14/06/2025 Code - A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 560 ITS-6A Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered :
PHYSICS:
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Electric Charges and Fields
CHEMISTRY:
Solutions
Redox Reactions
Electrochemistry
Some basic concepts of chemistry
The s-Block Elements
BOTANY:
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
ZOOLOGY:
Reproduction in Organisms
Human Reproduction

PHYSICS

1. In a region the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) = 8x – 2. A point negative charge is brought near an isolated
6xyz – 6yz + 2xz, where V is in volts and x, y and z are in conducting sphere. The electric field is best given by
metre. The magnitude of electric force experienced by a
charge of 1μC situated at point (1, 0, 1) is
−−
(1) μN
2√31

−−
(1)
(2) μN
2√62

−−
(3) μN
2√47

(4) 12 N μN

(2)

(3)

(4)

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3. Electric charges +2 μC, +2 μC and –4 μC are placed at 7. In a given network of capacitors, the ratio of capacitance
the corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side 10 cm. between points P and Q and between points P and R is
The magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is
–
(1) 25√3 × 10
−8
C −m

–
(2) 15√3 × 10
−8
C −m

(3) –
20√3 × 10
−8
C −m

–
(4) 10√3 × 10
−8
C −m

4. A : In a solid sphere of radius R having uniformly positive

charge density ρ, the electric field at a distance r < R from
ρr
the centre of sphere is .
3ε0

R : The electric field outside the uniformly charged sphere (1) 1

of radius R increases with distance r(r > R).
(2)
3

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is 5

(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) 2

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is

(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion (4)
8

(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

8. An infinite number of charges each equal to q coulomb in
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements magnitude with consecutive charges have opposite sign
are arrayed on a line at distance 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, 16 m,
5. If a charged particle of charge q and mass m entering in …. from a fixed point on the line. If first charge is positive
uniform electric field E with initial velocity u⃗ at right angle in nature, then what will be the electric potential at fixed
to the electric field, then trajectory of particle is point?
(1) Circular (1)
q

8πe0

(2) Hyperbola
q
(2)
(3) Parabola 2πε0

(4) Straight line (3)

q

6πε0

6. Two short dipoles are placed as shown. The energy of q

electric interaction between these dipoles will be (4) 4πε0

9. There are two concentric conducting spherical shells of

radii 10 cm and 20 cm. The outer shell is charged to a
potential of 50 esu while inner shell is earthed. The
charge on outer shell is
(1) 1000 esu
(2) 2000 esu
(3) 5 esu
(1) Zero
(4) 1500 esu
−kP1 P2 sin θ
(2)
10. Select the correct option regarding electric flux through a
3
r

K P1 P2 sin θ
Gaussian surface
(3) 3
r
It depends on magnitude and position of charge
(1)
−2kP1 P2 cos θ enclosed by Gaussian surface
(4) 3
r

(2) It depends on shape of Gaussian surface

(3) It is vector quantity
It is independent of position of charge enclosed by
(4)
Gaussian surface

2
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11. A sphere of radius 'R' is placed in a uniform field E ,⃗ 14. Five metal plates each of area A are placed parallel to
each other. The separation between adjacent plates is d.
where ⃗ ^ ^ ^
E = (3 i − 2 j + 4k)
N

C
. The net electric flux through The equivalent capacitance between points ‘a’ and ‘b’ is
the sphere is
(1) Zero

(2) 3πR2

(3) 2πR2

(4) 4πR2

12. Three short dipoles each of dipole moment of magnitude

p are placed tangentially on a circle of radius R as
shown. The magnitude of electric field intensity at centre
will be
(1)
ε0 A

(2) 2ε0 A

(3)
5ε0 A

2d

(4) 4A ε0

4kp
(1) 3
15. In given circuit diagram, the effective capacitance
R
between points A and B will be
2kp
(2) R
3

kp
(3) R
3

(4) Zero

13. A spherical volume of radius 10 cm contains a uniformly

distributed charge of density 2 × 10–4 Cm–3. The electric
field at a point inside the volume at a distance of 5 cm
from centre is

(1) 2.75 × 105

N
(1) 2 μF
C

(2) 3 μF
(2) 4.75 × 105
N
(3) 4 μF
C

(4) 1.5 μF
(3) 3.75 × 105
N

C
16. Two concentric conducting hollow spheres of radii a and
b have equal surface charge densities σ. The electric
potential at the common centre is
(4) 5 × 105
N

