Namma Kalvi

X – STD
SOCIAL SCIENCE
STUDY MATERIAL

DEPARTMENT OF SOCIAL SCIENCE

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CONTENTS

TOPIC
PAGE NO.
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK
QUESTION ANSWER
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
PAGE NO. PAGE NO.
 CHOOSE 03 – 28 62 - 70
01  FILL IN THE BLANKS 29 – 35 71 - 76
 CHOOSE THE CORRECT
STATEMENT, ASSERTION & 36 – 54 76 - 79
REASON
 MATCH THE FOLLOWING 55 - 61 80 & 81
 Q R CODE QUESTIONS &
02 82 – 120 121 - 136
ANSWERS
 TEXT BOOK BACK TWO MARKS 137 - 179
03
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
 TEXT BOOK BACK FIVE MARKS
04
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 180 - 210
 TEXT BOOK BACK HISTORY HEADING
05 211 - 223
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
 TEXT BOOK BACK GEOGRAPHY
06 DISTINGUISH BETWEEN QUESTIONS &
224 – 232
ANSWERS
 TEXT BOOK BACK GEOGRAPHY GIVE
07
REASON QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 233 - 235
08  HISTORY – TIME – LINE EVENTS 236
09  HISTORY – WORLD OUT LINE MAP 237 - 239
10  HISTORY – TAMIL NADU OUT LINE MAP 240
11  HISTORY – INDIA OUT LINE MAP 241 & 242
12  GEOGRAPHY – INDIA OUT LINE MAP 243 - 281
 GEOGRAPHY – TAMIL NADU OUT LINE
13 282 – 294
MAP
14  GEOGRAPHY – INDIA OUT LINE MAP 294 – 301

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HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARKS – CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
I. Choose the correct answer
1. What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans
b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
2. Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
a) Delville b) Orange State c) Adowa d) Algiers
3. Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of
nineteenth century?
a) China b) Japan c) Korea d) Mongolia
4. Who said ―imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism‖?
a) Lenin b) Marx c) Sun Yat-sen d) Mao Tsetung
5. What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
a) Air warfare b) trench warfare
c) Submarine warfare d) ship warfare
6. Which country after the World War I took to a policy of isolation?
a) Britain b) France c) Germany d) USA
7. To which country did the first Secretary General of League of Nations belongs?
a) Britain b) France c) Dutch d) USA
8. Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
a) Germany b) Russia c) Italy d) France
9. With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
a) Germany b) Russia c) Pope d) Spain
10. With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
a) Hernan Cortes b) Francisco Pizarro
c) Toussaint Louverture d) Pedro I

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11. Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
a) English b) Spaniards c) Russians d) French
12. Which President of the USA pursued―Good Neighbour‖ policy towards Latin
America?
a) Roosevelt b) Truman
c) Woodrow Wilson d) Eisenhower
13. Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
a) Europe b) Latin America
c) India d) China
14. Who was the brain behind the apartheid policy in South Africa?
a) Verwoerd b) Smut c) Herzog d) Botha
15. Which quickened the process of liberation in South America?
a) Support of US b) Napoleonic Invasion
c) Simon Bolivar‘s involvement d) French Revolution
16. Name the President who made amendment to Munro doctrine to justify American
intervention in the affairs of Latin America
a) Theodore Roosevelt b) Truman
c) Eisenhower d) Woodrow Wilson
17. When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
a) 2 September, 1945 b) 2 October, 1945
c) 15 August, 1945 d) 12 October, 1945
18. Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
a) Roosevelt b) Chamberlain
c) Woodrow Wilson d) Baldwin
19. Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
a) Battle of Guadalcanal b) Battle of Midway
c) Battle of Leningrad d) Battle of El Alamein
20. Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
a) Kavashaki b) Innoshima c) Hiroshima d) Nagasaki

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21. Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
a) Russians b) Arabs c) Turks d) Jews
22. Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?
a) Chamberlain b) Winston Churchill
c) Lloyd George d) Stanley Baldwin
23. When was the Charter of the UN signed?
a) June 26, 1942 b) June 26, 1945
c) January 1, 1942 d) January 1, 1945
24. Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?
a) New York b) Chicago c) London d) The Hague
25. Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
a) Sun Yat-Sen b) Chiang Kai-Shek
c) Michael Borodin d) Chou En Lai 3
26. Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
a) Woodrow Wilson b) Truman
c) Theodore Roosevelt d) Franklin Roosevelt
27. When was People‘s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
a) September 1959 b) September 1948
c) September 1954 d) September 1949
28. The United States and European allies formed ___________ to resist any Soviet
aggression in Europe.
a) SEATO b) NATO c) SENTO d) Warsaw Pact
29. Who became the Chairman of the PLO‘s Executive Committee in 1969?
a) Hafez al-Assad b) Yasser Arafat
c) Nasser d) Saddam Hussein
30. When was North and South Vietnam united?
a) 1975 b) 1976 c) 1973 d) 1974
31. Where was Arab League formed?
a) Cairo b) Jordan c) Lebanon d) Syria

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32. When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?

a) 1979 b) 1989 c) 1990 d) 1991
33. In which year was Sati abolished?
a) 1827 b) 1829 c) 1826 d) 1927
34. What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
a) Arya Samaj b) Brahmo Samaj
c) Prarthana Samaj d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
35. Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform
Act of 1856?
a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar b) Raja Rammohan Roy
c) Annie Besant d) Jyotiba Phule
36. Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
a) Parsi Movement b) Aligarh Movement
c) Ramakrishna Mission d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
37. Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
a) Baba Dayal Das b) Baba Ramsingh
c) Gurunanak d) Jyotiba Phule
38. Who was Swami Shradhananda?
a) A disciple of Swami Vivekananda
b) One who caused a split in the Brahmo Samaj of India
c) One who caused a split in the Arya Samaj
d) Founder of Samathuva Samajam.
39. Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
a) M.G. Ranade b) Devendranath Tagore
c ) Jyotiba Phule d) Ayyankali
40. Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash?
a) Dayananda Saraswathi b) Vaikunda Swamy
c) Annie Besant d) Swami Shradanatha

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41. Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company‘s policy of
territorial aggrandizement?
a) Marudhu brothers b) Puli Thevar
c) Velunachiyar d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
42. Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he
had incurred during the Carnatic wars?
a) Velunachiyar b) Puli Thevar
c) Nawab of Arcot d) Raja of Travancore
43. Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
a) Velunachiyar b) Kattabomman
c) Puli Thevar d) Oomai thurai
44. Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
a) Kayathar b) Nagalapuram
c) Virupachi d) Panchalamkurichi
45. Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
a) Marudhu brothers b) Puli Thevar
c) Veerapandya Kattabomman d) Gopala Nayak
46. When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
a) 24 May 1805 b) 10 July 1805
c) 10 July 1806 d) 10 September 1806
47. Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations
in Vellore fort?
a) Col. Fancourt b) Major Armstrong
c) Sir John Cradock d) Colonel Agnew
48. Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
a) Calcutta b) Mumbai c) Delhi d) Mysore
49. Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East
Bengal?
a) Wahhabi Rebellion b) Farazi Movement
c) Tribal uprising d) Kol Revolt

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50. Who declared that ―Land belongs to God‖ and collecting rent or tax on it was
against divine law?
a) Titu Mir b) Sidhu c) Dudu Mian d) Shariatullah
51. Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins
under Permanent Settlement?
a) Santhals b) Titu Mir c) Munda d) Kol
52. Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
a) Dadabhai Naoroji b) Justice Govind Ranade
c) Bipin Chandra pal d) Romesh Chandra
53. When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
a) 19 June 1905 b) 18 July 1906
c) 19 August 1907 d) 16 October 1905
54. What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
a) Kol Revolt b) Indigo Revolt
c) Munda Rebellion d) Deccan Riots
55. Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
a) Annie Basant b) Bipin Chandra Pal
c) Lala Lajpat Rai d) Tilak
56. Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation
through his play Nil darpan?
a) Dina Bandhu Mitra b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
c) Dadabhai Naoroji d) Birsa Munda
57. Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
a) Motilal Nehru b) Saifuddin Kitchlew
c) Mohamed Ali d) Raj Kumar Shukla
58. In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation
approved?
a) Bombay b) Madras c) Lucknow d) Nagpur

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59. Which among the following was declared as ‗Independence Day‘?

a) 26th January 1930 b) 26th December 1929
c) 16th June 1946 d) 15th January 1947
60. When was the first Forest Act enacted?
a) 1858 b) 1911 c) 1865 d) 1936
61. On 8 January 1933 which day was observed____________.
a) Temple Entry Day b) Day of Deliverance
c) Direct Action Day d) Independence Day
62. Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
a) 1858 Act b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
c) Government of India Act, 1919 d) Government of India Act, 1935
63. Who defeated Pattabhi Sitaramaya, Gandhi‘s candidate, and became the President
of the Congress in1939?
a) Rajendra Prasad b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Subhas Chandra Bose d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
64. Where was Gandhi when India attained independence on 15th August 1947?
a) New Dehi b) Ahmedabad c) Wardha d) Noakhali
65. Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
a) T.M. Nair b) P. Rangaiah c) G. Subramaniam d) G.A. Natesan
66. Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
a) Marina b) Mylapore
c) Fort St. George d) Thousand Lights
67. Who said ―Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection‖?
a) Annie Besant b) M. Veeraraghavachari
c) B.P. Wadia d) G.S. Arundale
68. Which among the following was SILF‘s official organ in English?
a) Dravidian b) Andhra Prakasika
c) Justice d) New India
69. Who among the following were Swarajists?
a) S. Satyamurti b) Kasturirangar c) P. Subbarayan d) Periyar EVR

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70. Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
a) Kamaraj b) Rajaji c) K. Santhanam d) T. Prakasam
71. Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
a) Erode b) Madras c) Salem d) Madurai
72. Where did the congress volunteers clash with the military during Quit India
Movement?
a) Erode b) Madras c) Salem d) Madurai
73. __________ was the pioneer of socialReformers in India.
a) C.W. Damotharanar b) Periyar
c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Maraimalai Adigal
74. __________ established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
a) Caldwell b) F.W. Ellis c) Ziegenbalg d) Meenakshisundaram

75. __________ was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement.
a) KudiArasu b) Puratchi c) Viduthalai d) Paguththarivu
76. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by __________
a) Nationalism b) Iconoclasm c) Rationalism d) Spiritualism
77. __________ founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan b) B. R. Ambedkar
c) Rajaji d) M. C. Rajah
78. India‘s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed
in__________.
a) 1918 b) 1917 c) 1916 d) 1914
79. __________was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of
Government officials.
a) Staff Selection Board b) Public Service Commission
c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board d) Staff Selection Commission
80. ______ was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed
class in Madras rovince.
a) M. C. Rajah b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
c) T.M. Nair d) P. Varadarajulu

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 GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARKS – CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
I. Choose the correct answer
1. The north-south extent of India is
a. 2,500 km b. 2,933 km c. 3,214 km d. 2,814 km
2. The Southern most point of India is
a. Andaman b. Kanyakumari c. Indira Point d. Kavaratti
3. The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about
a. 2,500 km b. 2,400 km c. 800 km d. 2,200 km
4. _________ River is known as ‗Sorrow of Bihar‘.
a. Narmada b. Godavari c. Kosi d. Damodar
5. Deccan Plateau covers an area of about__________ sq.km.
a. 8 lakh b. 6 lakh c. 5 lakh d. 7 lakh
6. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _________.
a. Coast b. Island c. Peninsula d. Strait
7. The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from _______
a. Goa b. West Bengal c. Sri Lanka d. Maldives
8. The highest peak in South India is
a. Ooty b. Kodaikanal c. Anaimudi d. Jindhagada
9. _____________ Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
a. Bhabar b. Tarai c. Bhangar d. Khadar
10. Pulicat Lake is located between the states of
a. West Bengal and Odisha b. Karnataka and Kerala
c. Odisha and Andhra Pradesh d. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
11. Meteorology is the science of _________.
a) Weather b) Social c) Political d) Human
12. We wear cotton during _________.
a) Summer b) Winter
c) Rainy d) Northeast monsoon

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13. Western disturbances cause rainfall in_________.

a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala
c) Punjab d) Madhya Pradesh
14. ___ helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
a) Loo b) Norwester c) Mango showers d) Jet stream
15. _________ is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
a) Isohyets b) Isobar c) Isotherm d) Latitudes
16. Climate of India is labelled as _________.
a) Tropical humid b) Equatorial Climate
c) Tropical Monsoon Climate d) Temperate Climate
17. The monsoon forests are otherwise called as_________.
a) Tropical evergreen forest b) Deciduous forest
c) Mangrove forest d) Mountain forest
18. _________ forests are found above 2400m Himalayas.
a) Deciduous forests b) Alpine forests
c) Mangrove forests d) Tidal forests
19. Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in _________.
a) Tamil Nadu b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Madhya Pradesh d) Karnataka
20. _________ is not a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO
A) Nilgiri b) Agasthiyamalai c) Great Nicobar d) Kachch
21. The soil which is rich in iron oxides is __________.
a) Alluvial b) Black c) Red d) Alkaline
22. Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major
groups?
a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
b) Indian Meteorological Department
c) Soil Survey of India
d) Indian Institute of Soil Science

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23. The soils formed by the rivers are:
a) Red soils b) Black soils
c) Desert soils d) Alluvial soils
24. _________ dam is the highest gravity in India.
a) Hirakud dam b) Bhakra Nangal dam
c) Mettur dam d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
25. __________ is a cash crop.
a) Cotton b) Wheat c) Rice d) Maize
26. Black soils are also called as:
a) Arid soils b) Saline soils c) Regur soils d) Mountain soils
27. The longest dam in the world is ___________.
a) Mettur dam b) Kosi dam
c) Hirakud dam d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
28. The leading producer of rice in India is ________.
a) Punjab b) Maharashtra c) Uttar Pradesh d) West Bengal
29. Which crop is called as ―Golden Fibre‖ in India?
a) Cotton b) Wheat c) Jute d) Tobacco
30. The state which leads in the production of coffee is
a) West Bengal b) Karnataka c) Odisha d) Punjab
31. Manganese is used in______.
a) Storage batteries b) Steel Making
c) Copper smelting d) Petroleum Refining
32. The Anthracite coal has ___________.
a) 80 to 95% Carbon b) Above 70% Carbon
c) 60 to 7% Carbon d) Below 50% Carbon
33. The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and
a) Oxygen b) Water c) Carbon d) Nitrogen
34. The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is
a) Chennai b) Salem c) Madurai d) Coimbatore

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35. The first Jute mill of India was established at
a) Kolkata b) Mumbai c) Ahmedabad d) Baroda
36. The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in
a) Gujarat b) Rajasthan c) Maharashtra d) Tamil nadu
37. The most abundant source of energy is
a) Bio mass b) Sun c) Coal d) Oil
38. The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in
a) Jharkhand b) Bihar c) Rajasthan d) Assam
39. The nucleus for the development of the chotanagpur plateau region is
a) Transport b) Mineral Deposits
c) Large demand d) Power Availability
40. One of the shore based steel plants of India is located at ___________.
a) Kolkata b) Tuticorin c) Goa d) Visakhapatnam
41. The scientific study of different aspects of population is called
a) Photography b) Demography
c) Choreography d) Population density.
42. The state with highest literacy rate as per 2011 census is _________.
a) Tamil nadu b) Karnataka c) Kerala d) Uttarpradesh.
43. Human Development is measured in terms of _________.
a) Human Resource Index b) Per capita index
c) Human Development Index d) UNDP
44. ______________ transport provides door to door services.
a) Railways b) Roadways c) Airways d) Waterways.
45. The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is
a) 5846 km b) 5847 km c) 5849 km d) 5800 km
46. The length of navigable Inland waterways in India is
a) 17,500 km b) 5000 km c) 14,500 km d) 1000 km
47. The National Remote sensing Centre (NRSC) is located at _______.
a) Bengaluru b) Chennai c) Delhi d) Hyderabad

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48. The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is

a) Roadways b) Railways c) Airways d) Waterways
49. Which of the following is associated with helicopter service?
a) Air India b) Indian Airlines c) Vayudoot d) Pavan Hans
50. The major import item of India is
a) Cement b) Jewells c) Tea d) Petroleum
51. The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
a) 8°5′N to 13°35′N b) 8°5′S to 13°35′S
c) 8°0′N to 13°5′N d) 8°0′S to 13°05′S
52. The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
a) 76°18′ E to 80°20′E b) 76°18′ W to 80°20′W
c) 86°18′ E to 10°20′E d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′W
53. The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is
a) Anaimudi b) Doddabetta c) Mahendragiri d) Servarayan
54. Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil
Nadu?
a) Palghat b) Shencottah c) Bhorghat d) Achankoil
55. Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?
a) Periyar b) Cauvery c) Chittar d) Bhavani
56. The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
a) Ramanathapuram b) Nagapattinam
c) Cuddalore d) Theni
57. The forest cover of Tamil Nadu as per 2017 Indian Forest Report is
a) 20.21% b) 20.31% c) 21.20% d) 21.30%
58. Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from
a) Arabian sea b) Bay of Bengal c) Indian Ocean d) Timor sea
59. Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
a) Theni b) Madurai
c) Thanjavur d) Ramanathapuram

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60. The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
a) Dharmapuri b) Vellore c) Dindigul d) Erode
61. The delta which is known as Granary of South India is
a) Cauvery delta b) Mahanadi delta
c) Godavari delta d) Krishna delta
62. Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is
a) Pulses b) Millets c) Oilseeds d) Rice
63. Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is
a) 80.32% b) 62.33% c) 73.45% d) 80.33%
64. A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is
a) Mettur b) Papansam c) Sathanur d) Thungabahdra
65. Number of major and minor ports in TamilNadu are
a) 3and15 b) 4 and15 c) 3 and16 d) 4 and15

CIVICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARKS – CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
I. Choose the Correct Answer.
1. Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
2. How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) Never
3. The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens
(a) Double Citizenship
(b) Single Citizenship
(c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in others
(d) None of the above

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4. A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through
(a) Descent (b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation (d) All of the above
5. Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property (d) Cultural and Educational Rights
6. One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
7. If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to
have an access to
(a) The Parliament (b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India (d) The Supreme court of India
8. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the
heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies (d) Right to property
9. How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
10. We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the
(a) American Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution (d) Irish Constitution

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11. The Directive Principles can be classified into
(a) Liberal and Communist principles
(b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
12. Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
13. The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
14. Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about
the Centre-State Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Rajamannar Committee
3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 2 & 3
15. The Constitutional Head of the Union is
a) The President b) The Chief Justice
c) The Prime Minister d) Council of Ministers
16. Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?
a) Army b) The Prime Minister c) The President d) Judiciary
17. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
a) The President b) Attorney General
c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
18. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
a) The President b) Lok Sabha
c) The Prime Minister d) Rajya Sabha

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19. The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are
presided over by?
a) Senior most member of Parliament b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
c) The President of India d) The Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha
20. What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok
Sabha?
a) 18 years b) 21 years c) 25 years d) 30 years
21. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
a) The President b) The Prime Minister
c) State Government d) Parliament
22. Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial
Emergency
a) Article 352 b) Article 360 c) Article 356 d) Article 365
23. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by:
a) The President b) The Attorney General
c) The Governor d) The Prime Minister
24. Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under:
a) Appellate Jurisdiction b) Original Jurisdiction
c) Advisory Jurisdiction d) None of these
25. If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can
you take on your own?
a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister
b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses
c) Select the person you like as Prime Minister
d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha
26. The Governor of the State is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister
(c) President (d) Chief Justice

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27. The Speaker of a State is a
(a) Head of State (b) Head of government
(c) President‘s agent (d) none of these
28. Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative (b) Executive (c) Judicial (d) Diplomatic
29. Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the
State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President (b) The Governor
(c) The Chief Minister (d) The Speaker of State legislature
30. The Governor does not appoint
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Judges of the High Court
31. The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by
(a) The State Legislature
(b) The Governor
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
32. The State Council of Ministers is headed by
(a) The Chief Minster (b) The Governor
(c) The Speaker (d) The Prime Minister
33. The Legislative Council
(a) Has a term of five years (b) Has a term of six years
(c) Is a permanent house (d) Has a term of four years
34. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is
(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years

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35. The members of Legislative Council are
(a) Elected by the Legislative Assembly
(b) Mostly nominated
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.
(d) Directly elected by the people
36. Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telangana (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
37. The High Courts in India were first started at
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras (b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras (d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
38. Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana (d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
39. Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
a) Defense Minister b) Prime Minister
c) External Affairs Minister d) Home Minister
40. The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between
a) India and Nepal b) India and Pakistan
c) India and China d) India and Sri Lanka
41. Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
a) Article 50 b) Article 51 c) Article 52 d) Article 53
42. Apartheid is
a) An international association b) Energy diplomacy
c) A policy of racial discrimination d) None of these
43. The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to
a) Trade and Commerce
b) Restoration of normal relations
c) Cultural exchange programmes
d) The Five Principles of Co existence

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44. Which is not related to our foreign policy?
a) World co operation b) World peace
c) Racial equality d) Colonialism
45. Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
a) Yugoslavia b) Indonesia c) Egypt d) Pakistan
46. Find the odd one
a) Social welfare b) Health care c) Diplomacy d) Domestic affairs
47. Non-Alliance means
a) being neutral
b) Freedom to decide on issues independently
c) Demilitarization
d) None of the above
48. Non – military issues are
a) Energy security b) Water security
c) Pandemics d) All the above.
49. Mc Mahon Line is a border between
a) Burma and India b) India and Nepal
c) India and China d) India and Bhutan
50. India is not a member of which of the following
1) G20 2) ASEAN 3) SAARC 4) BRICS
Select the correct option
a) 4 only b) 2 only c) 2, 4 and 1 d) 1, 2 and 3
51. OPEC is
a) An international insurance Co.
b) An international sports club
c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries
d) An international company
52. With which country does India share its longest land border?
a) Bangladesh b) Myanmar c) Afghanistan d) China

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 www.nammakalvi.in

53. Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.
i) Salma Dam - 1. Bangladesh
ii) Farakka accord - 2. Nepal
iii) Chukha hydroelectric project - 3. Afghanistan
iv) Sharda River project - 4. Bhutan
a) 3 1 4 2 b) 3 1 2 4 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 4 3 2 1
54. How many countries share its border with India?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
55. Which two island countries are India‘s neighbours?
a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island
b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
c) Maldieves and Nicobar island
d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
56. Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Meghalaya
c) Mizoram d) Sikkim
57. How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
a) Five b) Four c) Three d) Two
58. Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
a) Lord Mountbatten b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
c) Clement Atlee d) None of the above.

ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARKS – CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
I .Choose the correct answer
1. GNP equals
a) NNP adjusted for inflation
b) GDP adjusted for inflation
c) GDP plus net property income from abroad
d) NNP plus net property income or abroad

23
2. National Income is a measure of
a) Total value of money b) Total value of producer goods
c) Total value of consumption goods d) Total value of goods and services
3. Primary sector consist of
a) Agriculture b) Automobiles c) Trade d) Banking
4. ______ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to
estimate the value of the final good.
a) Expenditure approach b) Value added approach
c) Income approach d) National Income
5. Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP.
a) Agricultural sector b) Industrial sector
c) Service sector d) None of the above.
6. Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at ______ lakh
crore in 2018-19.
a) 91.06 b) 92.26 c) 80.07 d) 98.29
7. India is ______ larger producer in agricultural product.
a) 1 st b) 3 rd c) 4 th d) 2nd
8. India‘s life expectancy at birth is ______ years.
a) 65 b) 60 c) 70 d) 55
9. Which one is a trade policy?
a) Irrigation policy b) import and export policy
c) land-reform policy d) wage policy
10. Indian economy is
a) Developing Economy b) Emerging Economy
c) Dual Economy d) All the above
11. Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)
a) Ministerial conference b) Director General
c) Deputy Director General d) None of these
12. How many countries were membership in WTO at present?
a) 159 b) 164 c) 148 d)128

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13. Colonial advent in India
a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French
b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French,English
d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
14. Who first came to India for trading purpose?
a) Roman Empire b) Portuguese c) Dutch d) Danish
15. When did Portuguese colonize India?
a) 1600 BC b) 1602 BC c) 1498 BC d) 1616 BC
16. GATT‘s first round held in
a) Tokyo b) Uruguay c) Torquay d) Geneva
17. India signed the Dunket proposal in
a) 1984 b) 1976 c) 1950 d) 1994
18. who granted the English ―golden Fireman‖ in 1632
a) Jahangir b) Sultan of Golconda
c) Akbar d) Aurangzeb
19. Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in
a) June 1991 b) July 1991 c) July- Aug-1991 d) Aug 1991
20. Indian government was introduced ___________ in 1991
a) Globalization b) World Trade Organisation
c) New Economic Policy d) none
21. __________ of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities,
which is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
a) Availability of food b) Access to food
c) Absorption of food d) none
22. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the
government through the __________.
a) FCI b) Consumer Cooperatives
c) ICICI d) IFCI

25
23. Which is correct?
i) HYV–High Yielding Varieties ii) MSP–Minimum Support Price
iii) PDS–Public Distribution System iv) FCI–Food Corporation of India
a) i and ii are correct b) iii and iv are correct
c) ii and iii are correct d) all are correct
24. __________ extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
a) United States of America b) India
c) Singapore d) UK
25. __________ revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food
grain production.
a) Blue Revolution b) White Revolution
c) Green Revolution d) Grey Revolution
26. __________ is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka
27. __________ is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health
and growth.
a) Health b) Nutrition c) Sanitation d) Security
28. Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in __________.
a) 1980 b) 1975 c) 1955 d) 1985
29. __________ status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population
and human resources development.
a) Health b) Nutritional c) Economic d) Wealth
30. Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched ________ service at free of
cost.
a) 106 ambulance b) 108 ambulance
c) 107 ambulance d) 105 ambulance
31. The three levels of governments in India are
a) Union, state and local b) Central, state and village
c) Union, municipality and panchayat d) None of the above

26
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32. In India, taxes are including

a) Direct taxes b) Indirect taxes.
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
33. Which is the role of government and development policies?
a) Defence b) Foreign policy
c) Regulate the economy d) all of above
34. The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is
a) Service tax b) Excise duty
c) Income tax d) Central sales tax
35. Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured
a) Value added tax (VAT) b) Income tax
c) Goods and service tax d) Sales tax
36. Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year __________.
a) 1860 b) 1870 c) 1880 d) 1850
37. __________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
a) Income tax b) Wealth tax c) Corporate tax d) Excise duty
38. What are identified as causes of black money?
a) Shortage of goods b) High tax rate
c) Smuggling d) All of above
39. Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by
a) Individuals b) Corporations
c) Trusts d) All of the above
40. Payments are
a) Fees and fines b) Penalities and forfeitures
c) None of the above d) a and b
41. ‗The Detroit of Asia‘ is ___________.
a) Tuticorin b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Madurai
42. Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in
a) Salem b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Dharampuri

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43. Tuticorin is known as
a) Gateway of India b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
c) Pump city d) none of these
44. ___________ are an essential aspect of a nation‘s development.
a) agriculture b) industry c) railway d) none of these
45. Tiruppur is known for
a) Leather tanning b) Lock making
c) Knitwear d) Agro-processing
46. Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi ___________ is also a centre for leather
goods exports.
a. Chennai b. Sivakasi c. Coimbatore d. Madurai
47. IT means
a) Indian Technology b) Information Technology
c) Institute of Technology d) Initiative Technology
48. A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is
a) Hosur b) Dindigul
c) Kovilpatti d) Tirunelveli
49. SIPCOT was formed in the year
a) 1972 b) 1976 c) 1971 d) 1978
50. Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?
a) SIPCOT b) TANSIDCO
c) TIDCO d) All of these

28
 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – FILL IN THE BLANKS
I. Fill in the blanks
1. Japan forced a war on China in the year_____________.
2. The new state of Albania was create according to the Treaty of
_____________signed in May 1913.
3. Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year _____________.
4. In the Balkans _____________ had mixed population.
5. In the battle of Tannenberg _____________suffered heavy losses.
6. _____________ as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
7. _____________ became Prime Minister leading a new coalition of liberals and
moderate Socialists before Lenin established the Bolshevik government.
8. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year_____________.
9. The founder of the Social Democratic Party was _____________.
10. The Nazi Party‘s propaganda was led by _____________.
11. The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in _____________.
12. The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as _____________.
13. The Union of South Africa came into being in May _____________.
14. The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for ____ years
15. _____________ were a military nation.
16. Boers were also known as _____________.
17. Hitler attacked---------------- which was a demilitarised zone.
18. The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as -----------.
19. --------- started the Lend Lease programme.
20. Britain Prime Minister --------------- resigned in 1940.
21. Saluting the bravery of the --------------------- Churchill said that ―Never was so
much owed by so many to so few‖.
22. ------------- is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance.
23. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights set forth fundamental human rights
in --------------articles.

29
24. After the World War II ---------------- was voted into power in Great Britain.
25. __________________ was known as the ―Father of modern China‖.
26. In 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in ____ University.
27. After the death of Dr. Sun Yat Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang party was ____.
28. _____ treaty is open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.
29. The treaty of _____________ provided for mandates in Turkish -Arab Empire.
30. Germany joined the NATO in _________________.
31. _____________ was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
32. ________ treaty signed on February 7, 1992 created the European Union.
33. ___________founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
34. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was _______________.
35. Satyashodak Samaj was launched by__________________.
36. Gulumgir was written by ____________________.
37. Satyarthaprakash enumerates the positive principles of___________________.
38. Ramakrishna Mission was established by___________________.
39. _________________was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
40. _________brought tremendous changes in the caste structure in Kerala.
41. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by______________.
42. The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by _______.
43. Except the Palayakkarars of ____________, all other western Palayakkarars
supported Puli Thevar.
44. Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of __________ for
eight years.
45. Bennerman deputed __________ to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to
surrender.
46. Kattabomman was hanged to death at ____________.
47. The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the
_____.
48. ___________ was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.
49. _____________ suppressed the revolt in Vellore Fort.

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 www.nammakalvi.in

50. In 1757, Robert Clive was financially supported by ____________, the

moneylenders of Bengal.
51. ____________ was an anti–imperial and anti-landlord movement which
originated in and around 1827.
52. The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region wa____.
53. The _______ Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
54. Around 1854 activities of social banditry were led by ____________.
55. The British Commander of Kanpur killed by the rebels during the 1857 Rebellion
was _______.
56. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ____________.
57. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the
year__________
58. Gandhi was thrown out of the first class compartment in __________ station.
59. Gandhi regarded __________ as his political guru.
60. Khilafat Movement was led by _________.
61. Government of India Act 1919 introduced __________ in the provinces.
62. The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led
by__________.
63. Ramsay Macdonald announced__________ which provided separate electorates
to the minorities and the depressed classes.
64. __________ established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India
Movement.
65. __________ coined the term ‗Paksitan‘.
66. _______ was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court.
67. The economic exploitation of India was exposed by ______ through his writings.
68. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named ____________.
69. The starting of trade unions in Madras was pioneered by ____________.
70. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established
by____________.
71. ____________ formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.

31
72. ________ was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
73. ____________ hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932.
74. __________ was the first non-European language that went into print.
75. The College of Fort St. George was founded by __________.
76. __________ is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
77. ______ was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.
78. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as __________
79. __________ gave prominence to Tamil music.
80. The first Woman Legislator in India was __________.
GEOGRPAHY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – FILL IN THE BLANKS
II .Fill in the Blanks.
1. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is ____.
2. ______ is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
3. The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between ___________ and
_________branches of cauvery.
4. __________ soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
5. __________is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in __________
6. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ____________ % of its economy.
7. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ____________.
8. Tamil Nadu ranks ____________ in India with a share of over 20% in total road
projects under operation in the Public – Private Partnership (PPP).
9. ___________ is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
10. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called _____.

32
 CIVICS - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – FILL IN THE BLANKS
II .Fill in the Blanks.
1. The concept of constitution first originated in ________.
2. ________was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on________.
4. ________ writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article________.
6. ______ Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President‘s approval.
7. __________ is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
8. __________ is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
9. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the
______community to the Lok Sabha.
10. ________ has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both
Houses of the Parliament.
11. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the
age of ________years.
12. ____________ is the Guardian of the Constitution.
13. At present, the Supreme Court consists of _______ judges including the Chief
Justice.
14. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to _______.
15. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the _______.
16. _______ is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
17. _______ acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
18. The Seventh Amendment Act of _______ authorised the Parliament to establish a
common high court for two or more states.
19. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be
removed only by the ____

33
20. India conducted its first nuclear test at___________.
21. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate ____for domestic
growth and development.
22. ____________is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
23.______ was India‘s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
24. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice____________.
25. ____________ is a small Himalayan kingdom.
26. India‘s gateway to South East Asia is____________.
27. ____________ is a buffer country between India and China.
28. A strip of land ____________, belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh
border.
29. ____________ is known as the Land of thunderbolt.
30. India and Sri Lanka are separated by____________.

ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – FILL IN THE BLANKS
II . Fill in the Blanks.
1. _____ sector is largest sector in India.
2. GDP is the indicator of _____ economy.
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as _____.
4. _____ sector is the growth engine of Indian economy.
5. India is _____ largest economy of the world.
6. India is _____ fastest growing nation of the world.
7. _____ policy envisages rapid industrialization with modernization for attaining
rapid economic growth of GDP.
8. The Dutch captured Pondicherry in___________.
9. A better economy introduce rapid development of the ___________.
10. The East India Company built fortified factory in Madras which known
as___________.

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 www.nammakalvi.in

11. WTO agreement came into force from___________.

12. The term globalization invented by___________.
13. French East India company established second factory at _________.
14. __________ foundation from USA introduced HYV in India.
15. __________ is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
16. In the year ___________ National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian
Parliament.
17. ___________ play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible
rates to common people.
18. ___________ is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods
and services that one unit of money can buy.
19. ___ is levied by government for the development of the state‘s economy.
20. The origin of the word ‗tax‘ is from the word__________.
21. The burden of the __________ tax cannot be shifted to others.
22. __________ tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their
shareholders.
23. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on __________.
24. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is
called__________.
25. ________ are very important in the modern economic activates of man.
26. ___________ are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share
common market and technologies.
27. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ___________
District in Tamil Nadu.
28. ___________ is fondly calls as ‗Little Japan‘.
29. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in ___________.
30. ___________ is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.

35
 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK - CHOOSE THE CORRECT
STATEMENT, ASSERTION & REASON
I. Choose the correct statement
1. i) Italy remained a neutral country when the World War broke out.
ii) Italy was much disappointed over the peace settlement at Versailles.
iii) The Treaty of Sevres was signed with Italy.
iv) Italy was denied even small places such as Trieste, Istria and the south Tyrol.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) iii) is correct
c) iv) is correct d) i), iii) and iv) are correct

2. i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans.

ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers
iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople
iv) Turkey‘s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) i) and iii) are correct
c) iv) is correct d) i), ii) and iv) are correct

3. Assertion: Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured
goods and capturing England‘s markets.
Reason: Both the countries producedrequired raw material for their industries.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.

4. Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in
bloody battles.
Reason: There was stiff resistance from the native population.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.

36
5. i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians
occupied on the Southern Front
ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) iii) is correct
c) iii) and iv) are correct d) i), ii) and iii) are correct

6. Assertion: A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in

protectionism affected the world trade.
Reason: This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the
debtor countries.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A

7. Assertion: The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884–85 had resolved that Africa
should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason: The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in
defiance of this resolution.
a) Both A and R are right
b) A is right but R is not the right reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A

8. i) Banking was a major business activity among Jews.

ii) Hitler persecuted the Jews.
iii) In the concentration camps Jews were killed.
iv) The United Nations has currently 129 member countries in it.
a) i), ii) and iii) are correct
b) i) and iii) are correct
c) iii) and iv) are correct
d) (i ) is correct and ii), iii) and iv) are wrong

37
9. Assertion: President Roosevelt realized that the United States had to change its
policy of isolation.
Reason: He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is right but it has no relevance to A

10. i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated
minority, initiated a series of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to the
demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People‘s Republic of China for more
thantwo decades.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (i) and (iii) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct

11. i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left wing government in the countries of
Eastern Europe that had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North
Atlantic region.
iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from
gaining ground in the region.
iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to
the USSR.
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

38
12. Assertion (A): America‘s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war-
ravaged Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the
Western Europe under its influence.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

13. i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism

ii) He encouraged idolatry
iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William Bentinck
a) i) is correct b) i) and ii) are correct
c) i), ii) and iii) are correct d) i), iii) and iv) are correct

14. i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang

ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage
iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
iv) Prarthana Samaj had its origin in the Punjab.
a) i) is correct b) ii) is correct
c) i) and ii) are correct d) iii) and iv) are correct

15. i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education,
health care, relief in time of calamities.
ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
a) i) is correct b) i) and ii) are correct
c) iii) is correct d) iv) alone correct

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16. Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows
Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
c) Both are wrong
d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant

17. i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.

ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the
Company administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct

18. i) Under Colonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan‘s
army.
ii) After Muthu Vadugar‘s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted
Velunachiyar in restoring the throne to her.
iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv )are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct

19. Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious
conflict with the Marathas.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

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20. Assertion (A): Apart from the new military Regulations the most objectionable
was the addition of a leather cockade in the turban.
Reason (R): The leather cockade was made of animal skin.
a) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

21. (i) The Company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel
the industrial revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against
government officers and moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, led the Santhal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct

22. (i) Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of Islam and declared that
―Land belongs to God‖
(ii) According to the Doctrine of Lapse, new territories under the corrupt Indian
rulers were to be annexed.
(iii) The British officials after the suppression of 1857 Revolt were given power to
judge and take the lives of Indians without due process of law.
(iv) One of the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was many of the Indian
princes and zamindars remained loyal to the British.
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

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23. (i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was
the formulation of an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that the religious exploitation in India was the
primary reason for the growing poverty.
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-
rule.
(iv) The objective of Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and
weaken the nationalist movement.
a) (i) and (iii) are correct b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct d) (iii) and (iv) are correct

24. Assersion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history,
government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow
indigo.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

25. Assersion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

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26. (i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelar was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya
Narendra Dev and Mino Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iv) is correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
27. (i) Hindustan Republican Army was formed in Kanpur in 1924.
(ii) Ram Prasad Bismil was tried in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
(iii) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed by Surya Sen.
(iv) Chittagong Armoury Raid was carried out by B.K. Dutt.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) is correct d) (iii) and (iv) are correct

28. Assertion: The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference.
Reason: Gandhi-Irwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table
Conference.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) A is wrong but R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

29. Assertion: The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.

Reason: The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the
elected Congress ministries.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

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30. (i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.

(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations
only in India
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (iii) is correct
c) (iv) is correct d) All are correct

31. (i) EVR did not participate in the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in TamilNadu.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii) is correct d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

32. Assertion (A): The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): The Justice Party feared that Home Rule would give the Brahmins more
power.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

33. Assertion (A): EVR raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in
legislature.
Reason (R): During the first Congress Ministry, Rajaji abolished sales tax.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

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34. (i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in
1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the
Tamil grammars and literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages
in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru. Vi. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (iv) is correct d) (ii) and (iii) are correct

35. (i) Margret Cousin was one of the founders of Women‘s India Association.
(ii) Periyar spent his entire life campaigning against superstitions through Thinkers
or Rationalists Forums he had formed.
(iii) Singaravelar was a staunch supporter of the Hindu Mahasabha
(iv) Periyar emphasised that the caste system in South India is linked with the arrival
of Brahmins from the North.
a) (iii) and (iv) are correct b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct d) (ii) and (iii) are correct

36. Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-
1937 in Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period
of Dyarchy.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A

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37. Assertion (A): As World War I was in progress, the British Government was
considering the introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the war.
Reason (R): In 1920, Dyarchy as a form of Government was introduced in the
provinces.
a) A is correct, but R is not the correct reason
b) Both A and R are wrong
c) Both A and R are right
d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A

GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK - CHOOSE THE CORRECT
STATEMENT, ASSERTION & REASON
I. Choose the correct statement
1. Assertion (A): Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon
Reason(R): Meteorologists have developed a number of concepts about the
origin of monsoons.

a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A

b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A

c) (A) is correct (R) is false

d) (A) is false (R) is true

2. Assertion (A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.

Reason (R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the
Indian Sub-continent warm.(Give option for this questions)

a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A

b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
c) (A) is correct (R) is false

d) A) is false (R) is true

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II. Choose the inappropriate answer:
3. Tidal forests are found in and around .
(a) Desert
(b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari
(d) The delta of Mahanadhi
4. Climate of India is affected by ____ .
(e)Latitudinal extent b) Altitude

c) Distance from the sea d)Soil

I. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given
below ones:
5. Assertion (A): Horticulture involves cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana,
and citrus fruits.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

(d) (A) is false (R) is true

6. Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed
materials brought by the rivers.
Reason (R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

(d) (A) is false (R) is true

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Pick the odd one out:
7. a) Wheat b) Rice c) Millets d) Coffee
8. a) Khadar b) Bhangar c)Alluvial soil d) Black soil
9. a) Inundational canals b) Perennial canals
c)Tanks d) Canals

11. Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest
monsoon.
Reason (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.

d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.

12. Assertion (A): Red soil is rich in iron oxides
Reason (R): It is formed by leaching
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.

(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.

13. Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile
Valley of Tamil Nadu.

Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the states economy through
textiles.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

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2. Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu

Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
CIVICS - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK - CHOOSE THE CORRECT
STATEMENT, ASSERTION & REASON
I. Choose the correct statement
1. i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst
persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service
iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & iv are correct d) i, ii & iii are correct

2. i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to
the age of 62 years.
ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court.
iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of
India.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & iv are correct d) i & ii are correct

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3. Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved
Reason (R): One third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and
new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
a) (A) is false but R is true
b) (A) is false but (R) is true
c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for(A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for(A)
4. i) Only some States in India have Legislative Councils.
ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.
iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & iv are correct d) i, ii & iii are correct

5. Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State
Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State Legislature
only with the President‘s approval.
a) (A) is false but R is true
b) (A) is true but (R) is false
c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)

6. Arrange the following in the correctchronological order and choose the

correctanswer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel (ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran (iii) Twenty-year Treaty (iv) First Nuclear
test
a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

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7. Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any
military alliance
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iii) and (iv) c) (ii) only d) (iv) only

8. Write true or false against each of the statement.

a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international
affairs. - True
b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country‘s
foreign relations. - False
c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done underSubterranean Nuclear Explosions
Project. – True

9. Assertion (A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason (B): This began with a disastrous Indo –China war of 1962
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is correct and R is Wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong.

10. Assertion (A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations.
Reason (R): India is the World‘s second most populous country.
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong

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11. Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom.
Because India had to redeemed from
a) acute poverty b) illiteracy
c) chaotic socio-economic conditions d) all the above

12. The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the
following modes of transport?
1. Roads 2. Railways 3. Shipping 4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

13. Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and
Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong

14. Which of the following statements are true?

Statement 1. ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2. Mayanmar is India‘s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3. Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4. Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4

15. Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India‘s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture
and industrial production.
a) A is correct and R explains A b) A is wrong and R is correct
c) Both are correct d) Both are wrong

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ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – CHOOSE THE CORRECT
STATEMENT, ASSERTION & REASON
I. Choose the correct statement:
1. The rate of saving is low in India for the following reason
a. Low per capita income.
b. Poor performance and less contribution of public sector.
c. Poor contribution of household sector.
d. Savings potential of the rural sector not tapped fully.
a) I, II, IV are correct b) I, II and III are correct
c) I, II, III and IV are correct d) I, III and IV are correct

2. I) The East Indian Company specially to participate in the East Indian Spice Trade
and later added cotton, silk, Indigo.
II) Merchants of the Dutch East India Company first established at Calicut
III) Nanadesis were a guild of traders at the time of Hoysala Empire
a) I is correct b) II and III are correct
c) I and III are correct d) I, II and III are correct

3. Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then
the purchasing power is affected.
a) A is correct, R is false
b) Both A and R are false statements
c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

4. Which of the following statement is correct about GST?

(i) GST is the ‗one point tax‘.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central
and State governments.

53
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct d) All are correct

5. Choose the incorrect statements.

(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money
(ii) Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iv) c) (i) d) (ii) and (iii)

6. I. Entrepreneurship promotes capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the

public.
II. They are not provide large scale employment to artisan, technically qualified
persons and professionals.
III. Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the GDP and per capitals income
IV.Entrepreneurs not promote country‘s export trade.
a) I and IV are correct b) I only correct
c) III and IV are correct d) I and III are correct

IV Pick out odd one

7. Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
a) Ranipet b) Dharmapuri c) Ambur d) Vaniyambadi
8. Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
a) TIDCO b) SIDCO c) MEPG d) SIPCOT

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 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. Match the following
1 Treaty of Brest- Litovsk - Versailles 5
2 Jingoism - Turkey 3
3 Kemal Pasha - Russia with Germany 1
4 Emden - England 2
5 Hall of Mirrors - Madras 4
II. Match the Following
1. Transvaal - Germany 3
2. Tongking - Hitler 4
3. Hindenburg - Italy 5
4. Third Reich - gold 1
5. Matteotti - guerilla activities 2
III. Match the Following
1. Blitzkrieg - Roosevelt 3
2. Royal Navy - Stalingrad 4
3. Lend Lease - Solomon Island 5
4. Volga - Britain 2
5. Guadalcanal - lightning strike 1
IV. Match the following
1. Dr. Sun Yat-Sen - South Vietnam 5
2. Syngman Rhee - Kuomintung 1
3. Anwar Sadat - South Korea 2
4. Ho-Chi Minh - Egypt 3
5. Ngo Dinh Diem - North Vietnam 4

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V. Match the following
1 Ayyavazhi – Widows Remarriage Reform Act 4
2 Thiruvarutpa - Nirankari 3
3 Baba Dayal Das - Adi Bramo Samaj 5
4 Iswarchandra Vidyasagar – Vaikunda Swamigal 1
5 Debendranath - Songs of Grace 2
VI. Match the following
1. Theerthagiri - Vellore Revolt 4
2. Gopala Nayak - Ramalinganar 3
3. Bannerman - Dindigul 2
4. Subedar Sheik Adam - Vellore Fort 5
5. Col. Fancourt – Odanilai 1
VII. Match the following
1. Wahhabi Rebellion - Lucknow 3
2. Munda Rebellion - Peshwa Baji Rao II 5
3. Begum Hazarat Mahal - Titu Mir 1
4. Kunwar Singh - Ranchi 2
5. Nana Sahib – Bihar 4
VIII. Match the Following
1. Rowlatt Act - Surrender of titles 2
2. Non Cooperation Movement - Dyarchy 3
3. Government of India Act, 1919 - M.N. Roy 4
4. Communist Party of India - Direct ActionDay 5
5. 16th August 1946 - Black Act 1
IX. Match the Following
1. MNA – Anti - Anti - Hindi agitation 5
2. EVR Periyar - Removal of NeillStatue 3
3. S.N. Somayajulu - Salt Satyagraha 4
4. Vedaranyam - Torture Commission 1
5. Thalamuthu - Vaikom Hero 2

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X. Match the following

1. Dravidian Home - Maraimalai Adigal 3
2. Thozhilalan - RettaimalaiSrinivasan 4
3. Tani Tamil Iyakkam - Singaravelar 2
4. Jeeviya Saritha Surukkam - Natesanar 1

GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – MATCH THE FOLLOWING
I. Match the following
1. Tsangpo — Tributary of River Ganga 2
2. Yamuna — Highest peak in India 4
3. New alluvium — River Brahmaputra in Tibet 1
4. Mt. Godwin EastAusten (K2) -- Southern part of East Coastal Plain 5
5. Coromandel Coast — Khadhar 3
II. Match the following.
1. Project Elephant — Desert and semidesert vegetation 4
2. Biodiversity hotspot — October December 3
3. North east mansoon — Littoral forest 5
4. Tropical thorn forest — Protect the elephants 1
5. Coastal forests — The Himalayas 2

