19. Bohr model is valid for is
(1) Multi electron system
(2) Two electron system
(3) One electron system
(4) Three electron system
(1) A + B
20. The energy released after complete (2) ¯¯
¯ ¯¯
¯
A +B

consumption of 1 g of matter is (3) ¯¯

¯ ¯¯
¯
A ⋅ B
(1) 9 × 1016 J
(4) A.B
(2) 2.5 × 107 kWh
(3) 1.6 × 1016 eV 27. In semiconductor diode, the barrier potential
(4) Both (1) and (2) offers opposition to flow of
(1) Majority charge carriers in both regions
(2) Minority charge carriers in both regions
21. The reciprocal of the decay constant of a
radioactive substance is equal to (3) Both majority and minority charge
(1) Half life carriers
(2) Mean life (4) Neither majority charge carrier, nor
minority charge carrier
(3) Total life
(4) None of these
CC-473 28. The conductivity of pure semiconductor can
be increased
22. When U-238 nucleus, originally at rest emits (1) By increasing temperature
an α-particle with speed 2v m/s, then the
(2) By selectively mixing acceptor impurity
recoil speed of residual nucleus (Thorium-
atoms
234) is
(1) v (3) By selectively mixing donor impurity
234 atoms
(2) 4v
(4) All of these
117

(3) 3v

117
29. In a n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector
(4) 2v
current is 10 mA. If 90% of the electrons
117
emitted reach the collector, the emitter
current (IE) and base current (IB) are given
23. Energy gap in a (p – n) photodiode is 3.0 eV. by
It cannot defect the wavelength of (1) IE = 11 mA ; IB = 1 mA
(1) 4000 Å
(2) IE = 1 mA ; IB = 11 mA
(2) 3800 Å
(3) IE = 9 mA ; IB = – 1 mA
(3) 4500 Å
(4) IE = – 1 mA ; IB = 9 mA
(4) 3900 Å

3
Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

30. A 220 V ac supply is connected between the 32. What will be the input of A and B for Boolean
two points A and B as shown in the figure. expression
The output waveform (qualitative) across the ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
A +B +A ⋅ B = 0
diode is
(1) 0, 0
(2) 0, 1
(3) 1, 0
(4) 1, 1
(1)
33. Choose the correct statement for zener
diode.
(1) It is used for regulating supply voltages
(2) so that they are constant
(2) It is fabricated by heavily doping both p
and n sides of the junction
(3) It is designed to operate under reverse
(3) bias in the breakdown region
(4) All of these

34. For the diodes given in figures below, the

(4) forward biased diode is
(1)
(2)
(3)

31. In the circuit shown below, the current (4)

through zener diode is
35. In the nth state, energy of electron in
13.6
hydrogen atom is En =– eV . The
2
n

potential energy of electron in first excited

state will be
(1) 6.66 mA (1) –27.2 eV
(2) 4 mA (2) –3.4 eV
(3) 2 mA (3) –3.2 eV
(4) Zero (4) –6.8 eV

CC-473

SECTION-B

36. N atom of a radioactive element emit n alpha 37. Fusion reaction takes place at high
particles per second. The half life of the temperature because
element is (1) Atoms are ionised at high temperature
n
(1) second (2) Molecules break up at high
N

(2) N temperature
second
n
(3) Nuclei break up at high temperature
(3) N

n
ln 2 second (4) Kinetic energy is high enough to
(4) n overcome repulsion between nuclei
ln 2 second
N

4
Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

38. The binding energy of deutron (1 H2 ) is 1.15 44. The ratio of total energy of an electron to its
MeV per nucleon and an alpha particle kinetic energy in a Bohr orbit of the
4
hydrogen atom is
( He ) has a binding energy of 7.1 MeV (1) 1 : 1
2

per nucleon. Energy released in the (2) –1 : 1

following reaction will be (3) 1 : –2
2 2 4

1 H + 1
H → 2
He + Q (4) –2 : 1
(1) 5.95 MeV
(2) 26.1 MeV 45. The ratio of the wavelength for 2 → 1
(3) 23.8 MeV transition in Li++, He+ and H is
(4) 28.9 MeV (1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 4 : 9
39. Obtain the ratio of nuclear radii of gold (3) 4 : 9 : 36
isotope 197
79
Au and the silver isotope 107
47
Ag . (4) 3 : 2 : 1
(1) 1.23
(2) 5.67 46. The ratio of product of velocity and time
(3) 8.93 period of electron orbiting in 2nd and 3rd
(4) 10.21 stable orbits.
(1) 4
9

