PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY + MATHEMATICS

DAILY PRACTICE QUESTIONS

JW - 2027
Class (XI)
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 CONTENTS

PHYSICS

01. Rectilinear Motion-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 05

02. Units and Measurements--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 22

03. Vectors, Projectile Motion------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 40

04. Relative Motion------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 59

CHEMISTRY

01. Basic Concept of Chemistry----------------------------------------------------------------------------------72

02. Structure of Atom--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------90

03. Classification of Elements---------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 110

MATHEMATICS

01. Sets---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 126

02. Mathematical Induction and Linear Inequality------------------------------------------------- 136

03. Relation Function------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 143

04. Trigonometric Function-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 158

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 PHYSICS

Chapter
RECTILINEAR MOTION
01
QUESTIONS 4. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B
LEVEL - I of a ground where AB = a. The boy at B
starts running in a direction perpendicular
1. The displacement of the point of the wheel to AB with velocity ν1 . The boy at A starts
initially in contact with the ground, when the
wheel rolls forward half a revolution will be running simultaneously with velocity ν and
(radius of the wheel is R)
R catches the other boy in a time t, where t is
A)
π2 + 4 2 2
A) a / ν + ν1

2
B) R π + 4
B) a 2 / ( ν 2 − ν12 )
C) 2πR
D) πR C) a / ( ν − ν1 )
2. If car covers 2/5 of the total distance with
th

ν1 speed and 3/5th distance with ν 2 then

D) a / ( ν + ν1 )
average speed is
1 ν1 + ν 2 5. An ant is at a corner of a cubical room of
A) ν1ν 2 B) side a. The ant can move with a constant
2 2
speed u. The minimum time taken to reach
the farthest corner of the cube is
2ν1ν 2 5ν1ν 2
C) D) 3a 3a
ν1 + ν 2 3ν1 + 2ν 2 A) B)
u u
3. A man walks on a straight road from his
home to market 2.5 km away with a speed
of 5km/h. Finding the market closed, he
C)
5a
D)
( 2 +1 a )
instantly turns and walks back home with
u u
a speed of 7.5 km/h. The average speed
of the man over the interval of time 0 to 40 6. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a con-
min. is equal to stant velocity of 10 m/s. When a constant
25 force acts for 4 sec on it, it moves with a
A) 5 km /h B) km/h velocity 2m/sec in the opposite direction.
4 The acceleration produced in it is

30 45 A) 3 m/s2 B) –3 m/s2
C) km/h D) km/h C) 0.3 m/s2 D) –0.3 m/s2
4 8

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
7. A body A starts from rest with an acceleration 11. A particle started from rest and traverses a
a1. After 2 seconds, another body B starts distance 2x with uniform acceleration, then
from rest with an acceleration a2. If they moves uniformly over a further distance 4x
travel equal distances in the 5th second, after and finally comes to rest after moving a fur-
the start of A, then the ratio a1 : a2 is equal to ther distance 6x under uniform retardation.
Assuming entire motion to be rectilinear
A) 5 : 9 B) 5 : 7 motion, the ratio of average speed over the
C) 9 : 5 D) 9 : 7 3
journey to maximum speed on its way is ,
n
8. A car starting from rest accelerates at the
rate f through a distance s, then continues where n is
at constant speed for time t and then decel- A) 5 B) 4
f
erates at rate to come to rest. If the total C) 3 D) 2
2
distance covered is 15 s, then 12. A body moving with an initial velocity of 10m/s
maintains a constant acceleration for 20s. It
ft 2 ft 2 it covers 88m in its last second of motion
A) s = B) = s what is its acceleration?
72 4
A) 3 ms-2

ft 2 ft 2 B) 4 ms-2
C) s = D) s =
6 2 C) 2 ms-2

9. Two objects are moving along the same D) 0.5 ms-2

straight line. They cross a point A with an 13. A man throws ball with the same speed verti-
acceleration a, 2a and velocity 2u, u at time cally upwards one after the other at an inter-
t = 0. The distance moved by the object val of 2 seconds. What should be the speed
when one overtake the other is of the throw so that more than two balls are
in the sky at any time (Given g=9.8m/s2)
6u 2 2u 2
A) B) A) At least 0.8 m/s
a a
B) Any speed less than 19.6 m/s
C) Only with speed 19.6 m/s
2 2
4u 8u D) More than 19.6 m/s
C) D)
a a
14. A man drops a ball downside from the roof
10. A car starts from rest and moves with con- of a tower of height 400 meters. At the same
stant acceleration. The ratio of the distance time another ball is thrown upside with a ve-
covered in the nth second to that covered in locity 50 meter/sec. from the surface of the
n seconds is tower, then they will meet at which height
from the surface of the tower
2 1 2 1
A) − B) + A) 100 meters
n2 n n2 n
B) 320 meters

2 1 2 1 C) 80 meters
C) − D) +
n n2 n n2 D) 240 meters

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

15. A very large number of balls are thrown ver- 19. A stone is thrown from the top of a building
tically upwards in quick succession in such with an initial velocity of 20 ms–1 straight
a way that the next ball is thrown when the upwards. The building is 50 m high, and the
previous one is at the maximum height. If the stone just misses the edge of the roof on its
maximum height is 5m, the number of ball way down as shown in the figure.
thrown per minute is (take g = 10ms–2)
A) 120 B) 80
C) 60 D) 40
16. A stone dropped from a building of height h
and it reaches after t seconds on earth. From
the same building if two stones are thrown
(one upwards and other downwards) with
the same velocity u and they reach the earth
surface after t1 and t2 seconds respectively,
then

A) t = t1 – t2

t1 + t 2
B) t =
2 The velocity and position of the stone at
t=5s, respectively, are
C) t = t1 t 2 A) 14.5 m s–1, –12.5 m
2 2
B) 29 m s–1, –22.5 m
D) t = t1 t 2 C) –14.5 m s–1, –12.5 m
17. By which velocity a ball be project- D) –29 m s–1, –22.5 m
ed vertically upwards so that the dis- 20. A parachutist bails out from an aeroplane and
tance covered by it in 5th second it twice after dropping through a distance of 90m, he
the distance it covers in its 6 th second opens the parachute and decelerates at 2 m
(g=10 m/s2) s–2. If he reaches the ground with a speed of
2 m s–1, how long is he in the air?
A) 58.8 m/s B) 49 m/s
A) 15.86 s B) 20 s
C) 65 m/s D) 19.6 m/s C) 24.3 s D) 24 s
21. A flowerpot falls off a window sill and falls
18. A body is released from a great height and past the window below. It takes 0.5 s to pass
falls freely towards the earth. Another body through a 2.0 m high window. Find how high
is released from the same height exactly one is the window sill from the top of the window?
second later. The separation between the
two bodies, two seconds after the release
of the second body is

A) 4.9 m

B) 9.8 m

C) 19.6 m
A) 10 cm B) 7.5 cm
D) 24.5 m C) 11.25 cm D) 15 cm

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
22. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the 25. The distance travelled by a body during last
top of a tower of height h with velocity v. The second of its total flight is d when the body
ball strikes the ground after time. is projected vertically up with certain velocity.
If the velocity of projection is doubled, the
v 2gh  distance travelled by the body during last
A) 1 + 1 + 2  second of its total flight is
g v 
A) 2d
B) d
v 2gh 
B) 1 − 1 + 2  g
g v  C) 2d +
2

v  2gh 
1/2 g
D) 2d −
C)  1 + 2  2
g v 
26. A particle is projected upwards the times
corresponding to height h while ascending
1/2
v  2gh  and while descending are t1 and t2 respectively.
D) 1 − 2  The velocity of projection will be
g v 
A) gt1 B) gt2
23. A ball is released from the top of a tower of
height h metre. It takes T second to reach
( t1 + t 2 )
C) g(t1+tB) D) g
the ground. What is the position of the ball 2
in T/3 second ?
27. Water drops are falling from the nozzle of a
A) h/9 metre from the ground shower into the floor from a height of 9.8m.
The drops fall at a regular interval of time.
 7h  When the first drop strikes the floor the third
B)   metre from the ground drop just begins to fall. Locate the position of
 9 
the second drop from the ground when the
first drop hits the ground.
 8h  A) 2.45m
C)   metre from the ground
 9  B) 7.35m
C) 2.94m
 17h  D) 4.18m
D)   metre from the ground
 18  28. A balloon was moving upwards with a uniform
velocity of 10m/s. An object of finite mass is
24. A particle is projected vertically upwards and dropped from the balloon when it was at a
reaches the maximum height H in time T. The height of 75m from the ground level. The
height of the particle at any time t(<T) will be height of the balloon from the ground when
object strikes the ground was around: (take
A) g ( t − T ) B) H − g ( t − T )
2 2
the value of g as 10m/s2)

1 1 A) 300m B) 200m
C) g ( t − T ) D) H − g ( T − t )
2 2

2 2 C) 125m D) 250m

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

29. A balloon is rising vertically upwards at a 34. The relation between time t and distance x
velocity of 10ms–1. When it is at a height of is t= αx2+βx, where a and β are constants.
45m from the ground, a parachute bails out The retardation is ( v is the velocity)
from it. After 3s he opens his parachute and A) 2αν
3
B) 2βν
3

decelerates at a constant rate of 5ms–2. Take

g = 10ms–2. 3 2 3
C) 2αβν D) 2β ν
A) He was 15m above the ground when he
opened his parachute 35. A body starts from the origin and moves
B) The velocity of the parachutist 3s after he along the x-axis such that velocity at any
bails out is 5ms–1 vertically upwards. instant is given by (4t3–2t), where t is in
second and velocity is in m/s. What is the
C) He hits the ground with a speed of 10ms–1 acceleration of the particle, when it is 2m
D) He hits the ground 5s after his exit from from the origin ?
the balloon A) 28 m/s2 B) 22 m/s2
C) 12 m/s2 D) 10 m/s2
36. The acceleration of a particle is increasing
30. 3t
The relation= 3x + 6 describes the dis- linearly with time t as bt. The particle starts
from the origin with an initial velocity v0. The
placement of a particle in one direction where distance travelled by the particle in time t will
x is in metres and t in sec. The displacement, be
when a velocity is zero, is 12 13
A) v 0 t + bt B) v 0 t + bt
3 3
A) 24 metres B) 12 metres
C) 5 metres D) Zero 1 3 1 2
C) v 0 t + bt D) v 0 t + bt
31. The motion of a particle is described by 6 2
the equation x= a+bt2 where a =15 cm and 37. A particle moves along the positive x-axis in
b=3cm. Its instantaneous velocity at time 3 such a way that its coordinate varies in time
sec will be according to the expression x=5+3t –6t2,
A) 36 cm/sec B) 18 cm/sec where x is in m and t is in s. The coordinate,
velocity and acceleration at t=2s will be,
C) 16 cm/sec D) 32 cm/sec respectively,
32. The displacement of a particle, moving in A) 4 m, 10 m s-1, 6 m s–2
a straight line, is given by s = 2t2 + 2t+ 4 B) –13m, –21 m s–1m –12 m s–2
where s is in metres and t in seconds. The C) –4 m, –10 m s–1, –6m s–2
acceleration of the particle is D) 13 m, 21 m s–1, 12 m s­–2
38. A particle moving along x-axis has acceler-
A) 2 m/s2 B) 4 m/s2
 t
C) 6 m/s2 D) 8 m/s2 ation f, at time t, given by=f f 0 1 − ,
 T
33. The position x of a particle varies with time
where f0 and T are constants. The particle at
t as x = at2 – bt3. The acceleration of the
t = 0 has zero velocity. At the instant when
particle will be zero at time t equal to
f = 0, the particle’s velocity is
a 2a 1
A) B) A) f0T B) f0T
b 3b 2
a 1
C) D) Zero C) f0T 2 D) f 0 T
2

3b 2

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
39. A particle moves along a straight line OX. 42. A ball is thrown vertically upward which
At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in of the following graph represents velocity
meters) of the particle from O is given by x time graph of the ball during its flight (air
= 40 + 12t – t3. How long would the particle resistance is neglected)
travel before coming to rest?
A) 24 m B) 40 m
C) 56 m D) 16 m

Ve l o c i t y
Ve l o c i t y
40. A particle moves along a straight line. Its A) B)
Time Time
position at any instant is given by
8t 3
x 32t −
= where x is in metres and t in
3
seconds. Find the acceleration of the particle
at the instant when particle is at rest
A) -16 ms-2 B) -32 ms-2

Velocity

Ve l o c i t y
C) 32 ms-2 D) 16 ms-2 C) D)
41. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which Time Time
of the following plots represents the speed-
time graph of the ball during its flight if the
air resistance is ignored
43. The acceleration-time graph of a body is
shown below-
A)

B)

The most probable velocity-time graph of

the body is

C)
A) B)

D)

C) D)

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

44. Velocity time graph of two cars which start 46. Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown.
from rest at the same time, are shown in the The corresponding velocity-time graph of the
figure. Graph shows, that same body is

A) Initial velocity of A is greater than the
A)
initial velocity of B
B) Acceleration in A is increasing at lesser
rate than in B
C) Acceleration in A is greater than in B B)
D) Acceleration in B is greater than in
A
45. Which one of the following graphs represents
the velocity of a steel ball which fall from a
height on to a marble floor? (Here V rep-
resents the velocity of the particle and t the
C)
time)
A)
D)

47. The figure shows velocity-time graph of a

B) particle moving along a straight line. Identify
the correct statement

C)

A) The particle starts from the origin

B) The particle crosses it initial position at t
= 2s
D) C) The average speed of the particle in the
time interval, 0 ≤ t ≤ 2 s is zero
D) All of the above

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
48. The acceleration of a train between two sta- 51. A particle is initially at rest, it is subjected to a
tions is shown in the figure. The maximum linear acceleration a, as shown in the figure.
speed of the train is The maximum speed attained by the particle
is

A) 60 m/s B) 30m/s
C) 120m/s D) 90m/s
49. The displacement of a particle as a function
of time is shown in the figure. The figure
shows that

A) 605 m/s

B) 110 m/s

C) 55 m/s

A) The particle starts with certain velocity but D) 550 m/s

the motion is retarded and finally the particle
stops 52. Match tables I and II
B) The velocity of the particle is constant
throughout A balloon rises up with constant net
acceleration of 10m/s2. After 2s a particle
C) The acceleration of the particle is constant drops from the balloon. After further 2s match
throughout the following (Take g=10m/sB)
D) The particle starts with constant velocity,
then motion s accelerated and finally the
particle moves with another constant velocity Table-1 Table-2
50. A body is thrown vertically upwards. Which Height of particle
A) P) Zero
one of the following graphs correctly repre- from ground
sent velocity versus time graph B) Speed of particle Q) 10 SI units
Displacement of
C) R) 40 SI units
particle
Acceleration of
A) B) D) S) 20 SI units
particle

A) A-R; B-P; C-S; D-Q

B) A-P; B-R; C-Q; D-S

C) A-S; B-P; C-R; D-Q

C) D)
D) A-Q; B-P; C-S; D-R

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

53. Table I gives some graphs for a particle 57. A pebble is dropped from rest from the
moving along x-axis in positive x-direction. top of a tall cliff and falls 4.9m after 1.0s
The variables v,x and t represent speed of has elapsed. How much farther does
the particle, x-coordinate of the particle and it drop in the next 2 seconds(in meter).
time respectively. Match the graphs in table Take g = 9.8m/s2
II with the statements in table II.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Table-I Table-I
1. An object is moving with a uniform acceleration
P) Acceleration which is parallel to its instantaneous direction
of particle is of motion. The displacement (s) –velocity (v)
A) uniform graph of this object is

Q) Accelera-
tion of particle A) B)
B) is nonuniform

R) Acceleration
of particle is
C)
directly propor- C) D)
tional to 't'
S) Acceleration
of particle is 2. The relation between t and distance x is t =
D) directly propor- ax2+bx, where a and b are constants. The
tional to 'x' acceleration is
A) –2abv2
A) A-P; B-S,Q; C-P; D-R,Q
2) 2 bv3
B) A-S,Q; B-P; C-P; D-Q
C) –2av3
C) A-R,Q; B-P; C-P; D-S,Q
D) 2 av2
D) A-S,Q; B-R,Q; C-P; D-P
3. A particle moves along a straight line OX.
INTEGER AND NUMERICAL TYPE At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in
54. A particle is projected up with an initial meters) of the particle from O is given by
speed u m/s. It is observed that the distance x=40+12t–t3
covered by the particle in fifth and sixth
seconds are equal. What will be the value How long would the particle travel before
of u? coming to rest

55. A ball is thrown upward with such a velocity v A) 24 m 2) 40 m

that it returns thrower after 3s. Take g=10m/ C) 56 m D) 16 m
s2. The value of v is (in m/s)
4. A particle starts its motion from rest under
56. A particle takes t seconds less and acquire the action of a constant force. If the distance
a velocity of v m/s more in falling through covered in first 10s is S1 and that covered in
the same distance on two planets where the first 20s is S2, then
the acceleration due to gravity are 2g and
8g respectively, then v=xgt. What will be the A) S2=2S1 B) S2=3S1
value of x. C) S2=4S1 D) S2=S1

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
5. A particle shows distance-time curve as given 1
in this figure. The maximum instantaneous 9. A biker travels of the distance L with
3
velocity of the particle is around the point
2
speed v1 and of the distance with speed
3
v2. Then the average speed is
v1v 2 3v1v 2
A) B)
v1 + v 2 2v1 + v 2
A) B B) C
C) D D) A
6. The velocity of a particle is v=v0+gt+Ft2. Its 3v1v 2 v1 + v 2
C) 4)
position is x=0 at t=0, then its displacement v1 + v 2 v1v 2
after time (t=1) is
10. During a one dimensional motion, a particle
g F
A) v0+g+F B) v 0 + + of mass ‘m’ starts from rest at x=0, t=0
2 3 under the influence of a time dependent
force F(t)= ma0 cos( ω t), where a0 and w are
g
C) v 0 + +F D) v0+2g+3F
2 two constants. The average velocity of the
π
7. The displacement ‘x’ (in meter) of a particle particle at t = is
of mass ‘m’ (in kg) moving in one dimension ω
under the action of a force, is related to time
‘t’ (in sec) by, t= x + 3 . The displacement a0
A) Zero B)
ω
of the particle when its velocity is zero, will
be
A) 6m B) 2 m 2a 0 −2a 0
C) D)
C) 4 m D) 0m πω πω
8. A track is in square shape. The length of 11. The velocity of the bullet becomes one third
each side is ‘a’. There exists a pole at each after it penetrates 4cm in a wooden block.
corner as shown below. The person who Assuming that bullet is facing a constant
walks on the track starts at the 1st pole and resistance during its motion in the block.
reach the 4th pole. The ratio of distance The bullet stops completely after travelling
travelled by the person to displacement is at (4+x) cm inside the block. The value of x
is:
A) 2.0 B) 1.0
C) 0.5 D) 1.5
12. A particle is moving is a straight line such
that its velocity is increasing at 5 ms–1 per
1
A) B) 3 meter. The acceleration of the particle is
3 ––––– ms–2, at a point where its velocity is
20 ms–1
2 3
C) D) A) 100 B) 50
3 2
C) 25 D) 200

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

13. A rocket moves straight upward with zero 17. A particle is moving along x-axis with velocity
initial velocity and with an acceleration 20 m/ y=(Pt2–Qt3) m is the vertical displacement
s2. If runs out of fuel and stops accelerating of a ball which is moving in vertical plane.
at the end of 5th sec. It reaches a maximum Then the maximum height that the ball can
height and falls back to the earth. The speed reach is
when it hits the ground is (Take g=10 m/s2)
27P3 4Q 2
A) B)
A) 100 2m / s B) 150 3m / s 4Q 2 27P3
C) 50 6m / s D) 75 m/s
14. Acceleration a is given in terms of position x 4P3 27Q 2
C) D)
as a =2x m/s2.At x=0, the velocity v is zero. 27Q 2 4P3
What is the relation between velocity v and
position x? 18. A person moved from A to B on a circular
path as shown in figure. If the distance
A) v = 2x travelled by him is 60m, then the magnitude
2 of displacement would be: (Given cos 135°=
B) v = 2x –0.7)
x2
C) v = v
2

x2
D) v =
2 A) 42 m B) 47 m
C) 19 m D) 40 m
15. A car travelled half the distance with a
velocity ‘v’ and it covered the remaining half 19. If the velocity of a body related to
v displacement x is given by
distance with a velocity   in the first half
2 =v 5000 + 24x m/s then the acceleration

time and with velocity ‘2v’ in the second half of the a body is ____ m/s2
time. The average velocity of the car for the A) 20 B) 42
whole journey is C) 16 D) 12
10v 10v 20. The speed-time graph of a particle along a
A) B)
14 9 fixed direction is shown below. The distance
traversed by the particle between t=0s and
t=10 s will be
7v 10v
C) D) v
4 7
16. A particle moves in a straight line with 12m/s
uniform acceleration and with initial velocity
of 2m/s. Its average velocity after moving
for 4s is 6 m/s. The acceleration of the
particle t(s)
O 5 10
A) 3 m/s2 B) 2 m/s2 A) 120 m B) 90 m
C) 4 m/s 2
D) 1 m/s 2
C) 60 m D) 30 m

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
21. The velocity - displacement graph 23. A cyclist traversed half the distance of a
describing the motion of a bicycle is linear track with a velocity 10 m/s. The
shown in the following figure remaining part of the track was covered
with a velocity v1 for half the time and a
velocity v2 for the other half of the time. If
v1 + v 2 =
20m / s , then the average velocity

of the cyclist during the completion of the

journey through the track is

The acceleration -displacement graph of A) 30 m/s

the bicycle’s motion is best described by
B) 20 m/s

A) C) 10 m/s

D) 15 m/s

24. A car travels in a straight line along a road.

B) Its distance ‘x’ from a stop sign is given as
a function of ‘t’ by the equation x(t)= αt+βt3,
where α=2.0 m/s, =0.01 m/s3. Calculate
the average velocity of the car in the time
C) interval t=2.00s to 4.00s

A) 2.28 m/s

B) 4.94 m/s

C) 3.34 m/s
D)
D) 4.12 m/s

25. The velocity of a particle moving along the

x-axis varies as a function of time t as v(t)=
22. A scooter accelerates from rest for time t1 (1-3t2+2t3) ms-1. If its position at t=0 is x=0
at constant rate a1 and then retards at then at t=2s, its position is
constant rate a2 for time t2 and comes to
t1
rest. The correct value of will be A) 1 m
t2
B) 2 m
a + a2 a
A) 1 B) 2
a2 a1
C) 4 m
a1 a1 + a 2
C) D) D) 18 m
a2 a1

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

26. For the following velocity-time graph, the 29. The velocity (v) of a body moving along the
average speed for the motion during first 80 positive x direction varies with displacement
seconds (x) from the origin as v = k x , where k is a

constant. Then which of the following x-t

graph is correct

A)

A) 0 B) 5 m/s
C) 10 m/s D) 0.25 m/s
27. The velocity -time graph of an object is B)
as shown. The displacement during the
interval 0 to t4is

C)

A) area (A) + area (B) + area (C) + area (D)

+ area (E) D)
B) area (A) –area (B) + area (C) – area (D)
C) area (A) + area (B) + area (C) + area (D)
30. A person sitting in the ground floor of a
D) area (A) –area (B) + area (C) + area (D) building notices through the window of
+ ara (E) height 1.5m, a ball dropped from the roof
28. When a small object is thrown vertically of the building crosses the window in 0.1 s.
upward its velocity versus time graph is What is the velocity of the ball when it is at
represented as follows the topmost point of the window? (g=10 m/
s2)
A) 15.5 m/s
B) 14.5 m/s
C) 4.5 m/s
The maximum height it can reach is D) 20 m/s
31. The displacement is given by x = 2t+t+5,
a2 b2
A) B) the acceleration at t=2s is
b a
A) 4 ms2 B) 8 ms2
C) 2ab D) ab C) 10 ms2 D) 15 ms2

17
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
32. From the top of a tower of height ‘H’ a body 35. Assertion: The position time graph of a
is thrown vertically upwards with a speed uniform motion in one dimension of a body
‘u’. Time taken by the body to reach the can have negative slope
ground is ‘3’ times the time taken by it to
Reason: When the speed of body decreases
reach the highest point in its path. Then the
with time, the position-time graph of the
speed u is
moving body has negative slope
gH A) If both assertion and reason are true
A) gH B)
2 and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
B) if both assertion and reason are true
2gH gH but reason is not the correct explanation of
C) D)
3 3 assertion
C) If assertion is true but reason is false
33. A particle first accelerates from rest and then
retards to rest during the time interval of 8s. D) If both assertion and reason are false
If the retardation is 3 times the acceleration,
then the time for which it accelerated is 36. Assertion: The displacement-time graph of
a body moving with uniform acceleration is
A) 2s a parabola
B) 3s Reason: The displacement is proportional
to time for uniformly accelerated motion
C) 4s
A) If both assertion and reason are true
D) 6s and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
34. A particle starts from origin O from rest
and moves with a uniform acceleration B) if both assertion and reason are true
along the positive x-axis. Identify all but reason is not the correct explanation of
figures that correctly represent the motion assertion
qualitatively (a=acceleration, v= velocity,
C) If assertion is true but reason is false
x=displacement, t=time)
D) If both assertion and reason are false
37. The driver of a bus moving at an speed of
a) b) 60 km/hr saw a man at a distance of 52m
from the bus. The driver stopped the car at
a distance of 2m from the man using brake.
The time required to stop the bus is
A) 18 s B) 12 s
b) b)
C) 6s D) 2s
38. The equation of motion of a particle is given
A) a by x(t)=2t3+t2+4t. Then the average velocity
B) b, c of the particle between the time t=3s to t=5s
is
C) a, b, c
A) 100 m/s B) 110 m/s
D) a, b, d
C) 90 m/s D) 140 m/s

18
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

39. A body is moving along a straight line path 45. By what velocity a ball be projected
with constant velocity. At an instant of time vertically upwards so that the distance
the distance travelled by it is S and its covered in 5th second is twice of that
displacement is D, then covered in 6th second?
A) D < S B) D > S A) 19.6 m/s B) 58.8 m/s
C) D = S D) D ≤ S C) 49 m/s D) 65 m/s
40. A bullet when fired into a target loses half of 46. The displacement of a particle starting
its velocity after penetrating 20cm. Further from rest (at t=0) is given by the relation
distance of penetration before it comes to s=6t2–t3. The time in seconds when the
rest is velocity of the particle would again be zero
is
A) 6.66 cm B) 3.33 cm
A) 3 seconds
C) 5 cm D) 10 cm
B) 4 seconds
41. Two cars started moving with initial velocities
v and 2v. For the same deceleration, their C) 6 seconds
respective stopping distances are in the D) 10 seconds
ratio
47. A train moves from rest with acceleration
A) 1:1 B) 1:2 α and in t1 covers a distance x. If then
C) 1:4 D) 2:1 decelerates to rest at constant retardation
β for distance y in time t2. Then
42. A toy cyclist completes one round of a
square track of side 2m in 40s. What will be x β β t1
the displacement at the end of 3 min? A) = B) =
y α α t2
A) 52 m
B) zero x β t1
C) x=y D) =
C) 16 m y αt 2

D) 2 2m 48. If acceleration of a particle at any time is

given by a=2t+5
43. A particle starts moving from rest under
uniform acceleration. It travels a distance x Calcualte the velocity after 5s, if it starts
in the first two seconds and a distance of y from rest
in the next two seconds. If y=nx, then n= A) 50 m/s B) 25 m/s
A) 1 B) 3 C) 100 m/s D) 75 m/s
C) 2 D) 4 49. A car acceleration from rest with 2 m/s2
44. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes on a straight line path and then comes to
5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, rest after applying brakes. Total distance
followed again by 5 steps forward and 3 travelled by the car is 100 m in 20 seconds.
steps backwards and so on. Each step is Then the maximum velocity attained by the
1m long and requires 1. Determine how car is
long the drunkard takes to fall in a pit 1.3 m A) 10 m/s
away from the starting point
B) 20 m/s
A) 37 s B) 13 s
C) 15 m/s
C) 49 s D) 18 s
D) 5 m/s

19
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
50. The velocity time graph of the two bodies A 51. Which of the following four statements is
and B are shown in figure. The ratio of their false?
acceleration is
A) A body can have a zero velocity and still
be accelerated
B) A body can have a constant velocity and
still have a varying speed
C) The direction of the velocity of a body can
change when its acceleration is constant
52. A car moves a distance of 200 m. It covers
the first-half of the distance at speed 40
A) 1: 3 km/h and the second -half of distance at
speed v km/h. The average speed is 48
B) 1:3 km/h. Find the value of v
C) 3 :1 A) 56 km/h B) 60 km/h
D) 3: 2 C) 50 km/h D) 48 km/h

20
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL - I
1. B 16. C 31. B 45. A
2. D 17. C 32. B 46. C
3. D 18. D 33. C 47. B
4. B 19. D 34. A 48. B
5. C 20. C 35. B 49. A
6. B 21. C 36. C 50. A
7. A 22. A 37. B 51. C
8. A 23. C 38. A 52. A
9. A 24. D 39. D 53. B
10. C 25. D 40. B 54. 49
11. A 26. D
41. C 55. 15
12. B 27. B
42. D 56. 4
13. D 28. C
43. C 57. 39
14. C 29. C, D
44. C
15. C 30. D

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. C 16. B 31. A 45. D

2. C 17. C 32. B 46. B
3. C 18. B 33. D 47. A,B
4. C 19. D 34. D 48. A
5. B 20. B 35. C
49. A
6. B 21. A 36. C
50. A
7. D 22. B 37. C
51. B
8. B 23. C 38. B
52. B
9. B 24. A 39. C
10. A 25. B 40. A
11. C 26. B
41. C
12. A 27. B
42. D
13. C 28. C
43. B
14. A 29. C
44. A
15. B 30. B

21
 Chapter
UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS
02

QUESTIONS 4. Consider the following values and select the

correct value(s)
UNITS I. 1 calorie = 4.18 joule
1. Which of the following systems of units is
II. 1Å =10–10 m
not based on units of mass, length and time
alone? III. 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10–13 Joule
A) SI IV. 1 newton = 10–5 dyne
B) MKS A) I, II and III
C) CGS B) III and IV
D) FPS C) I only
2. Light year is D) IV only
A) Light emitted by the sun in one year 5. 1o (degree) is equal to
B) Time taken by light to travel from sun to A) 17 radian
earth
B) 17.45 × 10–12 radian
C) The distance travelled by light in free
space in one year C) 17.45 × 10–2 radian
D) Time taken by earth to go once around D) 1.745 × 10–2 radian
the sun
6. Which one of the following is the smallest
3. Match the following Column I and II unit?
A) Millimetre
Column-I Column-II B) Angstrom
A) 1 Fermi 1) 3.08×1016m
C) Fermi
B) 1 Astronomical 2) 9.46×1015 m
unit D) Metre
C) 1 Light year 3) 1.496×10 m11
7. Which of the following is not a unit of Young’s
D) 1 Parsec 4) 10-15 m modulus?
A) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3 A) Nm–1
B) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1 B) Nm–2
C) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 C) dyne cm–2
D) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4
D) Mega pascal

22
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

8. Assertion : When we change the unit of 14. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck’s con-
measurement of a quantity, stant and that of the moment of inertia is the
its numerical value changes. dimensions of
Reason :
Smaller the unit of A) Time
measurement small-
B) Frequency
er is its numerical value.
C) Angular momentum
A) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct,
Reason is a correct explanation for Asser- D) Velocity
tion
15. Which one of the following represents the
B) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct, correct dimensions of the gravitational con-
Reason is not a correct explanation for As- stant?
sertion
A) [M–1L3T–2] B) [MLT–1]
C) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
C) [ML–1T–2] D) [ML–2T–2]
D) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct
16. Which of the following is a dimensional con-
9. Which of the following is a derived physical stant?
quantity?
A) Refractive index
A) Mass B) Velocity
B) Dielectric constant
C) Length D) Time
C) Relative density
10. N kg–1 is the unit of
D) Gravitational constant
A) Velocity B) Force
17. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are
C) Acceleration D) None of these
given by MaLbTc, then the physical quantity
11. Young’s modulus of steel is 1.9 × 1011 N/m2. will be
When expressed in CGS units of dyne/cm2,
A) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1
it will be equal to (1 N = 105 dyne, 1 m2 = 104
cm2) B) Acceleration if a = 1, b= 1, c = –2
A) 1.9 × 1010 B) 1.9 × 1011 C) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2
C) 1.9 × 1012 D) 1.9 × 1013 D) Pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2
12. Which of the following quantities has not 18. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are
been expressed in proper units? chosen as the fundamental quantities, the
Stress dimensional formula of surface tension will
A) = Nm −2 be
Strain
A) [EV–1T–2]
B) Surface tension = Nm –1
B) [EV–2T–2]
C) Energy = kgms –1
C) [E–2V–1T–3]
D) Pressure = Nm –2
D) [EV–2T–1]
DIMENSIONS
19. [ML–2T–2] represents dimensional formula of
13. The dimensions of torque are which of the following physical quantities?
A) [MLT–2] B) [ML2T–2] A) Energy B) Pressure
C) [ML T ]
2 –1
D) [M L T ]
2 2 –2
C) Torque D) Pressure gradient

23
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
20. The time period of a body under SHM is rep- 25. The velocity of a particle at time t is given by
resented by T = paDbSc, where p is pressure, b
D is density and S is surface tension. The v= at + . The dimensions of a, b, c are
t+c
value of a, b and c are
respectively
3 1
A) − , ,1 B) –1, –2, 3 A) [LT–2], [L], [T] B) [L2], [T] and [LT2]
2 2
C) [LT2], [LT] and [L] D) [L], [LT] and [T2]
26. The dimensional formula of velocity gradient
is
1 −3 −1
C) , , D)
2 2 2 A) [M0L0T–1] B) [MLT1]
C) [ML0T–1] D) [M0LT–2]
21. The velocity v of water waves may depend
on their wavelength ( λ ) , the density of wa- 27. The density of a material in CGS system of
units is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which
unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is
ter (ρ) and the acceleration due to gravity
100 g, the value of density of material will be
(g). The method of dimensions gives the A) 0.4 B) 40
relation between these quantities as
C) 400 D) 0.04
2 −1 −1 2
A) v ∝ λ ρ B) v ∝ gλ
28. A boy recalls the relation almost correctly but
forgets where to put the constant c (speed
2 −1 3
C) v ∝ gλρ D) g ∝ λ m0
of light). He writes; m = where m
22. Distance travelled by a particle at any instant 1 − v2
‘t’ can be represented as S = A (t + B) + Ct2.
The dimensions of B are and m0 stand for masses and v for speed.
Right place of c is :
A) [M0L1T–1] B) [M0L0T1]
cm 0 m0
C) [M0L–1T–2] D) [M0L2T–2] A) m = B) m =
1 − v2 c 1 − v2
23. The de Broglie wavelength associated with
a particle of mass m and energy E is
h / 2mE The dimensional formula of m0 m0
C) m = D) m =
c2 − v2 v2
Planck’s constant h is :
1−
c2
A) [M2L2T–2] B) [ML2T–1] 29. A physical quantity x depends on quantities y
and z as follows : x = Ay + B tan Cz, where A,
C) [MLT2] D) [ML2T–2]
B and C are constants. Which of the following
24. The velocity of a body which falls under grav- do not have the same dimensions :
ity varies as ga hb, where g is acceleration
A) x and B
due to gravity and h is the height. The values
of a and b are B) C and z–1
A) a = 1, b = 1/2 B) a = b = 1 C) y and B/A
C) a = 1/2, b = 1 D) a= 1/2, b = 1/2 D) x and A

