Leadership & Management in Nursing NCLEX Challenge Exam

(Quiz #1: 40 Questions)

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1. Question 1 point(s)
Ms. Caputo is newly promoted to a patient care manager position. She updates her knowledge on the theories in
management and leadership in order to become effective in her new role. She learns that some managers have low
concern for services and high concern for staff. Which style of management refers to this?

A. Organization Management
Incorrect
 B. Impoverished Management
Correct answer
C. Country Club Management

D. Team Management

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Country Club Management
Country club management style puts concern for the staff as the number one priority at the expense of the
delivery of services. He/she runs the department just like a country club where everyone is happy including the
manager. This leadership style assumes that if people are happy in their job, they will naturally work harder.
Option A: Organization management binds the employees together and gives them a sense of loyalty towards
the organization. Organization management enables the optimum use of resources through meticulous
planning and control at the workplace. Organization management gives a sense of direction to the employees.
 The individuals are well aware of their roles and responsibilities and know what they are supposed to do in the
organization.
Option B: The impoverished leader has the least concern for people and for production. This leader has no
system of getting work done, nor is the work environment satisfying or motivating for employees. This leader’s
low interest in the work and the work environment results in disorganized work, dissatisfied employees, and a
lack of harmony.
Option D: Team management is the ability of an individual or an organization to administer and coordinate a
group of individuals to perform a task. Team management involves teamwork, communication, objective
setting, and performance appraisals.
2. Question 1 point(s)
Her former manager demonstrated passion for serving her staff rather than being served. She takes time to listen,
prefers to be a teacher first before being a leader, which is characteristic of:

A. Transformational leader

B. Transactional leader
Correct answer
C. Servant leader
Incorrect
 D. Charismatic leader

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Servant leader
Servant leaders are open-minded, listen deeply, try to fully understand others, and not being judgmental. Servant
leadership is a leadership philosophy in which the goal of the leader is to serve. A servant leader shares power
puts the needs of the employees first and helps people develop and perform as highly as possible. Servant
leadership inverts the norm, which puts the customer service associates as the main priority.
Option A: Transformational leadership is a leadership style that can inspire positive changes in those who
follow. Transformational leaders are generally energetic, enthusiastic, and passionate. Not only are these
leaders concerned and involved in the process; they are also focused on helping every member of the group
succeed as well.
Option B: A transactional leader is someone who values order and structure. They are likely to command
military operations, manage large corporations, or lead international projects that require rules and regulations
to complete objectives on time or move people and supplies in an organized way. Transactional leaders are not
a good fit for places where creativity and innovative ideas are valued.
Option D: The charismatic leadership style relies on the charm and persuasiveness of the leader. Charismatic
leaders are driven by their convictions and commitment to their cause. Charismatic leaders also are sometimes
called transformational leaders because they share multiple similarities. Their main difference is focus and
audience. Charismatic leaders often try to make the status quo better, while transformational leaders focus on
transforming organizations into the leader’s vision.

3. Question 1 point(s)
On the other hand, Ms. Caputo notices that the Chief Nurse Executive has a charismatic leadership style. Which of the
following behaviors best describes this style?

A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers get attracted to him and regard him with Correct
reverence.
B. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior will yield positive results.

C. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership.

 D. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand.

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted to him and regards
him with reverence.
Charismatic leaders make the followers feel at ease in their presence. They feel that they are in good hands
whenever the leader is around. The charismatic leadership style relies on the charm and persuasiveness of the
leader. Charismatic leaders are driven by their convictions and commitment to their cause.
Option B: The impoverished leader has the least concern for people and for production. This leader has no
system of getting work done, nor is the work environment satisfying or motivating for employees. This leader’s
low interest in the work and the work environment results in disorganized work, dissatisfied employees, and a
lack of harmony.
Option C: In the transformational leadership style, the leader inspires his or her followers with a vision and then
encourages and empowers them to achieve it. The leader also serves as a role model for the vision.
Option D: With situational leadership, it is up to the leader to change his style, not the follower to adapt to the
leader’s style. In situational leadership, the style may change continually to meet the needs of others in the
organization based on the situation.

4. Question 1 point(s)
Which of the following conclusions of Ms. Caputo about leadership characteristics is true?

 A. There is a high correlation between the communication skills of a leader and the ability to get the job Incorrect
done.

B. A manager is effective when he has the ability to plan well.

Correct answer
C. Assessment of personality traits is a reliable tool for predicting a manager’s potential.

D. There is good evidence that certain personal qualities favor success in a managerial role.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Assessment of personality traits is a reliable tool for predicting a manager’s potential.
It is not conclusive that certain qualities of a person would make him become a good manager. It can only predict
a manager’s potential of becoming a good one. Successful leaders tend to have certain traits. Two keys areas of
personal growth and development are fundamental to leadership success: self-confidence and a positive attitude.
Option A: A true leader communicates with their team to keep them updated and show that they are valued.
They will be the ones intentionally learning more, challenging themselves and others, improving the workplace
environment and work ethics, and encouraging teams to achieve goals.
Option B: True leaders seek to improve themselves and their work ethics. They accept challenges as
opportunities to grow, and they’re eager to learn new skills. Leaders are responsible for ensuring the
organization gets value from the time allocated to accomplish business tasks.
Option D: Assessment tools vary in what they examine and the depth of the questions. There are personality,
leadership skills, and behavioral assessments. Before choosing a tool, one should make sure that it will test for
the specific skills one wants in a leader.

5. Question 1 point(s)
She reads about Path-Goal theory. Which of the following behaviors is manifested by the leader who uses this theory?
Correct answer
A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations.
Incorrect
 B. Challenges the staff to take individual accountability for their own practice.
 C. Admonishes staff for being laggards.

D. Reminds staff about the sanctions for non-performance.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations
The path-Goal theory according to House and associates rewards good performance so that others would do the
same. The path-goal theory states that a leader’s behavior is contingent on the satisfaction, motivation, and
performance of their employees. The manager’s job is viewed as guiding workers to choose the best paths to
reach both their goals as well as the corporation’s goals.
Option B: It is the leader’s job to assist followers in attaining goals and to provide the direction and support
needed to ensure that their goals are compatible with the organization’s goals. Path–goal theory assumes that
leaders are flexible and that they can change their style, as situations require.
Option C: The fourth theory is the transformational leadership theory, which suggests that good leaders are
those able to stimulate, transform, and use the values, beliefs, and needs of their followers to accomplish
tasks.
Option D: Providing employees with the necessary tools to resolve issues in the workplace will ensure
organizational success is not hindered. Effective leadership not only guides employees in the right direction
towards their goals but also requires leaders to assist in the identification of goals and objectives from the get-
go.

6. Question 1 point(s)
One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and not made,” which refers to which of the following theories?

A. Trait
Incorrect
 B. Charismatic
Correct answer
C. Great Man

D. Situational

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Great Man
Leaders become leaders because of their birthright. This is also called Genetic theory or the Aristotelian theory.
This quote sums up the basic tenet of the Great Man theory of leadership, which suggests that the capacity for
leadership is innate. According to this theory, you’re either a natural-born leader or you’re not. The term “Great
Man” was used because, at the time, ?leadership was thought of primarily as a male quality, especially in terms of
military leadership.
Option A: According to trait leadership theory, effective leaders have in common a pattern of personal
characteristics that support their ability to mobilize others toward a shared vision. These traits include
dimensions of personality and motives, sets of skills and capabilities, and behavior in social relationships.
Option B: Charismatic leadership is a trait-based leadership theory where the leaders act as visionary driven
by their convictions and motivate their followers to work towards a common vision using their charm and
persuasiveness. Leaders are able to cultivate a profound sense of trust with the group of followers.
Option D: The situational theory of leadership refers to those leaders who adopt different leadership styles
according to the situation and the development level of their team members. It is an effective way of leadership
because it adapts to the team’s needs and sets a beneficial balance for the whole organization.

7. Question 1 point(s)
She came across a theory which states that the leadership style is effective depends on the situation. Which of the
following styles best fits a situation when the followers are self-directed, experts, and are matured A.
Democraticindividuals?

A. Democratic
Incorrect
 B. Authoritarian
Correct answer
C. Laissez-faire

D. Bureaucratic

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Laissez faire
Laissez-faire leadership is preferred when the followers know what to do and are experts in the field. This
leadership style is relationship-oriented rather than task-centered. This kind of leadership is very hands-off—
managers trust their employees and are confident in their abilities. They give guidance and take responsibility
where needed, but this leadership style means that subordinates and team members have the real lead.
Option A: Democratic leadership, also known as participative leadership or shared leadership, is a type of
leadership style in which members of the group take a more participative role in the decision-making process.
This type of leadership can apply to any organization, from private businesses to schools to the government.
Option B: Authoritarian leadership, also known as autocratic leadership, is a management style in which an
individual has total decision-making power and absolute control over his subordinates. Leaders make decisions
with little or no participation or creative input from their followers or team members.
Option D: Bureaucratic leadership refers to organizational leadership through a highly formalized set of
processes, procedures, and structures. Here, rules, policies, and hierarchies form a clear set of expectations
as well as an explicit chain of command.

8. Question 1 point(s)
She surfs the internet for more information about leadership styles. She reads about shared leadership as a practice in
some magnet hospitals. Which of the following describes this style of leadership?

A. Leadership behavior is generally determined by the relationship between the leader’s personality andIncorrect
the
specific situation.


B. Leaders believe that people are basically good and need not be closely controlled.

C. Leaders rely heavily on visioning and inspire members to achieve results.

Correct answer
D. Leadership is shared at the point of care.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Leadership is shared at the point of care.
Shared governance allows the staff nurses to have the authority, responsibility, and accountability for their own
practice. Shared leadership is the practice of governing a school by expanding the number of people involved in
making important decisions related to the school’s organization, operation, and academics. In practice, shared
leadership may be defined differently from school to school, and it may take a wide variety of forms.
Option A: The situational theory of leadership refers to those leaders who adopt different leadership styles
according to the situation and the development level of their team members. It is an effective way of leadership
because it adapts to the team’s needs and sets a beneficial balance for the whole organization.
Option B: The laissez-faire leadership style is at the opposite end of the autocratic style. Of all the leadership
styles, this one involves the least amount of oversight. While it’s beneficial to give people opportunities to
 spread their wings, with a total lack of direction, people may unwittingly drift in the wrong direction—away from
the critical goals of the organization.
Option C: In the transformational leadership style, the leader inspires his or her followers with a vision and then
encourages and empowers them to achieve it. The leader also serves as a role model for the vision.
9. Question 1 point(s)
Ms. Caputo learns that some leaders are transactional leaders. Which of the following does not characterize a
transactional leader?

A. Focuses on management tasks.

B. Is a caretaker.
Incorrect
 C. Uses trade-offs to meet goals.
Correct answer
D. Inspires others with vision.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Inspires others with vision.
Inspires others with a vision is characteristic of a transformational leader. He is focused more on the day-to-day
operations of the department/unit. Transactional leadership depends on self-motivated people who work well in a
structured, directed environment. By contrast, transformational leadership seeks to motivate and inspire workers,
choosing to influence rather than direct others.
Option A: A transactional leader is someone who values order and structure. They are likely to command
military operations, manage large corporations, or lead international projects that require rules and regulations
to complete objectives on time or move people and supplies in an organized way.
Option B: Transactional leadership focuses on results, conforms to the existing structure of an organization,
and measures success according to that organization’s system of rewards and penalties. Transactional leaders
have formal authority and positions of responsibility in an organization.
Option C: This type of leader sets the criteria for their workers according to previously defined requirements.
Performance reviews are the most common way to judge employee performance. Transactional, or managerial,
leaders work best with employees who know their jobs and are motivated by the reward-penalty system. The
status quo of an organization is maintained through transactional leadership.

10. Question 1 point(s)

She finds out that some managers have a benevolent-authoritative style of management. Which of the following
behaviors will she exhibit most likely?
Correct
 A. Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates.

B. Gives economic or ego awards.

C. Communicates downward to the staff.

D. Allows decision-making among subordinates.

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates.
Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show their trust and confidence to their followers. In
Benevolent-Autocratic Leadership Style, the manager has condescending confidence and trust in subordinates,
 motivates with rewards and some punishments, permits some upward communication, solicits some ideas and
opinions from subordinates, and allows some delegation of decision making but with close policy control.
Option B: The benevolent authoritative system uses less control over employees than the exploitative
authoritative system, however, this system motivates employees through potential punishment and rewards.
Option C: The responsibility lies at the managerial levels but not at the lower levels of the organizational
hierarchy. The superior has condescending confidence and trust in subordinates (master-servant relationship).
Option D: In participative leadership, the responsibility for achieving the organizational goals is widespread
throughout the organizational hierarchy. There is a high level of confidence that the superior has in his
subordinates. There is a high level of teamwork, communication, and participation.
11. Question 1 point(s)
Henry is a Unit Manager I the Medical Unit. He is not satisfied with the way things are going in his unit. The patient
satisfaction rate is 60% for two consecutive months and staff morale is at its lowest. He decides to plan and initiate
changes that will push for a turnaround in the condition of the unit. Which of the following actions is a priority for Henry?
Correct answer
A. Call for a staff meeting and take this up in the agenda.

B. Seek help from her manager.

Incorrect
 C. Develop a strategic action on how to deal with these concerns.

D. Ignore the issues since these will be resolved naturally.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Call for a staff meeting and take this up on the agenda.
This will allow for the participation of every staff in the unit. If they contribute to the solutions of the problem, they
will own the solutions; hence the chance for compliance would be greater. It’s one thing to articulate the change
required and entirely another to conduct a critical review against organizational objectives and performance goals
to ensure the change will carry the unit in the right direction strategically, financially, and ethically.
Option B: Determine the most effective means of communication for the group or individual that will bring
them on board. The communication strategy should include a timeline for how the change will be incrementally
communicated, key messages, and the communication channels and mediums that is planned to use.
Option C: Providing a support structure is essential to assist employees to emotionally and practically adjust to
the change and to build the proficiency of behaviors and technical skills needed to achieve desired results.
Option D: Review the effect on the unit and how it cascades through the organizational structure to the
individual. This information will start to form the blueprint for where training and support are needed the most
to mitigate the impacts.

12. Question 1 point(s)

He knows that there are external forces that influence changes in his unit. Which of the following is not an external force?
Incorrect
 A. Memo from the CEO to cut down on electrical consumption.

B. Demands of the labor sector to increase wages.

Correct answer
C. Low morale of staff in his unit.

D. Exacting regulatory and accreditation standards.

Incorrect
 Correct Answer: C. Low morale of staff in his unit.
Low morale of staff is an internal factor that affects only the unit. External forces are those changes that are part
of an organization’s general and business environment. All the rest of the options emanate from the top executive
or from outside the institution.
Option A: During the 2008 recession, consumers lost their jobs and cut back on their spending. These
economic downturns had a major impact on businesses. Banks failed. General Motors and Chrysler filed for
bankruptcy. Survival meant adapting to change.
Option B: Government restrictions often force change onto organizations. This can be something as simple as
a change in the minimum wage for employees, or as complex as rules and restrictions governing fair
competition in business.
Option D: For instance, when the Affordable Health Care Act was put into place, businesses had to change
their operations and put steps into place to confirm that all employees had healthcare coverage to comply with
the new law.
13. Question 1 point(s)
After discussing the possible effects of the low patient satisfaction rate, the staff started to list down possible strategies
to solve the problems head-on. Should they decide to vote on the best change strategy, which of the following strategies
is referred to this?

A. Collaboration
Correct
 B. Majority rule

C. Dominance

D. Compromise

Correct
Correct Answer: B. Majority rule
The majority rule involves dividing the house and the highest vote wins. 1/2 + 1 is a majority. The majority rule is a
decision rule that selects alternatives that have a majority, that is, more than half the votes. It is the binary
decision rule used most often in influential decision-making bodies, including all the legislatures of democratic
nations.
Option A: Collaboration in the workplace takes into account employees’ ideas, skills, experiences, and
opinions. When individuals work together openly, processes and goals become more aligned, leading the
group towards a higher success rate of achieving a common goal.
Option C: Accordingly, a strategy is dominant if it leads a player to better outcomes than alternative strategies
(i.e., it dominates the alternative strategies). Conversely, a strategy is dominated if it leads a player to worse
outcomes than alternative strategies.
Option D: A person who typically uses a compromising conflict style attempts to balance the needs of both or
all sides in a conflict by encouraging everyone to give in on at least some points. This style of conflict can be
more time-consuming and require more “people skills” than other conflict resolution techniques.

14. Question 1 point(s)

One staff suggests that they review the pattern of nursing care that they are using, which is described as a:

A. Job description
Correct
 B. System used to deliver care

C. Manual of procedure
 D. Rules to be followed

Correct
Correct Answer: B. System used to deliver care
A system used to deliver care. In the 70’s it was termed as methods of patient assignment; in the early 80’s it was
called modalities of patient care then patterns of nursing care in the ’90s until recently authors called it nursing
care systems. Ideally, nursing care delivery models match the number and type of caregivers to patient care
needs determine who is going to perform what tasks, who is responsible, and who makes decisions and detail
assignments, responsibilities, and authority to accomplish patient care.
Option A: A job description or JD lists the main features of a specific job. The description typically includes the
person’s main duties, responsibilities, and working conditions. It also includes the job title and to whom the
person holding that job has to report.
Option C: A procedure manual contains the institution’s best practices that define the systematic approach to
implementing policy expectations, plans, and work routines — also known as procedures.
Option D: Rules can be described as the guidelines or instructions for doing something correctly. these are the
principles that govern the conduct or behavior of a person in an organization or country. On the other hand,
regulations refer to the directives or statutes enforced by law, in a particular country.

15. Question 1 point(s)

Which of the following is true about functional nursing?

A. Concentrates on tasks and activities. Correct answer

B. Emphasizes the use of group collaboration.

C. One-to-one nurse-patient ratio.

D. Provides continuous, coordinated, and comprehensive nursing services. Incorrect



Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Concentrates on tasks and activities.
Functional nursing is focused on tasks and activities and not on the holistic care of the patients. Functional
nursing is task-oriented in scope. Instead of one nurse performing many functions, several nurses are given one
or two assignments. Functional nursing was designed around an efficacy model that seeks to get many tasks
accomplished in a short period of time.
Option B: Team nursing involves the use of a team leader and team members to provide various aspects of
nursing care to a group of patients. In team nursing, medications might be given by one nurse while baths and
physical care are given by a nursing assistant under the supervision of a nurse team leader.
Option C: Primary care nursing is when a single nurse is identified as the point of contact and primary
caregiver for a patient during his or her particular hospital stay or another episode of care.
Option D: Primary care nursing includes a set of attributes, as in the 1978 IOM definition—care that is
accessible, comprehensive, coordinated, continuous, and accountable—or as defined by Starfield (1992)—care
that is characterized by first contact, accessibility, longitudinally, and comprehensiveness

16. Question 1 point(s)

Functional nursing has some advantages, which one is an exception?
Correct
 A. Psychological and sociological needs are emphasized.

B. Great control of work activities.

 C. Most economical way of delivering nursing services.

D. Workers feel secure in a dependent role.

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Psychological and sociological needs are emphasized.
When the functional method is used, the psychological and sociological needs of the patients are neglected; the
patients are regarded as ‘tasks to be done ‘. Functional nursing was designed around an efficacy model that seeks
to get many tasks accomplished in a short period of time.
Option B: Modular Nursing is a modification of team nursing and focuses on the patient’s geographic location
for staff assignments; the unit is divided into groups referred to as modules – also called districts or pods.
The same team of caregivers is assigned consistently to the same geographic location. Each location, or
module, has an RN assigned as the team leader, and the other team members may include LVNs/LPNs and
Unlicensed Assistant Personnel.
Option C: Functional nursing revolves around team ethics, and it produces a catalog of processes, which are
undertaken by different individuals to ensure efficient patient care delivery. As well as taking advantage of the
skills of nurses at different stages of their careers, this model can also save healthcare providers and facilities
money by increasing efficiency and productivity.
Option D: Team nursing is a patient care delivery model, which was established in the 1950s. For healthcare
providers, the team nursing model improves efficiency and provides valuable training opportunities for those
keen to progress during the early stages of their careers.

17. Question 1 point(s)

He raised the issue of giving priority to patient needs. Which of the following offers the best way for setting priority?

A. Assessing nursing needs and problems. Correct answer

B. Giving instructions on how nursing care needs are to be met. Incorrect



C. Controlling and evaluating the delivery of nursing care.

D. Assigning a safe nurse: patient ratio.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Assessing nursing needs and problems.
This option follows the framework of the nursing process and at the same time applies the management process
of planning, organizing, directing, and controlling. At the basic level, management is a regimen that comprises five
standard functions, namely, planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling. These functions are part of a
body of practices and theories that educate on becoming an efficient manager.
Option B: Leading is a function that involves stating a vision, influencing, persuading, motivating, and inspiring
employees. An efficient and effective management process aligns individual interests with the organization’s
goals and objectives as a whole.
Option C: Evaluate the achievement of goals, improvement in performance, and the ability to take action. Put
processes in place to help you establish standards, so you can measure, compare, and make decisions.
Option D: Enlisting and recruiting employees for positions within the various teams and departments in an
organized manner. The staffing process helps in getting the right people for the right job at right time. The
function of staffing helps the management to decide the number of employees needed for the organization
and with what qualifications and experience.