III. Match the following

1. Sugar bowl of India - a) M a h a n a d i 4
2. Coffee - b) Golden revolution 5
3. Tehri - c) Karnataka 2
4. Hirakud - d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar 1
5. Horticulture - e) Highest dam in the India 3

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IV. Match the following.
a. Bauxite - 1) Cement 2
b. Gypsum - 2) Aircraft 1
c. Black Gold - 3) Electrical goods 5
d. Iron ore - 4) Coal 3
e. Mica - 5) Magnetite 4
V. Match the following.
a. Detroit of India - 1) Gujarat 3
b. Thermal power plan - 2) Thiruvananthapuram 4
c. Wind farm - 3) Andhra Pradesh 5
d. Tidal energy - 4) 1975 2
e. Solar power - 5) Chennai 1
VI. Match the following
1 Border Road Organisation - Satellite communication 2
2 INSAT - Impact of Urbanization 4
3 Mazagaon Dock - 1990 5
4 Urban sprawl - Mumbai 3
5 Konkan Railways - 1960 1
- Hyderabad -
VII. Match the following
1. Winter season - Pre-monsoon 5
2. Summer season - June to September 3
3. Southwest monsoon - March to May 2
4. North east monsoon - January and February 1
5. Mango Shower - October to December 4
VIII. Match the following
1. Bauxite – Salem 3
2. Gypsum – Servaroy hills 1
3. Iron – Coimbatore 4
4. Limestone – Tiruchirapalli 2

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 CIVICS - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – MATCH THE FOLLOWING
I Match the Following.
1. Citizenship Act - Jawaharlal Nehru 2
2. The Preamble - 42nd Amendment 3
3. The mini Constitution - 1955 1
4. Classical language - 1962 5
5 National Emergency – Tamil 4
II. Match the following
1. Article 53 - State Emergency 3
2. Article 63 - Internal Emergency 5
3. Article 356 - Executive power of President 1
4. Article 76 - Office of the Vice President 2
5. Article 352 - Office of the Attorney General 4
III. Match the following
1. Governor - Head of the Government 2
2. Chief Minister - Head of the State 1
3. Council of Ministers - Tribunals 5
4. MLC - Responsible for the Assembly 3
5. Armed forces - cannot vote for Grants 4
IV Match the following
1. Indian Ocean island - 1955 4
2. Land bridge to ASEAN - 1954 3
3. Panchsheel - Maldives 1
4. Afro Asian Conference - Foreign Policy 5
5. World Peace – Myanmar 2

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V. Match the following
1. Brandix - Vienna 5
2. COMCASA - Japan 3
3. Shinkansen system - Shanghai 4
4. BRICS - USA 2
5. OPEC - Garment city inVishakapatnam 1
ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – MATCH THE FOLLOWING
I. Match the following
1. Electricity/ Gas and Water – National Income / Population 4
2. Price policy – Gross National Product 5
3. GST – Industry Sector 1
4. Per capita income – Agriculture 2
5. C + I + G + (X-M) – Tax on goods and Service 3
II. Match the following:-
1. Multination corporation in India - 1947 3
2. MNC – enforce international trade 5
3. GATT - Minimize cost of production 2
4. 8th Uruguay Round - Infosis 1
5. WTO – 1986 4
III. Match the following
1. Consumer cooperatives – subsidized rates 2
2. Public Distribution System – 2013 4
3. UNDP – least poor region 5
4. National Food Security Act – supply of quality goods 1
5. Kerala – United Nations Development
Programme 3

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IV. Match the following

1. Income Tax - Value added tax 3
2. Excise duty - 1 July 2017 4
3. VAT - Smuggling 5
4. GST - Direct tax 1
5. Black money - Indirect tax 2
V Match the following
1. Entrepreneur - Export Processing Zone 2
2. MEPZ - Coimbatore 5
3. Indian Ordance Factory - Organizer 1
4. TNPL - Aravankadu 3
5. Machester of south India – Karur 4

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 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 a. Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans
02 c. Adowa
03 b. Japan
04 a. Lenin
05 b. Trench warfare
06 d. USA
07 a. Britain
08 b. Russia
09 c. Pope
10 a. Hernan Cortes
11 b. Spaniards
12 a. Roosevelt
13 b. Latin America
14 a. Verwoerd
15 b. Napoleonic Invasion
16 a. Theodore Roosevelt
17 a. 2 September, 1945
18 c. Woodrow Wilson
19 b. Battle of Midway
20 c. Hiroshima
21 d. Jews
22 a. Chamberlain
23 b. June 26, 1945
24 d. The Hague
25 b. Chiang Kai – Shek
26 b. Truman

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27 d. September 1949
28 b. NATO
29 b. Yasser Arafat
30 b. 1976
31 a. Cairo
32 d. 1991
33 b. 1829
34 a. Arya Samaj
35 a. Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
36 a. Parsi Movement
37 b. Baba Ramsingh
38 c. One who caused a split in the Arya Samaj
39 a. M.G. Ranade
40 a. Dayananda Saraswathi
41 b. Puli Thevar
42 c. Nawab of Arcot
43 c. Puli Thevar
44 b. Nagalapuram
45 a. Marudhu Brothers
46 c. 10 July 1806
47 c. Sir John Cradock
48 a. Calcutta
49 b. Farazi Movement
50 c. Dudu Mian
51 a. Santhals
52 c. Bipin Chandra Pal
53 d. 16 October 1905
54 c. Munda Rebellion
55 d. Tilak
56 a. Dina Bandhu Mitra

63
57 b. Saifuddin Kitchlew
58 d. Nagpur
59 a. 26th January 1930
60 c. 1865
61 a. Temple Entry Day
62 d. Government of India Act, 1935
63 c. Subhas Chandra Bose
64 d. Noakhali
65 b. P. Rangaiah
66 d. Thousand Lights
67 a. Annie Besant
68 c. Justice
69 a. S. Satyamurti
70 d. T. Prakasam
71 c. Salem
72 d. Madurai
73 c. Raja Rammohan Roy
74 c. Ziegenbalg
75 a. Kudi Arasu
76 c. Rationalism
77 a. Rettaimalai Srinivasan
78 a. 1918
79 a. Staff Selection Board
80 a. M. C. Rajah

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GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
1 c. 3,214 KM
2 c. Indira Point
3 a. 2,500 km
4 c. Kosi
5 d. 7 lakh
6 c. Peninsula
7 c. Sri Lanka
8 c. Anaimudi
9 c. Bhangar
10 d. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
11 a. Weather
12 a. Summer
13 c. Punjab
14 c. Mangoshowers
15 a. Isohyets
16 c. Tropical Monsoon Climate
17 b. Deciduous Forest
18 b. Alpine Forests
19 b. Andhra Pradesh
20 d. Kachch
21 c. Red
22 a. Indian Council of Agricultural Research
23 d. Alluvial Soils
24 b. Bhakra Nagal dam
25 a. Cotton
26 c. Regur Soils

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27 c. Hirakud Dam
28 d. West Bengal
29 c. Jute
30 b. Karnataka
31 b. Steel Making
32 a. 80 to 90 % Carbon
33 c. Carbon
34 d. Coimbatore
35 a. Kolkata
36 c. Maharashtra
37 b. Sun
38 a. Jharkhand
39 b. Mineral Deposits
40 d. Visakhapatnam
41 b. Demography
42 c. Kerala
43 c. Human Development Index
44 b. Roadways
45 a. 5846 km
46 c. 14,500 km
47 d. Hyderabad
48 c. Airways
49 d. Pavan Hans
50 d. Petroleum
51 a. 80 4’ N to 130 35’ N
52 a. 760 18’ E to 800 20’ E
53 b. Doddabetta
54 c. Bhorghat
55 a. Periyar
56 c. Cuddalore

66
 57 a. 20.21 %
58 b. Bay of Bengal
59 a. Theni
60 a. Dharmapuri
61 a. Cauvery delta
62 b. Millets
63 d. 80.33%
64 a. Mettur
65 a. 3 and 15

CIVICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
1 d. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, democratic, republic
2 a. Once
3 b. Single Citizenship
4 c. Naturalisation
5 c. Right to Property
6 d. Parents property is inherited by their children
7 d. The Supreme court of India
8 c. Right to Constitutional remedies
9 c. If the President orders it during the national emergency
10 c. Russian Constitution
11 d. Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
12 c. Article 360
13 d. Article 368
14 b. 1&2
15 a. The President
16 b. The Prime Minister
17 d. Speaker of Lok Sabha
18 b. Lok Sabha
19 c. The President of India

67
20 c. 25 years
21 d. Parliament
22 b. Article 360
23 a. The President
24 b. Original Jurisdiction
25 b. Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses
26 c. President
27 d. None of these
28 d. Diplomatic
29 b. The Governor
30 d. Judges of the High Court
31 b. The Governor
32 a. The Chief Minister
33 c. Is a permanent house
34 c. 30 years
Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly
35 c.
etc..
36 c. Tamil Nadu
37 a. Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
38 c. Punjab and Haryana
39 c. External Affairs Minister
40 c. India and China
41 b. Article 51
42 c. A policy of racial discrimination
43 d. The Five Principle of Co existence
44 d. Colonialism
45 d. Pakistan
46 c. Diplomacy
47 b. Freedom to decide on issues
48 d. All the above
49 c. India and China
50 * 2 only
51 c. An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries
52 a. Bangladesh
53 a. 3142
54 c. 7

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55 d. Sri Lanka and Maldieves

56 d. Sikkim
57 a. Five
58 b. Sir Cyril Radcliffe

ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
1 c. GDP plus net property income from abroad
2 d. Total value of goods and services
3 a. Agriculture
4 b. Value added approach
5 c. Service sector
6 b. 92.26
7 d. 2nd
8 a. 65
9 b. Import and export policy
10 d. Developing Economy
11 b. Director General
12 b. 164
13 a. Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French
14 b. Portuguese
15 c. 1498 BC
16 d. Geneva
17 d. 1994
18 b. Sultan of Golconda
19 c. July – Aug – 1991
20 c. New Economic Policy
21 a. Availability of food
22 a. FCI

69
23 d. All are correct
24 a. United States of America
25 c. Green Revolution
26 c. Tamil Nadu
27 b. Nutrition
28 a. 1980
29 a. Health
30 b. 108 ambulance
31 a. Union, state and local
32 c. Both (a) and (b)
33 d. All of above
34 c. Income tax
35 c. Goods and Service Tax
36 a. 1860
37 b. Wealth tax
38 d. All the above
39 a. All of the above
40 d. a and b
41 c. Chennai
42 b. Coimbatore
43 b. Gateway of Tamil Nadu
44 b. Industry
45 c. Knitwear
46 a. Chennai
47 b. Information Technology
48 a. Hosur
49 c. 1971
50 d. All of these

70
 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
II. Fill in the Blanks.
Q.NO. ANSWER
1 1894
2 London
3 1902
4 Macedonia
5 Russia
6 Clemenceau
7 Kerensky
8 1925
9 Ferdinand Lassalle
10 Josef Goebbels
11 1927
12 Gestapo
13 1910
14 27
15 The Aztecs
16 Afrikaners (or) The original settlers of South Africa
17 Rhineland
18 Rome – Berlin – Tokyo Axis
19 President Roosevelt
20 Chamberlain
21 Royal Air Force
22 Radar
23 30
24 The Labour Party
25 Dr. Sun – Yet – Sen
26 Peking

71
27 Chiang – Kai – Shek
28 CENTO
29 Versailles
30 1955
31 Strasbourg
32 The Maastricht
33 Ramalinga Adigal
34 Mahadev Govind Ranade
35 Jyotiba Govind Phule
36 Jyotiba Phule
37 Swami Dayananda Saraswathi
38 Swami Vivekananda
39 Singh Sabha
40 Narayana Guru and Ayyankali
41 Iyothee Thassar
42 Viswanatha Nayak
43 Sivagiri
44 Gopala Nayak
45 Ramalinganar
46 Kayathar
47 Second Palayakkar war
48 Fateh Hyder
49 Col. Gillespie
50 Jagat Seths
51 The Wahhabi Rebellion
52 Kol Revolt
53 Chotanagpur Tenancy
54 Bir Singh
55 Hugh Wheeler
56 1908

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57 1885
58 Pietermaritzburg
59 Gopala Krishna Gokhale
60 Mohamed Ali & Shaukat Ali
61 Dyarchy
62 Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
63 Communal Award
64 Usha Mehta
65 Rahmat Ali
66 T. Muthuswami
67 G. Subramaniam
68 Bharat Matha Society
69 B.P. Wadia
70 C. Natesanar
71 Rajaji
7 Yakub Hasan
73 Bhashyam
74 Tamil
75 F.W. Ellis
76 Maraimalai Adigal
77 Justice Party Government
78 Parithimar Kalaignar
79 Abraham Pandithar
80 Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar

73
 GEOGRPAHY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
II. Fill in the Blanks.
Q.NO. ANSWER
1 Coimbatore
2 Solaikaradu
3 Collidam and Cauvery
4 Laterite
5 Tahr , Nilgiri Hills
6 21
7 Thenpannai
8 Second
9 Chennai
10 Balance of Trade

CIVICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
II. Fill in the Blanks.
Q.NO. ANSWER
1 USA
2 Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
3 Nov. 26, 1949
4 Five Kinds
5 51 (A)
6 Money
7 The Prime Minister
8 The Vice – President
9 Anglo – Indian
10 Attorney General
11 65
12 The Supreme Court
13 28

74
 14 The President
15 People
16 M. Fathima Beevi
17 The Governor
18 1956
19 President
20 Pokhran
21 In ward investment, Business & Technology
22 Diplomacy
23 Non – Alignment
24 Disarmament
25 Bhutan
26 Myanmar
27 Nepal
28 Teen Bigha Corridar
29 Bhutan
30 Palk Strait

ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
II. Fill in the Blanks:
Q.NO. ANSWER
1 Service
2 Health of the economy
3 Industrial Sector
4 Small and Medium enterprises
5 Sixth
6 Fifth
7 Industrial
8 1693
9 Capital Market
10 Fort St. George
11 Jan. 1, 1995

75
 12 Pro. Theodore Levitt.
13 Masulipatanam
14 Ford
15 Under weight
16 2013
17 Consumer Co operatives
18 Purchasing Power
19 Tax
20 Taxation
21 Direct
22 Corporate
23 1 July 2017
24 Black Money
25 Industrial Activities
26 Industrial Clusters
27 Vellore
28 Sivakasi
29 April 2000
30 Entrepreneur

HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
CHOOSE THE CORRECT STATEMENT, ASSERTION & REASON:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
1 a. i) and ii) are correct
2 d. i), ii) and iv) are correct
3 b. A is right but R is not the correct reason
4 b. A is right but R is not the correct reason
5 d. i), ii) and iii) are correct
6 b. A is right but R is not the correct explanation
7 a. Both A and R are right

76
8 * i), ii) and iii) are correct
9 a. Both A and R are correct
10 c. i) and iii) are correct
11 b. i) and ii) are correct
12 c. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
13 d. i), iii) and iv) are correct
14 c. i) and ii) are correct
15 b. i) and ii) are correct
16 b. Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
17 b. i), ii) and iii) are correct
18 b. ii) and iii) are correct
19 c. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
20 b. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
21 a. i), ii) and iii) are correct
22 c. i), iii) and iv) are correct
23 * i) and iv) are correct
24 a. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
25 c. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
26 d. i), ii) and iii) are correct
27 a. i) and ii) are correct
28 c. A is correct but R is wrong
29 d. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
30 a. i), and ii) are correct
31 c. ii) is correct
32 d. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
33 b. A is correct but R is wrong
34 b. i) and iii) are correct
35 c. i), ii) and iv are correct
36 a. Both A and R are correct
37 c. Both A and R are right

77
 GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
CHOOSE THE CORRECT STATEMENT, ASSERTION & REASON:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
1 a. Both A and B are true: R explains A
2 a. Both A and B are true: R explains A
3 a. Desert
4 d. Soil
5 c. A is correct R is false
6 b. Both A and R are true and R does not explain A
7 d. Coffee
8 d. Black Soil
9 c. Tanks
10 a. Both A and R are true and R explains A
11 c. A is true but, R is false
12 a. Both A and R are true and R explains A
13 b. Both A and R are true but, R does not explain

CIVICS – VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONEMARK – ANSWER
CHOOSE THE CORRECT STATEMENT, ASSERTION & REASON:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
1 d. i), ii) & iii) are correct
2 a. ii) & iv) are correct
3 c. Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason for A
4 * i) and ii) are correct
5 b. A is true but r is false
6 a. i, iii, iv, ii
7 c. ii only

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8 * a – True, b – False, c – True

9 c. A is correct and R is wrong
10 b. A is correct and R does not explain A
11 d. All the above
12 b. 1,3 an 4 only
13 a. A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
14 c. 1, 3 and 4
15 c. Both are correct

ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
CHOOSE THE CORRECT STATEMENT, ASSERTION & REASON:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
1 a. i), ii) and iv) are correct
2 c. i and iii are correct
3 d. A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
4 c. i), iii) and iv) are correct
5 b. iv
6 d. i and iii are correct
7 b. Dharmapuri
8 c. MEPG

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 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
Q.NO. ANSWER CODE Q.NO. ANSWER CODE

1 53124 6 43251

2 34512 7 35124

3 34521 8 23451

4 51234 9 53412

5 43512 10 3421

GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

Q.NO. ANSWER CODE Q.NO. ANSWER CODE

1 24153 5 34521

2 43512 6 24531

3 45213 7 53214

4 21534 8 3142

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 CIVICS – VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONEMARK – ANSWER
MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

ANSWER ANSWER
Q.NO. Q.NO.
CODE CODE

1 23154 4 43152

2 35124 5 53421

3 21534

ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

ANSWER ANSWER
Q.NO. Q.NO.
CODE CODE

1 45123 4 34512

2 35214 5 25134

3 24513

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 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – Q R CODE QUESTIONS
1. Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath
I. Choose the Correct answer
1. In which year Napoleon was defeated in Trafalgar War?
a) 1805 b) 1806 c) 1815 d) 1821
2. Which Country Captured Alsace and Lorraine from France?
a) Russia b) England c) Germany d)
Austria
3. In which year did the Young Turk Revolution break out?
a) 1905 b) 1906 c) 1907 d) 1908
4. Which treaty was concluded at the end of the second Balkan war?
a) Treaty of Bucharest b) Treaty of Brest Litovsk
c) Treaty of London d) Treaty of paris
5. Name the Archduke who was killed at Sarajevo?
a) Kaiser Wilhelm II b) Franz Ferdinand
c)Franz Joseph d) Princip
6. Who was the emperor at Russia at time of First World War?
a) Kaiser Wilhelm II b) Tsar Nicholas II
c) Franz Ferdinand d) Napoleon
7. Name the treaty signed by Russia with Germany in 1918?
a) Treaty of Versailles b) Treaty of Bucharest
c) Treaty of London d) Treaty of Brest Litovsk
8. The Central powers consisted of
a. Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy b. Russia, Germany and Italy
c. Britain, Germany and Italy d. America, Germany and Italy
9. Who was the first secretaryGeneral of League of Nations?
a) Woodrow Wilson b) Sir Eric Drummond
c) Lloyd George d) Orlando

82
10. In which year did the Russian Revolution break out?
a) 1917 b) 1918 c) 1911 d) 1939
II. Fill in the blanks
1. Tsar Nicholas II belonged to _____________ dynasty.
2. _______________an American ship was torpedoed by a German submarine.
3. The Russian parliament was called______________.
4_________________party was renamed the Russian Communist Party.
5. Pravda is a Russian word meaning ______________
III. Match the following
1. Woodrow Wilson - Germany 5
2. Lloyd George - Russia 4
3. Clemenceau - America 1
4. Lenin - France 3
5. Kaiser Wilhelm II - England 2

2. The World between Two Wars

I. Choose the correct answer
1. U. S market crash occurred in
a.1927 b. 1928 c.1929 d.1930
2. In which party did Mussolini join?
a. Fascist Party b. Nazist Party
c. Communist Party d. Labour Party
3. The Lateran Treaty was important because
a. Mussolini recognized the Vatican city as an independent state.
b. the Church recognized the Kingdom of Italy
c. both a and b
d. only
4. Hitler became both President and Commander –in-Chief of armed forces in
a.1933 b.1934 c.1935 d.1936
5 Who were called Boers?
a. The inhabitants of Africa
b. Original Dutch settlers of South Africa
c. The natives of South America
d. All the above

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6. Apartheid - a policy followed in

a. South Africa b. South America c. Europe d. Asia
II Fill in the blanks
1. ___________treaty was concluded by Mussolini with Pope in 1929.
2. Mussolini invaded Ethiopia in ___________
3. ______________was one of the founder of Nazi Party.
4. ______________ is an autobiographical book of Hitler.
5. The Boers called the foreigners as _____________
3. World War II
I. Choose the Correct Answer:
1. Japan invaded Manchuria in
a. 1930 b. 1931 c.1932 d.1933
2. Aixs Power nations were
a. Italy, Germany and Japan b. Italy, Germany and Austria
c. Italy, Germany and Russia d. Italy, Germany and Britain
3. Sudetenland was a province in __________________
a. Czechoslovakia b. Austria c. Germany d. Italy
4. Which Country attacked the U S Naval Installation in Pearl Harbour?
a) Germany b) Italy c) Turkey d) Japan
5. In which year US dropped an atom bomb on Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
a) 1945 b) 1947 c) 1948 d) 1940
6. At present how many Member states does UNO have?
a) 192 b) 193 c) 195 d) 189
7. Who wrote the play the merchant of Venice?
a) P.C. Chang b) John Humpharey
c) Shakespeare d) Franklin
8. Which Country Invaded Rhineland in 1936?
a) Russia b) Poland c) France d) Germany
9. After World War II, world was polarized into
a. Two blocs b. three blocs c. one bloc d. none of these

84
10. The universal Declaration of Human Rights was adoptedby UN in
a. 1947 b. 1948 c.1949 d.1950
II. Fill in the blanks:
1. In 1938, British Prime Minister _____________concluded Munich Pact with
Germany.
2. __________and ______________were the fighter planesused by Royal Air Force
during World War II.
3. ______________ programme was started by US President to aid Britain during
World War II.
4. _____________was the first country to achieve independence after World War II.
5. The Security Council of UNO consists of 15 members. ___________permanent
members and___________temporary members.
4. The World after World War II
I. Choose the Correct answer:
1. Who was the father of modern China?
a) Chiang Kai Shek b) Yuav Shih-Kai
c) Sun Yat -Sen d) Chou En Lai
2. Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
a) Chiang Kai - Shek b) Yuav Shih-Kai
c) Sun Yat -Sen d) Michael Borodin
3. In Which year Chiang Kai Shek Captured Peking?
a) 1925 b) 1926 c) 1928 d) 1930
4. In which year cento (CENTO) was dissolved?
a) 1991 b) 1970 c) 1975 d) 1979
5. Who Introduced Perestroika?
a) Khrushcher b) Gorbachev c) Yeltsin d) Reagan
6. Who founded Kuomintang Party in China?
a) Chiang Kai Shek b) Yuav Shih-Kai
c) Sun yat -sen d) Chou Enlai

85
7. Which of the following pact was organized by Soviet Union?
a. NATO b. SEATO c. CENTO d. Warsaw Pact
8. States outside from Capitalist countries and Communist countries were called __
a. First World b. Second World c. Third World d. None of these
9. No military alliance with any of the super power is the policy of
a. NAM b. NATO c. SENTO d. CEATO
10. The European Union has _______ member states.
a. 26 b.27 c.28 d.29
II. Fill in the blanks:
1. _________________ published the pamphlet called Jewish state.
2. The Arab league was formed in _________.
3. ____________nationalized US Owned Sugar Companies.
4.______________ was the ancient home of Jews.
5. Germany was officiallyreunited in ______________
III. Match the following:
1. Opium Wars - Egypt 2
2. Suez Canal - 1954 3
3. SEATO - Russia 4
4. Glasnost - Indonesia 5
5. Bandung – China 1
5. Social and religious reform movements in the 19 th century
I. Choose the Correct answer:
1. Who founded Brahmo Samaj?
a) Raja Rammohan Roy b) Debentranath Tagore
c) Keshab Chandra Sen d) Atma Ram Pandurang
2. AdiBrahmoSamaj was founded by
a) Raja Rammohan Roy b) Debentranath Tagore
c) Keshab Chandra Sen d) Atma Ram Pandurang
3. Where was Prarthana Samaj founded?
a) Poona b) Madras c) Bombay d) Calcutta