C
(1) σ

ε0
(
ab

a+b
)

(2)
σ ab
( )
ε0 a−b

σ
(3) ε0
(b − a)

σ
(4) ε0
(a + b)

17. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an

electric field intensity 2 × 105 N/C. It experiences a torque
equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole
length is 2 cm, is
(1) 8 mC
(2) 2 mC
(3) 5 mC
(4) 7 μC

3
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18. Match the following 21. Some equipotential surfaces are shown in the figure. The
Column-I Column-II magnitude and direction of the electric field is

a. q < 0 (i)

(1) 100 V/m making angle 120° with the x-axis

(2) 100 V/m making angle 60° with the x-axis
(3) 200 V/m making angle 120° with the x-axis
(4) None of these
b. q > 0 (ii)
22. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C has been
charged, so that potential difference between its plates is
V. The plates of this capacitor are connected to another
uncharged capacitor of capacitance 2C. The common
potential acquired by the system is
c. q1 > 0, q2 < 0 (iii) (1) 2V

(2) 2V

(3) V

d. q1 > 0, q2 > 0 (iv) (4) 3V

23. Three identical charges are placed at the corners of an

equilateral triangle of side ‘l’. If force between any two
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) charges is F, the work required to double the dimensions
of triangle is
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) −3F l
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) 3F l
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) 3F l

19. The minimum number of capacitors of rating 20 µF, 200 V 2

required to design a 20 µF, 800 V capacitor is (4) −

3F l

(1) 10
24. In the circuit shown in figure, the charge on 5 μF capacitor
(2) 12 is
(3) 14
(4) 16

20. In the figure shown the equivalent capacitance between

'A' and 'B' is

(1) 20 μC
(2) 15 μC
(3) 30 μC
(1) 3.75 F (4) 40 μC
(2) 2 F 25. 8 identical droplets are charged to potential V each. If
(3) 21 F they coalesce to form single drop, then its potential will be

(4) 16 F (1) V
(2) 2V
(3) 4V

(4) V

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26. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate 29. A short electric dipole is enclosed by a Gaussian surface
separation d is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant S (as shown in figure). The electric flux passing through
K = 2 and thickness d/3. The effective capacitance of the surface S is
capacitor will be

(1)
Aε0
6
d

(2) 3
Aε0

2d

(3) 6

5
Aε0

(4) 5 Aε0

3 d

27. Choose the correct statement. (1) Zero

(2) Data insufficient

(3) P

ε0

(4)
2P

ε0

30. Six point charges are kept at the vertices of a regular

hexagon of side length a and centre O as shown in the
figure. Choose the correct statement.

In steady state charge on both the capacitor will be

(1)
same
Charge on upper capacitor will be more than the
(2)
charge on lower capacitor in steady state
If R1 = R2 = R3 only then charge will be same on both (1) Electric field at O is zero
(3)
the capacitor in steady state
(2) Electric potential at O is zero
In steady state charge on lower capacitor will be more
(4) (3) Electric potential at O is 1 q

than charge on upper capacitor πε0

(
a
)

28. → (4) Both (1) and (3)

A short linear dipole of dipole moment P is kept in
→ → → 31. The variation of electric field between two charges Q1
electric field E such that, E and P are in the opposite
directions. The magnitude of net torque acting on the and Q2 along the line joining the charges is plotted
dipole is against distance from Q1, as shown in figure below, then
correct statement is (taking right side as positive field
(1) PE
direction)
(2) PE

(3) Zero

(4) √3 P E

(1) Q1 and Q2 are both positive and |Q2| > |Q1|

(2) Q1 and Q2 are both positive and |Q1| > |Q2|

(3) Q1 is positive and Q2 is negative and |Q2| > |Q1|

(4) Q1, Q2 are both negative and |Q1| < |Q2|

5
ITS-6A

32. The distance of the field point, on the axis of a small 34. A hollow charged conductor has surface charged density
electric dipole, is halved. By what factor will the electric σ. n̂ is the unit vector in outward normal direction. If
field due to dipole changes? conductor has a tiny hole cut into its surface then the
electric field in the hole is
(1) Become 1