18. Question 1 point(s)

Which of the following is the best guarantee that the patient’s priority needs are met?
 A. Checking with the relative of the patient.
Correct
 B. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the patient.

C. Consulting with the physician.

D. Coordinating with other members of the team.

Correct
Correct Answer: B. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the patient.
The best source of information about the priority needs of the patient is the patient himself. Hence using a nursing
care plan based on his expressed priority needs would ensure meeting his needs effectively. It is about
understanding each patient’s health outcome goals and health care preferences and ensuring that the care
provided is in line with those goals.
Option A: Checking with the relative of the patient would not yield actual needs for the patient. Asking the
patient himself would be an assurance that what he deems as the priority would be addressed.
Option C: Consulting or collaborating with the physician should occur after the implementation of independent
nursing interventions. A nursing care plan includes independent, dependent, and collaborative nursing
interventions specific to every client’s needs.
Option D: Collaborating may come after consultation with a physician. Collaboration may include teams from
the laboratory services, radiological department, and other departments involved in the care of the patient.

19. Question 1 point(s)

When Henry uses team nursing as a care delivery system, he and his team need to assess the priority of care for a group
of patients, which of the following should be a priority?

A. Each patient is listed on the worksheet.

B. Patients who need the least care.

C. Medications and treatments required for all patients. Incorrect



D. Patients who need the most care. Correct answer

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Patients who need the most care.
In setting priorities for a group of patients, those who need the most care should be the number-one priority to
ensure that their critical needs are met adequately. The needs of other patients who need less care can be
attended to later or even delegated to assistive personnel according to rules on delegation. The ability to prioritize
and manage time is vital for any successful nurse, whether a novice or expert.
Option A: Clinical judgment and prioritization of patient care are built on the nursing process. Nurses learn the
steps of the nursing process in their foundational nursing course and utilize it throughout their academic and
clinical careers to direct patient care and determine priorities.
Option B: In unfamiliar situations, patient prioritization should be approached as a structured process,
highlighting risk factors that may contribute to a decline in the patient’s condition and potential interventions
that can reduce the risk of adverse outcomes (Jessee, 2019).
Option C: Seasoned nurses are able to pull from their depth of knowledge and experience that allows them to
act deductively and intuitively when prioritizing patient care.

20. Question 1 point(s)

He is hopeful that his unit will make a big turnaround in the succeeding months. Which of the following actions of Henry
demonstrates that he has reached the third stage of change?

A. Wonders why things are not what they used to be.

B. Finds solutions to the problems.

Correct
 C. Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities.

D. Selects the best change strategy.

Correct
Correct Answer: C. Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities.
Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities is expected to happen during the third stage of change when
the change agent incorporates the selected solutions into his system and begins to create a change. In the third
and final stage, freezing, the new mindset of the change begins to become the standard, and people’s comfort
levels return to normal.
Option A: The first stage (unfreezing) involves overcoming inertia and dismantling the existing mindset. It
involves getting over the initial defense mechanisms that people exhibit to avoid making a change. People
eventually realize that change is necessary and urgent, and this realization allows them to move on to the next
stage.
Option B: In the second stage, the actual change occurs. During this stage, an organization’s leaders need to
focus on clearly communicating to employees the reasons for change and the steps needed to achieve it.
Option D: The second stage is typically a period of confusion and transition in which people are unsure about
the change and what may happen in the future. People are aware that the old ways are being challenged, but
they do not yet have a clear picture as to what these ways will be replaced with.

21. Question 1 point(s)

Joey is a newly-appointed nurse manager of The Holy Spirit Medical Center, a tertiary hospital located within the heart of
the metropolis. He thinks of scheduling a planning workshop with his staff in order to ensure effective and efficient
management of the department. Should he decide to conduct a strategic planning workshop, which of the following is
not a characteristic of this activity?

A. Long-term goal-setting.

B. Extends to 3-5 years in the future.

Correct answer
C. Focuses on routine tasks.

D. Determines directions of the organization. Incorrect



Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Focuses on routine tasks
Focusing on routine tasks is a characteristic of operational planning. Strategic planning is an organizational
management activity that is used to set priorities, focus energy and resources, strengthen operations, ensure that
employees and other stakeholders are working toward common goals, establish agreement around intended
outcomes/results, and assess and adjust the organization’s direction in response to a changing environment.
Option A: Long-term planning is about setting a process by which a particular strategic plan will be achieved.
This process focuses on activities that start now and continue well into the future.
Option B: Effective strategic planning articulates not only where an organization is going and the actions
needed to make progress, but also how it will know if it is successful. A strategic plan is a document used to
communicate with the organization the organization’s goals, the actions needed to achieve those goals, and all
of the other critical elements developed during the planning exercise.
 Option D: Strategic planning is a disciplined effort that produces fundamental decisions and actions that
shape and guide what an organization is, who it serves, what it does, and why it does it, with a focus on the
future.
22. Question 1 point(s)
Which of the following statements refer to the vision of the hospital?
Correct answer
A. The Holy Spirit Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the next five years.

B. The officers and staff of The Holy Spirit Medical Center believe in the unique nature of the human person.

C. All the nurses shall undergo a continuing competency training program.

 D. The Holy Spirit Medical Center aims to provide patient-centered care in a total healing environment. Incorrect

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. The Holy Spirit Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the next five
years
A vision refers to what the institution wants to become within a particular period of time. A vision statement looks
forward and creates a mental image of the ideal state that the organization wishes to achieve. It is inspirational
and aspirational and should challenge employees.
Option B: In a conventional sense, company philosophy stands for the basic beliefs that people in the business
are expected to hold and be guided by – informal unwritten guidelines on how people should perform and
conduct themselves.
Option C: The main difference between objectives and goals is that objectives are precise actions or
measurable steps individuals and groups take to move closer to the goal. They are specific targets that
typically have a time-bound schedule or timeline for completion.
Option D: Goals define the general intentions and ambitions of the business but can be difficult to measure.
Setting goals is an important step of business planning, as a well-defined broad primary outcome will have an
impact on areas including your mission statement, financial objectives, corporate culture, and marketing
strategy.

23. Question 1 point(s)

The statement, “The Holy Spirit Medical Center aims to provide patient-centered care in a total healing environment”
refers to which of the following?

A. Vision

B. Goal Correct answer

Incorrect
 C. Philosophy

D. Mission

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Goal
Goals define the general intentions and ambitions of the business but can be difficult to measure. Setting goals is
an important step of business planning, as a well-defined broad primary outcome will have an impact on areas
including your mission statement, financial objectives, corporate culture, and marketing strategy.
 Option A: A vision refers to what the institution wants to become within a particular period of time. A vision
statement looks forward and creates a mental image of the ideal state that the organization wishes to achieve.
It is inspirational and aspirational and should challenge employees.
Option C: In a conventional sense, company philosophy stands for the basic beliefs that people in the business
are expected to hold and be guided by – informal unwritten guidelines on how people should perform and
conduct themselves.
Option D: A mission statement is a concise explanation of the organization’s reason for existence. It describes
the organization’s purpose and its overall intention. The mission statement supports the vision and serves to
communicate purpose and direction to employees, customers, vendors, and other stakeholders.
24. Question 1 point(s)
Joey plans to revisit the organizational chart of the department. He plans to create a new position of a Patient Educator
who has a coordinating relationship with the head nurse in the unit. Which of the following will likely depict this
organizational relationship?

A. Box

B. Solid line
Correct
 C. Broken line

D. Dotted line

Correct
Correct Answer: C. Broken line
This is a staff relationship hence it is depicted by a broken line in the organizational structure. The broken line’s
meaning in an organizational chart is a less formal reporting relationship. The person at the end of that line isn’t
the immediate and permanent manager, but someone else. In theory, it means that these reporting relationships
are secondary, but in practice, that’s not always the case.
Option A: The boxes on an organizational chart might represent individual employees, ad-hoc working groups,
or formal teams or departments. Employee names and titles and/or job positions are generally depicted in
boxes or circles with lines linking them to other employees and departments.
Option B: The lines always represent the reporting path for anyone in a given box. In a simple hierarchy, the
lines run vertically from employees to managers and ultimately the CEO or proprietor.
Option D: For example, the department or a member might be assigned to do some work for a team or a
manager in some other part of the company. This member will still have a solid line connecting to the full-time
manager, but now he’ll also have a dotted line connecting to whoever’s in charge of the other project. This
particular relationship is often referred to as “dotted line reporting.”

25. Question 1 point(s)

He likewise stresses the need for all the employees to follow orders and instructions from him and not from anyone else.
Which of the following principles does he refer to?

A. Scalar chain

B. Discipline
Correct
 C. Unity of command

D. Order
 Correct
Correct Answer: C. Unity of command
Henry Fayol, a famous industrialist of France, has described fourteen principles of management in his book
General and Industrial Management. According to the principle of unity of command, an individual employee
should receive orders from only one superior at a time and that employee should be answerable only to that
superior. If there are many superiors giving orders to the same employee, he will not be able to decide as to which
order is to be given priority. He thus finds himself in a confusing situation.
Option A: Scalar chain is the formal line of authority that moves from highest to lowest rank in a straight line.
This chain specifies the route through which the information is to be communicated to the desired
location/person.
Option B: Discipline is essential for any successful work performance. Fayol considers discipline to mean
obedience, respect for authority, and observance of established rules. Discipline can be established by
providing good supervision at all levels, clearly explaining the rules, and implementing a system of reward and
punishment. A manager can present a good example to his subordinates by disciplining himself.
Option D: According to the principle of order, the right person should be placed at the right job and the right
thing should be placed at the right place. According to Fayol, every enterprise should have two different
orders-Material Order for Physical Resources and Social Order for Human Resources.

26. Question 1 point(s)

Joey orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationships throughout the organization. Which of the following
principles refer to this?

A. Span of control
Correct answer
B. Hierarchy

C. Esprit de' corps

D. Unity of direction Incorrect



Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Hierarchy
Hierarchy refers to the pattern of reporting or the formal line of authority in an organizational structure. More
bureaucratic and structured in nature, a hierarchical organization generally follows a chain and command style of
authority with employees reporting to a manager above them. Slow to change, and the most traditional form of
org design, this structure is commonly found supporting growth through direct reporting to a manager with formal
policies and procedures.
Option A: Span of control refers to the number of subordinates under a manager’s direct control. As an
example, a manager with five direct reports has a span of control of five. The span of control is a good metric
to assess the efficiency of an organization, as long as it looked at in the context of the company’s
organizational structure.
Option C: Esprit de corps means managers should create and foster among their employees the morale,
common spirit, sense of identification, feeling of pride, loyalty, devotion, honor, solidarity, unity, and
cohesiveness with respect to their organization or organizational department.
Option D: In the unity of direction, whoever is engaged in the same activity should have a unified goal. This
means all the people working in a company should have one goal and motive which will make the work easier
and achieve the set goal easily.

27. Question 1 point(s)

He emphasizes to the team that they need to put their efforts together towards the attainment of the goals of the
program. Which of the following principles refers to this?

A. Span of control
 Correct answer
B. Unity of direction

C. Unity of command
Incorrect
 D. Command responsibility

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Unity of direction
Unity of direction means having one goal or one objective for the team to pursue; hence all members of the
organization should put their efforts together towards the attainment of their common goal or objective. Whoever
is engaged in the same activity should have a unified goal. This means all the people working in a company should
have one goal and motive which will make the work easier and achieve the set goal easily.
Option A: Span of control refers to the number of subordinates under a manager’s direct control. As an
example, a manager with five direct reports has a span of control of five. The span of control is a good metric
to assess the efficiency of an organization, as long as it looked at in the context of the company’s
organizational structure.
Option C: Unity of command an employee should have only one boss and follow his command. If an employee
has to follow more than one boss, there begins a conflict of interest and can create confusion.
Option D: Command responsibility is an omission mode of individual criminal liability: the superior is
responsible for crimes committed by his subordinates and for failing to prevent or punish (as opposed to
crimes he ordered).

28. Question 1 point(s)

Joey stresses the importance of promoting ‘esprit d corps’ among the members of the unit. Which of the following
remarks of the staff indicates that they understand what he pointed out?

A. “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be supportive of one another” Correct answer

Incorrect
B. “In order that we achieve the same results; we must all follow the directives of Julius and not from other
managers.”


C. “We will ensure that all the resources we need are available when needed.”

D. “We need to put our efforts together in order to raise the bar of excellence in the care we provide to all our
patients.”

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be supportive of one another”
Esprit de corps means managers should create and foster among their employees the morale, common spirit,
sense of identification, feeling of pride, loyalty, devotion, honor, solidarity, unity, and cohesiveness with respect to
their organization or organizational department.
Option B: In the principle of unity of command, an employee should have only one boss and follow his
command. If an employee has to follow more than one boss, there begins a conflict of interest and can create
confusion.
Option C: A company should maintain a well-defined work order to have a favorable work culture. A positive
atmosphere in the workplace will boost more positive productivity.
Option D: In the principle of unity of direction, whoever is engaged in the same activity should have a unified
goal. This means all the people working in a company should have one goal and motive which will make the
work easier and achieve the set goal easily.

29. Question 1 point(s)

He discusses the goal of the department. Which of the following statements is a goal?

A. Increase the patient satisfaction rate. Correct answer

Incorrect
 B. Eliminate the incidence of delayed administration of medications.

C. Establish rapport with patients.

D. Reduce response time to two minutes.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Increase the patient satisfaction rate.
A goal is a desired result towards which efforts are directed. A goal is a short statement of the desired outcome to
be accomplished over a long time frame, usually three to five years. It is a broad statement that focuses on the
desired results and does not describe the methods used to get the intended outcome.
Option B: Objectives are specific, actionable targets that need to be achieved within a smaller time frame,
such as a year or less, to reach a certain goal. Objectives describe the actions or activities involved in
achieving a goal.
Option C: Goals are the outcomes you intend to achieve, whereas objectives are the specific actions and
measurable steps that you need to take to achieve a goal. Goals and objectives work in tandem to achieve
success.
Option D: Goals are general statements of what is to be achieved. They do not specify the tasks that need to
be performed to accomplish them. Objectives, on the other hand, are specific actions one takes within a
certain timeframe.

30. Question 1 point(s)

He wants to influence the customary way of thinking and behaving that is shared by the members of the department.
Which of the following terms refer to this?

A. Organizational chart

B. Cultural network

C. Organizational structure Incorrect



Correct answer
D. Organizational culture

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Organizational culture
Organizational culture refers to the way the members of the organization think together and do things around
them together. It’s their way of life in that organization. An organization’s culture defines the proper way to behave
within the organization. This culture consists of shared beliefs and values established by leaders and then
communicated and reinforced through various methods, ultimately shaping employee perceptions, behaviors, and
understanding.
Option A: An organizational chart is a diagram that visually conveys a company’s internal structure by detailing
the roles, responsibilities, and relationships between individuals within an entity. Organizational charts are
alternatively referred to as “org charts” or “organization charts.”
Option B: A cultural network hierarchy is presented which classifies these tools according to the CEO?s
personal involvement with each element. Guidelines are presented for using the tools of cultural
communication to change or maintain the culture at both the managerial level and the operational level of the
organization.
Option C: An organizational structure is a system that outlines how certain activities are directed in order to
achieve the goals of an organization. These activities can include rules, roles, and responsibilities. The
 organizational structure also determines how information flows between levels within the company.
31. Question 1 point(s)
He asserts the importance of promoting a positive organizational culture in their unit. Which of the following behaviors
indicate that this is attained by the group?
Correct
 A. Proactive and caring with one another

B. Competitive and perfectionist

C. Powerful and oppositional

D. Obedient and uncomplaining

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Proactive and caring with one another
Without a positive corporate culture, many employees will struggle to find the real value in their work, and this
leads to a variety of negative consequences for the bottom line. Employers who invest in the well-being of their
employees will be rewarded with happy, dedicated employees
Option B: A positive culture gives an organization a competitive advantage. People want to work for
companies with a good reputation from previous and current employees. A company with a positive culture will
attract the type of talent that is willing to make their next workplace a home, rather than just a stepping-stone.
Option C: Maintaining positive company culture is a guaranteed way to boost employee morale. Employees will
naturally feel happier and enjoy their work more when they work in a positive environment.
Option D: Employees are much more likely to come together as a team at companies with a strong culture. A
positive culture facilitates social interaction, teamwork, and open communication. This collaboration can lead
to some amazing results.

32. Question 1 point(s)

Stephanie is a new Staff Educator of a private tertiary hospital. She conducts orientation among new staff nurses in her
department. Joseph, one of the new staff nurses, wants to understand the channel of communication, a span of control,
and lines of communication. Which of the following will provide this information?
Correct
 A. Organizational structure

B. Policy

C. Job description

D. Manual of procedures

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Organizational structure
Organizational structure provides information on the channel of authority, (i.e., who reports to whom and with
what authority) the number of people who directly report to the various levels of hierarchy, and the lines of
communication whether line or staff.
Option B: Policy is a law, regulation, procedure, administrative action, incentive, or voluntary practice of
governments and other institutions. Policy decisions are frequently reflected in resource allocations. Health
can be influenced by policies in many different sectors.
Option C: Job description is a broad, general, and written statement of a specific job, based on the findings of
a job analysis. It generally includes duties, purpose, responsibilities, scope, and working conditions of a job
 along with the job’s title, and the name or designation of the person to whom the employee reports.
Option D: A procedures manual contains the policies, guidelines, and processes for the whole organization. It
exists to help employees do their jobs in an approved and consistent manner.
33. Question 1 point(s)
Stephanie is often seen interacting with the medical intern during coffee breaks and after duty hours. What type of
organizational structure is this?

A. Formal
Correct
 B. Informal

C. Staff

D. Line

Correct
Correct Answer: B. Informal
This is usually not published and oftentimes concealed. The informal organization is the interlocking social
structure that governs how people work together in practice. It is the aggregate of behaviors, interactions, norms,
and personal/professional connections through which work gets done and relationships are built among people. It
consists of a dynamic set of personal relationships, social networks, communities of common interest, and
emotional sources of motivation.
Option A: The formal structure of a group or organization includes a fixed set of rules of procedures and
structures, usually set out in writing, with a language of rules that ostensibly leave little discretion for
interpretation. In some societies and organizations, such rules may be strictly followed; in others, they may be
little more than an empty formalism.
Option C: In the staff organization structure, the employees follow the directives of the managers. The line
group as a whole is seen as a function that is essential to the business. Staff positions are those that indirectly
support line functions in the organizations. Like line positions, staff positions also consist of managers and
employees.
Option D: Line organization structure is the oldest and simplest form of organization. In these organizations, a
supervisor exercises direct supervision over a subordinate. Also, authority flows from the top-most person in
the organization to the person in the lowest rung.

34. Question 1 point(s)

She takes pride in saying that the hospital has a decentralized structure. Which of the following is not compatible with
this type of model?

A. Flat organization
Incorrect
 B. Participatory approach

C. Shared governance

D. Tall organization Correct answer

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Tall organization
Tall organizations are highly centralized organizations where decision-making is centered on one authority level. A
tall organizational structure means that management is broken down into several layers, with executives on top
 and normal employees on the bottom. In a tall organization, there will be a large number of managers, and each
manager will usually be responsible for a small group of employees.
Option A: Flat organizations have a structure with few levels of middle management between leadership and
employees—or, in some cases, no middle management at all. Small organizations and startups often have flat
structures because they have fewer employees and less of a need for hierarchical management.
Option B: A participatory approach means that the person in charge of solving a problem or designing an
innovation involves people who are directly concerned by the result of his or their work. Problem solving and
innovation are thus conducted directly with regards to the situation to be transformed.
Option C: In its simplest form, shared governance is shared decision-making based on the principles of
partnership, equity, accountability, and ownership at the point of service. Shared governance increases nurse
engagement, improves patient outcomes, and allows hospital administrators to optimize efficiency, increase
nurse retention and promote quality care, a study in The Journal of Nursing Administration found.
35. Question 1 point(s)
Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the following statements is true? Select all that apply.

A. Highly cost-effective Correct answer

B. Makes management easier Correct answer

C. Reflects the interest of the worker Incorrect



D. Allows quick decisions or actions.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A & B
Centralized organizations need only a few managers hence they are less expensive and easier to manage. In a
centralized organization, the decision-making powers are retained in the head office, and all other offices receive
commands from the main office. The executives and specialists who make critical decisions are based in the head
office.
Option B: A centralized organization benefits from a clear chain of command because every person within the
organization knows who to report to. Junior employees know who to approach whenever they have concerns
about the organization.
Option C: When an organization follows a centralized management structure, it can focus on the fulfillment of
its vision with ease. There are clear lines of communication and the senior executive can communicate the
organization’s vision to employees and guide them toward the achievement of the vision.
Option D: In a centralized organization, decisions are made by a small group of people and then
communicated to the lower-level managers. The involvement of only a few people makes the decision-making
process more efficient since they can discuss the details of each decision in one meeting.