24
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

30. The time dependence of a physical quantity 34. The frequency f of vibrations of a mass m
by P P0 exp αt
P is given= ( ) where
2
α is suspended from a spring of spring constant
k is given by f = Cmxky, where C is a dimen-
a constant and t is time. The constant α : sionless constant. The values of x and y are,
respectively
A) is dimensionless
B) has dimensions of T–2 A)
C) has dimensions as that of P
D) has dimensions equal to the dimensions B)
of PT–2
31. If the time period (T) of vibration of liquid drop C)
depends on surface tension (S), radius (r) of
the drop and density ( ρ ) of liquid, then the
D)
expression of T is : 35. If C, the velocity of light, g the acceleration
due to gravity and P the atmospheric pres-
T k ρr 3 / S
A) = sure be the fundamental quantities in mks
system, then the dimensions of length will
T k ρ1/2 r 3 / S
B) = be same as that of
A) C/g B) C/P
T k ρr 3 / S1/2
C) =
C) PCg D) C2/g
D) None of these
36. The number of particles crossing a unit area
32. What are the dimensions of A/B in the rela- perpendicular to the X-axis in a unit time is
=
tion F A x + Bt 2 , where F is the force, x  n 2 − n1 
given by n = − D   where n1 and n2
is the distance and t is time?  x 2 − x1 

A) ML2T–2 B) L–1/2T2 are the number of particles per unit volume

at x = x1 and x = x2, respectively and D is the
C) L–1/2T–1 D) LT–2
diffusion constant. The dimensions of D are
33. Assertion : Specific gravity of a fluid is a A) [M0LT–2]
dimensionless quantity
B) [M0L2T–4]
Reason : It is the ratio of density of fluid to
density of water C) [M0L2T–2]
D) [M0L2T–1]
A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct
and Reason is the correct explanation of 37. A physical quantity depends upon five fac-
Assertion tors, all of which have dimensions. Then,
method of dimensional analysis
B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct
but Reason is not the correct explanation of A) Can be applied
Assertion B) Cannot be applied
C) Assertion is correct but Reason is false C) Depends upon factors involved
D) Both Assertion and Reason are false D) Both A and C

25
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

38. Given that T stands for time period and  42. The equation of a wave is given by
x 
Y= A sin ω  − k  where ω is the angular
stands for the length of simple pendulum. If v 
g is the acceleration due to gravity, then
which of the following statements about the
velocity and v is the linear velocity. The di-
relation T = (  / g ) is correct?
2
mensions of k are
A) [LT] B) [T]
A) It is correct both dimensionally as well as
numerically C) [T–1] D) [T2]
B) It is correct neither dimensionally nor 43. The correct order in which the dimensions of
numerically time increases in the following quantities is (i)
C) It is correct dimensionally but not numer- energy, (ii) power, (iii) coefficient of viscosity,
ically (iv) moment of inertia
D) It is correct numerically but not dimen- A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
sionally
C) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
39.
Column-I Column-II SIGNIFICANT FIGURE
a) Angle 1) ML2T-3 44. The number of significant figures in 7.1 × 102
b) Power 2) M0L0T0 m are
c) Work 3) ML2T-2 A) 3 B) 2
d) Force 4) MLT-2
C) 1 D) None of these
A) a 3; b 4; c 1; d 3
45. The number of significant figures in 46.201,
B) a 2; b 1; c 5; d 4
0.008 and 4.10 × 104 are
C) a 3; b 1; c 4; d 2
A) 5, 1, 3 B) 5, 4, 3
D) a 2; b 1; c 3; d 4
40. The dimensions of the physical quantities C) 4, 1, 3 D) 4, 4, 3
in one or more of the following pairs are 46. Addition of 8.76 and 3.456001 to correct
different. Identify the pair(s) : significant figures give
A) Work and torque
A) 12.22 B) 12.2
B) Stress and Young’s modulus
C) 1221601 D) 12.2160
C) Work and angular momentum
D) Wavelength and light year 3700
47. = _____ to correct significant figures
41. According to Newton, the viscous force act- 10.25
ing between liquid layers of area A and ve-
l o c i t y g r a d i e n t ∆v / ∆x i s g i v e n b y A) 361 B) 360.9756
C) 360 D) None of these
∆v 48. The mass and volume of a body are 4.237
F = −ηA where is constant called g and 2.5 cm3, respectively. The density of
∆x
the material of the body in correct significant
coefficient of viscosity. The dimensional figures is
formula of is :
A) 1.694 g cm–3 B) 1.69 g cm–3
A) [ML–2T–2] B) [M0L0T0]
C) [ML2T–2] D) [ML–1T–1] C) 1.7 g cm–3 D) 1.695 g cm–3

26
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

49. 5.74 g of a substance occupies 1.2 cm3. Its 56. The pressure on a circular plate is measured
density is (in g cm–3) by measuring the force on the plate and the
radius of the plate. If the errors in measure-
A) 4.7833 B) 4.8
ment of the force and the radius are 5% and
C) 4.78 D) 4.79 3%, respectively, the percentage of error in
50. Each side of a cube is measured to be 7.203 the measurement of pressure is
m. The volume in m3 is A) 8 B) 14
A) 373.714 B) 373.7
C) 11 D) 12
C) 373 D) 374
57. The percentage error in measuring M, L and
51. A body of mass 3.513 kg is moving along T are 1%, 1.5% and 3%, respectively. Then
the x-axis with a speed of 5.00 ms–1. The the percentage error in measuring a physical
magnitude of its momentum is recorded as quantity with dimensions ML–1T–1 is
A) 17.6 kg ms–1 B) 17.565 kg ms–1
A) 1% B) 3.5%
C) 17.56 kg ms–1 D) 17.57 kg ms–1
C) 3% D) 5.5%
52. A cube has a side of length (1.2 × 10–2) m.
Calculate the volume 58. Percentage errors in the measurement of
A) 1.7 × 10 m–6 3 mass and speed and 2% and 3%, respective-
ly. The error in the estimate of kinetic energy
B) 1.73 × 10–6 m3 obtained by measuring mass and speed is
C) 1.70 × 10–6 m3 A) 8% B) 2%
D) 1.732 × 10 m –6 3
C) 12% D) 10%
53. The numbers 2.745 and 2.735 on rounding
off to 3 significant figures will give 59. The radius of a sphere ( 5.3 ± 0.1) cm . The
A) 2.75 and 2.74
percentage error in its volume is
B) 2.74 and 2.73
0.1 0.1
C) 2.75 and 2.73 A) ×100 B) 3 × ×100
5.3 5.3
D) 2.74 and 2.74
ERROR 0.1×100 0.1
C) D) 3 + ×100
54. The order of magnitude of 0.00701 is 3.53 5.3
A) –2 B) –1
60. In an experiment four quantities, a, b, c and
C) 2 D) 1 d are measured with percentage error 1%,
55. Which of the following is the most precise 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is
instrument for measuring length? calculated as follows

A) Metre rod of least count 0.1 a 3b2

cm P= % error in P is
cd
B) Vernier callipers of least count 0.01 cm
C) Screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm A) 10% B) 7%

D) Data is not sufficient to decide C) 4% D) 14%

27
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
61. What is the fractional error in g calculated 65. The relative density of a material is found by
from T = 2π  / g ? Given fractional errors weighing the body first in air and then in
water. If the weight in air is (10.0 ± 0.1) gf
in T and  are ± x and ± y respectively

A) x + y B) x – y
and weight in water is ( 5.0 ± 0.1) gf, then

C) 2x + y D) 2x – y the maximum permissible percentage error

in relative density is
62. The resistance R of a wire is given by the A) 1 B) 2
ρ C) 3 D) 5
relation R = 2 Percentage error in the
πr
66. The heat generated in a circuit is given by Q
measurement of ρ,  and r is 1%, 2% and = I2Rt, where I is current, R is resistance and t
is time. If the percentage errors in measuring
3% respectively. Then the percentage error I, R and t are 2%, 1% and 1% respectively,
in the measurement of R is : then the maximum error in measuring heat
will be
A) 6 B) 9
A) 2% B) 3%
C) 8 D) 10 C) 4% D) 6%

63. An experiment measures quantities a, b, c 67. If X = A × B and are maximum

1/2
a b 2 absolute errors in X, A and B respectively,
and then X is calculate from X = If then the maximum relative error in X is given
c3
by
the percentage errors in a, b and c are
A) ∆x = ∆A + ∆B B) ∆x = ∆A − ∆B
± 1%, ± 3% and ± 2% , respectively, then the
∆x ∆A ∆B ∆x ∆A ∆B
C) = − D) = +
percentage error in X can be X A B X A B
A) 12.5% B) 7%
A
68. If X = and ∆x, ∆A and ∆B are the max-
C) 1% D) 4% B
V imum absolute errors in X, A and B respec-
64. The resistance of a metal is given by R = tively, then the maximum fractional error in
I X is given by
, where V is potential difference and I is the
A) ∆x = ∆A + ∆B B) ∆x = ∆A − ∆B
current. In a circuit the potential difference
across resistance is V= ( 8 ± 0.5 ) V and ∆x ∆A ∆B ∆x ∆A ∆B
C) = − D) = +
X A B X A B
I
current in resistance, = ( 4 ± 0.2 ) A What 69. If the percentage errors in measurement of
A, B and C are a, b and c respectively, then
is the value of resistance with its percentage the total percentage error in the product ABC
error? is
A) abc B) a + b + c
A) ( 2 ± 5.6% ) Ω B) ( 2 ± 0.7% ) Ω
1 1 1
C) + + D) ab + bc + ca
C) ( 2 ± 35% ) Ω D) ( 2 ± 11.25% ) Ω a b c

28
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

70. If f = x2, then the relative error in f is

A quantity is represented by X = M L T .
α β γ
75.
( ∆x )
2
2∆x
A) B) The % error in measurement of M, L and T
x x are a%, b% and c% respectively. The %
error in X would be
∆x
D) ( ∆x ) A) ( αa + β b + γc ) %
2
C)
x
71. The initial temperature of a liquid is
B) ( αa − β b + γc ) %
(80.0 ± 0.1) C . After it has been cooled, its
o

C) ( αa − β b − γc ) × 100
temperature is (10.0 ± 0.1) C . The fall in
o

D) None of these
temperature in degree centigrade is
76. If Z = A4 B1/3 / CD3/2, then relative error in Z.
A) 70.0 B) 70.0 ± 0.3
∆Z
C) 70.0 ± 0.2 D) 70.0 ± 0.1 is equal to
Z
72. Random error can be eliminated by
A) Careful observation 4 1/3 3/2
 ∆A   ∆B   ∆C   ∆D 
B) Eliminating the cause A)   +  − − 
 A   B   C   D 
C) Measuring the quantity with more than
one instrument
D) Taking large number of observation and  ∆A   1   ∆B   ∆C   3   ∆D 
B)4   +   +  +   
then their mean  A   3  B   C   2  B 
73. When two quantities are added or subtract-
ed, the absolute error in the final result is the  ∆A  1  ∆B   ∆C   3   ∆D 
C) 4  +  −  −   
A) Sum of the absolute errors in the individual  A  3  B   C   2  D 
quantities
B) Sum of the relative errors in the individual 4
quantities  ∆A  1  ∆B   ∆C  3  ∆D 
D)   +  + +  
C) Can be (A) or (B)  A  3 B   C  2 D 
D) None of these
MEASURING DEVICES
74. When two quantities are divided, the relative
77. The main scale of a vernier caliper reads
error in the result is given by
2.3 cm. The 4th division of the vernier scale
A) The product of the relative error in the coincides with the main scale division. The
individual quantities reading of the vernier calliper is (Given : The
B) The quotient of the relative error in the least count of the calliper is 0.1 mm and there
individual quantities is no zero error.)
C) The difference of the relative error in the A) 2.34 cm
individual quantities B) 3.34 cm
D) The sum of the relative error in the indi- C) 1.73 cm
vidual quantities
D) 4.68 cm

29
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
78. A vernier calliper has 20 divisions on the 82. A screw gauge gives the following reading
vernier scale, which coincide with 19 on the when used to measure the diameter of a
main scale. The least count of the instrument wire.
is 0.1 mm. The main scale divisions are of Main scale reading : 0 mm
A) 0.5 mm Circular scale reading : 52 divisions.
B) 1 mm Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds
C) 2 mm to 100 divisions of the circular scale.
The diameter of wire from the above data is
D) 1/4 mm
A) 0.52 cm B) 0.052 cm
79. In a vernier callipers, ten smallest divisions of
the vernier scale are equal to nine smallest C) 0.026 cm D) 0.005
division on the main scale. If the smallest 83. The pitch of the screw gauge is 0.5 mm. Its
division on the main scale is half millimeter, circular scale contains 50 divisions. The least
then the vernier constant is count of the screw gauge is :
A) 0.5 mm A) 0.001 mm B) 0.01 mm
B) 0.1 mm C) 0.02 mm D) 0.025 mm
C) 0.05 mm 84. A student measured the length of a rod and
wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he
D) 0.005 mm use to measure it?
80. Diameter of a steel ball is measured using a A) A meter scale
Vernier callipers which has divisions of 0.1
B) A vernier caliper where the 10 divisions
cm on its main scale (MS) and 10 divisions
in the vernier scale match with 9 divisions in
of its vernier scale (VS) match 9 divisions on
the main scale and the main scale has 10
the main scale. Three such measurements
divisions in 1 cm
for a ball are given below :
C) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the
circular scale and pitch as 1 mm
S.NO. MS(cm) VS divisions
D) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the
1 0.5 8 circular scale and pitch as 1 mm
2 0.5 4
85. Assertion : The error in the measure-
3 0.5 6 ment of radius of the sphere
If the zero error is –0.03 cm, then mean is 0.3%. The permissible er-
corrected diameter is ror in its surface area is 0.6%.
A) 0.52 cm Reason : The permissible error is cal-
culated by the formula
B) 0.59 cm ∆A ∆r
=4
C) 0.56 cm A r
D) 0.53 cm A) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct;
81. In a screw gauge, the number of divisions Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion
on circular scale is 50. If the screw moves 1 B) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct;
mm ahead in two revolutions of the circular Reason is not a correct explanation for As-
head, the least count is sertion
A) 0.1 mm B) 0.01 mm C) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
C) 0.1 cm D) 0.001 mm D) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct

30
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

86. Given below are two statements : SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Statement I : Least count of a screw 1. Which of the following time measuring
gauge is directly proportion- devices is most precise?
al to the number of divisions
on circular scale A) Screw guage
B) Meter scale
Statement II : A screw gauge having a
smaller value of pitch has C) Vernier caliper
greater accuracy D) Both A and B
In the light of the above statement, choose 2. The vernier scale of a travelling microscope
the most appropriated answer from the op- has 50 division, which coincide with 49
tions given below : main scale divisions. If each main scale
division is 0.5 mm, calculate the minimum
A) Both Statement I and Statement II are inaccuracy in the measurement of distance
correct
A) 0.01 mm B) 0.01 cm
B) Statement I is correct and Statement II is C) 0.02 mm D) 0.02 cm
incorrect
3. The respective number of significant
C) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and
is correct 2.1×10–3 are

D) Both Statements I and Statements II are A) 4, 4 and 2

incorrect B) 5, 1 and 2
87. Assertion : In a measurement, two read- C) 5, 1 and 5
ing obtained are 20.004 and
D) 5, 5 and 2
20.0004. The second mea-
surement is more precise. 4. Percentage errors in the measurement
of mass and speed are 2% and 3%
Reason : Measurement hav- respectively. The error in the estimate of
ing more decimal plac- kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass
es is more precise. and speed will be

In the light of the above statements, choose A) 12% B) 10%

the most appropriate answer from the op- C) 8% D) 2%
tions given below :
5. A student measures the distance traversed
A) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; in free all of a body, initially at rest, in a given
Reason is the correct explanation for Asser- time. He uses this data to estimate g, the
tion acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum
percentage errors in measurement of the
B) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; distance and time are e1 and e2 respectively,
Reason is not the correct explanation for then the percentage error in the estimation
Assertion of g is
C) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect A) e1+2e2 B) e1+e2
C) e1-2e2 D) e1–e2
D) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct

31
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
6. The young’s modulus of a material of wire 12. Two resistors R 1 = ( 2.2 ± 0.1) Ω and R2=
is 12.6×1011 dyne cm–2. Its value in m.k.s.
system is
(8.0 ± 0.2 ) Ω are connected in series. The
A) 12.6×10–12 Nm–2
B) 12.6×1010 Nm–2 resistance Rs of the series combination is
C) 12.6×106 Nm–2 A) (10.2 ± 0.1) Ω B) (10.2 ± 0.2 ) Ω
D) 12.6×108 Nm–2
7. Parsec is the unit of C) (10.2 ± 0.3) Ω D) (10.2 ± 0.4 ) Ω
A) Time
13. Which one of the following is not a unit of
B) Distance
length?
C) Frequency
A) Angstrom B) Light year
D) Angular acceleration
C) Fermi D) Radian
Ke − br 14. The gravitational force F between two
8. If force F = varies with distance r.
r2 masses m1 and m2 separated by a distance
Then write the dimensions of K and B Gm1m 2
r is given by F = where G is the
A) ML3T–2L–1
r2
universal gravitational constant. What are
B) MLT–2, L2
the dimensions of G?
C) ML3T–2,L
A) M–1L3T2 B) ML3T2
D) MLT L
–2 –1
C) ML2T–3 D) M–1L2T–3
9. The dimensions ML T may correspond to
–1 –2
15. The volume V of water passing any point of
A) Work a uniform tube during t seconds is related to
the cross-sectional area A of the tube and
B) Linear momentum
velocity u of water by the relation
C) Pressure
V ∝ Aαuβt γ
D) Energy density
Which one of the following will be true?
10. A unitless quantity
A) α=β= γ B) α ≠ β = γ
A) Never has nonzero dimensions
C) α = β ≠ γ D) α ≠ β ≠ γ
B) Always has nonzero dimensions
16. The frequency n of vibrations of uniform
C) May have a nonzero dimension string of length  and stretched with a force
D) Does not exist p F
F is given by n =
11. Which of the following is having same 2 m
dimension?
A) Work, power where p is the number of segments of the
vibrating string and m is a constant of the
B) Impulse, linear momentum string. What are the dimensions of m?
C) Pressure, Energy A) ML–1T–1 B) ML–3T0
D) Stress, Angle C) ML–2T0 D) ML–1T0

32
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

17. In the measurement of a physical quantity 21. The time period T of a simple pendulum is
2
AB L
X= . The percentage errors given by T = 2π where L is the length
C1/3D3 g
introduced in the measurements of the
quantities A, B, C and D are 2%, 2%, 4% of the pendulum and g is the acceleration
and 5% respectively. Then the minimum due to gravity. The value of L is measured
amount of percentage of error in the to be 100.0 cm using a metre scale of least
measurement of X is contributed by count 0.1cm. The time for 20 oscillations is
A) A B) B measured to be 40.0s using a stop -watch
of least count 0.1 s. The calculated value of
C) C D) D
g is
18. If E , M, J and G respectively denote energy,
A) ( 9.87 ± 0.06 ) ms
−2
mass, angular momentum and gravitational
EJ 2
constant, then has the dimensions
M 5G 2 B) ( 9.9 ± 0.1) ms
−2

of
A) Length B) Angle C) ( 9.86 ± 0.05 ) ms
−2

C) Mass D) Time
19. If the velocity of light (c), gravitational
D) ( 9.872 ± 0.059 ) ms
−2
constant (G) and plack’s constant (h)
are chosen as fundamental units, the
dimensions of mass in the new system will 22. The distance x moved by a particle in time t
be ( )
x a 1 − e − bt . The dimensions
is given by =
1 1 1
−
−5/2 2 −1/2
A) c G h B) c G h
2 2 2
of ab are the same as those of
1 1 1
2 −2 1/2
− A) Velocity B) Momentum
C) c G h D) c G h
2 2 2

C) Force D) Impulse
20. In a vernier callipers, one main scale
division is x cm and n divisions of the 23. Two resistors of resistances R=
1 (100 ± 1) Ω
vernier scale coincide with (n–1) divisions
of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of
the callipers is
and R 2= ( 200 ± 2 ) Ω are connected in

 n −1  parallel. The resistance of the parallel

A)  x combination is
 n 
A) ( 66.67 ± 0.67 ) Ω
nx
B)
( n − 1) B) ( 66.67 ± 0.7 ) Ω

x
C)
n C) ( 64 ± 1) Ω

x D) ( 66.7 ± 0.7 ) Ω
D)
( n − 1)

33
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
24. In the following questions. Statement 26. Match column -I with column II
1(Assertion) is followed by statement
2(Reason). Each question has the following
four options out of which only one choice is Column-I Column-II
correct A) Torque P ML–2T–2
Statement 1: The dimensional method B) Stress Q ML2T–2
cannot be used to obtain C) Pressure gradient R ML–1T–1
the dependence of the work
done by a force F on the D) Coefficient viscosity S ML–1T–2
angle θ between force F and Choose the correct answer from the options
displacement x given below
Statement 2: All trigonometric functions
are dimensions A) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
A) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true B) A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P
and statement 2 is the correct explanation
for statement 1 C) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
B) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true but D) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
statement 1 27. The main scale of a vernier calipers is
C) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false calibrated in mm and 19 divisions of main
D) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true scale and equal in length to 20 divisions of
vernier scale. In measuring the diameter
25. Students I, II and III perform an experiment
of a cylinder by this instrument, the main
for measuring the acceleration due to
scale reads 35 division and 4the division of
gravity (g) using a simple pendulum. They
vernier scale coincides with a main scale.
use different lengths of the pendulum
Find its least count
and or record time for different number of
oscillations. The observations are shown in A) 0.5cm
the table
B) 0.05cm
Least count for length = 0.1 cm
Least count for time = 0.1 s C) 0.005cm
Student Length Number Total Time D) 5cm
of the of oscilla- time period
pendulum tions for (n) 28. In an experiment to determine the radius
(cm) oscilal- of a chalk by screw gauge, the diameter is
tions measured and readings are d1= 1.002 cm,
I 64.0 8 128.0 16.0 d2= 1.004 cm and d3=1.006 cm. Select the
II 64.0 4 64.0 16.0 correct alternatives
III 20.0 4 36.0 6.0 A) Mean absolute error in radius is 0.0013
If E1, EII and EIII are the percentage errors in cm
 ∆g  B) Mean absolute error in diameter is 0.001
g i.e  ×100  for student I, II and III
 g  cm
C) Error is 0 cm
respectively,
A) E1=0 B) E1 is minimum D) % age error in the measurement of
C) EI = EII D) EII is minimum diameter is 1.3%

34
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

29. When a piece of wire is held diametrically 32. In an experiment the angles are required
in a screw gauge [pitch = 1 mm, number to be measured using on instrument 29
of division on circular scale=100], the divisions of the main scale exactly coincide
readings obtained are as shown. Now if with the 30 divisions of the vernier scale.
we measure the same with help of vernier If the smallest division of the main scale is
calipers [1 MSD=1mm, 10 divisions of half a degree (0.5°), then least count of the
vernier coinciding with 9 divisions of main instrument is
scale] having a negative zero error of 0.5
mm, then find which of the following figures A) half minute B) One minute
correctly represents the reading?
C) one degree D) half degree

33. It is given that symbol ‘G’ stands for a

universal gravitational contact, ‘h’ stands for
Planck constant. ‘P’ stands for power, ‘S’
stands for surface tension and ' η ' stands

for coefficient of viscosity. Some derived

physical quantities are given in List -1 and
their dimension’s in List -II. Now match the
A) List-I with List-II

B) List - I List -II

P) The dimension 1)  M −1L3T −2 
hG
of
C) η
Q) The dimension 2) [MLT–2]
D) GS
of
P
R) The dimension 3) [M–1LT–1]
30. The main scale of vernier callipers is divided ηP
of
into 0.5 mm and its least count is to be 0.005 S
cm. The number of vernier divisions is
S) The dimension 4) [M–1L6T-2]
A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) 8 hP
of
31. The force of interaction between two atoms G
 x2  5) [M3LT–2]
is given by F = αβ exp  −  ; where ‘x’
 αkT 
A) P-4; Q-5; R-1;S-3
is the distance, ‘k’ is the Boltzmann constant
and T is temperature and α and β are two B) P-3; Q-2; R-5; S-4
constants. The dimensions of β is:
C) P-3; Q-2; R-2; S-4
A) M0L2T–4 B) M2LT–4
D) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-5
C) MLT–2 D) M2L2T–2

35
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
34. Least count of a vernier calliper is 0.01 cm. 38. The local length (f) of a curved mirror is
When the two jaws of the instrument touch related to the object distance u and the
each other the 5th division of the vernier image distance v in accordance with the
scale coincide with a main scale division 1 1 1
and the zero of the vernier scale lies to the mathematical relation, = + . The
f u v
left of the zero of the main scale. Further
more while measuring the diameter of a maximum relative error in calculating the
sphere, the zero mark of the vernier scale focal length f of the mirror is
lies between 2.4 cm and 2.5cm and the ∆f ∆u ∆v
6th vernier division coincides with a main A) =
2
+
f u 2 v2
scale division. Calculate the diameter of the
sphere
A) 2.51cm B) 2.82cm ∆f 1 1
=
B) +
C) 3.51cm D) 3.82cm f ∆u / u ∆v / v
35. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1mm and
there are 100 divisions on circular scale.
∆f uv  ∆u ∆v 
When faces A and B are just touching each =
C)  + 
without putting anything between the studs f u+v u v 
32nd division of the circular scale coincides
with the reference line. When a glass plate ∆f ∆u ∆v ∆u ∆v
is placed between the studs, the linear D) = + + +
scale reads 4 divisions and the circular f u v u+v u+v
scale reads 16 divisions. Find the thickness COMPREHENSION
of the glass plate. Zero of linear scale is not
hidden from circular scale when A and B If pressure of a gas is given by
touches each other.
α2  αh 
A) 3.84 mm B) 3.24 mm P= sin  
C) 3.54 mm D) 4.84 mm
β  k Bθ 
36. The number of particles crossing the unit where h is the Plank’s constant
area normal to x-axis per second is
represented by the following formula kB is the Boltzmann constant
n 2 − n1 θ is the absolute temperature
µ =D , where D is the coefficient of
x 2 − x1
Based on the above facts, answer the
following questions
diffusion and n1 and n2 are the number of
molecules per unit volume at x1 and x2, 39. The dimensions of β are
respectively, then the dimensions of D are A) [M1L0T0] B) [M0L0T0]
A) M0L2T–1 B) M0L2T–2
C) [M–1LT0] D) None of these
C) M0LT–2 D) M0LT–1
37. A physical quantity is measured and its value 40. Which of the following is not dimensions
is found to be nu where n is numerical value βP
and u is unit. Then which of the following A) αt B)
α2
relations is true
2
A) n ∝ u B) n ∝ u
h B
1 C) D)
C) n ∝ u D) n ∝ kθ L2
u

36
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

41. Some physical quantities are given in 42 The rate of flow (V) of a liquid flowing
COLUMN -I and some possible SI units in through a pipe of radius r and pressure
which these quantities may be expressed gradient p is given by Poiseuille’s equation
are given in COLUMN-II. Match the physical
quantities in COLUMN-I with the units in πr x y
V− 2 p
COLUMN - II 8η

Then calculate x, y, z
Column - I Column - II A) x=4, y=1, z=1 B) x=–4, y= –1, z=1
A) GMeMs p) (volt) (cou-
C) x=1, y=4, z= –1 D) x=1, y=1, z=4
G- universal lomb) (metre)
gravitational constant 43. A student performs an experiment to
Me-Mass of earth determine the Young’s modulus of a wire,
Ms-mass of sun exactly 2m long, by Searle’s method. In a
particular reading, the student measures
B) q) (kilogram) the extension in the length of the wire to be
3RT
(metre)3 0.8 mm with an uncertainty of ±0.05mm at
M
(second)–3
R-universal gas a load of exactly 1kg. The student also
constant measures the diameter of the wire to be 0.4
T-Absolute tempera- mm with an uncertainty of ±0.01mm . Take
ture
M-Molar mass g=9.8 ms–2 (exact). The young’s modulus
C) r) (metre)2 obtained from the reading is close to
F2
(second)–2
A) ( 2 ± 0.3)10 Nm
11 −2
q 2 B2
B) ( 2 ± 0.2 ) × 10 Nm
11 −2

F-force
C) ( 2 ± 0.1) × 10 Nm
11 −2
q-charge
B-magnetic field
D) ( 2 ± 0.05 ) × 10 Nm
11 −2
D) GM e (s) (farad)
(volt)2 44. The circular scale of a screw gauge has
Rt
(kg)–2 50 divisions and pitch of 0.5 mm. Find the
diameter of sphere. Main scale reading is 2
G-universal gravita-
tional constant
Me-mass of the earth
Re-radius of the earth

A) A-p, q; B-r, s; C-r,s; D-r,s

A) 1.2 mm
B) A-p,s; B-q,r; C-s, r; D-r,s
B) 1.25 mm
C) A-r,s; B-p,q, C-r, s; D-s,r
C) 2.20 mm
D) A-q, p; B-s, r; C-s, r; D-s, r
D) 2.25 mm

37
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
45. In an experiment to determine the 48. Equation of plane progressive transverse
acceleration due to gravity g, the formula wave in a dissipative medium has general
used for the time period of a periodic motion form
7(R − r)
is T = 2π . The values of R and r =y Ae − ux sin β ( t − Bx )
5g
are measured to be ( 60 ± 1) mm and
where α, A, B, C are constant, x and y are
(10 ± 1) mm, respectively. In five successive displacement and t is time. Dimensions of
measurements, the time period is found to α, β and B respectively are
be 0.52s, 0.56s, 0.57s, 0.54s and 0.59s.
The least count of the watch used for the 0 −1 0 0 −1 −1 0 −1
A) M L T , M L T , M LT
measurement of time period is 0.01s. Which
of the following statement(s) is (are) true?
0 1 0 0 0 −1 0 −1 1
A) The error in the measurement of r is 10% B) M L T , M L T , M L T
B) The error in the measurement of T is
0 −1 1 0 −1 0 0 −1
3.57% C) M L T , M L T, M L T
C) The error in the measurement of T is 2%
0 −1 0 0 0 −1 0 −1 1
D) The error in the determined value of g is D) M L T , M L T , M L T
11%
46. Statement 1: Method of dimensions cannot 49. In book, the answer for a particular question
be used for deriving formula
ma  2kl 
containing trigonometrical as b
is expressed=  1+  , where
ratios. k  ma 
Statement 2: This is because trigono
metrical ratios have no m represents mass, a represents
dimensions acceleration, l represents length. Then the
A) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true unit of b should be
and statement 2 is the correct explanation
for statement 1 A) ms–1 B) ms–2
B) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true but
statement 2 is not the correct explanation of C) meter D) /sec
statement 1
C) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false 50. If the orbital velocity of a planet is given by
D) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true v= GaMbRc, then
47. The equation of the stationary wave is
 2πct   2πx  1 1 1
y = 2A sin  A) a = , b = ,c = −
 cos   . Which of the 3 3 3
 λ   λ 
1 1 1
B) a = , b = ,c = −
following statement(s) is/are correct? 2 2 2
A) The unit of ct is same as that of λ
1 1 1
B) The unit of x is same as that of λ C) a =,b =
− ,c =
2 2 2
2πx
C) The unit of 2πc/ λ is same as that of
λt 1 1 1
D) a =,b =
− ,c =
−
2 2 2
D) The unit of c/ λ is same as that of x/ λ

38
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

ANSWER KEY

1. A 17. D 33. A 49. B 65. D 81. B

2. C 18. B 34. D 50. B 66. D 82. B
3. C 19. D 35. D 51. A 67. D 83. B
4. A 20. A 36. D 52. A 68. D 84. B
5. D 21. B 37. B 53. D 69. B 85. C
6. C 22. B 38. C 54. A 70. A 86. C
7. A 23. B 39. D 55. C 71. C 87. A
8. C 24. D 40. C 56. C 72. D
9. B 25. A 41. D 57. D 73. A
10. C 26. A 42. B 58. A 74. D
11. C 27. B 43 B 59. B 75. A
12. C 28. D 44. B 60. D 76. B
13. B 29. D 45. A 61. C 77. A
14. B 30. B 46. A 62. B 78. C
15. A 31. A 47. C 63. A 79. C
16. D 32. B 48. C 64. D 80. B

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. A 11. B 21. A 31. B 41. A

2. A 12. C 22. A 32. B 42. A
3. B 13. D 23. D 33. D 43 B
4. C 14. A 24. A 34. A 44. A
5. A 15. B 25. B 35. A 45. A, B, D
6. B 16. D 26. C 36. A 46. A
7. B 17. C 27. C 37. D 47. A,B,C
8. A 18. B 28. B 38. A 48. D
9. C,D 19. D 29. A 39. C 49. C
10. A 20. C 30. B 40. C 50. B

39
 Chapter
VECTORS, PROJECTILE MOTION
03

 
QUESTIONS 5. Vector A and B are shown in the figure.
LEVEL - I
 
1. Which of the following statements is false. The angle between vector A and B is
A) Mass, speed and energy are scalars
B) Momentum, force and torque are vectors

C) Distance is a scalar while displacement A 
B 120°
is a vector 30°
D) A vector has only magnitude whereas a x-axis x-axis
scalar has both magnitude and direction
A) 60° B) 90°
2. Which of the following is a null vector?
C) 30° D) 150°
A) Position vector of a particle at origin 
6. Vector A is shown in figure. The angle made
B) Acceleration of a body moving with
constant velocity 
C) Velocity of a stationary particle by A with positive x-axis is
y
D) All of these
3. What is the numerical value of the vector
3iˆ + 4ˆj + 5kˆ ?
x
A) 3 2 30°

B) 5 2 
A
C) 7 2
A) 30°
D) 9 2 9
 B) 90°
4. Given vector R= 2iˆ + 3jˆ . The angle between
C) 150°
 D) 60°
R and y-axis is :
7. For the resultant of the two vectors to be
3−1 −12
A) tan B) tan maximum, what must be the angle between
2 3 them

2 2 A) 0o B) 60o
−1 −1
C) sin D) cos
3 3 C) 90o D) 180o

40
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

8. Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the 13. Two forces having equal magnitudes are
resultant of two vectors of magnitudes P and acting at a point with an angle of 60o between
Q are in the ratio 3 : 1. Which of the following them. If the resultant force is equal to
relations is true 40 3 N , the magnitude of each force is
A) P = 2Q B) P = Q A) 40 N B) 20 N

C) PQ = 1 D) P = 3Q C) 80 N D) 30 N
14. Two vectors having equal magnitudes are
9. Forces F1 and F2 act on a point mass in
inclined at 600. At what direction does the
two mutually perpendicular directions. The
resultant act with the 1st vector.
resultant force on the point mass will be
A) 300 B) 450
A) F1+F2 B) F1-F2
C) 600 D) 900
C) F12 + F22 2 2
D) F1 + F2 15. The angle between two vectors whose
magnitude 12N and 18N when their resultant
10. A particle is simultaneously acted by two is 24N
forces equal to 4 N and 3 N. The net force
on the particle can be : −1  −1 
A) θ =cos  
 2 
A) Only 7 N

B) Only 5 N −1 1
B) θ =cos  
C) Only 1 N 2

D) Between 1 N and 7 N
      −1 1
C) θ =cos  
11. If A= B + C and A, B, C have scalar 3

magnitudes of 5, 4, 3 units respectively, then

  −1 1
the angle between A and C is D) θ =cos  
4
−1 3 −1 4
A) cos   B) cos   16. Two forces are such that the sum of their
5 5 magnitudes is 18 N and their resultant is 12
N which is perpendicular to the smaller force.
Then the magnitudes of the forces are
π −1 3
C) D) sin   A) 12 N, 6 N B) 13 N, 5 N
2 4
C) 10 N, 8 N D) 16 N, 2 N
12. A vector A when added to the vector 17. The resultant of two vectors A and B
B= 3iˆ + 4ˆj yields a resultant vector that is is perpendicular to the vector A and its
magnitude is equal to half the magnitude of
in the positive y-direction and has a magnitude vector B. The angle between A and B is
equal to that of B. Find the magnitude of A.
A) 120o
A) 10 B) 10 B) 150o
C) 135o
C) 5 D) 15 D) None of these

