1.

Normal range for MCV

A. 80 to 96 fl
B. 89 to 101 m
C. 95 to 100 l
D. 101 to110 micro liter
2. Increased MCV
A. Macrocytes
B. Normocytes
C. Microcytes
D. None of these
3. Normal MCV
A. Macrocytes
B. Normocytes
C. Microcytes
D. None of these
4. Decresed MCV
A. Macrocytes
B. Normocytes
C. Microcytes
D. None of these
5. Causes of increased MCV
A. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Chronic alcohlism
C. Liver disease
D. Normal pregnancy
E. All of these
6. Causes of decresed MCV
A. Iron deficiency
B. Thelassemia
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. All of these
7. Normal range of MCH
A. 27 to 32 pg
B. 27 to 32 fl
C. 27 to 32 ng
D. 27 to 32 dl
8. Causes of incresed MCH
A. Folate deficiency
B. Vitamin B 12 deficiency
C. Liver disease
D. All of these
9. Causes of decresed MCH
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Folate deficiency
C. Celiac disease
D. All of these
10. Normal range for MCHC
A. 30 to 35 g/dl
B. 30 to 35 fl
C. 30 to 35 mg
D. All of these
11. Causes of increased MCHC
A. Hereditary Spherocytosis
B. SLE
C. Lymphoma
 D. All of these
12. Causes of decresed MCHC
A. Sidroblastic anemia
B. Iron deficincy anemia
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
13. On the basis of MCH and MCHC values, the Hemoglobin content of red cells is described as:
A. Incresed MCHC … hypochromic
B. Normal MCHC …. normochromic
C. Decresed MCHC …. htpochromic
D. All of these
14. In normochromic normocytic anemia
A. Values of MCV MCH and MCHC are normal
B. Reduced PCV
C. Commonly found in aplastic anemia, sickel cell anemia
D. All of these
15. In Microcytic hypochromic anemia
A. RBCs small in size and pale colord
B. Decreased red cell count
C. Values of MCV, MCH and MCHC are reduced
D. commonly observed in Iron & Folate deficiency and Thalassemia
E. All of these
16. In macrocytic normochromic anemia
A. size of the RBCs are increased with normal color
B. no central pale portion
C. commonly observed in Pernicious anemia
D. All of these
17. D-Dimer proteins in the sample bind to the specific ……………, which is coated on latex particles, and
causes agglutination
A. anti-D-Dimer antibody
B. IgM Ab
C. IgG Ab
D. None of these
18. Life span of RBCs
A. 100 days
B. 120 days
C. 140 days
D. None of these
19. Which test can be used to detect hemolytic anemia:
A. Coombs test
B. Genetic test
C. PF
D. Schilling test
20. Megaloblastic anemia characterized by
A. Large RBCs
B. Inner content of each cell not completely developed
C. Both a and b
D. All of these
21. PF of iron deficiency anemia show:
A. microcytic
B. hypochromic erythrocytes
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
22. Macro ovalocytes are seen in
A. Aplastic anemia
 B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Sidroblastic anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
23. Schistocytes are
A. Smaller RBCs
B. Fragmented RBCs
C. RBCs with MP
D. RBCs with shizonts
24. The fixative present in leishman stain is :
A. Ethyl alcohol
B. 10% formaline
C. Buffered formaline
D. Acetone free methanol
25. Bite cells are seen in
A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
B. Hemolytic disease of newborn
C. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
D. G6PD deficiency
26. The most common cause of macrocytosis is:
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Iron deficiency
D. Alcohlism
27. HbH inclusions are seen in
A. G6PD deficiency
B. Sickel cell anemia
C. Beta thelassemia
D. Alpha thelassemia
28. Howell jolly bodies are seen in
A. Septicemia
B. TB
C. Hemophilia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
29. Lab studies: red cell indices: measurment of average weight of Hb/RBC 27 to 33 pg:
A. MCV
B. MCH
C. MCHC
D. PCV
30. Lab studies: red cell indices: determination of relative size of RBC 82 to 98 fl:
E. MCV
F. MCH
G. MCHC
H. PCV
31. The best source of active bone marrow from a 20 year old would be:
A. Iliac crest (hip)
B. Femur (thigh)
C. Distal radius (forarm)
D. Tibia (shin)
32. What is the mojor metabolically available storage form of iron in the body:
A. Hemosidrin
B. Ferritin
C. Tranferin
D. Hb
33. When the etire CBC is supperesed due to either anema infection or hemorrhage is called:
A. Eryhtroplasia
 B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Pancytopenia
D. Leukopenia
34. RBC count for man is (million cells per microlite):
A. 4.7 to 6.1
B. 5.5 to 6.5
C. 6.8
D. 6.6
35. RBC count in woman is (million cells per microlite):
A. 4.2 to 5.4
B. 5.5
C. 5.6
D. 5.6 to 6.6
36. Causes of superior decrese in MCV
A. Cryofibrinogen
B. Hyperglycemia
C. High WBC count
D. None of these
37. Hematological tests used to detect:
A. Anemia
B. Hemoglobinopathies
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
