C) m.

flexor hallucis
D) m. adductor hallucis
E) m. opponens digiti minimi

237.The lateral wall of adductor canal is

А) m. vastus medialis
В) m. sartorius
С) m. iliopoas
D) m. adductor magnus
Е) m. psoas major

238. Anatomical formations of the temporal lobe of the hemispheres

А) sulcus lateralis
В) gyrus frontalis superior
С) gyrus temporalis superior
D) gyrus frontalis inferior
Е) gyrus temporalis inferior

239. The telencephalon components

A) pyramids
B) basal nuclei
C) thalamus
D) rhomboid fossa
E) olfactory brain

240. Associative fibers of the hemispheres white matter

А) cingulum
В) corpus callosum
С) fibrae arcuatae
D) commissura anterior
Е) fasciculus longitudinalis superior

241. Commissural fibers of the hemispheres white matter

А) cingulum
В) corpus callosum
С) fibrae arcuatae
D) commissura anterior
Е) fasciculus longitudinalis superior

242. Anatomical formations of the lateral ventricle lower horn

А) сalcar avis
В) hippocampus
С) bulbus cornu occipitalis
D) eminentia collateralis
Е) trigonum collaterale
243. Anatomical formations of the parietal lobe of the hemispheres
А) gyrus postcentralis
В) gyrus temporalis superior
С) lobulus parietalis superior
D) gyrus angularis
Е) gyrus temporalis inferior

244. The temporal lobe gyres of the hemispheres

А) gyrus precentralis
В) gyrus temporalis superior
С) gyrus temporalis inferior
D) gyrus temporalis medius
Е) gyrus frontalis inferius

245. The frontal lobe gyres of the hemispheres

А) gyrus precentralis
В) gyrus frontalis superior
С) gyrus postcentralis
D) gyrus frontalis medius
Е) gyrus supramarginalis

246. The parietal lobe gyrus of the hemispheres:

А) gyrus precentralis
В) gyrus frontalis superior
С) gyrus postcentralis
D) gyrus frontalis medius
Е) gyrus supramarginalis

247. The medial surface gyrus of the hemispheres

А) gyrus fornicatus
В) gyrus parahippocampalis
С) sulcus corporis callosi
D) gyrus cinguli
Е) sulcus subparietalis

248. Caudate nucleus has:

А) caput
В) corpus
С) cauda
D) crus fornicis
Е) columna

249. Fornix has:

А) caput
В) corpus
С) cauda
D) crus
Е) columna

250. Corpus callosum has:

А) pars centralis
B) genu
C) cornu frontale
D) rostrum
E) trigonum collaterale

251. Lateral ventricles have:

А) pars centralis
B) genu
C) cornu frontale
D) rostrum
E) trigonum collaterale

252. The lateral ventricles are the cavity of

A) midbrain
B) diencephalon
C) telencephalon
D) metencephalon
E) medulla oblongata

253. Component of the telencephalon:

A) hemisphere
B) quadrigeminal plate
C) thalamus
D) rhomboid fossa
E) cerebellum

254. Fibers of white matter connecting the one hemisphere cortex sections:
A) sensitive
C) commissural
C) associative
D) motor
E) mixed

255. Fibers of white matter connecting the two hemispheres cortex:

A) sensitive
В) commissural
C) associative
D) motor
E) mixed
256. Anatomical formations of the lateral ventricle posterior horn
А) сalcar avis
В) hippocampus
С) bulbus cornu occipitalis
D) eminentia collateralis
Е) trigonum collaterale

257. The hemisphere parietal lobe gyres:

А) gyrus postcentralis
В) gyrus singuli
С) gyrus fornicatus
D) gyrus supramarginalis
Е) gyrus angularis

258. The hemisphere temporal lobe gyres:

А) gyrus precentralis
В) gyrus frontalis superior
С) gyrus temporalis inferior
D) gyrus frontalis medius
Е) gyrus temporalis medius

259. The diencephalon parts

A) III ventricle
B) aqueduct of cerebrum
C) Hypothalamus
D) cerebral peduncles
E) thalamic region

260. The midbrain include

A. black substance
B. nuclei tuberales
C. mamillary body nuclei
D. Yakubovich nucleus
E. nucleus ruber

261. The thalamic region includes

A. thalamus
B. superior colliculi
C. interior colliculi
D. metatalamus
E. Epithalamus

262. The metatalamus parts

A. brachium of superior colliculus
B. superior colliculus
C. lateral geniculate body
D. brachium of inferior colliculus
E. medial geniculate body

263. The aqueduct of cerebrum is the cavity of

A) telencephalon
C) diencephalon
C) midbrain
D) rhombencephalon
E) spinal cord

264. Superior colliculi of the midbrain are:

A) subcortical centers of taste
B) subcortical centers of vision
C) subcortical centers of hearing
D) subcortical centers of equilibrium
E) subcortical centers of smell

265. The diencephalon includes

A. ventriculus tertius
B. tractus opticus
C. aqueductus mesencephali
D. nucleus ruber
E. habenulae

266.Epithalamus include
A. habenulae
B. substantia nigra
C. tegmentum mesencephali
D. comissura epithalamica
E. comissura habenularum

267. The midbrain parts

A. III ventricle
B. aqueduct of cerebrum
C. Hypothalamus
D. cerebral peduncles
E. thalamic region

268. Tectum of mesencephalon include

A. thalamus
B. superior colliculi
C. interior colliculi
D. metalamus
E. epithalamus
269. The diencephalon is
A. black substance
B. nuclei tuberales
C. mamillary body nuclei
D. Yakubovich nucleus
E. nucleus ruber

270. The parts of tectum of mesencephalon

A. brachium of superior colliculus
B. superior colliculus
C. lateral geniculate body
D. brachium of inferior colliculus
E. medial geniculate body