40. How much mass is converted into energy (2) 9

per day in Narora nuclear power plant 4

operated at 107 W? (3) 3

2
(1) 9.6 mg (4) 2

(2) 9.6 kg 3

(3) 8.6 mg
(4) 9.6 g 47. The depletion layer in the P-N junction is
caused by
(1) Drift of holes
41. If the nuclear radius of Al is 3.6 fermi, then
27

(2) Diffusion of charge carriers

the approximate nuclear radius of 64 Cu(in
Å) is (3) Migration of impurity ions
(1) 4.8 (4) Drift of electrons
(2) 4.8 × 10–5
48. The truth table shown below is for which of
(3) 4.8 × 10–3
the following gates? (A, B are inputs and Y is
(4) 4.8 × 10–4 output)
A B Y
42. An alpha particle having energy 0 0 0
1
mv bombards
2
a heavy nuclear target of
2
0 1 1
charge ze. The distance of closest approach
for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to 1 0 1
(1) z
1 1 0
(2) 1
m
(1) NOR
(3) 1

v
4 (2) NAND
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) OR
(4) XOR
43. The radius of second stationary orbit of
electrons in Bohr’s atom is R. The radius of
the third orbit will be
(1) 3R
(2) 2.25R
(3) 9R
(4) R
3

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

49. The symbol given in figure represents

(1) NPN transistor

(2) PNP transistor
(3) PN junction diode
(4) None of these

50. If an electron with speed 5.0 × 105 m/s

approaches the p-n junction from the n-side.
Assuming the barrier potential is 0.5 V the
speed with which it will enter the p-side is
(1) 3.5 × 105 m/s
(2) 2.7 × 105 m/s
(3) 3.5 × 106 m/s
(4) 2.7 × 106 m/s

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Reagent used in Etard's reaction is 53. Which of the following is least reactive
(1) K2 Cr2 O7 towards nucleophilic addition?
(2) Cr2 O3 CC-473 (1)

(3) CrO2 Cl2

(4) KMnO4

52. Which of the following does not undergo (2)

aldol condensation?
(1) Ethanal
(2) Methanal
(3) Propanone
(3)
(4) Butanone

(4)

6
Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

54. Consider the following reaction sequence 57. Which compound on reaction with Cu at 573
K gives an aldehyde?
(1)

Major product B is
(1) Ether (2)
(2) Ester
(3) Acetal
(4) Anhydride
(3)
55. Which compound will have the highest
boiling point?
(1) CH4
(4)
(2) CH3 OCH3
(3) C2 H5 OH
(4) HCHO

56. The product formed in the following

chemical reaction is:
58. The compound which will give iodoform test
is
(1) Methanol
(2) Ethanol
(3) Propan-1-ol
(4) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
(1)

59. In the following sequence of reactions,

product B is
(i) Ammoniacal

AgNO3 (i) Br2 /Red P

CH3 CH2 CH2 CHO −−−−−−→ A −−−−−→ B
(2) +
(ii) H3 O (ii) H2 O

(1) CH3 CH2 CH2 COBr

(2)

(3) (3)

CC-473
(4)

(4)

7
Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

60. Consider the reaction. 62. The correct name and product of given
reaction are respectively

Product (P) is
(1)
(1)

(2)
(2)

(3)
(3)

(4)

(4)

473

63. Gabriel Phthalimide reaction cannot

produce
61. Diethyl cadmium reacts with acetyl chloride (1) CH3 CH2 NH2
to produce (2) C6 H5 NH2
(1) Propanol
(3)
(2) Propanone
(3) Butanone 473
(4) Acetophenone (4)

64. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with

aqueous ammonia and heating forms
compound ‘B’ which on heating with
Br2 /KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular
formula C6 H7 N. Then, the compound A is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8
Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

65. Most basic compound among the following 67. Consider the following reaction sequence
is
(1)

Major product B is
(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(4)