8
times
(1) Zero
(2) Become 1
times σ
4
(2) ε0
n̂

(3) Become 8 times σ

(3) 2ε0
n̂

(4) Become 4 times

2

33. The work done to move a charged particle on an (4) σ

2ε0
n̂

equipotential surface against electric field, from point A to

B 35. The magnitude of electric field (E) due to a long line
charge, as a function of perpendicular distance (x) from
B → → the line is best represented by
(1) Must be defined as − ∫ E ⋅ dℓ
A

(2) Is zero
(1)
(3) Can have non zero value
→ −
→
Must be defined as ∫ E ⋅ dS where S is a closed
(4) S

surface

(2)

(3)

(4)

6
ITS-6A

CHEMISTRY

46. The strongest reducing agent among the following is 51. A : Values of electrode potentials of all electrodes are
calculated using SHE.
(1) Lithium R : The standard potential of the cell can be obtained by
(2) Sodium taking the difference of the standard potentials of cathode
and anode.
(3) Potassium
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(4) Cesium (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
47 Consider the given cell. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
Ni(s) + 2 Ag (aq) (0.002 M) → Ni
+ 2+
(aq) (0.160 M) + not the correct explanation of the assertion
2Ag(s) (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
If Ecell = 0.9142 V then E will be
o
cell
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(1) 1.05 V
52. Osmotic pressure of solution containing 3.6 g glucose
(2) 2.05 V and 1.2 g of urea in 250 ml at 27ºC approximately will be
(3) 1.84 V (1) 2.8 atm
(4) 3.21 V (2) 3.9 atm
48 2 moles and 3 moles of liquids, A (P
o
= 120 torr) and B (3) 4.2 atm
A

P = 80 torr) respectively are mixed to form an ideal

o
(
B (4) 5.1 atm
solution. The mole fraction of B in vapour phase will be
53. If for the electrochemical cell
(1) A(s)|A2+ (0.1 M) || B+(0.1 M) | B(s) the emf is 5 V, then
2

Eºcell of the reaction is

(2) 1

2
(1) 6.78 V
(3) 1

4 (2) 5.03 V

(4) 3

5
(3) 2.18 V
(4) 10.07 V
49. A 150 watt, 200 volt incandescent lamp is connected in
series with an electrolytic cell containing copper sulphate 54. A : Mass percentage of 2 m glucose solution is 28.5%.
solution. The mass of copper deposited by the current R : Molality is the mole of the solute present in 1 kg of the
flowing for 10 hours is (Atomic wt of Cu = 63.5) solution.
(1) 17.8 g Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
(2) 31.75 g the correct explanation of the assertion

(3) 8.9 g Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) 63.5 g
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
50. Mass of a non-volatile solute (molar mass = 45 g mol–1)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
that should be dissolved in 90 g water to reduce its
vapour pressure to 75% is 55. If a solute AB2, 40% dissociates (behaving as ternary
electrolyte) and 60% dimerizes then its van't Hoff factor 'i'
(1) 75 g is
(2) 45 g (1) 1
(3) 25 g (2) 1.4
(4) 15 g (3) 1.5
(4) 0.7
56. The mole fraction of urea in its 2 molal aqueous solution
is
(1) 0.0177
(2) 0.0215
(3) 0.0347
(4) 0.0415

7
ITS-6A

57. Given below are two statements, one is assertion (A) 62. Which of the following concentration terms is temperature
other is reason (R). independent?
Assertion (A) : The freezing point of 0.1 m glucose
solution is higher than that of 0.1 m NaCl solution. (1) Normality
Reason (R) : Depression in freezing point is inversly (2) Molarity
proportional to the number of moles of non-volatile solute
particles present in the solution. (3) Mole fraction
In the light of above statements, choose the correct (4) (w/v)%
answer.
63. 2.5 V is required for the following electrolytic reduction of
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is Al2O3 at a high temperature:
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
2 Al2O3 → 4 Al + 3 O2
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is The Gibb’s energy for the decomposition of aluminium
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion oxide at same temperature is
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(1) +5211 kJ mol–1
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(2) +2895 kJ mol–1
58. 0.1 molal aqueous solution of weak base (BOH) is 10%
ionised. If Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol–1, the elevation in (3) +1960 kJ mol–1
boiling point of the solution is
(4) +960 kJ mol–1
(1) 0.08 K
64. The ratio of volume of gases obtain at anode when aq.
(2) 0.057 K NaCl and aq. Na2SO4 is electrolysed, connected in
(3) 0.047 K series is respectively
(4) 0.104 K (1) 1 : 1