271. The middle brain includes

A. habenulae
B. substantia nigra
C. tegmentum mesencephali
D. comissura epithalamica
E. comissura habenularum

272. The diencephalon includes

A. ventriculustertius
B. tractusopticus
C. aqueductusmesencephali
D. nucleus ruber
E. habenulae

273. The diencephalon cavity

A. fourth ventricle
B. third ventricle
C. lateral ventricles
D. aqueduct of cerebrum
E. fornix

274. The midbrain cavity:

A. fourth ventricle
B. third ventricle
C. lateral ventricles
D. aqueduct of cerebrum
E. fornix

275. Hypothalamus includes

A. chiazma opticum
B. tuber cinereum
C. substantia perforata posterior
D. corpora mamillaria
E. nucleus n. trochlearis

276.The III ventricle anatomical formations

A. tectum mesencephalicum
B. recessus opticus
C. recessus infundibuli
D. pedunculi cerebri
E. foramen interventriculares

277. The midbrain formations

A. tectummesencephalicum
B. recessusopticus
C. recessusinfundibuli
D. pedunculicerebri
E. foramen interventriculares

278. The midbrain nuclei

A. nucleus tuberalis
B. nucleus ruber
C.nucleus supraopticus
D. nucleus n. trochlearis
E. nucleus oculomotorius, accessories

279. The middle brain includes

A. chiazma opticum
B. tuber cinereum
C. substantia perforata posterior
D. corpora mamillaria
E. nucleus n. trochlearis

280. Ventricle IV is a cavity of

A) telencephalon
B) diencephalon
C) midbrain
D) rhombencephalon
E) spinal cord

281. The outer membrane of spinal cord

A) dura mater
B) arachnoid
C) pia mater
D) fibrous
E) serous
282. The middle membrane of spinal cord
A) dura mater
B) arachnoid
C) pia mater
D) fibrous
E) serous

283. The upper border of spinal cord is

A) at the lower edge of pons
B) at the lower edge of the V vertebra
C) at the upper edge of the VІІ cervical vertebra
D) at the exit place of the second pair of spinal nerves
E) at the outer edge of the occipital foramen

284. Pathways of the spinal cord lateral funiculus

А) fasciculus gracilis
В) tr. spinocerebellaris posterior
С) tr. tectospinalis
D) fasciculus cuneatus
Е) tr. spinocerebellaris anterior

285. The spinal cord medullary cone location

A) II lumbar vertebra
B) IV lumbar vertebra
C) V lumbar vertebra
D) XII thoracic vertebra
E) II coccygeal vertebra

286. Sensitive spinal nuclei

А) n. proprius
B) n. centralis
C) n. thoracicus
D) n. ventromedialis
E) n. intermediomedialis

287. The inner membrane of spinal cord

A) dura mater
B) arachnoid
C) pia mater
D) fibrous
E) serous

288. Pathways of the posterior funiculus of spinal cord

А) fasciculus gracilis
В) tr. spinocerebellaris posterior
С) tr. tectospinalis
D) fasciculus cuneatus
Е) tr. spinocerebellaris anterior

289. The processes of dura mater

А) falx of cerebrum
В) diaphragma sellae
С) falx of cerebellum
D) vermis cerebelli
Е) tentorium cerebelli

290. The upper border of spinal cord is

A) at the lower edge of pons
B) at the lower edge of the V vertebra
C) at the upper edge of the VІІ cervical vertebra
D) at the exit place of the second pair of spinal nerves
E) at the outer edge of the occipital foramen

291. What neuron bodies are in the spinal nodes?

A) motor
B) sensitive
C) sympathetic
D) associative
E) parasympathetic

292. The spinal cord medullary cone location

A) II lumbar vertebra
B) IV lumbar vertebra
C) V lumbar vertebra
D) XII thoracic vertebra
E) II coccygeal vertebra

293. Sensitive spinal nuclei

А) n. proprius
B) n. centralis
C) n. thoracicus
D) n. ventromedialis
E) n. intermediomedialis

294. Cerebellum is located in

A) tentorium cerebelli
B) midbrain
C) lateral ventricle
D) telencephalon
E) cerebellar worm
295. Cerebellar nuclei
А) nucleus dentatus
В) nucleus emboliformis
С) nucleus ambiguus
D) nucleus globosus
Е) nucleus solitarius

296. Cerebellar nuclei

А) nucleus solitarius
В) nucleus fastigii
С) nucleus ambiguus
D) nucleus motorius nervi trigeminalis
Е) nucleus pontnus nervi

297. The IV ventricle walls

A) medulla oblongata
B) superior medullary velum
C) inferior medullary velum
D) corpus callosum
E) pons

298. The medulla oblongata nuclei

А) nucleus solitarius
В) nucleus fastigii
С) nucleus ambiguus
D) nucleus nervi accessorii
Е) nucleus pontnus nervi trigeminus

299. The pons nuclei

А) nucleus solitarius
В) nucleus fastigii
С) nucleus ambiguus
D) nucleus pontinus
Е) nucleus globosus

300. Pathways of the spinal cord anterior funiculus

А) fasciculus gracilis
В) tr. spinocerebellaris posterior
С) tr. tectospinalis
D) fasciculus cuneatus
Е) tr. spinocerebellaris anterior

301.Cortical end of the olfactory analyzer

A) calcarinesulcus
B) frontallobe
C) occipitallobe
D) parietallobe
E) para-hippocampalgyrus, uncus

302. Anatomical formations of outer ear:

A) auricula
B) cavitas tympani
C) meatus acusticus externus
D) membrana tympani
E) ossiculaauditus

303. Muscles acting on pupil:

A) m. sphincter pupillae
B) m. stapedius
C) m. dilatator pupillae
D) m. tensor tympani
E) m. risorius

304. Layers of eye:

A) fibrous
B) mucous
C) vascular
D) retina
E) muscular

305. Fibrous layer of eye includes:

A) adventitia
B) iris
C) cornea
D) tenon capsule
E) sclera

306. The eyeball choroid includes:

A) tenon capsule
B) choroid
C) retina
D) ciliary body
E) iris

307. What pass-through superior orbital fissure?

A) III pair
B) IV pair
C) VІ pair
D) I pair
E) II pair
308. Ciliary muscle function
A) changes the lens curvature
B) rotates eyeball
C) changes the pupil diameter
D) closes eyelids
E) wrinkles brow

309.The muscles that move eye up:

A) inferior rectus
B) inferior oblique
C) transverse muscle
D) superior rectus
E) superior oblique