36. Question 1 point(s)

Stephanie delegates effectively if she has authority to act, which is best defined as:

A. Having a responsibility to direct others. Incorrect



B. Being accountable to the organization.

C. Having a legitimate right to act. Correct answer

D. Telling others what to do.

 Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Having legitimate right to act.
Authority is a legitimate or official right to give the command. This is an officially sanctioned responsibility.
Managers must possess the authority to give orders, and recognize that with authority comes responsibility. As
well as rank, Fayol argues that a manager’s intelligence, experience, and values should command respect.
Option A: In order to get things done in an organization, management has the authority to give orders to the
employees. Of course with this authority comes responsibility. According to Henri Fayol, the accompanying
power or authority gives the management the right to give orders to the subordinates.
Option B: The responsibility can be traced back from performance and it is, therefore, necessary to make
agreements about this. In other words, authority and responsibility go together and they are two sides of the
same coin.
Option D: The right to give orders should not be considered without reference to responsibility. If the authority
is more than responsibility then chances are that a manager may misuse it. If responsibility is more than
authority then he may feel frustrated.

37. Question 1 point(s)

Regardless of the size of a workgroup, enough staff must be available at all times to accomplish certain purposes. Which
of these purposes is not included?

A. Meet the needs of patients.

Correct
 B. Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed.

C. Cover all time periods adequately.

D. Allow for growth and development of nursing staff.

Correct
Correct Answer: B. Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed.
Providing a pair of hands for other units is not a purpose in doing an effective staffing process. This is a function
of a staffing coordinator at a centralized model. Staff positions affect customers indirectly, only to the extent that
the support they provide helps line employees improve quality and customer satisfaction.
Option A: Staff structure allows to preserve the principle of one-man management (every worker has only one
superior), but at the same time provides greater flexibility in changing operating conditions. It also introduces
an element of encouraging cooperation between all members of the organization.
Option C: Staff structure or linear-staff organizational structure is one of the attempts to solve the problem of
linear structure constraints. Manager having too much various tasks is not able to effectively manage its
employees.
Option D: One of the key advantages is that this structure provides line personnel with expertise from staff
groups. As a result, the key decision-makers in the organization are well-informed and armed with specialized
knowledge.

38. Question 1 point(s)

Which of the following guidelines should be least considered in formulating objectives for nursing care?
Incorrect
 A. Written nursing care plan

B. Holistic approach

C. Prescribed standards
Correct answer
 D. Staff preferences

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Staff preferences
Staff preferences should be the least priority in formulating objectives of nursing care. Individual preferences
should be subordinate to the interest of the patients. Along with clinical guidelines, patient preferences provide
direction for selecting treatment options and tailoring interventions. Patient preferences also help inform choice in
clinical decisions where science has yet to provide dominant solutions to health care problems.
Option A: Care plans help nurses focus on patients in a holistic, big-picture way so they can deliver evidence-
based, patient-centered care. Care plans also help hospitals ensure continuity of care across nursing shifts,
promote inter-professional collaboration by getting everyone on the same page, and meet documentation
requirements for insurers and governing bodies.
Option B: A holistic approach means providing the support that looks at the whole person, not just their mental
health needs. The support should also consider their physical, emotional, social, and spiritual wellbeing. A
holistic approach focuses on a person’s wellness and not just their illness or condition.
Option C: Standards of care in nursing are guidelines that provide a foundation as to how a nurse should act,
and what they should and should not do in their professional capacity. These policies and procedures are
guidelines that all nurses must follow.

39. Question 1 point(s)

Stephanie considers shifting to transformational leadership. Which of the following statements best describes this type
of leadership?

A. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership. Correct answer

B. Serves the followers rather than being served.

C. Maintains full trust and confidence in the subordinates.

D. Possesses innate charisma that makes others feel good in his presence. Incorrect


Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership.
Transformational leadership relies heavily on visioning as the core of leadership. Transformational leadership is a
leadership style that can inspire positive changes in those who follow. Transformational leaders are generally
energetic, enthusiastic, and passionate. Not only are these leaders concerned and involved in the process; they
are also focused on helping every member of the group succeed as well.
Option B: Servant leadership is a leadership philosophy in which the goal of the leader is to serve. This is
different from traditional leadership where the leader’s main focus is the thriving of their company or
organizations. Instead of the people working to serve the leader, the leader exists to serve the people.
Option C: Laissez-faire leadership is fairly self-explanatory. This kind of leadership is very hands-off—
managers trust their employees and are confident in their abilities. They give guidance and take responsibility
where needed, but this leadership style means that subordinates and team members have the real lead.
Option D: Charismatic leadership is a trait-based leadership theory where the leaders act as visionary driven
by their convictions and motivate their followers to work towards a common vision using their charm and
persuasiveness. Leaders are able to cultivate a profound sense of trust with the group of followers.

40. Question 1 point(s)

As a manager, she focuses her energy on both the quality of services rendered to the patients as well as the welfare of
the staff of her unit. Which of the following management styles does she adopt?
 A. Country club management
Incorrect
 B. Organization man management

C. Team management Correct answer

D. Authority-obedience management

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Team management
Team management has a high concern for services and high concern for staff. Team management is the ability of
an individual or an organization to administer and coordinate a group of individuals to perform a task. Team
management involves teamwork, communication, objective setting, and performance appraisals.
Option A: The country club leader has the most concern for people. This leader assumes that if employees are
happy, they will work hard. This leader’s high interest in the needs and feelings of employees affects
productivity. With much of the focus on employee comfort, this leader finds it difficult to punish an employee.
As a result, the relationship between employee and leader is very casual, like that of friends.
Option B: Management is the process of guiding the development, maintenance, and allocation of resources
to attain organizational goals. This process is based on four key functional areas of the organization: planning,
organizing, leading, and controlling.
Option D: Authority-obedience management results from such a management style that is task-oriented, or
task-motivated. The authority-obedience management style overly emphasizes the value of completing tasks
to the extent that it risks human relationships.

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Leadership & Management in Nursing NCLEX Practice Exam
(Quiz #2: 40 Questions)
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Correct Incorrect

1. Question
Katherine is a young Unit Manager of the Pediatric Ward. Most of her staff nurses are senior to her, very articulate,
confident, and sometimes aggressive. Katherine feels uncomfortable believing that she is the scapegoat of everything
that goes wrong in her department. Which of the following is the best action that she must take?
Correct
 A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction.

B. Disregard what she feels and continues to work independently.

C. Seek help from the Director of Nursing.

D. Quit her job and look for another employment.

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction
This involves a problem-solving approach, which addresses the root cause of the problem. Seek to understand
the underlying emotions of the employees in conflict. Employers can manage workplace conflict by creating an
organizational culture designed to preclude conflict as much as possible and by dealing promptly and equitably
with conflicts that employees cannot resolve among themselves.
Option B: Do not ignore conflict, and do not avoid taking steps to prevent it. Unresolved issues of
interpersonal tension and conflict can create emotional stress for employees, politicize the workplace and
divert attention from the organization’s mission.
Option C: Before escalating the conflict to the Director of Nursing, the unit manager should first try to
deescalate the problem. If a manager has mechanisms in place to resolve conflict at its early stages,
employees will generally see their employer as fair in their dealings with them and will likely be more satisfied
with their jobs.
Option D: If the manager does not act, conflicts will escalate into larger problems, discrimination and
harassment complaints may increase, and the employer’s reputation could be damaged. When employees
mistrust management or perceive the organization as acting unfairly, turnover may increase. This can lead to
recruiting and training expenses for new hires and the costs attributable to slippage of performance until new
employees become fully proficient in their jobs.

2. Question
As a young manager, she knows that conflict occurs in any organization. Which of the following statements regarding
conflict is not true?

A. Can be destructive if the level is too high.

Correct
 B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times.

C. May result in poor performance.

 D. May create leaders.

Correct
Correct Answer: B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times.
Conflicts are beneficial because it surfaces out issues in the open and can be solved right away. Likewise,
members of the team become more conscientious with their work when they are aware that other members of the
team are watching them. What conflicts do is that they encourage debate and competition which is good for
almost any environment. Also, it improves team culture and allows people to learn more.
Option A: The most obvious disadvantage of conflict is the toll on emotions. When employees feel they are
being bullied, taken advantage of, or facing favoritism, they may begin looking for another job or performing
poorly. Conflicts between departments can disrupt production, and result in lost business or customers.
Option C: Unscheduled absences drive up employers’ costs through benefits outlays, the use of replacement
workers, higher stress levels among employees, and a decrease in overall employee performance.
Option D: With more workplace conflicts, the team may accomplish its goals in no time. This does sound
surprising to most of us but it is very true. Conflicts are a vital part of work culture and they nourish the minds
in several ways.

3. Question
Katherine tells one of the staff, “I don’t have time to discuss the matter with you now. See me in my office later” when the
latter asks if they can talk about an issue. Which of the following conflict resolution strategies did she use?

A. Smoothing
Incorrect
 B. Compromise
Correct answer
C. Avoidance

D. Restriction

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Avoidance
This strategy shuns discussing the issue head-on and prefers to postpone it to a later time. In effect, the problem
remains unsolved and both parties are in a lose-lose situation. Someone who uses a strategy of “avoiding” mostly
tries to ignore or sidestep the conflict, hoping it will resolve itself or dissipate.
Option A: Smoothing is not a conflict resolution strategy. One example is accommodating. Accommodating is
a strategy where one party gives in to the wishes or demands of another. They’re being cooperative but not
assertive. This may appear to be a gracious way to give in when one figures out s/he has been wrong about an
argument.
Option B: The strategy of “compromising” involves finding an acceptable resolution that will partly, but not
entirely, satisfy the concerns of all parties involved. The concept is that everyone gives up a little bit of what
they want, and no one gets everything they want. The perception of the best outcome when working by
compromise is that which “splits the difference.”
Option D: Restriction is not one of the strategies for conflict resolution. Another example is competing.
Competing is used by people who go into a conflict planning to win. They’re assertive and not cooperative.
This method is characterized by the assumption that one side wins and everyone else lose. It doesn’t allow
room for diverse perspectives into a well-informed total picture.

4. Question
Kathleen knows that one of her staff is experiencing burnout. Which of the following is the best thing for her to do?

A. Advise her staff to go on vacation.

 B. Ignore her observations; it will be resolved even without intervention.

C. Remind her to show loyalty to the institution.

Correct
 D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help.

Correct
Correct Answer: D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help.
Reaching out and helping the staff is the most effective strategy in dealing with burnout. Knowing that someone is
ready to help makes the staff feel important; hence her self-worth is enhanced. Even though the entire team may
be experiencing burnout, have conversations on an individual basis. Addressing the entire group can be
intimidating and make it difficult for members to open up.
Option A: Allowing them to have more flexible schedules can be a huge help. This gives them the time and
space to address their personal needs, whether that’s serving as a caregiver, going to doctor’s appointments,
or whatever it is they need to address.
Option B: Regardless of the reason, it’s important to speak directly with the team members to understand the
burnout’s root cause. This will not only help identify how to best help the team, but it’ll also demonstrate that
the manager has noticed they’re not being themselves and want to help them overcome this obstacle.
Option C: It’s easy to approach an employee and assume what the problem is. Try to avoid doing this. Create
an open space for your team members to confirm what’s actually going on, instead of steering the
conversation in a certain direction.

5. Question
She knows that performance appraisal consists of all the following activities except:
Incorrect
 A. Setting specific standards and activities for individual performance.

B. Using agency standards as a guide.

C. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses.

Correct answer
D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.
Performance appraisal deals with both positive and negative performance; is not meant to be a fault-finding
activity. A performance appraisal is a regular review of an employee’s job performance and overall contribution to
a company. Also known as an annual review, performance review or evaluation, or employee appraisal, a
performance appraisal evaluates an employee’s skills, achievements, and growth–or lack thereof.
Option A: Performance appraisals provide a way for companies to determine which employees have
contributed the most to the company’s growth so companies can reward their top-performing employees
accordingly.
Option B: Companies use performance appraisals to determine which employees have contributed the most to
the company’s growth, review progress, and reward high-achieving workers.
Option C: Performance appraisals are used to review the job performance of an employee over some period of
time. These reviews are used to highlight both strengths and weaknesses in order to improve future
performance.

6. Question
Which of the following statements is not true about performance appraisal?
 Incorrect
 A. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work help improve their performance.

B. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report.

Correct answer
C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.

D. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the staff.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.
The patient can be a source of information about the performance of the staff but it is never the best source.
Directly observing the staff is the best source of information for personnel appraisal. The supervisor analyses the
factors behind the work performances of employees. Through performance appraisal, the employers can
understand and accept the skills of subordinates.
Option A: Performance appraisal serves as a motivation tool. Through evaluating the performance of
employees, a person’s efficiency can be determined if the targets are achieved. This very well motivates a
person for a better job and helps him to improve his performance in the future.
Option B: Performance appraisals enable superiors to know what their team members are up to, evaluate their
performances and also give them correct feedbacks so that they know where they are lacking and work on
their shortcomings.
Option D: Performance Appraisal helps the supervisors to chalk out the promotion programs for efficient
employees. In this regard, inefficient workers can be dismissed or demoted in case.

7. Question
There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as she makes her daily rounds. Which of the following is not a benefit
of conducting an informal appraisal?

A. The staff member is observed in a natural setting.

B. Incidental confrontation and collaboration are allowed.

Correct answer
C. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.
Incorrect
 D. The evaluation may provide valid information for the compilation of a formal report.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.
Collecting objective data systems can not be achieved in an informal appraisal. It is focused on what actually
happens in the natural work setting. Informal appraisals give an employee a more current, ongoing perspective on
performance. It helps avoid delivering positive or negative surprises in a formal review, which is important for
internal communication. The manager also has the ability to motivate better performance and stem problems
quickly. A drawback of informal evaluations is that the manager doesn’t plan for them as with a formal review.
Option A: Informal appraisals occur when a manager provides significant feedback and direction to an
employee outside of a formal review meeting. Consistent, informal feedback is important to build rapport with
employees and to coach them in an ongoing manner.
Option B: A contrast to immediate praise is immediate criticism or negative feedback. This approach is applied
when you spot an employee making a mistake, making a poor decision, or simply underperforming. Similar to
positive feedback, the immediacy of constructive criticism is important. You need to address the undesirable
behavior right away so the employee knows the specifics of the incident at the moment.
Option D: A positive version of informal appraisal feedback occurs when a manager notices an employee
performing well, overcoming an obstacle, or achieving a goal, and offers praise. The point is to immediately
 reinforce the desired behavior or achievement so that the employee is compelled to perform in a similar or
better way going forward.
8. Question
She conducts a 6-month performance review session with a staff member. Which of the following actions is appropriate?

A. She asks another nurse to attest to the session as a witness.

 B. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse to read the appraisal before the session is over.Incorrect

C. She tells the staff that the session is manager-centered.

Correct answer
D. The session is private between the two members.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. The session is private between the two members.
The session is private between the manager and the staff and remains to be so when the two parties do not
divulge the information to others. The rating procedure, appraisal form, or any other related information ought to
be sent to each and every individual separately. Do not mark a common mail to everyone.
Option A: A small business with few employees may choose to use an informal approach with employees. This
entails meeting with each employee every six months or once a year and discussing an individual’s work
performance and progress since the last discussion.
Option B: Part of the appraisal system is the actual communication of the performance assessment. While this
assessment may be written, it should always be provided verbally as well. This provides an opportunity to
answer any questions the employee may have on the assessment, as well as to provide context or further detail
for brief assessments.
Option C: The performance of employees, especially in a smaller firm, is an essential factor in any company’s
ability to meet its goals. In a one-person business, goal-setting and achieving is a matter of transforming words
into action, but moving the business towards its goals in a larger firm means that the employer has to figure out
each person’s role in that success, communicate that role to him or her, and reward or correct their
performance.

9. Question
Alexandra is tasked to organize the new wing of the hospital. She was given the authority to do as she deems fit. She is
aware that the director of nursing has substantial trust and confidence in her capabilities, communicates through
downward and upward channels, and usually uses the ideas and opinions of her staff. Which of the following is her style
of management?

A. Benevolent –authoritative
Correct answer
B. Consultative

C. Exploitive-authoritative
Incorrect
 D. Participative

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Consultative
A consultative manager is almost like a participative manager. The participative manager has complete trust and
confidence in the subordinates, always uses the opinions and ideas of subordinates, and communicates in all
 directions. Consultative leadership is a leadership style that targets team building and uses the skills of others to
create plans and make decisions. Leaders consult with their team to obtain their suggestions and opinions to help
them make informed and strategic decisions.
Option A: In the benevolent-autocratic leadership style, the manager has condescending confidence and trust
in subordinates, motivates with rewards and some punishments, permits some upward communication, solicits
some ideas and opinions from subordinates, and allows some delegation of decision making but with close
policy control.
Option C: In the exploitative-authoritative leadership style, the manager has no confidence or trust in
subordinates. Subordinates feel no freedom to discuss things about the job with their superiors. In solving job
problems, the manager seldom gets the ideas and opinions of subordinates.
Option D: Participative leadership is a style of leadership in which all members of the organization work
together to make decisions. Participative leadership is also known as democratic leadership, as everyone is
encouraged to participate. The participative leadership decision-making process can take many forms, but the
key element is collective input from all members of the organization.
10. Question
She decides to illustrate the organizational structure. Which of the following elements is not included?

A. Level of authority
Incorrect
 B. Lines of communication

C. Span of control
Correct answer
D. Unity of direction

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Unity of direction
Unity of direction is a management principle, not an element of an organizational structure. The principle of unity
of direction implies that there should be ”one head and one plan for a group of activities having the same
objective”. In other words, each group of activities having the same objectives must have one plan of action and
must be under the control of one manager or superior. An organization or group having different plans and more
than one head cannot achieve the desired results.
Option A: Distributing authority is another important building block in structuring organizations. Authority in
the organization is the right in a position and, through it, the right of the person occupying the position to
exercise discretion in making decisions affecting others.
Option B: Organizational structures also rest somewhere on a spectrum of centralization. Generally, more
conservative corporate entities adopt a centralized structure. In this design, C-level managers make all the
decisions, management designs a plan for execution, and front-line employees carry out that plan.
Option C: An organization’s span of control defines how many employees each manager is responsible for
within the company. There is no single type of span of control that’s ideal for all companies or even for all
businesses in a specific industry.

11. Question
She plans on assigning competent people to fill the roles designed in the hierarchy. Which process refers to this?
Correct answer
A. Staffing

B. Scheduling
Incorrect
 C. Recruitment
 D. Induction

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Staffing
Staffing is a management function involving putting the best people to accomplish tasks and activities to attain
the goals of the organization. Staffing is the function by which managers build an organization through the
recruitment, selection, development, of individuals as capable employees.
Option B: The scheduling function consists of organizing activities in a specific system imposing some rules to
respect. More generally, solving a scheduling problem can be reduced to the organization and the
synchronization of a set of activities (jobs or tasks) by exploiting the available capacities (resources).
Option C: Recruitment is the process of attracting, evaluating, and hiring employees for an organization. The
recruitment process includes four steps: job analysis, sourcing, screening and selection, and onboarding.
Option D: Induction means the introduction of a new employee to the job and the organization. It is the
process of receiving and welcoming an employee when he first joins a company and giving him the basic
information he needs to settle down quickly and happily and start work.

12. Question
She checks the documentary requirements for the applicants for the staff nurse position. Which one is not necessary?

A. Certificate of previous employment

Correct answer
B. Record of the related learning experience (RLE)
Incorrect
 C. Membership to an accredited professional organization

D. Professional identification card

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Record of the related learning experience (RLE)
Record of RLE is not required for employment purposes but it is required for the nurse’s licensure examination.
Related Learning Experience (RLE) is a teaching-learning opportunity designed to advance the competencies of
students utilizing methods in various health situations. Related learning experience provides an opportunity for
the student-nurses to practice what has been learned in the classroom.
Option A: A certificate of employment, also called an employment certificate, is used to verify the employment
history of a former or current employee. If the employee is no longer employed by the employer, the employer
usually issues the certificate of employment upon request by the employee. It is usually requested to complete
the requirements for employment with a new employer.
Option C: A professional organization, sometimes referred to as a professional association or professional
body, exists to advance a particular profession, support the interests of people working in that profession and
serve the public good. It facilitates innovation, communication, and connection.
Option D: Professional Identification is a type of social identification and is the sense of oneness individuals
have with a profession (e.g. law, medicine) and the degree to which individuals define themselves as
professional members.

13. Question
Which phase of the employment process includes getting on the payroll and completing documentary requirements?

A. Orientation
Correct answer
B. Induction
 C. Selection
Incorrect
 D. Recruitment

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Induction
This step in the recruitment process gives time for the staff to submit all the documentary requirements for
employment. Induction means the introduction of a new employee to the job and the organization. It is the
process of receiving and welcoming an employee when he first joins a company and giving him the basic
information he needs to settle down quickly and happily and start work.
Option A: In this stage, new hires are given job- or task-specific orientation, typically by their immediate
supervisor. New employees learn details about their specific department or team, including information about
breaks, absences, parking facilities, personal phone calls, email and internet policy, as well as the standards of
performance for their work.
Option C: Screening of applications can be regarded as an integral part of the recruiting process, though many
view it as the first step in the selection process. Even the definition of recruitment excludes screening from its
scope.
Option D: Recruitment is a process of finding and attracting the potential resources for filling up vacant
positions in an organization. It sources the candidates with the abilities and attitudes, which are required for
achieving the objectives of an organization.