41
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
18. When two non - zero vectors a and b are  
23. Given two vectors A= 3iˆ + 4ˆj and B = ˆi − 2ˆj
perpendicular to each other, their magnitude
of resultant is R. When they are opposite to
Then match the following columns.
each other, their resultant is of magnitude
R a b
. Find the value of  +  Column-I Column-II
2 b a
A) Magnitude of 1) 5

A) 4 B) 2 vector A

19.
C) 6 D) 5
What vector must be added to the sum of
B) Unit vector of

A
2)
( 0.6iˆ + 0.8jˆ )
two vector 2iˆ − ˆj + 3kˆ and 3iˆ − 2ˆj − 2kˆ so C) The magni-
  3)
( 2iˆ + 6ˆj)
tude of A + B
that the resultant is a unit vector along Z- axis D) The difference 4)
20
of vector,
A) −5iˆ + 3jˆ  
A−B
B) −5iˆ − 2ˆj A) A - 4; B - 1; C - 2; D - 3
B) A - 1; B - 2; C - 4; D - 3
C) −5iˆ + 2ˆj D) 5iˆ + 4ˆj
C) A - 3; B - 2; C - 4; D - 1
20. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, D) A - 2; B - 4; C - 1; D - 3
then magnitude of their difference is 24. One of the rectangular components of a
2 3 velocity of 60 kmh–1 is 30 kmh–1. The other
A) B)
rectangular component is
1 A) 30 kmh-1 B) 30 3 kmh
-1
C) D) 5
2
-1
  C) 30 2 kmh D) Zero
21. The magnitude of the resultant of A + B ( )
25. The angle between the two vectors
   
(
and A − B is ) A= 5iˆ + 5jˆ and B= 5iˆ − 5jˆ will be

A) Zero B) 45o
A) 2 A
C) 90o D) 180o
B) 2 B    
26. If P ⋅ Q =
PQ , then angle between P and Q
C) A 2 + B2
is
2 2
D) A −B A) 0o B) 30o
C) 45o D) 60o
22. A truck travelling due north at 20 m/s turns 
west and travels at the same speed. The 27. Consider two vectors F=
1 2iˆ + 5kˆ and
change in its velocity be

A) 40 m/s N-W F=
2 3jˆ + 4kˆ . The magnitude of the scaler
B) 20 2 m/s N-W product of these vectors is
C) 40 m/s S-W A) 20 B) 23
C) 5 33 D) 26
D) 20 2 m/s S-W

42
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
    33. The angle between the velocity vector and
28. If A × B = A ⋅ B , then angle between
acceleration vector at the highest point of
  projectile motion is
A and B will be A) 0o B) 30o
C) 45o D) 90o
A) 30o B) 45o
C) 60o D) 90o 34. A body is projected from the ground at an
      angle of 60o with the horizontal. The ratio
29. If A × B= 3A ⋅ B then the value of A + B of the maximum height attained by it to its
horizontal range is
is
A) 3 :1
( )
1/2
2 2
A) A + B 3 AB
B) 1 1: 3

C) 3:2
( )
2 2 1/2
B) A + B + AB
D) 3:4

1/2
35. The horizontal range and the maximum
 2 2 AB  height of a projectile are equal. Then the
C)  A + B  angle of projection of projectile is
 3
1
D) A + B B) θ = tan ( 4 )
−1 −1
A) θ = tan  
    4
30. ( A + B) × ( A − B) =..........
C) θ = tan ( 2 )
−1 o
D) θ =45
   
A) 2 A × B ( ) B) A × B
36. The speed of a projectile at its maximum
    height is half of its initial speed. The angle
C) ( B× A ) (
D) 2 B × A ) of projection is
A) 60o B) 15o
OBLIQUE PROJECTION
C) 30o D) 45o
31. During projectile motion, the quantities that
remain unchanged are 37. A particle of mass m is projected with
A) force and velocity velocity v making an angle 45o with the
horizontal. When the particle lands on the
B) acceleration and velocity
level ground the magnitude of the change
C) K.E and acceleration in its momentum will be
D) acceleration and horizontal velocity
A) mv 2 B) 0
32. The velocity of a projectile thrown with a
velocity u at an angle θ to the horizontal at mv
C) 2mv D)
2
its highest point is
A) zero 38. If K is the kinetic energy of a projectile fired at
an angle 30o, then what is its kinetic energy
B) ucos θ in horizontal direction
at the highest position?
C) usin θ in horizontal direction
A) K/4 B) 3K/4
D) None of these
C) K D) 2K

43
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

39. A body is projected at angle θ with respect 45. For angles of projection of a projectile at
angle 45o - θ and 45o + θ , the horizontal
to horizontal direction with velocity v. The
maximum range of the body is range described by the projectile are in the
ratio of
u 2 sin 2θ u 2 sin 2 θ
A) R = B) R = A) 1 : 2 B) 1 : 1
g g
C) 2 : 1 D) 2 : 3
u2 46. Two stones are projected with the same
C) R = =
D) R u 2 sin θ speed but making different angles with the
g
horizontal. Their horizontal ranges are equal.
π
40. The horizontal range of a projectile is 4 3 The angle of projection of one is and the
3
times its maximum height. Its angle of maximum height reached by it is 102 metre.
projectile is Then the maximum height reached by the
A) 30o B) 45o other in metre is
C) 60o D) 90o A) 336 B) 224
41. For an object thrown at 45o to the horizontal C) 56 D) 34
the maximum height (H) and horizontal range
(R) are related as 47. Trajectories of two projectiles are shown in
figure. If T1 and T2 be their times of flights,
A) R = 16 H B) R = 8 H
then
C) R = 4 H D) R = 2H
42. The range of projectile fired at angle of 15o
is 50 metre. If it is fired with the same speed
at an angle 45o its range will be
A) 25 m B) 50 m
C) 100 m D) 77.6 m
43. Two projectiles of same mass and with same A) T1 < T2 B) T1 > T2
speed are thrown at an angle 60° and 30°
C) u1 > u2 D) u1 < u2
with the horizontal, then which quantity will
remain same 48. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point
A) time of flight ( )
A is 2iˆ + 3jˆ m/s. Its velocity in m/s of point
B) range of projectile
C) max height acquired B is
D) all of them
44. A projectile can have the same range R
for two angles of projection. If t1 and t2 are
the time of flights in the two cases, then
the product of the two time of flights is
proportional to
A) R
B) 1/R A) −2iˆ + 3jˆ B) −2iˆ − 3jˆ
C) 1/R2
D) R2 C) 2iˆ − 3jˆ D) 2iˆ + 3jˆ

44
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

49. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum 54. At a height 0.4 m from the ground, the
horizontal distance of d. How high above velocity of a projectile in vector form is
the ground can the cricketer throw the same
ball?

v
= ( 6iˆ + 2ˆj) m / s . The angle of projection is
A) d/2 B) d A) 45o
C) 2d D) 5d/2 B) 60o
50. A body is projected from the ground with a C) 30o

v
velocity = (3iˆ + 10ˆj) ms . The maximum
-1
D) tan-1 (3/D)
55. A particle is thrown with velocity u making
height attained and the range of the body,
respectively, are (given g = 10 m s–B) an angle θ with the vertical. It just crosses

A) 5 m and 6 m the top of two poles each of height h after 1

s and 3 s respectively. g = 9.8 m/s2. The
B) 3 m and 10 m
maximum height of projectile is
C) 6 m and 5 m A) 10 m
D) 3 m and 5 m B) 15 m
51. A stream of bullets is shot with speed v in C) 19.6 m
all directions. The maximum area covered
under firing is D) 25 m
56. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0
πv 2 πv 4 and moves in the xy plane with constant
A) B) 2
g g acceleration a in the y direction. Its equation
of motion is y = bx2. The x component of its
πv 2 πv velocity is:
C) D)
g2 g A) variable

52. If R is the range on a horizontal plane, T the 2a

B)
time of flight of projectile, and the angle of b
projection is α , then tan α is equal to
C) a/2b
gT 2 gT 2
A) B) a
R 2R D)
2b

T2 T2 57. A particle is projected from ground at some

C) D) angle with the horizontal. Let P be the point
Rg 2Rg at maximum height H. At what height above
the point P should the particle be aimed to
53. There are two values of time for which a
have range equal to maximum height ?
projectile is to the same height. The sum of
these two times is equal to (T = time of flight A) H
of the projectile) B) 2H

A) 3T/2 B) 4T/3 C) H/2

C) 3T/4 D) T D) 3H

45
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
58. All the particles thrown with same initial HORIZONTAL PROJECTION, INCLINED
velocity would strike the ground. Choose the PLANE
correct statement
61. A particle (A) is dropped from a height and
another particle (B) is thrown in horizontal
direction with speed of 5 m/sec from the
same height. The correct statement is
A) Both particles will reach at ground
simultaneously
B) Both particles will reach at ground with
same speed
A) with same speed
C) Particle (A) will reach at ground first with
B) simultaneously respect to particle (B)
C) time would be least for the particle thrown D) Particle (B) will reach at ground first with
with velocity v upward i.e., particle 2 respect to particle (A)

D) time would be maximum for the particle 62. A stone is projected horizontally with a
4 speed 10 m/s from a 80m high building. The
distance of the target on the ground from the
59. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 700 t of the building is (g=10 m/s2)
m/s2. At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a
A) 80 m B) 40 m
window by a person sitting in the car. What
is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at C) 20 m D) 10 m
t = 6 s? 63. Two stones are projected horizontally from
(Take g = 10 m/s )2 the same height with speeds 100 m/s and
40 m/s. The ratio of their horizontal range is:
A) 20m/s, 5 m/s2
A) 1:1 B) 5:2
B) 20m/s, 0 C) 2:5 D) 3:4
C) 20 2 m/s, 0 64. A ball is thrown horizontally from a height of
90m with a speed of 4.5 m/s, then find the
−1 −2
D) 20 2 ms ,10ms time when it is at the height of 45m from the
ground
60. A projectile is fired from the surface of the
earth with a velocity of 5 ms–1 and angle θ A) 3 2s
with the horizontal. Another projectile fired
B) 10 s
from another planet with a velocity of 3
ms–1 at the same angle follows a trajectory C) 9 s
which is identical with the trajectory of the D) 3s
projectile fired from the earth. The value of
the acceleration due to gravity on the planet 65. When a particle is thrown horizontally, the
is (in ms–2) given g = 9.8 m/s2 displacement of the projectile at any time ti
is given by
A) 3.5
1
B) 5.9 A) u 2t 2 + g2t 2 B) u 2t 2 + g2t 4
4
C) 16.3
D) 110.8 C) u 2 + g2t 2 D) u 2 − g2t 2

46
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

66. A particle is projected horizontally with a 71. Two tall buildings are 30m apart. The speed
20 with which a ball must be thrown horizontally
speed of m / s , from some height at t=0. from a window 150m above the ground in
3
one building so that it enters a window 27.5m
from the ground in the other building is
At what time will its velocity make 30° angle
with the initial velocity A) 2 ms–1 B) 6 ms–1
A) 1s B) 2s C) 4 ms–1 D) 8 ms–1

2 72. A ball is projected from the top of a tower at

C) 1.5 s D) s an angle 60° with the vertical. What happens
3 to the vertical component of its velocity
67. A body is dropped from a plane moving with A) Increases continuously
constant horizontal velocity. The path of the
B) Decreases continuously
body as seen by a person on the plane will
be: C) Remains unchanged
A) Straight line B) Parabolic D) First decreases and then increases
C) Hyperbolic D) Ellipsoid 73. From the top of a tower a particle is projected
with an initial velocity of 10 m/s at an angle
68. A body is thrown horizontally from the top of
of 30° above the horizontal. It hits the ground
a tower of height 5 m. It touches the ground
at a distance of 17.3m from the base of the
at a distance of 10 m from the foot of the
tower. Calculate the height of the tower
tower. The initial velocity of the body is (g =
10 ms) A) 10 m B) 15 m
A) 2.5 ms-1 B) 5 ms-1 C) 20 m D) 25 m
C) 10 ms-1 D) 20 ms-1 74. From the top of a 11m high tower a stone is
projected with speed 10m/s, at an angle 37°
69. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a
as shown in figure. The speed of the stone
velocity of 600 km/h at a height of 1960 m.
just before striking the ground:
When it is vertically above at a point A on the
ground, a bomb is released from it. The bomb 37°
10m/s
strikes the ground at point B. The distance
AB is
A) 1200 m B) 0.33 km
C) 3.33 km D) 33 km h

70. From the top of a tower 19.6 m high, a ball

is thrown horizontally. If the line joining the
point a projection to the point where it hits
the ground makes an angle of 45o with the
horizontal, then the initial velocity of the ball
is A) 8 m/s B) 8 5m / s
A) 9.8 m s-1 C) 8 2m / s D) 8 3m / s
B) 4.9 m s-1 75. In the above question, find the time taken by
C) 14.7 m s -1 the stone to reach the ground:

D) 2.8 m s-1 A) 1s B) 2s
C) 3s D) 4s

47
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
76. An object is thrown horizontally from a point 78. A particle is projected with a certain velocity
‘A’ from a tower and hits the ground 3s later at an angle α above the horizontal from the
at B. The line from ‘A’ to ‘B’ makes an angle
of 30o with the horizontal. The initial velocity foot of an inclined plane of inclination 30o. If
of the object is : the particle strikes the plane normally, then
α is equal to
(take g = 10 m/s2)
o −1
 3
A) 30 + tan  
 2 
B) 45o
C) 60o
o −1
D) 30 + tan 2 5 ( )
79. A particle is thrown with a velocity 10 m/s at
A) 15 3m/s 60o with horizontal as shown in the figure.
The time when velocity is parallel to the
B) 15 m/s
inclined plane is :
C) 10 3 m/s
25
D) m/s
3
77. A shot is fired at an angle θ to the horizontal
2 1
A) s B) s
such that it strikes the hill while moving 3 3
horizontally. Find the initial angle of projection
θ 1
C) 3s D) s
2 3
80. A particle is projected horizontally with a
speed u from top of a plane inclined at an
angle with the horizontal direction. How far
from the point of projection will the particle
strike the plane
2
A) tan θ = 2u 2 tan θ sec θ
5 A)
g
3 B) 2u tan θ sec θ
B) tan θ =
8
2u 2 tan 2 sec θ
C)
3 g
C) tan θ =
2
2u 2 tan θ sec 2 θ
D) None of these D)
g

48
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

LEVEL - II 84. A ball is projected from a point at two different

81. The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical angles with same speed υ and land at same
plane is =y ax − bx 2 , where a and b are
point in both the cases. Which of the
following statements are incorrect:
constant and x and y are respectively the
horizontal and vertical distances of the A) The difference between two angles of
projectile from the point of projection projection is 90°
A) the angle of projection is tan-1(a)\ B) The maximum height attained by the ball
in both the cases is equal
B) the maximum height attained is a2/2b
C) The sum of maximum heights for the two
C) the horizontal range is a/b
u2
D) none of these cases is
2g
82. Trajectories are shown in figure are for three
kicked footballs, ignoring the effect of the D) The maximum height attained by the ball
air on the footballs. If T1, T2 and T3 are their in one case must be twice of the maximum
respective time of flights then : height attained by the ball in second case
Select the correct choice
A) If statement I and statement II are true
B) If statement I and statement II are false
C) If statement I is true but statement II is
false
D) If statement I is false but statement II is
true
85. Statement I: In projectile motion, the angle
A) T1 > T3 B) T1 < T3 between the instantaneous
T1 + T3 velocity and acceleration at
C) T2 = D) T1 = T2 = T3 the highest point is 180°
2
Statement II: At the highest point, velocity
83. Identical guns fire identical bullets horizontally of projectile will be in
at the same speed from the same height horizontal direction only
above level planes, one on the earth and one
86. Statement I: For projection angle
1
on the moon [gmmon= g earth ]. Which of the tan ( 4 ) , the horizontal
−1

6
following statements is/are true? range and the maximum
height of a projectile are
A) The horizontal distance travelled by the
equal
bullet is greater for the moon
Statement II: The maximum range of
B) The flight time is less for the bullet on the
a projectile is directly
earth
proportional to square of
C) The velocity of the bullets at impact are initial velocity and inversely
the same proportional to acceleration
D) The velocity of the bullets at impact is due to gravity
greater for earth

49
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
87. Statement I: In javelin throw, the athlete 90. The velocity of projection u is
throws the projectile at an
angle more than 45. A) 2gh B) gh
Statement II: The maximum range of a
projectile does not depends
5
on angle of projection C) 5gh D) gh
2
88. Statement I: In order to hit a target, a man
should point his rifle on the
same direction as targest PASSAGE QUESTIONS (91-93)

Statement II: The height attained by A ball of mass m is thrown at angle 37°
a projectile in oblique with the horizontal with a speed of 20 m/s
projection is twenty five without air resistance. When ball reaches
percent of range, when at highest point. The wind starts blowing
projected for maximum horizontally which imparts a constant
range horizontal acceleration a to the ball on
PASSAGE QUESTIONS (89-90) opposite direction.

υ
A particle is projected at angle θ with the Wind

horizontal such that it just able to clear a 37°

vertical wall of height h at a distance h
91. If air does not flow then the time of flight is
from point of projection as shown in the
T and due to the blowing of wind the time of
figure. (h = maximum height) flight become T1 then:
A) T1> T
B) T1 < T
C) T1=T
D) Depend upon acceleration (a)
92. Find the value of a so that ball will fall exactly
below the highest point of trajectory
A) 26.6 m/s2
B) 10 m/s2
89. The angle of projection is C) 16.6 m/s2
A) tan-1 (2) D) 5 m/s2
B) tan-1 3 93. If the speed of the ball at the time of hitting
the ground is v, then
−1
 2
C) tan   A) V > 20 m/s
 3 
B) V=20 m/s
C) V < 20 m/s
 3
−1
D) tan   D) Cannot be predicted
 2 

50
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

MATRIX MATCH Integer Type

 96. A ball is projected for maximum range with
94. The velocity v of a particle moving in the xy
speed 20ms-1. A boy is located at a distance
 25m from point of throwing start run to catch
( )
- plane is given by v =6t − 4t ˆi + 8jˆ , with
2
the ball at the time when the ball projected.
Find the speed of the boy in m/s so that he

v in m/s and t(>0) in second. Match the can catch the ball (Take g = 10 ms-A)
97. A cricketer can throw a ball to maximum
following columns : horizontal distance of 160m. Calculate the
maximum vertical height in metre to which
Column-I Column-II he can throw the ball ? Given g = 10 m/s2
a) acceleration p) 3/4 s 98. A cannon fires successively two shells with
magnitude is velocity v0 =250m/s, the first at an angle
10m/s2 at a time θ1 =60o and the second at an angle
b) acceleration zero q) never
at time θ2 =45o to the horizontal. Neglecting the air
c) velocity zero at r) 1s
time drag, find the time interval in second between
d) the speed 10m/s s) 2s firings leading to the collision of the shells
at a time 99. A projectile takes off with an initial velocity
A) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-q B) a-s, b-p, c-r, d-p of 10 m/s at an angle of elevation of 45°.
It is just able to clear two hurdles of height
C) a-s, b-q, c-q, d-q D) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
2m each, separated from each other by a
R distance _____m
95. In a projectile motion, given H
= = 20m
2 100. A particle is released from a certain height
Here H is the maximum height and R is the H=400m. Due to the wind, the particle
horizontal range. For the given condition gathers the horizontal vertical component
match the following two columns: υc =ay where a = 5s −1 and y is the vertical

displacement of the particle from the point

Column-I Column-II
of release. The horizontal drift of the particle
a) Time of flight p) 4 when it strikes the ground is _____km
b) Ratio of initial vertical q) 2
component of velocity SAMPLE QUESTIONS
and horizontal compo- 1. The y-component of velocity is 10 and
nent of velocity x-component of velocity is 20. The direction
c) Horizontal component r) 10 of motion of the body with the horizontal at
of velocity (in m/s) this instant is
d) Vertical component of s) None of A) tan–1 2
velocity the above
−1 1
A) a-p; b-q; c-r; d-s B) tan  
2
B) a-r; b-s; c-p; d-q
C) 45°
C) a-s; b-q; c-p; d-r
D) 0°
D) a-r; b-p; c-q; d-s

51
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

2. The minimum number of unequal vectors 8. A plane is revolving around the earth with
which can give zero resultant are a speed of 100 km/hr at a constant height
from the surface of earth. The change in the
A) Two B) Three
velocity as it travels half circle is
C) Four D) More than four A) 200 km/hr B) 150 km/hr
3. Two forces of 5N and 12 N simultaneously C) 100 2km / hr D) 0
act on a particle. The net force on the
9. The sum of two forces acting at a point is
particle is
16 N. If the resultant force is 8N and its
A) 17 N direction is perpendicular to minimum force
then the forces are
B) 12 N
A) 6 N and 10 N B) 8 N and 8N
C) between 7 N and 17 N C) 4N and 12 N D) 2 N and 14 N
D) 7 N only 10. If a vector 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 8kˆ is perpendicular to
4. Angle in (rad) made by the vector 3iˆ + ˆj
the vector 4ˆj − 4iˆ + αkˆ . Then the value of α
with x-axis is
π π is
A) B) 1
6 4 A) –1 B)
2
π π
C) D) 1
3 2 C) − D) 1
2
5. What is the unit vector along ˆi + ˆj ? 11. A particle moves from position 3iˆ + 2ˆj − 6kˆ
ˆi + ˆj
1
2
B) ( )
2 ˆi + ˆj
to 14iˆ + 13jˆ + 9kˆ due to a uniform force of

C) ˆi + ˆj
   
D) k̂ ( 4iˆ + ˆj + 3kˆ ) N . If the displacement in

6. If A − B = A = B , the angle between meters then work done will be

  A) 100 J B) 200 J
A and B is C) 300 J D) 250 J

A) 60° B) 0° 12. The torque of the force F = ( 2iˆ − 3jˆ + 4kˆ ) N
C) 120° D) 90°
7. Magnitude of vector which comes on acting at the point r =

(3iˆ + 2ˆj + 3kˆ ) m about
addition of two vectors, 6iˆ + 7ˆj and 3iˆ + 4ˆj
the origin be
is A) 6iˆ − 6ˆj + 12kˆ B) 17iˆ − 6ˆj − 13kˆ
A) 136 B) 13.2
C) −6iˆ + 6ˆj − 12kˆ D) −17ˆj + 6ˆj + 13kˆ
C) 202 D) 160

52
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

13. Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 18. A body is projected such that its kinetic
represented by the two vectors ˆi + 2ˆj + 3kˆ 1
energy at the top is th of its initial kinetic
4
and 3iˆ − 2ˆj + kˆ . What is the area of energy. What is the angle of projection of
the projectile with the horizontal?
parallelogram A) 30°

A) 8 B) 8 3 B) 45°
C) 60°
C) 3 8 D) 192
D) 75°
14. A ball is thrown horizontally from a point
100m above the ground with a speed 19. In the cube of side ‘a’ shown in the figure,
of 20 ms–1. The horizontal distance it the vector from the central point of the face
travels before reaching the ground and ABOD to the central point of the face BEFO
the magnitude of the velocity with which it will be
strikes the ground
A) 90 m, 48.4 ms–1 B) 150m, 68.2 ms–1
C) 62m, 15.2 ms–1 D) 90 m, 26.2 ms–1
15. Making an angle 60° with the vertical. a ball
is thrown with 200 m/s. Calculate the time-
of-flight and the maximum height attained
by it
A) 31.4 s, 814.6 m B) 5.15s, 126.2m
1 ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ
C) 12.25s, 264.7 m D) 20.4s, 510.4 m A)
2
(
a k−i ) B)
2
(
a i−k )
16. The ceiling of a long hall is 60m high. What
is approximate the maximum horizontal
1 ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ
distance that a ball thrown with a speed of
40 ms–1 can move?
C)
2
( )
a j− i D)
2
(
a j− k )
A) 100 m  
20. Two vectors A and B have equal
B) 75 m
C) 150 m
 
magnitudes. The magnitude of A + B is n
D) 160 m
 
17. Find the angle at which a ball, projected times A − B . Then θ=
with a velocity of 24.5 ms–1, just passes
over maximum height of 24.5m and at a
distance of 24.5 m from the point of throw
−1  n 2 − 1 −1  n − 1
A) cos   B) cos  cos
 n + 1 
A) tanθ=2 2
 n + 1
B) tanθ=4
C) tanθ=6 −1  n 2 − 1 −1  n − 1
C) sin   D) sin 
 n + 1 
2
D) tanθ=8  n + 1

53
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
21. Two particles are projected from the same 26. A ball is projected from ground at an angle
point with the same speed a such that of 45° just clears a wall in front. If point of
they have the same range R, but different projection is 4m from the foot of wall and
maximum heights, h1 and h2. Which of the ball strikes the ground at a distance of 6m
following is correct? on the other side of the wall, the height of
the wall is
A) R2=4h1h2 B)R2=16h1h2
A) 4.4 m B) 2.4 m
C) R2= 2h1h2 D) R2= h1h2
C) 3.6 m D) 1.6 m
22. Two guns A and B can fire bullets at speeds 27. A boy can throw a stone up to maximum
1 km/s and 2 km/s respectively. From a point height of 10m. The maximum horizontal
on a horizontal ground, they are fired in all distance that the boy can throw the same
possible directions. The ratio of maximum stone up to will be
areas covered by the bullets fired by the
two guns, on the ground is A) 20 2m B) 10 m
A) 1:16 B) 1:2 C) 10 2m D) 20 m
C) 1:4 D) 1:8 28. A projectile can have the same range ‘R’ for
two angles of projection. If ‘T1’ and ‘T2’ to
23. The initial speed of a bullet fired from a rifle be time of flights in the two cases, then the
is 630 m/s. The rifle is fired at the centre of product of the two time of flights is directly
a target 700m away at the same level as proportional to
the target. How far above the centre of the
1
target? A) R B)
R
A) 1.0 m B) 4.2 m
C) 6.1 m D) 9.8 m 1
C) D) R2
24. The position of a projectile launched from R2
the origin at t=0 is given by
29. A boy playing on the roof of a 10m high

( )
40iˆ 50ˆj m at t =
r =+ 2s . If the projectile building throws a ball with a speed of 10m/s
at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. How
was launched at an angle θ from the far from the throwing point will the ball be at
horizontal, then θ is (take g=10 ms–B) the height of 10m from the ground?
−1 2 −1 3 1 3
A) tan B) tan [g=10m/s2, sin30° = ,cos30° = ]
3 2 2 2
A) 5.20 m B) 4.33 m
7 −1 −1 4
C) tan D) tan C) 2.60 m D) 8.66 m
4 5
30. A ball is projected with a certain speed from
25. A projectile is given an initial velocity of a point on the ground which is at a distance

( ˆi + 2ˆj) m / s , where î is along the ground

of 30m from a vertical wall. If the angle of
projection is 45° with the horizontal, the ball
just clears the top of the wall and strikes the
and ĵ is along the vertical. If g=10 m/s2, the ground at a distance of 10m from the wall
on the other side. The height of wall must
equation of its trajectory is: be (Take g=10 ms–B)
A) y=x–5x2 B) y=2x–5x2 A) 7.5 m B) 10.0 m
C) 12.5 m D) 15.0 m
C) 4y=2x–5x2 D) 4y=2x–25x2

54
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

PARAGRAPH TYPE QUESTIONS (31-34) STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS (35-38)

A) Statement 1 is true, statement-2 is true

and statement 2 is the explanation for
The vertical displacement y of a projectile statement 1
varies with the horizontal displacement x B) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true but
as statement 2 is not the correct explanation
y ax − bx 2
= for statement 1
where a and b are constants C) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
D) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
35. Statement 1: A body is projected from the
ground with kinetic energy K
31. The trajectory of the projectile is a at an angle of 60° with the
horizontal. If air resistance is
A) Straight line
neglected. Its kinetic energy
B) Circle when it is at the highest point
of its trajectory will be K/4.
C) Parabola Statement 2: At the highest point of the
trajectory, the directions of
D) Hyperbola the velocity and acceleration
of the body are perpendicular
32. The horizontal range of the projectile is
to each other.
A) a B) b 36. Statement 1: The maximum range on an
inclined plane when a body
a a is projected upwards from
C) D) the base of the plane is less
b b
than that when it is projected
downwards from the top
33. The maximum height attained by the of the same plane with the
projectile is same speed .
Statement 2: The maximum range along an
a 2a
A) B) inclined plane is independent
b b of the angle of inclination of
the plane.
37. Statement 1: In projectile motion, the
a2 a2 velocity of the body at a
C) D)
2b 4b point on it trajectory is equal
to the slope at that point
34. The time of flight of the projectile is Statement 2: The velocity vector at a point
is always along the tangent
a 2 to the trajectory at that point
A) B) a 38. Statement 1: When the velocity of
bg bg
projection of a body is made
n times, its time of flight
becomes n times
2a 2 Statement 2: Range of projectile does not
C) D) 2a
bg bg depend on the initial velocity
of a body

55
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT 42. Mark correct statements.

ANSWER TYPE
A) Two particles thrown with same speed
39. When air resistance is considered in from the same point at the same instant
projectile motion which of the following but at different angles cannot collide in mid
quantity can decrease : air.
A) Maximum height B) A body projected in uniform gravitational
B) Time of flight field follows a parabolic path

C) Horizontal range C) In projectile motion, velocity is never

perpendicular to the acceleration
D) Angle of strike
40. If two bodies are projected with same D) A particle dropped from rest and blown
speed at 30° and 60° with horizontal then over by a horizontal wind with constant
the correct equations : velocity traces a parabolic path
 
H1 43. If vectors A and B are given by and
A) = tan θ
H2
which
B) T1  
= tan θ A = 5iˆ + 6ˆj + 3kˆ and B = 6iˆ − 2ˆj − 6kˆ
T2
which
C) R = 4 H H
1 2
is/are of the followings, correct?
 
2
A) A and B are mutually perpendicular
D) H1 =  T1 
     
H 2  T2 
B) Product of A × B is the same as B × A
41. All the particles thrown with same initial
 
velocity would strike the ground C) magnitude of A and B are equal
 
D) magnitude of A ⋅ B is zero

44. Two projectiles are fired from the same

point with the same speed at angle of
projection 60o and 30o respectively. Which
of the following is true?
A) with same speed
A) Their maximum height will be the same
B) simultaneously
C) time would be least for the particle B) Their range will be the same
thrown with velocity v downward i.e.,
particle 1 C) Their landing speed will be the same

D) time would be maximum for the particle D) Their time of flight will be the same
2

56
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

MATRIX MATCH QUESTIONS 47. A ball is projected for maximum range

with speed 20ms-1. A boy is located at a
45. In projectile motion, if vertical component of distance 25m from point of throwing start
velocity is increased to two times, keeping run to catch the ball at the time when the
horizontal component unchanged, then ball projected. Find the speed of the boy in
m/s so that he can catch the ball (Take g =
Column-I Column-II 10 ms-1)
a) Time of flight p) will remain 48. A cricketer can throw a ball to maximum
same horizontal distance of 160m. Calculate the
b) Maximum height q) will become two maximum vertical height in metre to which
times he can throw the ball ? Given g = 10 m/s2
c) Horizontal range r) will become 49. A boy standing on a long railroad car throws
four times a ball straight upwards. The car is moving
d) Angle of projection s) None of the on the horizontal road with an acceleration
with horizontal above of 1 ms–1 and the projection velocity in
the vertical direction is 9.8 ms–1. How far
A) a-q, b-r, c-q, d-s behind the boy will the ball fall on the car ?
B) a-q, b-q, c-r, d-s (in metres)
C) a-q, b-q, c-s, d-r 50. A ball is projected upwards from the top of
D) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-q a tower with a velocity of 50 ms-1 making
an angle of 30o with the horizontal. The
46. A small ball rolls of the top of a stairway height of the tower is 70 m. After how many
horizontally with a velocity of 4.5 ms–1. Each seconds from the instant of throwing will the
step is 0.2 m high and 0.3 m wide. If g is 10 ball reach the ground?
ms–2, then the ball will strike the nth step
where n is equal to (assume ball strike at
the edge of the step).

57
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL - I
1. D 26. A 51. B 76. A
2. D 27. A 52. B 77. C
3. B 28. B 53. D 78. A
4. B 29. B 54. C 79. B
5. B 30. A 55. C 80. A
6. C 31. D 56. D 81. A,C
7. A 32. B 57. A 82. C,D
8. A 33. D 58. A 83. A,B,D
9. C 34. D 59. D 84. A,B,D
10. D 35. B 60. A 85. D
11. A 36. A 61. A 86. A
12. A 37. A 62. B 87. B
13. D 38. B 63. B 88. D
14. D 39. C 64. D 89. A
15. D 40. A 65. B 90. D
16. B 41. C 66. D 91. C
17. B 42. C 67. A 92. A
18. A 43 B 68. C 93 B
19. A 44. A 69. C 94. A
20. B 45. B 70. A 95. A
21. A 46. D 71. B 96. 5.3
22. D 47. C 72. D 97. 80
23. B 48. C 73. A 98. 11
24. B 49. A 74. B 99. 4.47
25. C 50. A 75. A 100. 266
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. B 11. A 21. B 31. C 41. A, C, D
2. B 12. B 22. A 32. D 42. A, D
3. C 13. B 23. C 33. D 43 A, D
4. A 14. C 24. C 34. B 44. B, C
5. A 15. D 25. B 35. B 45. A
6. A 16. D 26. B 36. C 46. 9
7. C 17. A 27. D 37. D 47. 5
8. A 18. C 28. A 38. C 48. 80
9. A 19. C 29. D 39. A, B, C 49. 2
10. C 20. A 30. A 40. C, D 50. 7

58
 Chapter
RELATIVE MOTION
04

QUESTIONS 4. Two cars A and B are moving in the same

direction at speeds 20 ms–1 and 10 ms–1
LEVEL - I respectively. Car A is following car B.
1. When two bodies approach each other with At a certain instant AB = 150m, when a
different speeds, the distance between them deceleration a0 is applied in car A to avoid
decreases by 120m for every one minute. If collision. Then,
they go away from one another, the distance −2
between them increases by 90m for every A) a 0 ≥ 1ms
one minute. The speeds of the bodies are B) a 0 ≤ 1ms
−1

A) 2ms–1 and 0.5ms–1

1 −2
B) 3ms and 2ms
–1 –1 C) a 0 ≥ ms
3
C) 1.75ms–1 and 0.25ms–1
D) a0 < 0.5 ms-2
D) 2.5 ms and 0.5ms
–1 -1

5. Train A and train B are running on parallel

2. Two trains each 50m long are travelling in tracks in the opposite directions with speeds
opposite direction with velocity 10 m/s and of 36 km/hour and 72 km/hour, respectively.
15 m/s. The time of crossing is: A person is walking in train A in the direction
A) 2s opposite to its motion with a speed of 1.8 km/
hr. Speed (in ms-1) of this person as observed
B) 4s from train B will be close to (take the distance
between the tracks as negligible)
C) 2 3 s
A) 30.5 ms-1 B) 29.5 ms-1
D) 4 3 s
C) 31.5 ms-1 D) 28.5 ms-1
3. Car ‘A’ and Car ‘B’ start moving simultaneously
in the same direction along the line joining 6. A swimmer moving upstream passes a
them. Car A with a constant acceleration float at point P. After two hour, he returns
4ms–2, while car B moves with constant and at this instant it meets the float again
velocity 1ms–1. At time t = 0, Car A is 10m at a distance 15 km from the point P. If the
behind car B. The time when car A overtakes swimmer velocity in water remains constant,
car B then find the speed of river flow.
A) 5s A) 5 kmh-1
B) 2.5s B) 10 kmh-1
C) 3.5s C) 3.75 kmh-1
D) 1.5s D) 7.5 kmh-1

59
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

7. A car is moving towards east with a speed of 9. Two balls are thrown from A and B
25 kmh-1. To the driver of the car, a bus simultaneously. Find the minimum distance
appears to move towards north with a speed between them during the motion.
-1
of 25 3 kmh . What is the actual velocity 20 m/s
A

of the bus? 20 m/s

10 m

A) 50 kmh , 30 E of N
-1 o

B 10 m
B) 50 kmh-1, 30o N of E
C) 25 kmh1, 30o E of N A) 1 m B) zero
C) 4 m D) 2 m
D) 25 kmh-1, 30o N of E
10. A monkey is climbing a vertical pillar with a
8. Two identical balls are set into motion velocity of 5ms–1 and a boy running towards
simultaneously from equal heights h. While
the pillar with a velocity of 5 3 ms–1. Velocity
the ball A is thrown horizontally with velocity
v, the ball B is just released to fall by itself.
of the boy relative to the monkey is
Choose the alternative that best represents
the motion of A and B with respect to an A) 10ms-1 at 30o with the horizontal
observer who moves with velocity v/2 with
respect to the ground as shown in the figure. B) 10ms–1 at 60o with the horizontal

C) 8 3 ms–1 at 80o with the horizontal

D) 8 3 ms–1 at 60o with the horizontal

11. A bird is flying towards north with a velocity
40 km h-1 and a train is moving with velocity
40 km h–1 towards east. What is the velocity
of the bird observed by a man in the train?