310. The muscles acting on the auditory ossicles:

A) m. sphincter pupillae
B) m. stapedius
C) m. dilatator pupillae
D) m. tensor tympani
E) m. risorius

311.What eyeball muscle damage leads to diplopia:

A) m. obliquus inferior
B) m. obliquus superior
C) m. rectus medialis
D) m. rectus inferior
E) m. rectus superior

312. Three retinal neurons

A) basal cells
B) multipolar cells
C) rods and cones
D) bipolar cells
E) lipid cells

313. Photosensitive retinal visual cells

A) fibroblast
B) myocytes
C) rods and cones
D) ganglion cells
E) pigment cells

314. The anatomical formations of middle ear:

A) auricula
B) cavitas tympani
C) meatus acusticus externus
D) membrana tympani
E) ossicula auditus

315. Anatomical formations of the internal ear:

A) auricula
B) cavitas tympani
C) labyrinthus osseus
D) labyrinthus membranaceus
E) ossicula auditus

316. Cortical end of the visual analyzer

A) inferior temporal gyrus
B) superior temporal gyrus
C) calcarine sulcus
D) postcentralgyrus
E) precentralgyrus

317. The auditory analyzer receptor is:

А) Corti's organ of inner ear
В) ampoule crest, spots of saccule and utricle of inner ear?
С) specific cells in mucous membrane of superior nasal concha
D) rods
E) cones

318.Eyeball membrane containing dilator and sphincterof a pupil

A) sclera
B) cornea
C) iris
D) ciliary body
E) retina

319. The olfactory analyzer receptor is:

А) Corti's organ of the inner ear
В) ampoule crest, spots of saccule and utricle of inner ear
С) specific cells in mucous membrane of superior nasal concha
D) rods
E) cones

320. Olfactory and abducent nerves are pairs of cranial nerves:

A) I
B) VI
C) X
D) XIII
E) IX
321. Optic, trochlea and oculomotor nerve are pairs of cranial nerves
A) II
B) IV
C) III
D) XIII
E) IX

322. Parts of palatine:

A) Hard
B) Top
C) Soft
D) Bottom
E) Front

323.Indicate which of the listed formations communicate with inferior nasal

meatus:
A) middle cells of ethmoid bone
B) nasolacrimal canal
C) maxillary sinus
D) posterior ethmoid cells
E) olfactory

324. Indicate the muscles that pull tongue forwardand down:

A) hyoglossal muscle
B) genioglossus muscle
C) superior longitudinal muscle
D) lower longitudinal muscle
E) upper hammer

325. List the larynx functions:

A) respiratory
B) olfactory
C) voice-forming
D) protective
E) resonator

326.At the level of which tooth does the parotid salivary gland duct open in the
mouth vestibule?
A) the 1st upper molar
B) the 2nd lower molar
C) the 2nd upper molar
D) the 1st lower molar
E) the 3rd lower molar

327. Indicate the taste buds located on the tongue lateral surfaces:
A) fungiform papillae
B) vallate papillae
C) foliate papillae
D) filiform papillae
E) parotid salivary gland

328.Specify the tonsils located in nasopharynx:

A) lingual
B) palatine
C) pharyngeal
D) tube
E) larynx

329.List the tonsils that form the lymphadenoid pharyngeal ring:

A) palatine tonsils 2
B) pharyngeal 1
C) lingual 1
D) tube 2
E) larynx

330. List the pharynx parts:

A) nose part
B) side part
C) mouth part
D) larynx part
E) back part

331. Indicate the soft palate muscles:

A) palatoglossus muscle
B) levator veli palatini muscle
C) stylopharyngeus muscle
D) salpingopharyngeal muscle
E) cochlea aqueduct

332. Indicate the lingual tonsil location

A) apex of tongue
B) body of tongue
C) lateral surface of tongue
D) root of tongue
E) tympanic cavity

333. Indicate the anatomical formations on skull to which pharynx attaches:

A) pharyngeal tubercle of occipital bone
B) temporal bone pyramid
C) medial plate of pterygoid process
D) base of skull
E) nasolacrimal

334. List which paranasal sinuses open in the middlenasal meatus?

A) frontal
B) maxillary
C) sphenoid
D) ethmoid
E) nasolacrimal canal

335.Unpaired laryngeal cartilage:

A) sphenoid
B) Thyroid
C) cuneiform
D) arytenoid
E) corniculate

336. Parathyroid hormone is produced in

A) thymus
B) thyroid gland
C) pineal gland
D) parathyroid gland
E) pituitary gland

337.List the nasal cavity functions:

A) respiratory
B) protective
C) olfactory
D) taste
E) resonator

338. Indicate what paranasal sinuses open into superior nasal meatus:
A) sphenoid
B) frontal
C) maxillary
D) ethmoid
E) cones

339. Indicate the place in pharynx where the auditory tube opening is located:
A) lateral wall of nasopharynx
B) posterior wall of nasopharynx
C) nasopharyngeal arch
D) the region of choan
E) front
340 Specify the throat narrowing muscles:
A) tensor veli palatini muscle
B) palatoglossus muscle
C) middle constrictor of pharynx
D) palatopharyngeal muscle
E) auditory tube

341. Pharyngeal skeletopy

A) from the outer base of the skull to 6 - 7 cervical vertebra
B) II and III cervical vertebra
C) III and IV of cervical vertebra
D) IV and V of cervical vertebra
E) 2nd and 6th cervical vertebra

342.Unpaired laryngeal cartilage

A) thyroid
B) corniculate
C) cartilage cuneiformis
D) arytenoid
E) falciform

343.Right common carotid artery goes from

A) aortic arch
B) thoracic aorta
C) brachiocephalic trunk
D) abdominal aorta
E) subclavian artery

344.Medial branch of external carotid artery

A) lingual artery
B) maxillary artery
C) ascending pharyngeal artery
D) ascending palatine artery
E) facial artery

345.Posterior branch of external carotid artery

A) superficial temporal artery
B) sternocleidomastoid branch
C) lingual artery
D) maxillary artery
E) facial artery