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4. Who was the founder of Deccan Education Society?
a) M.G. Ranade b) Ramakrishna
c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Debentranath Tagore
5. Whose cry was ‗go back to vedas‘?
a) Iswar Chandra Vidhyasagar b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Ramakrishna
6. Where did Narayana Guru establish a grand Temple?
a) Tiruchendur b) Aruvipuram
c) Kanyakumari d) Tirunelveli
7. DAV schools were started by
a. Brahmo Samaj b. Arya Samaj
c. Rama Krishna Mission d. Adi Brahmo Samaj
8. In 1893 World Congress of Religion was held in _______
a. Chicago b. London c. Paris d. Rome
9. Deoband Movement was a revivalist movement organized by
a. Muslims b. Hindus c. Parsis d. Buddhists
10 . ‘Oru Paisa Tamilan’ was a
a. Weekly journal b. daily paper
c. novel d. book
II Fill in the blanks:
1. _______________ founded Rahuumai Mazdyasnansabha
2. Sadu Jana Paripalanasaugam was founded in __________
3. Ramalinga Adigal was born at____________
4. Khalsa College for the sikhs was established at ________
5. samathurva Samajamwas founded by ___________
III. Match the following
1. Theosophical Movement - VaikundaSwamigal 2
2. AkilaThirattu - Colonel H.S. Olcott 1
3. Advaidananda Sabha - Narayana Guru 4
4. Sri Narayana Dharma ParipalanaYogam - Annie Besant 5
5. Home Rule League – IyotheeThassar 3

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 6. Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. __________ organized the South Indian Confederacy of rebels against the British.

a. Virapandya Kattabomman b. Puli Thevar

c. Oomaithurai d. Marudhu Pandyan
2. ViraPandiyaKattabomman was hanged at __________

a. Sivagangai b. Kayathar

c. KalaiyarKoil d. None of the above

3. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

a. Puli Thevar - Nerkattumseval

b. Velunachiyar - Kalaiyar Kovil

c. Gopala Nayak - Virupachi

d. Virapandya Kattabomman - Sivagangai

4. The Vellore revolt broke out in

a. 10 July 1806 b. 10 August 1806

c. 11 July 1806 d. 11 August 1806

5. The first resistance to East India Company in Tamil Nadu was

a. Puli Thevar b. Virapandya Kattabomman

c. Marudhu brothers d. VeluNachiyar
6. Palayakkaras system was in practice in

a. Kakatiya Kingdom b. Pala Kingdom

c. Pratihara Kingdom d. Solanki Kingdom

7. Who introduced palayakaras system in Tamil Nadu?

a. Lakshmi Nayak b. Yadul Nayak

c. Vishwanatha Nayak d. Gopala Nayak

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8. The Marudhu brothers were executed in the

a. fort of Tirupathur b. fort of Panchalamkurichi

c. fort of Sankagiri d. fort of Sivagangai
9. Who among the following did not join in the South Indian Confederacy?

a. Marudhu Pandiyan b. Kerala Verma

c. Puli Thevar d. Gopala Nayak

10. The causes for the Vellore revolt was

a. Low salary to the soldiers

b. Poor prospects of promotion to the soldiers
c. New military regulations
d. All the above
11. Who was the first victim of Vellore revolt?

a. Colonel Fancourt b. Colonel Mekerras

c. Major Armstrong d. Lt. Elly

12. The Vellore revolt was suppressed by

a. Major Cootes b. Col. Gillespie

c. Captain Young d. Lt. Popham
7. Anti-Colonial Movements and the Birth of Nationalism
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Titu Mir‘s movement mainly aimed at eradicating which of the following system?
a. Polygamy b. Zamindari system
c. Imperialism d. Money lending system
2. Farazi movement was launched in which of the following regions?
a. East Bengal b.Madhya Pradesh c. Kerala d. Delhi
3. Kol Revolt took place in the year
a. 1830 – 31 b. 1831 – 32 c. 1832 – 33 d. 1833 – 34

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4. Find the correct answer
A. Santhals were from Rajmahal Hills
B. Santhals rose under Sindhu and Kanu
C. A Separate division called Santhal pargana was created by the government.
a. Only A and B b. Only B and C
c. Only C and D d. All the above
5. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
a. Barrackpur - Mangal Pandey
b. Delhi - Maulavi Ahmadullah
c. Kanpur - Nana Sahib
d. Jhansi - Rani Lakshmibai
6. Consider the following statement(s) related to the cause of failure of 1857 revolt.
I. Lack of unity and Co ordination
II.Lack of military strategy
a. Only I b. Only II c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
7. Which of the following was the impact of 1857 revolt?
a. Control of Indian administration was passed on to British crown.
b. India became one of the crown colonies.
c. The number of the Indians in the army was reduced.
d. All the above.
8. What was the cause of Indigo revolt of 1859?
a. Exploitation of local peasants by European planters by forcing them to plant indigo
on their lands.
b. The peasants were never able to clear their debts.
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
9. Match the following
A. Farazi movement - 1. Sidhu and Kanu
B. Wahhabi Rebellion - 2. Haji Shariatullah
C. SanthalHool - 3. Birsa Munda
D. Munda Rebellion - 4. Titu Mir
a. 2 4 3 1 b. 2 3 4 1 c. 2 4 1 3 d. 3 4 1 2

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10. Arrange in chronological order
1. Madras Native Association
2. Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. The Bombay Presidency Association
4. Poona Savajanik Sabha
a. 1 4 2 3 b. 2 3 4 1 c. 3 4 2 1 d. 4 1 2 3
11. First session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidency of
a. A.O. Hume b. BadruddinTyabji
c. J.B. Kriplani d. W.C. Bannerjee
12. Who amongst the following was not a militant Nationalist?
a. Bipin Chandra Pal b. BalaGangadharTilak
c. LalaLajpat Rai d. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
13. Who was the viceroy of India during Swadeshi Movement?
a. Lord Curzon b. Lord Irwin
c. Lord Wellington d. Lord Lansdowne
14. When did Tilak start Home Rule Movement?
a. May 1916 b. April 1916
c. March 1919 d. December 1918
15. The Lucknow pact of 1916 was made between
a. The congress and the Muslim league
b. The Hindus and the Muslims
c. The British and the Indians
d. The Moderates and extremists

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 8. NATIONALISM: GANDHIAN PHASE
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The ―tinkathiya‖ system refers to as ________
a. Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every twenty parts
of their land.
b. Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every parts of their land.
c. Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every kattha of their
land.
d. Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three crops on every parts of their
land.
2. Which of the following was forced by the government to cultivate in 1917 at
Champaran?
a. Opium b. Spices c. Indigo d. Jute
3. Which of the following is the correct chronology of the movements?
1. Champaran Satyagraha 2. Kheda Satyagraha
3. Rowlatt Satyagraha 4. Bardoli Satyagraha
a. 1 2 4 3 b.1 4 2 3 c.1 2 3 4 d.1 3 4 2
4. Who ordered the JallianwalaBagh Massacre?
a. Colonel Gillespie b. Nigel Collett
c. Reginald Dyer d. Kitchlew
5. Non – Cooperation movement was launched
a. 1919 b.1920 c. 1927 d. 1928
6. Who organised the Indian National Army?
a. Bhagat Singh b. Chandra Shekhar Azad
c. Subash Chandra Bose d. Vallabhbhai Patel
7. The Chauri Chaura incident took place on
a. February 1922 b.March 1922 c. April 1922 d. May 1922
8. Who was associated while protesting against Simon Commission and died later?
a. Bala GangadharaTilak b. Lala Lajapati Roy
c. Gopala Krishna Gokale d. Bipin Chandra Pal

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9. Which of the following statements are correct?
A: Gandhi was present in First Round Table Conference.
B: Second Round Table Conference was successful
a. Only A b. Only B c. Both d. None
10. The Constituent Assembly of India was set up under the frame work of
a. Cripps Mission 1942 b. Cabinet Mission 1946
c. Simon Commission 1927 d. None of these
11. Muslim League observed the Direct Action Day on
a. August 6, 1945 b. August 16, 1945
c. August 6, 1946 d. August 16, 1946
12. Name the ruling party in the UK When India got Independence?
a. Socialist Party b. Conservative Party
c. Labour Party d. Liberal Party
13. A Women‘s division of the Indian National Army was named after
a. Chand Bibi b. Ahilya Bai c. Rani Jhansi d. Rani Gaidinlliu
14. In which one of the following provinces was Congress ministry not formed under
the Act of 1935?
a. Madras b. Punjab c. Bombay d. Bihar
15. The Slogan of Subash Chandra Bose
a. Swaraj is my birth right b. Do or Die
c. Dilli Chalo d.None of these

9. FREEDOM STRUGGLE IN TAMIL NADU

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Madras Native Association was consisted primarily of _______
a) Landlords b) Merchants c) Farmers d) Money Lenders
2. In which year T. Muthuswami appointed as the first Indian Judge of the Madras
High Court?
a) 1777 b) 1874 c) 1877 d) 1977

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3. Assertion (A): The early nationalist believed in constitutional methods.

Reason (R): Their activities consisted of conducting hall meeting and
deliberating the problems of the country in English.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation.
4. Choose the correct statement
i) The Swedeshi movement made a deep impact in Tamil Nadu
ii) The congress carried on a vigorous campaign for boycott of foreign goods.
iii) Tamil was not used on the public platform for mobilise the people.
iv) The moderate leader Bipin Chandra pal toured Madras.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (iii) is correct
c) (iv) is correct d) All are correct
5. To avoid imprisonment Subramaina Bharati moved to _______
a) Calcutta b) Bombay c) Delhi d) Pondicherry
6. Indian Home Rule Movement was the model of ______
a) Irish b) USSR c) England d) USA
7. Match the following:
i) Lavo - 1) Infantry man
ii) Vijaya - 2) epicenter of Khilafat agitation
iii) James Neill - 3) ship
iv) Vaniyambadi - 4) Newspaper from Pondicherry
a) 4 1 2 3 b) 3 4 1 2 c) 2 1 3 4 d) 1 2 3 4
8. Who was elected as the president of congress session of 1917?
a) Tilak b) T.M. Nair c) Annie Besant d) Gandhi
9. In Tamil Nadu Khilafat Day was observed on ____
a) 17 April 1921 b) 16 April 1920 c) 18 May 1920 d) 17 April 1920
10. In which protest movement Gandhi gave the slogan ‗Do or Die‘?
a) Quit India movement b) Anti- Hindi agitation
c) Civil Disobedience movement d) Non-cooperation movement

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11. Who was called as ―Rosaappu Durai‖?
a) Bharathi b) George Joseph c) Periyar d) Dyer
12. In 1927 the statutory commission was constituted under _______
a) General Dyer b) George Joseph
c) Sir John Simon d) Subbarayan
10. SOCIAL TRANSFORMATION IN TAMIL NADU
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Tamil book Thambiran Vanakkam was published from
a) Chennai b) Bombay c) Goa d) Delhi
2. Who was introduced the sonnet form in Tamil
a) Parithimar kalaignar b) Maraimalai Adigal
c) Thiru.Vi. Ka d) Bharatidasan
3. Under the Montage-Chelmsford reforms the first election was held in
a) 1919 b) 1920 c) 1921 d) 1922
4. Choose the correct statement
i) The Justice party is the fountain head of the Non-Brahmin Movement in the
country.
ii) In the 1937 elections the Indian National Congress was not contested it.
iii) A. Subbarayalu became the chief minister of Madras presidency in 1920.
iv) In 1930 the Government of British India established the public service
commission.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (iv) is correct d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
5. Assertion (A): Women‘s liberation was one of the important objectives of the Self-
Respect Movement.
Reason (R): It worked for gender equality and gender senitisation of the society.
a) Both A and R are correct
b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.

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6. Match the following
i) Chitraputtiran - 1) Maraimalai Adigal
ii) Andra Prakasika - 2) M.C. Rajah
iii) Siddhanta Deepika - 3) Periyar
iv) Deputy leader of Justice Party - 4) Justice Party
a) 3 4 1 2 b) 4 3 1 2 c) 2 3 4 1 d) 1 2 3 4
7. The Non-Brahmin Manifesto was released in _______
a) 1915 b) 1916 c) 1917 d) 1918
8. Find out the odd one.
a) Rao Sahib b) Rao Bahadur c) Thanthai d) Divab
Bahadur
9. The Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana sangam was founded by
a) M.C. Rajah b) Dr. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar
c) T.M. Nair d) Abraham Pandithar
10. Neelambikai was the daughter of
a) Maraimalai Adigal b) P.Sundaranar
c) C.W. Damotharanar d) U.V. Swaminathar
11. U.V. Swaminathar was the student of
a) Robert Caldwell b) Meenakshi Sundaranar
c) Ziegen Balg d) C.W. Damotharanar
12. Who introduced a vocational education in Madras State?
a) Periyar b) Thiru.Vi. Ka c) Rajaji d) M.C. Rajah
GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARKS – Q R CODE QUESTIONS
1. INDIA - LOCATION, RELIEF AND DRAINAGE
I. Choose the Correct Answer:
1. A narrow channel of sea which separates two land masses is known as:
(a) Mound (b) Pass (c) Strait (d) Valley
2. China is the ....................... largest country in the world
(a) Second (b) Fourth (c) Third (d) Seventh

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3. The sun rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer on:
(a) 21 June (b) 22 December (c) 21 March (d) 22 July
4 Which of the following is the southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland?
(a) 8° 4' North (b) 8° 4' South (c) 6° 4' South (d) 6° 4' North
5. When was Indira-Point submerged under water?
(a) 2005 (b) 2004 (c) 2007 (d) 2002
6 .From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh the time lag is?
(a) 2 hrs 35 min. (b) 2 hrs 10 min. (c) 2 hrs (d) 1 hr 56min.
7. What is the North-South extent of India?
(a) 3214 km (b) 2933 km (c) 3241 km (d) 3213 km
8. The land mass of India has an area of ................... Million square km.
(a) 7.68 (b) 8.54 (c) 3.28 (d) 9.59
9. Which country shares land boundaries with India in the west?
(a) China (b) Nepal (c) Bhutan (d) Pakistan
10. Which is the capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Kavaratti (b) Pondicherry (c) Port Blair (d) Diu and Daman
11. Tropic of Cancer does not pass through?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Odisha (d) Tripura
12. Which is the river island of Brahmaputra?
a) Isukathippa Island b) Majuli
c) Minicoy Island d) Netrani Island
13. Which dam is built across the river Mahanadi?
a) Bhakra Dam b) Hirakud Dam
c) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam d) Sardar Sarovar Dam
14. Which is the longest river system of the peninsular India?
a) The Vaniyaru b) The Cauvery c) The Godavari d) The Krishna
15. Which is the right bank tributary of Godavari?
a) Amravati b) Varna c) Arunavati d) Manjira
16. In which Indian river is Shivanasamudra waterfalls situated?
a) Cauvery b) Brahmani c) Godavari d) Krishna

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18. Which is the largest of all the west flowing rivers of the Peninsula?
a) The Luni b) The Mahi c) The Narmada d) The Sabarmati
19. On which Indian river is the Duandhar Falls located?
a) Narmada b) Tapi c) Sabarmati d) Mahi
20. Which is known as 'the twin' of the Narmada?
a) The Luni b) The Mahi c) The Tapi d) The Sabarmati
21. Which is the river basin with the largest catchment area?
a) Ganga b) Sindhu c) Godavari d) Krishna
22. Consider the following statements and identify the right ones:
I. The peninsular block is rigid and stable in its geological structure.
II. The Himalayas are young, weak and flexible in its geological structure.
a. I only b. II only c. Both d. None
23 .The origin of Himalayas can best be explained by
a. Continental Drift Theory b. Ocean Floor Mapping
c. Sea Floor Spreading d. Theory of Plate Tectonics
24. Consider the following statements about Himalayas and identify the right ones.
I. They act as a climate divide.
II. They do not play an important role in the phenomenon of Monsoon rainfall in
Indian Sub continent.
a. I only b. II only c. Both d. None

2. CLIMATE, NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE

I. Choose the correct Answer:
1. Which range of temperature conifers are found?
A−12°C and 20°C B−18°C and 25°C
C−30°C and 10°C D−25°C and 20°C
2. Kinds of plants that grow in hot desert includes
A-mosses and lichens B-pine and cacti
C-elephant grass and cacti D-tough grasses and short bushes
3. Large trees are common in areas where the
A.sunlight duration is short B.sunlight duration is long
C.duration of hail is short D.duration of hail is long

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4. Word tundra means
A.fertile land B.barren land C.flooded land D.drought land
5. Trees that do not shed their leaves are mostly found in
A.hot desert vegetation B.Tropical monsoon forests
C.coniferous forests D.temperate deciduous forests
6. Forests made of trees that shed leaves as temperature decreases are classified as
A.hot desert vegetation B.tropical monsoon forests
C.coniferous forests D.temperate deciduous forests
7: Regions such as southeastern Brazil, southwestern Africa, Myanmar and
Bangladesh consists of
A.tropical monsoon forests B.tropical rainforests
C.coniferous rainforests D.temperate deciduous forests
8: Range of rainfall in temperate grasslands is
A.200 to 1,000 millimeters B.750 to 1,000 millimeters
C.650 to 900 millimeters D.600 to 800 millimeters
9.. A variety of trees is found in…………..
A.coniferous forests B.temperate deciduous forests
C.hot desert vegetation D. Tropical monsoon forests
10. Dense forests are found at places where kind of climate is
A. equatorial B. monsoon C. polar D. all of above
11. Lichens, moss and small plant are dominant in regions where the
A.duration of hail is short B.duration of hail is long
C.sunlight duration is short D.sunlight duration is long
12. Large scale destruction of forests is classified as
A.Willow destruction B.tundra destruction
C.afforestation D.deforestation
13: Percentage of forests found in South East Asia is
A.58% B.23% C.39% D.19%

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1 4 . Plants and trees shed their leaves in
A.summer season B.spring season
C.winter season D.none of the above
15.Height of trees in tree layer of temperate deciduous forests is
A.8 to 30 meters B.10 to 15 meters
C.30 to 40 meters D.20 to 40 meters
3. COMPONENTS OF AGRICULTURE
I. Choose the correct Answer:
1._________ is a form of overhead irrigation.
a) Centre Pivot irrigation b) Sprinkler irrigation
c) Terraced irrigation d) Drip irrigation
2. Inundation irrigation system is functional all through the year.
a) True b) False
3. Surface irrigation is again subdivided into:
a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5
4. Tank water irrigation system is common in:
a) Madhya Pradesh b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh d) Andhra Pradesh
5. The field water efficiency of trickle irrigation is:
a) 50-55% b) 55-85% c) 80-90% d) 60-70%
6. Sub-irrigation is used in areas with:
a) Low water table b) High water table
c) Sloping terrain d) Flat terrain
7. Water for irrigation can come from ____________ sources.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
8. Fertigation is a process in ___________ irrigation.
a) Sprinkler b) Surface
c) Drip d) Centre pivot

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9. The field water efficiency is determined by:
a) Water transpired by crop – water applied to a field
b) Water absorbed by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x 100%
c) Water absorbed by crop – water applied to a field
d) Water transpired by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x 100%
10. Spate irrigation is a special form of irrigation using surface water.
a) True b) False
11. Micro-irrigation is also called:
a) Nano-irrigation b) Petite irrigation
c) Localized irrigation d) Flood irrigation
12. Tube wells are not used in:
a) UP b) Haryana c) Gujarat d) Rajasthan
13.The Blue Revolution is related with?
A.Fish production B.Food grain production
C.Oilseed production D.Milk production
14. Indian agriculture is typically characterized as?
A.land surplus, labour scare economy
B.land surplus, lablour surplus economy
C.land scare, labour surplus economy
D.land scare, labour scare economy
15. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which of the following
fields?
A.Nuclear Physics B.Agriculture
C.Astrophysics D.Medicine
16. The Green Revolution in India was the outcome of the efforts of who amongst
the following?
A. M.S. Swaminathan B. C. Rangrajan
C. K.V. Kamath D. Rakesh Mohan

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17. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was
established in the year?
A.1970 B.1975 C.1980 D. 1982
18. The head office of the NABARD is located in?
A. Lucknow B. Hyderabad C. New Delhi D. Mumbai
19- Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located?
A.BangaluruB.Kanpur C.Coimbatore D.Cuttack
20- NABARD was established in the?
A. Fourth Five Year plan B. Fifth Five Year plan
C. Sixth Five Year plan D. Eighth Five Year plan
21- Under which Five Year Plan agriculture register negative growth?
A. Third B. Fifth C. Seventh D. Ninth
22- Who is known as Father of White Revolution in India
A. M.S. Swaminathan B. V.V. Kurien
C. K.N. Bahal D. B.P. Pal

4. RESOURCES AND INDUSTRIES

I. Choose the correct Answer:
1-The resources which are found everywhere are known as
A. Ubiquitous B. Non-renewable resources
C. Human made resources D. None of the above
2-The following is (are) the non-renewable resources
A. Coal B. Petroleum
C. Natural gas D. All of the above
3-Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is called
A. sustainable development
B. resource conservation
C. resource development
D. human resource development

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4-The resources can be conserved by
A. reducing consumption B. recycling
C. reusing D. All of the above
5-Land covers only about ____ percent of the total area of the earth‘s surface
A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35
6-The total percent of land of world under forest is
A. 26 B. 31 C. 36 D. 41
7-Deciduous forests shed their leaves in a particular season to conserve loss of
moisture through
A. transpiration B. evaporation
C. both ‗a‘ and ‗b‘ D. None of the above
8-The following is (are) non-metallic mineral(s)
A. Limestone B. Mica
C. Gypsum D. All of the above
9-Minerals can be extracted by
A. Mining B. Drilling C. Quarrying D. All of the above
10-Non-metallic minerals are found in
A. Igneous rocks B. Metamorphic rocks
C. Sedimentary rocks D. All of the above
11-China also leads in production of
A. lead B. antimony C. tungsten D. All of the above
12-The following is the world‘s leading tin producer
A. China B. Malaysia C. Indonesia D. India
13-The following is the world‘s leading iron-ore producer
A. China B. Russia C. France D. India
14-Fresh water accounts for only ____ percent.
A.1.7 B.2.7 C.3.7 D.4.7

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5. INDIA- POPULATION, TRANSPORTATION AND COMMUNICATION

I. Choose the correct Answer:
1. What is the world ranking of Indian Railway network?
A. 1st B. 2nd C. 3rd D. 4th
2 When was the first railway in India operated for public traffic?
A. 1857 B. 1858 C. 1855 D. 1853
3. Which railway line runs along the Indian west coast parallel to Arabian Sea and
Western Ghats?
A. South Central Railway B. Konkan Railways
C. Southern Railway D. South Eastern Railway
4. Match the following
Set I
a. Railwheel Factory
b. Rail Coach Factory
c. Integral Coach Factory
d. Diesel Loco odernization works
Set II
1. Patiala
2. Chennai
3. Kapurthala
4. Bengaluru
Code:
a b c d
A. 1 2 3 4
B. 4 3 2 1
C. 3 1 2 4
D. 4 1 2 3

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5. Which of the following express trains run on the Indian Railways network has
longest-run in
terms of total time & distance?
A. Vivek Express B. Himsagar Express
C. Navyug Express D. Guwahati Express
6. Which of the following railway is not recognised by UNESCO World heritage
Site?
A. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway B. Nilgiri Mountain Railway
C. Kalka-Shimla Railway D. North-Eastern Railway
7. Which of the following National Highway connects the four metro cities of India
(Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai)?
A. National Highway 44
B. National Highway 47A
C. Golden Quadrilateral (GQ)
D. North-South Corridor of NHDP
8. India's first Post Office set up in which place?
A. Madras (Now Chennai) B. Calcutta (Now Kolkata)
C. Bombay (Now Mumbai) D. Delhi
9..Which of these is the external sounds present in the channels of communication?
a) Noise b) Semantic problems
c) Cultural barriers d) Over communication
10.. Which of these should not be avoided for effective communication?
a) Noise b) Planning
c) Semantic problems d) Wrong assumptions
11. __________ are problems arising from expression.
a) Cultural barriers b) Semantic problems
c) Wrong assumptions d) Selecting perception