14. Question
She tries to design an organizational structure that allows communication to flow in all directions and involves workers in
decision-making. Which form of organizational structure is this?

A. Centralized
Correct
 B. Decentralized

C. Matrix

D. Informal

Correct
Correct Answer: B. Decentralized
Decentralized structures allow the staff to make decisions on matters pertaining to their practice and
communicate in downward, upward, lateral and diagonal flow. Decentralization is a type of organizational
structure in which daily operations and decision-making responsibilities are delegated by top management to
middle and lower-level managers.
Option A: Centralized management is the organizational structure where a small handful of individuals make
most of the decisions in a company. More centralized management is usually seen in highly competitive
industries, where companies specialize in similar products to their competition.
Option C: A matrix organizational structure is a workplace format in which employees report to two or more
managers rather than one manager overseeing every aspect of a project. For example, an employee may have
a primary manager they report to as well as one or more project managers they work under.
Option D: The informal organization is the interlocking social structure that governs how people work together
in practice. It is the aggregate of behaviors, interactions, norms, and personal/professional connections
through which work gets done and relationships are built among people.

15. Question
In a horizontal chart, the lowest level worker is located at the
 A. Leftmost box

B. Middle
Correct answer
C. Rightmost box
Incorrect
 D. Bottom

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Rightmost box
The leftmost box is occupied by the highest authority while the lowest level worker occupies the rightmost box. A
horizontal organizational structure has fewer layers, normally two or three. It doesn’t have many chains of
command.
Option A: The third layers are team members supervised by the managers or team leaders in the second layer.
The horizontal org chart has eliminated many middle management levels, thus can be considered as
employee-centered with emphasis on teamwork and collaboration.
Option B: The second layer contains managers or team leaders who report to the business owner. Without
going through complicated hierarchies, employees have more contact with managers and even business
owners.
Option D: A horizontal organization has few – if any – managers because the focus is on empowering the staff
members and removing any barriers between the executive level and the staff level.

16. Question
She decides to have a decentralized staffing system. Which of the following is an advantage of this system of staffing?

A. Greater control of activities.

B. Conserves time.

C. Compatible with computerization.

Correct
 D. Promotes better interpersonal relationships.

Correct
Correct Answer: D. Promotes better interpersonal relationships.
Decentralized structures allow the staff to solve decisions by themselves, involve them in decision making; hence
they are always given opportunities to interact with one another. Decentralization improves the level of job
satisfaction as well as employee morale, especially amongst the lower-level managers.
Option A: Lower-level managers can alter production schedules and work assignments with adequate
authority. They can even take disciplinary actions and recommend the promotion of their peers.
Option B: Another important pointer in the advantages and disadvantages of decentralization is that decisions
are taken and executed by authorized personnel. This, in turn, results in faster and accurate decisions which
are well aware of the real scenario. This, in turn, leads to greater efficiency in supervision. Performance
evaluation of each decentralized unit helps in exercising adequate control.
Option C: Under decentralization, every single product division attains sufficient autonomy to exercise its
creative flair. In this way, the top-level management can create healthy competition amongst different divisions.

17. Question
Aubrey thinks about primary nursing as a system to deliver care. Which of the following activities is not done by a
primary nurse?

A. Collaborates with the physician.

Correct
 B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses.

C. Provides care for 5-6 patients during their hospital stay.

D. Performs comprehensive initial assessment.

Correct
Correct Answer: B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses.
This function is done in team nursing where the nurse is a member of a team that provides care for a group of
patients. Primary care nursing is when a single nurse is identified as the point of contact and primary caregiver for
a patient during his or her particular hospital stay or other episodes of care. As envisioned by staff nurses at the
University of Minnesota in 1969, the primary care nursing team is composed of that lead nurse, who directly
supervises the engagement of a licensed practical nurse and/or nursing assistant in that patient’s care.
Option A: Further, the primary care nurse acts as a care partner, serving as a communications liaison between
the patient and his or her doctor and other care team members. (In many facilities and systems, the position of
nurse practitioner has been created to fulfill this role.)
Option C: The primary nursing model is hailed by proponents as creating a better bond and trust relationship
between patients and caregivers, thanks to that single-source relationship. They say that the patient’s care is
elevated by having that single nurse overseeing its delivery and that its structure empowers the nurse to utilize
managerial abilities as well as deploy their best bedside care.
Option D: Primary health care (PHC) is a principle-based, comprehensive approach. It focuses on the way
services are delivered, from birth to death, across the continuum of care in all settings.

18. Question
Which pattern of nursing care involves the care given by a group of paraprofessional workers led by a professional nurse
who takes care of patients with the same disease conditions and is located geographically near each other?

A. Case method

B. Modular nursing Correct answer

Incorrect
 C. Nursing case management

D. Team nursing

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Modular nursing
Modular nursing is a variant of team nursing. The difference lies in the fact that the members in modular nursing
are paraprofessional workers. Modular Nursing is a modification of team nursing and focuses on the patient’s
geographic location for staff assignments; the unit is divided into groups referred to as modules – also called
districts or pods.
Option A: In case method, the nurse cares for one patient whom the nurse cares for exclusively. The Case
Method evolved into what is now called private duty nursing. It was the first type of nursing care delivery
system.
Option C: Nursing case management provides a continuum of health care services for defined groups of
patients. Its literature is multidisciplinary, emphasizing clinical specialties, case management methodology, and
the health care system. Case management is a care delivery model designed to coordinate and manage patient
care across the continuum of health care systems.
 Option D: The goal of team nursing is for a team to work democratically. In the ideal team, an RN is assigned as
a Team Leader for a group of patients. The Team Leader has a core of staff reporting to her, and together they
work to disseminate the care activities.
19. Question
St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its new Performance Improvement Department. Ms. Valencia is appointed as the
Quality Control Officer. She commits herself to her new role and plans her strategies to realize the goals and objectives
of the department. Which of the following is a primary task that they should perform to have an effective control system?

A. Make an interpretation about strengths and weaknesses.

B. Identify the values of the department. Correct answer

C. Identify structure, process, outcome standards & criteria. Incorrect



D. Measure actual performances.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Identify the values of the department
Identify the values of the department will set the guiding principles within which the department will operate its
activities. Some control techniques, such as those involving standard hours and costs, budgets, and various
financial ratios, have general application in various situations.
Option A: Control techniques should reflect the plans they are designed to follow. Managers need the
information that will tell them how the plans for which they are responsible are progressing. An effective control
system will disclose where failures are occurring and who is/are responsible for the failures and it will ensure
that some corrective action is taken.
Option C: Control systems and information are, of course, intended to help individual managers carry out their
function of control. An effective control system must fit in with the organizational culture. If employees have
been managed without allowing them any participation in decision-making, the sudden introduction of a
permissive control system will hardly succeed.
Option D: As far as possible the information provided by the control system should be objective. If on the other
hand, controls are subjective, a manager’s or an executive’s personality may influence judgments of
performance and make them less accurate. Thus, the control system should ideally provide objective
information to the manager for evaluation and action.

20. Question
Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed. Among the following standards, which is considered as a structure
standard?

A. The patients verbalized satisfaction with the nursing care received.

Correct
 B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel.

C. All patients shall have their weights recorded.

D. Patients shall answer the evaluation form before discharge.

Correct
Correct Answer: B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel.
Structure standards include management systems, facilities, equipment, materials needed to deliver care to
patients. Rotation of duty is a management system. A nursing care standard is a descriptive statement of desired
 quality against which to evaluate nursing care. It is a guideline. A guideline is a recommended path to safe-
conduct, an aid to professional performance.
Option A: Standards give direction and provide guidelines for the performance of nursing staff. Standards
provide a baseline for evaluating the quality of nursing care. Standards statement must be broad enough to
apply to a wide variety of settings.
Option C: Standards must be understandable and stated in unambiguous terms. Standards may help to
determine the degree to which standards of nursing care maintained and take necessary corrective action in
time.
Option D: Standards may help to improve the basis for decision-making and devise an alternative system for
delivering nursing care. Standards must be reviewed and revised periodically. Standards may be directed
towards ideal (ie, optional) standards or may only specify the minimal care that must be attained (ie, minimum
standard).
21. Question
When she presents the nursing procedures to be followed, she refers to what type of standards?

A. Process Correct answer

B. Outcome
Incorrect
 C. Structure

D. Criteria

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Process
Process standards include care plans, the nursing procedures to be done to address the needs of the patients.
Process standards focus on the practitioner and the activities carried out in delivering care. The development of
standards and related criterion measures are then guided by the basic principles.
Option B: Outcome standards focus on the end result of the nursing services and activities carried out and the
changes which occurred. This approach is based on the belief that structure, process, and outcome are
interdependent.
Option C: Structure standards focus on the settings and environment in which nursing is practiced. This
approach may be most suitable for standards developed at the local operational level and written within the
framework of the broader standards developed at the national level.
Option D: Criteria is the plural of criterion—a standard or principle for judging, evaluating, or selecting
something. Criteria are the ideals or requirements on which a judgment, evaluation, or selection is based.

22. Question
The following are basic steps in the controlling process of the department. Which of the following is not included?

A. Measure actual performance.

B. Set nursing standards and criteria.

C. Compare results of performance to standards and objectives. Incorrect



D. Identify possible courses of action. Correct answer

Incorrect
 Correct Answer: D. Identify possible courses of action
This is a step in a quality control process and not a basic step in the control process. Controlling involves ensuring
that performance does not deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five steps: (1) set standards, (2)
measure performance, (3) compare performance to standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then
(5) take corrective action as needed.
Option A: The measurement of performance can be done in several ways, depending on the performance
standards, including financial statements, sales reports, production results, customer satisfaction, and formal
performance appraisals. Managers at all levels engage in the managerial function of controlling to some
degree.
Option B: Performance standards are often stated in monetary terms such as revenue, costs, or profits but
may also be stated in other terms, such as units produced, number of defective products, or levels of quality or
customer service.
Option C: Effective controlling requires the existence of plans since planning provides the necessary
performance standards or objectives. Controlling also requires a clear understanding of where responsibility
for deviations from standards lies.
23. Question
Which of the following statements refers to criteria?

A. Agreed on level of nursing care.

Correct answer
B. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care.

C. Step-by-step guidelines.

D. Statement which guides the group in decision making and problem-solving. Incorrect


Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care.
Criteria are specific characteristics used to measure the standard of care. Criteria is the plural of criterion—a
standard or principle for judging, evaluating, or selecting something. Criteria are the ideals or requirements on
which a judgment, evaluation, or selection is based.
Option A: Level of care can be defined as the intensity of effort required to diagnose, treat, preserve or
maintain an individual’s physical or emotional status. An alternate level of care is a level of care that can safely
be used in place of the current level and determined based on the acuity and complexity of the patient’s
condition and the type of needed services and resources.
Option C: The nursing process functions as a systematic guide to client-centered care with 5 sequential steps.
These are assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
Option D: Decision-making in acute care nursing requires an evaluation of many complex factors. While
decision-making research in acute care nursing is prevalent, errors in decision-making continue leading to poor
patient outcomes.

24. Question
She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as planned. Which of the following tasks is not included in the
controlling process?
Correct
 A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies.

B. Reviewing the existing policies of the hospital.

C. Evaluating the credentials of all nursing staff.

 D. Checking if activities conform to the schedule.

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies
Instructing the members involves a directing function. Controlling involves ensuring that performance does not
deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five steps: (1) set standards, (2) measure performance, (3)
compare performance to standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then (5) take corrective action
as needed.
Option B: Performance standards are often stated in monetary terms such as revenue, costs, or profits but
may also be stated in other terms, such as units produced, number of defective products, or levels of quality or
customer service.
Option C: The measurement of performance can be done in several ways, depending on the performance
standards, including financial statements, sales reports, production results, customer satisfaction, and formal
performance appraisals. Managers at all levels engage in the managerial function of controlling to some
degree.
Option D: The managerial function of controlling should not be confused with control in the behavioral or
manipulative sense. This function of management concerns the manager’s role in taking necessary actions to
ensure that the work-related activities of subordinates are consistent with and contributing toward the
accomplishment of organizational and departmental objectives.

25. Question
Ms. Valencia prepares the process standards. Which of the following is not a process standard?

A. Initial assessment shall be done to all patients within twenty-four hours upon admission.

B. Informed consent shall be secured prior to any invasive procedure.

C. Patients report a 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital. Correct answer

 D. Patient education about their illness and treatment shall be provided for all patients and their families.Incorrect

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Patients report a 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.
This refers to an outcome standard, which is a result of the care that is rendered to the patient. Outcome
standards focus on the end result of the nursing services and activities carried out and the changes which
occurred. This approach is based on the belief that structure, process, and outcome are interdependent.
Option A: Fundamentally, process standardization describes the establishment of a set of rules governing how
people in an organization are supposed to complete a given task or sequence of tasks.
Option B: When done well, standardization can decrease ambiguity and guesswork, guarantee quality, boost
productivity, and increase employee morale. It improves clarity because a standard process will eliminate the
need for guesswork or extra searching
Option D: Standardization promotes productivity by eliminating inefficiency. This is the result of eliminating
ambiguity and providing quality control: tasks are completed in a more efficient manner, and there are fewer
quality control issues from tasks that were not completed correctly the first time around.

26. Question
Which of the following is evidence that the controlling process is effective?
Correct answer
A. The things that were planned are done.
 B. Physicians do not complain.

C. Employees are contented.

Incorrect
 D. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. The things that were planned are done
Controlling is defined as seeing to it that what is planned is done. Controlling involves ensuring that performance
does not deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five steps: (1) set standards, (2) measure performance,
(3) compare performance to standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then (5) take corrective
action as needed.
Option B: Outcome standards measure the effectiveness of the service. They are set according to the type of
service provided and the data are collected through systematic use of specific measurement tools such as
questionnaires or comparison between pre-test and post-test performance.
Option C: Process standards include care plans, the nursing procedures to be done to address the needs of
the patients. Process standards focus on the practitioner and the activities carried out in delivering care. The
development of standards and related criterion measures are then guided by the basic principles.
Option D: Outcome standards focus on the end result of the nursing services and activities carried out and the
changes which occurred. This approach is based on the belief that structure, process, and outcome are
interdependent.

27. Question
Ms. Valencia is responsible for the number of personnel reporting to her. This principle refers to:
Correct answer
A. Span of control

B. Unity of command
Incorrect
 C. Carrot and stick principle

D. Esprit d’ corps

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Span of control
The span of control refers to the number of workers who report directly to a manager. The span of control
determines the level of interactions and responsibilities associated with employees and managers. The process is
used to determine the management style and it also defines roles within the organization.
Option B: Unity of command means an employee should have only one boss and follow his command. If an
employee has to follow more than one boss, there begins a conflict of interest and can create confusion.
Option C: The carrot and stick approach of motivation is a traditional motivation theory that asserts, in
motivating people to elicit desired behaviors, sometimes the rewards are given in the form of money,
promotion, and any other financial or non-financial benefits, and sometimes the punishments are exerted to
push an individual towards the desired behavior.
Option D: According to the principle of esprit d’ corps, it is the responsibility of the management to motivate
their employees and be supportive of each other regularly. Developing trust and mutual understanding will lead
to a positive outcome and work environment.

28. Question
She notes that there is increasing unrest of the staff due to fatigue brought about by the shortage of staff. Which action
is a priority?
Incorrect
 A. Evaluate the overall result of the unrest.

B. Initiate a group interaction. Correct answer

C. Develop a plan and implement it.

D. Identify external and internal forces.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Initiate a group interaction
Initiating a group interaction will be an opportunity to discuss the problem in the open. Managers should
communicate conflict resolution policies and processes to create a sense of safety in the workplace and provide
an outlet for employees to report incidents should they feel the need. It is also important to ensure that employees
understand any no retaliation policies regarding expressing concerns in the workplace.
Option A: To help employees cope, employers can consider implementing an employee assistance program
(EAP). An EAP will help alleviate stress and worry, connect employees with the resources they need to manage
their mental health and help prevent potential violence before it occurs.
Option C: Having a plan in place helps organizations remain calm during a chaotic situation. A business
continuity plan should detail how the business will respond to a variety of situations.
Option D: Understanding the community, developing processes to address a variety of “what if” scenarios,
and exemplifying appropriate behavior will help employers maintain a civil workplace and squash conflicts
before they get out of hand.

29. Question
Kevin is a member of the Nursing Research Council of the hospital. His first assignment is to determine the level of
patient satisfaction with the care they received from the hospital. He plans to include all adult patients admitted from
April to May, with an average length of stay of 3-4 days, first admission, and with no complications. Which of the
following is an extraneous variable of the study?

A. Date of admission

B. Length of stay

C. Age of patients Correct answer

D. Absence of complications Incorrect



Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Age of patients
An extraneous variable is not the primary concern of the researcher but has an effect on the results of the study.
Adult patients may be young, middle, or late adults. Extraneous variables are those that produce an association
between two variables that are not causally related.
Option A: The date of admission is an independent variable. An independent variable is a variable believed to
affect the dependent variable. This is the variable that the researcher will manipulate to see if it makes the
dependent variable change.
Option B: The length of stay is an independent variable because it can also affect the dependent variable,
which is the level of satisfaction of the patients. To reiterate, the independent variable is the thing over which
the researcher has control and is manipulating.
Option D: The absence of complications is another independent variable because it can also affect the level of
satisfaction of the patients. The experiment’s dependent variable is the ball throwing, which will hopefully
 change due to the independent variable. The scientific sentence is, ‘You are going to manipulate an
independent variable to see what happens to the dependent variable.’
30. Question
He thinks of an appropriate theoretical framework. Whose theory addresses the four modes of adaptation?

A. Martha Rogers

B. Sr. Callista Roy Correct answer

C. Florence Nightingale Incorrect



D. Jean Watson

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Sr. Callista Roy
Sr. Callista Roy developed the Adaptation Model which involves the physiologic mode, self-concept mode, role
function mode, and dependence mode. Developed by Roy in 1976, the Adaptation Model of Nursing asks three
central questions: Who is the focus of nursing care? What is the target of nursing care? and When is nursing care
indicated? This model looks at the patient from a holistic perspective.
Option A: Martha Rogers’ theory is known as the Science of Unitary Human Beings (SUHB). The theory views
nursing as both a science and an art as it provides a way to view the unitary human being, who is integral with
the universe. The unitary human being and his or her environment are one.
Option C: The Environmental Theory by Florence Nightingale defined Nursing as “the act of utilizing the
environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery.” It involves the nurse’s initiative to configure
environmental settings appropriate for the gradual restoration of the patient’s health and that external factors
associated with the patient’s surroundings affect the life or biologic and physiologic processes and his
development.
Option D: Jean Watson’s “Philosophy and Theory of Transpersonal Caring” mainly concerns how nurses care
for their patients and how that caring progresses into better plans to promote health and wellness, prevent
illness and restore health.

31. Question
He opts to use a self-report method. Which of the following is not true about this method?

A. Most direct means of gathering information.

B. Versatile in terms of content coverage.

Correct answer
C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering.

D. Yields information that would be difficult to gather by another method. Incorrect



Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering.
The most serious disadvantage of this method is the accuracy and validity of the information gathered. Self-
reporting is a common approach for gathering data in epidemiologic and medical research. This method requires
participants to respond to the researcher’s questions without his/her interference.
Option A: In general, they are inexpensive and simple to administer, making it possible to collect a broad
amount of data in a short time. Today, the possibility of online surveys has made data collection even easier.
 Option B: Another important consideration is the relevance of the questions for the specific participants of the
survey. If the participant finds the topic interesting and relevant, they are more motivated to respond and
complete all the questions.
Option D: In addition, the results can be automatically collected, reducing the risk of errors occurring with
manual registration processes. Further, the results are not dependent on an interviewer´s interpretation of
behavior, which may influence the results from a clinical interview.
32. Question
Which of the following articles would Kevin least consider for his review of literature?
Correct
 A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients”

B. “Turnaround Time in Emergency Rooms”

C. “Outcome Standards in Tertiary Health Care Institutions”

D. “Environmental Manipulation and Client Outcomes”

Correct
Correct Answer: A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients”
The article is for pediatric patients and may not be relevant for adult patients. A literature review surveys books,
scholarly articles, and any other sources relevant to a particular issue, area of research, or theory, and by so
doing, provides a description, summary, and critical evaluation of these works in relation to the research problem
being investigated.
Option B: Literature reviews are designed to provide an overview of sources explored while researching a
particular topic and to demonstrate to the readers how the research fits within a larger field of study.
Option C: A literature review may consist of simply a summary of key sources, but in the social sciences, a
literature review usually has an organizational pattern and combines both summary and synthesis, often within
specific conceptual categories.
Option D: It is important to think of knowledge in a given field as consisting of three layers. First, there are the
primary studies that researchers conduct and publish. Second, are the reviews of those studies that
summarize and offer new interpretations built from and often extending beyond the primary studies. Third,
there are the perceptions, conclusions, opinions, and interpretations that are shared informally that become
part of the lore of the field.