59. A current of 9.65 ampere flowing for 100 seconds deposit (2) 1 : 2
0.3 g of a metal. The equivalent weight of metal is (3) 2 : 1
(1) 30 (4) 2 : 3
(2) 45 65. 5% (w/v) solution of urea is isotonic with 2% (w/v) solution
(3) 60 of a non-electrolyte substance. The molar mass of the
substance is
(4) 90
(1) 180 g/mol
60. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (2) 24 g/mol
Assertion A: Conductivity always decreases with (3) 120 g/mol
decrease in concentration for both strong and weak
electrolytes. (4) 30 g/mol
Reasons R: The number of ions per unit volume that
66. For the cell reaction
carry the current in a solution decreases on dilution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s).
answer from the options given below: If E
∘
cell
= 1.1V , the Δ rG° for the cell is
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (1) 2 × F × 1.1 J
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) –2 × F × 1.1 J
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2) (3) 4 × F × 1.1 J
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (4) –4 × F × 1.1 J

(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements 67. A : Electrical work done in one second is equal to
electrical potential multiplied by total charged passed.
61. Which of the following is not correct for solution of n- R : To obtain maximum work from a galvanic cell, charge
hexane and n-heptane? has to be passed reversibly.
(1) ΔHmix = 0 Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) ΔVmix = 0
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(3) ΔGmix < 0 (2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) ΔSmix (for system) = 0 (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

8
ITS-6A

68. 74. A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of electrolyte AB2 freezes at

Cu+ + e– → Cu, E° = x1 volt
Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu, E° = x2 volt, then for –0.88°C. If Kf for H2O is 1.86 K kg mol–1 then degree of
dissociation of AB2 is
Cu2+ + e– → Cu+, E°(volt) will be:
(1) 0.52
(1) x1 – 2x2
(2) 0.68
(2) x1 + 2x2
(3) 0.76
(3) x1 – x2
(4) 0.84
(4) 2x2 – x1 75. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode when
69. Which of the following forms azeotropic mixture? placed in a buffer solution is found to be (–0.415 V). The
pH of the buffer solution is approximately
(1) 90% ethanol + 10% water
(1) 4
(2) 75% nitric acid + 25% water
(2) 10
(3) 80% ethanol + 20% water
(3) 7
(4) 68% nitric acid + 32% water
(4) 12
70. If 2 g urea is added to 100 g of water (Kf = 1.86
76. The limiting molar conductivities at infinite dilution for
Kkg/mole), then how much ice will separate out at – KOH, KNO3 and NH4NO3 respectively are 239, 125 and
10°C?
128 S cm2mol–1. If molar conductivity of 0.2 M of NH4OH
(1) Zero
solution is 14 S cm2 mol–1 then degree of dissociation of
(2) 93.8 g
NH4OH is nearly
(3) 9.38 g
(1) 0.01
(4) 4.82 g
(2) 0.02
71. When 36 g of a solute having the empirical formula CH2O
(3) 0.06
is dissolved in 1.20 kg of water, the solution freezes at –
0.93ºC. What is the molecular formula of the solute? (Kf = (4) 0.15
1.86 K kg mol–1) 77. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by
mass. How many grams of concentrated sulphuric acid
(1) C3H6O3
solution should be used to prepare
(2) C4H8O4 250 ml of 2.0 M H2SO4?

(3) CH2O (1) 98 g

(2) 50 g
(4) C2H4O2
(3) 110 g
72. In mercury cell, the electrolyte used is
(4) 100 g
(1) A paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2
78. Limiting molar conductivity of which of the following ions
(2) A paste of KOH and ZnO is maximum in water at 298 K?
(3) 38% solution of sulphuric acid (1) Na+
(4) 20% solution of NaCl
(2) Cl–
73. Calomel electrode is represented as Hg (l), Hg2Cl2(s) /
(3) Br–
Cl– (aq). Incorrect statement for the electrode is
(1) It can be used as a reference electrode (4) Ca2+

Its electrode potential depends on concentration of

(2)
Cl–
(3) It has more practical application over SHE
(4) Its standard electrode potential value is zero