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12. Both encoding and decoding of message are influenced by our emotions.
a) True b) False
13.. In which of these problems, the actual message is lost in the jungle of
information?
a) Selecting perception b) Over communication
c) Under communication d) Filtering
14. Communication should serve as a conflict- reduction exercise.
a) True b) False
15. _______ means to impart understanding of the message.
a) Encoding b) Receiver c) Decoding d) Feedback

6. PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY OF TAMILNADU

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The hills which are located in the border of Tamilnadu and Kerala.
a) Cardamom hills b) Anaimalai hills
c) Palani hills d) Agasthiyar hills
2. The hills which separate the river basins of Cauvery and Palar.
a) Kalvarayan hills b) Palani hills
c) Patchamalai hills d) Andipatti hills
3. Tamilnadu receives more rainfall during the season
a) North East monsoon b) Winter monsoon
c) Summer season d) South West monsoon
4. Soil is formed by the deposition of silt by the rivers.
a) Black soil b) Laterite soil c) Red soil d) Alluvial soil
5. Indira Gandhi wild life sanctuary is found in the district of
a) Salem b) Coimbatore c) The Nilgris d) Erode
6. The second world largest mangrove forest is
a) Pichavaram b) Muthupet c) Vedaranyam d) Tuticorin

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7. The forest found on the upper slopes of the Western Ghats in Kanniyakumari and
Thirunelveli districts is
a) Tropical deciduous forest b) Tropical evergreen forest
c) Montane temperate forest d) Tropical thorn forest
8. Acacia is the common vegetation found in
a) Tropical evergreen forest b) Tropical deciduous forest
c) Mountain forest d) Thorn forest
9. A collapse of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain or cliff is called
a) Weathering b) Landslide c) Avalanch d) Earthquake
10. Risk Reduction Measures before disaster
a) Important telephone numbers to be known
b. Important documents to be kept safe
c) Emergency way to be know
d. All the Above
7. HUMAN GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. In Tamilnadu millets and cotton are mainly sown in --------------period.
A) April-May B) August-September
C) January-February D) November-December
2. The animal which is called ―Poor man‘s cow‖ in India is
A) Sheep B) Bull C) Goat D) Camel
3. ‖Little Brindavan‖ picnic spot is in-------------district.
A) Madurai B) Dharmapuri C) Salem D) Theni
4. Central Leather Research Institute (CLRI) is located in--------------district.
A) Chennai B) Kanchipuram C) Vellore D)
Coimbatore
5. As per 2011 census sex ratio of Nilgiri district is
A) 946/1000 B) 980/1000 C) 1041/1000 D) 1038/1000
6. The transport which is mainly used by most of the people in Tamilnadu is
A) Road ways B) Railways C) Air ways D) Water ways

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7. The longest National Highway in Tamilnadu is NH 44 goes from--------- to --------
A) Hosur to Kanniyakumari B) Madurai to Natham
C) Thiruvannamalai to Kallakuruchi D) Kanniyakumari to Salem
8. Nagapattinam district is in the region of-------------population in Tamilnadu
A) Sparse population B) High population
C) Moderate population D) Very high population
9. Pattamadai in Tamilnadu is famous for___________
A) Mat B) Coconut C)Turmeric D) silk
10. Disaster emergency contact number
A)107 B)100 C)1077 D)1091
CIVICS - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARKS – Q R CODE QUESTIONS
1. INDIAN CONSTITUTION
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Who is the father of the Constitution of India?
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) H.C. Mukherjee
2. The Commonwealth citizenship was repealed in the year
a) 2000 b) 2001 c) 2002 d) 2003
3. In which article are the fundamental rights enshrined?
a) 14 to 32 b) 12 to 35 c) 36 to 51 d) 14 to 35
4. Who was elected as the ―President of the Constitution Assembly‖?
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad b) V.T. Krishnamachari
c) H.C. Mukherjee c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. The first meeting of the Constitution Assembly was held on
a) 1949, August – 26 b) 1949, November – 26
c) 1949, December – 9 d) 1949, December – 11
6. __________ has been described as the ―Key to the Constitution‖.
a) Preamble b) Citizenship
c) Fundamental Rights d) Fundamental Duties

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7. How many regional languages are recognized at present in the 8 th

schedule of the Indian Constitution?
a) 18 b) 14 c) 22 d) 25
8. The procedure of Amendement is enshrined in which of the following
article?
a) 352 b) 356 c) 360 d) 368
9. __________was the Chairman of drafting Committee of Indian
Constitution.
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) Patel d) Swaran Singh
10. Who was appointed the Head of the National Commission to review
the working of the Constitution?
a) Dr. P.V. Rajamannar b) M.M. Punchchi
c) M.N. Venkatachaliah d) AadhiSeshaiya

2. CENTRAL GOVERNMENT
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The President is elected for a term of
a) Four Years b) Five Years c) Six Years d) Three Years
2. The President nominates 12 persons, who are eminent in literature,
Science, Sports, art and Social Service to ____________
a) Rajya Sabha b) Lok Sabha
c) Legislative Council d) Legislative Assembly
3.What is the age to become a member of Rajya Sabha?
a) 18 b) 22 c) 25 d) 30
4. The Lok Sabha is presided over by
a) The Speaker b) Prime Minister
c) The President d) Vice President

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5. First Vice President of India
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad b) Dr. Radhakrishnan
c) Zakir Hussain d) V.V. Giri
6. First Women President of India
a) Sarojini Naidu b) Fathima Beevi
c) Pratibha Patil d) Indira Gandhi
7. Which Article mentioned the duties of the Prime Minister?
a) Article – 54 b) Article – 64
c) Article – 68 d) Article – 78
8. Who appoints the Chief Justice of Supreme Court?
a) Prime Minister b) Attorney General of India
c) Cabinet d) the President
9. Which article provides for the Attorney General of India?
a) Article – 76 b) Article – 78
c) Article – 83 d) Article – 60
10. The Supreme Court of India, New Delhi was inaugurated on
a) 1947, August – 29 b) 1949, November – 2
c) 1950, January – 26 d) 1950, January – 28

3. STATE GOVERNMENT
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Who appoints the Chairman and Members of the state Public Service
Commission?
a) The Governor b) Chief Minister c) Cabinet d) the Speaker
2. Which of the following Article provides the privileges for the Governor?
a) Art – 356 b) Art – 360 c) Art – 361 d) Art – 368
3. Who allocates the portfolios among the Ministers?
a) The Governor b) The Chief Minister
c) Cabinet d) the Speaker

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4. The first Chief Minister of independent Tamilnadu

a) O.P. Ramaswamy b) C. Rajagopalachari
c) K. Kamaraj d) C.N. Annadurai
5. Which of the following Article provides a Council of Ministers to aid and
advice the Governor?
a) Article 163 b) Article – 164
c) Article – 165 d) Article – 166
6. The Legislative Council in Tamil Nadu was abolished in the year of
a) 1985, November – 1 b) 1986, December – 1
c) 1986, November – 1 d) 1987, November – 1
7. The Maximum Strength of the Legislative Assembly is______
a) 400 b) 450 c) 500 d) 550
8. The Minimum Strength of the Legislative Council is______
a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60
9. The High Court of Madras was started in ________
a) 1860 b) 1862 c) 1865 d) 1870
10. How many Highcourts are at present in India?
a) 24 b) 25 c) 28 d) 30

4. INDIA’S FOREIGN POLICY

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The tools of foreign policy are
a. Treaties b. Agreements
c. Appointing ambassadors d. All of these
2. Afro-Asian conference held in 1955 in
a. Indonesia b. Indo-china c. Malaysia d. Thailand
3. Which are the new global economic order emerged with the support of Western
powers?
a. Liberalisation b. Privatisation
c. Globalisation d. All of these

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4. Which is not a foreign policy of India?
a. Supporting apartheid b. Decolonization
c. Racial equality d. World peace
5. India is not a member in ________
a. G20 b. IBSA c. BRICS d. OPEC
6. SAARC disaster management centre was setup at___________ .
a. Chennai b. Bombay c. New Delhi d. Calcutta
7. How many member countries are there in SAARC organization?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
8. Which is not a domestic policy?
a. education b. social issue c. diplomacy d. Civil rights
9. Non alliance means
a. Neutrality b. Demilitarization
c. De-escalation of conflicts d. None of these
10. NAM is meant for
a. Mutual assistance b. Progress
c. Peace d. All of these

5. INDIA’S INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS CIVICS

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. A small Himalayan kingdom is
a. Bhutan b. Sikkim c. Nepal d. Myanmar
2. The prestigious Nehru – Wangchuk scholarship is being awarded to______
a. Bhutanese b. Chinese c. Japanese d. Indians
3. Our neighbouring country is
a. Andaman Island b. Nicobar Island
c. Maldives Island d. Lakshadweep Island
4. India‘s second largest border is shared with
a. China b. Bangladesh c. Myanmar d. Pakistan

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5. India built the long Mahendra Raj Marg to link
a. Thimpu and India b. Kathmandu and India
c. Dakka and India d. Karachi and India
6. India included ___________language in the VIII schedule of the Indian
Constitution.
a. Bhutanese b. Burmese c. Chinese d. Nepalese
7. Which country is separated by the narrow expanse of the Palk Strait from India?
a. Sri Lanka Island b. Maldieves Island
c. Andaman Island d. Lakshadweep Island
8. A developed country has _____________
a. Sovereign State b. highly developed economy
c. advanced technological infrastructure d. all of these
9. Delhi Metro is the example of _____________
a. French Cooperation b. Chinese Cooperation
c. Japanese Cooperation d. Korean Cooperation
10. Egypt, the Arabian Peninsula, Turkey and Iran are collectively known as
a. West Asian Countries b.East Asian Countries
c. Far East Countries d. Gulf Countries
11. Chabahar Agreement is a ______________
a. Bi – lateral b. Tri – lateral
c. Multi-lateral d. None of the above
12. BRICS is an alternative to
a. World bank b. IMF
c. challenge to US Supremacy d. All the above

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 ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARKS – Q R CODE QUESTIONS
1. GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT – AN INTRODUCTION
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Net National Product equals:
a) Gross National Product adjusted for inflation
b) Gross Domestic Product adjusted for inflation
c) Gross Domestic Product plus net property income from abroad
d) Gross National Product minus depreciation
2. The standard of living is often measured by:
a) Per capita Income b) Real GDP
c) Real GDP plus depreciation d) Real GDP population
3. GDP measures:
a) A country's income b) A country's wealth
c) Consumer spending d) Net trade income
4. The financial year in India is
a) April 1 to March 31 b) January 1 to December 31
c) March 1 to April 30 d) March 16 to March 15
5. The value of NNP at production point is called
a) NNP at factor cost b) NNP at market price
c) GNP at market price d) GNP at factor cost
6. The average income of the country is
a) Per capita income b) Disposable income
c) Inflation rate d) Real national income
7. Which tool is apt to measure the real development in an economy?
a) Gross Domestic Product b) Human Development Index
c) Net Domestic Product d) None
8. Which are the key parameters of economic growth?
a) GDP & GNP b) NDP & NNP
c) Per capita income d) None

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9. Tertiary sector otherwise known as

a) Primary Sector b) Secondary Sector
c) Service Sector d) None
11. Which development is a very important aspect of any economy?
a) agricultural b) economic
c) human resource d) industrial
12. Economic development is ---------------- in nature.
a) qualitative b) quantitative c) a & b d) None

2. GLOBALIZATION
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The term globalization was introduced by ……………….
a] Andre Gunder Frank b] Prof.Theodore Levitt
c] Abraham Lincoln d] prof. F.Seeli
2. An early form of globalized economics and culture were known as……………….
a] Archaic Globalization b] Proto Globalization
c] Modern globalization d] none
3. ……………………. was also an important early stage of Globalization.
a] Islamic golden age b] Vedic golden age
c] Christianic golden age d] none
4. …………………… is characterized by the rise of maritime European empires in
the 16 th And 17 th centuries.
a] Proto globalization b] Archaic Globalization
c]Modern Globalization d] None
5. The first multinational company is described as ------.
a]French East India company b]British East India company
c] Dutch East India company d] none
6. In 16 th century …………….. started establishing trading ports from Asia to
Africa and Brazil.
a] Dutch b] Portugese c] British d] French

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7. …………… Act referred directly to the operations of MNC in India.
a] FERA b] FEMA c] AAA d] NIRA
8. South India trade was dominated by the ………………. .
a] Cheras b] Cholas c] Pandiyas d] Pallavas
9. India‘s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the ………….. .
a] Europeans b] Americans c] British d] None
10. The Portugese under the leadership of Vasco Da Gama landed Calicut on
the………………………….. .
a] 17 th May 1498 b]18 th May 1498
c] 16th August 1948 d] None
11. The headquarters of SBI is located in …………………………….
a] Delhi b] Vijayavada c] Mumbai d] kolkata
12. ………………. was the early capital of the Portugese in India.
a] Cochin b] Cannore c] Calicutt d] Kolkata
13. ………….formed the East India company and arrived in India in 1616.
a] the Danes b] The French c] The Greek d] None
14. The French Factory was established in India with the permission
of …………..
a]Sultan of Golconda b] Sultan of Mysore
c] Nawab of Bengal d] None
3. FOOD SECURITY AND NUTRITION
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. ----------- is defined as any substance that people eat and drink to maintain life and
growth.

a) Health b) Nutrition c) Food d) None

2. ----------- would denote a person‘s ability to eat enough, stay active and lead a
healthy life.

a) Nutrition security b) food security

c) health security d)None

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3. The basic components of food and nutrition security are
a) Availability of food b) Access to food
c) Absorption d) All the above
4. ------------- is a price fixed by a group for a particular crop by considering various
costs involved in the cultivation of that crop.
a) Minimum Support Price b) Maximum support price
c) Subsidized price d) Model price
5. ------------ is the stock of food grains procured by the government.

a) Godown b) Buffer stock

c) Public distribution d) None

6. In 2015-16, ------------- percentage of children in rural and urban India are

estimated to be underweight.

a) 20% b) 30% c) 25% d) 15%

7. ---------- can be used to compare countries income levels and other relevant
economic data.

a) Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) b) HDI

c) OPHI d) RBI

8. The ------------ purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is
surplus production.

a) RBI b) PDS

c) Food Corporation of India (FCI) d) None

9. Tamil Nadu continues to have the ------------ system of Public Distribution System
and supplies rice at free of cost to all card holders.

a) Universal PDS b) Targeted PDS

c) a and b d) None

10. In India, Consumer Cooperative Societies structure is

a) Two-tier b) three – tier c) four-tier d) None

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 4. GOVERNMENT AND TAXES
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. ----------- Governments conduct elections to local bodies within the state.

a) Central b) State c) Central and State d) None

2. Tax is a --------------- payment.

a) Service b) not compulsory c) compulsory d) None

3. ---------- was the first country to implement Goods and Service Tax (GST) in 1954.

a) Russia b) England c) France d) India

4. If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others, axit is an -------------- tax.
a) Indirect tax b) direct tax
c) Goods and Service Tax d) proportional tax
5. --------------------- tax is a duty that is charged by the government on any source of
entertainment provided.

a) Excise duty b) Wealth tax

c) Sales tax d) Entertainment tax

6. ------- is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.

a) Excise duty b) Wealth tax

c) Sales tax d) Entertainment tax

7. Tax is levied by the government ---------------- and ---------------.

a) Progressively and regressively

b) Regressively and proportionately
c) Progressively and proportionately
d) None

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8. ---------------- is a voluntary payment.

a) Fee b) Payment c) Tax d) Duty

9. ------------- is an activity commonly associated with the informal economy.

a) Smuggling b) tax evasion

c) unaccounted money d) hiding money

10. Payments from non-tax sources other than tax income is known as --------
a) fees b) payments c) receipt d) None
11. Taxation generate ------------ welfare.
a) Social b) state c) central d) none

5. INDUSTRIAL CLUSTERS IN TAMIL NADU

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Industries can be classified on the basis of

a) Types of inputs used b) Users

c) Size & ownership d) All the above
2. The advantage of industrial clusters was first observed by the famous economist --
---- in the 1920s.

a) Adam smith b) Alfred marshall

c) Robinsin d) Amartya sen
3. BHEL in Tiruchirapalli manufacture to ------------- and -----------------.
a) iron and steel b) tyres and tubes
c) boilers and turbines d) None
4. Standard motors started manufacturing cars in --------------------.

a) Tiruchirapalli b) Tripur c) Chennai d) Madurai

5. The salem steel plant was set up in ------------- to produce stainless steel.

a) 1974 b) 1975 c) 1972 d) 1973

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6. ―Manchester of South India‖ is called --------------.

a) Coimbatore b) Madurai c) Chennai d) Vellore

7. Countries in the Southern Hemisphere are called --------------- countries.

a) Global countries b) Global South

c) southern countries d) none

8. The Vellore district is the top exporter of ----------- goods in the country.

a) Iron b) wood c) leather d) glass

9. ------------- is a process of an action of an entrepreneur who undertakes to establish

his enterprise.

a) Entrepreneurship b) businessman
c) business person d) business executive
10. ------------ is famous for clustering of a large number of firms producing cotton
knitwear.

a) Tiruppur b) Coimbatore c) Vellore d) Salem

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 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
1. Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 a. 1805
02 c. Germany
03 d. 1908
04 a. Treaty of Bucharest
05 b. Franz Ferdinand
06 b. Tsar Nicholas – II
07 d. Treaty of Brest Litovsk
08 a. Germany, Austria – Hungary and Italy
09 b. Sir Eric Drummond
10 a. 1917
II. Fill in the Blanks:
01 Romanov
02 Lusitania
03 Duma
04 Bolshevik
05 Truth
III. Match the following:
01 America
02 England
03 France
04 Russia
05 Germany

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 2. The World between Two Wars
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 c. 1929
02 a. Fascist Party
03 c. Both a and b
04 b. 1934
05 b. Original Dutch settlers of South Africa
06 a. South Africa
II. Fill in the Blanks:
01 The Lateran
02 1935
03 Hitler
04 Mein Kampf
05 Uitlanders

3. World War II
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 b. 1931
02 a. Italy, Germany and Japan
03 a. Czechoslovakia
04 d. Japan
05 a. 1945
06 b. 193
07 c. Shakespeare
08 d. Germany
09 a. Two blocs
10 b. 1948
II. Fill in the Blanks:
01 Chamberlian
02 Spitfires and Hurricanes
03 Lend Lease
04 India
05 5 , 10

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 4. The World after World War II
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 c. Sun Yat – Sen
02 a. Chiang Kai – Shek
03 c. 1928
04 d. 1979
05 b. Gorbachev
06 c. Sun Yat – Sen
07 d. Warsaw Pact
08 c. Third World
09 a. NAM
10 c. 28
II. Fill in the Blanks:
01 Thodore Herzal
02 1945
03 Fidel Castro
04 Palestine
05 1990
III. Match the following:
01 China
02 Egypt
03 1954
04 Russia
05 Indonesia

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 5. Social and religious reform movements in the 19th century
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 a. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
02 b. Debentranath Tagore
03 c. Bombay
04 a. M. G. Ranade
05 b. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
06 b. Aruvipuram
07 b. Arya Samaj
08 a. Chicago
09 a. Muslims
10 a. Weekly journal
II. Fill in the Blanks:
01 Furdurji Naoroji
02 1907
03 Marudhur
04 Amritsar
05 Vaikunda Swamigal
III. Match the following:
01 Colonel H.S. Olcott
02 Vaikunda Swamigal
03 Iyothee Thassar
04 Narayana Guru
05 Annie Besant

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6. Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 d. Marudhu Pandyan
02 b. Kayathar
03 d. Virapandya Kattabomman
04 a. 10 July 1806
05 a. Puli Thevar
06 a. Kakatiya Kingdom
07 c. Vishwanatha Nayak
08 a. Fort of Tirupathur
09 c. Puli Thevar
10 d. All the above
11 a. Colonel Fancourt
12 b. Col. Gillespie

7. Anti-Colonial Movements and the Birth of Nationalism

I. Choose the correct answer:

Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 b. Zamindari system
02 a. East Bengal
03 b. 1831 – 32
04 d. All the above
05 b. Delhi – Maulavi Ahmadullah
06 c. Both I and II
07 d. All the above
08 c. Both of the above
09 c. 2413
10 a. 1423
11 a. A.O. Hume
12 d. Gopala Krishna Go hale
13 a. Lord Curzon
14 b. April 1916
15 a. The congress and the Muslim League

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 8. NATIONALISM: GANDHIAN PHASE
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every
01 a.
twenty parts of their land.
02 c. Indigo
03 c. 1234
04 c. Reginald Dyer
05 b. 1920
06 c. Subash Chandra Bose
07 a. February 1922
08 b. Lala Lajapati Roy
09 d. None
10 b. Cabinet Mission 1946
11 d. August 16, 1946
12 c. Labour Party
13 c. Rani Jhansi
14 b. Punjab
15 c. Dilli Chalo

9. FREEDOM STRUGGLE IN TAMIL NADU

I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 b. Merchants
02 c. 1877
03 d. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
04 a. i & ii are correct
05 d. Pondicherry
06 a. Irish
07 b. 3412
08 c. Annie Besant
09 d. 17 April 1920
10 a. Quit India Movement
11 b. George Joseph
12 c. Sir John Simon

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 10. SOCIAL TRANSFORMATION IN TAMIL NADU
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 c. Goa
02 a. Parithimar Kalaignar
03 b. 1920
04 b. i and iii are correct
05 a. Both A and R are correct
06 a. 3412
07 b. 1916
08 c. Thanthai
09 d. Abraham Pandithar
10 a. Maraimalai Adigal
11 b. Meenakshi Sundaranar
12 c. Rajaji

GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
1. INDIA - LOCATION, RELIEF AND DRAINAGE
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 c. Strait
02 b. Fourth
03 a. 21 June
04 a. 80 4’ North
05 b. 2004
06 d. 1 Hr. 56 Mins.
07 a. 3214 km
08 c. 3.28
09 d. Pakistan
10 c. Port Blair
11 c. Odisha

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 12 b. Majuli
13 b. Hirakud Dam
14 c. The Godavari
15 d. Manjira
16 a. Cauvery
17 - -
18 c. The Narmada
19 a. Narmada
20 c. The Tapi
21 a. Ganga
22 c. Both
23 d. Theory of Plate Tectonics
24 a. I only
2. CLIMATE, NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE
I. Choose the correct answer:
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 d. 250 C and 200 C
02 b. Pine and cacti / d. Tough grasses and Short bushes
03 b. Sunlight duration is long
04 b. Barren land
05 c. Coniferous forests
06 d. Temperate deciduous forests
07 a. Tropical Monsoon Forests
08 a. 200 to 1,000 millimeters
09 a. Coniferous forests
10 a. Equatorial
11 c. Sunlight duration is short
12 d. Deforestation
13 b. 23 %
14 a. Summer season
15 a. 8 to 30 meters

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3. COMPONENTS OF AGRICULTURE
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 a. Centre Pivot irrigation
02 b. False
03 c. 3
04 d. Andhra Pradesh
05 c. 80 – 90 %
06 b. High water table
07 a. 3
08 c. Drip
09 b. Water absorbed by crop ÷Water applied to a field x 100%
10 a. True
11 c. Localized irrigation
12 d. Rajasthan
13 a. Fish production
14 c. Land scare, Labour surplus economy
15 b. Agriculture
16 a. M. S. Swaminathan
17 d. 1982
18 d. Mumbai
19 d. Cuttack
20 c. Sixth Five Year Plan
21 a. Third
22 b. V.V. Kurien

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 4. RESOURCES AND INDUSTRIES
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 a. Ubiquitous
02 d. All the above
03 a. Sustainable development
04 d. All the above
05 d. 35
06 b. 31
07 a. Transpiration
08 d. All the above
09 d. All of the above
10 c. Sedimentary rocks
11 d. All of the above
12 a. China
13 a. China
14 b. 2.7