66. The reaction

Cu 2 X2
+ –
C6 H5 N Cl −−−→ C6 H5 X ,
2
HX
68. In the following reaction, the product (A) is
is known as (where X = Cl, Br)
(1) Gattermann reaction
(2) Sandmeyer reaction
(3) Stephen’s reaction
(4) Balz-Schiemann reaction (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9
Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

69. Which among the following compounds will 74. Number of chiral carbon present in open
not react with benzenesulphonyl chloride? chain structure of fructose are
(1) (1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

75. Glucose on reaction with HNO3 forms

(2)
(1) Gluconic acid
(2) Saccharic acid
(3) n-hexane
(3) (4) Gluconaldehyde

76. Which of the following is a disaccharide?

(1) Starch
(2) Glycogen
(3) Cellulose
(4) Lactose
(4)
77. Glucose on heating with HI gives
(1) Gluconic acid
(2) Hexanol
(3) Hexanal
(4) n-Hexane
70. Which base is absent in RNA?
(1) Thymine 78. D-glucose and D-galactose are
(2) Adenine (1) Epimers
(3) Guanine (2) Anomers
(4) Cytosine (3) Enantiomers
(4) Homomers
71. The enzyme involved in the conversion of
cane sugar into glucose and fructose is
79.
(1) Zymase
(2) Maltase
(3) Invertase
(4) Diastase
The compound A is
(1)
72. Fat insoluble vitamin among the following is
(1) Vitamin-K
(2) Vitamin-C
(3) Vitamin-D
(4) Vitamin-E (2)

73. Night blindness is caused by the deficiency

of
(1) Vitamin A
(3)
(2) Vitamin B1
(3) Vitamin B2
(4) Vitamin D

(4)

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

80. The structure of the compound with IUPAC 83. Consider the following reaction sequence.
nomenclature N,N-diethylbutan-1-amine is H3 O
+
C2 H5 OH

(1) C2 H5 —NH—CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3 CH3 CH2 CN −−→ A −−−−→ B

⊕
Δ H

(2) C2 H5 —NH—C2 H5 Compound B obtained is

(3) (1) CH3 CH2 NH2
(2) CH3 CH2 – OC2 H5
(3) CH3 CH2 COOH
(4) (4)

84. The compound which is most acidic is

(1) NC – CH2 COOH
81. Aniline and benzylamine are chemically
distinguished by (2) HCOOH
(1) CHCl3 /KOH (3) CF3 COOH
(2) Br2 /H2 O (4) C6 H5 COOH
(3) Hinsberg’s reagent
(4) Dilute HCl 85. In the reaction,

82. The compound which will give 2,4-DNP test

is
(1) A is
(1) 2, 3-dimethyl pent-2-ene
(2) 2, 4-dimethyl pent 2-ene
(3) 3- ethyl pent-2-ene
(2) (4) 2,3- dimethyl pentane

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

86. The reaction, 87. KMnO 4 /H

+

[H] ( CH3 ) C = C H2 −−−−−−→ A + B + H2 O

2
CH3 COC H3 −−−−−−−−−→ CH3 CH2 CH3 A and B are
Zn(Hg), conc. HCl
(1) (CH3 )2 C = O and CO2
is known as
(1) Wolff-Kishner reduction (2) (CH3 )2 C(OH) CH2 OH and CO2
(2) Clemmensen reduction (3) (CH3 )2 C = O and HCHO
(3) Wittig reaction (4) (CH3 )2 C(OH)CH2 ­OH and HCHO
(4) Stephen's reduction

11
Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

88. Consider the following reaction sequence 93. Non-essential amino acid among the
following is
(1) Proline
(2) Threonine
(3) Lysine
Product B is (4) Valine
(1)
94. During ‘Denaturation of protein’
(1) The hydrogen bonds get disturbed and
protein is called native protein
(2) (2) 1°, 2°, and 3° structures of proteins are
destroyed hence pH of protein changes
(3) The protein is subjected to physical or
chemical change and converted into its
(3) native form
(4) The globules unfold, helix get uncoiled
and protein loses its biological activity

(4) 95.