33. Question
Which of the following variables will he likely exclude in his study?

A. Competence of nurses

B. Caring attitude of nurses

Correct answer
C. Salary of nurses

D. Responsiveness of staff Incorrect



Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Salary of nurses
The salary of staff nurses is not an indicator of patient satisfaction, hence need not be included as a variable in
the study. A variable in research simply refers to a person, place, thing, or phenomenon that the researcher is
 trying to measure in some way. The best way to understand the difference between a dependent and independent
variable is that the meaning of each is implied by what the words tell us about the variable the researcher is using.
Option A: The competence of nurses can affect the patient’s satisfaction rate, therefore it is an independent
variable. The variable that is stable and unaffected by the other variables the researcher is trying to measure. It
refers to the condition of an experiment that is systematically manipulated by the investigator. It is the
presumed cause.
Option B: The caring attitude of the nurses can affect the patient’s satisfaction rate, therefore it is an
independent variable. An important distinction has to do with the term ‘variable’ is the distinction between an
independent and dependent variable. This distinction is particularly relevant when the researcher is
investigating cause-effect relationships.
Option D: The responsiveness of the staff can affect the patient’s satisfaction rate, therefore it is an
independent variable. Anything that can vary can be considered a variable. For instance, age can be
considered a variable because age can take different values for different people or for the same person at
different times.
34. Question
He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine:
Correct
 A. Degree of agreement and disagreement

B. Compliance to expected standards

C. Level of satisfaction

D. Degree of acceptance

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Degree of agreement and disagreement
Likert scale is a 5-point summated scale used to determine the degree of agreement or disagreement of the
respondents to a statement in a study. The Likert scale question is a psychometric scale where questions based
on this scale are used in a survey. It is one of the most widely used question types in a survey. In a Likert scale
survey, respondents don’t choose between ‘yes/no,’ there are specific choices based on ‘agreeing’ or
‘disagreeing’ on a particular survey question.
Option B: A compliance survey captures statements of compliance on specific issues from various
constituencies. Using an online survey to gather such declaration or representation makes the process
extremely efficient.
Option C: A numeric scale is a type of rating scale that requires the respondent to provide his or her feedback
in terms of numerical values. This type of rating scale equates comparative survey response options to an
ordered set of numerical values so that respondents can quantify their opinions.
Option D: A multi-checkbox scale is a type of rating scale that lists different positive and negative attributes
that describe a survey respondent’s perception of a product, service, or experience. The multi-checkbox scale
is often used to assess a brand’s attitude, rate a user’s experience, or determine the quality of a product.

35. Question
He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation. Which of the following criteria refers to the consistency or
the ability to yield the same response upon its repeated administration?A. Validity

A. Validity

B. Reliability Correct answer

C. Sensitivity
Incorrect
 
D. Objectivity

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Reliability
Reliability is the repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even with varied administration of
the instrument. In simple terms, research reliability is the degree to which research method produces stable and
consistent results. A specific measure is considered to be reliable if its application on the same object of
measurement a number of times produces the same results.
Option A: Validity is the extent to which the results really measure what they are supposed to measure. A valid
measurement is generally reliable: if a test produces accurate results, it should be reproducible.
Option C: Sensitivity is one of four related statistics used to describe the accuracy of an instrument for making
a dichotomous classification (i.e., positive or negative test outcome). Of these four statistics, sensitivity is
defined as the probability of correctly identifying some condition or disease state.
Option D: Objectivity in social research is the principle drawn from positivism that, as far as is possible,
researchers should remain distanced from what they study so findings depend on the nature of what was
studied rather than on the personality, beliefs, and values of the researcher (an approach not accepted by
researchers in the critical, standpoint or interpretive traditions).

36. Question
Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among the subjects being studied?

A. Sensitivity Correct answer

B. Reliability

C. Validity Incorrect


D. Objectivity

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Sensitivity
Sensitivity is an attribute of the instrument that allows the respondents to distinguish differences in the options
where to choose from. Sensitivity is one of four related statistics used to describe the accuracy of an instrument
for making a dichotomous classification (i.e., positive or negative test outcome). Of these four statistics,
sensitivity is defined as the probability of correctly identifying some condition or disease state.
Option B: Reliability is the repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even with varied
administration of the instrument. In simple terms, research reliability is the degree to which research method
produces stable and consistent results. A specific measure is considered to be reliable if its application on the
same object of measurement a number of times produces the same results.
Option C: Validity is the extent to which the results really measure what they are supposed to measure. A valid
measurement is generally reliable: if a test produces accurate results, it should be reproducible.
Option D: Objectivity in social research is the principle drawn from positivism that, as far as is possible,
researchers should remain distanced from what they study so findings depend on the nature of what was
studied rather than on the personality, beliefs, and values of the researcher (an approach not accepted by
researchers in the critical, standpoint or interpretive traditions).

37. Question
Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an instrument measures what it is supposed to be measured?
Correct answer
A. Validity
 B. Reliability
Incorrect
 C. Meaningfulness

D. Sensitivity

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Validity
Validity is ensuring that the instrument contains appropriate questions about the research topic. Validity is the
extent to which the results really measure what they are supposed to measure. A valid measurement is generally
reliable: if a test produces accurate results, it should be reproducible.
Option B: Reliability is the repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even with varied
administration of the instrument. In simple terms, research reliability is the degree to which research method
produces stable and consistent results. A specific measure is considered to be reliable if its application on the
same object of measurement a number of times produces the same results.
Option C: Meaningfulness is taking that statistic and determining its applicability out in the real world. So all
too often researchers get caught up in chasing statistical significance. And while that’s part of statistics, the
focus should tie back to the real world.
Option D: Sensitivity is an attribute of the instrument that allows the respondents to distinguish differences in
the options where to choose from. Sensitivity is one of four related statistics used to describe the accuracy of
an instrument for making a dichotomous classification (i.e., positive or negative test outcome). Of these four
statistics, sensitivity is defined as the probability of correctly identifying some condition or disease state.

38. Question
He plans for his sampling method. Which sampling method gives an equal chance to all units in the population to get
picked?

A. Random Correct answer

Incorrect
 B. Accidental

C. Quota

D. Judgment

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Random
Random sampling gives equal chance for all the elements in the population to be picked as part of the sample.
Random sampling is a part of the sampling technique in which each sample has an equal probability of being
chosen. A sample chosen randomly is meant to be an unbiased representation of the total population. An
unbiased random sample is important for drawing conclusions.
Option B: Accidental sampling, also known as grab or opportunity sampling, is a form of non-probability
sampling that involves taking a population sample that is close at hand, rather than carefully determined and
obtained. Accidental samples are not as experimentally sound as using random sampling and random
assignment.
Option C: Quota sampling is defined as a non-probability sampling method in which researchers create a
sample involving individuals that represent a population. Researchers choose these individuals according to
specific traits or qualities.
Option D: A judgment sample, or expert sample, is a type of random sample that is selected based on the
opinion of an expert. Judgment sampling is noble to provide detailed information about the difficulties in
obtaining the distinction. A random sample would provide less bias, but potentially less raw information.
39. Question
Raphael is interested to learn more about transcultural nursing because he is assigned at the family suites where most
patients come from different cultures and countries. Which of the following designs is appropriate for this study?

A. Grounded theory
Correct answer
B. Ethnography

C. Case study

D. Phenomenology Incorrect


Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Ethnography
Ethnography is focused on patterns of behavior of selected people within a culture. Ethnography is a study
through direct observation of users in their natural environment rather than in a lab. The objective of this type of
research is to gain insights into how users interact with things in their natural environment.
Option A: Grounded theory is a well-known methodology employed in many research studies. Grounded
theory sets out to discover or construct theory from data, systematically obtained and analyzed using
comparative analysis. While the grounded theory is inherently flexible, it is a complex methodology.
Option C: A case study is a research approach that is used to generate an in-depth, multi-faceted
understanding of a complex issue in its real-life context. It is an established research design that is used
extensively in a wide variety of disciplines, particularly in the social sciences.
Option D: Phenomenological research has overlapped with other essentially qualitative approaches including
ethnography, hermeneutics, and symbolic interactionism. Pure phenomenological research seeks essentially to
describe rather than explain, and to start from a perspective free from hypotheses or preconceptions (Husserl
1970).

40. Question
The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory is

A. Dorothea Orem
Correct
 B. Madeleine Leininger

C. Betty Newman

D. Sr. Callista Roy

Correct
Correct Answer: B. Madeleine Leininger
Madeleine Leininger developed the theory on transcultural theory based on her observations on the behavior of
selected people within a culture. It involves learning and understanding various cultures regarding nursing and
health-illness caring practices, beliefs, and values to implement significant and efficient nursing care services to
people according to their cultural values and health-illness context.
Option A: In her Self-Care Theory, she defined Nursing as “The act of assisting others in the provision and
management of self-care to maintain or improve human functioning at the home level of effectiveness.”
Option C: In Neuman’s System Model, she defined nursing as a “unique profession in that is concerned with all
of the variables affecting an individual’s response to stress.” The focus is on the client as a system (which may
be an individual, family, group, or community) and on the client’s responses to stressors.
 Option D: In Adaptation Model, Roy defined nursing as a “health care profession that focuses on human life
processes and patterns and emphasizes the promotion of health for individuals, families, groups, and society
as a whole.”

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Correct Incorrect

1. Question
What should be included in a “scholarly literature”? Select all that apply.
Correct
 A. Primary and secondary sources.
Incorrect
B. Conceptual and theoretical literature from primary sources only.


Correct
 C. Published and unpublished reports of research.
 D.Research reports reported in primary sources only.
Correct answer
E. Sources relevant to the research questions.

Incorrect
Correct Answers: A, C, & E
A literature review is a survey of scholarly sources on a specific topic. It
provides an overview of current knowledge, allowing the researcher to
identify relevant theories, methods, and gaps in the existing research.
Option A: Primary sources provide a first-hand account of an event or
time period and are considered to be authoritative. They represent
original thinking, reports on discoveries or events, or they can share new
information. Often these sources are created at the time the events
occurred but they can also include sources that are created later. They
are usually the first formal appearance of original research. Secondary
sources involve analysis, synthesis, interpretation, or evaluation of
primary sources. They often attempt to describe or explain primary
sources.
Option B: Secondary sources are good for gaining a full overview of the
topic and understanding how other researchers have approached it. They
often synthesize a large number of primary sources that would be
difficult and time-consuming to gather alone.
Option C: Secondary data is usually gathered from the published
(printed) sources. A few major sources of published information are
published articles of local bodies, and central and state governments;
statistical synopses, census records, and other reports issued by the
different departments of the government; magazines, journals, and
periodicals, etc. Statistical data can be obtained from several
unpublished references. Some of the major unpublished sources from
which secondary data can be gathered are research works conducted by
teachers, professors, and professionals or statistics maintained by
different departments and agencies of the central and the state
government, undertakings, corporations, etc.
Option D: Most research uses both primary and secondary sources.
They complement each other to help build a convincing argument.
Primary sources are more credible as evidence, but secondary sources
show how the work relates to existing research.
Option E: If the researcher is writing the literature review section of a
dissertation or research paper, he should search for literature related to
the research problem and questions.

2. Question
Reviews of the literature are conducted for PURPOSES OF RESEARCH as well as for
the CONSUMER OF RESEARCH. How are these reviews similar? Select all that
apply.
Incorrect
 A. Amount of literature required to be reviewed.
Correct
 B. Degree of critical reading required.
Correct
 C. Importance of conceptual literature.

D. Purpose of the review.

E. Knowledge of the research findings

Incorrect
Correct Answers: B, C
The purpose of a literature review is to gain an understanding of the existing
research and debates relevant to a particular topic or area of study, and to
present that knowledge in the form of a written report.
Option A: A paper that has 10 pages of content (the body of the paper)
needs at least 10 sources in its literature review. A thesis of 100 pages (in
the body) includes at least 100 sources.
Option B: A literature review surveys books, scholarly articles, and any
other sources relevant to a particular issue, area of research, or theory,
and by so doing, provides a description, summary, and critical evaluation
of these works in relation to the research problem being investigated.
Option C: Literature reviews are designed to provide an overview of
sources the researcher has explored while researching a particular topic
and to demonstrate to the readers how the research fits within a larger
field of study.
Option D: A literature review establishes familiarity with and
understanding of current research in a particular field before carrying out
a new investigation. Conducting a literature review should enable the
researcher to find out what research has already been done and identify
what is unknown within the topic.
Option E: Being aware is in part a matter of being able to distinguish
what the researcher does know based on the information provided by
research findings from what he does not know. It is also a matter of
having some awareness about what he can and cannot reasonably know
as he encounters research findings.
3. Question
What are the characteristics of the literature review required for a quantitative
research study? Select all that apply.

A. The review is exhaustive and must include all studies conducted in

the area.

B. Doctoral dissertations and masters' theses are excellent Correct

sources of information.
C. Computer-accessed materials are acceptable. Correct answer

 D. Primary sources are not as important as secondary sources. Incorrect

E. Objective self-review of findings.

Incorrect
Correct Answers: B, C
Literature reviews provide important background information and details
about a specific research topic. An effective literature review also provides a
space to elaborate on future work to be done on a topic and allows an
author to define where their work fits into a larger context.
Option A: An effective literature review details important research trends
and also examines strengths and weaknesses of both specific studies
and larger research contexts.
Option B: It is challenging to achieve a successful review on all these
fronts. A solution can involve a set of complementary coauthors: some
people are excellent at mapping what has been achieved, some others
are very good at identifying dark clouds on the horizon, and some have
instead a knack at predicting where solutions are going to come from.
Option C: Given the progressive acceleration in the publication of
scientific papers, today’s reviews of the literature need awareness not
just of the overall direction and achievements of a field of inquiry, but also
of the latest studies, so as not to become out-of-date before they have
been published.
Option D: Most research uses both primary and secondary sources.
They complement each other to help the researcher build a convincing
argument. Primary sources are more credible as evidence, but secondary
sources show how the work relates to existing research.
 Option E: In general, a review of the literature should neither be a public
relations brochure nor an exercise in competitive self-denial. If a reviewer
is up to the job of producing a well-organized and methodical review,
which flows well and provides a service to the readership, then it should
be possible to be objective in reviewing one’s own relevant findings.
4. Question
Which of the following is an example of a primary source in a research study?

A. A published commentary on the findings of another study.

B. A doctoral dissertation that critiques all research in the area of

attention deficit disorder.

C. A textbook of medical-surgical nursing.

D. A journal article about a study that used large, previously Correct

unpublished databases generated by the United States census.

Correct
Correct Answer: D. A journal article about a study that used large,
previously unpublished databases generated by the United States
census
This is a report of an original study, so it is the primary source of the study.
Primary sources provide raw information and first-hand evidence. Examples
include interview transcripts, statistical data, and works of art. A primary
source gives direct access to the subject of the research.
Option A: Secondary sources provide second-hand information and
commentary from other researchers. Examples include journal articles,
reviews, and academic books. A secondary source describes, interprets,
or synthesizes primary sources.
Option B: When citing a secondary source, it’s usually not to analyze it
directly. Instead, test its arguments against new evidence or use its ideas
to help formulate a new one.
Option C: A secondary source is anything that describes, interprets,
evaluates, or analyzes information from primary sources. Common
examples include encyclopedias and textbooks that summarize
information and ideas.
5. Question
What is the best source to use when conducting a level I systematic meta-analysis
of the literature?

A. An electronic database

B. Doctoral dissertations
Correct answer
C. The Cochrane Statistical Methods

D. An electronic database and Doctoral dissertations Incorrect



Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. The Cochrane Statistical Methods
Systematic reviews and meta-analyses are situated at the top of what is
known as the “Evidence Pyramid”. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses
are considered to be the highest-quality evidence on a research topic
because their study design reduces bias and produces more reliable
findings. The Statistical Methods Group (SMG) (Cochrane Methods
Statistics) is a forum where all statistical issues related to the work of
Cochrane are discussed.
Option A: A systematic review is a high-level overview of primary
research on a particular research question that systematically identifies,
selects, evaluates, and synthesizes all high-quality research evidence
relevant to that question in order to answer it. In other words, it provides
an exhaustive summary of the scholarly literature related to a particular
research topic or question.
Option B: A systematic review is often written by a panel of experts after
reviewing all the information from both published and unpublished
studies. The comprehensive nature of a systematic review distinguishes it
from traditional literature reviews which typically examine a much smaller
set of research evidence and present it from a single author’s
perspective.
Option D: Not all systematic reviews include meta-analysis, but all meta-
analyses are found in systematic reviews. Simply put, a systematic review
refers to the entire process of selecting, evaluating, and synthesizing all
available evidence, while the term meta-analysis refers to the statistical
approach to combining the data derived from a systematic review.
6. Question
What is a characteristic of an audio recording of an unpublished research study
reported at a professional conference?

A. Databased literature Correct answer

B. Secondary Sources

C. Are more difficult to analyze than written reports. Incorrect



D. Are not useful because they are not published.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Databased literature
Audio and video recordings of research presentations are examples of data
based literature. As the name suggests, data-based literature is based on
empirical information collected by the researcher. Non-data-based writings,
on the other hand, ‘reflect the writer’s experiences or opinions and can
range from the highly theoretical to popular testimonials’ (Merriam 1988:
61).
Option B: Secondary sources were created by someone who did not
experience first-hand or participate in the events or conditions you’re
researching. For a historical research project, secondary sources are
generally scholarly books and articles. A secondary source interprets and
analyzes primary sources.
Option C: As the name suggests, an annotated bibliography contains a
list of relevant studies relating to the research question or issue. These
may range from brief research reports to books. Each entry contains a
summary or abstract of the particular work.
Option D: A literature review differs from an annotated bibliography in
that the researcher extracts and synthesizes the main points, issues,
find­ings, and research methods that emerge from a critical review of the
read­ings. Merriam (1988) suggests that, in carrying out a literature
review, it is a good idea to differentiate between data-based research and
non-data-based writings.

7. Question
What is the first step in the qualitative research process?
Incorrect
 A. Data analysis

B. Sample

C. Review of literature Correct answer

D. Study design

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Review of literature
Review of literature is the 1st step in the qualitative research process. A
literature review is a survey of scholarly sources on a specific topic. It
provides an overview of current knowledge, allowing the researcher to
identify relevant theories, methods, and gaps in the existing research.
Option A: Data analysis is the sixth step in the qualitative research
process. Data Analysis is the process of systematically applying
statistical and/or logical techniques to describe and illustrate, condense
and recap, and evaluate data. An essential component of ensuring data
integrity is the accurate and appropriate analysis of research findings.
Option B: Sampling is the third step in the qualitative research process.
Sampling is a process used in statistical analysis in which a
predetermined number of observations are taken from a larger
population. The methodology used to sample from a larger population
depends on the type of analysis being performed, but it may include
simple random sampling or systematic sampling.
Option D: The study design is the second step in the qualitative research
process. Study design is a process wherein the trial methodology and
statistical analysis are organized to ensure that the null hypothesis is
either accepted or rejected and the conclusions arrived at reflecting the
truth.

8. Question
Which mode of clinical application for qualitative research is considered to be the
sharing of qualitative findings with the patient?

A. Insight or empathy
 Correct answer
B. Anticipatory guidance
Incorrect
 C. Assessment of status or progress

D. Coaching

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Anticipatory guidance
Anticipatory guidance is the sharing of qualitative findings with the patient.
Anticipatory guidance, specific to the age of the patient, includes
information about the benefits of healthy lifestyles and practices that
promote injury and disease prevention. Common examples of anticipatory
guidance include reminding parents to have their children use bicycle
helmets and to use sunscreen. Other options are not considered to be the
sharing of qualitative findings with the patient.
Option A: There is no consensus in the general biomedical/clinical
literature about disclosing research results to study participants.
Fernandez and colleagues have advocated for offering a summary of
research results to individual participants and including information in the
consent form on the harms and benefits of receiving the results with
options to decline all or any of the results (which they advocate for all
human subjects research).
Option C: In contrast, there is a body of opinion that cautions against
disclosures as a routine practice, even aggregated results, because of
postulated potential harm to research participants. Those with this view
believe the decision as to whether to provide research results should be
based on various considerations, such as balancing harms and risks to
the individual and the clinical significance of the findings.
Option D: Coaching was defined as a collaborative solution-focused
result-orientated systematic process used with normal non-clinical
populations in which the coach facilitates the self-directed learning,
personal growth, and goal attainment of the coach.