5. INDIA- POPULATION, TRANSPORTATION AND COMMUNICATION

Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER

01 b. 2nd
02 d. 1853
03 b. Konkan Railways
04 b. 4321
05 a. Vivek Express
06 d. North – Eastern Railway
07 c. Golden Quadrilateral (GQ)
08 c. Bombay
09 a. Noise
10 b. Planning
11 b. Semantic Problems
12 a. True
13 b. Over communication
14 a. True
15 c. Decoding

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 6. PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY OF TAMILNADU
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 b. Anaimalai Hills
02 a. Kalvarayan Hills
03 a. North East Monsoon
04 d. Alluvial Soil
05 b. Coimbatore
06 a. Pichavaram
07 b. Tropical Evergreen Forest
08 d. Thorn Forest
09 b. Landslide
10 d. All the above

7. HUMAN GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU

Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER

01 a. April – May
02 c. Goat
03 d. Theni
04 a. Chennai
05 c. 1041/1000
06 a. Road ways
07 a. Hosur to Kanniyakumari
08 a. Sparse population
09 a. Mat
10 c. 1077

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 CIVICS - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER

1. INDIAN CONSTITUTION

Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER

01 b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
02 d. 2003
03 b. 12 to 35
04 a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
05 c. 1949, December – 9
06 a. Preamble
07 c. 22
08 d. 368
09 b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
10 c. M.N. Venkatachaliah

2. CENTRAL GOVERNMENT

Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER

01 b. Five Years
02 a. Rajya Sabha
03 d. 30
04 a. The Speaker
05 b. Dr. Radhakrishnan
06 c. Pratibha Patil
07 d. Article – 78
08 d. The President
09 a. Article – 76
10 d. 1950, January – 28

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3. STATE GOVERNMENT

Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER

01 a. The Governor

02 c. Art – 361

03 b. The Chief Minister

04 a. O.P. Ramaswamy

05 a. Article 163

06 c. 1986, November – 1

07 c. 500

08 b. 40

09 b. 1862

10 b. 25

4. INDIA’S FOREIGN POLICY

Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER

01 d. All of these
02 a. Indonesia
03 d. All of these
04 a. Supporting apartheid
05 d. OPEC
06 c. New Delhi
07 d. 8
08 c. Diplomacy
09 c. De-escalation of Conflicts
10 d. All of these

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 5. INDIA’S INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS CIVICS

Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER

01 a. Bhutan
02 a. Bhutanese
03 c. Maldives Island
04 c. Myanmar
05 b. Kathmandu and India
06 d. Nepalese
07 a. Sri Lanka Island
08 d. All of these
09 c. Japanese Cooperation
10 a. West Asian Countries
11 b. Tri – lateral
12 d. All the above

ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK ONE MARK – ANSWER
1. GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT – AN INTRODUCTION
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 d. Gross National Product minus depreciation
02 a. Per capita Income
03 a. A country’s income
04 a. April 1 to March 31
05 b. NNP at market price
06 a. Per capita income
07 b. Human Development Index
08 a. GDP & GNP
09 c. Service Sector
10 - -
11 d. Industrial
12 a. Qualitative

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 2. GLOBALIZATION
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 b. Prof. Theodore Levitt
02 a. Archaic Globalization
03 a. Islamic Golden Age
04 a. Proto Globalization
05 b. British East India Company
06 b. Protugese
07 a. FERA
08 b. Cholas
09 a. Europeans
10 a. 17th May 1498
11 c. Mumbai
12 a. Cochin
13 a. The Danes
14 a. Sultan of Golconda

3. FOOD SECURITY AND NUTRITION

Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 c. Food
02 b. Food security
03 d. All the above
04 a. Minimum Support Price
05 b. Buffer stock
06 a. 20 %
07 a. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
08 c. Food Corporation of India (FCI)
09 a. Universal PDS
10 b. Three - tier

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 4. GOVERNMENT AND TAXES
Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER
01 b. State
02 c. Compulsory
03 c. France
04 a. Indirect tax
05 d. Entertainment tax
06 a. Excise duty
07 c. Progressively and proportionately
08 a. Fee
09 b. Tax evasion
10 b. Payments
11 a. Social

5. INDUSTRIAL CLUSTERS IN TAMIL NADU

Q.NO. OPTIONS ANSWER

01 d. All the above
02 b. Alfred Marshall
03 c. Boilers and Turbines
04 c. Chennai
05 d. 1973
06 a. Coimbatore
07 b. Global South
08 c. Leather
09 a. Entrepreneurship
10 a. Tiruppur

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HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2

Two Marks Questions & Answers
UNIT I - OUTBREAK OF WORLD WAR I AND IT’S AFTERMATH
1. How do you assess the importance of Sino-Japanese War?
Japan forced war with China in 1894.
Japan annexed the Liaotung with Port Arthur.
By this Japan proved that it was the strongest Nation of the East Asia.
2. Name the countries in the Triple Entente.
Britain Russia
France
3. What were the three militant forms of nationalism in Europe?
England - Jingoism Germany - Kultur
France - Chauvinism
4. What do you know of trench warfare?
Trenches in World War I
Dug by soldiers to protect from enemy fire.
Running parallel to each other.
An used it for delivering food, ammunition, mail, fresh troops and
orders.
5. What was the role of Mustafa Kemal Pasha?
Mustafa Kemal Pasha was played key role for Turkey‘s rebirth.
He modernized Turkey and changed it.
He put an end to Sultanate and the Caliphate.
6. Highlight the global influence of Russian Revolution?
In many countries, communist parties were formed.
Encouraged the colonies to fight for their freedom.
Social Welfare, Workers Rights, and Gender Equality started in a
Global context.
7. List out any two causes for the failure of the League of Nations.
No standing army and no power to enforce its decisions
The principle of ―Collective Security‖ could not be applied.

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 UNIT 2 - THE WORLD BETWEEN TWO WORLD WARS
1. What do you know of the White Terror in Indo-China?
In 1929, Vietnamese soldiers mutinied.
Failed attempt to assassinate the French Governor - General.
The revolt was crushed. It was called ―White Terror‖.
Thousands (1000) of rebels were killed.
2. Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
Bilateral trade treaties signed between Britain and the member states
an economic summit in Ottawa in 1932.
All agreed to give preference to British goods.
3. Explain the Monroe Doctrine.
Monroe Doctrine was formed by Munroe, the President of USA.
It declared that if Europeans interfered with America, it would lead to
war.
4. What was the result of Mussolini‟s march on Rome?
In October 1922, Mussolini organized the Fascist March to Rome.
Impressed by the Mussolini‟s March, the King invited Mussolini to
form a government.
6. How did Great Depression impact on the Indian agriculture?
It gave a death blow to Indian agriculture.
The value of farm produce declined.
Land rent to be paid remained unchanged.
Prices of agricultural commodities doubled.
So Indian (farmers and manufacturers) had to sell their gold and
silver.
8. Define “Dollar Imperialism.”
USA maintained and dominated over distant lands through economic
aid.
This policy of the USA was called ‗Dollar Imperialism‘.

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 UNIT 3 - WORLD WAR – II
1. Mention the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to
Germany.
Territorial adjustments
Reparations
Armament Restrictions
War Guilt
2. Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?
1. Italy – Mussolini 2. Germany – Hitler 3. Spain - Franco
3. How did Hitler get the support from the people of Germany?
By his impassioned speeches
By promising a return to the glorious military past of Germany.
4. Describe the Pearl Harbour incident.
On December 1941, Japan attacked American fleet in Pearl Harbours
without warning.
Many battle ships, planes were destroyed.
United states declared war on Japan.
5. What do you know of Beveridge Report?
It was published in the UK in 1942.
The Government should adopt to provide citizens with adequate
income, health care, education, housing and employment to
overcome poverty and disease.
6. Name the Bretton Woods Twins.
It was established in 1945. 1. The World Bank 2. The International
Monetary Fund
7. What are the objectives of IMF?
The objectives of IMF
To foster Global Monetary cooperation,
Secure financial stability

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 Facilitate international trade
Promote high employment
Sustainable economic growth
Reduce poverty around the world.
UNIT 4 - THE WORLD AFTER WORLD WAR – II
1. Write any three causes for the Chinese Revolution of 1911.
The Provincial Governors began to assert their Independence.
The local army revolted in October 1911.
Provincial Governors removed the garrisons. There were a few
middle- class leaders.
3. Write a note on Mao‟s Long March.
By 1933 Mao had gained full control of the Chinese communist party.
In 1934, the communist army of about 1,00,000 set out on the Long
March.
The march has become legendary.
4. What do you know of Baghdad Pact?
Turkey, Iraq, Britain, Pakistan and Iran signed in pact in 1955.
This pact was called as “Baghdad pact”. In 1958, United States
joined this organization. (CENTO). It was dissolved in 1979.
5. What was Marshall Plan?
The US conceived the Marshall plan. To stop communism.
It is also known as the European Recovery Program.
Providing aid to Western Europe following the devastation of World
War II.
6. The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve
the cause of western interests –Elaborate.
In 1956 Nasser (Egypt President) nationalized the Suez Canal.
Israel, Britain and France invaded Egypt.
Under pressure of the world opinion Britain and France ended
hostilities
On November 6.

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7. Write a note on Third World Countries.

It was principally consisted of the developing world, the former
colonies of Africa, Asia and Latin America.
With the break – up of the Soviet Union, the term lost its relevance.
8. How was the Cuban missile crisis defused?
The crisis was President Kennedy‘s greatest moment.
The USSR secretly installed Nuclear Missiles in Cuba.
Finally, Soviet President Khrushdev agreed to remove the missiles.
UNIT 5 - SOCIAL AND RELIGIOUS REFORM MOVEMENTS IN THE 19 TH CENTURY
1. Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi
Debendranath Tagore?
In the beginning there was nothing.
The one Supreme being alone existed who created the Universe.
He alone is the God of Truth, Infinite Wisdom, Goodness and Power,
Eternal, Omnipresent, the One without Second.
Our Salvation depends on belief in Him and in His worship in this
world and the next.
Belief consists in loving Him and doing His will.
2. Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade‟s contribution to social reforms.
Inter Caste dining
Inter Caste marriage
Widow remarriage and Improvement of Women and depressed
classes.
Founder of the Widow Marriage Association 1861.
The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha 1870.
The Deccan Education Society 1884.
3. Assess the role of Ayyankali in fighting for the cause of
“untouchables”.
Ayyankali fought for basic rights.
He faced many caste conventions such as clothing style, ban on ox-
cart using public roads.
He founded the Sadhu Jana Paribalana Sangam in 1907 to educate
lower caste people.

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4. Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.
He followed „Jeeva Karunya‘.
He established the ‗Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Satya Sanga‘
which means
―Society for pure Truth in Universal self-hood‖.
He established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of
caste at Vadalur.
5. What was the impact of Swami Vivekananda‟s activist ideology?
It rekindled the desire for political change.
Many of the Youths who were involved in the militant nationalist
struggle during Swadeshi Movement were inspired by him.
6. What are the differences between Reformist Movements and Revival
Movements?
Reformist Movements:
 Attempted to harmonies both Indian and western Culture.
 Opposed meaningless religious ceremonies, customs, idolworships,
and other social evils like Sati, Polygamy, Purdah system, Child
marriage etc.
Eg. The Brahmo Samaj, the Prarthana Samaj and Aligarh Movement.
Revival Movements:
 Started reviving ancient Indian traditions and thoughts.
 Strove against idolatry, polytheism, rituals, superstitious religious
beliefs, social practices.
Eg. The Arya Samaj, the Ramakrishna Mission, the Deoband
Movement.
7. List the social evils eradicated by Brahmo Samaj.
Meaningless religious ceremonies
Customs of Sati, Advocated widows
Child marriage remarriage.
Polygamy. Subjugation of women

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8. Highlight the work done by Jyotiba Phule for the welfare of the poor
and the marginalized.
opened the first school for “untouchables” in poona.
He devoted his live for the upliftment of the Depressed Classes and
Women.
He opened Orphanages and Homes for Widows.
He opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage.
9. What was the impact of Iyothee Thassar‟s visit to SriLanka.
Influenced by the Theosophist Organizer, Colonel H.S. Olcott.
He went to Sri Lanka in 1898.
He converted to Buddhism.
 He founded Sakya Buddhist Society at Madras

UNIT 6 - EARLY REVOLTS AGAINST BRITISH RULE IN TAMIL NADU

1. What are the duties of Palayakkarars?
The duties were –
To collect revenue To maintain law order
To administer the territory Their Police duties were known
o settle disputes as Arasu kaval.
2. Identify the palayams based on the division of east and west.
Eastern palayams - Sattur, Nagalapuram, Ettayapuram,
Panchalamkuruchi
Western palayams - Uthumalai, Thalavankotai, Nadavukurichi,
Singampatti,
3. Why was Heron dismissed from service?
Colonel Heron was sent to deal with Puli Thevar.
Puli Thevar had influence over the western Palayakkarars.
For want of cannon and of supplies and pay to soldiers, Heron gave
up the plan and retired to Madurai.
So he was recalled and dismissed from service.

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4. What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?
Mahfuzkhan received reinforcements from Nawab and British.
Before he could station his troops near Kalakadu, 2000 soldiers from
Travancore joined the forces of Puli Thever.
Mahfuzkhan‟s troops were defeated.
5. What was the bone of contention between the company and
Kattabomman?
The Company appointed its collectors to collect taxes.
The collectors humiliated palayakkarars and adopted force to collect
taxes.
This was the bone of contention between the company and
Kattabomman.
6. Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli Proclamation of 1801.
Tiruchirappalli Proclamation was issued by Maruthu brothers.
It was the first call to the Indians to unite against the British.
Many palayakkarars joined to fight against the English.
7. Point out the importance of the Treaty of 1801.
The British undertook direct control over Tamilagam.
The Palayakkarar system came to an end.
All the forts were demolished and their army was also disbanded.

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UNIT 7 - ANTI – COLONIAL MOVEMENTS AND THE BIRTH OF NATIONALISM

1. How are the peasant uprisings in British India classified?
Restorative rebellions
Religious movements
Social Banditry
Mass insurrection
2. Write about the Kanpur Massacre of 1857.
Company forces and Civilians surrendered to the rebel forces under
Nana Sahib. They wanted a safe passage to Allahabad by river
on boats.
Their boats were set on fire.
Most of the men were killed, including British Commander General
Hugh Wheeler.
3. Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of
Lapse.
Satara Jhansi Nagpur Sambalpur Parts of Punjab
4. What do you mean by drain of wealth?
During British rule, India was made a supplier of raw materials to
the British Industries.
At the same time, It became a market to dump British materials.
So, the Colonial Economy was a continuous transfer of resources
from India to Britain without any profit to India. This is called drain of
wealth.
5. Explain the concept of constructive Swadeshi?
Swadeshi rejected the self-defeating modest approach of moderates.
It focused on self-help through Swadeshi Industries, National
Schools, and arbitration Courts and constructive programmes
in the villages.

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6. Highlight the objectives of Home Rule Movement.
To attain self-government within the British Empire by using
constitutional means. To obtain the status of dominion.
To use non-violent constitutional methods to achieve their goals.
7. Summarise the essence of Lucknow Pact.
Under the Lucknow Pact (1916), The Congress and Muslim League
agreed that there should be self-government in India as soon as
possible.
In return, the Congress leadership accepted the concept of separate
electorate for Muslims.

UNIT 8 - NATIONALISM: GANDHIAN PHASE

1. Describe the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
On April 13, 1919, People were gathered at Jallianwala Bagh in
Amristar.
General Dyer opened fire on people without any warning.
379 people were killed and more than thousand were injured.
2. Write a note on the Khilafat Movement.
Ali brothers started Khilafat Movement.
It aimed to restore the prestige and power of the Caliphate.
Gandhiji supported this movement.
3. Why did Gandhi withdraw the Non Cooperation movement?
At Chauri Chaura in Uttar Pradesh on February 5, 1922 the
Nationalists led a March. It turned violent one.
The mob burnt the police station. 22 policemen lost their lives.
Gandhi withdrew the Non Cooperation movement.

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4. What was the conflict between the Swarajists and no-changers?
The congress was divided into two groups‘ pro-changers and no
changers.
The Pro-changers wanted to contest the election and enter the
legislature.
No-changers, wanted to continue non-cooperation with the
government.
5. Why was the Simon Commission boycotted?
Simon Commission consisted of 7 members headed by Sir John
Simon.
It was an all White Commission.
It did not have any Indian member.
Indians were angered and insulted.
So Simon Commission was boycotted.
6. What is Poorna Swaraj?
The Lahore Congress session presided by Jawaharlal Nehru.
It was held in December 1929.
In that session, The Congress men wanted Poorna Swaraj.
They did not satisfy with Dominion status.
Poorna Swaraj means complete Independence.
7. Write a note on Bhagat Singh.
Bhagat Singh reorganized the HRA in Punjab.
He threw a smoke bomb inside the Central Legislative Assembly
in 1929.
They threw pamphlets and shouted ‗ Inquilab Zindabad „ and ‗ Long
Live the Proletariat‟.
Bhagat Singh was arrested and sentenced to death.

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8. What are the terms of the Poona Pact?
The Poona Pact 1932
Abandoned separate Electorates for the depressed classes.
Replaced separate electorate with reservation in joint electorates.
Reservation seats for the depressed classes increased from 71 to
148.
Central Legislature: 18 % of the seats were reserved for them.

UNIT 9 - FREEDOM STRUGGLE IN TAMIL NADU

1. List out the contribution of the moderates.
Moderates exposed the liberal claims of the British.
Conducted Hall meetings.
2. Write a note on the Tirunelveli Uprising.
V.O.C and Subramanya Siva were arrested.
The arrest of these leaders sparkled riots in Tirunelveli.
Police Station, Court building and Municipal Office were burnt.
The Police shot dead 4 people.
3. What is the contribution of Annie Besant to India's freedom struggle?
Anne Besant started Home Rule League In 1916.
Carried forward the demand for Home Rule all over India.
Started the newspapers New India and Commonweal to carry forward
her agenda.
4. Mention the various measures introduced by the Justice Ministry.
Introduced various measures for the benefit of Non- Brahmins.
Introduced reservation of appointments in Local bodies and
Education Institutions.
Established Staff Selection Board
Enacted Hindu Religious Endowment Act and Madras State Aid to
Industries Act. Abolished Devadasi system.

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5. Write briefly on EVR‟s contribution to the constructive programme?

He campaigned vigorously for the promotion and sale of Khadi.
He was against the consumption of liquor.
For that he cut down an entire Coconut Grove owned by him.
He also played a Key role in the Sathyagraha for temple entry in
Vaikom.
For his contribution he was called as ―Vaikom Hero‖.
6. What is Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy?
Gurukulam was established by V.V. Subramanianar.
Students were discriminated on the basis of caste.
Brahmin and non-Brahmin were made to dine separately.
E.V.R strongly condemned this practice.
7. Why was anti-Hindi agitation popular?
Rajaji made Hindi a compulsory subject in Schools.
This was considered to be a form of Aryan and North Indian
imposition detrimental to Tamil Language and Culture.
E.V.R led a massive campaign against it.
8. Outline the key incidents during the Quit India Movement in Tamil
Nadu.
Rajaji and Satyamurti were arrested.
Post Offices were set fire. Telephone lines were cut off.
Carnatic mills, Madras Port Trust and Electric Tramway went on
strike.
Many Public buildings were burnt.
Students of various colleges took part in the protest.
The protestors clashed with the military in Madurai.
There were police firings in many places.

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 UNIT 10 - SOCIAL TRANSFORMATION IN TAMIL NADU
1. Write a note on Tamil Renaissance.
The introduction of printing press, linguistic research on
Dravidian languages underpinned the process of Tamil
Renaissance.
Tamil Scholars in the 19th Century worked hard to Publish Tamil
Classics.
The rediscovery of ancient classics is considered the foundation of
Tamil Renaissance.
2. Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian
languages.
He established a close affinity between the Dravidian languages
in contrast with Sanskrit.
He also established the antiquity of Tamil in his ‗A Comparative
Grammar of the Dravidian or South Indian Family of languages‗‘.
3. List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil
literature through their writings.
C.W. Damotharanar Maraimalai Adigal
U.V. Swaminathar Subramania Bharathi
Thiru. Vi. Kaliyanasundaram S. Vaiyapuri
Parithimar Kalaignar Poet Bharathidasan
4. Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed
by the Justices ministry?
The justice party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment Act
in 1926.
It enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to
become member of the temple Committee and govern the
resources of the religious institutions.

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5. What do you know of the Cheranmahadevi Gurukulam incident?
Cheranmadevi Gurukulam was run by V.V. Subramaniam Iyer with
the financial support of Tamil Nadu Congress Committee.
There was caste-based discrimination in the dining hall of the
Gurukulam.
Periyar protested against this discrimination. But the Congress
continued its support.
6. Name the newspapers published by the South Indian Liberal
Foundation.
Dravidian in Tamil Andhra Prakasika in Telugu
Justice in English
7. Estimate Periyar as a feminist.
Peiryar emphasised Women‟s right to divorce and property.
He condemned Child marriage and Devadasi system.
He was a strong champion of birth control. He said that motherhood
was a burden to women.
8. Explain the proceedings of All India Trade Union Congress
Conference held in 1920.
A Demand for protection from police interference in labour disputes
The maintenance of an unemployment register
Restriction on exporting food stuffs
Compensation for injuries and health insurance.

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 GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2
Two Marks Questions & Answers
UNIT I - INDIA – LOCATION, RELIEF AND DRAINAGE
1. Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Pakistan Bhutan
Afghanistan Bangladesh
China Myanmar
Nepal Sri Lanka
2. Give the importance of IST.
The standard meridian of India is 82° 30‘ E longitude.
It passes through Mirzapur.
In order to avoid the time difference IST is calculated.
The IST is 5.30 hrs ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.
3. Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
Deccan Plateau is the largest plateau in India.
It is triangular in shape.
bounded by Western Ghats in the West, Eastern Ghats in the East
and Satpura range in the North.
The area of this Plateau is about 7 lakh square km.
Its height ranges from 500 to 1000 m above sea level.
4. State the west following rivers of India.
Narmada
Tapti
Mahi and
Sabarmati
5. Write a brief note on the island group of Lakshadweep
It is located off the West Coast of India.
It is a Coral Island.
Kavaratti is the capital of Lakshadweep.
It covers an area of 32 sq.
Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi was named as Lakshadweep in
1973.

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 UNIT 2 - CLIMATE AND NATURAL VEGETATION OF INDIA
1. Define „Meteorology‟.
The branch of Science concerned with the processes and
phenomena of the atmosphere, especially
As a means of forecasting the weather.
2. What is meant by „normal lapse rate‟?
Temperature decreases at the rate of 6. 5°C for every 1000 meters of
ascent.
It is called normal lapse rate.
3. What are „jet streams‟?
Jet Streams are the fast moving winds blowing in a narrow Zone in
the upper atmosphere.
4. Write a short note on „Monsoon wind‟.
These are seasonal reversal winds.
Monsoon winds are the most dominant factor which affects the
climate of India.
5. Name the four distinct seasons of India.
Winter season - January – February
Summer season - March – May
Rainy Season
 South West Monsoon - June to September
 North East Monsoon - October to December
6. What is „burst of monsoon‟?
When South West Monsoon reaches the Malabar coast of Kerala
It gives heavy rain with Lightning and Thunder.
It is called as Monsoon Burst. or burst of monsoon
The sudden approach of monsoon wind over South India with
lightning and thunder is termed as the „Burst of Monsoon‟.

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7. Name the areas which receive heavy rainfall.

The Western Coast
Assam
South Meghalaya
Tripura
Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh receive more than 200 cm of
rainfall.
8. State places of mangrove forest in India.
Deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
Delta‘s of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna
9. Name the trees of tropical evergreen forest.
1. Rubber 2. Mahogany 3. Ebony 4. Rosewood 5. Cedar,
6. Coconut 7. Palm, 8. Iron wood 9. Bamboo 10. Cinchona.
10. Write any five biosphere reserves in India.
 Agasthyamalai - Kerala
 Gulf of Mannar - Tamil Nadu
The Nilgiris - Tamil Nadu
 Sundarbans - West Bengal
Mannas - Assam
11. What is „Project Tiger‟?
‗Project Tiger‘ was launched in April 1973.
It Aims is to increase and conserve Tiger population.
60% of Tiger population has been increase through this project.