A)
A) 10 2 kmh-1 N-E B) 40 2 kmh-1 S-E

C) 40 2 kmh-1 N-W D) 40 2 kmh-1 S-W

12. A naughty boy is standing at the edge of the
roof of a multistoreyed building. He throws a
B) ball making an angle with vertical upward
direction at t = 0. But he losses his balance
after throwing the ball and starts to fall at t =
t0. The ball reaches at ground at t=10t0. But
the boy reaches at ground safely at t=5t0.
C) The path of ball observed by the boy is
A) always straight line
B) parabola 0 < t < t0
C) straight line for t 0 < t < 10t 0
D) D) parabola for t 0 < t < 5t 0

60
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

13. A horse is running with constant acceleration 16. A aeroplane is observed by two persons
travelling at 60kmph in two vehicles moving
in opposite directions on a straight road. To
. A small ball is projected by horse rider an observer in one vehicle the plane appears
at an angle θ with horizontal with respect to to cross the road track at right angles while
to the observer in the other vehicle the angle
horse. The value of θ such that the ball appears to be 45o. At what angle does the
plane actually cross the road track?
again catch by the boy
−1 1
A) 30o A) tan   B) tan-1(2)
2
B) 45o
C) 60o C) 45o D) tan
−1
( 2)
D) 90o 17. A body A is thrown vertically upwards with
14. Two particles P and Q are separated by such a velocity that it reaches a maximum
a distance d apart. P and Q move with height of h. Simultaneously, another body
velocities v and u, making angle 60o and 30o B is droped from height h. It strikes the
with the line PQ. The graph between their ground and does not rebound. The velocity
of A relative to B versus time graph is best
relative separation (s) and time (t) is shown
represented by (upward direction is positive)
in the figure. The value of v in terms of u is

A)

u
A) u 3 B) B)
3

u
C) u D)
2

15. cat runs along a straight line with constant

velocity of magnitude V. A dog chases the
cat such that the velocity of dog is always C)
directed towards the cat. The speed of dog is
u and always constant. At the instant both are
separated by distance x and their velocities
are mutually perpendicular. The magnitude
of acceleration of dog is

uv u2
A) B) D)
x x

v2 u 2 + v2
C) D)
x x

61
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
 22. A river flows with a speed of 5kmph. A person
18. v 30iˆ + 50ˆj
Ship A is sailing with velocity =
crosses the river directly, whose complete
distance time graph is shown in the figure.
km/hr where î points east and ĵ , north. Ship The direction of his velocity relative to water,
makes with the direction of river flow an
B is at a distance of 80 km east and 150 km angle of
north of ship A and is sailing towards west at
10 km/hr. A will be at minimum distance from
B in
A) 4.2 hr B) 2.2 hr
C) 3.2 hr D) 2.6 hr
19. A wind is flowing with a velocity V towards A) 150o B) 120o
north-east. A man starts running towards C) 135o D) 127o
north with acceleration a. The time after
which man will feel the wind blowing towards
23. Velocity of boat in still water is ( 2iˆ + 3jˆ )
east is ms–1. If it moves in a river flowing with a

A)
V
B)
2V ( )
velocity of 3iˆ + 2ˆj ms–1. Then the velocity
a a
of boat with respect river is

V 2V
( )
A) −ˆi + ˆj ms ( )
B) 3iˆ + 3jˆ ms
−1

C) D)
a
2a
C) ( 2iˆ + 2ˆj) ms −1
( )
D) 5iˆ + 5jˆ ms
−1

20. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed

of 5 meters per minute. A man on the south 24. The river is flowing with a speed of 2 km/h.
bank of the river, capable of swimming at A swimmer can swim at a speed of 4 km/h.
10 meters per minute in still water, wants to What should be the direction of the swimmer
swim across the river in the shortest time. It with respect to the flow of the river to cross
should swim in a direction the river straight?
A) due north
B) 30o east of north
C) 30o north of west
D) 60o east of north
21. A swimmer swims at 135o to current of river,
to meet target on reaching opposite point. A) 600 B) 1500
The ratio of swimmer velocity in still water C) 90 0
D) 1200
to river velocity is 25. To a man walking at the rate of 3kmph
the rain appears to fall vertically. When he
A) 3 :1 increases his speed to 6kmph it appears to
meet him at an angle of 45o with the vertical.
B) 2 :1 The speed of the rain is
C) 1: 2 A) 3 kmph B) 3 2 kmph

D) 1:1: 3 C) 6 kmph D) 6 2 kmph

62
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

26. Rain drops are falling vertically downwards 29. A man holds an umbrella at 300 with the
at 5 2 m/s . A man runs horizontally in the vertical to keep himself dry. He, then, runs
at a speed of 10ms-1, and find th rain drops
to be hitting vertically. Study the following
rain at 5 2 m/s. The magnitude and statements and find the correct options.

direction of relative velocity of the raindrops i. Velocity of rain w.r.t Earth is 20ms-1
with respect to the person is ii. Velocity of rain w.r.t. man is 10 3ms
−1

A ) 5 m s -1, 4 5 o w i t h
vertical iii. Velocity of rain w.r.t. Earth is 30ms-1
B ) 1 0 m s -1, 4 5 o w i t h
−1
vertical iv. Velocity of rain w.r.t. man is 10 2ms
C) 15ms–1, 30o with vertical
A) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
D) 20ms–1, 30o with vertical
27. Rain is falling down vertically to a man B) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct
walking on the road velocity of rain appears
to the 1.5 times his velocity. Then to protect C) Statements (iii) and (iv) are correct
himself from rain, he holds his umbrella at
an angle ' θ ' to the vertical such that tan θ = D) Statements (ii) and (iv) are correct

2 5 30. Rain appears to fall vertically to a man

A) B)
5 2 walking at 3kmh-1, but when he changes
his speed to double, the rain appears to
fall at 450 with vertical. Study the following
statements and find which of them are
3 2 correct.
C) D)
2 3
−1
i. Velocity of rain is 2 3 km h
28. When a boy moves down an inclined plane
of inclination 37o with horizontal with a speed ii. The angle of fall of rain (with vertical) is
of 5 ms–1, he has to hold his umbrella in
vertically upward to protect from rain. When  1 
θ = tan −1  
he moves up the inclined plane with the  2
same speed, he has to hold his umbrella to
protect from rain at angle θ with horizontal, iii. The angle of fall of rain (with vertical) is
 1 
θ =sin −1  
7  2
where tan θ = . The speed of rain drops is
8
−1
A) 4ms-1 iv. Velocity of rain is 3 2 km h
−1
B) 4 2 ms A) Statements i and ii are correct

−1 B) Statements i and iii are correct

C) 4 3 ms
C) Statements iii and iv are correct
−1
D) 5 2 ms D) Statements ii and iv are correct

63
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
LEVEL - II 34. Two particles P and Q are at points A and B
on the X-axis. They start from point C. their
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER
position-time graph is shown in the figure
TYPE

31. A boat moves relative to water with a velocity

which is ‘n’ times the river flow velocity.
Identify the correct statements.
A) If n < 1 boat cannot cross the river
B) If n = 1 boat cannot cross the river without
drifting
C) If n > 1 boat can cross the river along the
shortest path
D) Boat can cross the river what ever is the Choose the correct option(s)
value of n excluding zero value
32. A man can swim in still water with a speed A) particle P starts from point C at t = 0
of 2 m s-1. If he wants to cross a river of water
current speed 3 m s-1 along the shortest B) particle Q starts from point C at t = 10 s

possible path then in which direction should C) particle Q overtakes the particle P at x =
be swim? 30m and t = 20s
A) At an angle 1200 to the water current
D) None of the above
B) At an angle 1500 to the water current
C) At an angle 900 to the water current 35. Two particles A and B are located in x - y
plane at points (0, 0) and (0, 4m). They
D) None of these
simultaneously start moving with velocities
 
33. A man who can swim at a speed ‘v’ relative to VA = 2ˆjms −1 and VB = 2 ˆi ms −1 . Select the
the water wants to cross a river of width ‘d’,
flowing with a speed ‘u’. The point opposite wrong statement
him across the river is ‘A’. Identify the correct
statements
A) The distance between them is
constant
A) He can reach the point ‘A’ in time
d
B) The distance between them first decreases
v2 − u 2 and then increases

B) The minimum time in which he can cross C) The shortest distance between them is
d
the river is 2 2m
v
C) He cannot reach at A if u > v D) Time after which they are at minimum
distance is 1s.
d
D) He can reach the point A in time
v

64
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

36. Two particles are projected with speed 4 m/s 39. Two particles starts from A and B as shown
and 3 m/s simultaneously from same point in the figure. Then,
as shown in figure.

A) the minimum separation between two

particles is achieved in time 1s
A) Their relative velocity is along vertical B) the minimum separation is 10 m
direction C) they may collide to each other
B) Their relative acceleration is non-zero and D) they must collide to each other
it is along vertical direction INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS
C) They will hit the surface simultaneously
40. A person is swimming with a speed of 10
D) Their relative velocity is constant and has m/s at an angle of 1200 with the flow and
magnitude 1.4 m/s reaches to a point directly opposite on the
70 −1 side of the river. The speed of the flow is x
37. A train moving with constant velocity ms
9 m/s. The value of x to the nearest integer is
...............................
when a bullet strikes it in a direction making
41. The speed of a swimmer is 4 km h-1 in still
angle 37o with the train. The bullet enters one
water. If the swimmer makes his strokes
compartment at the corner farthest from the
normal to the flow of river of width 1 km, he
engine and passes out at the diagonally
reaches a point 750 m down the stream on
opposite corner. The compartment is 2.4 m
the opposite bank. The speed of the river
long and 1.8 m wide. Choose the correct
water is ........................ km h-1.
statement(s)
42. A swimmer can swim with velocity of 12
A) the speed of bullet is 80 kmh-1
km/h in still water. Water flowing in a river has
B) the speed of bullet is 28 kmh-1 velocity 6 km/h. The direction with respect to
C) the time taken by bullet to cross the the direction of flow of river water he should
compartment is 3 minute swim in order to reach the point on the other
D) the time taken by bullet to cross the bank just opposite to his starting point is
compartment is 1 minute ...........................0 . (Round off to the nearest
integer)
38. The wind is blowing towards East with a
speed of 30ms-1. The speed of an aeroplane 43. A swimmer wants to cross a river from point
with respect to wind is 50ms-1. The aeroplane A to point B. Line AB makes an angle of 300
has to go from city A to city B 1200 km away with the flow of river. Magnitude of velocity
due North. Choose the correct statement(s) of the swimmer is same as that of the
A) The direction in which the pilot should river. The angle with the line AB should
head the aeroplane to reach the city B is 37o be .........................0, so that the swimmer
West to North. reaches point B.
B) The time taken by the plane to fly from
city A to city B is 500 minute
C) The time taken by plane to fly from city A
to city B is 100 minute
D) None of the above

65
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
44. A man drives a car from y towards x at speed MATRIX MATCH
60kmph. A car leaves station x for station y 
every 10 minutes. The distance between x 48. If v mw is the velocity of a man relative to
and y is 60km. The car travels at speed 60
kmph. A man drives a car from y towards
 
water, v w is the velocity of water, and v m is
x with speed 60 kmph. If he starts at the
moment when first car leaves station x, how the velocity of man relative to ground, match
many cars would he meet on route the following:

45. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still

Column-I Column-II
water crosses a river of width 1 km along the
shortest possible path in 15 minutes. Find i) Minimum a)
v 
the velocity of river water in km/hr distance for θ =sin −1  mw 
v mw > v w  vw 
46.  A boat moves relative to water with 5ms . ii) Minimum 
b) v 
m ⊥ vw
-1

The river flow velocity is 10ms-1. The angle time for

at which boat headed with the direction of v mw ≥ v w
2π iii) Minimum c)  
stream is rad. Find the value of n v mw ⊥ v w
n distance for
v mw < v w
47. A swimmer is moving in a square course in
iv) Minimum d) vw
a river. The flow velocity of the river is 3ms-1 θ =sin −1
time for
and the velocity of swimmer relative to water v mw
is 5ms-1. The total distance travelled by the v mw < v w
swimmer is 80m.
where is the angle between and the
width of the river
A) i-b,d; ii-c; iii-a; iv-c
B) i-c; ii-b; iii-d; iv-a
C) i-d; ii-d; iii-b; iv-c
D) i-a; ii-b; iii-a; iv-d

SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. Two trains A and B, each of length 100m,
Time taken by swimmer (in second) to are running on parallel tracks. One overtake
complete the course is the other in 20s and one crosses the other
in 10s. The velocity of trains are:
A) 5 m/s, 5 m/s B) 10 m/s, 15 m/s
C) 15 m/s, 5 m/s D) 15 m/s, 30 m/s
2. Two trains, each 50m long are travelling in
opposite direction with velocity 10m/s and
15 m/s. The time of crossing is
A) 2s B) 4s

C) 2 3s D) 4 3s

66
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

3. A massless string of length  passes over 7. A person walks up a stalled escalator in 90s.
When standing on the same escalator, now
a frictionless pulley whose axis is horizontal. moving, he is carried in 60s. The time it would
Two monkeys hang from the ends of the take him to walk up the moving escalator will
string at the same distance  / 2 from the be
A) 27 s B) 72 s
pulley, the monkeys start climbing upward
C) 18 s D) 36 s
simultaneously. First monkey climbs with a
speed v relative to the string and the second 8. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed ‘v0’
with a speed 2v. Both monkeys have equal at an elevation angle of θ. From the same
masses. Then the time taken by the first and point and at the same instant, a person starts
second monkey is meeting each other are ' v0 '
respectively running with a constant sped to catch
2
    the ball. Will the person be able to catch the
A) and B) and
3v 3v 2v 4v ball? If yes, what should be the angle of
projection θ?
    A) No
C) and D) and
4v 2v v 2v B) Yes, 30°
4. A ball A is thrown up vertically with a speed C) Yes, 60°
u and at the same instant another ball B is D) Yes, 45°
released from a height h. At time t, the speed
of A relative of B is 9. Two particles A and B are separated by a
horizontal distance x. They are projected at
A) u B) 2u
the same instant towards each other with
C) u–2gt D) (u 2
− gt ) speeds u 3 and u at angle of projection 30°

5. An elevator is moving upward with a constant and 60° respectively as shown in figure. The
speed of 10 m/s. A man standing in the time after which the horizontal distance
elevator drops a coin from a height of 2.5m, between them becomes zero is
the coin reaches the floor of the elevator after
a time (g=10 m/s2)
1 1
A) s B) s u
2 2
3
C) 2s D) 2s
u
6. Two trains A and B, each other length 400m, 30° B
60°
are moving on two parallel tracks in the same A x
direction (with A head of B) with same speed
72 km/h. The driver of B decided to overtake x x
A) B)
A and accelerates by 1m/s2. If after 50s, B u 2u
just brushes part A, calculate the original
distance between A and B 2x 4x
A) 750 m B) 100 m C) D)
u u
C) 1250 m D) 2250 m

67
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]
10. A swimmer crosses a 200m wide channel 15. Passengers in the jet transport A flying east
with straight bank and return in 10 minute at a speed of 800 kmh–1 observe a second
at a point 300m below the starting point jet plane B that passes under the transport
(downstream). The velocity of the swimmer in horizontal flight. Although the nose of B
relative to the bank if he heads towards the is pointed in the 45° north east direction,
bak to the channel all the time at right angles plane B appears to the passengers in A to
is be moving away from the transport at the 60°
A) 2 km/h B) 3 km/h angle as shown. The true velocity of B is
C) 4 km/h D) 5 km/h
11. A boat which has speed of 5 km/h, in still
water crosses a river of width 1 km along
the shortest possible path in 15 minute. The
velocity of the river water in km/h is
A) B) 3
C) 4 D) 41
12. A man crosses a 320m wide river A) 586 kmh-1
perpendicular to the current in 4 minute. If in −1
5 B) 400 2kmh 4
still water he can swim with a speed times
3 C) 717 kmh–1
that of the current, then the speed of the
D) 400 kmh–1
current, in m/min is
A) 30 B) 40 16. A swimmer crosses a flowing stream of width
C) 50 D) 60 ω to and fro in time t1. The time taken to cover
13. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed the same distance up and down the stream
of 5m/min. A man on the south bank of the is t2. If t3 is the time swimmer would take to
river capable of swimming at 10m/min in still swim a distance 2ω in still water then:
water wants to swim across the river 2
A) t1 = t 2 t 3
A) due north to reach in shortest time
2
B) at an angle 30° west of north to reach in B) t 2 = t1t 3
minimum time
2
C) at an angle 60° west of north to reach C) t 3 = t1t 3 t
along shortest path
D) t 3= t1 + t 2
D) at angle 45° west of north to reach along
shortest path 17. Rain is falling vertically downwards with a
14. The distance between two moving particles speed of 4 kmh–1. A girl moves on a straight
at any time t is ‘a’. If v be their relative velocity road with a velocity of 3 kmh–1. The apparent
and v1 and v2 be the components of v along velocity of rain with respect to the girl is
and perpendicular to ‘a’, then the time when
they are closed to each other A) 3 kmh–1
A) a / v1 B) a/v2 B) 4 kmh–1

C) 5 kmh–1
av1 av 2
C) D) D) 7 kmh–1
v2 v2

68
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

18. Ship A is travelling with a velocity of 5 kmh–1 22. A train of 150 m length is going towards north
due east. The second ship is heading 30° direction at a speed of 10 m/s. A parrot files
east of north. What should be the speed at a speed of 5 m/s towards south direction
of second ship if it is to remain always due parallel to the railway track. The time taken
north with respect tot he first ship? by the parrot to cross the train is equal to
A) 10 kmh–1 A) 12 s
B) 9 kmh –1
B) 8 s
C) 8 kmh –1
C) 15 s
D) 7 kmh–1
D) 10 s
19. Rain is falling vertically with a velocity of 25
23. Rain, driven by the wind, falls on a railway
ms–1. A woman rides a bicycle with a speed
compartment with a velocity of 20m/s, at an
of 10 ms–1 in the north to south direction.
angle of 30° to the vertical. The train moves,
What is the direction (angle with vertical) in
along the direction of wind flow, at a speed of
which she should hold her umbrella to safe
108 km/hr. Determine the apparent velocity
herself from the rain?
of rain for a person sitting in the train
A) tan–1(0.4)
A) 20 7m / s
B) tan–1(1)

C) tan
−1
( 3) t B) 10 7m / s 1

D) tan–1(2.6) C) 15 7m / s

20. A policeman moving on a highway with a D) 10 7km / h

speed of 30 kmh–1 fires a bullet at the thief’s
24. A swimmer wishes to cross a 500 m river
car speeding away in the same direction
flowing at 5 km/hr. His speed with respect to
with a speed of 192 kmh–1. If the muzzle
water is 3 km/hr. The shortest possible time
speed of the bullet is 150 ms–1 with what
to cross the river is
speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car?
A) 120 m/s A) 10 min B) 20 min

B) 90 m/s C) 6 min D) 7.5 min

C) 125 m/s 25. A boat is moving with a velocity 3iˆ + 4ˆj with
D) 105 m/s
respect to ground. The water in the river is
21. A bird is flying towards north with a velocity
40km/h and a train is moving with a velocity moving with a velocity −3iˆ − 4ˆj with respect
40 km/h towards east. What is the velocity
of the bird noted by a man in the train? to ground. The relative velocity of the boat
with respect to water is
A) 40 2km / h N − E
A) 8jˆ
B) 40 2km / h S − E
B) −6ˆj − 8jˆ
C) 40 2km / h N − W
C) 6iˆ + 8jˆ
D) 40 2km / h S − W
D) 5 2

69
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

MULTIPLE OPTIONS CORRECT 28. A ball is released from the window of a train
moving along a horizontal straight track with
 ˆ /s constant velocity. The path as observed
26. River is flowing with a velocity v R = 4im
A) from ground, will be parabolic
. A boat is moving with a velocity of B) from ground, will be vertical straight line

( )
v BR = −2iˆ + 4ˆj m / s relative to river. The
C) from train, will be parabolic
width of the river is 100m along y-direction. D) from train, will be vertical straight line
Choose the correct alternative(s) 29. Two particles are projected with speed 4 m/s
and 3 m/s simultaneously from same point
A) The boatman will corss the river in 25 s as shown in the figure. Then
4 m/s
B) Absolute velocity of boatman is 2 5m / s
3 m/s
53°
C) Drift of the boatman along the river current 37°
is 50 m
A) Their relative velocity is along vertical
direction
D) The boatman can never cross the river
B) Their relative acceleration is non-zero and
27. A plane is to fly due north. The speed of the it is along vertical direction
plane relative to the air is 200 km/h, and the C) They will hit the surface simultaneously
wind is blowing from west to east at 90km/h
D) Their relative velocity is constant and has
magnitude 1.4 m/s
A) The plane should head in a direction given
by θ= sin–1(0.65) 30. A river is flowing towards east with a velocity
of 5 ms–1. The boat velocity is 10 ms–1. The
boat crosses the river by shortest path,
B) The plane should head in a direction given hence
by 0=sin–1(0.45)
A) the direction of boat’s velocity is 30° west
of north
C) The velocity of plane relative to the
ground is 179 km/h B) the direction of boat’s velocity is north
-west
D) The velocity of plane relative to the ground C) resultant velocity is 5 3ms
−1

is 159 km/h
−1
D) resultant velocity of boat is 5 2ms

70
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - PHYSICS]

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL - I
1. C 7. A 13. C 19. C 25. B
2. B 8. C 14. B 20. A 26. B
3. B 9. B 15. A 21. B 27. A
4. C 10. A 16. B 22. A 28. B
5. B 11. C 17. C 23. D 29. A
6. D 12. B 18. D 24. D 30. D
LEVEL - II

31. B,C, D 37. A, C 43. 30

32. B 38. A, B 44. 7
33. A, B, C 39. A, B 45. 3
34. A, B, C 40. 5 46. 12
35. B, C, D 41. 3 47. 22.5
36. A, D 42. 120 48. A

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. C 11. B 21. C
2. B 12. D 22. D
3. A 13. A 23. B
4. C 14. C 24. A
5. B 15. C 25. C
6. C 16. A 26. A, B, D
7. B 17. C 27. B,C,A
8. C 18. A 28. A, D
9. B 19. A 29. A, D
10. B 20. D 30. A, C

71
 SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF
CHEMISTRY
01
Chapter
CHEMISTRY
BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTY
01

QUESTIONS 3. Given below are two statements:

LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION Statement - I : For a reaction between

10L H2(g) and 10 L O2(g),
1. “If a chemical reaction takes place in a
sealed vessel, that permits no matter to only 10 L of liquid water is
enter or escape, the mass of the vessel obtained, under the same
and its contents after the reaction will be conditions of pressure
identical to its earlier mass”. This statement
is related to and temperature.

Statement - II : When gases combine or

A) Law of conservation of mass
are produced in a chemical
reaction they do so in a
B) Law of definite proportions
simple ratio by volume
as their stoichiometric
C) Law of multiple proportions
coefficients, provided all
gases are present under
D) Avogadros law
the same conditions
of pressure and
2. The formation of PbO, PbO2 and Pb3O4,
temperature.
reveals that the masses of oxygen combined
with 1 g of Pb is a simple whole number
ratio. This illustrates In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
A) Law of conservation of mass options given below :

A) Statement - I and II both are correct

B) Law of definite proportions

B) Statement - is correct while II is incorrect

C) Law of constant proportions
C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect
D) Law of multiple proportions
D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is correct

72
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

4. Given below are two statements, 7. 1 amu is equal to

one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as A) 12 g
Reason (R)
B) 1.66056 × 10-24 kg
Assertion (A) : Hydrogen combines
C) 1.66056 × 10-24 g
with oxygen to form two
compounds namely, D) 1.66056 × 10-24 amu
water and hydrogen
peroxide. 8. One dozen apple = 12 apple

Reason (R) : Formation of H2O and One pair pen = 2 pen

H2O2 is in accordance
with law of multiple So one mole of wheat grains is equal to
proportion.
A) 6.022 × 1023 wheat grains
In the light of the above statements, choose
B) 1.66056 × 1023 wheat grains
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below : C) 1.66056 × 10-23 wheat grains
A) If (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is D) cannot predicted
the correct explanation of (A)
9. The molecular mass of x is 28. x cannot be
B) If (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A) A) CO B) N2

C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect C) C2H4 D) O2

D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect 10. Mass of one molecule of water is
18
g . The mass of one mole of
5. What mass of silver nitrate is required 6.022 ×1023
to react with 5.85 g of sodium chloride to
produce 14.35 g of silver chloride and 8.5 g
water is
of sodium nitrate?
A) 18 amu
A) 10.7 g B) 17.0 g
B) 18 g
C) 23.0 g D) 45 g
C) 1.8 amu
ATOMIC MASS, MOLECULAR MASS,
MOLAR MASS AND NUMBER OF MOLES D) 1.8 g

11. Volume of 17 g of NH3 at NTP will be

6. Which of the following is the standard for
atomic mass ? A) 2.24 L
1 12
A) 1 H B) 6 C B) 22.4 L

C) 4.48 L
16 14
C) 8 O D) 7 N
D) 44.8 L

73
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

12. Which of the following has more number of 16. The number of moles of electrons which
atoms ? weigh one kg is
A) 6.02 × 1023
A) 1 mole of neon gas
1
B) ×1023
B) 1 mole of oxygen gas 9.108

C) 1 mole of ozone
6.02 ×1054
C)
D) 1 mole of carbon monoxide 9.108

13. 20 L of H2 gas at STP weigh about

108
D)
A) 44.8 g 9.108 × 6.02

17. Number of moles of urea (NH2CONH2) in 6

B) 12.2 g g of urea is same as

C) 1.8 g A) no of moles of glucose in 6 g of glucose

(C6H12O6)
D) 20 g B)no of moles of acetic acid in 6 g of acetic
acid (CH3COOH)
14. Gram atomic mass of silicon is 28 g. How
C)no of moles of sucrose in 6 g of sucrose
many silicon atoms are there in 1.00 g of
(C12H22O11)
silicon ?
D) All the above
A) 2.14 × 1022 atoms
18. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6
g of Na2CO3 will be
B) 1.75 × 1025 atoms
A) 6.02 × 1022
C) 1 atom B) 12.04 × 1022

D) 0.0356 atoms C) 1.806 × 1023

D) 31.80 × 1028
15. 1g urea (NH2CONH2), 1 g acetic acid
(CH3COOH) and 1g of formaldehyde 19. How many moles of Mg3(PO4)2 will contain
(HCHO) will have H-atoms in the ratio. 0.25 mol of oxygen atoms?
A) 0.02
A) 2 : 2 : 1
−2
B) 3.125 × 10
B) 1 : 1 : 2
−2
C) 1.25 × 10
C) 1 : 1 : 1
−2
D) 2.5 × 10
D) 1 : 2 : 1

74
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

25. 7.5 g of a gas occupy 5.6 litres at STP. The

20. The number of atoms present in 1 molecule
gas is
of H2SO4 is

A) 7 NA B) 7 A) NO

C) 98 D) 49 B) N2O
21. The maximum number of molecules is
C) CO
present in

A) 15 L of H2 gas at STP D) CO2

B) 5L of N2 gas at STP 26. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 in

the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the mole
C) 0.5 g of H2 gas ratio of the two gases in the mixture?
D) 10g of O2 gas
A) 16 : 1
22. 10g of CaCO3 contains
B) 2 : 1
A) 10 moles of CaCO3

B) 0.1 g atom of Ca C) 1 : 4

C) 6 × 1023 atoms of Ca D) 4 : 1

D) 1 mol Ca 27. Given below are two statements:

23. The vapour density of a mixture containing Given below are two statements:
NO2 and N2O4 is 38.3 at 27oC. Calculate
the number of moles of NO2 in100 g mole Statement - I : 1g each of O2 and O3
mixture: NA N
contains and A
32 48
A) 76.6
atoms respectively.
B) 3.348
Statement - II : 1g each of O2 and O3
C) 334.8 contains same number of
molecules.
D) 33.48
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
24. Number of atoms in 558.5 g Fe (atomic
options given below :
mass 55.85) is equal to
A) Statement - I and II both are correct
A) 6.022 × 1022
B) Statement - is correct while II is incorrect
B) half in 8 g He
C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect
C) twice that in 60 g carbon
D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is correct
D) 558.5 × NA

75
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

30. Gram atomic mass of C is

28. Given below are two statements:
A) 12 u
Statement - I : A molecule of butane,
C4H10 has a molecular 12
mass of 58 amu. B) g
NA
Statement - II : one mole of butane
contains 6.022 ×1023 C) 12 × 1.66056 × 10–24 g
molecules and has a
mass of 58 g. D) 12 g

31. Select the correct option for (NH4)3PO4

In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
A) Ratio of number of oxygen atom to
options given below :
number of hydorgen atom is 1 : 3

A) Statement - I and II both are correct B) Ratio of number of cation to number of

anion is 3 : 1
B) Statement - I is correct while II is incorrect
C) Ratio of number of atoms of nitrogen to
C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect number of atoms of oxygen s 3 : 2

D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is D) Total number of atoms in one mole of

correct (NH4)3PO4 is 20

A) A and B B) A, B and D
29. Given below are two statements:
C) C and D D) B and C
Statement - I : Both 12 g of carbon and
27 g of Aluminium will 32. The sample containing same number
have 6.02 × 1023 atoms. of Na atoms as there are in 5.3 g of
Na2CO3is
Statement - II : Gram atomic mass of an
element contains Avoga- (A) 4g of NaOH
dro’s number of atoms.
(B) 5.85 g of NaCl
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the (C ) 0.25 mol of Na2SO4
options given below :
(D) 5.6g of Na3PO4
A) Statement - I and II both are correct
A) A & C both are correct

B) Statement - is correct while II is incorrect B) B & D both are correct

C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect C) A & B both are correct

D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is correct D) C&D both are correct

76
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

33. Match the column 37. The number of atoms of oxygen present in
11.2 L of ozone at N.T.P are

Column-I Column-II A) 3.01 × 1022

A) 8g atoms
P) 2 moles of C3H4
of hydrogen B) 6.02 × 1023
B) 6g atoms
Q) 3 moles of CH3COOH
of carbon C) 9.03 × 1023
C) 6g atoms
R) 4 moles of N2H2
of oxygen D) 1.20 × 1024
D) 4g molecules
S) 2 moles of N2O3 STOICHIOMETRY AND LIMITING REAGENT
of nitrogen
MOLE CONCEPT
A) (A)→(P, Q); (B)→(R, S); (C)→ (P, S);
(D)→(P) 38. Air contains nearly 20% oxygen by volume.
The volume of air needed for complete
B) (A)→(P, R); (B)→(P, Q); (C)→(Q, S); (D) combustion of 100 ml of acetylene will be
→ (R)
A) 500 ml
C) (A)→(P, R); (B)→(P, Q); (C)→(Q, S); (D)
→ (S) B) 100 ml

D) (A)→(R, S); (B)→(P, S); (C)→(Q, R); C) 250 ml

(D)→(Q)
D) 1250 ml
34. The number of water molecules present in
a drop of water weighing 0.018 g is 39. 1.44 gram of titanium (Atomic weight = 48)
reacted with excess of O2 and produce ‘x’
A) 6.02 × 1026 B) 6.02 × 1023 gram of non-stoichiometric compound Ti1.44 O.
The value of ‘x’ is:
C) 6.02 × 1020 D) 6.02 × 1019
A) 2 B) 1.77
35. 34.2 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) are dissolved
in 90 g of water in a glass. The number of C) 1.44 D) 2.35
oxygen atoms in the solution are
40. Calculate the mass of calcium oxide
A) 3.66 × 1026 B) 6.6 × 1023 required that reacts with 852 g of P4O10.
C) 3.66 × 1024 D) 6.0 × 1022
A) 2016 g B) 1008 g
36. The total number of electrons present in 3.2
g of methane are : C) 504 g D) 1800 g

A) 2 × 10 × 6.022 × 1022 41. The volume of O2 required at STP for the

complete combustion of 39 g of benzene
B)10 × 6.022 × 1023 (C6H6)

C) 10 × 6.022 × 1022 A) 0.84 L B) 8.4 L

D) 6.022 × 1023 C) 84 L D) 22.4 L

77
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

42. 20 kg of N2 and 3 kg of H2 are mixed to 47. Given below are two statements:
produce NH3 gas. The amount of NH3
formed is Statement - I : In the reaction

A) 17 kg CH4(g) + 2O2(g)→

B) 23 kg CO2(g) + 2H2O(g). One

mole of CH4(g) reacts
C) 34 kg with two moles of O2(g) to
give one mole of CO2(g)
D) 56 kg
and two moles of H2O(g).
43. If 0.50 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mol Statement - II : 1g of CH4(g) reacts with
of Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles 2g of O2(g) to give 1g of
of Ba3(PO4)2 formed is CO2(g) and 2g of H2O(g).
A) 0.25 B) 0.1 In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
C) 0.40 D) 0.50
options given below :
44. The volume of H2 evolved at STP when 0.9
A) Statement - I and II both are correct
g of Al (molar mass : 27 g mol–1) is dissolved
in excess of dilute H2SO4 is B) Statement I - is correct while II is incorrect
A) 0.58 L B) 1.12 L C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect

C) 2.40 L D) 2.9 L D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is correct

45. 6.0 g sample of CaCO3 reacts with 20 g 48. Given below are two statements:
solution of HCl having 20% by mass of HCl
(density = 1.10 g/mL). Calculate percentage Statement - I :
purity of CaCO3 sample. 4
2A + 3B→C. moles of ‘C’ are produced
3
A) 9.13%
when 3 moles of ‘A’ and 4 moles of ‘B’ are
B) 91.33% mixed.