P(major)
Major product P is
89.
(1) m-Nitroaniline
(2) p-Nitroaniline
(3) Nitrobenzene
B is (4) Benzene
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – OH
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CHO 96. Which of the following compounds does not
(3) undergo Friedal-Crafts reaction?
(1) Anisole
(2) Chlorobenzene
(4) (3) Aniline
(4) Benzene

90. The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in 97. Among the following the most basic
strongly acidic medium produces compound in aqeous medium is
(1) Aniline (1) (C2 H5 )2 NH
(2) p-Aminophenol (2) (C2 H5 )3 N
(3) Azoxybenzene (3) C2 H5 NH2
(4) Azobenzene
(4) NH3

91. Which of the following will be most stable

+ − 98. Product obtained in the following reaction is
diazonium salt RN2 X ?
called
(1) C6 H5 CH2 N
+
−
X
2

(2) CH3 N
+
X
−
2

(3) C6 H5 N
+
−
X (1) Acetal
2

(4) +
− (2) Schiff's base
CH3 CH2 N X
2
(3) Carbylamine
(4) Schiff's acid
92. Glucose does not react with
(1) HI
(2) NH2 OH
(3) HCN
(4) NaHSO3

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

99. Consider the following reaction sequence

Identify ‘A’.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

100.

Product C and D are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Among the invertebrates, maximum 102. Tropics show rich biodiversity because,
biodiversity is of (a) Tropical areas receive more solar energy
(1) Crustaceans (b) Tropical environment is relatively more
constant and predictable than temperate
(2) Protozoans
ones.
(3) Molluscs (c) Tropical environment is less seasonal
(4) Insects than temperate environment.
(1) Only (a) is correct
(2) Only (b) is correct
(3) Only (c) is correct
(4) All (a), (b) and (c) are correct

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

103. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to 110. Alien species invasion can be exemplified
all, except by all, except
(1) Decline in plant productivity (1) Nile perch and fishes of Lake Victoria
(2) Reduced resistance to environmental (2) Parthenium and crops in India
disturbances (3) Water hyacinth and aquatic organisms
(3) Variability of ecosystem processes of Indian lakes
(4) Increase in resistance to invasions by (4) Fig and fig wasp
alien species
111. The earth summit held in Rio de Janeiro in
104. What percentage of global biodiversity is 1992 was called to
shared by India? (1) Discuss methods to control pollution
(1) 8.1% (2) Discuss sustainable development
(2) 2.4% (3) Take appropriate measures for
(3) 12% conservation of biodiversity and
(4) 10% sustainable utilisation of its benefits
(4) Discuss the impact of deforestation on
ecosystem
105. Select the odd one for in-situ conservation
strategy of biodiversity.
(1) Biosphere reserves 112. The most important cause driving most of
animals and plants to extinction is
(2) Wildlife safari parks
(1) Alien species invasion
(3) National parks
(2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Wildlife sanctuaries
(3) Over-exploitation
(4) Co-extinction of associated species
106. Which of the given is an example of
organisms with recent extinction in
Mauritius? 113. Term biodiversity was popularised by
(1) Dodo (1) Edward Wilson
(2) Quagga (2) Lindman
(3) Thylacine (3) P. Ehrlich
(4) Steller’s sea cow (4) R. May

107. Which of the following is not an “Evil 114. How many of the following are broadly
quartet”? utilitarian services of biodiversity?
(1) Over exploitation (a) Oxygen
(b) Fibres
(2) Co-extinction
(c) Pollination
(3) Co-evolution (d) Flood and erosion control
(4) Alien species invasions (1) One
473 (2) Three
108. Species area relationship of the biodiversity (3) Four
was given by (4) Two
(1) Robert May
(2) Edward Wilson
115. Biodiversity decreases as we move from
(3) Alexander von Humboldt
(1) Temperate to tropical areas
(4) Paul Ehrlich
(2) Poles to equator
(3) High to low altitude
109. What does ‘S’ stand in the Species-Area (4) Colombia to Greenland
relationship equation?
(1) Species area
116. David Tilman performed/proposed
(2) Species richness
(1) Long term ecosystem, experiment
(3) Regression coefficient
using outdoor plot
(4) Species interrelationship
(2) Species area relationship
(3) Integrated waste water management
(4) Rivet popper hypothesis

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

117. What is the major cause of the extinction of 124. Sacred groves are for
passenger pigeon? (1) Conservation of rare species
(1) Alien species invasion (2) Spreading awareness for global
(2) Habit loss and fragmentation warming
(3) Over exploitation by humans (3) Preventing the soil erosion
(4) Co-extinction (4) Ex-situ conservation of many species