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 UNIT 3 - COMPONENTS OF AGRICULTURE
1. Define soil.
The upper most layer of the land surface is called soil.
It is composed of minerals, organic matter, living Organisms, air and
water.
2. Name the types of soil found in India.
Alluvial soil Laterite soil
Black soil Forest & Mountain soil
Red soil
Arid and Desert soil
3. State any two characteristics of black cotton soil.
It is black in colour due to the presence of in Titanium and Iron.
It is sticky when wet.
Moisture retentive is very high.
4. What is multipurpose project?
It is a scientific management of water resources.
Dams are constructed across the river and the stored water is used
for many purposes.
The various purposes of a dam are:
Irrigation
Hydro power Generation
Water supply for drinking
Industrial purpose
Controlling floods
Development of fisheries and Navigation etc.
5. Define Agriculture.
Agriculture is the process of producing
- food for people
- fodder for cattle
- fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain
plants and rising of domesticated animals

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6. State the types of agriculture practices in India?
Subsistence Farming
Shifting Agriculture
Intensive Farming
Dry Farming
Mixed Farming
Terrace Cultivation
7. Name the seasons of agriculture in India.
Kharif season – June to September
Rabi Season – October to March
Zaid Season – April to June
8. Mention the plantation crops of India.
Tea
Coffee,
Rubber and Spices
9. What do you mean by livestock?
Livestock is an integral component of the farming system in
India.
Domesticated animals like cattle, goats, buffaloes, sheep and pigs are
called livestock.
10. Write a brief note on the categories of fisheries in India?
Marine or sea fisheries (coastal, off-shore and deep sea)
Inland or Fresh water fisheries. (Rivers, lakes canals,
ponds,reservoirs, tanks)

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 UNIT 4 - RESOURCES AND INDUSTRIES
1. Define the resource and state its types.
Anything derived from the environment and
that is used by living thing including human being is called resources.
Renewable Resources: Solar Energy, Wind Energy, Bio gas, Tidal
Energy, Wave Energy etc.
Non- Renewable Resources: Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas etc.
2. Name the states that lead in the production of Iron ore in India.
Jharkhand West Bengal
Bihar Uttar Pradesh
Chattisgarh Karnataka and Andhra
Odisha Pradesh
3. What are the minerals and its types?
Mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with
definite Chemical and Physical properties.
Metallic Minerals: Iron, Manganese, Copper, Bauxite, Nickel, Zinc
lead, Gold
Non- Metallic Minerals: Mica, Limestone, Gypsum, Dollamite, Coal,
Petroleum
4. State the uses of magnesium.
It is used for making Iron and steel and serves as basic raw material
for alloying.
It is also used for manufacturing of bleaching powder, insecticides,
paints and batteries.
5. What is natural gas?
It is naturally occurring hydrocarbon.
It is formed by the decomposition of plants and animals, which are
exposed to intense of heat and to pressure over thousands of
years.

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6. Name the different types of coal with their carbon content.
Anthracite : 80% to 90% Carbon
Bituminous : 60% to 80% Carbon
Lignite : 40% to 60% Carbon
Peat : Less than 40% of Carbon
7. Mention the major areas of jute production in India.
West Bengal
Along the Hoogly River
Andhra Pradesh
Bihar
Uttar Pradesh
Assam
Chattisgarh and
Odisha are the Jute Goods producing areas.
8. Name the important oil producing regions of India.
Mumbai High oil Fields
Gujarat Coast
Ankleshwar
Cambay- Luni Region
Ahmedabad –Kalol region.
Eastern Coast OffShore oil fields.
Brahamaputra Valley
Digboi Oil Fields
Rudrasagar – Lawa oil fields
Surrma Valley
Offshore of Andhaman and Nicobar.

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UNIT 5 - INDIA – POPULATION, TRANSPORT, COMMUNICATION AND TRADE

1. What is Human Development?
Dr. Mahabub – Ul - Haq defined as ‗it is a process of enlarging the
range of people‘s choice, increasing their opportunities for
education, Healthcare, Income and Empowerment.
2. What is migration? State its types.
It is the movement of the people across regions and territories.
It can be Internal Migration - within the Country.
International Migration – between the Countries.
3. Write any four advantages of railways.
It cater to the needs of large Scale movement of Traffic,
Both for freight and Passengers.
It contributes to Economic Growth.
It promotes National Integration by bringing people together.
It also promotes Trade, Tourism, Education, etc.
4. Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India.
It is convenient mode of transport to connect oil, natural gas fields,
refineries and market.
Solids can be transported.
Initial cost high but subsequent running cost is minimum.
5. State the major Inland waterways of India.
National Waterways 1:
Between Haldia and Allahabad ( including Ganga – Bhagirathi- Hoogly
River System - 1620 km length)
National Waterways 2:
Between Dhuhri and Sadiya (891 km - including the stretch of the
Brahmaputra river)
National Waterways 3:
Between Kollam and Kottapuram in Kerala.
(205 km - the first waterway with 24 hours navigation)

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6. What is communication? What are its types?
Communication is a process that involves exchange of Information,
thoughts and ideas.
Types:
1. Personal Communication: CELL PHONE, INTERNET, SMS,
E-MAIL, POSTAL
2. Mass Communication: TV, NEWSPAPER, WEB SITE, YOU
TUBE
7. Define “International trade”.
Trade carried between two or more countries is called
International Trade.
Export and Import are the two components of International Trade.
It is also called as external trade or foreign trade.
8. State the merits of Roadways.
Roadways play an important role in carrying goods and
passengers for short, Medium and long distances.
It is highly suitable for short distance Service.
Indian Roads are cost efficient. It is easy and cheap to construct and
maintain roads.
It is used by all sections of people in the Society.
It can provide door to door transport services.

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 UNIT 6 - PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU
1. State the boundaries of Tamil Nadu.
East - Bay of Bengal North West - Karnataka
West - Kerala South - Indian Ocean
North - Andhra Pradesh
2. List out the districts of Tamil Nadu which are partly/fully located in
the Eastern and Western Ghats separately.
Near Western Ghats: Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Virudhunagar,
Madurai, Dindigul, Theni, Coimbatore,
The Nilgiris.
Near Eastern Ghats: Erode, Salem, Dharmapuri, Vellore,
Thiruvannamalai.
3. What is „Teri‟?
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and
Thoothukudi districts are called Teri.
4. How is coastal plain formed?
It is formed by the rivers that flow towards east drain in the Bay of
Bengal.
It is a land of fertile soil.
5. Name the major Islands of Tamil Nadu:
Pamban, Hare, Krusadai, Nallathanni Theevu
Pullivasal, Srirangam, Upputanni Island, Kattpulli Island,
Quibble Island and Vivekananda Rock Memorial.
6. Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani.
Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Gadananathi,
Pachaiyar, Chittar and Ramanathi.

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7. Define: Disaster Risk Reduction.
A systematic approach
Identifying, analyzing and reducing the causal factors of disasters.
8. During cyclone, how does the Meteorological department warn the
fishermen?
The meteorological department warn the fisherman during cyclone,
through mobile phones, radio, TV and newspapers.

UNIT 7 - HUMAN GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU

1. Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.
SOWING HARVESTING MAJOR
NAME
PERIOD PERIOD CROPS
Sornavari April August
Millets and
(Chittirai – –
Cotton
Pattam) May September
July January
Samba Paddy and
– –
(Adi Pattam) Sugarcane
August February
Fruits,
November February
vegetables,
Navarai – –
cucumber and
December March
water melon

2. Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?

The black soil and red soil of Coimbatore are suitable for the growth
of cotton.
As there are above 30,000 big and small textile industries in
Coimbatore District. (Ex. Palladam and Somanur)
So Coimbatore is called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu.

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3. Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Mettur Dam,
Bhavani Sagar Dam,
Amaravathi Dam,
Krishnagiri Dam,
Sathanur Dam,
Mullaiperiyar Dam,
Vaigai Dam,
Manimuthar Dam,
The Papanasam Dam,
Parampikulam Aliyar Project.
4. What is MRTS?
MRTS means Mass Rapid Transport System.
It refers to sub-urban trains operated in elevated track and
underground tunnels.
5. List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu ?
Air ports - Chennai, Madurai, Tiruchi, Coimbatore,
Salem, Tuticorin
Sea ports - Chennai, Ennore, Tuticorin, Cuddalore,
Nagapattinam, Kudankulam, Kulachal,
Kanyakumari.
6. Have you hear about any stampede in your district? Write about that
incident briefly.
Yes. I have heard.
My district is Kanchipuram.
We went to Varadaraja Temple.
The Lord Athi Varadar appears once in 40 years in that temple.
So large number of people gathered there. Police tried to control the
crowd.

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CIVICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

Two Marks Questions & Answers
UNIT 1 – INDIAN CONSTITUTION
1. What is a Constitution?
The Constitution is the fundamental law of a country.
It reflects the fundamental principles
On which the government of that country is based.
It is the Vehicle of a Nation‘s Progress.
2. What is meant by citizenship?
‗Citizen‘ is derived from the Latin term .
CIVICS – means resident of a city state.
The constitution of India provides for a single and uniform citizenship
for the whole of India.
Articles 5 to 11 under part II deals it.
3. How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian
Constitution?
Right to Equality Cultural and Educational
Right to Freedom Rights
Right against Exploitation Right to Constitutional
Right to Religion Remedies.
4. What is a Writ?
A writ is an order issued by a court in writing under its seal.
5. What are the classical languages in India?
Six Languages are
1. Tamil 2. Sanskrit 3. Telugu 4. Kannada 5. Malayalam 6. Odiya
6. What is national emergency?
The President under Article 352 can declare emergency
If he is satisfied that India‘s security is threatened due to war, External
Aggression or armed rebellion or any danger.
7. List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the
States.
Legislative Relations
Administrative Relations
Financial Relations

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 UNIT 2 – CENTAL GOVERNMENT
1. How is President of India elected?
The President is elected by an Electoral College.
By means of Single transferable Vote.
The Electoral College consists of the elected members of both
houses of Parliament
And the elected members of the states and
Elected members of National Capital Territory of Delhi and
Puducherry.
2. What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
The Ministers are classified as three ranks.
1. Cabinet Ministers
2. Ministers of State
3. Deputy Ministers.
3. What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
He must be a citizen of India.
He should have worked as a Judge of High Court for at least 5 years.
He should have worked as an advocate of High Court for at least 10
years.
He is in the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist.
4. Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
The Lok Sabha is presided over by the „ Speaker‟
He presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
5. What is Money Bill?
It covers the issue of receipt and spending of money.
Examples: Tax Laws, Prevention of black money etc..,
6. List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India.
Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts in the
territory of India.
He also has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of
both houses of the Parliament.

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 UNIT 3 – STATE GOVERNMENT
2. What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
The Governor is the constitutional head of the state executive.
The administration of a state is carried on the name of the Governor.
He has Executive powers, Legislative powers, Financial powers,
Judicial powers,
Discretionary powers and Emergency powers.
3. What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?
He should be a citizen of India.
He must have completed 35 years of age.
He should not be a member of Parliament or of any State Legislature.
He should not hold any other profitable occupation.
4. What is the original jurisdiction of the High Court?
The cases which are brought directly in the first instance.
Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of
Court.
5. What do you understand by the “Appellate Jurisdiction” of the High
Court?
All High Courts entertain appeals in Civil and Criminal cases from
their Subordinate Courts as well as on their own.
UNIT 4 - INDIA’S FOREIGN POLICY
1. What is foreign policy?
Foreign policy is the nation‘s plan for dealing with other nations. or
Foreign policy is designed
To safeguard and promote the national interest of a country through
foreign affairs.
To maintain relation with other countries.

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2. Explain India‟s nuclear policy.
The two themes of India‘s nuclear policy are
i) No first use ii) Credible minimum deterrence.
3. Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India‟s foreign policy.
Nehru was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers America
and Russia over the Asian and African countries.
He did not align with any bloc and tried to form a third bloc.
Nehru was one of the founding fathers of NAM.
4. Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy.
DOMESTIC POLICY FOREIGN POLICY
 Domestic Policy is the  Foreign Policy is the nation‘s
nation‘s plan for dealing plan for dealing with other
issues within its own nation. nations.
 It includes laws focusing on  Trade, Diplomacy,
domestic affairs, social Sanctions, Defence,
welfare, health care, intelligence and global
education, civil rights, environments are the types
economic issues and social of foreign policy.
issues.
5. List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?
Mutual respect for each other‘s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
Mutual non - aggression
Mutual non - interference
Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit.
Peaceful co-existence.
6. What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
The two super powers America and Russia who were trying to extend
their influence over the newly emerged nations of Asia and Africa.
Nehru was opposed this rivalry of the two superpowers.
So India chose the path of Non-Alignment.

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7. In what ways are India‟s global security concerns reflected?
India‟s global security concerns are reflected in its military
modernization, maritime security and nuclear policies.
8. List out the member countries of SAARC.
1. Afghanistan 2. Bangladesh 3. Bhutan 4. India
5. Nepal 6. Maldives 7. Pakistan 8. Sri Lanka
9. Name the architects of the Non-Aligned movement.
Jawaharlal Nehru of India
Tito of Yugoslavia
Nasser of Egypt
Sukarno of Indonesia
Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana
10. Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Treaties and executive agreements
Appointing Ambassadors
Foreign Aid
International Trade
Armed Forces.
UNIT 5 - INDIA’S INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Pakistan Nepal Myanmar
Afghanistan Bhutan Sri Lanka
China Bangladesh Maldives
2. Write a short note on Strategic partnership Agreement (SPA).
Indo-Afghan relation was strengthened by the strategic
Partnership Agreement (SPA)
It provides assistance to rebuild Afghan‘s infrastructure, institutions,
agriculture, water, education, health and duty-free access to the
Indian market.

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3. Mention the member countries of BRICS.

Brazil India South Africa
Russia China
4. What do you know about Kaladan Multi –Model Transit Transport?
India is building the Kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport.
It is a road-river-port Cargo transport to link Kolkatta to Sittawe in
Myanmar.
5. How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Trilateral agreement.
It was signed between India, Afghanistan and Iran.
A transport corridor has been established between the three
countries.
This port is seen as Golden gateway for India to access the
landlocked markets of Afghanistan and Central Asia.
6. List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
GCC EAS
IBSA BBIN
BCIM

7. What is the role of Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM)?

Role of Japan India Institute of Manufacturing:
Contributing in „Make in India‟ and „Skill India‟ in manufacturing
Industry.
Providing Japanese style manufacturing skill to enhance India‘s
manufacturing industry by training 30,000 Indian People.

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 ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2
Two Marks Questions & Answers
UNIT 1 – GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT AND ITS GROWTH: AN INTRODUCTION
1. Define National income.
National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services
Produced by an economy over a period of time, normally a year.
It is called as Gross National Product.
2. What is meant by Gross domestic product?
GDP is the total value of output of goods and services
Produced by the factors of production
Within the geographical boundaries of the country.
3. Write the importance of Gross domestic product.
Study of Economic Growth
Unequal Distribution of Wealth
Problems of inflation and deflation
Comparison with developed countries of the world.
Public sector
Guide to economic planning.
4. What is Per Capita Income?
It is the indicator to show the living standard.
It obtained by dividing the National Income
By the population of a country.
National Income
PCI = ----------------------------
Population
5. Define the value added approach with example.
The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in
production gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the
economy.
Eg. A cup of tea is a final good.
Intermediate goods are tea powder, water, milk, sugar.
These intermediate goods adds value to the final output, the cup of
tea.

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6. Name the sectors contribute to the GDP with examples.
1. Primary Sector or Agricultural Sector - Eg. Cattle farm, fishing,
mining
2. Secondary Sector or Industrial Sector – Eg. Steel Industry, Jute,
Sugar, Cotton Industries.
3. Tertiary Sector or Service Sector - Eg. Transport, Communication,
Trade, Banking, Education,
7. Write the sector wise Indian GDP composition in 2017.
2016 – 17 2017 – 18
1. Agriculture = 17.09 17.01
2. Industry = 29.03 29.01
3. Service = 52. 08 53.09
8. What are the factors supporting to develop the Indian Economy?
India has a strong legal system and many English language
speakers.
Working age population has increased from 58% to 64% over the last
two decades.
Wage costs are low in India.
9. Write the name of economic policies in India.
Agriculture Policy
Industrial Policy
Population Policy
New Economic Policy
Employment Policy
Wage Policy
10. Write a short note
1) Gross National Happiness (GNH)
GNH is a philosophy that guides the government of Bhutan.
It is the collective happiness and well being of a population.
2) Human Development Index (HDI)
It is a composite index of life expectancy at birth, adult literacy rate
and standing of living.

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 UNIT 2 – GLOBALIZATON AND TRADE
1. What is Globalization?
It is the integration of a country with the world economy.
Globalization signifies a process of internationalization and
liberalization.
2. Write the types of Globalization.
Three types of stages
1. Archaic Globalization
2. Proto Globalization
3. Modern Globalization
3. Write short note on Multinational Corporation.
It means, it is a corporate Organisation which owns or controls
production of goods or services in at least one country other than its
home country.
Otherwise called as,Multinational Corporations or Transnational
Corporation or Multinational Enterprise.
4. Short note: The Dutch in South India.
Dutch formed the Dutch East India Company (1602).
Dutch Factories established atMasulipatnam, Pettapoli,
Devanampatinam, Pulicat, Nagapatinam
They exported indigo, saltpeter and Bengal raw silk.
5. What are the reforms made to adopt Globalization?
Abolition of Industrial Licensing.
Reduction in the number of Industries reserved for public sector.
Foreign exchange regulations amended.
To increase lending by RBI reducing SLR.

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6. What is Fair trade?
Fair trade is a way of doing business that ultimately aims to keep
small farmers in World Market Place.
It aims to empower consumer to make purchases their values.
7. Write any five principles of Fair Trade Practices.
Creating Opportunities for Economically backward producers.
Fair Trading Practices and Payment of a Fair Price.
Promoting Fair Building
Respect for the Environment.
Ensuring no child labour and Forced labour.
8. What is the main objective of WTO?
To set and enforce rules for International Trade. To regulate trade.
To provide a forum for negotiating and
Monitoring further trade liberalization.
To resolve Trade disputes.
To ensure that developing countries, secure a better share of growth
in World Trade.
To increase the transparency of decision making process.
10. Write the positive impact of Globalization.
Rapid development of the capital market.
Standard of living has increased.
Increases the GDP of a country.
Introduced new technologies and new scientific research patterns.

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UNIT 3 – FOOD SECURITY AND NUTRITION

1. Define food security according to FAO.
― Food security exists when all people, at all times, have times, have
physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and
nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food
preferences for an active and healthy life‖.
2. What are the basic components of food and nutrition security?
Availability of Food Absorption of food
Access to food

3. Explain „ship to mouth‟ phenomenon.

United States of America came forward to help India through its
Public Law 480 Scheme in the 1960s. This situation was
popularly known as ‗Ship to Mouth‘ existence‘.

4. What is the role of FCI in Green Revolution?

Minimum Support Price was announced for the grains at the
beginning of the season.
The State procured the harvested grains through the FCI.
The FCI had built storage godowns and buffer stocks of food
grains were stored during the harvest season.

5. What are the effects of Green Revolution?

India has attained self sufficiency in food grain production through
HYV programme.
The crop area under HYVs of Wheat and Rice grew considerably
during the Green Revolution.

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6. Write a note on Differential Universal PDS and Targeted PDS.
UNIVERSAL PDS TARGETED PDS
 Tamil Nadu has adopted an  The rest of the other states
‗Universal PDS‘. in India had a ‗Targeted
PDS‘.
 The family ration card  The beneficiaries are
holders are entitled to the identified based on certain
supplies from PDS. criteria and given their
entitlements leaving out the
rest.
7. Write a short note on purchasing power.
Purchasing power is the amount of goods and services that can
buy purchased with a unit of currency.
When price increases purchasing power declines and vice versa.
8. What are the main reasons for the New Agricultural Policy?
To give an assurance that organic or processed agricultural
products will not be under any export restrictions such as export
duty, export bans and quota restriction.
To raise agricultural production and productivity.
9. Write short note on multi-dimensional nature of poverty.
Multi-dimensional poverty is made up of several factors that constitute
poor people‘s experience of deprivation such as health, education,
living standards, income, disempowerment, quality of work
and threat from violence.
10. Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
Puratchi Thalaivar M.G.R Nutrition Meal Programme
National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education
Pradhan Manthri Gramodaya Yojana Scheme
Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme
Mid Day Meals Programme.

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 UNIT 4 – GROSS GOVERNEMENT AND TAXES
1. Define tax.
Taxes are compulsory payments to governments without expectation
of direct return or benefit to the tax payer.
2. Why we pay tax to the government?
To raise revenue to fund governance or to alter prices in order to
affect demand.
To carry out many functions:
1. Transportation
2. Sanitation
3. Education
4. Healthcare
5. Public Safety
6. Military
7. Scientific Research
8. Culture and the arts
9. Public Works and Public Insurance
3. Write the canons of tax system?
Canon of equlity
Canon of certainty
Canon of Economy and Convenience and
Canons of Productivity and Elasticity
4. What are the types of tax? Give examples.
Types of Taxes:
Direct Taxes: Income Tax, Wealth Tax and Corporate Tax
Indirect Taxes: Stamp duty, Entertainment tax, Excise Duty and
GST.
5. Write short note on Goods and Service Tax.
The GST was passed in Parliament on 29 March 2017.
It came into effect on 1 July 2017.
The motto of the GST is One Nation, One Market, One Tax.
The GST aims to replace all Indirect Taxed levied on goods and
services by the Central and State Governments.

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6. What is progressive tax?
The amount of tax payable is calculated by multiplying the tax base
with the tax rate. In the case of Progressive tax, the multiplicand
(Income) increases.
When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is
Known as a Progressive Tax.
7. What is meant by black money?
The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax
administrator is called „Black Money‟.
8. What is tax evasion?
Tax Evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by individuals,
Corporations and Trusts.
9. Write some causes of tax evasion.
Results in black money.
Interferes with the declared Economic policies of the
government.
Undermines the equity attribute of the tax system.
Encourages the concentration of economic power in the hands of
undeserving groups.
Consumes time and energy of the tax administration.
10. What is the difference between tax and payments?
TAXES PAYMENTS
 Compulsory Payment  Voluntary Payment
 Paid without getting any direct  Paid for getting any service.
benefits.
 If the tax is not paid the person  If the fee is not paid it means
will be penalized. the person does not want to get
the service.
 The tax payer does not expect  The Fee payer gets direct
any direct benefit. benefit.
 Eg. Income Tax, Gift Tax,  Eg. Stamp fee, Driving License
Wealth Tax, VAT. fee, Government Registration

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 fee.

UNIT 5 – INDUSTRIAL CLUSTERS IN TAMIL NADU

1. Why should a developing economy diversity out of agriculture?
The labour productivity in agricultural sector cannot increase much.
2. Why are wages low in the agricultural sector?
Due to the declining marginal productivity of land, Labour
productivity in the agricultural sector cannot increase much.
Wages too cannot increase.
3. What is meant by an industrial cluster?
An industrial cluster is a group of firms in a defined geographic area
that share common markets, technologies and skill
requirements.
4. What are the routes for cluster formation?
Certain clusters over a long time, when artisans settle in one
locality and evolve over centuries. Eg. Handloom weaving
clusters
Governments may decide to encourage manufacturing using raw
materials from a region, which may also lead to emergence of
clusters.
5. Mention the 3 areas of policy making that helped Tamil Nadu become
one of the most industrialised states in the country.
Education
Infrastructure
Industrial Promotion
6. Mention any three industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu
and their role.
SIPCOT:
SIPCOT was formed in 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state
by setting up industrial estates.
TIDCO:
TIDCO was formed in 1965 to promote industries in the state and to
establish industrial estates.
TANSI:

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TANSI was formed in 1965 to take over the small scale units that
were set up by the Department of Industries and Commerce.
7. What are the problems of industrialization currently in Tamil Nadu?
Some clusters, especially chemicals, textiles and leather tend to
generate a lot of polluting effluents that affect health. `
Quality of employment has suffered.
8. What is meant by Entrepreneur?
Entrepreneur is an innovator of new ideas and business process.
He possess management skills, strong team building abilities and
essential leadership qualities to manage a business.
9. What is Entrepreneurship?
Entrepreneurship is a process of action an entrepreneur who
undertakes to establish his enterprise.
It is the ability to create and build something.