C) 54.8% Statement - II :
‘A’ is the limiting reagent.
D) 5.48%
In the light of the above statements, choose
46. Amount of water produced by the the most appropriate answer from the
combustion of 16 g of methane is options given below :

A) 34 g A) Statement - I and II both are correct

B) Statement - I is correct while II is incorrect

B) 32 g
C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect
C) 30 g
D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is correct
D) 36 g

78
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

49. 50 g CaCO3 is allowed to react with 49 g EMPIRICAL AND MOLECULAR FORMULA

H3PO4 according to the given reaction
52. Caffein has molecular weight of 194. It
3CaCO3 + 2H 3 PO 4 → Ca 3 ( PO 4 )2 + 3H 2 O + 3CO 2 contain 28.9% by mass of nitrogen. Number
of atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of it is
Then pick out the correct option
A) 2
a) 51.67 g of salts is formed
B) 3

b) Amount of unreacted reagent = 32.67 g C) 4

c) Moles of CO2 formed = 0.5 moles D) 5

d) Mass of H2O formed = 27g 53. Cortisone is a molecular substance

containing 21 atoms of carbon per
A) a and c both are correct molecule. The mass percentage of carbon
in cortisone is 69.98%. It’s molar mass is
B) b and d both are incorrect
A) 176.5 gmol–1
C) a, c and d are correct
B) 252.2 gmol–1
D) a and b both are correct
C) 287.6 gmol–1
50. If 1.5 moles of oxygen combines with Al
D) 360.1 gmol–1
to form Al2O3, the mass of Al in g ( Atomic
mass of Al = 27) used in the reaction is
54. Which of the following represents the
formula of a compound which contains 26
A) 2.7
% nitrogen and 74 % oxygen ?
B) 54
A) N2O
C) 40.5
B) NO
D) 81
C) NO2
51. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate
sample decomposes on heating to give D) N2O5
carbondioxide and 8.0 g magnesium oxide.
What will be the percentage purity of 55. A hydrocarbon contains 92.3 % carbon
magnesium carbonate in the sample? by mass. Vapour density with respect to
hydrogen is 13. The molecular formula of
A) 60 hydrocarbon is
B) 84
A) C2H2 B) C3H6
C) 75
C) C2H4 D) C4H8
D) 96

79
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

56. An oxide of Iodine (I = 127 amu) contain EQUIVALENT MASS

42.3 g of Iodine and 8 g of oxygen. Its
formula could be 61. Equivalent mass of a monovalent atom if its
atomic mass is 35.5 is
A) I2O5 B) I2O3
A) 35.5 amu

C) I2O7 D) I2O B) 17.25 amu

C) 1 amu
57. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives 0.72 g of
water and 3.08 g of CO2 upon combustion.
D) 5.6 amu
The empirical formula of hydrocarbon is
62. If one gram of a metal carbonate gave 0.56g
A) C2H4 B) C3H4 of its oxide on heating, then equivalent
weight of the metal will be
C) C6H5 D) C7H8
A) 30

58. A gaseous hydrocarbon X, was burnt in B) 40

excess of oxygen. 0.112 dm3 sample of X, at
STP gave 0.88g CO2. How many C-atoms C) 25
are there in one molecule of X?
D) 20
A) 1 B) 2
63. 0.126 g of an acid is needed to completely
neutralize 20 mL of 0.1N NaOH solution.
C) 3 D) 4 The equivalent weight of the acid is

59. A gaseous compound of nitrogen and A) 53

hydrogen contains 12.5% (by mass) of
hydrogen. The density of the compound B) 40
relative to hydrogen is 16. The molecular
formula of the compound is: C)45

D) 63
A) NH2 B) N3H
CONCENTRATION TERMS
C) NH3 D) N2H4 64. How many moles of NaCl should be
dissolved in 100 ml of water to get 0.2 M
60. The empirical formula of Sucrose is solution ?

A) CH2O A) 0.2

B) CHO B) 0.02

C) C12H22O11 C) 0.01

D) C(H2O)2 D) 0.1

80
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

65. A solution is prepared by adding 2 g of a 69. The molality of an H2SO4 solution is 9. The
substance ‘A’ to 18 g of water. Mass percent weight of the solute in 1 kg H2SO4 solution
of solute A will be is:

A) 15 % A) 900.0 g

B) 20 % B) 469 g

C) 10 % C) 882.0 g
D) 25 %
D) 9.0 g
66. A 6.90 M solution of KOH in water has 70. One litre of N/2 HCI solution was heated in
30% by mass of KOH. Calculate density of a beaker. When the volume was reduced
solution. to 600 mL, 9.125 g of HCl was lost out, the
new normality of solution is
A) 1.33 g mL–1
A) ≈ 0.04 B) ≈ 0.8
B) 1.288 g mL–1
C) ≈ 0.4 D) ≈ 0.2
C) 1.66 g mL–1
71. Calculate the concentration of nitric acid in
D) 1.44 g mL–1 moles per litre. The sample has a density,
1.41 g mL–1 and mass percentage 69%
67. A solution contains 4 g NaOH and 16.2 g
of water. The mole fraction of solute and A) 15.44 M B) 11.8 M
solvent respectively are
C) 19 M D) 8 M
A) 0.2, 0.8
72. Common salt obtained from sea-water
B) 0.1, 0.9 contains 95% NaCl by mass. The
approximate number of formula units
C) 0.05, 0.5 present in 10 g salt is:

A) 1021 B) 1022
D) 0.4, 0.6
C) 1023 D) 1024
68. Number of moles of NaOH required for the
complete neutralisation of 50 mL 0.1 M HCl 73. In 1200 g solution, 12 g urea (NH2CONH2)
is is present if density of the solution is 1.2 g/
ml then molarity if the solution is xM . Value
A) 5 × 10-3 mol of X is ?

B) 10-4 mol A) 0.1

C) 5 × 10-4 mol B) 0.2

D) 5 mol C) 0.3

D) 0.4

81
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

74. Number of gram equivalents present in 0.1 80. 2.45 g of sodium hydroxide (Molar mass =
N 100 mL oxalic acid solution is 40 ) are dissolved in water and the solution
is made to 100 cm3 in a volumetric flask.
A) 10 B) 1 Calculate the molarity of the solution

C) 0.1 D) 0.01 A) 0.612 M

75. A 2.0 g sample of an unknown, monobasic B) 0.5848M

acid was dissolved in water and made upto
100 mL and its 20mL portion required 15
C) 0.432 M
mL of 0.12 M standard NaOH solution to
reach the end point. If molar mass of the
D) 0.333 M
acid is 122, the percentage purity of the
acid sample is
81. Calculate the normality of solution
A) 96 B) 84 containing 31.5 g of hydrated oxalic acid
(H2C2O4.2H2O) in 1250 mL of solution
C) 78 D) 55
A) 0.2N
76. 4L of water is added to 2Lof 6 M HCl. The
molarity of the final solution is B) 0.4N

A) 4M B) 2M C)0.6N

C) 1M D) 0.5M D)1.0 N
77. The moles of sodium chloride in 250 cm3 of
82. How many grams of Na2CO3 should be
0.50 M NaClare :
dissolved to make 100 cm3 of 0.15 M of
A) 0.250 mol B) 2 mol Na2CO3Solution?

C) 0.125 mol D) 1.0 mol A) 1.23g

78. One kilogram of a sea water sample contains B) 1.59g

6 mg of dissolved O2. The concentration of
O2 in the sample in ppm is C)1.71g

A) 0.6 B) 6.0 D)1.98g

C) 60.0 D) 16.0 83. Calculate the volume of 0.015 M HCl

solution required to prepare 250 mL of a
79. The number of Cl- ions in 100 mL of 0.001M 5.25 X 10 -3 M HCl solution
HCl solution is
A) 100 mL
A) 6.022 × 1023
B) 87.5 mL
B) 6.022 × 1020
C) 66.5mL
C) 6.022 × 1019
D) 50 mL
D) 6.022 × 1024

82
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

84. What is the molality of a solution of 2. How many years it would take to spend
methanol in water in which the mole fraction Avogadro’s number of rupees at the rate 10
of methanol is 0.25? lakhs per second?
A) 1010 years
A) 3.6m
B) 1.8 × 109 years
B)10.1m C) 1.9 × 1010 years

C)14.5m D) 1.9 × 109 years

3. Match the column
D)18.5m
Column-I Column-II
85. 250 mL of 1.5 M solution of sulphuric acid A) Mass of 20 mol
P) 20 NA
is diluted by adding 5L of water. What is the H2SO4
molarity of the diluted solution? B) Number of mol of
Q) 6.02 × 1013
H2O in 540 g
A) 0.0520 C) Number of atoms
R) 30
in 10–10 g H2
B) 0.071 D) Number of atoms
S) 1960 g
in 224L H2 at NTP
C) 0.092
A) (A)→(S), (B)→(R), (C)→(Q), (D) → (P)
D) 0.1890 B) (A)→ (P), (B)→(R), (C)→(S), (D)→(Q)

SAMPLE QUESTIONS C) (A)→(R), (B)→(S), (C)→(P), (D)→(Q)

1. Given below are two statements, D) (A)→(P), (B)→(R), (C)→(Q), (D)→(S)
one is labelled as Assertion
4. 80 g of oxygen contain as many atoms as in
(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) A) 10 g of Hydrogen
Assertion (A) : The average mass of C
atom is 12.011 amu. B) 5 g of Hydrogen
Reason (R) : Three isotopes C, C
12 13

and 14C of C are found C) 800 g of Hydrogen

in nature, with different
percentage of abundance. D)1 g of Hydrogen
In the light of the above statements, choose 5. Suppose the chemists would have chosen
the most appropriate answer from the 1020 as the number of particles in a mole,
options given below : the mass of 1 mole of oxygen gas would be
A) If (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A) A) 5.32 × 10-43 g
B) If (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is
B) 5.32 × 10-3 g
not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect C) 5.32 × 10-23 g
D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect
D) 5.32 × 103 g

83
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

6. 2 moles of A and 3 moles of B react to form 13. The total number of atoms of all elements
AB. present in one mole of ammonium
A + B→AB . dichromate is

Identify the limiting reagent in the A) 19 B) 6.023×1023

reaction?
A) A B) B C)114.47×1023 D) 34.32×1023

C) A as well as B D) None 14. Weight percent of hydrogen in ethanol is

7. The compound Na2CO3.x H2O has 50%
H2O by mass. The value of x is A) 52.17

A) 4 B) 5 B) 34.78
C) 6 D) 7
C) 13.04
8. 5 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon reacts with
30 mL of O2. The resultant gas, on cooling is D) 10.87
found to measure 25 mL of which 10 mL are
absorbed by NaOH and the remainder by 15. Mole fraction of NaOH in 10% (w/w)
pyrogallol. Determine molecular formula of aqueous solution is
hydrocarbon. All measurements are made
at constant pressure and temperature. A) 0.952 B) 0.048
A) C2H6 B) C3H8 C) 0.1 D) 0.56
C) C2H4 D) CH4
16. Choose the correct statements
9. Resultant molarity of H+ ion in a mixture of
100 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 and 200 mL of 0.1 A) Weight of a substance is the amount of
H3PO3 is: matter present in it
A) 0.1 B) 0.2 M
B) Mass is the force exerted by gravity on
C) 0.267 M D) 0.133 M an object
10. The molality of x% H2SO4 solution
is equal to 9. The weight of the C) Volume is the amount of space occupied
solvent present in the solution is by a substance
910 g. The value of x is D) Temperatures below 0°C are possible in
A) 90 B) 80.3 Celsius scale, but in Kelvin scale negative
C) 40 D) 47 temperature is not possible
11. The molarity of 98% H2SO4 (d= 1.8g/mL) by E) Precision refers to the closeness of
weight is various measurements for the same
A) 6M B) 18M quantity
C) 10M D) 4M Choose the correct answer from the options
12. A sample of NaNO3 weighing 0.38 g is give below
placed in a 250 mL volumetric flask. The
A) B, C and D only
flask is then filled with water to the mark
on the neck. What is the molarity of the B) A, B and C only
solution?
A) 0.008M B) 0.081M C) C, D and E only
C) 0.018M D) 0.08M D) A, D and E only

84
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

17. Concentrated nitric acid is labelled as 75% 22. The number of moles of methane required
by mass. The volume in mL of the solution to produce 11g CO2(g) after complete
which contains 30g of nitric acid is ......... combustion is [Given molar mass of
(Given density of nitric acid solution is 1.25 methane in g mol–1 : 16]
g/mL)
A) 0.35 B) 0.25
A) 32 B) 40
C) 0.5 D) 0.75
C) 55 D) 45 23. An organic compound has 42.1% carbon,
6.4% hydrogen and remainder is oxygen.
18. The elemental composition of a compound If its molecular weight is 342, then its
is 54.2%C, 9.2%H and 36.6% O. If the molecular formula is
mola mass of the compound is 132g mol–1,
the molecular formula of the compound is A) C14H20O10
[Given: The relative atomic mass of C : H :
B) C12H22O11
O = 12 : 1 : 16]
C) C12H20O12
A) C4H8O2 B) C6H12O6
D) C11H18O12
C) C4H9O3 D) C6H12O3
24. The molarity (M) of an aqueous solution
19. 2.8 × 10 mol of CO2 is left after removing
–3 containing 5.85 g of NaCl in 500 mL water
1021 molecules from its ‘–’ mg sample. The is: [Given molar mass Na : 23 and Cl : 35.5
mass of CO2 taken initially is [given : NA = gmol–1]
6.02 × 1023 mol–1] A) 20 B) 4
A) 98.3 mg C) 2 D) 0.2
B) 196.2 mg
25. If a substance ‘A’ dissolves in solution of a
C) 150.4 mg mixture of ‘B’ and ‘C’ with their respective
number of moles as nA, nB and nC. Mole
D) 48.2 mg fraction of C in the solution is
20. Combustion of glucose (C6H12O6) produces nC nB
CO2 and water. The amount of oxygen (in A) B)
g) required for the complete combustion of nA × nB × nC nA + nB
900 g of glucose is [Molar mass of glucose
in g mol–1 = 180]
nC nC
C) D)
A) 32 B) 480 nA + nB + nC nA − nB − nC
C) 800 D) 960
26. The quantity which changes with
21. The density of ‘x’ M solution (‘x’ molar) of temperature is
NaOH is 1.12 g mL–1, while in molality, the
concentration of the solution is 3m (3 molal). A) Molality
Then x is [Given : Molar mass of NaOH is
40 g/mol] B) Molarity

A) 3.8 B) 3.0 C) Mole fraction

C) 3.5 D) 2.8 D) Mass percentage

85
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

27. A metal chloride contains 55.0% of chlorine 32. The average molar mass of chlorine is 35.5
by weight. 100 mL vapours of the metal g mol–1. The ratio of 35Cl to 37Cl in naturally
chloride at STP weigh 0.57 g. The molecular occuring chlorine is close to
formula of the metal chloride is [Given :
Atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5 u] A) 1 : 1 B) 2 : 1
A) MCl2 B) MCl4 C) 3 : 1 D) 4 : 1
C) MCl3 D) MCl
33. The minimum amount of O2(g) consumed per
28. An ideal gaseous mixture of ethane (C2H6) gram of reactant is for the reaction: (Given
and ethene (C2H4) occupies 28 litre of 1 atm atomic mass : Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24, P
and 273 K. The mixture reacts completely = 31, C = 12, H = 1)
with 128g O2 to produce CO2 and H2O.
Mole fraction at C2H6 in the mixture is A) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → P4O10(s)
A) 0.6 B) 0.4
B) P4(s) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
C) 0.5 D) 0.8
C) C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) →3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
29. The number of molecules and moles in
2.8375 litres of O2 at STP are respectively D) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) →2MgO(s)
A) 1.505 × 1023 and 0.250 mol 34. Iodobenzene (C6H5I) is prepared from
aniline (C6H5NH2) in a two step process as
B) 7.257 × 1023 and 0.250 mol
shown below.
C) 7.527 × 1023 and 0.125 mol
C6H5NH2+ HNO2+HCl→C6H5N2+Cl–+ 2H2O
D) 7.527 × 1022 and 0.125 mol
C6H5N2 +Cl-+ KI→C6H5I+ N2+ KCl.
30. The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr
required to neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.01 M In an actual preparation 9.30 g of aniline
aqueous Ba(OH)2 is [Assume complete was converted to 16.32 g of iodobenzene.
neutralization) The percentage yield of iodobenzene is:

A) 7.5 mL B) 5.0 mL A) 8%

C) 10.0 mL D) 2.5 mL B) 50%

31. The exact volumes of 1M NaOH solution
C) 75%
required to neutralise 50 mL of 1M H3PO3
solution and 100 mL of 2 M H3PO2 solution,
D) 80%
respectively, are

A) 100 mL and 50 mL 35. A spherical ball of radius 7 cm contains

56% iron. If density is 1.4 g/cm3, number of
B) 100 mL and 200 mL mol of Fe present approximately is:

C) 100 mL and 100 mL A) 10 B) 15

D) 50 mL and 50 mL
C) 20 D) 25

86
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

36. A solution containing 12.0% sodium 39. One commercial system removes SO2
hydroxide by mass has a density of 1.131 g/ emission from smoke at 95oC by the
mL. What volume of this solution contains following set of reactions
5.00 mol of NaOH:
SO 2 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) → SO 2 Cl2 ( g )
A) 0.0240 L
SO 2 Cl2 + 2H 2 O → H 2SO 4 + 2HCl
B) 1.67 L H 2SO 2 + Ca(OH) 2 → CaSO 4 + 2H 2 O

C) 1.47 L Assuming the process to be 95% efficient.

How many moles of CaSO4 may be
D) 1.00 L produced from 128 g SO2.[Ca= 40, S-32,
O-16]
37. A 15 mL sample of 0.20 M MgCl2 is added to
45 mL of 0.40 M AlCl3. What is the molarity A) 1.9 moles B) 2 mol
of Cl– ions in the final solutions:
C) 3.8 mol D) 0.95 mol
A) 1.0 M
40. Calculate percentage change in Mavg of the
B) 0.60 M mixture, if PCl3 undergo 50% decomposition
in a closed vessel.
C) 0.35 M
PCl5→PCl3+ Cl2
D) 0.30 M
A) 50%
38. Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is salt
of one of the most abundant naturally B) 66.66%
occuring non-essential amino acid which
is commonly used in food products like in
C) 33.33%
“MAGGI” having structural formula as

O H O D) Zero

HO C CH2 CH2 C C ONa MORE THAN ONE CORRECT

ANSWER TYPE
NH2

41. 1 mole of H2SO4 will exactly neutralise:

Mass% of Na in MSG is:
A) 2 mole of ammonia
A) 14.8
B) 1 mole of Ba(OH)2
B) 15.1

C) 13.6 C) 0.5 mole of Ca(OH)2

D) 16.5 D) 2 mole of KOH

87
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

42. 12 g of Mg was burnt in a closed vessel 45. Select the incorrect statements for
containing 32 g oxygen. Which of the (NH4)3PO4
following is/are correct

A) Ratio of number of oxygen atoms to

A) 2 gm of Mg will be left unburnt
number of hydrogen atoms is 1:3
B) 0.75 gm molecule of O2 will be left
unreacted B) Ratio of number of cations to number of
anions is 3:1
C) 20 gm of MgO will be formed

D) The mixture at the end will weigh 44 g C) Ratio of number of gm-atoms of nitrogen
to gm-atoms of oxygen is 3:2
43. 50 gm of CaCO3 is allowed to react with
68.6 gm of H3PO4 then select the correct D) Total number of atoms in one mole of
option(s): (NH4)3PO4 is 20

3CaCO3 + 2H 3 PO 4 → Ca 3 (PO 4 ) 2 + 3H 2 O + 3CO 2

NUMERICAL TYPE
A) 51.67 gm salt is formed

B) Amount of unreacted reagent = 35.93 46. What mass of Na2SO47H2O (in gm) contains
gm exactly 6.022×1022 atoms of oxygen?

C) n CO2 = 0.5moles 47. Calculate volume (in L) of H2 gas kept at

STP if it contains as many H atoms as in 98
D) 0.7 mole CO2 is evolved gm H3PO4, {Atomic mass of P = 31] (Take
volume of 1 mole gas of STP= 22.7 L)
44. ‘A’ reacts by following two parallel reactions
to give B &C . If half of ‘A’ goes into
reaction1 and other half goes to reaction II. 48. 80 gm of SOx gas occupies 14 litre at 2atm
Then, select the correct statement(s) & 273 K. The value of x is:

I
A + N  →B+ L 49. 40mg of gaseous substance (X2) occupies
1 1 4.8 mL of volume at 1 atm and 27oC. Atomic
II
A + N  → B + (C) + L mass of element X is:(R:0.08 atm L/mole-
2 2 K)
A) B will be always greater than C
50. The weight (in gram) of pure potash
B) If 2 mole of C are formed then total 2
Alum(K2SO4Al2(SO4)324H2O)which contains
mole of B are also formed
0.64 kg oxygen is (Atomic weight of K= 39,
S= 32, Al= 27)
C) If 2 mole of C are formed then total 4
mole of B are also formed

D) If 2 mole of C are formed then total 6

mole of B are also formed.

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY
1 A 18 C 35 C 52 C 69 B
2 D 19 B 36 A 53 D 70 C
3 D 20 B 37 C 54 D 71 A
4 B 21 A 38 D 55 A 72 C
5 B 22 B 39 B 56 B 73 B
6 B 23 D 40 B 57 D 74 D
7 C 24 C 41 C 58 D 75 D
8 A 25 A 42 A 59 D 76 B
9 D 26 D 43 B 60 C 77 C
10 B 27 C 44 B 61 A 78 B
11 B 28 A 45 B 62 D 79 C
12 C 29 A 46 D 63 D 80 A
13 C 30 D 47 B 64 B 81 B
14 A 31 A 48 B 65 C 82 B
15 C 32 C 49 A 66 B 83 B
16 D 33 B 50 B 67 B 84 D
17 B 34 C 51 B 68 A 85 B

Sample Questions

1 A 11 B 21. B 31. B 41. A,B,D

2 C 12 C 22. B 32. C 42. B,C,D
3 A 13. C 23. B 33. A 43. A,B,C
4 B 14. C 24. D 34. D 44. A, D
5 B 15. B 25. C 35. C 45. C,D
6 A 16. C 26. B 36. C 46. 2.44
7 C 17. A 27. A 37. A 47. 34.05
8 C 18. D 28. B 38. C 48. 2
9 B 19. B 29. D 39. A 49. 100
10 D 20. D 30. C 40. C 50. 948

89
 Chapter
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
02

QUESTIONS 4. Which is the correct statement about

proton?
DISCOVERY OF SUBATOMIC PARTICLES
A) it is a nucleus of deuterium
1. The energy value assigned for free electron
at rest is ............. B) It is an ionised hydrogen molecule

A) Infinity C) It is an ionised hydrogen atom

B) –13.6 eV
D) It is an α − particle
C) Zero
5. Neutron was discovered by
D) +13.6 eV
A) J.J Thomson
2. Assertion : Anode ray starts from an-
ode and move towards B) Chadwick
cathode
C) Rutherford
Reason : In the absence of elec-
trical or magnetic field, D) Priestley
anode rays travels in
straight line. 6. The absolute value of charge on the electron
was determined by
A) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A A) J.J Thomson

B) Both A and R are correct, but ‘R’ is not B) R.A Milliken

the correct explanation of A
C) Rutherford
C) Both A and R are wrong
D) Chadwick
D) A is wrong but R is correct
e
3. The ratio of e/m for a cathode ray: 7. The highest value of of anode rays has
m
A) Varies with a gas in discharge tube been observed when the discharge tube is
filled with
B) is fixed

C) varies with different electrodes A) Nitrogen B) Oxygen

D) is maximum if hydrogen is taken C) Hydrogen D) Helium

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

35 37
ATOMIC MODELS 12. In 17 Cl and 17 Cl which of the following is
8. Statement-I : J.J. Thomson proposed
that an atom possesses false ?
a spherical shape (radius
approximately 10–8 cm) A) Both have 17 protons

Statement-II : Thomson’s model has a B) Both have 17 electrons

disadvantage that it can-
not explain the electrical C) Both have 18 neutrons
neutrality of atom.
D) Both show some chemical properties
A) Both statement I and II are correct
DEVELOPMENTS LEADING TO THE
B) Statement I is correct, and statement II is BOHR’S OF ATOM
wrong
a) Wave nature of electromagnetic model
C) Statement I is wrong and statement II is of atom
correct
13. Calculate the frequency of yellow radiation
D) Both statement I and statement II are
having wavelength 5800Ao
wrong
9. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of A) 5.172×1014s–1
α − particle showed for the first time that
B) 5.172×1012s–1
the atom has
C) 5.172×1016s–1
A) electrons
D) 5.172×1010s–1
B) protons
14. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum
C) neutrons
wavelength is
D) nucleus
A) Ultraviolet B) Radiowaves
10. Isotopes of the some element have
C) X-rays D) Infrared
A) same number of neutrons
B) same number of protons 15. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
C) same atomic mass
A) The frequency of radiation is inversely
D) different chemical properties
proportional to the wavelength
11. Which of the following pairs represents
Isobars? B) Energy of radiation increases with
increase in frequency
3 4
A) 2 He and 2 He
C) Energy of radiation decreases with
24 25
B) 12 Mg and 12 Mg increase in wavelength
40 40
C) 19 K and 20 Ca D) The frequency of radiation is directly
40 39 proportional to its wavelength.
D) 19 K and 19 K

91
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

16. Visible light consists of rays with wavelength 20. A 250 W electric bulb of 80% efficiency
in the approximate range of emits a light of 6626 A0 wavelength. The
number of photons emitted per second by
o o
the lamp is (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)
A) 4000 A to 7500 A

B) 4×10-3cm to 7.5 ×10-4 cm A) 1.42 × 1017

C) 4000 nm to 7500 nm
B) 2.18 × 1016
D) 4×10-5m to 7.5 ×10-6m
C) 6.66 × 1020
17. Which of the following among the visible
colours has the minimum wavelength?
D) 2.83 × 1016
A) Red
21. Which one of the following is not the
B) Blue characteristic of Plank’s Quantum theory of
radiation?
C) Green

D) Violet A) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in

whole number multiple of quantum.
18. The wave number which corresponds to
electromagnetic radiations of 600 nm is
equal to B) Radiation is associated with energy

A)1.6 ×104 cm-1 C) Radiation energy is not emitted or

observed continuously but in the form of
B) 0.16×104cm-1 small packets a called quanta
C) 16×104 cm-1
D) This magnitude of energy associated with
D) 160 ×104cm-1 a quantum is proportional to the frequency.

b) Plank’s Quantum theory

c) Photoelectric effect
19. A dye, when dissolved in water, has its
maximum light absorption at 4530 A0 and 22. Mark the incorrect statement regarding the
the maximum fluorescence emission of photoelectric effect
5080 A0. The number of fluorescence
quanta is an average 53% of the number A) There is no time lag between the striking
of quanta absorbed. What percentage of of light beam and the ejection of electrons
absorbed energy is emitted as fluorescence from the metal surface
B) The number of electrons ejected is
A) 100 inversally proportional to the intensity of
light
B) 47
C) Photoelectric effect is not observed
C) 36 below threshold energy
D) K.E of the electrons increases with
D) 12 increase in frequency of light used

92
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

23. The work function of metal is 5 eV. What 26. According to Einstein’s photoelectric
is the kinetic energy of the photoelectron equation, the graph between kinetic energy
ejected from the metal surface if the energy of photoelectrons ejected and the frequency
of the incident radiation is 6.2 eV? (1eV = of the incident radiation is:
1.6 × 10–19 J)
A) 6.626 × 10–19 J B) 8.01 × 10–19 J
C) 1.92 × 10–19 J D) 8.010 × 10–18 J
A) B)
24. The threshold frequency of a metal
corresponds to a wavelength of x nm. In
two separate experiments ‘A’ and ‘B’
incident radiations of wavelength
1 1
x nm and x nm respectively are used.
2 4
The ratio of kinetic energy of the released C) D)
electrons in experiment ‘B’ to than in
experiment ‘A’ is
1 27. The energy absorbed by each molecule A2
A) B) 2 of a substance is 4.4 × 10–19 J and bond
3
energy per molecule is 4 × 10–19 J. The
C) 4 D) 3 kinetic energy of the molecules per atom
will be
1 
25. A plot of the kinetic energy  mv 2  of
2  A) 2.0 × 10–20 J

ejected electrons as a function of the B) 2.2 × 10–19 J

frequency ( ν ) of incident radiation for four
C) 2.0 × 10–19 J
alkali metals (M1, M2, M3, M4) is given below:
D) 9.0 × 10–20 J

d) Atomic spectra
Kinetic M1 M
2 M
energy 3 M4 28. What is wrong about atomic emission
spectrum of hydrogen?

ν
A) It is discontinues spectrum
The alkali metals (M1, M2, M3, M4) are
respectively. B) It is dark line spectrum
A) Li, Na, K and Rb
C) It is bright line spectrum
B) Rb, K, Na and Li
C) Na, K, Li and Rb D) It is obtained by passing heat or electricity
through hydrogen gas
D) Rb, Li, Na and K

93
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

29. The shortest wavelength of the line in 33. The ratio of the frequency corresponding to
hydrogen atomic spectrum of Lyman series the third line in Lyman series of hydrogen
where RH = 109678 cm–1 is atomic spectrum to that of the first line in
Balmer series of Li2+ spectrum is
A) 1002.7 A0
A) 4 5
B) 827.2 A0

C) 1127.30 A0 B) 5 4

D) 911.7 A0 C) 4 3
30. Which series have highest energy in
hydrogen spectrum D) 3 4

A) Balmer 34. Highest energy line of Balmer series among

the following is
B) Bracket
A) 5→2
C) Pfund
B) 3→2
D) Lyman
C) 6→2
31. In a sample of hydrogen atoms, electrons
jump from 10th excited state to ground state. D) ∞→2
If X are the number of different ultraviolet
radiations Y are the number of different 35. The wavelength of limiting line (ie, of
visible radiations and Z are the possible shortest wavelength) in Balmer series of
number of different infrared radiations . H-atom is
The value Z –(X + Y) is (Assuming all the
Balmer lines lie with in visible region) A) 4758 A0

A) 17 B) 3644 A0

C) 2435 A0
B) 18
D) 4634 A0
C) 19
36. The emission spectra is observed by the
D) 36 consequence of transition of electron from
higher energy state to ground state of
32. Which of the following transition has the He+1 ion. Six photons are observed in the
same wavelength as the third line in emission spectra. The minimum wavelength
Paschen series of Li2+ during transition is

A) 4 to 2 in Be3+ 4 4
A) B)
27R H 15R H
B) 3 to 1 in H atom

C) 4 to 2 in He+ 15 16
C) D)
16R H 15R H
D) 4 to 2 in He atom

94
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

37. What is the ratio of λ max and λ min and for 41. Which one of the following statement is not
correct?
Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum ?
A) Rydberg’s constant and wave numbers
4 3 have same units
A) B)
3 4
B) Lymann series of hydrogen spectrum
9 5 occurs in the U.V. region
C) D)
5 9 C) The angular momentum of the electron
38. The wave number of the first emission line in to the ground state hydrogen atom is
in the Balmer series of H-spectrum is (R = h
equal to
Rydberg constant) 2π
5 9
A) R B) R D) One mole of photons having energy 400
36 400
kJ/mol will always break 4 mole bonds of a
molecule A2 where A–A bond dissociation
7 3 energy is 100 kJ/mol
C) R D) R
6 4 42. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength
39. If each hydrogen atom is excited by giving 242 nm is just sufficient to ionise the
8.4 eV of energy, then the number of sodium atom. Ionisation energy of sodium
spectral lines emitted is equal to in kJ mol–1
A) None B) Two
A) 460 B) 380
C) Three D) Four
BOHR’S MODEL OF HYDROGEN ATOM C) 495 D) 370

40. If the energy of H-atom in a the ground state 43. Which among the following statement is
is -E, the velocity of photo-electron emitted wrong
when a photon having energy Ep strikes a
stationary Li2+ ion in ground state, is given A) 1st line of Brackett series is from 5→4
by:
2 ( Ep − E ) B) Balmer series belongs to IR
A) v =
m
C) The wave number of limiting line in the
RH
Balmer series is
2 ( E p + 9E ) 4
B) v =
m D) Restriction of any property to discrete
value is called quantisation

2 ( E p − 9E ) 44. Ratio of radii of first, second and third Bohr

C) v = orbits of Hydrogen atom is
m

A) 1 : 2 : 3 B) 1 : 4 : 9
2 ( E P − 3E )
D) v =
m C) 2 : 5 : 7 D) 1 : 3 : 9

95
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

45. The shell number to which the electron 50. The first ionisation energy of helium atom
of H-atom will be excited by the supply of is equal to 24.6 eV. The energy required to
12.75 eV energy is remove both the electrons from the helium
atom would be
A) 2 B) 3 A) 59 eV B) 54.4 eV

C) 4 D) 5 C) 79 eV D) 49.2 eV

51. In hydrogen atom an orbit has a diameter

46. The ratio of ionisation energies of Li2+ and of about 16.92A°. What is the maximum
Be3+ is number of electrons that can be
accomodated
2 3 A) 8 B) 32
A) B)
3 2
C) 50 D) 72
9 16 52. If velocity of an electron in first orbit of
C) D)
16 9 H atom is V, what will be the velocity of
electron in third orbit of Li+2
47. The total energy of the electron in the
hydrogen atom in the ground state is –13.6 A) V
eV. The KE of this electron is
B) V/3

A)13.6 eV B) Zero C) 3V

D) 9V
C) –13.6 eV D) 6.8 eV
53. Statement-I : Energy of electron in the
48. The radius of the following orbits are double nth stationary state of H -
as that of the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is given by
atom is −2.18 ×10−18 J
En = per
n2
A) He+ (n = 2) atom

B) Be3+ (n = 2) Statement-II : The angular momentum of

electron nth stationary
h
C) He+ (n = 3) state is n
4π
D) Li2+ (n = 2)
A) Both statement I and II are correct
49. If the radius of the first Bohr orbit in hydrogen B) Statement I is correct, and statement II is
atom is a0, the de-Broglie wavelength of wrong
electron in its third excited state will be
C) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
correct
A) πa 0 B) 4πa 0
D) Both statement I and statement II are
C) 6πa 0 D) 8πa 0 wrong

96
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

TOWARDS QUANTUM MECHANICAL 58. Uncertainity in the position of an electron

MODEL OF THE ATOM (mass = 9.1 × 10–31 kg) moving with a
velocity of 300 ms–1 accurate upto 0.001%
a) Dual behaviour of Matter will be )
54. de-Broglie wavelength associated with a A) 5.76 × 10–2 m B) 92 × 10–2 m
ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5
J is C) 3.84 × 10–2 m D) 19.2 × 10–3 m

A) 6.626 × 10–34
­
m 59. If the uncertainity in position and momentum
are equal, then uncertainity in velocity is
B) 13.20 × 10–34
­
m
h h
C) 10.38 × 10–21
­
m A) B)
π 2π
D) 6.626 × 10–34
­
A0

55. If two particles A and B having masses in

1 h h
the ratio 1 : 4 are moving with same velocity, C) D)
the ratio of wavelengths associated with 2m π π
them will be in the ratio
60. “The exact path of electron in 2p-orbital
A) 1 : 4 B) 4 : 1 cannot be determined”. The above
statement is based upon
C) 2 : 1 D) 1 : 2
A) Hund’s rule
56. If the kinetic energy of a subatomic
particle is increased 8-times, its de Broglie B) Bohr’s rule
wavelength becomes ‘x’ times the original
wavelength. The value of ‘x’ is C) Uncertainty principle

1 1 D) Aufbau principle
A) B)
2 2 4 61. Statement-I : Heisenberg uncertainity
principle states that it is
impossible to determine
1 1
C) D) the exact momentum and
8 2 position of electron simul-
taneously.
57. Calculate the wave length associated with
an electron moving with a velocity of 1010cm Statement-II : It rules out existence of
per sec. definite path of electrons.
o A) Both statement I and II are correct
A) 0.072 A
B) Statement I is correct, and statement II is
o
B) 0.8210 A wrong

o C) Statement II is wrong and statement I is

C) 0.062 A correct
o D) Both statement I and statement II are
D) 0.531A wrong

97
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

b) Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom 67. Maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell

of an atom is determined by the following
62. “The square of the wave function at a point
gives the probability density of the electron A) 2n2 B) 4 + 2
at that point”. This is proposed by
C) 2 + 2 D) 4 − 2
A) Schrodinger
68. Which of the following subshell have
B) Heisenberg maximum number of possible orientations?