346. Final branch of external carotid artery

A) superficial temporal artery
B) lingual artery
C) supraorbital artery
D) infraorbital artery
E) occipital artery

347. The place of external carotid artery division into the terminal branches
A) at the level of the upper edge of thyroid cartilage
B) at the level of the lower jawneck
C) at the level of the lower edge of cricoid cartilage
D) at the level of hyoid bone
E) sternoclavicular joint

348. The front branch of external carotid artery

A) maxillary artery
B) superficial temporal artery
C) posterior auricular artery
D) lingual artery
E) sternocleidomastoid artery

349. It goes from maxillary artery

A) а. meningea media
B) a. facialis
C) a. lingualis
D) a. ophthalmica
E) a. cerebri anterior

350. It goes from ophthalmic artery

A) lacrimal artery
B) facial artery
C) lingual artery
D) infraorbital artery
E) buccal artery

351. Vertebral artery branch

A) basilar artery
B) anterior communicating artery
C) middle cerebral artery
D) anterior cerebral artery
E) anterior ciliary artery

352. Artery supplies the chewing muscles

A) internal carotid
B) maxillary
C) common carotid
D) subclavian
E) ascending aorta
353. Indicate the arteries forming the large arterial circle of brain:
A) anterior connective artery
B) anterior cerebral arteries
C) posterior cerebral arteries
D) anterior ciliary artery
E) middle cerebral artery

354. Indicate foramen through which orbital artery passes into orbit
A) superior orbital fissure
B) inferior orbital fissure
C) round foramen
D) optic canal

355.Indicate the location of facial artery:

A) in front of masseter muscle
B) in the thickness of hyoglossal muscle
C) in the thickness of submandibular gland
D) in the carotid triangle

356. Indicate the arteries that connect anterior communicatingartery

A) anterior and middle cerebral arteries
B) middle and posterior cerebral arteries
C) right and left anterior cerebral arteries
D) right and left internal arteries
E) middle and anterior cerebral artery

357. Indicate the internal carotid artery parts:

A) cerebral part
B) cavernous part
C) petrous part
D) neck part
E) optic canal

358.What parts are distinguished in middle cerebral artery:

A) cavernous
B) sphenoid
C) insula
D) final (cortical)
E) occipital

359. Indicate the blood vessel connecting internal carotid artery with posterior
cerebral artery
A) anterior cerebral artery
B) anterior communicating artery
C) middle cerebral artery
D) posterior communicating artery
E) posterior cerebral artery

360. Indicate the parts of vertebral artery:

A) intracranial part
B) atlas part
C) transverse process (cervical) part
D) prevertebral part
E) brachial

361. Indicate the final branches of basilar artery

A) middle cerebral arteries
B) posterior cerebral arteries
C) cerebellar arteries
D) spinal arteries
E) subclavian artery

362. Indicate the vein into which anterior jugular vein flows:
A) internal jugular vein
B) subclavian vein
C) brachiocephalic vein
D) jugular venous arch
E) on the lower wall of orbit

363.Indicate the location of anterior jugular vein:

A) in interfascial suprasternal space
B) on the front surface of neck
C) in front of platisma
D) superior petrous sinus
E) behind platysma

364. Facial nerve is a cranial nerve of:

A) I pair
B) VII pair
C) X pair
D) XIII pair
E) IX pair

365. Vagus nerve is a cranial nerve of:

A) I pair
B) VII pair
C) X pair
D) XIII pair
E) IX pair
366. Glossopharyngeal nerve is a cranial nerve of:
A) I pair
B) VII pair
C) X pair
D) XIII pair
E) IX pair

367. Hypoglossal nerve is a cranial nerve of:

A) I pair
B) VII pair
C) X pair
D) XII pair
E) IX pair

368. Accessory nerve is a cranial nerve of:

A) I pair
B) VII pair
C) X pair
D) XI pair
E) IX pair

369. The facial muscles are innervated by:

A) VII pair
B) X pair
C) IX pair
D) V pair
E) XIII pair

370. This nerve goes from cervical sympathetic trunk:

A) greater splanchnic nerve
B) facial nerve
C) glossopharyngeal nerve
D) internal carotid nerve
E) greater petrosal nerve

371. Branches of trigeminal node

A) n. ophtalmocus
B) n. petrosus major
C) n. maxillaris
Д) n. mandibularis
Е) n. mentalis

372. Transverse nerve of neck innervates:

A) trapezius muscle
B) sternocleidomastoid muscle
C) neck skin
D) face skin
E) scalene muscles

373. Cervical plexus is formed by

A) anterior branches of 4 upper cervical spinal nerves
B) posterior branches of 5 cervical spinal nerves
C) anterior branches of 2 upper cervical spinal nerves
D) anterior branches of 5 cervical spinal nerves
E) posterior branches of 3 cervical spinal nerves

374. Cervical plexus has the connections with:

A) accessory and vagus nerves
B) vagus and optic nerves
C) accessory and hypoglossal nerves
D) trigeminal and optic nerves
E) vagus and accessory nerves

375. The branches of cervical plexus:

A) thoracic
B) mixed
C) femoral
D) skin
E) muscle

376. Cervical plexus gives the skin branches:

А) n. auricularis magnus
В) n. radialis
С) n. occipitalis minor
D) n. axillaris
Е) n. thoracicus longus

377. Cervical plexus gives the skin branches:

А) n. thoracicus longus
В) n. transversus colli
С) nn. claviculares
D) n. radialis
Е) n. axillaris

378. The following branches extend from facial canal:

А) n. petrosus major
В) n. obturatorius
С) n. ischiadicus
D) n. intercostales
Е) n. stapedius
379. Vagus nerve has parts:
A) femoral
B) radial
C) cervical
D) head
E) ulnar

380. Vagus nerve has parts:

A) radial
B) ulnar
C) femoral
D) abdominal
E) thoracic

381. Accessory nerve innervates:

A) sternocleidomastoid muscle
B) femoral muscles
C) supraspinatus muscle
D) tongue muscles
E) trapezius muscle