9
ITS-6A

79. If molality of a dilute solution is doubled then the value of

molal elevation constant (Kb) becomes

(1) Doubled
(2) Halved
(3) Tripled
(4) Unchanged
80. If O2 (g) is bubbled through water at 293 K. Calculate the
millimoles of O2(g) which would dissolve in 10 mol of
water at oxygen gas pressure of 0.5 atm (KH(O2) at 293 K
is 3.5 × 104 atm).
(1) 0.143
(2) 0.234
(3) 1.2
(4) 14.3

10
ITS-6A

BOTANY

91. Characteristics of a flower are as 97. A: In majority of aquatic flowering plants, pollination does
a. Nectaries absent not occur by water.
b. Flowers packed into inflorescence. R: Majority of aquatic flowering plants produce
c. Well exposed stamens. cleistogamous flowers.
d. Light weighted, non-sticky pollens.
On the basis of above features, flower must be Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(1) Hydrophilous
Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is
(2)
(2) Anemophilous not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Entomophilous (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Cleistogamous (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
92. Which of the following is not true for double fertilisation? 98. How many meiotic divisions are required in a typical
flowering plant for the formation of 400 seeds?
(1) It includes both syngamy and triple fusion
(1) 800
(2) Three gametes are involved
(2) 200
It is a characteristic feature of both dicots and
(3)
monocots (3) 400
Both male gametes fuse with polar nuclei of central (4) 500
(4)
cell
99. Some of the plants growing in aquatic habitat bear
93. Which one is a wrong statement about 'outbreeding colourful flowers with nectaries. Flowers of such plants
devices'? are generally pollinated by
Release of pollen and stigma receptivity are not (1) Water
(1)
synchronised
(2) Wind
(2) Anther and stigma are placed at same positions
(3) Biotic agents
(3) Presence of unisexual flowers
(4) Abiotic agents only
(4) Presence of physical barrier between the both sexes
100. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is
94. Geitonogamy is possible in followed by a statement of reason (R)
A: The generative cell comes to lie freely in the cytoplasm
(1) Monoecious plants having cleistogamous flowers only of tube cell
(2) Dioecious plants having staminate flowers only R: Cellulosic wall around generative cell is dissolved
(3) Dioecious plants having pistillate flowers only If both Assertion and reason are true and the reason
(1)
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) Monoecious plants having unisexual flowers
If both Assertion and reason are true and the reason
95. What would be the number of chromosomes in a cell of (2)
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
scutellum and aleurone layer respectively of maize seed,
if it has eight chromosomes in an antipodal cell? (3) If assertion is true statement but reason is false

(1) 32 and 16 (4) If both assertion and reason are false statements

(2) 16 and 24 101. A typical angiospermic anther is

(a) Bilobed
(3) 8 and 16 (b) Tetragonal
(4) 24 and 8 (c) Tetrasporangiate
The correct ones is/are
96. Which one of the following is a type of pollination which
brings only genetically different types of pollen grains to (1) Only (a)
the stigma? (2) All (a), (b), (c)
(1) Geitonogamy (3) Only (a) and (c)
(2) Cleistogamy (4) Only (a) and (b)
(3) Xenogermy
(4) Autogamy

11
ITS-6A

102. Read the following statements and select the correct 109. Examine the figure given below and select the option
option. giving the correct labels for A, B, C and D.
Statement A : Single large shield-shaped cotyledon of
maize seed is called epiblast.
Statement B : Coconut water from tender coconut is its
free nuclear endosperm.
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
103. Embryo formation in Citrus cannot be a result of
(1) Double fertilization A B C D
(2) Apomixis (1) PEN Degenerating Zygote Degenerating
antipodal synergids
(3) Triple fusion cells
(4) Syngamy (2) Zygote Degenerating PEN Degenerating
antipodal synergids
104. In the grass family single large cotyledon is called cells
(1) Scutellum (3) Zygote Degenerating PEN Degenerating
synergids antipodal
(2) Epiblast cells
(3) Testa (4) PEN Degenerating Zygote Degenerating
synergids antipodal
(4) Coleoptile cells
105. A hexaploid female plant is crossed with octaploid male
(1) (1)
plant, what will be the ploidy level of PEN and zygote
respectively? (2) (2)
(1) 7n and 10n (3) (3)
(2) 10n and 7n (4) (4)
(3) 5n and 4n 110. Choose the odd one w.r.t. steps of artificial hybridisation.
(4) 9n and 6n (1) Emasculation
106. Which of the layers of anther wall can be 1-3 layers thick? (2) Bagging
(3) In-vitro pollen germination
(1) Epidermis
(4) Dusting of pollen on stigma of female parent
(2) Endothecium
111. Read the following statements and choose them as true
(3) Middle layer (T) or false (F)
a. In artificial hybridisation it is important to make sure that
(4) Tapetum
only the desired pollen grains are used for pollination
107. Which of the following structures is present at opposite b. Artificial hybridisation is one of the major approaches
side of micropyle and represents the base of ovule? of crop improvement programme.
c. If female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no
(1) Funicle need for emasculation.
(2) Hilum d. Filiform apparatus guides the entry of pollen tube into
ovary.
(3) Integuments
a b c d
(4) Chalaza
(1) T F T F
108. An ovary may have a single ovule as in (i) or many
¯
¯¯¯¯
(2) T T F F
ovules as in (ii) .
¯¯¯¯¯
Select the correct option to fill the blanks (i) and (ii). (3) F T F T