38. Which of the following statement best defines hemophilia:
A. Autosomal recessive disorder effecting both sexes equally
B. Is associated with bleeding from gums and skin
C. Is due to deficiency of factor X
D. Sex linked disorder commonly affecting males
39. CBC of a 29y female shows: TLC: 2.3 109/L Hb=7.8 g/dl MCV= 120fl and PLT count 85*109/L. PF
shows oval microcytosis and hypersegmented neutrophils. What is your diagnosis:
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Sidroblastic anemia
E. Thalassemia
40. Neutropenia is defined as:
A. Increased in absolute neutrophil count
B. Left shift shown in neutrophils
C. Reductions in absolute neutrophil count
D. Reduction in total leuckocyte count
E. Right shift in neutrophils
41. Neutrophilia is:
A. Decreased absolute nutrophil count
B. Elevated absolute nutrophil count
C. Increased intotal leukocyte count
D. Lukamoid reaction
E. Right shift in neutophils
42. The shift to right of hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve means:
A. Hb has increased afinity for oxygen
B. Lower afinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
C. Conversion of Hb to methmoglobin
D. Failure of Hb to be oxygenated
E. Formation of deoxyhemoglobin
43. What is the average life span of platelets:
A. 4 month
 B. 1 day
C. 10 days
D. 100 days
44. Platelets are stored at temperature:
A. 2 to 8
B. 22 to 24
C. -20
D. -10
45. Which anticoagulant is used for CBC test:
A. EDTA
B. Heparin
C. Potassium Oxalate
D. Sodium citrate
46. Red cell destruction occurs after:
A. 2 months
B. 120 days
C. 150 days
D. 240 days
47. Which of the following indicates a normal WBCs count?
A. 1 million/mm3
B. 15000 /mm3
C. 10000/mm3
D. 3000/mm3
48. Which factor is deficient in classical hemophilia:
A. Factor III
B. Factor V
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor X
49. What is the site of first choice of venipuncture:
A. Basilic vein
B. Cephalic vein
C. Median cubital vein
D. Ulnar vein
50. What is the desired conc. of EDTA in blood for best results:
A. 2 mg/ml
B. 3mg/ml
C. 1.8 mg/ml
D. 1.5 mg/ml
51. Tear drop cells are seen in:
A. G6PD deficiency
B. Chronic myloid leukemia
C. Myelofibrosis
D. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
52. Beta thellasemia is diagnosed on:
A. CBC
B. Flow cytometery
C. Hb electrophoresis
D. Bone marrow examination
53. Which is the diagnostic test for circulatory iron overload:
A. Bone marrow examination
B. Liver biopsy
C. Serum ferritin
D. Serum LDH level
54. In hemophilia:
A. APTT prolonged
 B. BT prolonged
C. Low PLT count
D. PT prolonged
55. EDTA preserve celluler morphology for:
A. 2 to 3 hours
B. 5 to 10 hours
C. 3 to 4 days
D. 10 days
56. What is QA:
A. Measurment of degreeto which a product satisfies the need
B. Any systemic process used to ensure quality in the process
C. Process of identifying defects
D. It is a corrective tool
57. What of the following option is correct regarding QA and QC:
A. QC is the integral part of QA
B. QA is the integral part of QC
C. QC not depends on QA
D. Both are independent
58. What is the first step of QA:
A. Development of standards
B. Identification of customer need
C. Servicing
D. Material control
59. Which statement is true about thelassemmia:
A. There is a type of thalassemia depending on the number of mutations in genes
B. It is caused by mutations in the DNA of cells which make up the haemoglobin
C. Mild thalassemia may not need treatment
D. All of these
60. This is not the symptom of thelassemia disease:
A. Abdominal cramps
B. Weaknes and slow growth
C. Dark urine
D. Facial bone deformities
61. This type of thelassemia disease is cooley anaemia:
A. Alloimmunization
B. Beta thelassemia
C. Alpha thelassemia
D. None of these
62. Which test is performed if patient is carrier of thalassemia:
A. Prenatal testing
B. CBC
C. Retics count
D. All of these
63. Treatment that can be given to the thelassemia patients:
A. Bone marrow transplants
B. Blood transfusion
C. Iron chelation
D. All of these
64. Doctor orders the wrong test for a patient:
A. Pre analytical
B. Analytical
C. Post analytical
D. None of these
65. Phlybotomists draws blood from wrong patient:
 A. Pre analytical
B. Analytical
C. Post analytical
D. None of these
66. Lab instrument giving incorrect results due to lack of maintenance:
A. Pre analytical
B. Analytical
C. Post analytical
D. None of these
67. Lab results reporting on the wrong patient:
A. Pre analytical
B. Analytical
C. Post analytical
D. None of these
68. Label collection tube with incorrect patient information:
A. Pre analytical
B. Analytical
C. Post analytical
D. None of these
69. Wrong test was ran on a sample:
A. Pre analytical
B. Analytical
C. Post analytical
D. None of these
70. Critical values not reported:
A. Pre analytical