9. Question
Which research process steps may be noted in an article’s abstract? Select all that
apply.
Correct
 A. Identifying the phenomenon
Correct
 B. Research question study purpose
Incorrect
 C. Literature review
Correct answer
D. Design

E. Sample

F. Legal-ethical issues

G. Data-collection procedure

Incorrect
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Scientific research involves a systematic process that focuses on being
objective and gathering a multitude of information for analysis so that the
researcher can come to a conclusion. This process is used in all research
and evaluation projects, regardless of the research method (scientific
method of inquiry, evaluation research, or action research).
Option A: The first step in the process is to identify a problem or develop
a research question. The research problem may be something the agency
identifies as a problem, some knowledge or information that is needed by
the agency, or the desire to identify a recreation trend nationally.
Option B: Many times the initial problem identified in the first step of the
process is too large or broad in scope. In step 3 of the process, the
researcher clarifies the problem and narrows the scope of the study. This
can only be done after the literature has been reviewed.
Option C: This step provides foundational knowledge about the problem
area. The review of literature also educates the researcher about what
studies have been conducted in the past, how these studies were
conducted, and the conclusions in the problem area.
Option D: The plan for the study is referred to as the instrumentation
plan. The instrumentation plan serves as the road map for the entire
study, specifying who will participate in the study; how, when, and where
data will be collected; and the content of the program.
Option E: Research projects can focus on a specific group of people,
facilities, park development, employee evaluations, programs, financial
status, marketing efforts, or the integration of technology into the
operations. For example, if a researcher wants to examine a specific
group of people in the community, the study could examine a specific age
 group, males or females, people living in a specific geographic area, or a
specific ethnic group.
Option F: The main role of human participants in research is to serve as
sources of data. Researchers have a duty to ‘protect the life, health,
dignity, integrity, right to self-determination, privacy and confidentiality of
personal information of research subjects’.
Option G: Once the instrumentation plan is completed, the actual study
begins with the collection of data. The collection of data is a critical step
in providing the information needed to answer the research question.
Every study includes the collection of some type of data—whether it is
from the literature or from subjects—to answer the research question.
10. Question
What does a level-of-evidence model use to evaluate the strength of a research
study and its findings? Select all that apply.
Incorrect
 A. Creativity
Correct
 B. Quality
Correct
 C. Quantity
Correct answer
D. Consistency

E. Efficiency

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B, C, D
Levels of evidence (sometimes called hierarchy of evidence) are assigned to
studies based on the methodological quality of their design, validity, and
applicability to patient care. These decisions give the “grade (or strength) of
recommendation.”
Option A: Strength-of-evidence systems incorporate not only study design
but also many other facets of the evidence, including study conduct,
presence or absence of bias, quantity of evidence, directness (or
indirectness) of evidence, consistency of evidence, and precision of
estimates.
Option B: For systematic reviews, the quality of evidence reflects the
extent of confidence that an estimate of effect is correct. Study design is
important in determining the quality of evidence As with early systems of
 grading the quality of evidence, 4 GRADE’s approach begins with the
study design.
Option C: If one considers other factors that influence the use of
evidence, the quantity of accessible evidence and initiatives ensuring a
wider understanding of it must be equally important. In consequence,
improving the quality of research evidence alone will not necessarily lead
to its greater use.
Option D: Confidence in the argument for or against a candidate cause is
increased when many types of evidence consistently support or weaken
it. A candidate cause is strongly supported if all available types of
evidence are consistently supportive. It is greatly weakened if all available
types of evidence are consistently weakening.
Option E: Although no one system for reporting results and grading the
related strength of evidence is likely to suit all users, documentation and
consistent reporting of the most important summary information about a
body of literature will make reviews more useful to a broader range of
potential audiences.
11. Question
What are the critiquing criteria used to judge the worth of a research study? Select
all that apply.
Correct
 A. Measures
Incorrect
 B. Objectives
Correct answer
C. Standards

D. Effectiveness
Correct
 E. Evaluation guides
Correct answer
F. Questions

Incorrect
Correct Answers: A, C, E, F
Critiquing is a systematic process for evaluating research studies and the
results reported. A research critique is an analysis of a research undertaking
that focuses on its strengths and limitations.
 Option A: Physiological measurement: Is a rationale given for why a
particular instrument or method was selected? If so, what is it? What
provision is made for maintaining the accuracy of the instrument and its
use, if any?
Option B: Research objectives describe concisely what the research is
trying to achieve. They summarize the accomplishments a researcher
wishes to achieve through the project and provide direction to the study.
Option C: Academic research standards are ethical guidelines that
researchers are expected to follow in the course of conducting and
reporting research. They are moral principles that guide researchers on
how to carry out research activities ethically, without causing harm to the
integrity of science and to human or animal life.
Option D: Effectiveness is a measure of the extent to which a specific
intervention, procedure, regimen, or service, when deployed in the field in
routine circumstances, does what it is intended to do for a specified
population.
Option E: Read the research article or report in its entirety to get a sense
of the study and its contribution to knowledge development. Read the
article or report again, paying attention to the questions appropriate to
each stage of the critiquing process.
Option F: The current paper suggests that the following guidelines be
used when a qualitative research paper is being examined: the topic must
be appropriate for qualitative inquiry; the specific qualitative research
method chosen must “fit”; the literature reviewed should be consistent
with the method chosen.
12. Question
Which statement best describes qualitative research? Select all that apply.

A. Studies are conducted in natural settings. Correct answer

Incorrect
 B. Data is collected from a large number of subjects.
Incorrect
 C. Data collected tends to be numeric.
Correct
 D. The research design is systematic and subjective.

Incorrect
Correct Answers: A, D
Qualitative research involves collecting and analyzing non-numerical data
(e.g., text, video, or audio) to understand concepts, opinions, or
 experiences. It can be used to gather in-depth insights into a problem or
generate new ideas for research.
Option A: Qualitative research is used to understand how people
experience the world. While there are many approaches to qualitative
research, they tend to be flexible and focus on retaining rich meaning
when interpreting data.
Option B: Qualitative researchers often consider themselves
“instruments” in research because all observations, interpretations, and
analyses are filtered through their own personal lens.
Option C: Qualitative research is the opposite of quantitative research,
which involves collecting and analyzing numerical data for statistical
analysis. Qualitative research is commonly used in the humanities and
social sciences, in subjects such as anthropology, sociology, education,
health sciences, history, etc.
Option D: Common approaches include grounded theory, ethnography,
action research, phenomenological research, and narrative research.
They share some similarities but emphasize different aims and
perspectives.
13. Question
What does a critique of a research study always include? Select all that apply.
Correct
 A. Determining its strengths and weaknesses.

B. Researching similar studies. Incorrect



Correct answer
C. Using critical reading skills.

D. Explaining your own personal opinions.

Incorrect
Correct Answers: A, C
Reading a single article can act as a springboard into researching the topic
more widely and aids in ensuring the nursing practice remains current and is
supported by existing literature.
Option A: Similar to a recipe, the description of materials and methods
will allow others to replicate the study elsewhere if needed. It should both
contain and justify the exact specifications of selection criteria, sample
size, response rate and any statistics used.
Option B: The discussion should use previous research work and
theoretical concepts as the context in which the new study can be
 interpreted. Any limitations of the study, including bias, should be clearly
presented.
Option C: Not all peer reviewers have expert knowledge on certain
subject matters, which can introduce bias and sometimes a conflict of
interest.
Option D: Publication bias can occur when editors only accept
manuscripts that have a bearing on the direction of their own research or
reject manuscripts with negative findings.
14. Question
For which of the following research questions would qualitative methods be most
appropriate?

A. Which pain medications decrease the need for sleep medication in

elderly patients?
Correct answer
B. What is the meaning of health for migrant farm-worker women?

C. Under what conditions does a decubitus ulcer heal most quickly?

Incorrect
D. How does frequency of medication administration impact the degree
of pain experienced following knee replacement surgery?


Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. What is the meaning of health for migrant farm-
worker women?
This question seeks to explore a phenomenon (health) for a specific
population. Qualitative research involves collecting and analyzing non-
numerical data (e.g., text, video, or audio) to understand concepts, opinions,
or experiences. It can be used to gather in-depth insights into a problem or
generate new ideas for research.
Option A: Qualitative research is used to understand how people
experience the world. While there are many approaches to qualitative
research, they tend to be flexible and focus on retaining rich meaning
when interpreting data.
Option C: Qualitative research often tries to preserve the voice and
perspective of participants and can be adjusted as new research
questions arise. Open-ended responses mean that researchers can
uncover novel problems or opportunities that they wouldn’t have thought
of otherwise.
 Option D: Quantitative methods allow the researcher to test a hypothesis
by systematically collecting and analyzing data, while qualitative methods
allow you to explore ideas and experiences in depth.
15. Question
Which of the following phrases would be found in a report of a qualitative study?

A. "The hypothesis of this study is?"

 B. "Perceived pain was measured using the Abbott pain scale?" Incorrect

C. "The control group received no instruction?"

D. "Subjects were asked to relate their perceptions of pain?"Correct answer

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. “Subjects were asked to relate their perceptions of
pain?”
Data collected were perceptions of pain, not numeric data. Other options
are found in a report of a quantitative study. Qualitative research involves
collecting and analyzing non-numerical data (e.g., text, video, or audio) to
understand concepts, opinions, or experiences. It can be used to gather in-
depth insights into a problem or generate new ideas for research.
Option A: Quantitative research is the process of collecting and
analyzing numerical data. It can be used to find patterns and averages,
make predictions, test causal relationships, and generalize results to
wider populations.
Option B: Qualitative research is the opposite of quantitative research,
which involves collecting and analyzing numerical data for statistical
analysis. Quantitative research is widely used in the natural and social
sciences: biology, chemistry, psychology, economics, sociology,
marketing, etc.
Option C: To collect quantitative data, the researcher will often need to
use operational definitions that translate abstract concepts (e.g., mood)
into observable and quantifiable measures (e.g., self-ratings of feelings
and energy levels).

16. Question
Which of the following phrases would be found in a report of a quantitative study?
Correct answer
A. "A convenience sample was chosen?"

B. "The phenomenon studied was?"

C. "Data were analyzed and interpreted?"

D. "Researchers sought to explore the meaning of the hospital Incorrect

experience?"


Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. “A convenience sample was chosen?”
When a sample of convenience is chosen, the study is a quantitative study.
Data from large samples can be processed and analyzed using reliable and
consistent procedures through quantitative data analysis. Quantitative
research is often used to standardize data collection and generalize
findings.
Option B: Qualitative studies explore phenomena. Researchers
investigate a phenomenon or event by describing and interpreting
participants’ lived experiences. Qualitative researchers often consider
themselves “instruments” in research because all observations,
interpretations, and analyses are filtered through their own personal lens.
Option C: Data collected in qualitative studies are “interpreted.”
Qualitative research is used to understand how people experience the
world. While there are many approaches to qualitative research, they tend
to be flexible and focus on retaining rich meaning when interpreting data.
Option D: Qualitative studies explore the meaning of human experience.
Qualitative research involves collecting and analyzing non-numerical data
(e.g., text, video, or audio) to understand concepts, opinions, or
experiences. It can be used to gather in-depth insights into a problem or
generate new ideas for research.

17. Question
Which of the following hypotheses are indicative of an experimental research
design? Select all that apply.
Incorrect



A. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters will be positively related to
urinary tract infections.

B. The incidence of urinary tract infections will be greater in Correct

patients whose Foley catheters are irrigated frequently than in those
whose Foley catheters are irrigated less frequently.

C. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters is associated with urinary

tract infections.
Correct answer
D. The incidence of urinary tract infections will not differ between
patients with or without Foley catheters.

E. The perception of pain from patients who had catheters varies

greatly.

Incorrect
Correct Answers: B, D
Experimental research, often considered to be the “gold standard” in
research designs, is one of the most rigorous of all research designs. In this
design, one or more independent variables are manipulated by the
researcher (as treatments), subjects are randomly assigned to different
treatment levels (random assignment), and the results of the treatments on
outcomes (dependent variables) are observed.
Option A: In experimental research, some subjects are administered one
or more experimental stimuli called a treatment (the treatment group )
while other subjects are not given such a stimulus (the control group ).
The treatment may be considered successful if subjects in the treatment
group rate more favorably on outcome variables than control group
subjects.
Option B: The unique strength of experimental research is its internal
validity (causality) due to its ability to link cause and effect through
treatment manipulation while controlling for the spurious effect of
extraneous variables.
Option C: Treatments are the unique feature of experimental research
that sets this design apart from all other research methods. Treatment
manipulation helps control for the “cause” in cause-effect relationships.
Option D: Experimental research is best suited for explanatory research
(rather than for descriptive or exploratory research), where the goal of
the study is to examine cause-effect relationships. It also works well for
research that involves a relatively limited and well-defined set of
independent variables that can either be manipulated or controlled.
 Option E: Random assignment is however a process of randomly
assigning subjects to experimental or control groups. This is a standard
practice in true experimental research to ensure that treatment groups
are similar (equivalent) to each other and to the control group, prior to
treatment administration.
18. Question
Which statements are part of the criteria used to judge the soundness of a stated
research question? Select all that apply.
Correct
 A. A relationship between two or more variables.

B. An operational definition of each variable.

Correct
 C. The nature of the population being tested.
Correct answer
D. The possibility of empirical testing.
Correct answer
E. A guiding framework for research.

Incorrect
Correct Answers: A, C, D, E
A research question is a question that a study or research project aims to
answer. This question often addresses an issue or a problem, which, through
analysis and interpretation of data, is answered in the study’s conclusion.
Option A: Moreover, the research question has a domino effect on the
rest of the study. These questions influence factors, such as the research
methodology, sample size, data collection, and data analysis (Lipowski,
2008).
Option B: The primary importance of framing the research question is
that it narrows down a broad topic of interest into a specific area of study
(Creswell, 2014). Research questions can be classified into different
categories, depending on the type of research to be done.
Option C: In most studies, the research question is written so that it
outlines various aspects of the study, including the population and
variables to be studied and the problem the study addresses.
Option D: As their name implies, research questions are often grounded
on research. As a result, these questions are dynamic; this means
researchers can change or refine the research question as they review
related literature and develop a framework for the study.
 Option E: Research questions, along with hypotheses, also serve as a
guiding framework for research. These questions also specifically reveal
the boundaries of the study, setting its limits, and ensuring cohesion.
19. Question
Which criteria are used to determine the testability of a hypothesis? Select all that
apply.

 A. Use of quantifiable words such as greater than or less than.Correct

B. A hypothesis stated in such a way that it can be clearly Correct

supported or not supported.
C. The use of value-laden words in a hypothesis.

D. Data-collection efforts that prove the validity of the hypothesis.

Correct
Correct Answers: A, B
Testability refers to the ability to run an experiment to test a hypothesis or
theory. When designing a research hypothesis, the questions being asked
by the researcher must be testable or the study becomes impossible to
provide an answer to the inquiry. Testability refers not only to methods used
for the investigation but also the constraints of the researcher.
Option A: Quantifiable words increase the testability of a hypothesis.
Write the hypothesis in such a way that it can be proven or disprove it. In
many cases, researchers might draw a hypothesis from a specific theory
or build on previous research.
Option B: The more clearly the hypothesis is stated, the easier it will be
to accept or reject it based on study findings. It must be possible to prove
that the hypothesis is true or false.
Option C: Hypotheses should not have value-laden words. A variable is a
factor or element that can be changed and manipulated in ways that are
observable and measurable. However, the researcher must also define
how the variable will be manipulated and measured in the study.
Option D: Data-collection processes are not part of the criterion used to
evaluate the testability of hypotheses. Identify the independent and
dependent variables in the hypothesis. The independent variable is what
 the researcher is controlling or changing. The researcher measures the
effect this has on the dependent variable.
20. Question
What are the advantages of using directional hypotheses? Select all that apply.

A. The indication of the use of a theory base to derive the Correct answer
hypothesis.

B. The provision of a specific theoretical frame of reference.Correct answer

C. Ensurance that findings will be generalizable.

Incorrect
 D. The indication of a non-biased selection of subjects.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A, B
A directional (or one-tailed hypothesis) states which way the researcher
thinks the results are going to go, for example in an experimental study we
might say…”Participants who have been deprived of sleep for 24 hours will
have more cold symptoms in the following week after exposure to a virus
than participants who have not been sleep deprived.”
Option A: A decent hypothesis will contain two variables, in the case of
an experimental hypothesis there will be an IV and a DV; in a correlational
hypothesis there will be two co-variables.
Option B: A test of a nondirectional alternative hypothesis does not state
the direction of the difference, it indicates only that a difference exists. In
contrast, a directional alternative hypothesis specifies the direction of the
tested relationship, stating that one variable is predicted to be larger or
smaller than the null value.
Option C: A directional hypothesis is a prediction made by a researcher
regarding a positive or negative change, relationship, or difference
between two variables of a population.
Option D: A directional hypothesis is a one-tailed hypothesis that states
the direction of the difference or relationship (e.g. boys are more helpful
than girls).
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Nursing Research Practice Exam (Quiz #2: 20 Questions)
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 Correct Incorrect

1. Question
Which one of the following statements about hypothesis is most accurate?
Incorrect
 A. Hypotheses represent the main idea to be studied and are the foundations of research studies.
Correct answer
B. Hypotheses help frame a test of the validity of a theory.

C. Hypotheses provide the means to test nursing theory.

D. A hypothesis can also be called a problem statement.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Hypotheses help frame a test of the validity of a theory.
Although theories cannot be tested directly, hypotheses provide a bridge between theory and the real world. A
hypothesis is a predetermined declaration regarding the research question in which the investigator(s) makes a
precise, educated guess about a study outcome. This is sometimes called the alternative hypothesis and
ultimately allows the researcher to take a stance based on experience or insight from medical literature.
Option A: It is the research question that represents the main idea to be studied. Investigators conducting
studies need research questions and hypotheses to guide analyses. Starting with broad research questions
(RQs), investigators then identify a gap in current clinical practice or research.
Option C: Theories cannot be tested directly. To test a hypothesis, researchers obtain data on a representative
sample to determine whether to reject or fail to reject a null hypothesis. In most research studies, it is not
feasible to obtain data for an entire population.
Option D: The research question is also called the problem statement. Any research problem or statement is
grounded in a better understanding of relationships between two or more variables. Research questions do not
directly imply specific guesses or predictions; the researcher must formulate research hypotheses.

2. Question
A nurse wants to study the effectiveness of meditation on people with anxiety disorder. Which variable would be most
relevant to explore in the literature on this topic?

A. Use of meditation during childbirth.

Correct answer
B. Meditation techniques found to be effective.

C. Pain management for people with anxiety disorders.

Incorrect
 D. Outcomes of meditation when used by elderly populations.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Meditation techniques found to be effective.
Framing a study using variables is a common approach to organizing the elements of a social sciences research
study in order to discover relevant and meaningful results. A variable in research simply refers to a person, place,
thing, or phenomenon that the researcher is trying to measure in some way. The best way to understand the
 difference between a dependent and independent variable is that the meaning of each is implied by what the
words tell us about the variable being used.
Option A: Dependent variable is the variable that depends on other factors that are measured. These variables
are expected to change as a result of an experimental manipulation of the independent variable or variables. It
is the presumed effect.
Option C: Independent variable the variable that is stable and unaffected by the other variables you are trying
to measure. It refers to the condition of an experiment that is systematically manipulated by the investigator. It
is the presumed cause.
Option D: Designation of the dependent and independent variable involves unpacking the research problem in
a way that identifies a general cause and effect and classifying these variables as either independent or
dependent.
3. Question
What is a characteristic of an independent variable?

A. It is the variable that is predicted to change.

B. It varies with a change in the dependent variable.

Correct answer
C. It is manipulated by the researcher.
Incorrect
 D. It can be identified only by changes in the dependent variable.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. It is manipulated by the researcher.
The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and has a presumed effect on the dependent variable.
They are either manipulated by the researcher or are observed by the researcher so that their values can be
related to that of the dependent variable. For example, in a research study on the relationship between
mosquitoes and mosquito bites, the number of mosquitoes per acre of ground would be an independent variable”
(Jaeger, 1990, p. 373).
Option A: It is the dependent variable that is predicted to change. The dependent variable is the outcome. In
an experiment, it may be what was caused or what changed as a result of the study. In a comparison of groups,
it is what they differ on.
Option B: The independent variable is presumed to change the dependent variable. In a research study,
independent variables are antecedent conditions that are presumed to affect a dependent variable.
Option D: The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and is identified at the beginning of the
study. While the independent variable is often manipulated by the researcher, it can also be a classification
where subjects are assigned to groups. In a study where one variable causes the other, the independent
variable is the cause. In a study where groups are being compared, the independent variable is the group
classification.

4. Question
Which statement is most accurate regarding hypotheses?

A. Hypothesis operationally defines the dependent variables.

Correct answer
B. Hypotheses are statements about the relationships among variables.

C. Hypotheses describe the effect of the dependent variable on the independent variable.
Incorrect
 D. Hypotheses must include a definition of the treatment or intervention used.
 Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Hypotheses are statements about the relationships among variables.
Hypotheses are statements about the relationships between two or more variables that suggest an answer to the
research question. A hypothesis is a tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables. It
is a specific, testable prediction about what the researcher expects to happen in a study.
Option A: Hypotheses are not concerned with operationally defining the variables involved in the study. In the
scientific method, whether it involves research in psychology, biology, or some other area, a hypothesis
represents what the researchers think will happen in an experiment.
Option C: The independent variable is not affected or changed by the dependent variable. A variable is a
factor or element that can be changed and manipulated in ways that are observable and measurable. However,
the researcher must also define how the variable will be manipulated and measured in the study.
Option D: Hypotheses are not concerned with operationally defining the variables involved in the study,
including treatments or interventions. These precise descriptions are important because many things can be
measured in a number of different ways. One of the basic principles of any type of scientific research is that
the results must be replicable.