C) Max Born A) s B) p
D) Max Plank
C) d D) f
63. The number of electrons with azimuthal
=
quantum number  1= and  2 for Cr in 69. Which of the following statement/s about an
electron with  = +2 is/are correct?
ground state are respectively
The electron could be in the third shell
A) 16, 5 B) 16, 4

C) 12, 4 D) 12, 5 II) The electron is in a non spherical orbital

64. If the principle quantum number n = 6, the III) The electron may have ms = +½
correct sequence of filling of electrons will
be IV) The electron is not in a double dumb bell
orbital.
A) ns→(n–2) f→np→(n–1)d

B) ns→(n–2) f→(n–1)d→np A) I, II

C) ns→np(n–1) d→(n–2)f B) I, II, III

D) ns→(n–1) d→(n–2)f→np
C) III
65. The correct set of four quantum number for
the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = D) IV
37) is
70. Total number of electrons in the 3rd energy
A) 5, 0, 0, +½ level of an atom is
B) 5, 1, 0, +½
A) 3 B) 6
C) 5, 1, 1, +½
C) 9 D) 18
D) 4, 0, 0, +½

66. The quantum number not obtained from the 71. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for
Schrodinger’s wave equation is which n = 3 ?

A) n B) l A) 14 B) 2

C) m D) ms C) 6 D) 10

98
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

72. Which of the following is not permissible 77. Number of planar nodes in ‘5s’ orbital is
arrangement of electron in an atom?
A) 0 B) 1

A) n =
3,  =
2, m = −1
−2, s = C) 2 D) 3
2
78. Magnetic moment of Xa+ (Z = 26) is 24
n 4,=
B) =  0,= = −1
m 0,s
2
B.M. Hence number of unpaired electrons
n 5,=
C)=  3, = s +1
m 0,= and value of ‘a’ respectively are
2
A) 4, 2 B) 2, 4
D) n =
3,  =
2, m = −1
−3, s =
2 C) 3, 1 D) 0, 2

73. The number of spherical nodes, angular 79. The number of possible orientations of an
nodes and nodal planes of 3pz in proper electron in an atom is given by its
order are
A) spin quantum number
A) 3, 1, 0 B) 1, 1, 1 B) spin angular momentum

C) 2, 0, 1 D) 2, 1, 1 C) magnetic quantum number

74. The nodes present in 5 p-orbital are D) orbital angular momentum

80. How many quantum numbers are required
A) 1 planar, 5 spherical to represent an orbital of an atom?
B) One planar, four spherical A) 1 B) 2

C) One planar, three spherical C) 3 D) 4

D) Four spherical 81. Assertion : We do not draw a bound-

ary surface diagram,
75. When azimuthal quantum number l = 1, the which bounds a region
shape of the orbital will be: in which the probability
of finding the electron is
A) Spherical 100%

B) Dumb bell Reason : The probability density

has always some value,
C) Double dumbbell howsoever small it may
be, at any finite distance
D) Doughnut from the nucleus

76. If there are three possible values (+1/2, A) Both A and R are correct and R is the
0, – 1/2) for the spin quantum number s, correct explanation of A
then potassium (with atomic number19) will B) Both A and R are correct, but ‘R’ is not
come under the correct explanation of A
A) f - block B) d - block C) Both A and R are wrong

C) p - block D) s- block D) A is wrong but R is correct

99
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

82. All the information about the electron in an 86. Statement I : The five ‘d’ orbitals are
atom is stored in its designated as dxy, dyz, dxz,
d x 2 − y2 and d z2
A) Principal Quantum number

B) Azimuthal quantum number Statement II : The shape of dxy, dyz, dxz

and d x 2 − y2 orbitals are
C) Orbital wavefunction ψ
similar to each other
D) Shape whereas that of the fifth
one, is different from
83. Number of orbital in ‘h’ subshell other.

A) 3 B) 5 A) Statement I and Statement II are correct

C) 11 D) 9
B) Statement I is correct and Statement II
84. Extra stability of half-filled and completely incorrect
filled subshell is due to

I) Relatively small shielding C) Statement I incorrect and Statement II

correct
II) Larger Coulombic repulsion energy

III) Small exchange energy D) Both statements are incorrect

A) I only B) I, II only 87. Statement-I : There are ‘n’ subshells in

the nth shell.
C) III only D) I, II, III

85. Assertion : No two electrones in an Statement-II : Principal Quantum num-

atom can have the same ber determines the size
set of four quantum num- of the orbital
bers
A) Statement I and Statement II are correct
Reason : Only two electrones may
exist in the same orbitals
and these electones must B) Statement I is correct and Statement II
have opposite spin incorrect

A) Both assertion and Reason are correct C) Statement I incorrect and Statement II
and Reason is the correct explanation of correct
assertion

B) Assertion is correct and Reason is D) Both statements are incorrect

incorrect

C) Assertion and Reason are correct but 88. After filling 5d orbitals electrons enters to
Reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion A) 4p B) 6p

D) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

C) 6d D) 4f

100
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

89. Which of the following orbital diagram does 93. Number of p electrons in bromine atom is
not obey Aufbau principle? (Atomic Numbers)

A) −313.6
94. En = kcal / mol. . If the value of E=
n2
B) –34.84 kcal/mol, to which value does ‘n’
correspond?
C)
95. The ratio of energy of radiations of
o o
D) wavelengths 2000 A and 4000 A is

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER

90. The orbital diagram in which both Pauli 96. For which of the following species, the
exclusion principle and Hund’s rule are expression for the energy of electron in the
violated is:
 −13.6 2 −1 
nth  E n = n 2 Z ev atom  has the
A) ↑↑ ↑↑ ↑
validity?
B) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓
A) Tritium B) Li2+
C) ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
C) Bactrium D) He2+

D) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ 97. The angular momentum of electron can

have the value(s):
91. The incorrect statement among the following
h h
A) B)
A) Energy of electron in hydrogen atom 2π π
depends only on ‘n’
2h 5 h
C) D)
B) Energy of electron in multi electron atom π 2 2π
depends on n and  98. Which of the following statements are
correct for an electron that has n=4 and
C) Energy of orbital in same subshell m= 2?
increases with increase in atomic number
A) The electron may be in a d-orbital
D) Higher the value of (n +  ) for an orbital
B) The electron is in the fourth principal
lower in its energy electronic shell

NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS C) The electron may be in a P-orbital

92. The number of waves made by a Bohr
electron in an orbit of maximum quantum D) The electron must have the spin quantum
number 3 is number = 1 2

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

SAMPLE QUESTIONS 5. The position of both an electron and a

He-atom is known within 1.0 nm and the
1. Assertion : The 19th electron in potas- momentum of the electron is known within
sium atom enter in to 4s 50 × 10–26 kgms–1. The minimum uncertainity
orbital and not the 3d-or- in the measurement of the momentum of
bitals. the helium atom is
Reason : (n+1) Rule is followed for
determining the orbital of A) 50 kg ms–1
the lowest energy state.
B) 60 kgms–1
A) Both assertion and reason are correct
but reason is not correct explanation for
C) 80 × 10–26 kg ms–1
assertion.
B) Assertion is correct but reason is not D) 50 × 10–26 kgms–1
correct
C) Both assertion and reason are correct 6. Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum
and reason is correct explanation for numbers are respectively related to
assertion.
A) size, shape and orientation
D) Both assertion and reason are not
correct B) shape, size and orientation
2. For which of the following sets of four
quantum numbers, an electron will have C) size, orientation and shape
the highest energy?
D) none of the above
n l m s
A) 3 2 1 +1/2 7. The explanation for the presence of three
B) 4 2 1 +1/2 unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can
C) 4 1 0 -1/2 be given by
D) 5 0 0 -1/2
A) Pauli’s exclusion principle
3. In a Bohr’s model of atom when an electron
jumps from n = 1 to n = 3, how much energy B) Hund’s rule
will be emitted or absorbed?
A) 2.15 × 10–11 erg C) Aufbau principle

B) 0.1911 × 10–1­0 erg D) Uncertainity principle

C) 2.389 × 10 -12
erg
8. Which of the following sets of quantum
D) 0.239 × 10–1­0 erg numbers belongs to highest energy?
4. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron
is 1 × 10–5 kg m/s. The uncertainty in its A) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +½
position will be (h = 6.62 × 10–34 kg-m2/s)
B) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +½
A) 1.05 × 10–28 m
B) 1.05 × 10–26 m C) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +½
C) 5.27 × 10 ­ m–30
D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +½
D) 5.25 × 10–26­ m

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

9. In Balmer series of hydrogen atom 13. The radius of first Bohr’s orbit for hydrogen
spectrum, which electronic transition is 0.53 Å. The radius of third Bohr’s orbit
causes third line? would be

A) fifth Bohr orbit to second one A) 0.79 Å B) 1.59 Å

B) fifth Bohr orbit to first one C) 3.18 Å D) 4.77 Å
C) fourth Bohr orbit to second one 14. The frequency of one of the lines in Paschen
series of hydrogen atom is 2.340 × 1014 Hz.
D) fourth Bohr orbit to first one
The quantum number n2 which produces
10. Which is the correct relationship between this transition is
wavelength and momentum of particles?
A) 6 B) 5
h h
A) λ = B) π = C) 4 D) 3
p p
15. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering
experiment eventually led to the conclusion
h that
p= P
C) λm D) h = λ A) mass and energy are related

11. Electron enters the subshell for which B) electrons occupy space around the
nucleus
( n +  ) value is minimum. This is enunciated
C) neutrons are buried deep in the nucleus
as
D) the point of impact with matter can be
A) Hund’s rule precisely determined
B) Aufbau principle 16. The orbital with maximum energy is
C) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
A) 3d B) 5p
D) Pauli’s exclusion principle
C) 4s D) 6d
12. The wavelength of a spectral line for an
17. Which of the following has maximum energy
electronic transition is inversely related to
requirement?
A) the number of electrons undergoing the 3s 3p 3d
transition
A)
B) the square nuclear charge of the atom
3s 3p 3d
C) the difference in the energy of the energy B)
levels involved in the transition
3s 3p 3d
D) the velocity of the electron undergoing
the transition C)
3s 3p 3d
A) A B) B, C, D
D)
C) C, D D) B

103
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

18. The quantum numbers n = 2, l = 1 represent 22. Which of the following statements is true?

A) 1s-orbital A) The kinetic energy of an electron is

inversely proportional to square of its
B) 2s-orbital momentum

C) 2p-orbital B) de-Broglie wavelength associated with a

particle is directly proportional to its mass
D) 3d-orbital
C) de-Broglie wavelength associated with a
particle is directly proportional to square of
19. If the velocity of hydrogen molecule is 5 ×
its velocity
104 cm sec–1, then its de-Broglie wavelength
is D) kinetic energy of an electron is directly
proportional to accelerating potential
A) 2 Å
23. The maximum kinetic energy of
B) 4 Å photoelectrons ejected from a metal, when
it is irradiated with radiationof frequency 2
C) 8 Å × 1014 s–1 is 6.63 × 10–20 J. The threshold
frequency of the metal is
D) 100 Å
A) 2 × 1014 s–1
20. The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63 × 10–
34­
Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms–1. B) 3 × 1014 s–1
Which value is closest to the wavelength
(in nanometers) of a quantum of light with C) 2 × 10–14 s–1
frequency of 8 × 1015 s–1?
D) 1 × 1014 s–1
A) 3 × 107
24. The measurement of the electron position
is associated with an uncertainty in
B) 2 × 10–25 momentum, which is equal to 1 × 10–18
gcms–1. The uncertainty in electron velocity
C) 5 × 10–18 is (mass of an electron is 9 × 10–28 g)

D) 4 × 101 A) 1 × 105 cms–1

21. The frequency of radiation emitted when the B) 1 × 10–11 cms–1

electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a H-atom
will be (Given ionization energy of H = 2.18 C) 1 × 109 cms–1
×10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625 ×10–34­ Js)
D) 1 × 106 cms–1
A) 3.08 × 1015 s–1
25. Maximum number of electrons i n a subshell
B) 2.00 × 1015 s–1 of an atom is determined by the following

A) 4  + 2 B) 2  + 1
C) 1.54 × 1015 s–1
C) 4  –2 D) 2n2
D) 1.03 × 1015 s–1

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

26. Which of the following set of quantum 30. Which of the following statements does not
numbers represents the 19th electron in form part of Bohr’s model of the hydrogen
chromium (Z = 24 forCr) atom?
A) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is
A) 4, 0, 0,½
quantized
B) 4, 1, –1, ½ B) The electron in the orbit nearest the
nucleus has the lowest energy
C) 3, 2, 2, ½
C) Electrons revolve in different orbits
D) 3, 2, –2, ½ around the nucleus
D) The position and velocity of the
27. When the electron of a hydrogen atom
electrons in the orbit cannot be determined
jumps from n = 4 to n = 1 state, the number
simultaneously
of spectral lines emitted is
31. Which one is the wrong statement?
A) 15
4
A) The uncertainity principle is ∆E × ∆t ≥
B) 9 4π

C) 6 B) Half filled and fully filled orbitals have

greater stability due to greater exchange
D) 3 energy, greater symmetry and more
balanced arrangement
28. A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of
100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be C) The energy of 2s-orbital is less than the
(h = 6.6 × 10–34­ Js) energy of 2p-orbital in case of hydrogen
like atoms
A) 6.6 × 10–32 m D) de-Broglied wavelength is given by
h
B) 6.6 × 10–34 m λ= , where m = mass of the particle, v
mv
C) 1.0 × 10–35­ m = group velocity of the particle

D) 1.0 × 10–32 m 32. Identify the incorrect statement from the

following
29. The energies E1 and E2 of wo radiations are A) All the five 4d orbitals have shapes
25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation similar to the respective 3d orbitals
between their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will
be B) In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are
equal in energy in free state
A) λ1 = λ2
C) The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are
B) λ1 = 2λ2 similar to each other: and d x 2 − y2 and d z2

C) λ1 = 4λ2 are similar to each other

1 D) All the five 5d orbitals are different in

D) λ1 = λ size when compared to the respective 4d
2 2
orbitals.

105
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

33. A 250 W electric bulb of 80% efficiency 36. The electronic configuration of gadolinium
emits a light of 6626 A0 wavelength. The (atomic no.64) is
number of photons emitted per second by
the lamp is (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js) A) [Xe]4f8 5d9 6s2

A) 1.42 × 1017 B) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2

C) [Xe]4f3 5d5 6s2

B) 2.18 × 10 16

D) [Xe]4f6 5d2 6s2

C) 6.66 × 1020
37. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding
to light of wavelength 45 nm: [Planck’s
D) 2.83 × 1016
constant h = 6.63 × 10–34­ Js; speed of light c
= 3 × 108 ms–1)
34. In a sample of hydrogen atoms, electrons
jump from 10th excited state to ground state. A) 4.42 × 10–15­
If X are the number of different ultraviolet
radiations Y are the number of different B) 4.42 × 10–18­
visible radiations and Z are the possible
number of different infrared radiations . The ­C) 6.67 × 1015
value Z –(x + y) is (Assuming all the Balmer
lines lie with in visible region) D) 6.67 × 1011

A) 17 38. The number of of d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z =

26) is not equal to the number of electrons
in which one of the following?
B) 18
A) d-electrons in Fe(Z = 26)
C) 19
B) p-electrons in Ne(Z = 10)
D) 36
C) s-electrons in Mg(Z = 12)
35. Robert Bunsen was the first investigator to
D) p-electrons in Cl(Z = 17)
to use the line spectrum for the identification
of elements. Which of the following element
39. The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’
was discovered from its line spectrum?
orbital is equal to

A) Al A) 2 3 

B) Tl B) 0 

C) Pt C) 6

D) Fe D) 2

106
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

40. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion 43. Which of these represent possible
is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr arrangement(s)?
orbit of Li2+ ion?
n I m s
A) 15.87 pm A) 2 1 −1 1
2
B) 3 0 0 − 1
B) 1.587 pm 2
C) 3 2 −3 1
2
C) 158.7 Å
D) 5 3 −2 − 1
2
D) 158.7 pm 44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER An atomic orbital

41. Bohr’s model of atom cannot explain A) Describes trajectory of elecron in an

atom

A) Zeeman effect
B) Is a single electron wave function

B) Stark effect C) Can be represented by boundary

surface diagrams
C) Linear spectrum of hydrogenic species
D) Defines distribution of electron density
in space
D) Fine spectrum of hydrogenic species

45. Which of the following statement(s) about

42. Which of the following statements is/are spectral series is/are correct?
correct?
A) Paschen series appears in the infrared
A) Energy of the electron in hydrogen like region
atom/ion at infinite distance is zero and yet
it is maximum B) The lines in the Balmer series
corresponds to electron transitions from
energy levels higher than n=2 energy level
B) The position and momentum of a rolling
ball can be measured accurately
C) Transitions from higher energy level to
5th energy level produce Pfund series which
C) Some spectral lines of an element may falls in the infrared region.
have the same wave number
D) The lines of Lyman series appear in the
D) Probabilities are found by solving visible region.
Schrodinger wave equation

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS 48. What is the wavelength (in nm) of the
radiation emitted producing in a line in the
Lyman series when an electron falls from
46. Consider the ground state of Cr atom(Z=
fourth stationary state in hydrogen atom?
24). The numbers of electrons with the
(RH= 1.1×107m-1)
azimuthal quantum numbers,  = 1
49. How many lines in the spectrum will be
47. In the consideration of the Bohr theory for observed when electrons return from 7th
the hydrogenic species, which electron shell to 2nd shell?
orbit of the Be3+ ion can have the same
radius as the ground state electron orbit of 50. The de Borglie wavelength associated with
the hydrogen atom? a ball of mass 1 kg having a kinetic energy
0.5 J is 6.626×10-xm. The value of x is

108
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY
1. C 21. A 41. D 61. A 81. A
2. B 22. B 42. C 62. C 82. C
3. B 23. C 43. B 63. D 83. C
4. C 24. D 44. B 64. B 84. A
5. B 25. B 45. C 65. A
85. A
6. B 26. C 46. C 66. D
86. A
7. C 27. A 47. A 67. B
87. A
8. B 28. B 48. A 68. D
9. D 29. D 49. D 69. B 88. B
10. B 30. D 50. C 70. D 89. B
11. C 31. A 51. B 71. B 90. A
12. C 32. C 52. A 72. D 91. D
13. A 33. D 53. B 73. B 92. 4
14. B 34. D 54. A 74. C 93. 17
15. D 35. B 55. B 75. B
94. 3
16. A 36. B 56. A 76. C
95. 2
17. D 37. C 57. A 77. A
96. A,B,C
18. A 38. A 58. D 78. A
19. B 39. A 59. C 79. C 97. A,B,C
20. C 40. C 60. C 80. C 98. A,D

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1 C 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 A,B,D
2 B 12 B 22 D 32 C 42 A,B,D
3 B 13 D 23 D 33 C 43 A,B,D
4 C 14 B 24 C 34 A 44 B,C,D
5 D 15 B 25 A 35 B 45 A,B,C
6 A 16 D 26 A 36 B 46. 12
7 B 17 B 27 C 37 B 47 2
8 D 18 C 28 C 38 D 48 96.97
9 B 19 B 29 B 39 C 49 15
10 A 20 D 30 D 40 D 50. 34

109
 Chapter CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
03 AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES

QUESTIONS 5. Modern periodic law states that the physical

and chemical properties of elements are
GENESIS OF PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION periodic functions of their
1. The law of octaves was developed by
A) Atomic number
A) Dobereiner
B) Mendeleev B) Atomic mass

C) Lothar Meyer C) Atomic volume

D) Newlands
D) Atomic radius
2. Newland’s law of octaves applies to which
of the following set of elements
6. The arrangement of elements in the
A) Be, Mg, Ca increasing order of atomic number in
horizontal rows and vertical columns, so
B) As, K, Ca that similar elements are grouped together
C) B, N, C is called

D) All of these
A) Modern periodic table
3. Lothar Meyer obtained the curve indicating
periodic variation in properties of elements B) Mendeleev’s periodic table
by plotting atomic volume of elements
against
C) Lothar Meyer’s atomic volume plot
A) Atomic number
B) Atomic weight D) Cylindrical table arrangement

C) Density 7. The number of elements that are known at

D) Melting point present including the recently discovered
and officially named man made element is
4. The periodic law which states that the
properties of elements are periodic functions
A) 106
of their atomic weight was first published by
A) Lothar Meyer B) 103
B) Mendeleev
C) 116
C) Vant Hoff
D) de-Chancourtois D) 118

110
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

8. Name given to gallium by mendeleev was 14. The element with atomic number Z = 100 is
a/an
A) Eka aluminium
A) Transition metal
B) Eka silicon
C) Eka zinc B) Inner transition metal

D) Eka germanium C) Alkaline earth metal

9. The IUPAC symbol of the element D) Alkali metal

119
15. The atomic number corresponding to
A) Uue s-block element is
B) Unp A) 52 B) 53
C) Une
C) 56 D) 58
D) Uee
16. Which among the following is a coloured
10. The heaviest halogen recently discovered gas at 298 K and 1 bar pressure?
is
A) Oxygen
A) Moscovium (Mc)
B) Chlorine
B) Tennessine (Ts)
C) Bromine
C) Nihonium (Nh)
D) Sulphur
D) Livermorium (Lv)
17. The total number of elements present in the
PERIODIC TABLE AND ELECTRONIC
first three periods in the modern long form
CONFIGURATION
of the periodic table is
11. Which of the following pairs consists of
metalloid elements? A) 8 B) 18
A) Na and K B) F and Cl C) 20 D) 36
C) Ca and Mg D) As and Si 18. The types of elements present in sixth
12. Which of the following is not a transition period of long form of periodic table is
element?
A) s-block and p-block
A) Sc B) Cu
B) s-block, p-block and d-block
C) Ag D) Zn
C) s-block, p-block, d-block and f-block
13. More than 78% of all the known elements
are D) p-block, d-block and f-block
A) metals
19. The group 13 element recently discovered
B) non metals is
C) gases A) Gallium B) Thallium
D) metalloids
C) Nihonium D) Moscovium

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

20. The element used in jewellery occupying 25. The element with atomic number (Z) = 74
the position 10th group of 6th period in the belongs to
long form of the periodic table is
A) Group 7, Period 5, p - block
A) Ag B) Au
B) Group 17, period 6, p - block
C) Cu D) Pt
C) Group 6, period 6, d - block
21. In the modern periodic table, the period D) Group 3, period 6, f - block
indicates the value of
26. Name of the element in the periodic table
A) Atomic number forming maximum number of compounds
B) Atomic mass A) C B) H
C) Principal quantum number C) O D) F
D) Azimuthal quantum number 27. An element recently discovered is Nihonium
(Uut). Its group number and electronic
22. Element with atomic number Z = 63 is in configuration is
A) Period 6; group 3 A) 15, [Rn]5f14, 6d10, 7s2, 7p3
B) Period 7; group 3 B) 14, [Rn] 5f14, 6d10, 7s2, 7p2
C) Period 6; group 9 C) 13, [Rn] 5f14, 6d10, 7s2, 7p1
D) Period 7; group 9 D) 13, [Rn] 5f14, 6d10, 7s2
23. Which of the following contains atomic 28. General electron filling of elements of
number of only s-block ? period 6 follows the order
A) 55, 12, 18, 53 A) ns→(n-2) f →(n-1)d→np

B) 13, 33, 54, 83 B) ns→np →(n-1)d→(n-2)f

C) 3, 20, 55, 87 C) ns→(n-1) d →(n-2)f→np

D) 22, 33, 55, 66 D) ns→np→(n-2)f → (n-1)d

24. Statement I : Valence for an element PERIODIC TRENDS IN PROPERTIES OF

placed in group 17 are 1 ELEMENTS
and 7
29. Which one of the following sets of ions
Statement II : Group 17 elements (F→I) represents the collection of isoelectronic
are coloured species?
In the light of the above statements, choose A) K+, Cl–, Mg2+, Sc3+
the most appropriate option.
B) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F–
A) Statement I & II both are correct C) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl–
B) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect D) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl–
C) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct (Atomic Number F = 9, Cl=17, Na = 11,
Mg = 12, Al = 13, K=19, Ca=20, Sc=21]
D) Both statement I & II are incorrect

112
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

30. van der waal radius is 36. Which among the following graph is
incorrect ?
A) Twice the bond length between two atoms
of the same element
B) Half of bond length between two atoms
of the same element
C) Almost equal to bond length between
two atoms of the same element A)
D) Half the distance between nuclei of two
non bonded atoms of the same element in
closed distance
31. The element in each period having greater
than expected atomic radius is a/an
B)
A) Lanthanide B) Actinide
C) Noble gas D) Halogen
32. Which of the following atom has largest
size?
A) Ba B) Cs C)
C) Kr D) Sr
33. Which pair of elements among the following
have atomic radii very close to each other?
A) Li and Na B) Ti and Zr
D) All are incorrect
C) Zr and Hf D) La and Hf
34. The size of isoelectronic species. F–, Ne 37. In which of the following pair, radii of second
and Na+ is affected by species is smaller than that of first species?
A) Nuclear charge A) Li, Na
B) Highest principal quantum number B) Na+, F–
C) Electron-electron interaction in the outer
C) Mn7+, Mn4+
orbitals
D) N3–, Al3+
D) None of the factors because their size is
the same 38. Which of the following codes of ionic radii is
35. The correct order of atomic radius of C, Cs, correctly represented
Al and S is A) H– > H > H+
A) S < C < Al < Cs
B) Na+ > F– > O2–
B) S < C < Cs < Al
C) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3–
C) C < S < Cs < Al
D) O– > S2– > Cl–
D) C < S < Al < Cs

113
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

39. Large sized lanthanoid and small sized 43. A sudden jump between the values of
actinoid respectively are second and third ionisation enthalpies of
an element would be associated with the
A) La, Lr electronic configuration
B) Ce, Th A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
C) La, Ac B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
D) Ce, Lr C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
40. Assertion : Ga is smaller than Al D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
Reason : Poor shielding effect of 3d
44. The element having highest difference
electrons present in Ga
between first and second ionisation
A) Both assertion and reason are correct energies is
but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion. A) Ca B) Sc
B) Assertion is correct but reason is not C) Ba D) K
correct
45. B has smaller first ionisation enthalpy than
C) Both assertion and reason are correct Be. Consider the following statements
and reason is correct explanation for
assertion. i) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s
electron
D) Both assertion and reason are not
correct ii) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the
41. Statement-I : Actinoid contraction is nucleus by the inner core of electrons than
greater from element to the 2s electron fo Be
element than lanthanoid
contraction. iii) 2s electron has more penetrating power
Statement-II : In actinoid contraction, 5f than 2p electron
subshell is filled before
iv) Atomic radius of B is more than Be.
6 d.
In the light of the above statements, choose The correct statements are
the most appropriate option.
A) i, ii and iii
A) Statement I & II both are correct
B) ii, iii, iv
B) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
C) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct C) i, iii, iv

D) Both statement I & II are incorrect D) i, ii and iv

42. In the following which has highest first 46. Choose the correct statement
ionisation enthalpy?
A) IE1 of Na < IE1 of Mg
A) H
B) IE3 of Mg > IE3 of Al
B) He
C) IE1 of Al < IE1 of Mg
C) Li
D) Be D) All are correct

114
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

47. Which of the following process require 51. Assertion : Generally, ionisation en-
largest amount of energy thalpy increases from left
to right in a period.
+ −
A) Al( g ) → Al + 1e
Reason : When successive elec-
trons are added to the
2+ 3+ −
B) Al( g ) → Al + 1e orbitals in the same prin-
cipal quantum level, the
+ 2+
C) Al( g ) → Al + 1e
− shielding effect of inner
core of electrons does
not increase very much
D) All require same amount of energy to compensate for the in-
creased attraction of the
48. Correct order regarding ionisation enthalpy electron to the nucleus.
is :
A) Assertion is correct statement and
A) Hg < Zn reason is wrong statement.

B) Assertion and reason both are

B) Tl > In
correct statements and reason is correct
explanation of assertion.
C) B > Be
C) Assertion and reason both are wrong
D) O > N statements.

D) Assertion is wrong statement and reason

49. Which ionisation energy in the following
is correct statement.
equation involves the greatest amount of
energy
52. ∆ i H1 , ∆ i H 2 and ∆ i H 3 of an element ‘M’ are
+ −
A) He → He + e 750, 1500 and 7750 kJ mol-1 respectively.
The stable formula of its iodide would be:
+ 2+ −
B) K → K + e
A) MI
+ 2+ −
C) Li → Li + e B) MI2

+ 2+ − C) MI3
D) Ca → Ca + e
D) MI4
50. Highest first ionisation enthalpy is observed
for 53. Second electron gain enthalpy of an
element.
A) Zn
A) is always negative (energy is released)
B) Sc B) is always positive

C) Y C) can be positive or negative

D) is always zero
D) Hg

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

54. In group 16, the value of electron gain 58. The electronegativity of the following
(
enthalpy ∆ eg H1 ) becomes less negative elements increases in the order

A) C,N, S, P
in the order
A) S > Se > Te > Po > O B) N, Si, C, P
B) O > S > Se > Te > Po C) Si, P, C,N
C) S > O > Se > Te > Po
D) P, Si, N, C
D) Se > Te > Po > O > S
59. Match the following
55. Electron gain enthalpy of Ar and element X
is +96 kg mol–1. X is
A) F B) Cl Column-I Column-II
C) Ne D) Kr a) Cl > Ar p) Atomic size
56. Match the correct ionisation enthalpies and b) S > O q) IE
electron gain enthalpies of the following c) Mg > Al r) EA
elements. d) Zn > Cu s) EN
Elements ∆H1 ∆H 2 ∆ eg H A) a→r, s; b→p; c→p,q; d→s

Most reactive B) a→r, s; b→p,r; c→p,q; d→p,q

i) A 419 3051 -48
non metal
C) a→s; b→r; c→p,q; d→p,q,r
Most reactive
ii) B 1681 3374 -328
metal D) a→p,q; b→r,s; c→r,s; d→s
Least reactive
iii) C 738 1451 -40 60. Electronegativity of an element depends on
element
Metal forming A) Oxidation state
iv) D 2372 2515 +18
binary halide
B) Size
A) i-B; ii-A; iii-D; iv-C
B) i-A; ii-B; iii-D; iv-C C) Effective nuclear charge
C) i-B; ii-A; iii-C; iv-D D) All these
D) i-D; ii-A; iii-B; iv-C 61. Penetrating power order of various electron
57. Which of the following is/are related to is in the order of
electro negativity of an element?
A) s > p > d > f
i) Basic/acidic nature of oxides and
hydroxides B) s > f > p > d
ii) Oxidising /reducing ability of an element C) f > d > p > s
iii) Ionic character of a bond
D) s > p > d = f
iv) Bond angle
A) i & ii 62. Among the following which is the strongest
oxidising agent?
B) iv
C) i, ii & iv A) Cl2 B) F2
D) i, ii, iii & iv C) Br2 D) I2

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

63. The maximum co-valency exhibited by 68. Statement-I : Lithium and Magnesium
nitrogen is exhibit diagonal relations
A) 3 B) 4 Statement-II : Size and electronegativity
C) 5 D) 6 values of Li and Mg are
almost equal
64. The covalency of Al in [Al(H2O)5Cl]2+ is
A) 3 B) 4 In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate option.
C) 5 D) 6
A) Statement I & II both are correct
65. First member of each of the groups 1, 2,
13-17 differ in many respects from other
B) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
members of their respective groups
because of C) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
i) small size
D) Both statement I & II are incorrect
ii) high electronegativity
iii) absence of d-orbitals in valence shell 69. Which among the following is not a neutral
oxide?
iv) absence of isotopes
A) NO
A) i & ii B) iii
C) i, ii & iii D) i, ii, iii & iv B) N2O

66. Considering the elements B, Al, Mg and K, C) CO

the correct order of their metallic character
is D) CO2
A) B > Al > Mg > K
70. Which of the following is the most basic in
B) Al > Mg > B> K nature ?
C) Mg > Al > K > B A) MgO
D) K > Mg > Al > B
B) BeO
67. Assertion : [BF4]– exist but [AlF6]3–
does not C) BaO
Reason : B has vacant d-orbitals
D) CaO
A) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements but reason is not correct 71. Which one of the following orders presents
explanation for assertion. the correct sequence of the increasing
basic nature of the given oxides?
B) Assertion and reason both are
correct statements and reason is correct A) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3
explanation for assertion.
C) Assertion and reason both are wrong B) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
statements.
C) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
is correct statement. D) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O

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NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS 80. Which of the following sets contain only
isoelectronic ions ?
72. Total number of elements accommodated
in period 6 and group 3 are respectively A) Zn2+, Ca2+, Ga3+, Al3+
73. Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same
group, the difference in the atomic number B) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl–
of element placed below Ag and above Ag.
C) P3–, S2–, Cl–, K+
74. The first ionisaiton enthalpy of Na is 5.1eV.
The magnitude of electron gain enthalpy of D) Tl4+, Ar, Cr3+, V5+
Na+ will be
81. Which of the following statements is /are
75. The distance between two adjacent copper correct?
atoms in solid copper is 256 pm; hence
the metallic radius of copper is assigned a A)Electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is more
value of negative than Fluorine
76. What would be the atomic number of next
alkaline earth metal to be synthesised? B) ∆ eg H of Fluorine is least negative among

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT the halogens

77. Which of the following elements can show C) Electro negativity of Fluorine is greater
covalency greater than 4 than chlorine
A) Be B) P
D) Oxidising power of Fluorine is less than
C) S D) B that of chlorine.