118. In India, Parthenium, Lantana and water 125. Exploring molecular, genetic and species
hyacinth, all are level biodiversities for products of economic
(1) Endangered species importance is called
(2) Critical link species (1) Bioprospecting
(3) Keystone species (2) Bioremediation
(4) Invasive species (3) Biocontrol
(4) Biodiversity
119. In an ecosystem, rich species diversity is
important to provide all of the following, 126. Which of the following is an example of
except organism with recent extinction in Africa?
(1) Resistance to invasions by alien (1) Thylacine
species (2) Quagga
(2) Resistance to occasional natural (3) Dodo
disturbances
(4) Steller’s sea cow
(3) Resilience to man-made disturbances
(4) Much variations in productivity from
year to year 127. Choose the odd one regarding the
characteristics of species which are more
susceptible to extinction.
120. World Summit on Sustainable Development (1) Large body size
held in 2002 took place in
(2) Small population size
(1) Brazil
(3) High reproductive rate
(2) South America
(4) Fixed habitat and migratory route
(3) South Africa
(4) Paris
128. Different zones in a terrestrial biosphere
reserve are labelled as A, B & C as shown
121. In global plant biodiversity, which of the below.
following taxonomic groups is most species
diverse?
(1) Mosses
(2) Angiosperms
(3) Algae
(4) Gymnosperms

122. According to the International Union for In which zone(s), human settlements of local
Conservation of Nature and natural people can be seen?
resources (IUCN) 2004, the total number of (1) B
plant and animal species described so far is
(2) B & C
slightly more than
(3) C
(1) 7 million
(4) A
(2) 20 to 50 million
(3) 1.5 million
(4) 3.5 million 129. Which of the following groups is facing the
maximum threat of extinction?
(1) Birds
123. Extinction of several species of cichlid fish in
(2) Mammals
lake Victoria has occurred due to
(3) Amphibians
(1) Habitat loss
(4) Gymnosperms
(2) Alien species invasion
(3) Over exploitation
(4) Loss of symbiotic partner

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

130. In the following pie chart of global vertebrate 132. Read the following statements and choose
diversity, what does A, B and C represent? the correct option.
Statement-A : In India, biosphere reserves
are ecologically unique and legally
protected biodiversity rich regions.
Statement-B : Biodiversity hotspots have
high degree of endemism.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A & B are correct
(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect

133. The organization which publishes the Red

List of species is
(1) ICFRE
(2) IUCN
A B C (3) UNEP
(1) Mammals Amphibians Fishes (4) WWF
(2) Amphibians Fishes Mammals
(3) Fishes Mammals Amphibians 134. How many hot spots are identified globally?
(4) Amphibians Mammals Fishes (1) 20
(1) (1) (2) 3
(2) (2) (3) 34
(3) (3) (4) 50
(4) (4)
135. Read the statements and select the correct
131. Which of the given equation is correct w.r.t. option.
species-area relationship? Statement A: Fruit eating birds are called
frugivores.
(1) log C = log S + Z log A
Statement B: Current species extinction
(2) log S = log C + Z log A rates are 100 to 1000 times faster than in
(3) log Z = log C + S log A pre-human era.
(4) log A = log Z + S log C (1) Both A and B are correct
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

SECTION-B

136. The variation shown by the medicinal plant 138. Endemic species are those species which
Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different (1) Are found everywhere hence called
Himalayan ranges in terms of potency and cosmopolitan species
concentration of the active chemical
(2) Are vulnerable and facing high risk of
reserpine. This is an example of
extinction.
(1) Genetic diversity
(3) Are threatened due to over exploitation
(2) Species diversity
(4) Are found in a particular geographical
(3) Community diversity area such as Western Ghats
(4) Ecological diversity
139. Select the incorrect match w.r.t sacred
137. How many biosphere reserves are there in groves and their locations.
India? (1) Khasi and Jaintia hills – Meghalaya
(1) 14 (2) Aravalli hills – Rajasthan
(2) 26 (3) Bastar – Karnataka
(3) 6 (4) Chanda – Madhya Pradesh
(4) 43