B. Analytical
C. Post analytical
D. None of these
71. Which of the following blood cells play an important role in blood clotting:
A. Thrombocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Leucocytes
D. Erythrocytes
72. Serum differs from blood as it lacks:
A. Ab
B. Clotting factor
C. Alb
D. Glb
73. Which of the following id correct:
A. Serum contain blood and fibrinogen
B. Plasma is blood without lymphocytes
C. Blood comprises plasma, RBC, WBC, PLT
D. Lymph is plasma with RBC and WBC
74. Plasma protein is responsible for blood coagulation:
A. Fibrinogen
B. Glb
C. Amy
D. Alb
75. DNA is not present in:
A. An enucleated ovum
B. Hair root
C. Mature spermatozoa
D. Mature RBCs
76. Glb of blood plasma is responsible for?
 A. Defence mechanism
B. Blood clotting
C. Oxygen transport
D. Osmotic balance
77. Lymph differ from blood in having:
A. No plasma
B. More RBCs and less WBCs
C. More WBCs and no RBCs
D. Plasma without protein
78. WBCs which release heparin and histamin:
A. Basophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Monocyte
D. Eosinophil
79. The most abundant granulocyte in human blood is:
A. Neutrophils
B. Monocytes
C. Basophil
D. Eosinophil
80. Which type of WBCs has S type of nucleus:
A. Eosinophil
B. Basophil
C. Monocyte
D. Neutrophil
81. Which statement is true for WBCs
A. Produced in thymus
B. Non nucleated
C. In deficiency cancer is caused
D. Can squeeze through blood capillaries
82. Erythropoitin is formed in:
A. Kidney
B. Spleen
C. Red bone marrow
D. Liver
83. Megakaryocytes give rise to:
A. Erythrocyte
B. Agranulocyte
C. Granulocyte
D. Thrombocytes
84. The formation of erythrocyte in foetus takes place in:
A. Liver and spleen
B. Red bone marrow
C. Blood plasma
D. All of these
85. In a healthy adult man the common type of leukocyte are:
A. Lymphocyte
B. Basophil
C. Eosinophil
D. All of these
86. The production of RBCs in the bone marrow is regulated by:
A. Renin
B. Rennin
C. Erythropoitin
D. Calcium
87. BT CT introduced in 1900 by:
 A. Duke
B. Albert
C. Malsea
D. None of these
88. For BT standardized insicion is made on:
A. Biceps
B. Triceps
C. Forearm
D. None of these
89. Platelets has receptors on:
A. Endothelial surface
B. Sub Endothelial Surface
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
90. Name of receptors for platelets are:
A. Von Wilbrand Factors
B. Factor V
C. Valline factor
D. None of these
91. How many methods of BT CT used now a days:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
92. We use BP apparatus in which method:
A. Dukes method
B. Ivys method
C. Copley method
D. All od these
93. The pressure of BP apparatus should be:
A. 30 mm of Hg
B. 40 mm of Hg
C. 50 MM of Hg
D. None of these
94. In which method we use ear loob for samplinf of BT:
A. Dukes method
B. Ivys method
C. Lalitch method
D. None of these
95. In which method we use the finger of a patient for note the bleeding time?
A. Dukes method
B. Ivys method
C. Lalitch method
D. None of these
96. Normal bleeding time is:
A. 2 to 7 min
B. 5 50 10 min
C. 10 to 15 min
D. 15 to 20 min
97. Normal clotting time is:
A. 5 to 10 min
B. 8 to 15 min
C. 12 to 17 sec
D. None of these
98. Shrunken red cells with pointed projections over cell surface are called as:
 A. Acanthocytes
B. Sickel cells
C. Echinthocytes
D. Schistocytes
99. Basophilic stipling of red blood cells is a characteristic feature of:
A. Lead poisoning
B. Idiopathic purpura
C. Acute myloid leukemia
D. Chronic myloid leukemia
100. All of the following can be seen in PF except:
A. Microfilaria
B. MP
C. Leishmania donovani
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
101. Hb H inclusions are seen in:
A. G6PD deficiency
B. Sickel cell anemia
C. Beta thelassemia
D. Alpha thelassemia
102. All of the following are romanowsky stains except:
A. Giemsa stain
B. Leishman stain
C. Field stain
D. Hemotoxylin stain
103. Tear drop cells are seen in:
A. Mylofibrosis
B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
C. G6PD deficiency
D. Chronic myloid leukemia
104. Schistocytes are:
A. RBCs with schizonts
B. Fragmented RBCs
C. RBCs with MP
D. Smaller RBCs without central pallor
105. Howell jolly bodies are seen in:
A. TB
B. Hemophilia
C. Septicemia
D. megaloblastic anemia
106. In leishman staining procedure after the undiluted stain is added, waiting for 2 mint before pouring
buffered water is:
A. For smear staining
B. For smear fixation
C. To clean background plasma
D. For smear to stain uniformly
107. Macro ovalocytes are seen in:
A. Megaloblastic Anemia
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Sidroblastic anemia
D. Aplastic anemia
108. The fixative present in leishman stain is:
A. Aceton free methanol
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Buffered formalin