(1) (i) - Mango, (ii) - Wheat (4) T T T F

(2) (i) - Rice, (ii) - Mango (1) (1)

(3) (i) - Mango, (ii) - Orchid (2) (2)
(4) (i) - Orchid, (ii) - Papaya (3) (3)
(4) (4)

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112. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. tapetum. 116. Identify the following as true(T) or false(F) and select the
option accordingly.
(1) It is the innermost layer of anther A. Apple fruits develop without the process of fertilization.
(2) It nourishes the developing pollen grains B. The wall of ovary forms the wall of seed
C. False fruits do not have seeds.
(3) Its cells possess dense cytoplasm
ABC
Its cells generally have more than one haploid (1) F T T
(4)
nucleus
(2) F F F
113. Which of the following statements are true about the (3) F F T
flowering plants? (4) T T F
I. The proximal end of the filament is attached to the
thalamus (or) the petal of the flower. (1) (1)
II. Each sporogenous cell is a potential pollen (or)
microspore. (2) (2)
III. One microspore mother cell undergoes meiotic (3) (3)
division to form four microspore tetrads.
IV. The number and length of stamens are variable in (4) (4)
flowers of different species
117. In a typical angiosperm, what will be the genotype of
(1) I and IV only embryo and endosperm if male plant is aa and female
(2) II and III only plant is AA?
(1) aa, aAa
(3) I and II only
(2) Aa, aAA
(4) I, II and III
(3) Aa, aaA
114. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions are required
respectively to form 6 male gametes from a single pollen (4) aa, AAA
mother cell?
118. Read the following floral characters carefully.
(1) 2 and 3 a. Majority of flowers are large, colourful and rich in
nectar
(2) 1 and 6
b. Odour may be pleasant or foul
(3) 2 and 5 c. Special markings on petals
d. Sticky coating on pollens
(4) 2 and 6
e. Sticky stigma
115. Match the following column I with column II and choose Such type of features are related with
the correct option. (1) Ornithophily
Column I Column II
(2) Chiropterophily
a. Scutellum (i) An undifferentiated sheath
which encloses root cap (3) Entomophily
b. Coleoptile (ii) A portion of embryonal axis (4) Anemophily
above the level of cotyledon
c. Coleorhiza (iii) Situated towards one side of 119. Queens of Bombus affinis is ____ for Aquilegia spurs.
the embryonal axis (1) Pollinator
d. Epicotyl (iv) A hollow foliar structure
(2) Pollen robber
which encloses shoot apex
and leaf primordia (3) Nectar robber
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 120. The structure(s) in an angiospermic plant that has/have
more than one nucleus in cell(s) is/are
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(i) Nucellus
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (ii) Endothecium
(iii) Tapetum
(iv) Developing embryo sac
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) only
(4) (iii) and (iv)

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121. f you take a single cucurbit plant then which of the 124. During hanging drop method of pollen germination pollen
following is possible? are dusted on a glass slide containing a drop of
(1) Cleistogamy (1) 1% sugar solution only
(2) Autogamy (2) 1% sugar solution with boric acid, Ca, Mg and K salts
(3) Geitonogamy (3) 5% sugar solution only
(4) Xenogamy 10% sugar solution with boric acid, Ca, Mg and K
(4)
salts
122. n angiosperms, the megaspore mother cell is generally
differentiated from 125. Choose the statement which is correct for monosporic
female gametophyte.
(1) Haploid cell of hilum
Unicelled egg apparatus is situated towards
(2) Diploid cell of nucellus (1)
micropylar end
(3) Diploid cell of stigma
Synergids have special cellular thickening at the
(2)
(4) Haploid cell of nucellus micropylar tip which guides the entry of pollen tube