382. How many nuclei does accessory nerve have?

А) 2
В) 1
С) 3
D) 4
Е) doesn't have

383. How many nuclei does glossopharyngeal nerve have?

А) 1
В) 4
С) 2
D) 3
Е) doesn't have

384. Glossopharyngeal nerve has side branches

А) n. tympanicus
В) n. zygomaticus
С) n. opticus
D) n. olfactorius
Е) n. oculomotorius

385. Indicate the anatomical formations located in chest cavity in front of trachea:
A) sterno-thyroid muscle
B) thymus
C) thoracic lymphatic duct
D) aortic arch
E) aorta

386. Indicate the mediastinum part where thymus is located:

A) anterior mediastinum
B) middle mediastinum
C) posterior mediastinum
D) superior mediastinum
E) inferior mediastinum

387. The lower respiratory tract includes

A) trachea
B) nose
C) nasal cavity
D) nasopharynx
E) oropharynx

388. Indicate the anatomical formations that are located in the middle part of
mediastinum:
A) internal thoracic arteries and veins
B) bronchus
C) trachea
D) main bronchi
E) pulmonary veins

389. Specify the organs that are located in the posterior part of mediastinum:
A) vagus nerves
B) azygos and hemiazygos vein
C) main bronchi
D) aortic arch
E) trachea

390. Indicate the part of mediastinum where phrenic nerve passes:

A) aortic arch
B) superior part
C) anterior part
D) middle part
E) posterior part

391. Indicate the anatomical formations that are located behind the pleura dome:
A) the 1st rib head
B) posterior scalene muscle
C) subclavian vein
D) aortic arch
E) longus colli muscle

392. Indicate the places where the projections of the lungs boundaries and pleura
coincide:
A) pleura dome and the apex of lung
B) posterior border of lung and pleura
C) posterior border of lung and pleura on the left
D) anterior border of lung and pleura on the left
E) anterior border of lung and pleura on the right

393. Indicate the mediastinum parts where thymus is located:

A) superior mediastinum
B) middle mediastinum
C) anterior mediastinum
D) posterior mediastinum
E) anterior inferior mediastinum

394. Lung surface:

A) anterior
B) superior
C) lateral
D) posterior
E) diaphragmatic

395. The trachea bifurcation of an adult is on the level of

A) sternum angle
B) V-thoracic vertebra
C) jugular notch
D) the upper edge of aortic arch
E) III thoracic vertebra

396. Indicate at which vertebra level is the beginning of trachea in an adult

A) VI cervical vertebra
B) IV cervical vertebra
C) I thoracic vertebra
D) V cervical vertebra
E) VII cervical vertebra

397. Indicate the anatomical formation at the level of which the bifurcation of
trachea in an adult is:
A) V thoracic vertebra
B) sternum angle
C) jugular notch of sternum
D) VII cervical vertebra
E) the upper edge of aortic arch
398. Indicate the anatomical structures located behind trachea:
A) vagus nerve
B) thymus
C) aortic arch
D) VII cervical vertebra
E) esophagus

399. Indicate the anatomical formations presented in the trachea mucous

membrane:
A) tracheal glands
B) cardiac glands
C) lymphoid plaques
D) lymphoid vessels
E) lymphoid nodules

400. Indicate the anatomical formations located above the left lung root:
A) azygos vein
B) hemiazygos vein
C) thymus
D) aortic arch
E) pituitary gland

401. Indicate the anatomical formations occupying the highest position at the left
lung hilum:
A) nerves
B) main bronchus
C) pulmonary veins
D) pulmonary artery
E) pulmonary trunk

402. Indicate the anatomical formations that enter the lung hilum:
A) pulmonary vein
B) lymphatic vessels
C) pulmonary artery
D) main bronchus
E) main vein

403. Indicate the lungs lobes where 5 segments are distinguished:

A) inferior lobe of right lung
B) superior lobe of left lung
C) inferior lobe of left lung
D) superior lobe of right lung
E) superior lobe of left lung

404. Respiratory bronchioles are formed as a result of the next structures

branching:
A) segmental bronchi
B) lobular bronchi
C) lobar bronchi
D) lobar bronchioles
E) terminal bronchioles

405. Indicate the lungs structural elements where gas exchange between air and
blood occurs:
A) tr. spinocerebellaris anterior
B) bronchioles
C) alveolar ducts
D) alveoli
E) respiratory bronchioles

406. Esophagus parts:

A) pharyngeal, cervical, and thoracic
B) clavicular, thoracic, and abdominal
C) occipital, cervical, and thoracic
D) cervical, thoracic, and diaphragmatic
E) cervical, thoracic, and abdominal

407. Esophagus function:

A) digestive tract
B) Respiratory tract
C) Urinary tract
D) Phagocytic
E) Secretory

408. Food comes from esophagus to:

A) Stomach
B) duodenum
C) jejunum
D) ileum
E) cecum

409. It is located in middle mediastinum:

A) stomach
B) heart
C) left lung
D) esophagus
E) thoracic aorta

410. Heart is located in:

A) anterior mediastinum
B) posterior mediastinum
C) superior mediastinum
D) middle mediastinum
E) lateral mediastinum

411. In the initial section of aorta there is:

A) aortic isthmus
B) aortic bulb
C) aortic arch
D) abdominal aorta
E) bifurcation

412. Projection of the upper border of heart on the anterior chest wall in an adult:
A) line connecting the right and left Vribs cartilages
B) line connecting the right and left ІІ ribs cartilages
C) line connecting the right and left ІІІ ribs cartilages
D) line connecting the right and left IV ribs cartilages
E) line connecting the right and left VII ribs cartilages

413. Blood vessels opening into right atrium:

a) pulmonary veins
b) coronary sinus
c) splenic vein
d) hepatic vein
e) azygous vein

414. The heart apex projection in an adult:

a) 4th left rib cartilage
b) left 4th rib along midclavicular line
c) left 5th intercostal space 1.5 cm inward from midclavicular line
d) left 5th rib along midclavicular line
e) left5th rib cartilage

415. A vessel leaving left ventricle of heart:

A) coronary artery
B) aorta
C) carotid artery
D) brachial artery
E) jugular vein

416. Esophagus has part:

a) head
b) intramural
c) thoracic
d) intramural
e) intermediate

417. The esophagus wall structure

a) albuginea
b) cartilage membrane
c) serous membrane
d) muscle sheath
e) epithelial membrane