D. 10% formalin
109. An 18 year old Swedish girl presents with jaundice and anemia. Laboratory studies are significant for
a decreased mean cell volume (MCV), an increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC),
and an increase in osmotic fragility of the red blood cells. Red blood cells on peripheral blood smear (PBS)
are most likely to be:
A. Schistocytes
B. Spherocytes
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
110. A 52-year-old woman suffers from an acute onset of normocytic, normochromic anemia,
hemoglobinuria, hemosiderinuria, and jaundice accompanied by a decreased serum haptoglobin. What is the
most likely cause of this patient's findings?
A. Hemolysis
B. Iron deficiency
C. Inediquate RBC production
D. Hemorrhage
111. 17-year-old black male has a history of severe lifelong anemia requiring many blood transfusions. He
has non-healing leg ulcers and recurrent episodes of abdominal and chest pain. These signs and symptoms
are most likely associated with which one of the following laboratory abnormalities?
A. Positive RBC sucrose hemolysis test
B. Positive RBC osmotic fragility test
C. Positive direct coombs test
D. Increased hmoglobin s on electrophoresis
112. A 33-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital for a hysterectomy to control excessive uterine
bleeding. Her Hgb was 7.4 gmjdL, hematocrit was 23% and red blood cell count was 2 millionjmm3. The
most likely cause of her anemia is
A. Bone marrow failure
B. Chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia
C. Acute blood loss and iron deficiency
D. Hemolysis and iron deficiency
113. In a 34-year-old patient with a hemoglobin of 5.2 gjdL, a smooth and sore tongue, and spooning of
the fingernails, the most likely red blood cell ind ices would be
A. Macrocytic indices
B. Normocytic indices
C. Microcytic and hypochromic indices
D. None of these
114. A 30 year old man with Hodgkin's Lymphoma is hospitalized with a fever and infection . Physical
exam reveals a pale thin man with lymphadenopathy and spenolmegaly. His laboratory data show a low
serum iron, low serum iron binding capacity, low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration and low
mean cell volume. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Myelophthisic anemia
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Iron deficiency anemia
115. A 65-year-old man with vague symptoms, fatigue and weight loss has a Hb=8 and Hct=24. His PBS
shows hypochromic microcytic RBCS. His reticulocyte count is low. Which of the following would be most
helpful in establishing a diagnosis?
A. DCT
B. Indirect coombs test
C. Hb electrophoresis
D. Digital rectal exam and stool guaiac test
116. A 54-year-old woman who was being treated for hypertension with alpha methyldopa presented with
malaise and generalized weakness. Her Hb=8 and Hct=24. Her corrected reticulocyte count and RDW are
both increased. Spherocytes is seen on peripheral smear. Which of the following is the best test to order to
help confirm the diagnosis?
A. Indirect coombs test
B. Direct coombs test
C. Bone marrow examination
D. None of these
117. A 24-year-old woman presents with epistaxis.' Her physical exam reveals moderate splenomegaly. Her
platelet count is significantly decreased, but her red and white blood cells are within normal limits. What is
the next best step that should be done in the evaluation of this patient?
A. BT
B. CT
C. Bone marrow biopsy
D. CBC
118. A coagulation consult is requested for an asymptomatic patient who has had a surgery six days
previously and a prolonged hospital course requiring intravenous antibiotics. Her PT & PTT are both
prolonged. Mixing studies with normal plasma show that both PT and PTT are completely corrected. Which
of the following coagulation factors is most likely to be decreased?
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor X
C. Factor VII
D. None of these
119. Which of the following conditions is associated with the most severe serum hepatoglobin depletion?
A. Intravascular Haemolysis
B. Chronic blood loss
C. Extravascular hemolysis
D. Acute blood loss
120. In a patient with normocytic normochromic anemia, which of the following is the earl iest laboratory
sign indicating iron deficiency?
A. Decreased serum iron
B. Decresed serum tranferin
C. Increased serum tranferin
D. Decreased serum ferritin
121. The characteristic of morphological features in folic deficiency is
a) Macrocytosis
b) Target cells
c) Basophilic stippling
d) Rouleaux formation
122. Megaloblastic asynchronous development in the bone marrow indicates which one of the following:
a) Proliferation of erythrocyte precursor
b) Impaired synthesis of DNA
c) In ediquate production of erythropoitin
d) Deficiency of G6PD