78. Which of the following sequences contain SAMPLE QUESTIONS

atomic numbers of only representative 1. Among noble gases which of the following
elements element has electron gain enthalpy greater
than 100 kJ/mol
A) 3, 33, 53, 87
A) He B) Ne
B) 2, 10, 22, 36
C) Ar D) Kr
C) 7, 17, 25, 37, 48
2. Which of the following set has the strongest
D) 9, 35, 51, 88
tendency to form anions ?
79. Which of the following elements will gain
A) Ga, In & Tl B) Na, Mg & Al
one electron more readily in comparison to
other elements of their group ? C) N, O & S D) V, Cr & Mn
A) S(g) 3. Which of the following has least
electronegativity?
B) Na(g)
A) B B) Al
C) O(g)
C) Ga D) Tl
D) Cl(g)

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

4. In the plot of the first ionization energy

9. Diagonally related pair of elements is
against atomic number the peaks are
occupied by A) Na and Mg
A) Inert gases B) B & Al
B) Alkali metals C) Be & Al
C) Halogens D) Si & As
D) Transition elements 10. The electronic configuration of some natural
5. The correct values of ionization energies (in atoms are given below
KJ mole-1) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are A) 1s22s1 B) 1s22s22p3
A) 786,1012,999,1256 C) 1s22s22p4 D) 1s22s22p63s1
B) 1012,786,999,1256
In which of these electronic configuration
C) 786,1012,1256, 999 would you expect to have highest:

D) 786,999,1012,1256 (i) IE1 ii) IE2

6. Which of the following sequence is correct A) 3,1 B) 2,1

for decreasing order of ionic radius:
C) 3,2 D) 2,4
A) Se–2, I–, Br–, O-2, F-
11. Which of the following pairs has elements
B) I , Se , O , Br , F
- -2 -2 – - containing same number of electrons in
outer most orbit
C) Se-2, I-, Br-,F-, O-2
A) Sc, Cu B) Na, Ca
D) I-, se-2, Br-, O-2, F-
C) Pb, Sb D) As, Bi
7. Cl2O7 when react with water and form a
strong acid, the acid is 12. Zinc does not show the variable valency as
elements of d-block, because:
A) HCl B) HClO4
A) This is soft metal
C) H3O+ D) Cl2O
B) d-orbital is full
8. Which of the following orders for electron
affinity is/are correct: C) Its melting point is low
a) S>O<Se b) Cl>F D) Volatile Metal
c) S>O d) O>S 13. The right order of ionization potential of Li,
e) N>P f)C>N Be, B&C is:

A) a,b,c,e A) C>Be>B>Li

B) a,b,c,f B) C>B>Be>Li

C) b,c,d,e C) C>B>Li>Be

D) b,c,f D) B>C>Be>Li

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

14. The covalency of P in PCl5 is : 18. Statement-I : Lithium and Magnesium

exhibit diagonal relations
A) 3 B) 5 Statement-II : Size and electronegativity
values of Li and Mg are
C) 2 D) 0 almost equal
In the light of the above statements, choose
15. Downwards in a group the electropositive the most appropriate option.
character of elements
A) Statement I & II both are correct
A) increases
B) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect

B) decreases C) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct

D) Both statement I & II are incorrect
C) remain same
19. The correct order of second ionization
D) None potential of C, N, O and F is

16. Increasing order of metallic characteristic of A) C>N>O>F B) O>N>F>C

C, Sb, As, Bi, Si is shown by:
C) O>F>N>C D) F>O>N>C
A) C, Si, As, Sb, Bi 20. The correct sequence of the electron affinity
of C, N, O and F is:
B) C, Si, Bi, Sb, As
A) C>N<O<F B) O>N>C>F
C) C, Si, Sb, Bi, As
C) C<N>O<F D) C>N>O>F
D) C, Si, As, Bi, Sb 21. An element which forms an amphoteric
oxide is
17. Assertion : [BF4]– exist but [AlF6]3–
does not A) Ca B) Ba

Reason : B has vacant d-orbitals C) B D) Be

A) Assertion and reason both are correct 22. The correct order of chemical reactivity in
statements but reason is not correct terms of oxidising property with standard
explanation for assertion. reduction potential

B) Assertion and reason both are A) F > Cl > O > N B) F > O > Cl > N
correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion. C) Cl > F > O > N D) O > F > N > Cl

23. The correct order of ionization energies of

C) Assertion and reason both are wrong
F–, Cl-, F and Cl is
statements.
A) Cl<F<Cl-<F- B)Cl– <F–<Cl<F
D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
is correct statement. C) F–<Cl–<Cl<F D) Cl–<Cl<F–<F

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

24. Atomic radii of alkali metals (M) follow 28. Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to:
the order Li<Na<K<Rb but ionic radii in
aqueous solution follow the reverse order A) the same effective nuclear charge from
Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+. The reason of the reverse Ce to Lu
order is:
B) the imperfect shielding on outer electrons
by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge
A) Increase in the ionisation energy
C) the appreciable shielding on outer
B) Decrease in the metallic bond character electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear
charge
C) Increase in the electropositive character
D) the appreciable shielding on outer
D) Decrease in the amount of hydration electrons by 5d electrons from the nuclear
charge.
25. The first ionization potentials(eV) of Be and
29. Ionic radii are
B respectively are:
A) Inversely proportional to square of
A) 8.29eV, 9.32 eV effective nuclear charge

B) 9.32 eV, 9.32 eV B) Directly proportional to effective nuclear

charge
C) 8.29 eV, 8.29 eV
C) Directly proportional to square of effective
D) 9.32 eV, 8.29 eV nuclear charge

26. The decreasing order of the ionization D) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear
potential of the following elements is: charge

A) Ne>Cl>P>S>Al>Mg 30. Identify the correct order of the size of the

following:-
B) Ne>Cl>P>S>Mg>Al
A) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl– < S2–
C) Ne>Cl>S>P>Mg>Al
B) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2– < Cl–
D) Ne>Cl>S>P>Al>Mg
C) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2–
27. One element has atomic weight 39. Its
electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, D) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
3s2, 2p6,4s1. The true statements for that
element is: 31. Among the following which one has the
highest cation to anion size ratio?
A) More (IE)
A) CsF
B) Transition element
B) LiF
C) Isotone with 18Ar 36
C) NaF
D) Stable oxide M2O
D) CsI

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

32. Identify the wrong statement in the following Statement type questions

A) Atomic radius of the elements increases A) If both statement-I and statement-II

as one moves down the first group of the are true and statement-II is the correct
periodic table explanation of statement-I

B) If both statement-I and statement-

B) Atomic radius of the elements decreases
II are true and statement-II is not the
as one moves across from left to right in the
correct explanation of statement-I
second period of the periodic table

C) If statements-I is true but statement-II

C) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller is false
the positive charge on the cation, smaller ist
he ionic radius D) If both statement-I and statement-II
are false
D) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater
the negative charge on the anion, larger is 35. Statement-I: The ionization energy of
the ionic radius Na2+ is less than that of
Na+
33. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is
correctly represented? Statement-II: The electrons in Na+ are
more loosely held com-
pared to Na2+
A) H > H+ > H
36. Statement-I: Moseley’s experiment
B) Na+ < F– < O2– showed that the proper
sequence criterion for
the periodic arrangement
C) F– > O2– > Na+ of atoms was not atomic
weight but atomic num-
ber.
D) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3–

Statement-II: The square root of the

34. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the wavelength of the X-ray
same number of electrons. In which order produced of the elements
do their radii increase? is directly proportional to
the atomic number.
A) Ca2+ < Ar < K+
37. Statement-I: The general valence shell
electronic configuration
B) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar of p-block elements is
ns2np0-6.
C) K+ < Ar < Ca2+
Statement-II: They are placed in group
number 16 to 18
D) Ar < K+ < Ca2+

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

38. Statement-I: The valence shell elec- 43. In which of the following options, the order
tronic configuration of of arrangements doesnot agree with the
d-block elements is ns0-2 variation of property indicated against it
(n–1) d1-10 including Pd.
A) Li<Na<K<Rb (increasing metallic radius)
Statement-II: The electronic configurai-
ton of Pd (Z = 46) is [Kr]
B) Al3+<Mg2+ <Na+<F– ( Increasing ionic
5s2 4d10
size)

39. Statement-I: f-block elements are

C) B<C<N<O (increasing first ionization
known as inner transition
enthalpy)
elements.
D) I<Br<Cl<F ( increasing electron gain
Statement-II: They are placed at the
enthalpy)
bottom of the long form of
periodic table.
44. The group doesnot having isoelectronic
species
40. Statement-I: Radius of C4– is less than
that of O2–
A) O2– F– Na+ Mg2+
Statement-II: Zeffective of C is greater than
that of O. B) O– F– Na+ Mg2+

C) O– F– Na Mg2+
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
D) O2– F– Na Mg2+
41. Which of the following is Doberenier triad
45. Diagonal relationship is shown by
A) Cl, Br, I
A) Li and Mg
B) Ca,Sr, Ba
B) Be and Al
C) Li, Na, K
C) B and Si
D) Fe, Co, Ni
D) C and P
42. Which element/s are of p block from the
following
NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
A) As
46. An element of s-block has electronic
B) Ga configuration [Ar]4s1, then the total number
of s-block metals before this element will be
C) Sr
47. The atomic number of a d-block element is
D) Po
Atomic number = 29,49,81,58,17,70,95

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

48. If IE1 and IE2 of Mg are 170 and 340 kcal 50. The successive ionization enthalpics (IE)
mole–1, then for an element A are as follows

∆H for Mg(g) → Mg 2+ ( g ) + 2e − is
IE1 IE 2 IE3
A  → A + → A 2+  → A 3+ → .............

49. If the value of azimuthal quantum number The IE1 and IE3 values are 27 kJ mol–1 and
for d subshell is assumed to be 3, then 51 kJ mol–1 respectively. Then predict the
number of groups in d-block will be value of IE2 from the following values.

21,33,59,63,74,85

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY

1. D 17. B 33. C 49. C 65. C

2. A 18. C 34. A 50. D 66. D
3. B 19. C 35. D 51. B 67. C
4. B 20. D 36. C 52. B 68. A
5. A 21. C 37. D 53. B 69. D
6. A 22. A 38. A 54. A 70. C
7. D 23. C 39. D 55. D 71. C
8. A 24. A 40. C 56. A 72. 32
9. A 25. C 41. A 57. D 73. 50
10. B 26. B 42. B 58. C 74. 5.1
11. D 27. C 43. D 59. B 75. 128
12. D 28. A 44. D 60. D 76. 120
13. A 29. C 45. A 61. A 77. B,C
14. B 30. D 46. D 62. B 78. A,D
15. C 31. C 47. B 63. B 79. A,D
16. B 32. B 48. B 64. D 80. B,C
81. A,C
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. B 11. D 21. D 31. A 41. A,B,C

2. C 12. B 22. A 32. C 42. A,B,D

3. B 13. A 23. C 33. B 43. C,D

4. A 14. B 24. D 34. B 44. B,C,D

5. C 15. A 25. D 35. D 45. A,B,C

6. D 16. A 26. B 36. C 46. 4

7. B 17. C 27. D 37. D 47. 29

8. B 18. A 28. B 38. C 48. 510

9. C 19. C 29. D 39. B 49. 14

10. B 20. A 30. C 40 D 50. 33

125
 MATHEMATICS

Chapter SETS
01
QUESTIONS 4. Which of the following sets are finite

W = set of days of the week

1. Which of the following is a set
S = set of the solutions of the equation
A) collection of intelligent students in a class x 2 − 16 =
0

B) collection of beautiful girls in a class G = set of points on a line

A) W and S B) W and G
C) collection of handsome boys in a class
C) S and G D) W, S and G

D) collection of boys in a class 5. Which of the following sets is/are infinite

I {x : x ∈ N and ( x − 1)( x − 2 ) =
0}
2. The set of intelligent students in a class is:
II {x : x ∈ N and x is prime}
A) Null set
III {x : x ∈ N and x 2 =
4}
B) an infinite set
A) Only I B) Only II

C) a finite set C) I and II D) II and III

6. Which of the following sets are null sets?

D) Not a well defined collection
i) The set of all prime numbers lying between
15 and 19
3. The set {x:x is an even prime number} can
be written as
ii) A = {
x : x2 =
−16, x ∈  }
A) {2,4}
A
iii)= {x :=
x 2
16, x ∈ }
B) {2,14}
=
iv) A {x : x < −4, x ∈ }
C) {2,4,14} A) ii and iv B) ii only

D) {2} C) i and ii D) i and iii

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

7. {
x : x 4 1 and x ∈ R
The set = } is X. Here, X 1 2 3 4 5 6 
12. The set  , , , , ,  in the set builder
2 3 4 5 6 7
refers to
form is
A) empty B) finite

 n 
C) infinite D) singleton A)  x : x
= , where n ∈ N and1 < n < 6 
 n +1 
B)  x : x n 
8. Let A = {1, 2,3, 4} and B = {2,3, 4,1} then =  , where n ∈ N and1 ≤ n < 6 
 n +1 

A) A ∈ B B) A = B  n 
C)  x : x
= , where n ∈ N and1 ≤ n ≤ 6 
 n +1 
C) A ≠ B D) A ∉ B
D) none of these
9. Let {x : x ∈ Z and x ≤ 4} a n d
A= 2

13. Let N = set of natural numbers, Z = set of

B
= {x : x ∈ R and x 2
2 0} . Then
− 3x += integers, Q = set of rational numbers, R = set
of real numbers ,T = set of irrational numbers.
Then
A) A=B B) A ≠ B

C) A ⊂ B D) A ∈ B A) Z ⊂ N ⊂ Q ⊂ R

B) N ⊂ Z ⊂ Q ⊂ R, T ⊂ R
10. I f A= {1, 2,3} , B = {x ∈ R : x 2
− 2 x + 1 = 0} ,
C) R ⊂ Q ⊂ Z ⊂ N
C = {1,3, 2} and D = { x ∈ R : ( x − 1)( x − 2 )( x − 3) = 0}
D) R ⊂ Q ⊂ N ⊂ Z, N ⊂ T
then the equal sets are

14. Write the following set by roster method: “The

A) A and B B) B and C
set of all natural number x such that 4x + 9 <
50”
C) A, B and C D) A, C and D

A) {−3, −2}
11. Let A = {1,3,5} and B={x:x is an odd natural

number less than 6}. Then, which of the B) {1, 2,3, 4,5, 6, 7,8,9,10}
following are true
C) {1, 2,3, 4}
A) A ⊂ B B) B ⊂ A
D) {1, 2,3, 4,5, 6, 7,8,9}
C) A=B D) A ∉ B

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

15. T h e u n i v e r s a l s e t f o r t h e s e t s 20. Statement I : The interval

A {x : x 2 − 5x =
= + 6 0} {x : x ∈ R, −4 < x ≤ 6} is rep
and=
B {x : x 2
+ 2 0} having least num-
− 3x = resented by ( −4, 6]

ber of elements is Statement II : The interval

A) {1,2} B) {1,3}
{x : x ∈ R, −12 < x < −10} is
C) {1,2,3} D) {0,1, 2,3}
represented by [ −12, −10]
16. Theset A
= {x : x is an integer and − 3 < x < 7}
A) Statement I is true
in roster form is Y. Here, Y refers to B) Statement II is true
C) Both are true
A) {−3, −2, −1, 0,1, 2,3, 4.5, 6, 7} D) Both are false
21. If A = {2, 4, 6,8} and B = {6,8,10,12} , then
B) {−2, −1, 0,1, 2,3, 4,5, 6}
A ∪ B is
C) {0,1, 2,3, 4,5, 6}
A) {2, 4, 6,8} B) {6,8,10,12}
D) {1, 2,3, 4,5, 6}
C) {6,8} D) {2, 4, 6,8,10,12}
17. Let U = {1, 2,3, 4,....,10} and A = {1,3,5, 7,9}

1
22. Let A = {2, 4, 6,8} and B = {6,8,10,12} , then
. Then the set A is X. Here, X refers to
A ∩ B is
A) {2,4,6,8,10} B) {1,3,5,7,9}
A) {2, 4} B) {6,8}
C) {1,2,3,4,5} D) {5,6,7,8,9,10}
C) {10,12} D) {2, 4, 6,8,10,12}
18. The set of real numbers {x : a < x < b} is

called 23. Let A = {1, 2,3, 4,5, 6} and B = {2, 4, 6,8} .

A) open interval Then

B) closed interval A) A–B= B–A B) A − B ≠ B − A

C) Semi-open interval C) A − B ⊂ B − A D) B − A ⊂ A − B
D) semi-closed interval
24. If A
= {1,=
2,3, 4,5} , B {2, 4} and C = {3, 4, 6}
19. If A = (–3,5) and B = [–7,9] , then
, then ( A ∪ B) ∩ C is
A) A=B B) A ⊂ B
A) {3,4,6} B) {1,2,3}
C) B ⊂ A D) A ∈ B
C) {1,4,3} D) {3, 4}

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

25. Which of the following are correct

I: A − B = A − ( A ∩ B ) , 30. If A ∪ B = A ∩ B , then which of the following

is true
II : A = ( A ∩ B ) ∪ ( A − B )
A) A ⊂ B B) B ⊂ A

III : A − ( B ∪ C ) = ( A − B ) ∪ ( A − C ) C) A = B D) All are true

31. If Y is the smallest set such that Y ∪ {1, 2}

A) I, II B) II, III
C) I, II, III D) none of these = {1, 2, 3, 5, 9} then Y is equal to
26. If A and B are non-empty subsets of a set,
A) {1, 2, 3, 5, 9} B) {3,5,9}
then ( A − B ) ∪ ( B − A ) =
C) {1,2} D) {3}

A) ( A ∩ B ) ∪ ( A ∪ B ) =
32. If aN {ax / x ∈ N} then the set 6N ∩ 8N

B) ( A ∪ B ) − ( A − B ) is equal to :
A) 8N B) 48 N

C) ( A ∪ B ) − ( A ∩ B ) C) 12 N D) 24 N

aN
33. If= {ax / x ∈ N} and bN ∩ cN =
dN
D) ( A ∪ B ) =
B
where b, c ∈ N are relatively prime then
27. If A and B are two sets, then A ∩ ( A ∪ B ) A) d = bc B) c = bd

equals C) b = cd D) a = cd

A) A B) B 34. Let A = {x : x is a digit in the number 3591},

B = {x : x ∈ N, x < 10} which of the following
C) φ D) A ∩ B
28. = : x 2n, n ∈ N} and B = {x : x = 2n − 1, n ∈ N}
If A {x= is false
A) A ∩ B =
= {1, 3, 5, 9}
then ( A ∩ B )′ is
B) A – B = φ

A) A B) B C) B – A = {2, 4, 6, 7, 8}

C) φ D) U D) A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 5, 9}
29. Let A, B and C be the sets such that 35. Let A = {x:x is a multiple of 3} and B = {x:x is
A ∪ B = A ∪ C and A ∩ B = A ∩ C . Then a multiple of 5}. Then A ∩ B is given by
A) A = B B) B = C A) {3,6,9....} B) {5,10,15,20....}
C) A = C D) None of these
C) {15,30,60,120....} D) {15,30,45...}

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

{ }
36. If A = a, {b} , , then the power set P(A) is 39. If A and B are any two sets then A-(A-B)=

{
A) φ, {a} , {b} , {a, b} } A) A ∩ B B) A-B

C) B-A D) A ∪ B
{
B) φ, {a} , {{b}} , {a, b} }
=
40. If A {1, 2, {3}{φ}} then which of the following
{
C) φ, {a} , {{b}} , {a, {b}}}
is true
D) none of these

A) {1} ∈ A B) {φ} ⊂ A
37. Statement I : If A = {x : x ∈ R, x ≥ 4} ,
C) {{φ}} ⊂ A D) {{φ}} ∈ A
B= {x : x ∈ R, x > 5} then 41. If the set A contains 5 elements, then the
number of elements in the power set P(A) is
B⊂A equal to

A) 32 B) 16
Statement II
n
{
: If X = 8 − 7n − 1: n ∈ N }
C) 8 D) 64

Y = {49 ( n − 1) : n ∈ N} 42. Let S = {x : x is a positive multiple of 3less than100}

then X ⊂ Y P = {x : x is a prime number less than 20} .

A) Statement I is true Then n ( S) + n ( P ) =

A) 34 B) 41
B) Statement II is true
C) 33 D) 30

C) Both are true 43. The number of non-empty subesets of the

set {1,2,3,4} is

D) Both are false A) 15 B) 14

C) 16 D) 17
38. If A and B are two non empty sets such that 44. Let A and B be two sets if n(A) = 16, n (B) =
A ⊃ B , then
14, n ( A ∪ B ) =
25 then n ( A ∩ B ) is equal

A) B′ − A′ =A − B B) B′ − A′ =B − A to
A) 3 B) 15
C) A′ − B′ = A − B D) A′ ∩ B′ = B − A C) 5 D) 6

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

45. If 65% of people in a town like apples and 50. I f n ( U ) 20,

= = n ( A ) 12,
= n ( B) 9 a n d
78% like mangoes, then find out the per-
centage of people who like both apples and
mangoes , where every one in the town like 4 then n ( A ∪ B )′ is
n ( A ∩ B) =
either apple or mangoes

A) 40 B) 50 A) 17 B) 3
C) 16 D) 9
C) 35 D) 43
51. If X and Y are two sets such that X ∪ Y has
46. If A is the set of all positive divisors of 20, B
is the set of all prime numbers less than 15 50 elements, X has 28 elements and Y has
and C is the set of all positive even integers 32 elements, then number of elements
less than 11,then ( A ∩ B ) ∪ C , is X ∩ Y has

A) {2,3,5,7,8,10} B) {2,4,5,7,8,10} A) 10 B) 46

C) {2,4,5,6,7,8,10} D) {2,4,5,6,8,10} C) 110 D) 54

47. Let A be the set of 20 even numbers and B

be the set of 22 multiples of 3. Then the max-
52. The number of elements in (
P P ( P ( φ)) )
imum number of elements in A ∪ B , is where P(A) is power set of A, is

A) 20 B) 22 A) 2 B) 3

C) 42 D) 44 C) 4 D) 8

48. In a city 20 percent of the population travels 53. Which of the following is a singleton set?
by car, 50 percent by bus and 10 percent trav-
els by both car and bus. Then % of persons A) x : = {
x 5, x ∈ N }
travelling by car or bus is

A) 80% B) 40% B) x : = {
x 6, x ∈ Z }
C) 60% D) 705 C) x : = {
x 2 7, x ∈ R }
49. If A and B be two sets containing 3 and 5
elements respectively then the minimum
2
{
D) x : x + 2x + 1= 0, x ∈ R }
number of elements in A ∪ B and maximum
54. I f n ( A ) = 8 a n d n ( A ∩ B ) =
2, t h e n
number of elements in A ∪ B are respective-

ly ( )
n ( A ∩ B )′ ∩ A is equal to

A) 3,5 B) 5,8 A) 2 B) 4

C) 3,8 D) 2,8 C) 6 D) 8

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

55. If A = {1,2,3,4,}, B = {1,2,5,6}, C= {2,7,8,9} 59. The set of all natural numbers ‘x’ such that
and D = {2,4,8,9}, then = ( A∆B ) ∆ ( C∆D ) = 4x + 9 < 30 is equal to

A) {3,4,5,6,7} B) {3,4,5,7}
A) {2, 3, 4, 5} B) {1,2,3,4,5}

C) {3,5,7,8} D) {3,5, 6, 7}
C) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} D) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}

56. If n ( A ∪=
B ) 42, n ( A ∩=
B ) 8,
60. Given n ( A − B ) =14 + x, n ( B − A ) =
3x

n ( A − B) =
22 then n ( B − A ) =
?
and n ( A ∩ B ) =
x and n ( A ) = n ( B ) then

A) 12 B) 20 n ( A ∪ B) =

A) 70 B) 56
C) 34 D) 18

C) 42 D) 49
57. Two finite sets A and B have m and n
elements respectively. If the total number
of subsets of A is 112 more than the total ( )
61. If n(A) = n(B) = 2 n ( A ∩ B ) , then n ( A ∪ B )
number of subsets of B, then the value of
m is : is a multiple of:

A) 2 B) 3
A) 7 B) 9

C) 10 D) 12 C) 4 D) 5

62. In a group of 50 persons, everyone takes

58. If A = {1, 2,3, 4,5} find the number of either tea or coffee. If 35 take tea and 25 take
coffee then the number of persons who take
subsets of A which contains exactly two tea only (and not coffee) is
elements

A) 5 B) 10 A) 10 B) 25

C) 15 D) 20
C) 35 D) 75

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

63. I f A , B a n d C a r e s e t s d e f i n e d a s 67. Two finite sets have m and n elements. The

{x / x ∈ z and x ≤ 16} ,
A= + number of elements in the power set of first
set is 48 more than the total number of ele-
ments in power set of second set. Then the
B
= {x / x ∈ z and − 3 < x < 8} , a n d values of m and n are

C = {x / x is prime number} , then find the A) 6,3 B) 6,4

total number of elements belonging to exact- C) 7,4 D) 7,6

ly two of A,B and C, even though C is an in-
finite set 68. In a certain town, 25% families own a phone
and 15% own a car, 65% families own neither
A) 1 B) 4 a phone nor a car, 2000 families own both
a car and a phone. Consider the following
C) 3 D) 5 statements in this regard

64. If A,B,C are sets such that n(A) = 12, n (B) = I) 10% families own both a car and a phone
16, n (C) = 18, n ( A  B=
) 6, n ( B ∩ C=) 8, II) 35% families own either a car or a phone

n (C ∩ A) =
10 and n ( A ∩ B ∩ C ) =4 ,then III) 40000 families live in the town. Which of
the following are correct. Then
the number of elements belonging to exactly
one of A,B and C A) I and II are correct

A) 8 B) 10 B) I and III are correct

C) 15 D) 6 C) II and III are correct
65. In a city, three daily newspapers A,B,C are
D) All are correct
published. 42% of the people in that city read
A, 51% read B and 68% read C, 30% read A
69. In a group of 65 people, 40 like cricket, 10like
and B, 28% read B and C, 36% read A and C,
both cricket and tennis. If every people like
8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
any of the two games. Then which of the
The percentage of persons who read all the
following is/are true
three papers is
I) The number of people who like tennis only
A) 25% B) 18% and not cricket is 25

C) 20% D) 30% II) The number of people who like tennis, is

30
66. If n(A) = 43, n(B) = 51 and n ( A ∪ B ) =
75,
A) only I is true
then n((A - B) ∪ (B - A)) =
B) only II is true
A) 53 B) 45
C) Both I and II are true
C) 56 D) 66
D) none of these

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

70. In a school, there are 20 teachers who teach 76. If A,B,C are sets such that n(A)=12, n(B)=16,
Mathematics or Physics. Of these, 12 teach n ( C ) = 1 8 , n ( A ∩ B) =
6, n ( B ∩ C ) =8,
Mathematics and 4 teach both Physics and
Mathematics. Then, number of teachers who
teach Physics, is
n (C ∩ A) =
10 and n ( A ∩ B ∩ C ) =4 , then

the number of elements belonging to exactly

A) 28 B) 12
one of A,B and C
C) 4 D) 36 A) 8 B) 10
C) 15 D) 6
71. In a survey, it was found that 21 people like
product A, 26 like product B and 25 like 77. Let A = {1, 2,3, 4,5, 6} , The number of
product C. If 14 people like products A and B,
12 people like products C and A, 14 people subsets of a which must contains the 4,5 and
like products B and C and 8 like all the three 1 is
products, then number of people who liked A) 8 B) 9
product C only, is
C) 88 D) 7
A) 7 B) 15 78. Out of 800 boys in a school, 224 played
cricket, 240 played hockey and 336 played
C) 11 D) 9 basketball 64 played basket ball and Hockey,
80 played cricket and basket ball and 40
72. If A = {1, 2,3, 4,5} find the number of subsets played cricket and hockey; 24 played all the
three games. The number of boys who did
of A which must contain 1,2 and not 5 is not play any game is
50 n

A) 1 B) 2 X i =
79. Let = Yi T, where each X i contains
=i 1 =i 1

C) 3 D) 4 10 elements and each Yi contains 5

elements. If each element of the set T is an

B) 18, n ( A ∩=
73. If n(A −= B ) 25 , element of exactly 20 of sets X i 's and

n ( A ∪ B) =
70 then n (B) = .....
exactly 6 of sets Yi′s , then ‘n’ is equal to

74. If A = {2, 4, 6,8,10,12,14,16,18} , then number 80. L e t X = {n ∈ N :1 ≤ n ≤ 50} . If

of subsets of A containing exactly 4 elements A= {n ∈ C : n is a multiple of 2} a n d

is
B
= {n ∈ X : n is a multiple of 7} , then the
75. Let S = {1, 2,3,,,,100} . The number of non-
number of elements in the smallest subset of
empty subsets of S such that the product X containing both A and B is
k k
( )
elements is even is 2 2 − 1 , then k =.....

134
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

ANSWER KEY

WORK BOOK

1. D 17. A 33. A 49. B 65. A

2. D 18. A 34. D 50. B 66. C
3. D 19. B 35. D 51. A 67. B
4. A 20. A 36. C 52. C 68. C
5. B 21. D 37. C 53. A,D 69. A
6. A 22. B 38. A 54. C 70. B
7. B 23. B 39. A 55. D 71. A
8. B 24. D 40. C 56. A 72. D
9. B 25. A 41. A 57. A 73. 52
10. D 26. C 42. B 58. B 74. 126
11. C 27. A 43. A 59. B 75. 50
12. C 28. D 44. C 60. D 76. B
13. B 29. B 45. D 61. B 77. A
14. B 30. C 46. D 62. B 78. 160
15. C 31. B 47. C 63. D 79. 30
16. B 32. D 48. C 64. B 80. 29

135
 Chapter
THE PRINCIPLE OF MATHEMATICAL
02 INDUCTION AND INEQUALITIES

QUESTIONS 4. The solution of

INEQUALITIES 5x 3x 2x − 1 x − 11 3x + 1
+ > − < is
4 8 12 3 4
A) One Variable
A) x > 3 B) x < 40/41
1. The inequality x + 1 < x is true for

C) x > 40/11 D) x ≤ 40
−1 −1
A) x < B) x >
2 2 5. A manufacturer has 600 litres of a 12 % solu-
tion of acid. If ‘x’ litres of a 30 % acid solution
−1 1 is added to it, the acid content in the resulting
C) x = x = D) x =
2 2 mixture will be more than 15 % but less than
18 %, then :

A) 100 ≤ x ≤ 250 B) 120 ≤ x ≤ 300

3x − 4 x + 1
2. The solution of ≥ − 1 is C) 120 < x < 300 D) 100 < x < 250
2 4

A) x > 1 B) x ≥ 1

C) x > 2 D) x ≥ 2 6. If 3x − 7 > 2 ( x − 6 ) and 6–x>11–2x ,then x

lies in

A) ( 3, ∞ ) B) [5, ∞ )
3. Which among the following is a linear inequa-
tion?
C) ( 5, ∞ ) D) ( 0, ∞ )

2 2 1 7. The value of x for which 12x - 6 < 0, 12 - 3x < 0

A) x + 1 ≤ 2x B) x + ≥2 is
x2
2 A) φ B) R
C) 3x + 2y ≤ 5 D) 4x + 5y ≥ 6
C) R–{0} D) [1, 2}

136
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

8. The value of x, such that |x + 3| > |2x – 1| 5x 3x 39

is 13. The solution of + > ,
4 8 8
 −2   −2 
A)  ,4 B)  ,∞
 3   3  2x − 1 x − 11 3x + 1
− < is
12 3 4
C) (0, 1) D) (1, 2) A) x > 3 B) x < 40/41

9. Solution of 3x + 2 < 1 is C) x > 40/11 D) x ≤ 40

 −1   −1  1
A)  −1, B)  , −1 14. − 2 < 4 is
 3  3 
Solution of
x

 −1   1 A) ( ∞, −1/ 2 )
C)  −1,  D) 1, 
 3   3
B) (1/ 6, ∞ )
10. Solution of x − 1 ≥ x − 3 is
A) x ≤ 2 B) x ≥ 2
C) ( −1/ 2,1/ 6 )
C) [1, 3] D) x > 2

11. The integer k for which the inequality x2 - 2 D) ( −∞, −1/ 2 ) ∪ (1/ 6, ∞ )
(4k - 1) x + 15k2 - 2k - 7 > 0 is valid for any
k is 15. The set of values of x which satisfy the in-
A) 2 B) 3
x+2
equations 5x + 2 < 3x + 8 and < 4 is
C) 4 D) 5 x −1
A) ( −∞,1) B) (2,3)

1 C) ( −∞,3) D) ( −∞,1) ∪ ( 2,3)

12. Solution of 0 < 3x + 1 < is
3
16. The solution set of
A) ( −4 / 9, −2 / 9 )
91 − ( 3x + 5 ) 9 − 8 ( x − 3) ≥ 0 is

 −4 −2  A) ( −∞, 2]
B)  , 
9 9 
B) ( −∞, 2 )
 −4 −2  C) ( 2, ∞ )
C)  , 
 9 9 
D) [ 2, ∞ )
 −4 −2 
D)  ,  − {−1/ 3}
 9 9 

137
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

x −1 22. The inequality x + 1 < x is true for

17. The value of x for which ≥2
x
−1 −1
A) x < B) x >
A) (0, 1) B) ( −∞, −1) 2 2

C) ( −∞, 0 ) D) [–1, 0) −1 1
C) x = D) x =
2 2

x+4 23. The solution of the system of linear inequal-

18. < 2 satisfied when x satisfies
x −3 ities 3x + 9 ≤ 0, 7x − 2 < 0 and 1 − x > 9 is:

A) ( −∞,3) ∪ (10, ∞ ) B) (3, 10)

A) ( −∞, −8] B) ( −∞, −3)

C) ( −∞,3) ∪ [10, ∞ ) D) [3, 10]  2

C)  −∞,  D) ( −∞, −8 )
 7
19. In the first 4 papers out of 5, each of 100
24. The solution of the system of linear inequal-
marks, Rishi got 95, 72, 73, 83 marks. If he
wants an average, greater than or equal to ities 2x + 3 ≤ 4 and x − 4 ≥ 7 is:
75 marks and less than 80 marks, then the
range of marks he should score in the fifth
paper is  −7 
A)  , −3 
 2 
A) 52 ≤ x ≤ 75 B) 52 < x ≤ 77

C) 52 ≤ x < 77 D) 52 < x < 76

 −7 
B)  , −3 
 2 
x 5x − 2 7x − 3
20. The solution set of < − is :
2 3 5  −7 
C)  , −3
 2 
2 −2
A) x > − B) x <
7 7
 −7 
2 3 D)  , −3
C) x ≤ − D) x ≤ −  2 
7 7
25. The number of integral values of x satisfying
− x 2 + 10x − 16 < x − 2 is
1
21. The solutions of the equation 3 + 2 are
=
x
A) 0 B) 1
A) 0, –1, –1/5 B) 2, –1

C) 2 D) 3
C) –1, –1/5 D 2,3

138
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

B. Two Variables 29. Solution set of the following system of in

equations x + y ≤ 4, 6x + 2y ≥ 8

26. Solution set of x + y < 2, x > 0, y > 0 is :

x, y ≥ 0 is

A) Set of all points lying in the inte-

rior and boundary of the triangle A) triangular region in the XY plane
formed by the lines x = 0, y = 0 and
x+y=2 B) rectangular region in the XY plane

B) Set of all points lying in the interior of the

C) quadrilateral region in the XY
triangle formed by the lines x = 0, y = 0 and
plane
x+y=2

C) The unbounded region of the xy – plane D) pentagonal region in the XY

determined by the positive axes and the line
x+y=2

D) IV quadrant 30. Solutions of the inequations

x + y ≥ 6, x + 8y < 13, 20x + 2y ≥ 30, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
27. The graph the inequation 2x + 3y > 12 is
is a
A) a square

B) a rectangle
A) triangular region in the XY plane
C) a straight line B) rectangular region in the XY plane

D) an open half plane

C) quadrilateral region in the XY
plane
28. Solution set of the following system of in-
equations
D) none of these
x + y ≤ 4, 6x + 2y ≥ 8, x + 5y ≥ 4,
C. Miscellaneous
x ≤ 3, y ≤ 2, x, y ≥ 0 is
31. Number of integral values of x satisfying
A) triangular region in the XY plane 6x +10 − x 2
3 27
the inequality,   < is
4 64
B) rectangular region in the XY plane
is
C) quadrilateral region in the XY plane
A) 5 B) 6

D) pentagonal region in the XY C) 7 D) 8

plane

139
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

n
MATHEMATICAL INDUCTION 6. If n is a +ve integer, 4 − 3n − 1 is divisible

by
1. If 10n + 3 x 4n + 2+k is divisbile by 9 for all
n ∈ N , then the least positive integral value
A) 3 B) 9
of k is

C) 8 D) 27
A) 5 B) 3
7. The greatest positive integer, which divides
C) 9 D) 7 (n + 16) (n + 17) (n + 18) (n + 19) for all n ∈ N

n is
2. The statement 3 > 4n is true only if for all
A) 2 B) 4
A) n ∈ N B) n > 2, n ∈ N C) 24 D) 120