123. Total number of genetically similar nuclei that participate Out of the eight nuclei, only seven are surrounded by
(3)
cell wall
in trophomixis in polygonum type embryo sac is
(4) Central cell is uninucleate
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 4

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ZOOLOGY

136. f both the ovaries are removed surgically, the level of 141. A : Estrogen levels show an increase during the follicular
which hormone is decreased in blood? phase of menstrual cycle.
R : Developing follicles are responsible for the secretion
(1) Gonadotropin
of estrogen.
(2) Oxytocin
If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
(3) Prolactin the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1)
(4) Estrogen If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2) not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark
137. n a reproductive phase of her life, a female gave birth to (2)
three children and every time she experienced lactational
amenorrhea that lasted 3 months. How many primary and If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then
(3)
secondary polocytes are formed under ideal conditions if mark (3)
her reproductive life lasts for 35 years? If both Assertion and Reason are false statements,
(4)
Primary Secondary then mark (4)
A. 384–416 3
142. During embryonic development, certain cells called stem
B. 35–40 2 cells have the potency to give rise to all the tissues and
C. 500–560 4 organs. Such stem cells are present in
D. 275–280 2 (1) Trophoblast
(1) A (2) Outer cell mass
(2) B (3) Inner cell mass
(3) C (4) Ectoderm
(4) D 143. The seminal plasma is rich in
138. Sperm is a microscopic structure composed of a head, (1) Testosterone and certain enzymes but no calcium
neck, middle piece and tail. The middle piece of sperm
(2) Androgens like estrogen and calcium
contains
(1) Nucleus (3) Only certain enzymes and glucose
(4) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(2) Golgi body
(3) Mitochondria 144. A : Sex chromosomes present in males are X and Y
R : 50% of male gametes carry the X chromosome and
(4) Centriole the other 50% carry the Y chromosome.
139. Several hormones are produced by placenta like hCG, (1) (1)
hPL, estrogen, progesterone out of which, the function of
(2) (2)
hPL is that it/its
(3) (3)
Inhibits development of feminine parts in a genetically
(1)
male foetus (4) (4)
(2) Directly ensures implantation of foetus 145. Under normal conditions, release of second polar body
(3) Ensures water retention in body of mother from human secondary oocyte occurs

Actions are similar to those of growth hormone and (1) During fertilisation
(4)
prolactin (2) After fertilisation
140. Three germ layers in embryonic development are formed (3) Before entry of sperm within ovum
by differentiation of
(4) Spontaneously with no relation to sperm entry
(1) Placenta
146.
(2) Inner cell mass The first movement of the foetus is observed in 5th month.
Which of the following characters is also noted in the
(3) Endoderm same month?
(4) Mesoderm (1) Formation of ribs
(2) Appearance of hair on head
(3) Formation of eye lash
(4) Initiation of formation of heart

15
ITS-6A

147. A : Penile erection is a result of neuronal activity of 152. A : Sertoli cells are known as sustentacular cells.
parasympathetic division in humans. R : They form blood-testis barrier.
R : 'NO' released by these neurons causes dilation of
(1) (1)
arterioles, resulting in tissue engorged with blood as
outflow of blood is reduced due to compressed veins. (2) (2)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (3) (3)
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) (4)
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2) 153.Assertion (A) : Clones are morphologically and
not the correct explanation of the assertion
genetically similar individuals.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false Reason (R) : Clones are result of asexual reproduction
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements that does not involve genetic recombination.
In the light of above statements select the correct option.
148. The shedding of endometrium during menstruation
occurs due to decline in concentration of Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) Estrogen
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
(2) Progesterone not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Oxytocin (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) FSH (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
149. Placenta connects developing foetus and maternal body 154. Spermiogenesis is
to facilitate all of the following, except
(1) Transformation of spermatids to sperms
Removal of carbon dioxide produced by
(1) Transformation of secondary spermatocytes to
embryo/foetus (2)
spermatids
(2) Supply of oxygen to the embryo/foetus
Release of sperms from lumen of seminiferous
(3)
(3) Supply of nutrients to embryo/foetus tubules
(4) Mixing of maternal blood with embryo/foetal blood (4) Maturation of sperms in female genital tract
150. Final products of gametogenesis in both sexes of humans 155. Following is diagrammatic section view of ovary.
differ in all of the given aspects, except
(1) Degree of motility
(2) Size
(3) Chromosome number
(4) Arrangement of mitochondria
151. dentify ‘X’ from the given figure of sectional view of
female pelvis and select the correct option from below.