5. Question
What is a characteristic of a hypothesis?

A. It flows from interpretation of the data collected.

B. It operationally defines the variable to be studied.

Incorrect
 C. It eliminates the need to designate a dependent variable.
Correct answer
D. It implies a causative or associative relationship.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. It implies a causative or associative relationship.
A hypothesis implies a causative or associative relationship. Investigators conducting studies need research
questions and hypotheses to guide analyses. Starting with broad research questions (RQs), investigators then
identify a gap in current clinical practice or research. Any research problem or statement is grounded in a better
understanding of relationships between two or more variables.
Option A: A hypothesis guides the research design and collection of data. To test a hypothesis, researchers
obtain data on a representative sample to determine whether to reject or fail to reject a null hypothesis. In most
research studies, it is not feasible to obtain data for an entire population. Using a sampling procedure allows for
statistical inference, though this involves a certain possibility of error.
Option B: Operational definitions are not included in the hypothesis. A hypothesis is a predetermined
declaration regarding the research question in which the investigator(s) makes a precise, educated guess
about a study outcome. This is sometimes called the alternative hypothesis and ultimately allows the
researcher to take a stance based on experience or insight from medical literature.
Option C: The hypothesis indicates the dependent variable. A hypothesis states a presumed relationship
between two variables in a way that can be tested with empirical data. It may take the form of a cause-effect
statement, or an “if x,…then y” statement.

6. Question
When should a hypothesis be developed by the researcher during the research process?
Incorrect
 A. Before development of the research question.
Correct answer
B. After development of the research question.
 C. After a research design is determined.

D. Before any statistical analysis.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. After development of the research question.
The hypothesis is developed after development of the research question. Writing a hypothesis begins with a
research question that the researcher wants to answer. The question should be focused, specific, and
researchable within the constraints of the project.
Option A: The initial answer to the question should be based on what is already known about the topic. The
researcher should look for theories and previous studies to help form educated assumptions about what the
research will find. At this stage, the researcher might construct a conceptual framework to identify which
variables will be studied and what the relationships are between them.
Option C: A research design encompasses the methodology and procedure employed to conduct scientific
research. Although procedures vary from one field of inquiry to another, identifiable features distinguish
scientific inquiry from other methods of obtaining knowledge.
Option D: If the research involves statistical hypothesis testing, the researcher will also have to write a null
hypothesis. The null hypothesis is the default position that there is no association between the variables. The
null hypothesis is written as H0, while the alternative hypothesis is H1 or Ha.

7. Question
Which research hypothesis is most testable?

A. There is a relationship between meditation and anxiety disorders.

B. Patients with anxiety disorders who learn meditation techniques have less anxiety than those who do not.
Incorrect
C. Teaching one meditation technique to patients with anxiety disorders will be better than teaching multiple
techniques.


D. The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with anxiety disorder than those who doCorrect
not answer
meditate.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with anxiety disorder than
those who do not meditate.
This hypothesis meets the criteria of testability. Hypotheses are testable explanations of a problem, phenomenon,
or observation. While there is no single way to develop a hypothesis, a useful hypothesis will use deductive
reasoning to make predictions that can be experimentally assessed. If results contradict the predictions, then the
hypothesis under examination is incorrect or incomplete and must be revised or abandoned.
Option A: Hypothesis testing is an act in statistics whereby an analyst tests an assumption regarding a
population parameter. The methodology employed by the analyst depends on the nature of the data used and
the reason for the analysis.
Option B: The null hypothesis is usually a hypothesis of equality between population parameters; e.g. a null
hypothesis may state that the population mean return is equal to zero. The alternative hypothesis is effectively
the opposite of a null hypothesis (e.g., the population mean return is not equal to zero). Thus, they are mutually
exclusive, and only one can be true. However, one of the two hypotheses will always be true.
Option C: Statistical analysts test a hypothesis by measuring and examining a random sample of the
population being analyzed. All analysts use a random population sample to test two different hypotheses: the
null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis.

8. Question
What is a characteristic of a statistical hypothesis?
Correct answer
A. It is a null hypothesis.
Incorrect
 B. It predicts a positive relationship among variables.

C. It is a complex hypothesis.

D. It describes data-analysis methods.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. It is a null hypothesis.
Statistical hypotheses, called null hypotheses, state that there is no relationship between the independent and
dependent variables. Hypothesis testing is used to assess the plausibility of a hypothesis by using sample data.
The test provides evidence concerning the plausibility of the hypothesis, given the data.
Option B: In hypothesis testing, an analyst tests a statistical sample, with the goal of providing evidence on the
plausibility of the null hypothesis. Statistical analysts test a hypothesis by measuring and examining a random
sample of the population being analyzed. All analysts use a random population sample to test two different
hypotheses: the null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis.
Option C: The null hypothesis is usually a hypothesis of equality between population parameters; e.g., a null
hypothesis may state that the population mean return is equal to zero.
Option D: The alternative hypothesis is effectively the opposite of a null hypothesis (e.g., the population mean
return is not equal to zero). Thus, they are mutually exclusive, and only one can be true. However, one of the
two hypotheses will always be true.

9. Question
When will a null hypothesis be rejected?

A. There is no association among variables.

B. There is evidence of significance.

Correct
 C. The independent and dependent variables are related.

D. The research hypothesis is rejected.

Correct
Correct Answer: C. The independent and dependent variables are related.
Because the null hypothesis states that there is no relationship between the independent and dependent
variables, it is rejected if they are related. H0 symbolizes the null hypothesis of no difference. It presumes to be
true until evidence indicates otherwise. Analysts look to reject the null hypothesis because doing so is a strong
conclusion. This requires strong evidence in the form of an observed difference that is too large to be explained
solely by chance.
Option A: The null hypothesis is a characteristic arithmetic theory suggesting that no statistical relationship
and significance exists in a set of given, single, observed variables between two sets of observed data and
measured phenomena.
Option B: The alternative hypothesis proposes that there is a difference. A null hypothesis is a type of
conjecture used in statistics that proposes that there is no difference between certain characteristics of a
population or data-generating process.
Option D: Hypothesis testing provides a method to reject a null hypothesis within a certain confidence level.
(Null hypotheses cannot be proven, though.) Failing to reject the null hypothesis—that the results are
 explainable by chance alone—is a weak conclusion because it allows that factors other than chance may be at
work but may not be strong enough to be detectable by the statistical test used.
10. Question
Which level is characteristic of the strength of the evidence provided by the results of a quasi-experimental study?

A. Level I

B. Level II
Correct
 C. Level III

D. Level IV

Correct
Correct Answer: C. Level III
Evidence provided by quasi-experimental studies is level III. Evidence obtained from well-designed controlled
trials without randomization (i.e. quasi-experimental). Levels of evidence (sometimes called hierarchy of
evidence) are assigned to studies based on the methodological quality of their design, validity, and applicability to
patient care. These decisions give the “grade (or strength) of recommendation.”
Option A: Level I evidence is obtained from a systematic review of all randomized, controlled trials. Evidence is
from a systematic review or meta-analysis of all relevant RCTs (randomized controlled trial) or evidence-based
clinical practice guidelines based on systematic reviews of RCTs or three or more RCTs of good quality that
have similar results.
Option B: Level II evidence is obtained from at least one well-designed randomized, controlled trial. Evidence
is obtained from at least one well-designed RCT (e.g. large multi-site RCT).
Option D: Level IV evidence is obtained from nonexperimental studies. Evidence is from well-designed case-
control or cohort studies. In level V, evidence is from systematic reviews of descriptive and qualitative studies
(meta-synthesis). In level VI, evidence is from a single descriptive or qualitative study. Lastly, in level VII,
evidence is from the opinion of authorities and/or reports of expert committees.

11. Question
A researcher wants to discover why patients of certain ethnic backgrounds are reluctant to ask for pain medication.
Because there is little data in the literature on this topic, the researcher designs a study to explore the relationships
between cultural belief systems, the experience of pain, and the effective use of medication to relieve pain. The
researcher plans to use the findings of this study to formulate hypotheses for a future study. What is a characteristic of
this study?

A. It is a quasi-experimental study.

B. It will lead to level II data.

C. It has a directional hypothesis.

Correct
 D. It is a hypothesis-generating study.

Correct
Correct Answer: D. It is a hypothesis-generating study.
Not enough is known in this area at this time to formulate hypotheses, so the researcher will conduct this
qualitative study and use the findings to generate hypotheses for future studies. In hypothesis-generating
 research, the researcher explores a set of data searching for relationships and patterns and then proposes
hypotheses that may then be tested in some subsequent study.
Option A: This is a qualitative study, not a quasi-experimental study. Qualitative research involves collecting
and analyzing non-numerical data (e.g., text, video, or audio) to understand concepts, opinions, or
experiences. Qualitative research is the opposite of quantitative research, which involves collecting and
analyzing numerical data for statistical analysis.
Option B: Level II evidence is obtained from at least one well-designed randomized, controlled trial. Evidence
is obtained from at least one well-designed RCT (e.g. large multi-site RCT). Levels of evidence (sometimes
called hierarchy of evidence) are assigned to studies based on the methodological quality of their design,
validity, and applicability to patient care. These decisions give the “grade (or strength) of recommendation.”
Option C: This study has no hypothesis. A directional hypothesis is a prediction made by a researcher
regarding a positive or negative change, relationship, or difference between two variables of a population.
12. Question
The nurse develops the following hypothesis: Elderly women receive less aggressive treatment for breast cancer than do
younger women. Which variable would be considered to be the dependent variable?
Correct
 A. Degree of treatment received.

B. Age of the patient.

C. Type of cancer being treated.

D. Use of inpatient treatment.

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Degree of treatment received.
The degree of treatment received is considered the dependent variable. Dependent variable is the variable that
depends on other factors that are measured. These variables are expected to change as a result of experimental
manipulation of the independent variable or variables. It is the presumed effect.
Option B: The age of the patient is an independent variable. Independent variable is the variable that is stable
and unaffected by the other variables the researcher is trying to measure. It refers to the condition of an
experiment that is systematically manipulated by the investigator. It is the presumed cause.
Option C: The type of cancer being treated can be a predictor variable. Predictor variables can be used to
predict the value of a dependent variable. Predictor variable is the name given to an independent variable used
in regression analyses. The predictor variable provides information on an associated dependent variable
regarding a particular outcome. At the most fundamental level, predictor variables are variables that are linked
with particular outcomes.
Option D: The use of inpatient treatment is not specified. Researchers often use charts or graphs to visualize
the results of their studies. The norm is to place the independent variable on the “x” or horizontal axis and the
dependent variable on the “y” or vertical axis.

13. Question
The nurse develops the following hypothesis: Elderly women receive less aggressive treatment for breast cancer than do
younger women. Which variable would be considered to be the independent variable?

A. Degree of treatment received.

Correct answer
B. Age of the patient.
Incorrect
 C. Type of cancer being treated.
 D. Use of inpatient treatment.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Age of the patient.
The age of the patient would be the independent variable. Independent variable is the variable that is stable and
unaffected by the other variables the researcher is trying to measure. It refers to the condition of an experiment
that is systematically manipulated by the investigator. It is the presumed cause.
Option A: The degree of treatment received is considered the dependent variable. Dependent variable is the
variable that depends on other factors that are measured. These variables are expected to change as a result
of experimental manipulation of the independent variable or variables. It is the presumed effect.
Option C: The type of cancer being treated can be a predictor variable. Predictor variables can be used to
predict the value of a dependent variable. Predictor variable is the name given to an independent variable used
in regression analyses. The predictor variable provides information on an associated dependent variable
regarding a particular outcome. At the most fundamental level, predictor variables are variables that are linked
with particular outcomes.
Option D: The use of inpatient treatment is not specified. Researchers often use charts or graphs to visualize
the results of their studies. The norm is to place the independent variable on the “x” or horizontal axis and the
dependent variable on the “y” or vertical axis.

14. Question
The following are considered steps in the qualitative research process,
Incorrect
 A. Literature review
Correct answer
B. Hypothesis

C. Sample

D. Data collection

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Hypothesis
A hypothesis is the tool of quantitative studies and is only found in such studies. A hypothesis states the
predictions about what the research will find. It is a tentative answer to a research question that has not yet been
tested. A hypothesis is not just a guess — it should be based on existing theories and knowledge. It also has to be
testable, which means the researcher can support or refute it through scientific research methods (such as
experiments, observations, and statistical analysis of data).
Option A: A literature review is a comprehensive summary of previous research on a topic. The literature
review surveys scholarly articles, books, and other sources relevant to a particular area of research. The review
should enumerate, describe, summarize, objectively evaluate and clarify this previous research.
Option C: In research terms, a sample is a group of people, objects, or items that are taken from a larger
population for measurement. The sample should be representative of the population to ensure that we can
generalize the findings from the research sample to the population as a whole.
Option D: This step revolves around obtaining the information that the researcher will need to solve the issue
or problem identified. Data collection involves a field force or staff that operates either in the field, as in the
case of personal interviewing (in-home, mall intercept, or computer-assisted personal interviewing), from an
office by telephone (telephone or computer-assisted telephone interviewing), or through the mail (traditional
mail and mail panel surveys with recruited households).

15. Question
Which of the following could be considered the “context” of a study? Select all that apply.
Correct
  A. Cultural understandings and beliefs of study participants.
Correct
 B. The physical setting of the study.

C. The sample selected for the study.

D. The number of subjects in the study.

E. The research design used.

Correct
Correct Answers: A, B
Contextual perspective is an essential aspect of a research proposal and requires critical attention while writing
the proposal. In the Introduction section of the proposal, the writer should try to create interest in the readers
about the proposed research.
Option A: Contextual perspectives consider the relationship between individuals and their physical, cognitive,
and social worlds. They also examine socio-cultural and environmental influences on development.
Option B: Simply put, a research setting is the physical, social, or experimental context within which research
is conducted. In a research paper, describing this setting accurately is crucial since the results and their
interpretation may depend heavily on it.
Option C: The sample is not included in the context of the study. Make sure to include relevant references and
citations. If presented adequately, the contextual perspective effectively establishes not only the need for the
proposed research but also indicates the expertise of the writer in that specific research area.
Option D: The number of subjects is not included in the context of the study. It is also called a sample.
Establish context by providing a brief and balanced review of the pertinent published literature that is available
on the subject. The key is to summarize for the reader what is known about the specific research problem
before the researcher did an analysis. This part of the introduction should not represent a comprehensive
literature review–that comes next.
Option E: The research design used is seen in the methodology. The context of the study consists of a general
review of the important, foundational research literature [with citations] that establishes a foundation for
understanding key elements of the research problem.

16. Question
Which beliefs guide the constructivist paradigm? Select all that apply.
Correct answer
A. There are multiple realities.

B. The truth is objective.

C. Context does not matter as much as truth. Incorrect



Correct
 D. The participant (subject) is an active part of the study.

E. Knowledge is gained through facts. Incorrect



Incorrect
Correct Answer: A, D
Constructivism implies that reality is constructed through human interaction. Knowledge is a human product and
is socially and culturally constructed. Individuals create meaning through their interactions with each other and
with the environment in which they live. Social constructivism emphasizes the importance of culture and context
in the process of knowledge construction and accumulation.
 Option A: In social constructivism, human interests are important for research purposes and knowledge is
constructed through social interaction. Such knowledge is shared rather than an individual experience.
According to constructivists, reality is a subjective creation. There is no single reality. Race, for example, is a
social construct. Claiming that people are different based on the skin of their color is a (subjective) social
construct.
Option B: The aim of constructivist research is to understand particular situations or phenomena. Rich data is
gathered from which ideas can be formed. The interaction of a number of people is researched, mostly to solve
social problems of the target group.
Option C: Learners add to and reshape their mental models of reality through social collaboration, building
new understandings as they actively engage in learning experiences. Scaffolding, i.e. guidance and support,
play an important role in the learning process. Research is, of course, largely a learning process and
researchers on any level can use it to gain knowledge and to structure their research.
Option D: Social constructivism is based on the principles of constructivism. Like positivism, social
constructivism also uses observation to gather information. Different from positivism, the researcher is part of
what is being observed in social constructivism.
Option E: Positivism and constructivism are not the same. Both are epistemologies that present a different
idea of what constitutes knowledge. However, positivism is a philosophical stance that emphasizes that
knowledge should be gained through observable and measurable facts, whereas constructivism states that
reality is a social construct.
17. Question
Which of the following are consistent with the constructivist paradigm? Select all that apply.
Correct
 A. Subjectivism is valued.
Incorrect
 B. Natural laws exist.
Correct
 C. Time and place are important.

D. Generalizability is valued.

E. Knowledge is gained through observable facts.

Incorrect
Correct Answers: A, C
Constructivism implies that reality is constructed through human interaction. Knowledge is a human product and
is socially and culturally constructed. Individuals create meaning through their interactions with each other and
with the environment in which they live. Social constructivism emphasizes the importance of culture and context
in the process of knowledge construction and accumulation.
Option A: In social constructivism, human interests are important for research purposes and knowledge is
constructed through social interaction. Such knowledge is shared rather than an individual experience.
According to constructivists, reality is a subjective creation. There is no single reality. Race, for example, is a
social construct. Claiming that people are different based on the skin of their color is a (subjective) social
construct.
Option B: Constructivist research programs specifically study the status of ‘knowledge’ (Tsoukas 2005), the
relation to the ‘world’ (Goodman 1987), and the process of the scientific generation of knowledge (Knorr
Cetina 2002), thus reflecting research as a construction process, which inherently implies epistemological
considerations.
Option C: Constructivism implies that reality is constructed through human interaction. Knowledge is a human
product and is socially and culturally constructed. Individuals create meaning through their interactions with
each other and with the environment in which they live. Social constructivism emphasizes the importance of
culture and context in the process of knowledge construction and accumulation.
Option D: The constructivist programs question a concept of ‘reality as something that is ‘objectively given’,
instead of focusing on the construction processes implied in the creation, establishment, and stabilization of
‘reality. This explains why constructivist perspectives imply ontological considerations, as embedded in (social)
practice itself.
Option E: Positivism and constructivism are not the same. Both are epistemologies that present a different
idea of what constitutes knowledge. However, positivism is a philosophical stance that emphasizes that
 knowledge should be gained through observable and measurable facts, whereas constructivism states that
reality is a social construct.
18. Question
Which paradigm provides the basis for qualitative research?A. Empirical analytical research

A. Empirical analytical research Incorrect



B. Constructivism Correct answer

C. Postpositivism

D. Naturalistic research

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Constructivism
The paradigm that provides the basis for qualitative research is constructivism. Constructivism implies that reality
is constructed through human interaction. Knowledge is a human product and is socially and culturally
constructed. Individuals create meaning through their interactions with each other and with the environment in
which they live.
Option A: Empirical research is a type of research methodology that makes use of verifiable evidence in order
to arrive at research outcomes. In other words, this type of research relies solely on evidence obtained through
observation or scientific data collection methods.
Option C: Postpositivism or postempiricism is a metatheoretical stance that critiques and amends positivism
and has impacted theories and practices across philosophy, social sciences, and various models of scientific
inquiry.
Option D: Naturalistic observation is a nonexperimental, primarily qualitative research method in which
organisms are studied in their natural settings. Behaviors or other phenomena of interest are observed and
recorded by the researcher, whose presence might be either known or unknown to the subjects.

19. Question
Which type of research allows researchers to be neutral observers?

A. Qualitative research
Incorrect
 B. Ethnographic research
Correct answer
C. Quantitative research

D. Case studies

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Quantitative research
Quantitative research is the process of collecting and analyzing numerical data. It can be used to find patterns
and averages, make predictions, test causal relationships, and generalize results to wider populations.
Option A: In qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral. Qualitative research involves
collecting and analyzing non-numerical data (e.g., text, video, or audio) to understand concepts, opinions, or
experiences. It can be used to gather in-depth insights into a problem or generate new ideas for research.
Option B: In ethnography, a type of qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral.
Researchers immerse themselves in groups or organizations to understand their cultures.
 Option D: In case studies, a type of qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral. A case
study is a research approach that is used to generate an in-depth, multi-faceted understanding of a complex
issue in its real-life context. It is an established research design that is used extensively in a wide variety of
disciplines, particularly in the social sciences.
20. Question
Which type of research study can be affected by detracting values of the researcher?
Incorrect
 A. Qualitative

B. Naturalistic

C. Ethnographic
Correct answer
D. Quantitative

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Quantitative
Quantitative research is the process of collecting and analyzing numerical data. It can be used to find patterns
and averages, make predictions, test causal relationships, and generalize results to wider populations.
Option A: The values of the researcher must be acknowledged in qualitative research. Qualitative research
involves collecting and analyzing non-numerical data (e.g., text, video, or audio) to understand concepts,
opinions, or experiences. It can be used to gather in-depth insights into a problem or generate new ideas for
research.
Option B: The values of the researcher must be acknowledged in naturalistic research. Naturalistic observation
is a nonexperimental, primarily qualitative research method in which organisms are studied in their natural
settings. Behaviors or other phenomena of interest are observed and recorded by the researcher, whose
presence might be either known or unknown to the subjects.
Option C: The values of the researcher must be acknowledged in qualitative research. In ethnography, a type
of qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral. Researchers immerse themselves in groups
or organizations to understand their cultures.
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Nursing Research Practice Exam (Quiz #3: 20 Questions)

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Correct Incorrect

1. Question
What is the purpose of grounded theory?

A. To support theoretical frameworks.

Correct answer
B. To generate theory from data.