418. The part of descending aorta

a) aortic bulb
b) aortic bifurcation
c) thoracic part
d) head part
e) aortic arch

419. The place of heart coronary arteries beginning:

a) aortic arch
b) pulmonary trunk
c) left ventricle
d) aortic bulb
e) right ventricle

420. The heart part:

a) body
b) base
c) isthmus
d) neck
e) bottom

421.Organs of posterior mediastinum:

a) heart
b) thymus gland
c) esophagus
d) superior vena cava
e) lungs

422. Left ventricular opening:

a) opening of coronary sinus
b) openings of pulmonary veins
c) aortic opening
g) opening of pulmonary trunk
e) right atrioventricular foramen

423. The location of aortic bifurcation:

a) third lumbar vertebra
b) fourth lumbar vertebra
c) sixth lumbar vertebra
d) first sacral vertebra
e) second lumbar vertebra

424. In right atrioventricular opening is located:

A) aortic valve
B) mitral valve
C) lunar valve
D) pulmonary valve
E) tricuspid valve

425. Esophageal skeletonotopy:

a) Level VI cervical - VIII chest vertebrae
b) Level VIІ cervical - X thoracic vertebrae
c) Level VI cervical - XI thoracic vertebrae
d) Level VI cervical - I thoracic vertebrae
e) Level VI cervical - II thoracic vertebrae

426. The heart surface:

A) hepatic
B) sterno-costal
C) sternal
D) costal
E) mediastinal

427. The branches of ascending aorta:

A) Brachiocephalic trunk
B) Coronary arteries of heart
C) Right common carotid artery
D) Left common carotid artery
E) Left subclavian artery

428. The parietal branch of thoracic aorta:

A) Brachiocephalic trunk
B) Common hepatic artery
C) Posterior intercostal arteries
D) Bronchial branches
E) Mediastinal branches

429. Superior vena cava is formed by fusion of:

A) brachiocephalic veins
B) Internal jugular veins
C) Subclavian veins
D) External jugular veins
E) Anterior jugular veins

430. The facial muscles are supplied by blood from:

A) internal carotid artery
B) External carotid artery
C) Common carotid artery
D) Subclavian artery
E) Ascending aorta

431. Right subclavian and carotid artery goes from:

A) brachiocephalic trunk
B) Aortic arch
C) Ascending aorta
D) Thoracic aorta
E) Abdominal aorta

432. Large vessels extending from aortic arch:

A) brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid and left subclavian arteries
B) brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid and right subclavian arteries
C) brachiocephalic trunk, right common carotid and left subclavian arteries
D) brachiocephalic trunk, right common carotid and right subclavian artery
E) brachiocephalic trunk, vertebral and clavicular arteries

433. The branches of thoracic aorta:

A) anterior intercostal arteries
B) posterior intercostal arteries
C) splenic artery
D) inferior diaphragmatic arteries
E) lumbar arteries

434. The thoracic aorta branches:

A) anterior
B) muscle
C) lateral
D) parietal
E) medial

435. Right common carotid artery goes from:

A) aortic arch
B) thoracic aorta
C) brachiocephalic trunk
D) abdominal aorta
E) subclavian artery
435. The branches of internal carotid artery extending from its petrous part:
A) ophthalmic artery
B) caroticotympanic arteries
C) cerebral arteries
D) ethmoid arteries
E) occipital artery

436. The branch from the internal carotid artery system:

A) facial artery
B) occipital artery
C) a. dorsalis nasi
D) a. cerebelli interior
E) a. spinalis anterior

437. The exit point of labyrinthine veins:

A) jugular foramen
B) condylar foramen
C) internal auditory meatus
D) foramen lacerum
E) foramen rotundum

438. Internal jugular vein is a continuation of:

A) sigmoid sinus
B) marginal sinus
C) superior petrous sinus
D) inferior petrous sinus
E) transverse sinus

439. Diploic veins flow into:

A) superior sagittal sinus
B) external jugular vein
C) internal jugular vein
D) inferior petrous sinus
E) superior petrous sinus

440. Artery extending from aortic arch:

A) right common carotid
B) axillary
C) left common carotid
D) vertebral
E) brachial

441. Right common carotid artery goes from:

A) brachiocephalic trunk
B) Aortic arch
C) Ascending aorta
D) Thoracic aorta
E) Abdominal aorta

442. Left common carotid artery goes from:

A) Brachiocephalic trunk
B) Aortic arch
C) Ascending aorta
D) Thoracic aorta
E) Abdominal aorta

443. Left subclavian artery goes from:

A) Brachiocephalic trunk
B) Aortic arch
C) Ascending aorta
D) Thoracic aorta
E) Abdominal aorta

444. The terminal branches of basilar artery:

a) middle cerebral arteries
b) posterior cerebral arteries
c) cerebellar arteries
d) arteries of brain
e) anterior cerebral arteries

445. The internal carotid artery branch:

a) axillary artery
b) subscapular artery
c) suprascapular artery
d) middle cerebral artery
e) superior ulnar collateral artery

446. The anterior branch of external carotid artery:

a) facial artery
b) mandibular artery
c) maxillary artery
d) occipital artery
e) posterior auricular artery

447. The villi are in:

A) Esophagus
B) Transverse colon
C) Stomach
D) Ileum
E) Pancreas
448. A pancreas, as the endocrine gland, performs the function:
A) Secretory
B) Reservoir
C) Hormonal
D) Support
E) Phagocytic

449. A pancreas, as the gland of external secretion, excretes:

A) Bile
B) Pancreatic juice
C) Insulin
D) Urine
E) Slime

450. Food comes from an esophagus to:

A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Jejunum
D) Ileum
E) Cecum

451. An ileum opens in:

A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Jejunum
D) Ileum
E) Cecum

452. The initial part of a colon:

A) Duodenum
B) Cecum
C) Transverse colon
D) Ascending colon
E) Sigmoid colon

453. The part of a colon, located in the right iliac fossa:

A) Duodenum
B) Cecum
C) Transverse colon
D) Ascending colon
E) Sigmoid colon

454. A sigmoid colon passes into:

A) Stomach
B) Ascending colon
C) Transverse colon
D) Ileum
E) Rectum

455. The anatomical formation flowing into the descending part of a duodenum:
A) Hepatic duct
B) Common bile duct
C) Duct of hyoid gland
D) cystic duct
E) Ureter