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

140. The effect of reduction in biodiversity has 145. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. loss of
been explained by Paul Ehrlich through biodiversity.
Rivet popper hypothesis. According to this, (1) It leads to decline in plant species
rivets on the wings are considered as
(2) The IUCN Red List (2004) documents
(1) Ecosystem the extinction of 784 species in the last
(2) Autotrophs 500 years
(3) Population (3) ‘The Evil Quartet’ is the sobriquet used
(4) Key species to describe causes of biodiversity loss
(4) Presently, 92 percent of all bird species
and 91 percent of all gymnosperm
141. Arrange the following in order of increasing species in the world face the threat of
diversity of birds extinction
(A) New York
(B) India
(C) Columbia 146. What is the range of Z (regression
(D) Greenland coefficient) when analysis is done for the
(1) D < B < C < A species - area relationships for large area
like entire continent?
(2) A < B < D < C
(1) 0.1 to 0.2
(3) D < A < B < C
(2) 0.6 to 1.2
(4) B < A < D < C
(3) 0.1 to 0.6
(4) 0.2 to 0.6
142. We save the entire forest to save the tiger.
This approach is called.
(1) Ex-situ conservation 147. Number of animal species present in India
are nearly
(2) Off-site conservation
(1) 45,000
(3) Cryopreservation
(2) 90,000
(4) In-situ conservation
(3) 3,00,000
(4) 1,00,000
143. A : Even on Earth's equator, biodiversity
differs from place to place.
R : Different places on Earth's equator has 148. Species diversity
different habitats that have distinct biota. (1) Is diversity of a species at genetic level
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) Is diversity of species within a region
the reason is the correct explanation of
(3) Play a key role in process of speciation
the assertion
(4) Enables a population to adapt to its
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
environment
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason 149. Dying off or extermination of a large number
is false of species due to catastrophes is called
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (1) Mass extinction
statements (2) Natural selection
(3) Anthropogenic extinction
144. More than 1000 varieties of mango in India (4) Co-extinction
is an example of
(1) Species diversity 150. Which of the following scientist showed that
(2) Genetic diversity increased species diversity contributed to
(3) Ecological diversity higher productivity?
(4) Community diversity (1) Robert May
(2) David Tilman
(3) Alexander von Humboldt
(4) Edward Wilson

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. ‘The integration of natural science and 156. Golden rice has been developed for
organisms, cells, parts thereof and increased content of a substance which is
molecular analogues for products and considered as a precursor molecule for
services'. vitamin-A. This substance is
This definition of biotechnology was given (1) Xanthophyll
by
(2) β-carotene
(1) EFB
(3) Anthocyanin
(2) CDRI
(4) Retinol
(3) IARI
(4) GEAC
157. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma
and flavour. How many documented
152. Read the statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ and choose varieties of Basmati are grown in our
the correct option. country?
Statement A : Agrobacterium tumefaciens (1) 200
causes crown gall in dicots.
(2) 2,00,000
Statement B : Agrobacterium tumefaciens
enters the host through wound and injuries (3) 27
in certain plants. (4) 127
(1) B is correct, A is incorrect
(2) Both A and B are correct 158. Transgenic plants have been useful in all,
(3) Both A and B are incorrect except
(4) A is correct, B is incorrect (1) Increased reliance on chemical
pesticides
(2) Made crops more tolerant to abiotic
153. Insulin contains
stresses
(1) Two polypeptide chains only
(3) Increased efficiency of mineral usage
(2) Three polypeptide chains only by plants
(3) Four polypeptide chains only (4) Helped to reduce post-harvest losses
(4) One polypeptide chain only
159. RNA interference has been used in the
154. The protein encoded by gene cryIAb development of tobacco plants resistant to
controls (1) Nematodes
(1) Mosquito (2) Armyworm
(2) Beetles (3) Beetles
(3) Corn borer (4) Flies
(4) Flies
160. Select the first transgenic cow from the
155. The applications of biotechnology include following.
all, except (1) Dolly
(1) Agro-chemical based farming (2) Tracy
(2) Pest resistant plants (3) ANDi
(3) Bioremediation (4) Rosie
(4) Therapeutics