123. Charactristic morphological feature of hemoglobin C disease is

a) Macrocytosis
b) Spherocytosis
c) Rouleaux formation
d) Target cells

124. lab finding of spherocytosis include

a) Decresed WBCs
b) Decreased RBC band 3 protein
c) Reticulocytopenia
d) Positive direct globulin test
125. Porphyrin ring in hemoglobin molecule contain which atom in their centers.
a) Mg
b) Fe
c) H
d) Ni

126. Hemoglobing is an iron containing pigment known as heam and it is attached with the globin blongs to class of
a) Lipid
b) WBC
c) Protein
d) Cell

127. In haemoglobin, globin is produced in

a) Mitochondria
b) Ribosome
c) Chromosome
d) Golgi apparatus

128. The colour of haemoglobin pigment is

a) Brown
b) Red
c) Green
d) Blue

129. The haemoglobin is found exclusively in

a) RBCs
b) WBCs
c) DNA
d) RNA

130. In red cells of patients with diabetes mellitus have seen increased amount of
a) HbA2
b) HbA1
c) HbF
d) HbA1C

131. Which globin chain is the non-covalently bound to globin chain of Hb and transport carbon dioxide in the blood
a) Oxyhemoglobin
b) Deoxyhemoglobin
c) Carbaminohemoglobin
d) Methemoglobin

132. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is

a) 44450
b) 54450
c) 64450
d) 74450

133. The porphyrin are cyclic compounds formed through methylene bridge by the linkage of pyrrole ring number
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

134. Total number of amino acid in globin is

a) 544
b) 554
c) 564
d) 574

135. Carboxyhemoglobin is formed by

a) CO
b) Co2
c) HCO3
d) HCN

136. Methemoglobin is formed as a result of the oxidation of hemoglobin by oxidizing agent

a) Oxygen of air
b) H2O2
c) Ptassium Fericyanide
 d) Potassium permanganate

137. What is the specificity of cold auto agglutinin disease

a) Anti I
b) Anti h
c) Anti Pr
d) Anti i

138. Which of the following is not associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic

purpura?
A. Thrombosis
B. thrombocytopenia
C. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
D. neurologic deficits
E. renal failure

139. A patient who is suspected of having acute viral hemorrhagic fever reveals
history of tick bite. Which of the following is the most possible causative?
agent?
A. Hantavirus
B. Rift Valley virus
C. Crimean Congo virus
D. Marburg virus
E. Ross River virus

140. Which of the following is false regarding heparin?

A. Subcutaneous injection of heparin is avoided because of hematomas
formation.
B. Heparin is usually stored in the mast cells.
C. Heparin binds to plasma anti thrombin III and inhibits activated thrombin.
D. Protamine sulfate can be used to counteract heparin overdose.

141. Which of the following requires IL-2 and IL-4 in the conversion of unilineage progenitor cell into
mature circulating cell ?
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. T lymphocytes
D. B lymphocyte

142. The mean cell volume of the patient is 90 fl and the reticulocyte production
index is low. Which of the following is the most possible cause of anemia in
this patient ?
A. thalassemia
B. vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Aplastic Anemia
D. sideroblastic anemia

143. A patient is presented with weakness of legs, arms, trunk, tingling and
numbness that progressively worsens. Peripheral blood smear shows
macrocytic anemia. Which of the following is not the factor causing this
condition ?
A. Chronic atrophic gastritis
B. Ileal resection
C. Tapeworm infestation
D. Alcoholism
144. Which of the following is not a good prognostic factor in patient with acute
lymphoblastic leukemia ?
A. Immunophenotype – mature B cell
B. Gender – female
C. Chromosomal number – hyperploidy
D. Age – 4 to 10 years old

145. A patient is suffered from vitamin K deficiency. Which of the coagulation

factors will not be affected ?
A. Factor II
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX

146. A 30 year old patient had presented with fever and posterior cervical
lympadenopathy over the past two years. Which is the most probably causative
organism ?
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
C. Trypanosoma Bucei Gambiense
D. Leishmania donovanr
147. A 40 year old patient is presented with unilateral palpebral edema and
ipsilateral lymphadenopathy. He later develops megaesophagus and megacolon
as complications. Which of the following vector is responsible for this parasitic
infection ?
A. Glossina morsitans
B. Ixodes scapularis
C. Rhodnius prolixus
D. Simulium damnosum

148. A patient shows prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial

thromboplastin time. Blood test otherwise is normal. Which of the following is
the most probably diagnosis for this patient’s condition ?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Von Wille brand factor disease
D. Vitamin K deficiency

149. Which of the following will be present in chronic bacterial infection ?

A. Neutrophilia
B. Basophilia
C. Lymphocytosis
D. M o n o c y t o s i s

150. Which of the following subtypes of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is common in young

women and has good prognosis ?
A. Nodular sclerosis
B. Mixed cellularity
C. Lymphocyte predominance
D. Lymphocyte depletion

151. Which of the following is not the criteria in the international prognostic index
for non Hodgkin’s lymphoma ?
A. Number of extranodal sites
B. LDH level
C. Lymphocyte count
D. Performance status

152. Which of the following is the most suitable anti-malarial drug for pregnant
women ?
A. Atovaquone and proguanil
B. Quinine and doxycycline
C. Quinine and clindamycin
D. Primaquine
153. The typical Reed-Sternberg cells are either infrequent or absent. Instead,
lymphocytic and histiocytic cells or "popcorn cells" are seen within a
background of inflammatory cells, which are predominantly benign
lymphocytes. Which type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma best suit the description ?
A. Nodular sclerosis
B. Mixed cellularity
C. Lymphocyte depleted
D. Lymphocyte Predominance

154. Which of the following is false regarding Burkitt’s lymphoma ?

A. Associated with translocation of c-myc gene on chromosome 18
B.Usually presents with abdominal involvement in HIV patients
 C. Common in Africa children due to Epstein Barr infection after malaria
exposure.
D. Histologically characterized by a "starry sky" appearance

155. A patient is presented with fever, vomiting, hypotension and facial edema after
his business trip back from Africa. Viral hemorrhagic fever is suspected in this
patient. Which of the following family does the suspected virus belong to ?
A. Filovirus
B. Togavirus
C. Adenavirus
D. Bunyavirus

156. A patient is presented with pallor, fatigue and dyspnea. Physical examination
shows koilonychias and angular cheilosis. Which of the following is not
expected in the laboratory finding of this patient ?
A. Low total iron binding capacity
B. High serum transferrin
C. Low iron: total iron binding capacity ratio
D. Low serum ferritin

157. A patient who is infected with hookworms produces signs and symptoms of
anemia. Which of the following can be seen in the peripheral blood smear of?
the patient ?
A. Howell Jolly bodies
B. Basophilic stippling
C. Target Cells
D. Spherocytes
158. A patient is presented with pallor, fatigue and dyspnea. Physical examination
shows koilonychias and angular cheilosis. Which of the following is not?
expected in the laboratory finding of this patient ?
A. Low Total Iron Binding Capacity
B. High serum transferrin
C. Low iron: total iron binding capacity ratio

159. A patient who is infected with hookworms produces signs and symptoms of
anemia. Which of the following can be seen in the peripheral blood smear of?
the patient ?
A. Howell Jolly bodies
B. Basophilic stippling
C. Target Cells
D. Spherocytes
160. NADPH is a product of the hexose monophosphate pathyway (HMP) in the red

a.Synthesis of fatty acids

B.Reduction Of Gluthathione
c.Formation of ATP
d.Removal of oxygen radicals

161. Mr XY was found to be anaemia. During history taking, he informed his doctor
that he was a strict vegetarian who did not consume any meat, fish of milk
products.
a.Iron deficiency
B.Vitamin B12 Deficiency
c.Defects in erythropoietin production
d.Calcium-deficiency
162. Koilonychias is a specific features of
a.Haemolytic anaemia
b.Sickle cell disease
c.Thalassaemia major
D.Iron Deficiency Anaemia
e.B12 deficiency anaemia
163. After seven days of treatment with sulfonamides a patient’s haemoglobin had
decreased from 14.7 gm/100ml to 10gm/100ml. The most likely cause of
hemolysis in this patient is
a.Sickle cell disease
b.Thalassemia minor
c.Hereditary spherocytosis
D.Glucose 6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency (G6PD)
e.Coombs positive haemolytic anaemia