456. A pancreas, as the endocrine gland, secretes:

A) Bile
B) Pancreatic juice
C) Insulin
D) Urine
E) Slime

457. The part of a small intestine:

A) Duodenum
B) Cecum
C) Transverse colon
D) Ascending colon
E) Sigmoid colon

458. The terminal part of a colon:

A) Duodenum
B) Cecum
C) Transverse colon
D) Rectum
E) Sigmoid colon

459. A pancreas, as the external secretion gland, performs the function:

A) Digestive
B) Reservoir
C) Hormonal
D) Support
E) Phagocytic

460. The part of a colon, occupying the transverse position:

A) Duodenum
B) Cecum
C) Transverse colon
D) Ascending colon
E) Sigmoid colon
461. The part of a large intestine, located in the right iliac fossa:
A) Duodenum
B) Cecum
C) Transverse colon
D) Ascending colon
E) Sigmoid colon

462. The part of a large intestine, located in the left iliac fossa:
A) Duodenum
B) Cecum
C) Transverse colon
D) Ascending colon
E) Sigmoid colon

463. The part of a large intestine, going up the right side of the abdominal cavity:
A) Duodenum
B) Cecum
C) Transverse colon
D) Ascending colon
E) Sigmoid colon

464. The part of a large intestine, going down the left side of the abdominal cavity:
A) duodenum
B) Cecum
C) Transverse colon
D) Descending colon
E) Sigmoid colon

465. A pancreatic duct opens in:

A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Jejunum
D) Ileum
E) Cecum

466. The Peyer's plaques are located in:

A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Jejunum
D) Ileum
E) Cecum

467. Food comes from a stomach to:

A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Jejunum
D) Ileum
E) Cecum

468. Common hepatic duct is formed by:

a) cystic duct
b) right hepatic duct
c) left hepatic duct
d) common bile duct
e) accessory duct

469. Lesser omentum is formed by:

a) hepatic-renal ligament
b) hepatic-gastric ligament
c) gastrocolic ligament
d) hepatoduodenal ligament
e) coronary ligament

470. Extraperitoneal position:

a) stomach
b) pancreas
c) liver
d) adrenal glands
e) small intestine

471. The walls of epiploic foramen are formed by:

a) caudate lobe of liver
b) hepatic-renal ligament (or parietal peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava)
c) duodenum
d) hepatoduodenal ligament
e) falciform ligament

472. Intraperitoneal position:

a) appendix
b) cecum
c) spleen
d) sigmoid colon
e) ascending colon

473. Accessory duct of a pancreas opens in:

a) major duodenal papilla
b) minor duodenal papilla
c) hepatic-pancreatic ampoule
d) longitudinal fold of a duodenum
e) pylorus
474. Pancreatic duct opens in:
a) upper part of duodenum
b) descending part of duodenum
c) ascending part of duodenum
d) horizontal part of duodenum
e) duodenojejunal flexure

475. Ligament of a liver:

a) falciform ligament
b) venous ligament
c) coronary ligament
d) left triangular ligament
e) omental ligament

476. The walls of epiploic foramen are formed by:

a) caudate lobe of liver
b) hepatic-renal ligament (or parietal peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava)
c) duodenum
d) hepatoduodenal ligament
e) falciform ligament

477. Intraperitoneal position:

a) appendix
b) cecum
c) spleen
d) sigmoid colon
e) ascending colon

478. Common hepatic duct is formed by:

a) cystic duct
b) right hepatic duct
c) left hepatic duct
d) common bile duct
e) accessory duct

479. Pancreas parts:

a) tail
b) isthmus
c) head
d) body
e) basis

480. Pancreatic duct opens in:

a) upper part of duodenum
b) descending part of duodenum
c) ascending part of duodenum
d) horizontal part of duodenum
e) duodenojejunal flexure

481. Extraperitoneal position:

a) stomach
b) pancreas
c) liver
d) adrenal glands
e) small intestine

482. Extraperitoneal position:

a) stomach
b) pancreas
c) liver
d) adrenal glands
e) small intestine

483. Intraperitoneal position:

a) appendix
b) cecum
c) spleen
d) sigmoid colon

484. Pancreatic duct opens in:

a) upper part of duodenum
b) descending part of duodenum
c) ascending part of duodenum
d) horizontal part of duodenum
e) duodenojejunal flexure

485. Lesser omentum is formed by:

a) hepatic-renal ligament
b) hepatic-gastric ligament
c) gastrocolic ligament
d) hepatoduodenal ligament
e) coronary ligament

486. The walls of epiploic foramen are formed by:

a) caudate lobe of liver
b) hepatic-renal ligament (or parietal peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava)
c) duodenum
d) hepatoduodenal ligament
e) falciform ligament
487. Accessory duct of a pancreas opens in:
a) major duodenal papilla
b) minor duodenal papilla
c) hepatic-pancreatic ampoule
d) longitudinal fold of a duodenum
e) pylorus

488. Pancreas parts:

a) tail
b) isthmus
c) head
d) body
e) basis

489. At the level of which vertebra does inferior vena cava begin?
a) III lumbar vertebra
b) I sacral vertebra
c) IV-V lumbar vertebrae
d) sacroiliac joint
e) I-II lumbar vertebrae

490. Behind inferior vena cava are:

a) head of pancreas
b) sympathetic trunk
c) duodenum
d) right renal artery
e) abdominal aorta

491. Veins flowing into inferior vena cava:

a) lumbar veins
b) inferior mesenteric vein
c) renal vein
d) splenic vein
e) superior mesenteric vein

492. Visceral tributaries of the inferior vena cava:

a) adrenal veins
b) inferior diaphragmatic veins
c) testicular vein
d) renal vein
e) lumbar veins