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

161. Assertion (A) : The genetic defect- 166. The method of RNAi involves silencing of a
adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency can specific A due to formation of B .
be permanently cured under some
Choose¯¯¯ ¯¯¯
the option that fills ¯the
¯¯¯¯¯
blanks
conditions.
correctly.
Reason (R) : Introduction of gene coding for
ADA in stem cells at early embryonic stages (1) A - mRNA, B - dsRNA
can cure this disease permanently. (2) A - ssDNA, B - dsDNA
In the light of above statements, select the (3) A - dsDNA, B - ssDNA
correct option.
(4) A - dsRNA, B - mRNA
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and the Reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion 167. All of the following issues are taken into
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but consideration by the 2nd amendment of the
the Reason is not the correct Indian Patents Bill, except
explanation of the Assertion (1) Patent terms emergency provisions
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (2) Patent terms researches
is false (3) Patent terms development initiatives
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4) Promotion of unauthorised exploitation
statements of bio-resources

162. The use of bioresources by multinational 168. Abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene
companies and other organisations, without through
proper authorisation from the countries and
people concerned, and without (1) Cloning
compensatory payment is called (2) Radiation
(1) Bioethics (3) Gene therapy
(2) Biopiracy (4) Surgery
(3) Bioterrorism
(4) Biowar 169. Over 95% of transgenic animals are
(1) Rabbit
163. α-1-antitrypsin is protein used in treatment (2) Pigs
of (3) Mice
(1) Emphysema (4) Sheep
(2) Atelectasis
(3) Asthma 170. The first human hormone produced by
(4) Fibrosis of lungs recombinant DNA technology is
(1) Estrogen
164. Which of the following nucleic acid based (2) Testosterone
diagnostic technique is used for early (3) Thyroxine
detection of HIV?
(4) Insulin
(1) Urine analysis 473
(2) PCR
171. A genetically modified organism, “Rosie” is
(3) Serum analysis known for producing human protein
(4) Biopsy enriched milk. The milk contains α–
lactalbumin, whose concentration is
165. The novel strategy used by Eli Lilly in 1983 (1) 2.4 grams/litre
for production of humulin by genetic (2) 1.7 grams/litre
engineering was (3) 4.2 grams/litre
(1) Production of Pro-insulin by E.coli and (4) 7.1 grams/litre
maturation in bioreactors
(2) Production of A and B chains
separately and then combined 172. Bt cotton is resistant to
(1) Insects
(3) Production of chains A and B together
in the same host cell and then (2) Herbicides
extracted (3) Pesticides
(4) Production of mature insulin directly by (4) Drought
E.coli and requiring no further
combining of chains

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

173. The characteristics of a molecular probe are 180. At present about ___ recombinant
all, except therapeutics have been approved for human
(1) ssDNA or ssRNA use in world. Choose the option that fills the
blank correctly.
(2) Very long nucleotide sequence of
dsDNA (1) 30
(3) Short nucleotide sequence (2) 12
(4) Complementary to a part of desired (3) 15
gene (4) 20

174. Mass production of safe and more effective 181. Choose the correct option to complete the
therapeutics can be possible by using analogy
(1) PCR Lepidopterans : Tobacco budworm : :
Dipterans : _________
(2) Probe
(1) Army worms
(3) RDT
(2) Beetles
(4) RNAi
(3) Mosquitoes
(4) Corn borer
175. Which organisation in India deals with the
safety of introducing GM-organisms for
public services? 182. How many intrachain disulphide bonds are
(1) GAEC present in mature insulin?
(2) GEAC (1) Zero
(3) CDRI (2) 2
(4) NDRI (3) 1
(4) 3
176. Which step was main challenge in the
production of human insulin by recombinant 183. Nematode specific genes were introduced
DNA technology? into the tobacco plant by using
(1) Splitting of A and B polypeptide chains (1) pBR 322
(2) Addition of C-polypeptide to proinsulin (2) Ti plasmid
(3) Getting insulin assembled into mature (3) Retro virus
form (4) Bacteriophage
(4) Removal of B-peptide chain
184. Which of the following animals are preferred
177. Animals that have had their DNA for chemical safety testing and why?
manipulated to possess and express a (1) Non-transgenic animals; as they give
foreign gene are known as the same result as transgenic animals
(1) Hybrids (2) Non-transgenic animals; as they are
(2) Clones more sensitive to toxic substances
(3) Transgenic animals (3) Transgenic animals; as they are made
(4) Ramet more sensitive to toxic substances
(4) Transgenic animals; as they are
immune to toxic substances
178. The peptide removed during maturation from
pro insulin into functional insulin in humans
is 185. Read the following statements.
(1) C peptide Statement A: Genetically modified crop is
used to maximise the use of fertilizers and
(2) A peptide
chemicals so that their harmful effects on the
(3) B peptide environment are reduced.
(4) D peptide Statement B: Genetic modification has
been used to create tailor-made plants to
supply alternative resources to industries ,
179. GEAC stands for in the form of starches, fuel and
(1) Genome Engineering Action pharmaceuticals.
Committee Select the correct option.
(2) General Engineering Action Committee (1) Only statement B is correct
(3) Genetic Engineering Approval (2) Only statement A is correct
Committee (3) Both statements are correct
(4) Genetic and Environmental Assisted (4) Both statements are incorrect
Committee