164. Spherocytosis is a common cause of inherited haemolytic anaemia. The most

likely cause for spherocytosis is
a.Abnormal antigenic properties of the integral proteins of the cell membrane
b.Defects in the Peripheral Proteins
c.Increased formation of rolealux
d.Formation of sickle shaped cells
e.Decrease in the size of the red blood cells
165. A 50 year old male who had frequent infections of his upper respiratory tract

Investigations revealed low haemoglobin and a dry tap marrow. The most
likely condition the patient is suffering from
a.Iron deficiency anaemia
b.Megaloblastic anaemia
C.Haemolytic Anaemia
d.Aplastic anaemia

166. Oral iron supplements are given for iron deficiency aneamia. Which of the

a.Absorption occurs in the large intestine

b.Intrinsic factor is necessary for the iron absorption
c.Ascorbic acids reduces iron absorption
d.Absorption is increased in hereditary haemochromatosis
E.Absorption Is Better In the Ferrous Form Than In Ferric Form

167. Bone marrow responds to iron therapy by increasing erythropoietic activity.

Which of the following in bone marrow would most likely indicate erythropoiesis?
a.Myelocytes
b.Reticulocytes
c.Ring siderblasts
d.Target cells
e.Megakaryoblasts

168. Graft versus host disease is a complication of transfusion in patients of bone

marrow transplantation. This can be best avoided by
a.Transfusion of packed cells
B.Irradiating the Blood Components Before Transfusion
c.Transfusing fresh whole blood
d.Replacement by crystalloids
e.Getting close relatives to donate blood
169. A 36 year old woman presented with weakness, lassitude and feeling easily tired.
Her bone marrow aspirate showed 15% myeloblasts and reduced erythropoiesis. The
most likely cause is
a.Acute myeloid leukaemia
b.Acute lymphoid leukaemia
c.Myelofibrosis
D.Myelodysplastic Syndrome
e.Chronic myeloid leukaemia

170. Myelodysplastic syndromes are a group of clonal stem cell disorders. Which of
the following type has the poorest prognosis according to the FAB system of
classifications?
a.Refractory anaemia (RA)
b.RA with ring siderblasts
c.RA with excess blasts
d.RA with excess blasts in transformation
E.Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukaemia

171. RBCs break into fragments, they are referred to as schistocytes. These type of
cells are seen in
a. Thalassaemia
B. Microangiopahtic Haemolytic Anaemia
c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
d. Gilbert’s syndrome

172. A 72 year old male with enlargement of superficial lymph nodes and mild
hepatosplenomegaly is diagnosed as having chronic lymphatic leukaemia
(CLL). The most important criteria for diagnosis of this disease is the
a.Presence of hypogammaglobulinaemia
B.Absolute Lymphocytosis
c.Male predominance
d.Presence of enlarged lymph nodes
e.Absence of blasts in blood smear

173. Dophle bodies are patches of dilated endoplasmic reticulum that appear as
cerulean blue cytoplasmic puddles.
These finding are mostly seen in
a. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
B. Leukaemoid Reaction
c. Chediak higashi syndrome
d. Infectious mononucleosis
e. Granulocytosis

174. A peripheral blood smear showing increase in numbers of neutrophils, band

cells, basophils, eosinophils and platelets is most suggestive
a.Acute myeloid leukaemia
b.Active lymphoid leukaemia
c.Chronic myelocyctic leukaemia
D.The LAP Score Is High
e.The myeloid erythroid ratio is reserved

175. The following pathological features is true regarding non-Hodgkin lymphoma

(NHL)
a.Classical Reed Sternberg (RS) cells are neoplastic cells
 B.B Cell Phenotype Is More Common
c.Contiguous group of lymph nodes are affected
d.It is not associated with leukaemic phase of disease
e.Ann Arbor staging is performed
176. A peripheral blood smear showing increase in numbers of neutrophils, band

most suggestive
a.Acute myeloid leukaemia
b.Acute lymphoid leukaemia
C. Chronic Myelocytic Leukaemia
d. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
e. Hairy cell leukaemia

a) Platelet aggregation is an important event in haemostasis. Which of the following statement is true
for platelet aggregation in vascular injury?
a.There will be initial vasodilation
b.Clotting factors play no role in its formation
C.Platelets Change Their Shape During The Process
d.Serotonin stimulates platelet aggregation
177. Hepatin is an anticoagulant produced by the basophils. The most likely
mechanism hepatin prevents blood clotting is by
a.Inhibiting the formation of vitamin K dependent clotting factors
b.Preventing the activation of platelets
c.Preventing the aggregation of platelets
d.Binding to antithrombin III to inactivate thrombin
e.Activating tissue plasminogen activator
178. The main vector transmitting malaria in Sabah is Anopheles balabacensis. This
vector breeds in
a.Artificial containers in urban centres
b.Drains
c.Temporary collecting of water in jungles
d.Rock pools in control areas
e.Water sands
179. Artemisinin and its derivatives are used in the treatment of severe forms of
chloroquine resista
a.
b. The ability to prevent further development of hypnozoites
c.
d.
e. Ability to prevent the development of rings to gametocytes