C) n > 1, n ∈ N D) none of these 8. If n is +ve integer, then 2.4

2n +1
+ 33n +1 is

3. 72n + 23n–3 . 3n–1, where n ∈ N is divisible by divisible by

A) 2 B) 9
A) 21 B) 25
C) 11 D) 27

C) 27 D) 33 9. 33n − 26n − 1 is divisible by:

A) 239 B) 547
4. The form of m in order that 2 -1may be
m
C) 627 D) 676
divisible by 9 and 7 both is given by
10. Thestatement p ( n ) = 1× 1!+ 2 × 2!+ 3 × 3!+ .....
A) 6K B) 4K
+ n × n! = ( n + 1)!− 1 is
A) true for all n>1
C) 63K D) 46K

n n
B) not true for any n
5. If n ∈ N , then 2 × 7 + 3 × 5 − 5 is divisible

by
C) true for all n ∈ N

A) 24 B) 64
D) none of these

C) 27 D) 676

140
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

11. The smallest positive integer for which the 16. The greatest positive integer which divides
n +1 n
statement 3 < 4 holds is n(n + 1) (n + 2) ....(n + r –1) ∀n ∈ N is

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4 A) r! B) (r + 1)!
m n

12. If x = 2 3 + 2 3 , m, n ∈ N m + n = 3, then
C) n + r D) n – r + 1
x3 - 6x is divisible by

A) 4 B) 6 17.
n
If x − 1 is divisible by x-k, then the least pos-
C) 2 D) 3
itive integral value of k is
n
13. 49 + 16n − 1 is divisible by, n ∈ N
A) 1 B) 2
A) 3 B) 64
C) 19 D) 29
C) 3 D) 4
14. 10n + 3.4n + 2 + 5 is divisible by the greatest
2n −1
18. For each n ∈ N, a + b 2n −1 is divisible by
number
A) a+b B) (a+b)2
A) 3 B) 4
C) 9 D) 15
D) ( a + b )
3 3 3
C) a + b
If x > −1 then the statement (1 + x ) > 1 + nx
n
15.

is true for 19. For each n ∈ N, n ( n + 1)( 2n + 1) is divisible

A) all n ∈ N B) all n > 1
by
A) 6 B) 7
C) all n > 1 provided x ≠ 0

C) 8 D) 15
D) none of these

141
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

ANSWER KEY

WORK BOOK

1. A 9. C 17. D 25. D

2. B 10. B 18. A 26. B

3. D 11. B 19. C 27. D

4. C 12. D 20. B 28. D

5. C 13. C 21. C 29. A

6. C 14. D 22. A 30. D

7. A 15. D 23. D 31. C

8. A 16. A 24. C

MATHEMATICAL INDUCTION

1. A 6. B 11. D 16. A

2. C 7. C 12. B 17. A

3. B 8. C 13. B 18. A

4. A 9. D 14. C 19. A

5. A 10. C 15. C

142
 Chapter
RELATION AND FUNCTIONS
03

QUESTIONS 5. If A = {1, 2} B = φ then n ( A × B ) =

CARTESIAN PRODUCT A) 1 B) 2

1. n ( A ) 3,=
If= n ( B ) 4 then n ( A × B ) = C) 0 D) 3

A) 3 B) 4 6. If A = {1, 2} B = {φ} then n ( B × A ) =

C) 7 B) 12 A) 1 B) 2

C) 0 D) 3
2. If n ( A ) = 3 then n ( A × A × A ) =
7. Which of the following is an ordered pair?
A) 9 B) 27
A) ( p, q ) , p ∈ P and q ∈ Q
C) 81 D) 91
B) [ p, q ] , p ∈ P and q ∈ Q
3. If A = {1, 2,3} and
C) {p, q} , p ∈ P and q ∈ Q
{(1, 4 ) , ( 2, 4 ) , ( 3, 4 ) , (1,5) , ( 2,5) , ( 3,5)}
A×B =
D) All of the above
then B =
8. If A
= {=
a1 , a 2 } and B {b1 , b 2 , b3 , b 4 } , then
A) {3, 4} B) {4, 6}
A×B is equal to

C) {4,5} D) {2,5} A) {( a , b ) , ( a , b )}
1 1 2 2

B) {( a , b ) , ( a , b ) , ( a , b ) , ( a , b )}
If A
4. = {1,=
2} B {3, 4} (
then n P ( A × B ) = ) 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4

C) {( a , b ) , ( a , b ) , ( a , b ) , ( a , b )}
1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4
A) 16 B) 8
D) {( a1 , b1 ) , ( a1 , b 2 ) , ( a1 , b3 ) , ( a1 , b 4 ) ,

C) 32 D) 4 ( a 2 , b1 ) , ( a 2 , b2 ) , ( a 2 , b3 ) , ( a 2 , b4 )}

143
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

13. If
9. {( a,1) , ( b,3) , ( a,3)( b,1) , ( a, 2 ) , ( b, 2 )} .
If A × B =
=A {1,3,
= 6} and B {x, y} , then repre-
Then, A and B are
sentation of cartesian product by an arrow
diagram of A×B is
=A) A {1,3,
= 2} and B {a, b}
A)

=B) A {=
a,1, 2} and B {b,3}

C) A
= {=
a, b} and B {1, 2,3}
B)

D) A = {a, b,1} and B {a, b, 2,3}

10. If n(A) =5 and n(B) =3, then the number

relations on A×B is

A) 215 B) C)

C) D) 2225

11.
=A {1,=
2,3} , B {4,5, 6} and C {1, 2} then

( A − B) × ( A ∩ C ) =
D)
A) {(1,3) , (1,5)}
14. Let A and B be two sets such that
B) {( 2,1) , ( 2, 2 ) , ( 2,3)} n ( A × B) =
6. If three elements of A×B are

C) {(1, 2 ) , (1,3) , (1,5)} (3,2),(7,5),(8,5), then A =

A) {3, 7,8} B) {2,5}
D) {(1,1) , (1, 2 ) , ( 2,1) , ( 2, 2 ) , ( 3,1) , ( 3, 2 )}
C) {2,5, 7} D) {7,8}

( A × B ) 24, n=
12. If n= ( )
P ( B ) 64 , then n(A)
15. The values of a and b, for the ordered
is equal to pairs ( 2a − 5, 4 ) = ( 5, b + 6 ) are

A) -2,5 B) 2,5
A) 2 B) 3

C) 5,2 D) 5,-2
C) 6 D) 4

144
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

16. If A = {1, 2,5, 6} and B = {1, 2,3} , then { }

19. If A × B =( p, q ) , ( p, r ) , ( m, q ) , ( m, r ) , then

A and B are
( A × B ) ∩ ( B × A ) is equal to
A ) {q, r} and {p, m}

A) {(1,1) , ( 2,1) , ( 6,1) , ( 3, 2 )} B) {p, m} and {q, r}

C) {p, q} and {m, r}

B) {(1,1) , (1, 2 ) , ( 2,1) , ( 2, 2 )}
D) {q, m} and {p, r}

C) {(1,1) , ( 2, 2 )}
Let A
20. = {1,=
2} , B {3, 4} . Then number of
D) {(1,1) , (1, 2 ) , ( 2,5 ) , ( 2, 6 )}
subsets of A×B is

17. If n ( A × B × C ) =36 and A) 4 B) 8

C) 18 D) 16
n ( A ) 3,=
= n ( B ) 2, the n ( C ) =
RELATIONS
A) 6 B) 3 21. Let A = {1, 2,3} . The total number of

distinct relations which can be defined over

C) 2 D) 4 A is
A) 6 B) 8
18. If C) 2 9
D) 210
=A {1,
= 2, 4} , B {2, 4,5} and C = {2,5} , 22. Let R be a relation on N defined by
x + 2y = 8. The domain of R is
then ( A − B ) × ( B − C ) is equal to A) {2, 4,8} B) {2, 4, 6,8}

C) {2, 4, 6} D) {1, 2,3, 4}

A) {(1, 2 ) , (1,5) , ( 2,5)}
B) {(1, 4 )} If R
23.= {( x, y ) : x, y ∈ z, x 2
+ y 2 ≤ 4} is a

relation on Z, then domain of R is

C) {(1, 4 )(1, 2 )}
A) {0,1, 2} B) {−2, −1, 0}
D) {(1, 2 )}
C) {−2, −1, 0,1, 2} D) {−1, 0,1}

145
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

27. The domain and range of the relation R

24. If A
= {1,=
2,3, 4} and B {5, 6, 7,8} , then
given by
which of the following are relations from A 6
 
to B ? R= x + , , where x, y ∈ N and x < 6  are
( x, y ) : y =
 x 
{
A) R 1 = (1,5 ) , ( 2, 7 ) , ( 3,8 ) }
A) {1, 2,3} and {3,5}
B) R 2 = {( 5, 2 ) , ( 3, 7 ) , ( 4, 7 )}
B) {1, 2,3} and {5, 7}
C) R 3 = {( 6, 2 ) , ( 3, 7 ) , ( 4, 7 )}
C) ( 5, 7 ) and {1, 2,3}
D) All are correct
25. Relation R is defined on the set Z of inte- D) {3,5} and {1, 2,3}
gers as follows

( a, b ) ∈ R ⇔ a 2 + b2 =
25, then domain (R)

is equal to 28. R is a relation on N given by

= {
R ( x, y ) : 4x= }
+ 3y 20 which of the
A) {3, 4,5}
following belongs to R

B) {0,3, 4,5} A) (-4,12) B) (5,0)

C) (3,4) D) (2,4)
C) {0, ±3, ±4, ±5}
=
29. If n ( A ) 10
= and n ( B ) 5, then
A) n(A×B) = 50
D) {1, 2,3}
B) Number of relations from A to B is 250
26. If A
= {1,=
2,3, 4} and B {1, 4,9,16, 25} and
C) n ( A × B ) = n ( B × A )
R be a relation defined from A to B, as
R
= {( x, y ) : x ∈ A, y ∈ B and=y x 2 } , then D) All of the above are true

domain of R and codomain of R are 30. If S is set with 5 elements and

A) {1, 2,3, 4} and {1, 4,9,16, 25}

=A {( x, y ) : x, y ∈ S, x ≠ y} then number
of elements in A is

B) {1, 4,9,16, 25} and {1, 2,3, 4} A) 25

B) 20
C) {1, 2,3, 4} and {1, 2,3, 4,9,16, 25}
C) 5
D) None of the above
D) 10

146
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

31. If R is a relation on a finite set A having (n- 34. The figure shows a relation R between the
1) elements then the number of relation on sets P and Q.
A is

2
n −1 ( n −1)
A) 2 B) 2

C) ( n − 1) D) ( n − 1)
2 n −1

Let n ( A ) m
32.= = and n ( B ) n. Then, the

total number of non-empty relations that The relation R in set-builder form is

can be defined from A to B is
A) {( x, y ) : x ∈ P, y ∈ Q}
A) m n
B) n -1m

B) {( x, y ) : x ∈ Q, y ∈ P}
C) mn - 1 D) 2 -1mn

C) {( x, y ) : x is thesquare of y, x ∈ P, y ∈ Q}
33. The figure shows a relation R between the
sets P and Q D) {( x, y ) : y is the square of x, x ∈ P, y ∈ Q}
35. If A = {1, 2, 6} and R be the relation defined

on A by
R
= {( a, b ) : a ∈ A, b ∈ A and a divides b} ,
then range of R is equal to
A) {1, 2}

B) {2, 6}

C) {1, 2, 6}
D) None of these
The relation R in Roster form is
FUNCTIONS
36. Is the given relation a function?
A) {( 9,3) , ( 4, 2 ) , ( 25,5)} {( 3,3) , ( 4, 2 ) , ( 5,1) , ( 6, 0 ) , ( 7, 7 )}
A) Yes
B) {( 9, −3) , ( 4, −2 ) , ( 25, −5)} B) No

C) {( 9, −3) , ( 9,3) , ( 4, −2 ) , ( 4, 2 ) , ( 25, −5 ) , ( 25,5 )} C) cannot say

D) Insufficient data
D) ( 9,5 )( 4, −2 )( 25,1)

147
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

37. Let N be the set of natural numbers and the 40. There are three relations R1,R2 and R3
relation R be defined such that {
such that R 1 = ( 2,1) , ( 3,1)( 4, 2 ) , }
= {
R ( x,= }
y ) : y 2x, x, y ∈ N , then
R 2 = {( 2, 2 ) , ( 2, 4 ) , ( 3,3) , ( 4, 4 )} and

A) R is a function R 3 = {(1, 2 ) , ( 2,3) , ( 3, 4 ) , ( 4,5 ) , ( 5, 6 ) , ( 6, 7 )}.

Then,
B) R is not a function
A) R1 and R2 are functions

C) domain, range and codomain is N

B) R2 and R3 are functions

C) R1 and R3 are functions

D) R is not a relation

D) Only R1 is a functions

38. If f ( x ) = x − 4x + 5, then f(2) =

2

41.
A) 5 B) 8

C) 1 D) 3

39. A function f is defined by f ( x=

) 2x − 5,
then

A) f ( 0 ) = f ( 7 )

Which of the following options identify the

B) f ( −3) =−11 above graph?

A) Modulus function
C) f (1) = −3 B) Greatest integer function

C) Signum function
D) Both B and C D) None of the above

148
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

42. The graph of an identity function on R is 43. If G represents the name of the function
in above graph, then G is a/an

A)

A) Identity function

B) constant function

C) modulus function
B)

D) None of above

44. If f ( x ) = 2x + bx + c, and f ( 0 ) = 3 and

2

f ( 2 ) = 1, then f(1) =

C) A) 1 B) 2

1
C) 0 D)
2

45. Let f
= {(1,1) , ( 2,3) , ( 0, −1) , ( −1, −3)} be a
linear function from Z to Z, then, f(x) is

D) A) x -1 B) 2x -1

C) 2x+1 D) x+1

149
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

 1+ x  1
46. If f ( x ) = log   , then f ( a ) + f ( b ) is 49. The domain f ( x ) = of is
 1− x  x

equal to A) R

B) R − {0}
A) f ( a + b ) B) f ( ab )

C) ( −∞, 0 )
 a+b   a−b 
C) f   D) f   D) [0, ∞)
 1 + ab   1 + ab 
x +3 1
47. The domain of the function f ( x ) = 50. The domain of the real function f ( x ) =
x +3 4 − x2

is is

A) R B) R+
A) {−3}
C) (-2,2) D) [-2,2]

B) R − {−3} 51. The domain and range of the real function

y
= 9 − x 2 are respectively

C) R − {3}
A) R and [0,2]

D) {3} B) [-3,3] and [0,3]

C) [-3,3] and [-3,3]

1
48. The domain f ( x ) = of is
x2 − 4 D) [0,3] and [0,3]

A) ( −∞, ∞ ) 52. The domain of the function f ( x ) = log 2 ( x + 3)

is x 2 + 3x + 2

B) ( −∞, ∞ ) − [ −2, 2]
A) R − {−1, −2}

B) R − {−1, −2, 0}
C) ( 0, ∞ )

C) ( −3, ∞ ) − {−1, −2}

D) ( 0 )

D) ( −3, −1) ∪ ( −1, ∞ )

150
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

53. f : R − {3} → R be defined by 56. The range of the function x 2 − 1 is

A) [ −1,1] B) ( −∞, ∞ )

x2 − 9
=f (x) and g : R → R be defined by
x −3
C) [ 0, ∞ ) D) ( −∞, 0]
g ( x )= x + 3. Then, f ( x ) and g ( x ) are

A) Equal functions 57. The range of f ( x=

) 4 − x 2 is

B) not equal (domains are same) A) (-2,2) B) [0,2]

C) not equal (domains are not same) C) ( −∞, ∞ ) D) ( 0, ∞ )

D) None of the above 58. The range of the function f ( x=

) 2x − 5, is
where x ∈ R
A) R B) [-1,1]
54. The domain and range of the real function f
4−x  1 1
defined by f ( x ) = is given by C)  − ,  D)  − 2, 2 
x−4 2 2 
A) Domain = R, Range = {−1,1}

59. The range of the function f ( x ) = x + 6x + 9

2

B) Domain = R - {4} , Range = {−1}

is
C) Domain = R- {4} , Range = R − {−1}
A) (1, ∞ ) B) [ 0, ∞ )

D) Domain = R- {−4} , Range = {−1,1} C) ( −∞, ∞ ) D) ( −∞,1]

1
55. The domain and range of the function f given 60. Range of f ( x ) = is
by f ( x ) = 2 − x − 5 is 1 − 2 cos x

A) Domain = R , Range =
+
( −∞,1] 1   1
A)  ,1 B)  −1, 
3   3 
B) Domain = R, Range = ( −∞, 2]
1   1 
C) Domain = R, Range = ( −∞, 2 ) C) ( −∞, −1] ∪  , ∞  D)  − ,1
3   3 
D) Domain = R , Range =
+
( −∞, 2]

151
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

SAMPLE QUESTIONS 4. If ( 4x + 3, y )= ( 3x + 5, −2 ) , then the sum

of the values of x and y is

If A
1. = {=
a, b} , B {=
c, d} , C {d, e} , then
A) 0 B) 2
{( a, c ) , ( a, d ) , ( a, e ) , ( b, c ) , ( b, d ) , ( b, e )}
C) –2 D) 1
is equal to

A) A ∩ ( B ∪ C ) B) A ∪ ( B ∩ C ) 5. If A, B and C are three sets, then

C) A × ( B ∪ C ) D) A × ( B ∩ C )
A) A × ( B ∩ C ) = ( A × B ) ∩ ( A × C )
2. Which one of the following is not true?

A) A × ( B − C ) = ( A × B ) − ( A × C ) B) A × ( B'∪ C ' ) ' = ( A × B ) ∩ ( A × C )

B) A − ( B × C ) = ( A − B ) × ( A − C )
C) Both A and B
C) A − ( B × C ) =
A; A, B, C are subsets

of U D) none of the above

D) A × ( B × C ) ≠ ( A × B ) × C; A, B, C are
6. If A = {8,9,10} and B = {1, 2,3, 4,5} , then
subsets of U
the number of elements in A×A×B are
3. Which of the following is / are true?

A) 15 B) 30
A) If P
= {=
m, n} and Q {n, m} , then

P×Q= {( m, n ) , ( n, m )} C) 45 D) 75

B) If A and B are non-empty sets, then

A×B is a non-empty set of ordered pairs
(x,y), such that x ∈ A and y ∈ B
=
7. If A {1,=
2, 4} , B {2,
= 4,5} , C {2,5} , then

C) If A = {1, 2} and B={3,4}, then

( A − C) × ( B − C) is equal to

A × ( B ∩ φ) = φ )
A) {(1, 4 )} B) {(1, 4 ) , ( 4, 4 )}
D) All of the above
C) {( 4,1) , ( 4, 4 )} D) {(1, 2 ) , ( 2,5)}

152
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

8. Which of the following relation is a func- 11. The relation R defined on set
tion? A= {x : x < 3, x ∈ I} by

A) {( a, b )( b, e )( c, e )( b, x )} =R {=
( x, y ) : y x } is

A) {( −2, 2 ) , ( −1,1) , ( 0, 0 ) , (1,1) , ( 2, 2 )}

B) {( a, d )( a, m )( b, e )( a, b )} B) {( −2, −2 ) , ( −2, 2 ) , ( −1,1) , ( 0, 0 ) , (1, −2 ) , (1, 2 ) , ( 2, −1) , ( 2, −2 )}

C) {( 0, 0 ) , (1,1) , ( 2, 2 )}
C) {( a, d )( b, e )( c, d )( e, x )} D) none of these

12. If f : R → R is defined by f(x)=5, then the

D) {( a, d )( b, m )( b, y )( d, x )}
graph of the function is

9. If n(X) = 5 and n(Y)=7, then the number of A) line parallel to x-axis

5m
relations from X to Y is 2 . The value of
B) line parallel to y-axis
‘m’ is
C) a point

D) parabola
A) 5 B) 7
13. There are three relations R1, R2 and R3
such that
C) 6 D) 8
R1 = {( 2,1) , ( 3,1) , ( 4, 2 )} ,

10. The relation R defined on the set R 2 = {( 2, 2 ) , ( 2, 4 ) , ( 3,3) , ( 4, 4 )} and

A = {1, 2,3, 4,5} by
R 3 = {(1, 2 ) , ( 2,3) , ( 3, 4 ) , ( 4,5 ) , ( 5, 6 ) , ( 6, 7 )}
=R {( x, y ) : x 2 2
}
− y < 16 is given by
Then,

A) {(1,1) , ( 2,1) , ( 3,1) , ( 4,1) , ( 2,3)} A) R1 and R2 are functions

B) R2 and R3 are functions

B) {( 2, 2 ) , ( 3, 2 ) , ( 4, 2 ) , ( 2, 4 )}
C) R1 and R3 are functions
C) {( 3,3) , ( 4,3) , ( 5, 4 ) , ( 3, 4 )}
D) Only R1 is a function

D) none of these

153
−s{1}

CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

14. Which of the following relation is not a 18. If f : R → R and g : R → R are defined by
function?
f ( x ) = x 2 − 5x + 6 and g(x) = x–3. Then
A) f
= {( x, x ) | x ∈ R}
f 
B) g
= {( x,3) | x ∈ R}  (x) =
g

 1   A) x–2 B) x–3
C) h  n,  | n ∈ I 
=
 n   C) x+2 D) x+3

=D) t {( n, n ) | n ∈ N}
2 19. The domain of the funciton
x 2 − 5x + 6 + 2x + 8 − x 2 is
1 A) [2,3] B) [–2,4]
(x)
15. The domain of f = − 1 − x 2 is
2x − 1
C) [–2,2] ∪ [3,4] D) [ −2,1] ∪ [2, 4]
1
A) ,1 B) [ −1, ∞ ] 20. The value of the function
2 x 2 − 3x + 2
f (x) = lies in the interval
C) [1, ∞ ] D) none of these x2 + x − 6

f (x) =
( x + 1)( x − 3) 1 
A) ( −∞, ∞ ) −  ,1 B) ( −∞, ∞ )
16. is a real valued
( x − 2) 5 

function in the domain C) ( −∞, ∞ ) − {1} D) none of these

{ }
21. If g = (1,1) , ( 2,3) , ( 3,5 ) , ( 4, 7 ) is a func-
A) ( −∞, −1] ∪ [3, ∞ ) B) ( −∞, −1] ∪ ( 2,3]
tion described by the formula,
C) [ −1, 2 ) ∪ [3, ∞ ] D) none of these g ( x ) = αx + β then what values shall be

assigned to α and β ?
=
17. Let A {1,
= 2,3, 4}, B {1,5,9,11,15,16} and
A) α = 1, β = 1 B) α = 1, β = 1
f = {(1,5 ) , ( 2,9 ) , ( 3,1) , ( 4,5 ) , ( 2,11)} . Then C) α = 1, β = −2 D) α = −2, β = −1
22. The function f satisfies the functional
A) f is a relation from A to B
 x + 59 
equation 3f ( x ) + 2f  =10x + 30 for
 x −1 
B) f is a funciton from A to B
all real x ≠ 1 . Then f(x) is

C) Both A and B A) 9 B) 4
C) 8 D) 11
D) none of these

154
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

28. Find the range of f(x) = sgn(x2-2x+3)

23. The function f(x) satisfies the equation
f (1 − x ) + 2f ( x ) = 3x∀x ∈ R, then f(0)= A) {1, −1} B) {1}
A) –2 B) –1
C) {−1} D) none of these
C) 0 D) 1
24. If φ ( x ) = 1 29. The domain of the function
and S = φ ( 5 ) + φ ( 4 ) + φ ( 3) + .... + φ ( −4 ) + φ ( −5 ) ,
1 + e− x
f ( x ) log 
= 1
x 2 − 5x + 6 is
then the value of S is x + 2 
 

11
A) 5 B) 3  3 
2 A)  , 2  ∪ ( 3, ∞ ) B)  , ∞ 
2  2 
13
C) 6 D) 1 
2 C)  , ∞  D) none of these
2 
x2 − x +1 30. The domain of the function f defined by
25. The range of the function f ( x ) = 2 1
x + x +1 f (x) = is
x− x
where x ∈ R is
A) ( −∞,3] B) ( −∞, ∞ ) A) R B) R+
C) R- D) {φ}
1 
C) [3, ∞ ) D)  ,3 31. If f ( x ) f ( y=
) f ( x ) + f ( y ) + f ( xy ) − 2 ∀x, y ∈ R
3 
26. The domain of the function f(x) = and if f(x) is not a constant function, then
x 2 + 3x + 5 the value of f(1) is
is A) 1 B) 2
x 2 − 5x + 4
C) 0 D) –1
A) R B) R − {1, 4} 32. If f is a function such that f(0)=2, f(1)=3 and
f ( x + 2=) 2f ( x ) − f ( x + 1) for every real x,
C) R − {1} D) (1,4)
then f(5)
x f (a )
27. If f ( x ) = , then is equal to A) 7 B) 13
x −1 f ( a + 1) C) 1 D) 5
33. If f(x) = cos (log x) then
1 1 x 
A) f a ( )
2
B) f  
a
f ( x ) .f ( y ) − f   + f ( xy )  is equal to
2 y 
A) 0 B) 1
 −a 
C) f(-a) D) f  C) –1 D) none of these
 a − 1 

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

34. The set of all x satisfying the inequality 39. The domain and range of the function f given
x − 1 −2 < 5 is by f(x) = 2– x − 5 is

A) Domain = R+, Range = ( −∞,1]

A) (6,8) B) [7,8)
B) Domain =R,Range = (−∞, 2]
C) [6,8] D) (–6,8)
C) Domain =R, Range = ( −∞, 2 )

 1  D) Domain =R+, Range = (−∞, 2]

2
( )
35. If 2f x + 3f 
x
 
2 
x 2 − 1 for all
=
40. Number of distinct elements in the range of
x ∈   {0} . Then f(x2) is equal to x+2
the function f ( x ) = is
x+2
1− x4
B) (1 − x )( 32 + 2x )
2 2
A)
5x 2 5x A) 3 B) 4

C) (1 − x )( 3 + 2x )
2 2
D) none of these
3x 2 C) 2 D) 1

36. If f(x) = ax + b, where a and b are integers,

41. If [ x ] − 5 [ x ] + 6 =
2
f(–1)=–5 and f(3) = 3, then a and b are 0, where [.] denote the
equal to
greatest integer function, then
A) a = –3, b = –1 B) a=2, b= –3

A) x ∈ [3, 4] B) x ∈ [ 2,3]
C) a = 0, b = 2 D) a = 2, b = 3

37. The domain of the function f defined by C) x ∈ [ 2,3] D) x ∈ [ 2,3) ∪ [3, 4 )

1
f (x) = 4−x + is equal to
x2 −1 1 1
42. If f ( x=
) x3 − , then f ( x ) + f   is
A) ( −∞, −1) ∪ (1, 4] B) (−∞, −1] ∪ (1, 4] x 3
x
A) 0 B) 1
C) ( −∞, −1) ∪ [1, 4] D) ( −∞, −1) ∪ [1, 4)

38. The domain and range of the real function f C) 2 D) 3

4−x
defined by f ( x ) = given by
x−4  1+ x   2x 
43. If f ( x ) = log e   then f 2  is
A) Domain = R, Range ={–1,1}  1− x   1+ x 

B) Domain = R - {1}, Range = R equal to

C) Domain = R-{4}, Range = {–1} 2 3

A) f ( x )  B) f ( x ) 
D) Domain = R-{–1}, Range = {–1,1}

C) 2f ( x ) D) 3f ( x )

156
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

ANSWER KEY
WORK BOOK
1. D 13. A 25. C 37. A 49. B
2. B 14. A 26. A 38. C 50. C
3. C 15. D 27. B 39. D 51. B
4. A 16. B 28. D 40. C 52. C
5. C 17. A 29. D 41. B 53. C
6. B 18. B 30. B 42. A 54. B
7. A 19. B 31. B 43. B 55. B
8. D 20. D 32. D 44. C 56. C
9. C 21. C 33. C 45. B 57. B
10. D 22. C 34. C 46. C 58. A
11. D 23. C 35. C 47. B 59. B
12. D 24. A 36. D 48. B 60. C

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. C 10. D 19. C 28. B 37. A

2. B 11. A 20. B 29. A 38. C
3. A 12. A 21. B 30. D 39. B
4. A 13. C 22. B 31. B 40. C
5. C 14. C 23. B 32. B 41. D
6. C 15. A 24. B 33. A 42. A
7. B 16. C 25. D 34. D 43. C
8. C 17. A 26. B 35. B
9. B 18. A 27. A 36. B

157
 Chapter
TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS
04

QUESTIONS 4 x
4. − and x ∈ [ 0, π] then cos
If cos x = =
5 2
1 2
A) B)
10 5

2π 5π 1 −2
1. The value of sec + cosec = C) D)
3 6 10 5

A) 2 B)-2
5. cos ec100 − 3 sec100 =

A) 2 B) 4

1
C) 3 D)
C) 1 D) 0
2

π π π
2. tan10 + tan 890 = 6. If − < θ < and θ ≠ ± then
2 2 4

1 2 π  π 
A) B) cot  + θ  .cot  − θ 
sin10 sin 20 4  4 

2 1 A) 0 B) -1
C) D)
sin10 sin 20 C) 1 D) -2

2 2 x y
3. The value of sec θ + cos ec θ = 7. If cos θ + sin θ =1 and
a b

2 2
A) tan θ + cot θ x y x 2 y2
sin θ − cos θ = −1 then 2 + 2 is
a b a b
2 2 equal to
B) sec θ.cosec θ
A) 0 B) 2
C) sec θ.cosecθ
2 2
C) -1 D) 1
D) sin θ cos θ

158
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

8. Which of the following correct? 13. If acosA + bsinA = 1 and asinA - bcosA=3
then a2 + b2 =
0
A) sin1 > sin1
0
B) sin1 < sin1 A) 10 B) 9
C) 8 D) 11
0 0
C) cos1 > cos1 D) cos1 < sin1
1 sin θ cos θ
9. If θ is an acute and tan θ = then, 14. + =
7 1 − cot θ 1 − tan θ

cosec 2 θ − sec 2 θ A) B)
=
cosec 2 θ + sec 2 θ C) D)

1 5 a a sin θ + b cos θ
A) B) 15. If tan θ = then the value of
2 4 b a sin θ − b cos θ
is
3
C) 2 D)
4 a 2 − b2
A) B) 2
10. If sec α and cos ecα are the roots of a + b2

x 2 − px + q =0 then
a
C) D)
p2 q ( q − 2 )
A) = a + b2
2

If ( sin θ + cos ecθ ) + ( cos θ + sec θ ) =

2 2
( q + 1)
2
2
B) p + 1 = 16.

p 2 q ( q + 1)
C) = K + tan 2 θ + cot 2 θ then K =
A) 9 B) 7
p2 q ( q + 2 )
D) =
C) 5 D) 3

17.
11. The minimum value of
A) B) 3
is

1
A) B) C) D)
3

C) D) 18. If are two acute angles of right trian-

gle, then
12. The minimum value of is
A) 1 B) 0 A) B)
−1 1
C) D) C) D)
2 2

159
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

19. If then the value of 25. =

is equal to
A) B)
A) B)
C) D) 0
C) D)
26. The least value of is:

A) 2 B) 0
 4 π  4 π
20.  cos  −  sin  is equal to C) 3 D) 5
 12   12 
1 + sin θ − cos θ
27. The value of is
1 + sin θ + cos θ
A) B) A) cot θ / 2 B) tan θ / 2

C) tan θ D) none of these

C) D)
28. If cos=
α 3 / 5, cos
= β 4 / 5, α, β > 0 and are
21. The value of is equal to
α −β
acute angles, then cos is
A) B) 2
5 7
A) B)
C) D) 7 2 5 2

22. The value of is

3 3
equal to C) D)
5 2 7 2
A) 1 B)

C) D) 0 29. In a triangle ABC, ∑ sin A sin ( B − C ) equal

A) 1 B) 0
23.
C) –32 D) none of these
A) tan 460 B) cot 460
A 3 1 + cos A
C) sin 460 D) cos 460 30. If tan = , then =
2 2 1 − cos A

A) –5 B) 5
24. The value of is
A) –tan 40o B) tan 56o
C) 9/4 D) 4/9
C) cot 56o D) tan 34o

160
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

31. If tan θ =1/ 3, t h e n t h e v a l u e o f 36. The solution of the equation tan 2θ tan θ =1

is
3 cos 2θ + sin 2θ is
π nπ π
A) θ = nπ ± B) =
θ +
A) 3 B) 1 6 3 4

C) 1 + 3 D) none of these
nπ π
C) =
θ − D) none of these
32. The value of 3 6
cos ( π /13) + cos ( 2π /13) + ..... + cos (12π /13) 37. General solution of the equation
is equal to cot θ − tan θ = 2 is
π nπ π
A) 0 B) –1 A) nπ + B) +
4 2 8
1
C) 1 D)
2 nπ π
C) ± D) none of these
2
2 8
33. 2 cos θ + 3sin θ = 0, then θ is
2π π 1
A) nπ + ( −1) B) nπ + ( −1)
n +1 n −1 2
38. If sin θ − 2 cos θ + = 0, then the general
3 6 4
value of θ is
π π π
C) nπ + ( −1)
n +1
D) none of these A) nπ ± B) 2nπ ±
6 3 3

π π
34. sin 2 α − cos α =1/ 4 for 0 ≤ α ≤ 2π C) 2nπ ± D) nπ ±
6 6
2π π 2 π 5π
A) , B) , 39. The maximum value of 3cos x + 4sin x + 5
3 3 3 3
is
5π 7 π π 5π A) 5 B) 6
C) , D) ,
3 3 3 3 C) 7 D) none of these
1
35. 2sin 2 α + 3 cos α + 1 = 0 40. Minimum value of is
3sin θ − 4 cos θ + 7
5π 5π
A) 2nπ + B) 2nπ ±
6 6 1 5
A) B)
12 12
5π
C) 2nπ − D) none of these
6 7 1
C) D)
12 6

161
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

Integer type 4 5
46. Let cos ( α + β ) = and let sin ( α − β ) = ,
41. If sin =
2θ cos 3θ . The number of elements 5 13

for the set θin 0 ≤ θ ≤ 2π is π

and [ ] represent GIV, where 0 ≤ α, β ≤ ,
42. The number of
solutions of 4
cos
= x sin x, 0 ≤ x ≤ 4π is Then [ tan 2α ] =

43. The value of the expression  π  3π   5π   7π 

47. 16 1 + cos  1 + cos  1 + cos  1 + cos =
 8  8  8  8 

tan10 tan 20 tan 30..... tan 880 tan 890

 π
48. If x ∈ 0,  , the number of solutions of the
 2 
is equal to equation sin 7x + sin 4x + sin x =
0 is
44. If 5 tan θ= 4, θ i n I q u a d r a n t a n d
49. An maximum value of 1 + 4sin θ + 3cos θ is

5sin θ − 3cos θ 50. The value of

λ, then 42λ is
= (1 − tan 50° )(1 − tan 65° )(1 − tan 70° )(1 − tan 85° )
5sin θ + 2 cos θ
45. 16sin 200 sin 400 sin 600 sin 800 is

162
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - MATHEMATICS]

ANSWER KEY

WORK BOOK

1. D 14. C 27. B 40. A

2. B 15. A 28. B 41. 6
3. B 16. B 29. D 42. 4
4. C 17. B 30. A
43. 1
5. B 18. B 31. A
44. 7
6. C 19. B 32. A
45. 3
7. B 20. B 33. C
8. B,C 21. A 34. D 46. 1
9. D 22. D 35. B 47. 2
10. B,D 23. A 36. A 48. 5
11. C 24. B 37. B
49. 6
12. C 25. D 38. B
50. 4
13. A 26. A 39. D

163