20
Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

SECTION-B

186. A national committee, GEAC establishes 191. Assertion : Bt cotton plants are pesticide
rules and regulations for the maintenance of resistant.
(1) Biopiracy Reason : Bt cotton plants have been
prepared by introducing toxin from Bacillus
(2) Biodegradation
thuringiensis.
(3) Bioethics (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
(4) Biowar and the Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion
187. Today transgenic models have been (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
developed for many human diseases, which the Reason is not the correct
includes explanation of the Assertion
I. Rheumatoid arthritis (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
II. Alzheimer’s disease is false
III. Cancer (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
IV. Cystic fibrosis statements
Choose the correct option
(1) I and II only
192. An American company got patent rights on
(2) II and IV only
Basmati rice through the A office in the
(3) I, II and IV only ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(4) I, II, III and IV year B .
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
Choose the option which correctly fill the
blanks.
188. Which of the following transgenic animals
are used in testing safety of polio vaccine A B
before they are used in humans?
(1) US patent and trademark – 1997
(1) Cow
(2) Goat (2) European patent – 1997
(3) Mice (3) Japan patent – 1987
(4) Sheep
(4) International patent – 1987
(1) (1)
189. Bt protoxin is activated in alkaline pH
because (2) (2)
(1) Toxin is crystallised (3) (3)
(2) Protoxin gets cleaved and its crystals (4) (4)
are solubilised
(3) Toxin crystals are coated with lipids 193. Which statement is incorrect for RNAi?
(4) Toxin remains as such (1) RNAi mechanism is present in all
eukaryotic organisms as a method of
cellular defense
190. How many recombinant therapeutics are
being marketed presently in India? (2) RNAi technique involves mRNA
(1) 30 silencing
(2) 27 (3) It was used for the formation of
transgenic golden rice
(3) 12
(4) RNAi does not take place in prokaryotic
(4) 10 cells

194. A mutated gene can be identified directly by

using
(1) Probe followed by using
autoradiography
(2) ELISA
(3) Microscopy
(4) Serum analysis

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Term Exam 2024_CF+OYM(P1)-TE07A

195. Read the following carefully. 198. C-peptide of human insulin is

(a) Vaccine safety (1) A part of mature insulin molecule
(b) Study of diseases
(2) Responsible for formation of disulphide
(c) Biological products
bridges in mature insulin
Select the option with the advantages of
transgenic animals from above. (3) Removed during maturation of
(1) (a) and (b) only proinsulin to insulin
(2) (b) and (c) only (4) Responsible for biological activity of
humulin
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
199. Transposons are also known as
(1) Mobile genetic elements
196. How many disulfide bonds are present in
(2) GMOs
proinsulin and mature insulin respectively?
(1) 3, 3 (3) RNA intermediates
(2) 2, 3 (4) Probes
(3) 3, 2
(4) 2, 2 200. Read the statements carefully and choose
the correct option
Statement A: The green revolution
197. Which of the following was used as vector in succeeded in only doubling the food supply.
first clinical gene therapy for SCID? Statement B: Increased yields of crops was
(1) Arbovirus mainly due to the use of improved crop
varieties during green revolution.
(2) Disarmed retrovirus
(1) Both statements are correct
(3) Enterovirus
(2) Only statement A is correct
(4) Gemini virus
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

22