493. Branches of abdominal aorta:

a) lumbar arteries
b) inferior epigastric arteries
c) middle adrenal arteries
d) superior diaphragmatic arteries
e) uterine arteries

494. Arteries extend to adrenal glands from blood vessels

a) pancreatic-duodenal arteries
b) inferior diaphragmatic arteries
c) renal arteries
d) abdominal aorta
e) anterior intercostal artery

495. Inferior mesenteric artery supplies:

a) rectum
b) sigmoid colon
c) descending colon
d) ascending colon
e) liver

496. Unpaired visceral branches of abdominal aorta:

a) celiac trunk
b) superior rectal artery
c) inferior mesenteric artery
d) middle colon artery
e) posterior intercostal artery

497. Porto-cava-caval anastamosis on the anterior abdominal wall is formed by:

a) umbilical veins
b) paraumbilical veins
c) superior epigastric veins
d) inferior epigastric veins
e) superficial vein around ilium

498. Veins flowing into inferior vena cava:

a) lumbar veins
b) inferior mesenteric vein
c) renal vein
d) splenic vein
e) superior mesenteric vein

499. At which vertebra level does inferior vena cava begin?

a) III lumbar vertebra
b) I sacral vertebra
c) IV-V lumbar vertebrae
d) sacroiliac joint
e) I-II lumbar vertebrae
500. Porto-cava-caval anastamosis on the anterior abdominal wall is formed by:
a) umbilical veins
b) paraumbilical veins
c) superior epigastric veins
d) inferior epigastric veins
e) superficial vein around ilium

501. Unpaired visceral branches of abdominal aorta:

a) celiac trunk
b) superior rectal artery
c) inferior mesenteric artery
d) middle colon artery
e) posterior intercostal artery

502. The celiac trunk branches:

a) left gastric artery
b) right gastric artery
c) superior mesenteric artery
d) splenic artery
e) inferior mesenteric artery

503. The membranes of a kidney:

a) muscle membrane
b) fibrous membrane
c) tunica albuginea
d) fat capsule
e) serous membrane

504. Nephron parts:

a) glomerular capsule
b) capillary glomerulus of the renal corpuscle
c) convoluted tubule of the first order
d) loop of Henle
e) arc arteries

505. The back surface of a bladder in men is adjacent to

a) rectum
b) seminal vesicles
c) prostate gland
d) sigmoid colon
e) urogenital diaphragm

506.Testicular structural elements:

a) vas deferens
b) convoluted seminiferous tubules
c) straight seminiferous tubules
d) testicular rete tubules
e) ejaculatory duct

507. Glands, which are both glands of internal and external secretion:
a) testicle
b) prostate gland
c) bulbourethral glands
d) seminal vesicles
e) pancreas

508. The structural and functional unit of a kidney is:

a) neuron
b) acinus
c) nephron
d) hepatocyte
e) osteon

509. The adrenal medulla produces:

a) insulin
b) thyroxine
c) adrenaline
d) parathyroid hormone
e) corticosteroid

510. The uterine wall consists of the main layers:

А) parametrium
В) perimetrium
С) myometrium
D)endometrium
Е) adventitia

511. The inner layer of the uterine wall is:

A) endometrium
B) myometrium
C) perimetrium
D) parametrium
E) adventitia

512. The middle layer of the uterine wall is:

A) endometrium
B) myometrium
C) perimetrium
D) parametrium
E) adventitia
513. The outer layer of an uterus is:
A) endometrium
B) myometrium
C) perimetrium
D) parametrium
E) adventitia

514. Testicular function:

A) protective
B) spermatogenesis
C) trophic
D) hormonal
E) ovogenesis

515.The uterus components:

A) fundus
B) top
C) root
D) cervix
E) body

516. The components of a fallopian tube:

A) ampulla
B) cervix
C) top
D) infundibulum
E) root

517.Inferior vena cava is composed by the next venous trunks

A) superior mesenteric vein
B) inferior mesenteric vein
C) brachiocephalic veins
D) common iliac veins
E) splenic vein

518. Branches of a. iliacainterna

А) a. colica media
В) a. rectalis media
С) a. colica dextra
D) a. colica sinistra
Е) a. testicularis

519. This vein flows into superior mesenteric vein:

A) ileocolic vein
B) splenic vein
C) inferior mesenteric vein
D) portal vein
E) common iliac vein

520. Parietal tributaries flowing into internal iliac vein

A) superior gluteal veins
B) inferior rectal veins
C) inferior gluteal veins
D) uterine veins
E) superior epigastric veins

521. Visceral tributaries of internal iliac vein:

A) inferior gluteal veins
B) superior rectal vein
C) middle rectal vein
D) superior gluteal veins
E) inferior epigastric vein

522. Veins flowing into external iliac vein:

A) inferior epigastric vein
B) superior epigastric vein
C) superior gluteal veins
D) lateral sacral veins
E) inferior gluteal veins

523. The internal iliac artery beginning is at the level of:

A) iliac crest
B) sacroiliac joint
C) upper edge of greater sciatic notch of pelvis
D) lower edge of piriformis muscle
E) sacrococcygeal joint

524. From brachial plexus goes

A. median nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. auricular nerve
D. transverse nerve of neck
E. phrenic nerve

525. The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the muscles of

A. anterior forearm
B. anterior arm
C. posterior arm
D. posterior forearm
E. hand
526. The muscles of the forearm anterior surface are innervated by
A. radial nerve
B. median nerve
C. muscular-cutaneous nerve
D. ulnar nerve
E. supraspinatus nerve

527. The muscles of the forearm posterior surface are innervated by

A. ulnar nerve
B. radial nerve
C. median nerve
D. axillary nerve
E. medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve

528.The muscles of the forearm anterior surface are supplied by the blood from
A. radial artery
B. brachial artery
C. posterior interosseous artery
D. ulnar artery
E. superficial palmar arch

529. The branch of brachial artery

A. superficial palmar branch
B. deep brachial artery
C. interosseous artery
D. subscapular artery
E. recurrent radial artery

530. Basilic vein flows into

A. brachial vein
B. axillary vein
C. subclavian vein
D. external jugular vein
E. cephaliс vein