180. In the laboratory diagnosis of leishmoniasis, the expected parasite stage in vitro
is
a.Amastigote
b.Promastigote
c.Trypamastigote

181. The vector of visceral leishmoniasis has geographical variations. In the Asian
region the main vector is
A.Phlebotamus Species
b.Lutzomyia species
c.Anopheles species
d.Mansonia species
e.Leptothrombidium
182. Dengue is a common vector born disease prevalent in tropical countries. Which
of the following statement is true for dengue fever?
a.It is caused by a DNA virus
b.The vector once infected with the virus remains infective for life
c.The vector prefers polluted water for propagation
d.Joint symptoms are commoner in dengue fever compared to chikungunya

183. What’s the most appropriate test to diagnose haemophilia?

a. Prothrombin time
b. Bleeding time
c. Partial Thromboplastin Time
d. Platelet count
184. Pernicious anemia is a rare blood disorder characterized by
A. The inability of the body to properly utilize vitamin B12
B. Lack of wbcs
C. Lack of plt
D. All of these
185. Vit B 12 is essential for the development of
A. Rbcs
B. Wbcs
C. Plt
D. None of these
186. Vit B 12 can’t be absorb without which of the following gastric protein:
A. Intrinsic factor
B. Extrinsic factor
C. Specific factor
D. Facto X
187. a group of blood disorders characterized by an impaired ability of the bone marrow to produce normal
red blood cells
A. SICKEL cell anemia
B. Thellasemia
C. Sidroblastic anemia
D. All of these
188. Thellasemia with one mutated gene is called
A. Minor thellasemia
B. Beta thellasemia
C. Both a and b
D. none of these
189. Thellasemia with 2 mutated genes are called
A. Major thellasemia
B. Colleys anemia
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
190. Alpha thellasemia is caused by
A. Reduced or absent synthesis of alpha globin chains
B. Incresed Plt
C. Wbcs
D. Decresed plt
191. Beta thellasemia is caused by
A. Reduced or absent synthesis of beta globin chains
B. Incresed PLT
C. Reduced wbc
D. Reduced mcv
192. The absolute count is the percentage of eosinophils
A. Multiplied by your white blood cell count
B. Divide by RBCs
 C. Divide by WBCs
D. All of these
193. Neutrophilia causes
A. Acute bacterial infection
B. Parasitic infection
C. Cardiac disease
D. All of these
194. Which stain is used to stain retics slide
A. Brilliant cresyle blue
B. Methylene blue N
C. ZN
D. A or b
195. the production of all of the cellular components of blood and blood plasma
A. Hematopoisis
B. Homiostasis
C. Hemostasis
D. None of these
196. Site of hemopoesis in fetous in first 2 months
A. Yolk sac
B. Liver
C. Bone marrow
D. All of these
197. Site of hematopoesis in infants
A. Bone marrow
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. None of these

RBC inclusion which may be seen in PF

198. Site of hematopoesis in adult

A. Vertebrae
B. Ribs, sternum, pelvis
C. Femur, skull, sacrum
 D. All of these

RBC morphology with causes and abnormality

Megaloblastic anaemia: peripheral blood film showing oval macrocytes.

H ereditary spherocytosis

hereditary elliptocytosis
α‐Thalassaemia: haemoglobin H disease (three α‐globin gene deletion). The blood film shows marked
hypochromic, microcytic cells with target cells and poikilocytosis.

α‐Thalassaemia: haemoglobin H disease. Supravital staining with brilliant cresyl blue reveals
multiple fine, deeply stained deposits (‘golf ball’ cells) caused by precipitation of aggregates of
β‐globin chains. Hb H can also be detected as a fast‐moving band on haemoglobin electrophoresis
Blood film in β‐thalassaemia major post‐splenectomy. There are hypochromic cells, target cells and
many nucleated red cells (normoblasts). Howell–Jolly bodies are seen in same red cells.

Sickle cell anaemia: peripheral blood film showing deeply staining sickle cells, target cells and
polychromasia
White blood cells (leucocytes): (a) neutrophil (polymorph); (b) eosinophil; (c) basophil; (d) monocyte;
(e) lymphocyte.

199. The thalassemias are a group of inherited hematologic disorders caused by defects in the synthesis of
A. One Or More Of The Hemoglobin Chains
B. Rbc
C. Wbc
D. Plt