Select the option which gives the correct identification of

A, B, C and D with function/characteristics.
A – Corpus luteum, secretes large amounts of
(1)
progesterone for the maintenance of endometrium.
B – Ovum, released from the ovary after the
(2)
completion of second meiotic division.
C – Corpus luteum, secretes estrogen to maintain
(3)
endometrium.
D – Graafian follicle, containing primary oocyte in
(4)
meiosis-I.
(1) Uterus
156. A : The secondary oocyte is attached to the wall of tertiary
(2) Vagina follicle through cumulus oophorus.
(3) Cervix R : Cumulus oophorus is made up of granulosa cells.

(4) Labia majora (1) (1)

(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

16
ITS-6A

157. Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine 164. Choose the incorrect statement
mechanism involving
Corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone
(1)
(1) Cortisol, ADH, progesterone that exert negative feedback on hypothalamus
(2) Cortisol, estrogens and oxytocin th
(2) LH induces ovulation which usually occurs on 14
(3) FSH, LH and estrogen day in the 35 day cycle.

(4) Prolactin, oxytocin and cortisol Progesterone is essential for the maintenance of
(3)
endometrium.
158. Which of the following sets of cells is having a complete
two set of chromosomes during gametogenesis in Poor health, poor diet and prolonged stress affect the
(4)
humans? menstrual cycle.

(1) Spermatogonium and secondary spermatocyte 165. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. human female
reproductive system.
(2) Oogonium and primary spermatocyte
Mons pubis – A cushion of fatty tissue covered with
(3) Spermatid and primary oocyte (1)
skin and pubic hair
(4) Spermatozoon and first polar body Labia majora – Fleshy folds of tissue extending down
(2)
159. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. oogenesis in from mons pubis
humans. (3) Ampulla of oviduct – Site of fertilization
First polar body does not undergo meiosis-II and (4) Mammary lobes – 40-50 in each breast
(1)
usually dies
166. A : Increased level of GnRH is responsible for initiating
The ovum is released from the ovary at secondary spermatogenesis at the age of puberty.
(2)
oocyte stage after the release of first polar body R : Secretion of GnRH is regulated by the hypothalamus.
Thick coat of zona pellucida is composed of (1) (1)
(3)
glycoproteins and synthesized by ovum itself
(2) (2)
The primary follicle soon transforms into the tertiary
(4) follicle which is characterised by theca interna but not (3) (3)
antrum (4) (4)
160. The remnants of notochord in humans can be found in 167. Zona pellucida is considered as primary egg membrane
the present around ovum and it is secreted by
(1) Centra of vertebrae (1) Granulosa cells of ovary
(2) Zygapophyses (2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Cartilage discs between vertebrae (3) Endometrium of uterus
(4) Neural canal (4) Columnar cells of oviduct
161. Cells present in interstitial spaces between seminiferous 168. n the menstrual cycle of human female, uterine
tubules are stimulated to produce androgens by proliferative phase coincides with
(1) FSH (1) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
(2) LH (2) Ovarian follicular phase and lasts for about 9-11 days
(3) GnRH (3) Secretory phase and lasts for about 14 days
(4) TSH (4) Ovarian follicular phase and lasts for about 20 days
162. Ovarian follicles in humans are present in 169. A tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper junction
(1) Ovarian capsule of the two labia minora in human females is

(2) Cortex of ovarian stroma (1) Hymen

(3) Medulla of ovarian stroma (2) Urethral opening

(4) Ovarian ligament (3) Clitoris

163. How many highly coiled, sperm producing tubules are (4) Mons pubis
found approximately in a normal adult human male 170. Foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of
reproductive system?
(1) Oxytocin from foetal adenohypophysis
(1) 250 - 500
(2) Oxytocin from foetal neurohypophysis
(2) 500 - 1500
(3) Prolactin from maternal pituitary
(3) 250 - 750
(4) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
(4) 500 - 2000

17