C. To develop explanatory models.

Incorrect
 D. To find significant differences among groups of people.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. To generate theory from data.
The grounded theory method refers to a qualitative approach of building theory about a phenomenon about which
little is known. Grounded theory sets out to discover or construct theory from data, systematically obtained and
analyzed using comparative analysis. While grounded theory is inherently flexible, it is a complex methodology.
Option A: A theoretical framework consists of concepts and, together with their definitions and reference to
relevant scholarly literature, existing theory that is used for a particular study. The theoretical framework must
demonstrate an understanding of theories and concepts that are relevant to the topic of the research paper
and that relate to the broader areas of knowledge being considered.
Option C: An explanatory model is a useful description of why and how anything works or an explanation of
why a phenomenon is the way it is. The explanatory model is used as a substitute for “the full explanation” of
the thing in question: either because the full explanation is unavailable.
Option D: A significant difference between two groups or two points in time means that there is a measurable
difference between the groups and that, statistically, the probability of obtaining that difference by chance is
very small (usually less than 5%).

2. Question
Why is it important to understand the philosophy underlying each type of research?

A. Conclusions reached should be congruent with the research question.

Correct answer
 B. The research method that best meets the intended purpose of the study should be used.
Incorrect
 C. The paradigm of the method should be the same as that of the researcher.

D. The reader should understand the level of abstraction of the study.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. The research method that best meets the intended purpose of the study should be
used.
Different research methods accomplish different goals and offer different types and levels of evidence that inform
practice. Given these three points, the first point as proposed by Easterby-Smith et al (2012) understanding the
research philosophies helps the researcher to highlight and specify the best suitable methods for the study at
hand.
Option A: The point is focused on having insights into the research paradigm which helps the researcher to
have the foreknowledge of possible research limitations pertaining to the research methodology employed.
Option C: In any research process, it is very important for the researcher to understand the research
philosophies or the paradigms that contribute and add to research quality and creativity (Easterby-Smith et al
(2012).
Option D: The ontological and the epistemological positions of the researcher influence his or her choice of
what data to collect, how to collect and analyze the data, the meanings to make the data, and the extent of the
generalizability of research findings.

3. Question
Which conceptual analysis point of the framework for rigor used for interpretive phenomenology refers to how the study
findings will continue to have meaning for the reader?

A. Resonance

B. Concreteness
Correct answer
C. Actualization
Incorrect
 D. Openness

Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Actualization
Actualization refers to how the study findings will continue to have meaning for the reader. IPA’s emphasis on
sense-making by both participant and researcher means that it can be described as having cognition as a central
analytic concern, and this suggests an interesting theoretical alliance with the cognitive paradigm that is dominant
in contemporary psychology.
Option A: Within an interpretive tradition of qualitative research, resonance refers to a researcher’s posture of
openness and receptivity toward potential meanings embedded in text. It serves as an important ontological
and epistemological counterpoint to the postpositivist stance of objective analysis of data.
Option B: In IPA, researchers gather qualitative data from research participants using techniques such as
interviews, diaries, or focus groups. Typically, these are approached from a position of flexible and open-ended
inquiry, and the interviewer adopts a stance that is curious and facilitative (rather than, say, challenging and
interrogative).
Option D: Usually, participants in an IPA study are expected to have certain experiences in common with one
another: the small-scale nature of a basic IPA study shows how something is understood in a given context,
and from a shared perspective, a method sometimes called homogeneous sampling.
4. Question
Which question will critique the sampling of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?

Correct
 C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?

D. What are the philosophical underpinnings of the research method?

Correct
Correct Answer: C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?
A research critique is an analysis of a research undertaking that focuses on its strengths and limitations. Critiquing
is a systematic process for evaluating research studies and the results reported.
Option A: “The purpose of a research critique is to determine whether the findings are usable for you” (Brink &
Wood, 2001, p. 57). Understand the purpose and problem, while determining if the design and methodology
are consistent with the purpose.
Option B: Determine if the methodology is properly applied. Assess if outcomes and conclusions are
believable and supported by findings. Reflect on overall quality, strengths, and limitations.
Option D: Regardless of the type of critique, certain elements comprise a critique. Some general questions can
be associated with the elements of a critique.

5. Question
Which question will critique the method of a research project?A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the
purpose of the study?
Correct
 A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?

C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?

D. What are the philosophical underpinnings of the research method?

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
A research critique is an analysis of a research undertaking that focuses on its strengths and limitations. Critiquing
is a systematic process for evaluating research studies and the results reported.
Option B: This question will critique the purpose of a research project. Read the research article or report in its
entirety to get a sense of the study and its contribution to knowledge development.
Option C: This question will critique the sampling of a research project. Read the article or report again, paying
attention to the questions appropriate to each stage of the critiquing process.
Option D: This question will critique the philosophy of a research project. “The necessary elements in a
research critique can be compiled in a series of questions for the process of critiquing research” (Boswell &
Cannon, 2009, p. 308).

6. Question
Which question will critique the purpose of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
Correct answer
B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?
Incorrect
 C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?

D. What are the philosophical underpinnings of the research method?

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?
This question will critique the purpose of a research project. Read the research article or report in its entirety to
get a sense of the study and its contribution to knowledge development.
Option A: A research critique is an analysis of a research undertaking that focuses on its strengths and
limitations. Critiquing is a systematic process for evaluating research studies and the results reported.
Option C: This question will critique the sampling of a research project. Read the article or report again, paying
attention to the questions appropriate to each stage of the critiquing process.
Option D: This question will critique the philosophy of a research project. “The necessary elements in a
research critique can be compiled in a series of questions for the process of critiquing research” (Boswell &
Cannon, 2009, p. 308).

7. Question
Which question will critique the credibility of a research project?
Incorrect
 A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

B. Does the researcher document the research process?

C. Are the researcher's conceptualizations true to the data?

Correct answer
D. Has adequate time been allowed to fully understand the phenomenon?

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Has adequate time been allowed to fully understand the phenomenon?
This question will critique the credibility of a research project. “The necessary elements in a research critique can
be compiled in a series of questions for the process of critiquing research” (Boswell & Cannon, 2009, p. 308).
Option A: A research critique is an analysis of a research undertaking that focuses on its strengths and
limitations. Critiquing is a systematic process for evaluating research studies and the results reported.
Option B: This question will critique the auditability of a research project. Understand the purpose and
problem, while determining if the design and methodology are consistent with the purpose.
Option C: This question will critique the significance of a research project. “The purpose of a research critique
is to determine whether the findings are usable for you” (Brink & Wood, 2001, p. 57).

8. Question
Which question will critique the auditability of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
 Correct answer
B. Does the researcher document the research process?

C. Are the researcher's conceptualizations true to the data?

Incorrect
 D. Has adequate time been allowed to fully understand the phenomenon?

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Does the researcher document the research process?
This question will critique the auditability of a research project. Understand the purpose and problem, while
determining if the design and methodology are consistent with the purpose.
Option A: A research critique is an analysis of a research undertaking that focuses on its strengths and
limitations. Critiquing is a systematic process for evaluating research studies and the results reported.
Option C: This question will critique the significance of a research project. “The purpose of a research critique
is to determine whether the findings are usable for you” (Brink & Wood, 2001, p. 57).
Option D: This question will critique the credibility of a research project. “The necessary elements in a
research critique can be compiled in a series of questions for the process of critiquing research” (Boswell &
Cannon, 2009, p. 308).

9. Question
Which question will critique the fittingness of a research project?
Correct
 A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

B. Does the researcher document the research process?

C. Are the researcher's conceptualizations true to the data?

D. Has adequate time been allowed to fully understand the phenomenon?

Correct
Correct Answer: A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
This question will critique the fittingness of a research project. A research critique is an analysis of a research
undertaking that focuses on its strengths and limitations. Critiquing is a systematic process for evaluating
research studies and the results reported.
Option B: This question will critique the auditability of a research project. Understand the purpose and
problem, while determining if the design and methodology are consistent with the purpose.
Option C: This question will critique the significance of a research project. “The purpose of a research critique
is to determine whether the findings are usable for you” (Brink & Wood, 2001, p. 57).
Option D: This question will critique the credibility of a research project. “The necessary elements in a
research critique can be compiled in a series of questions for the process of critiquing research” (Boswell &
Cannon, 2009, p. 308).

10. Question
What are the uses of qualitative research methods? Select all that apply.
Correct answer
A. Guiding nursing practice.
Incorrect
 B. Studying the effects of nursing care on an outcome variable.
 Correct answer
C. Developing survey instruments.
Correct answer
D. Developing nursing theory.

Incorrect
Correct Answers: A, C, D
Qualitative research refers to a method of inquiry in which the researcher, acting as a data collection instrument,
seeks to answer questions about how or why a particular phenomenon occurs. Questions regarding what a
phenomenon is comprised may also guide qualitative research
Option A: The most fundamental assumption underlying qualitative research is that reality is something
socially constructed on an individual basis. Varied methods of qualitative research exist. Examples of
qualitative methods employed in nursing research include grounded theory, phenomenology, ethnography, and
qualitative description.
Option B: Regardless of method, participants are purposefully enrolled based on their familiarity with the
phenomenon. Data are generally collected via one or a combination of three mechanisms: interviews,
observation, or document/photograph review.
Option C: Qualitative findings provide idiographic knowledge about human experiences to readers, who can
apply qualitative findings to the care of individuals who are in situations similar to that of those in the sample
from which findings came
Option D: Qualitative findings are not generalizable in the prevalent sense of the word—they do not provide
laws or relationships that can be taken from a single sample and applied to entire populations. Rather, they are
generalizable in a way that is particularly pertinent to nursing practice, in which there is an expectation that
scientific findings, and nursing care itself, be tailored to unique individuals in their distinct contexts.

11. Question
What are scientific criteria appropriate for qualitative research? Select all that apply.
Correct
 A. Auditability
Correct
 B. Credibility
Correct
 C. Fittingness

D. Reliability

Correct
Correct Answers: A, B, C
The rigor of qualitative research is judged by these criteria. They are the criteria by which qualitative research is
evaluated for validity and reliability. In qualitative research, the researcher is the study instrument collecting the
data, and doing the interpretation bias for inclusion and risk for harm is the researcher’s responsibility; they must
constantly check with the subject.
Option A: Auditability is established by the reader being able to follow the steps of the research form, the
research questions, to the data collection, to the data, and then to the findings (categories, themes, model) By
the steps for interpretation and synthesis and data examples provided, the reader should be able to follow the
researcher’s thinking.
Option B: Credibility is the truth of findings as judged by the participants themselves and others. To help
establish, the researcher should return to the original participants and get them to validate the findings. Others
within the discipline may also help establish by review of the data and findings.
Option C: Fittingness is the meaningfulness of the everyday findings to the everyday reality of that situation.
Are the results described in enough detail so that one may evaluate them for their own practice?
Option D: A way to more fully address the nature of the human experience is to come at it from one in one
fashion. Triangulation tries to address the problem using both quantitative and qualitative or multiple qualitative
methods in one study.
12. Question
What are ethical concerns for qualitative researchers? Select all that apply.
Correct
A. Because the study emerges over time, the researcher may not anticipate and inform the
participants of a potential threat.

B. To maintain a naturalistic environment for interviews, formal documents such as consent forms areIncorrect
not
used.


C. Because there are so few participants in a qualitative study, no participant can opt-out of the study.

D. Because the researcher and participant interact over a period of time, relationships developedCorrect answer
between
them may change the focus of the interaction.

Incorrect
Correct Answers: A, D
In qualitative studies, researchers have a great responsibility and play many different roles. It is argued that
qualitative research that deals with sensitive topics in depth can pose emotional and other risks to both
participants and researchers.
Option A: The principle of ‘no harm’ to participants ought to be considered by researchers, who should be
aware of the potential harms that might be inflicted upon study subjects. Obviously, sometimes a conflict
between the right to know (defended on the basis of benefits to the society) and the right of privacy
(advocated based on the rights of the individual) may happen.
Option B: Informed consent has been recognized as an integral part of ethics in research carried out in
different fields. For qualitative researchers, it is of the utmost importance to specify in advance which data will
be collected and how they are to be used.
Option C: Clear protocols for dealing with distress should be in place so that both parties involved in research
can use them if necessary. It is not usually easy to predict what topics are likely to lead to distress, and
researchers should therefore receive sufficient training in predicting traumatic situations.
Option D: The relationship and intimacy that is established between the researchers and participants in
qualitative studies can raise a range of different ethical concerns, and qualitative researchers face dilemmas
such as respect for privacy, establishment of honest and open interactions, and avoiding misrepresentations.

13. Question
Which of the following is most accurate regarding the grounded-theory method?

A. Data is collected using an etic perspective.

Incorrect
 B. It is a process of constructing human experience.

C. Secondary sources are sometimes used.

Correct answer
D. It is an inductive approach.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. It is an inductive approach.
Grounded theory (GT) is a structured, yet flexible methodology. This methodology is appropriate when little is
known about a phenomenon; the aim being to produce or construct an explanatory theory that uncovers a
process inherent to the substantive area of inquiry. One of the defining characteristics of GT is that it aims to
generate a theory that is grounded in the data.
 Option A: Data is collected using the emic perspective. A hallmark of GT is concurrent data
generation/collection and analysis. In GT, researchers may utilize both qualitative and quantitative data as
espoused by Glaser’s dictum; ‘all is data’.
Option B: The grounded-theory method is a process of constructing theory from human experience.
Constructivist GT’s methodological underpinnings focus on how participants construct meaning in relation to
the area of inquiry. A constructivist co-constructs experience and meanings with participants.
Option C: In grounded theory, only primary sources (the participants) are used. Elicited data are produced by
participants in response to, or directed by, the researcher whereas extant data includes data that is already
available such as documents and published literature.
14. Question
What is the term used for the coding and clustering of data to form categories in the grounded-theory method?

A. Theoretical sampling
Correct
 B. Constant-comparative method

C. Emic method

D. Metasynthesis

Correct
Correct Answer: B. Constant-comparative method
Constant comparative analysis is an analytical process used in GT for coding and category development. The
constant comparative technique is used to find consistencies and differences, with the aim of continually refining
concepts and theoretically relevant categories.
Option A: The purpose of theoretical sampling is to allow the researcher to follow leads in the data by
sampling new participants or material that provides relevant information. Theoretical sampling in GT is for the
development of a theoretical category, as opposed to sampling for population representation.
Option C: The emic approach to studying human culture focuses on the members of the culture being studied.
Their words, perceptions, and beliefs are the main sources of information used to understand the culture. For
this reason, the emic approach is often referred to as the ‘insider approach.
Option D: Qualitative metasynthesis is an intentional and coherent approach to analyzing data across
qualitative studies. It is a process that enables researchers to identify a specific research question and then
search for, select, appraise, summarize, and combine qualitative evidence to address the research question.

15. Question
What is a characteristic of an intrinsic case study?
1. It yields a better understanding of each case.
Correct answer
A. It yields a better understanding of each case.

B. It provides a foundation to challenge a generalization. Incorrect



C. It does not include quantitative data.

D. It can scrutinize only uncomplicated phenomena.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. It yields a better understanding of each case.
 An intrinsic case study is undertaken to have a better understanding of the case. An intrinsic case study is the
study of a case (e.g., person, specific group, occupation, department, organization) where the case itself is of
primary interest in the exploration.
Option B: An intrinsic case study is typically undertaken to learn about a unique phenomenon. The researcher
should define the uniqueness of the phenomenon, which distinguishes it from all others.
Option C: The case study approach can offer additional insights into what gaps exist in its delivery or why one
implementation strategy might be chosen over another. This in turn can help develop or refine theory.
Option D: In an intrinsic case study, the case is selected on its own merits. The case is selected not because it
is representative of other cases, but because of its uniqueness, which is of genuine interest to the researchers.
16. Question
What is a characteristic of metasynthesis?

A. It is useful for triangulating research.

B. It synthesizes critical masses of qualitative findings. Correct answer

C. It leads to higher reliability of research findings.

Incorrect
 D. It cannot be conducted on historical or case study findings.

Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. It synthesizes critical masses of qualitative findings.
Qualitative synthesis refers to a collection of different methods for systematically reviewing and integrating
findings from qualitative studies. The aims of such methods are to capture the increasing volume of qualitative
research, to facilitate the transfer of knowledge to improve healthcare and to bring together a broad range of
participants and descriptions.
Option A: Qualitative synthesis requires not only a systematic approach to collecting, analyzing, and
interpreting results across multiple studies, but also to develop overarching interpretation emerging from the
joint interpretation of the primary studies included in the synthesis.
Option C: It involves going beyond the findings of any individual study to make the “whole into something
more than the parts alone imply” They have been shown to be particularly useful to identify research gaps, to
inform the development of primary studies, and to provide evidence for the development, implementation, and
evaluation of health interventions
Option D: Qualitative research sheds new light on scientific questions by emphasizing the participants’
subjective understanding and experience. Metasynthesis proposes a third level of comprehension and
interpretation that brings original insights.

17. Question
What is meant by the “fittingness” of a research study?A. Truth of findings as judged by the participants.

A. Truth of findings as judged by the participants.

B. The appropriateness of the interview questions posed. Incorrect



Correct answer
C. Faithfulness to everyday reality of the participants.

D. The adequacy of the coding system used.

Incorrect
 Correct Answer: C. Faithfulness to everyday reality of the participants.
Fittingness is the meaningfulness of the everyday findings to everyday reality of that situation. Are the results
described in enough detail so that one may evaluate them for their own practice?
Option A: Credibility is the truth of findings as judged by the participants. To help establish, the researcher
should return to the original participants and get them to validate the findings. Others within the discipline may
also help establish by review of the data and findings.
Option B: Auditability assists the reader to judge the appropriateness of the interview questions posed.
Auditability is established by the reader being able to follow the steps of the research from the research
questions, to the data collection, to the data, and then to the findings (categories, themes, model).
Option D: Auditability assists the reader to judge the adequacy of the coding system used. By the steps for
interpretation and synthesis and data examples provided, the reader should be able to follow the researcher’s
thinking.
18. Question
How can qualitative outcome analysis be used? Select all that apply.

A. To determine the reliability of intervention outcomes in a study.

B. To confirm the applicability of clinical strategies. Correct answer

Correct
 C. To develop interventions and then test those selected.
Correct answer
D. To build theory.

Incorrect
Correct Answers: B, C, D
Qualitative Outcome Analysis (QOA) enhances the identification of meaningful intervention strategies and plans
for utilization. The researcher identifies the type of qualitative data that will enable the interpretation and
evaluation of interventions, devises a means of data recording and analysis, and finally, disseminates the findings.
Option A: QOA is a systematic means to confirm the applicability of clinical strategies developed from a single
qualitative project, to extend the repertoire of clinical interventions, and to evaluate clinical outcomes.
Option B: QOA also provides a way to describe interventions that cannot be easily measured or interventions
that are more usefully communicated by description.
Option C: Qualitative Outcome Analysis provides a way to identify and evaluate these interventions and to
systematically and descriptively analyze alternative or new interventions.
Option D: This method is used to confirm the efficacy of nursing interventions when experience changes over
time, to extend the repertoire of intervention strategies, and to further clinicians’ understanding of possible
outcomes.

19. Question
When critiquing a qualitative study, which of the following questions are helpful in determining the study’s auditability?
Select all that apply.
Incorrect
 A. Has adequate time been allowed to understand the phenomenon fully?
Correct answer
B. Can the reader follow the researcher's thinking?
Correct
 C. Are the results meaningful to individuals not involved in the research?

D. Does the researcher document the research process?

 Incorrect
Correct Answer: B, C
Auditability assists the reader to judge the appropriateness of the interview questions posed. Auditability is
established by the reader being able to follow the steps of the research from the research questions, to the data
collection, to the data, and then to the findings (categories, themes, model).
Option A: This question will critique the significance of a research project. “The purpose of a research critique
is to determine whether the findings are usable for you” (Brink & Wood, 2001, p. 57).
Option B: This question will critique the auditability of a research project. Understand the purpose and
problem, while determining if the design and methodology are consistent with the purpose.
Option C: Auditability assists the reader to judge the adequacy of the coding system used. By the steps for
interpretation and synthesis and data examples provided, the reader should be able to follow the researcher’s
thinking.
Option D: This question will critique the auditability of a research project. Understand the purpose and
problem, while determining if the design and methodology are consistent with the purpose.

20. Question
Which question is helpful in determining the study’s credibility?

A. Do the participants recognize the experience as their own? Correct answer

B. What strategies were used to analyze the data?

C. How were human subjects protected?

D. Are the findings applicable outside the study situation? Incorrect



Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Do the participants recognize the experience as their own?
Credibility is the truth of findings as judged by the participants. To help establish, the researcher should return to
the original participants and get them to validate the findings. Others within the discipline may also help establish
by review of the data and findings.
Option B: Auditability assists the reader to judge the appropriateness of the interview questions posed.
Auditability is established by the reader being able to follow the steps of the research from the research
questions, to the data collection, to the data, and then to the findings (categories, themes, model).
Option C: Fittingness is the meaningfulness of the everyday findings to everyday reality of that situation. Are
the results described in enough detail so that one may evaluate them for their own practice?
Option D: This question will critique the auditability of a research project. Understand the purpose and
problem, while determining if the design and methodology are consistent with the purpose.
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