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 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK FIVE MARKS – QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
UNIT I - OUTBREAK OF WORLD WAR I AND IT’S AFTERMATH
1. Discuss the main causes of First World War.
European alliances and counter alliances
Triple Entente of Britain, France and Russia
Triple alliances of Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy.
Violent Forms of Nationalism.
Aggressive attitude of German Emperor.
Hostility of France towards Germany.
The Balkans‘ problems
Immediate cause – Assassination of Austria Prince Ferdinand.

2. Highlight the provisions of the treaty of Versailles relating to

Germany.
Germany was to pay reparations for the losses suffered.
Germany was not allowed to have large army.
The union of Austria and Germany was forbidden.
Germany gave up all her over-seas possessions.
Alsace-Lorraine was returned to France.
The German port of Danzig was under the auspices of League of
Nations.

3. Explain the course of the Russian Revolution under the leadership of

Lenin.
Lenin was influenced by the ideas of Karl Marx.
Lenin and his supporters were Bolshevik.
They did not want Tsar Rule.
Lenin influenced workers by his slogan „Bread, Peace and Land‟.
Lenin convened the Bolshevik Central Committee.
He led a Revolution against Tsar.
Bolshevik seized the key Government Buildings.

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 Bolshevik ruled Russia under the leadership of Lenin.

UNIT 2 - THE WORLD BETWEEN TWO WORLD WARS

4. Attempt a narrative account of how the process of decolonization
happened in India during the inter-war period (1919-39)
The Great Depression has a disastrous impact on British Trade.
Britain transmitted the effects of Depression to its colonies.
Ottawa economic summit gave preference to imperial goods.
Farmers starved.
Farmers sold their gold and silver reserves to subsist.
Tax was higher than revenue.
The Government of India Act 1935, provided greater power to the
local governments.
Provincial elections were introduced.
UNIT 3 - WORLD WAR – II
5. Analyse the effects of World War – II.
The world was polarised into two main blocks led by America and
Russia.
Cold war between America and Russia
There was a race to have more nuclear weapons.
Colonies become independent nations.
Women economically independent.
Socio economic changes took place.
6. Asses the structure and the activities of the UN.
The UN head quarter is at Newyork.
It was started on 14th October,1945.
193 member nations.
Structure
General Assembly.
Secretariat.
Security Council
The Economic and Social Council Organisation.
The trusteeship council
The international court of justice.
World Bank.
Activities.
It strives to bring peace in the world.
It solves the problems of Human right and refugees.

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 Gender equality
To provide health, education and food
UNIT 4 - THE WORLD AFTER WORLD WAR – II
7. Estimate the role of Mao Tse Tung in making China a communist
country.
Mao born in Hanon City of South East China.
Mao was inspired by Lenin‘s Russian Revolution.
He followed Communialism.
He learnt Marxism in Peking University.
His long March in 1934 gave success to him.
He got support from peasants and Military.
Mao had become the leader of 10 million people.
Under his leadership China developed well.

UNIT 5 - SOCIAL AND RELIGIOUS REFORM MOVEMENTS IN THE 19 TH CENTURY

8. Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform Movements of 19th
Century.
Women were a major part of several reform movements.
Sati
Female Infanticide
Polygamy
Child Marriage
Superstitious beliefs
Subjugation of Women
Denial of Female Education
Ban on Widow Remarriage
Refusal to study Western Education

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9. Compare and contrast the contributions of Revivalist Movements
with that of Reform Movements.
Reformist Movements
Brahma Samaj, Prarthana Samaj, Aligarh Movement
Revival Movements
Arya Samaj, Ramakrishna Movement, Deoband Movement.
Comparison
One God – Doctrine
Opposed
 Idolism,
Meaningless beliefs
Untouchability, Casteism.
Difference
No Unity (cooperation) in religious ideas
Differentiation in Western Education.
Dislike in English language
Undertaking education reforms.

10. Evaluate the contributions of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and

Swami Vivekananda to regenerate Indian Society.
Ramakrishna Mission – Kolkatta, Belur.
Disciple of Ramakrishnar - Vivekananda
Ramakrishnar
Through devotional songs – attain God‘s grace
All living beings are God
All religion contains Good ideas.
Swami Vivekananda
Emphasized a cultural nationalism
Education to poor
Service to mankind is to God.
Helping in the natural disasters.

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 Recovered Hinduism.
11. Write an essay on the role played by the 19 th century reformers
towards the cause of Women.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Abolition of Sati
Widow remarriage
Ishwar Chandra Vidhya Sagar
Promoting Women Education, Schools for Girls,
Swami Dayananda Saraswathi
Opposed Child Marriage
Jyotiba Phule
Opposed child marriage
Opened orphanage to widows
Worked for depressed classes and women.

UNIT 6 - EARLY REVOLTS AGAINST BRITISH RULE IN TAMIL NADU

12. Attempt an essay of the heroic fight Veerapandya Kattabomman
conducted against the East India Company.
Kattabomman became the Palayakkarar of Panchalamkurichi.
Conflicts between Kattabomman and English ( East India
Company)
Problem arose in collecting tax, clash between collector Jackson
and Kattabomman.
Kattabomman appeared before Madras Council.
Seige of Panchalamkurichi
Kattabomman escaped to Pudukottai
Kattabomman was captured
Kattabomman was hanged in Kayathar.

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UNIT 7 - ANTI – COLONIAL MOVEMENTS AND THE BIRTH OF NATIONALISM
13. How did the people of Bengal respond to the Partition of Bengal
(1905)?
It was most unpopular.
Widespread protests all across India.
By creating Hindu, Muslim divide
It was declared as a day of mourning.
Took bath in the Ganga singing Bande Mataram.
Boycott of English goods.
Initiate full scale mass struggle
Secure the agenda of Swadeshi Movement.

14. Discuss the causes and consequences of the Revolt of 1857.

1. Annexation policy of the British
1. The Doctrine of Lapse – Dalhousie
2. The Doctrine of Paramountcy
2. Revolt:
The introduction of „ New Enfield Rifle ‟
3. Main Centre of the Revolt:
Barrackpore, Meerut, Delhi, Lucknow, Kanpur, Jhansi, Gwalior
3. Bahadur Shah II
 Proclaimed as Emperor of India.
4. Civil Rebellion
1. Indian Sepoys 2. Farmers 3. Zamindars 4. Landlords
5. Effects:
Hanging the Rebels
India became a Crown Colony
Queen Victoria‘s Magna – Carta implemented.

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 UNIT 8 - NATIONALISM: GANDHIAN PHASE
15. Examine the factors that led to the transformation of Gandhi into a
mass leader.
Gandhiji followed Ahimsa and Non Violence.
Started Non-cooperation Movement.
Champaran in Bihar
Tinkathia system abolished by Gandhi.
Mass struggle
Ahamadabad mill strike and Kheda Satyagraha
Opposed Rowlatt Act
Started nationwide Satyagraha.
Salt March towards Dandi
Quit India movement
Hindu – Muslim Unity.
Promoting Khadhi
Opposed Caste system – Untouchability.

UNIT 9 - FREEDOM STRUGGLE IN TAMIL NADU

16. Examine the origin and growth of Non- Brahmins Movement in Tamil
Nadu.
Hatred towards Brahmins domination.
Political participation of Non Brahmins
Remove Brahmins from politics.
In 1912 Dravidian movement started in Madras.
Contribution of Natesanar
Non Brahmins hostel for students
Role of Justice Party
Reservation for Non Brahmins in Government job.
Took part in election.

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17. Describe the role of Tamil Nadu in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Civil disobedient movement spread in Tamil Nadu.
In Madras people agitate
Swadesi Song sung
Before the shops people were picketed.
boycott of foreign goods
Rajaji led Salt march.
T. Prakasam and K. Nageswara Rao set up a camp at
Udayavanam near Madras.
However the police arrested them.
Rajaji led salt march
They clashed with the police in Tiruvallikeni.
Salt Satyagraha in Rameswaram.

UNIT 10 - SOCIAL TRANSFORMATION IN TAMIL NADU

18. Attempt an essay on the foundation and development of Tamil
Renaissance in the 19th Century.
Research on Tamil language.
Arrival of printing press
Ancient Tamil books printed.
In 1812 Thirukkural was published.
Damodharanar and Swaminathar contribution
Ancient books published
Tamil Culture, Literature and religion became popular.
Robert Caldwell popularized antiquity of Tamil.
Abraham Pandit revived Tamil Music.

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19. Describe the background for the formation of the Justice Party and
point out its contribution to the cause of social justice.
Formation of Justice party in November 20, 1916.
Important leaders T. M. Nair, Thiyagarayar and Natesanar
Justice party Published News paper in Tamil- Dravidan.
It formed First Ministry in Madras.
Hindu religious Endowment Act 1926.
Staff Selection Board in 1924.
Voting right given to Women.
Mid Day meal introduced in thousand light area.
Communal reservation in Government job
Free Patta given to poor.

20. Estimate Periyar E.V.R‟s decisive contribution to the social

transformation of Tamil Nadu.
Erode Rationalist.
Self Respect Movement started by him.
He condemned superstitious belief and rituals.
He opposed caste based discrimination in Cheran Madevi
Gurukulam
Supported Khadi Sale
Supported prohibition of alchohol by cut down Coconut trees in his
farm
Vaikom Hero
Conducted Self Respect Marriage
Fought for Women Empowerment
Opposed Devadasi System
Property rights for women

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 GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK FIVE MARKS – QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
UNIT I - INDIA – LOCATION, RELIEF AND DRAINAGE
1. Explain the Divisions of Northern Mountains and its importance to
India.
Three Divisions are
1) The Trans – Himalayas
2) Himalayas
3) Eastern Himalayas or Purvanchal Himalayas.
Importance of Himalayas.
It block South West Monsoon wind and it brings heavy rainfall to
North India.
Natural barrier to the Sub Continent.
Source for perennial rivers like Indus, Gangas, Brahmaputra etc.
It is the paradise of tourists.
It is full of Natural beauty.
Many Hill stations (Kashmir – Simla – Kulu manali ) and
Pilgrim Centres ( Amarnath – Badrinath Vaishnavidevi temple )
are here.
It provides raw materials for forest based Industries.
Himalayas are renowned for the Biodiversity.
2. Give an account on the major Peninsular rivers of India.
The rivers in South India are called the Peninsular rivers.
It originates from the Western Ghats
Seasonal rivers
East flowing rivers
Mahanadi – Godavari – Krishna - Thamirabarani
West flowing rivers
Narmada – Tapti.

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3. Give a detailed account on the basin of the Ganga.
Ganga originates from the Gangotri Glacier in Uttar Pradesh.
It enters through Uttarkhand State.
It is the largest drainage system of India.
Many towns are developed on the banks of the river Ganga.
The Ganga plain is densely populated.
Major Tributaries
Gomati, Gandak, Kosi, Ghaghra, Yamuna, Son and Chambal.
It is known as the River Padma in Bangladesh.
It combined with Brahmaputra and creates World‘s largest Delta
(Sundarbans)
UNIT 2 - CLIMATE AND NATURAL VEGETATION OF INDIA
4. Describe the forests of India.
Tropical Evergreen Forests
Tropical Deciduous Forest
Tropical Dry Forest
Desert Or Semi-Desert
Vegetation Mountain Forests
Eastern Himalayan Forest:
Western Himalayan Forest:
Alphine Forest
Tidal Forest (also known as Delta or Swamp forests)
Coastal Forest (Littoral forests)
Riverine Forest

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5. Write the names of Biosphere reserves and their location in India.
India has 18 Biosphere Reserves.
STATE BIOSPHERE RESERVE
1. Tamil Nadu - The Nilgiris, Gulf of Mannar
2. Assam - Dibru, Manas
3. Madhya Pradesh - Panna, Amarkantak
4. Andhra Pradesh - Sesahachalam Hills
5. Gujarat - Kachch
6. West Bengal - Sundarbans
7. Kerala - Agasthiyamalai

UNIT 3 - COMPONENTS OF AGRICULTURE

6. State the types of soil India and explain the characteristics and
distribution soil.
Growing crops Distribution
1. Alluvial Soil Rice, Sugarcane, Ganga and Brahmaputra
river
2. Black Soil   Cotton – Chillies - Millets Maharashtra,
3. Red Soil Wheat, Rice, Pulses Deccan Plateau , Kerala,
Tamil Nadu, Karnataka
4. Laterite Soil Tea, Coffee, Rubber Eastern Ghats and
Odisha.
5. Arid and Desert soils Cotton, Maize North Gujrat andSouth
Punjab and Rajasthan.
6. Saline and Alkaline Soils AndhraPradesh,Karnataka,
7. Peat and MarshySoils Odisha, Tamil Nadu ,
Sundarbans (West Bengal)

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7. Write about any two multipurpose projects of India.
It is a scientific management of water resources.
Agriculture -, Hydro Power Generation, drinking water, Industrial
Purpose, Development of fisheries.
Tamil Nadu – Kaveri Mettur Dam
Benefit state – Tamil Nadu
It is very useful for the farmers of Erode, Karur, Trichy, Tanjore and
Nagapattinam.
Hydro Power generation
development of fisheries.
Orissa – Mahanadi Hirakud Project.
Longest dam in the world
Benefit state – Orissa

8. Examine the geographical conditions favorable for the cultivation of

rice and wheat.
Rice
Rice is an indigenous crop
Tropical crop
Second largest producer in the world
Needs a mean of 24° C
Annual rainfall of 150 cm.
Deep fertile, Clayey or loamy soils are suited
Needs abundant supply of cheap labour.

Wheat
Wheat is the Second most important food crop of the country.
It is the staple food of North India.
It grows well in the Indo Gangetic Plain.
It requires 10-15 ° at the time of growing.
Alluvial Soil, Black Soil, Red Soil - best for wheat cultivation.

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 Major Wheat growing states : Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh,
Bihar.
UNIT 4 - RESOURCES AND INDUSTRIES
9. Write about the distribution of Cotton Textile Industries in India.
Cotton textile industries are agro based industries
It includes cotton Jute Wool Silk
India is in second place in the world.
Great employment of opportunities.
Handloom, small power loom, source of employment in rural areas
In India there are 1719 cotton textile industries
Textile mills in and around Mumbai
Presence of Black Soil in Maharastra.
Humid Climate – Port – good Market.

10. Explain the factors responsible for the concentration of jute

industries in the Hoogly region.
Hoogly is the branch of the river Ganga When it flows in West
Bengal.
It is a perennial river.
The major jute producing areas are along the Hoogly river valleys
in West Bengal.
Jute grows well along the river Ganga and Hoogly.
It is the biodegradable golden fibre.
The first Jute Mill in India 1854 Kolkata Rishra.
West Bengal stands in First place in Production of Jute.
Jute Products:
Gunny Bags, Canvas, Carpets,
Pack sheets Jute webs Cordage Hessians twines.

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 UNIT 5 - INDIA – POPULATION, TRANSPORT, COMMUNICATION AND TRADE
11. What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Society‘s Transformation from rural to Urban
MAJOR PROBLEMS OF URBANISATION:
It creates urban sprawl. Water Scarcity
Overcrowding in urban Drainage problem
centres. Problem of solid waste
Formation of slums. management
Increases traffic Increases the rate of
congestion crimes.

12. Explain the process of measuring Human Development

Human Development means increasing people‘s opportunities in
education, health, income, and empowerment.
Health Care
Education
Schooling for school age Children
Income
National Income – Per capita Income.

13. Explain the importance of satellite communication in India.

Satellites gives continuous communication system for the world.
The Communication through satellite emerged as a New era.in
communication in our country.
Indian space Research Organisation – Bangalore ISRO 1969.
Satellite Launching Station – Andhra – Sri Harikota
Satellite system in India can be grouped into two.
The Indian National satellite system (INSAT)
The Indian Remote sensing satellite system (IRS)

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It is a multipurpose system for telecommunication.

UNIT 6 - PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU
14. Write an account on river Cauvery.
The river Cauvery originates at Tala cauvery in the Brahmagiri hills
of Karnataka in the Western Ghats.
About 416KM of its course falls in Tamilnadu.
It forms Hogenakkal waterfalls in Dharmapuri district.
Mettur Dam, also called as the Stanley Reservoir , is located
across this river Salem district.
Tributaries are Bhavani,Noyyal and Amaravathi
In Trichy district, the river branches into two parts.
Northern branch – Kollidam
Southern branch - Cauvery.
Cauvery delta is formed in the districts of Trichy, Thanjavur and
Nagai.
Cauvery delta is called as the ―Garden of Southern India‖.

15. What is desertification and write about the areas affected by it in

Tamilnadu.
The process by which an area becomes a desert is called
desertification. Desertification reduces the ability of land to
support life.
The two main causes of desertification are:
Climatic variations—Climate change, Drought moisture loss on a
global level.
Human activity: Over grazing, deforestation and agriculture
activities, soil erosion, urbanization.
It is one of the major problems of Tamil nadu.
ISRO prepared the desertification atlas—About 12% of the total
geographical area is under desertification.
Land degradation-Theni, Nilgiris and Kanyakumari.
Sand deposition-Theni and Rajapalayam

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 Sea erosion(Marine)- Ramanathapuram, Thoothukudi,
Kanyakumari.

16. Bring out the types and distribution of soils in Tamilnadu.

Soil is the loose material mainly formed by weathering and erosion
of rocks.
The soils in Tamil nadu are broadly classified into five types.
Alluvial soil
Alluvial soil is very fertile.
Paddy, Sugarcane, banana and turmeric are cultivated.
It found in Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam.
Black soil.
Black soil is fine textured and clayed in nature.
cotton, cumbu and sorghum are cultivated.
Madurai, Virudunagar, Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi.
Red soil.
Red soil is sandy and loamy in texture.
paddy, Ragi , tobacco and vegetable are cultivated.
Sivagangai, Ramanathapuram, cuddalore.
Laterite soil.
The soil is formed by the process of intense leaching.
Tea and coffee plants are cultivated.
It found in Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Nilgiris and Thanjavur.
Saline soil
Saline soil in Tamil nadu is confined to the Coromandel Coast.

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17. Name the areas which are affected by landslides. What will you do
before, during and after landslides?
Areas affected by landslides:
Nilgiri hills, Kodaikanal hills, Coimbatore, and Palani hills.
Before landslides:
Create awareness
Leave the place.
Monitor the news updates.
During landslides:
Indoors: Take shelter under a strong table.
Outdoors: Avoid crossing roads and bridges.
Move away from trees, power lines and poles.
After landslides:
Stay away from the slide area.
Watch for flooding, debris flow.
Check for any injured person.

UNIT 7 - HUMAN GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU

18. Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Tea, coffee, rubber, cashew and cinchona and cardamom.
Areas: Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, Nilgiris and Yercadu.
Tamilnadu stands second in area and production of tea next to
Assam
It stands second in production of coffee next to Karnataka
Tea –Nilgiris
Coffee- Yercaud, Kodaikanal
Rubber-Kanyakumari
Cashew- Cuddalore, Sivagangai, Pudukkottai.

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 Cinchona-Anaimalai hills
Cardamom-Madurai, Dindigul, Theni.
19. Give an account on water resources of Tamilnadu.
An account of water resources of Tamilnadu.
Tamilnadu has only 2.5% of India‘s water resources.
Surface water is 95%
80% of ground water have already been put into use.
Bore wells.
Multi-purpose river valley projects.
Mettur Dam Mullaiperiyar Dam
Bhavani sagar Dam Manimuthar Dam

Krishnagiri Dam

20. Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamilnadu.

Lignite
Neyveli
Oil and gas
Cauvery basin
Iron
Kanjamalai in Salem district and Kalrayan malai in
Thiruvannamalai
Magnesite
Salem district
Bauxite
Servarayan hills, Palani hills and kollimalai area.
Gypsum
Tiruchi, Tirunelveli, Thoothukudi, Virudhunagar
Limestone
Coimbatore, Cuddalore,

21. Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamilnadu.

Roadways
The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 Km.
60,628 Km is maintained by the state Highways department
It ranks in second in India

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 National Highways and State Highways
Corporation- Municipality-Village panchayat roads.
Rail ways
Chennai is the headquarter of Southern Railway
Tamilnadu has a total railway track length of 6693Km
Chennai has suburban and a Mass Rapid Transport System
Airways
It connects several parts of our nation.
Chennai, Tiruchi, Madurai and Coimbatore has International
airport.
Waterways
Major ports are Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin
Minor ports are Nagapattinam, Cuddalore,kulachal.
22. Write about road safety rules.
Tamil nadu leads in the number of road accident
Road Safety Rules:
Aware of the road Don‘t stretch hands while
signals. driving vehicles.
Stop, look and cross. Don‘t use mobiles while
Listen and ensure driving
whether a vehicle is Use Seat belt.
approaching. Never cross road at
Don‘t rush on roads. bends and stay
Cross roads in pedestrian safe in a moving
crossings vehicle.

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CIVICS - VOLUME 1 & 2

TEXT BOOK BACK FIVE MARKS – QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
UNIT 1 – INDIAN CONSTITUTION
1. Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.
It is the lengthiest constitutions of the world.
It has borrowed provisions from various countries.
It is partly rigid.
It is partly flexible.
It makes India as a secular state.
It provides an independent Judiciary.
It establishes parliamentary system.
It establishes federal system.

2. Point out the Fundamental Rights.

1. Right to Equality
Equality before law.
2. Right to Freedom
Freedom of Speech, Residence, assembly, association, Education
3. Right Against Exploitation
Prohibition of forced labour.
Prohibition of children work in factories.
4. Right to Religion
Freedom of practice of religion.
5. Cultural & Educational Rights
Protection of language, script, culture of minorities.
6. Rights to Constitutional Remedies
Allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their
fundamental rights.

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 UNIT 2 – CENTAL GOVERNMENT
3. Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
1. EXECUTIVE POWERS
He appoints - Prime Minister - council of Ministers
2. LEGISLATIVE POWERS
He addresses - first session of the Parliament - first session of
each year.
3. FINANCIAL POWERS
Annual Budget of the Central Government is presented only with
the permission of the President.
4. JUDICIAL POWERS
He can Pardon, reprieves
5. MILITARY POWERS:
Supreme Commander of the defense forces.
6. DIPLOMATIC POWERS:
An appoints Indian diplomats to other countries.
7. EMERGENCY POWERS
3 kinds of Emergency powers.
National Emergency, State Emergency and Financial Emergency.
4. What are the Duties and functions of Prime Minister of India?
Functions of Prime Minister
Formation of the ministry
Party Function
Chairmanship Function
He is head of the Cabinet and the other ministers.
Supervises the works of ministers
Acts as a link between the President.
He is the leader of the Nation.
He is the Chief Spokesperson of the country.
Attends international conferences like

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 Commonwealth, G Summit of the Non Aligned Nations and
SAARC.

UNIT 3 – STATE GOVERNMENT

5. What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
The Chief Minister
Real head of State
Presides over meetings
Responsible to Legislative Assembly
RELATING TO THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry.
RELATING TO GOVERNOR
He advises the Governor in the appointment of the officials.
RELATING TO STATE LEGISLATURE:
announces the Government policies
- can introduce the bills .
OTHER POWER AND FUNCTIONS:
He has to control the party and develop the disciplines.

6. Describe the various powers and functions of the Governor.

The Governor is the head of the State Executive.
He has enormous powers.
EXECUTIVE POWERS:
He appoints the Chief Minister and other Council of Ministers.
LEGISLATIVE POWERS:
Addresses opening / first sessions of state legislature every year.
Approval of bills
FINANCIAL POWERS.
The State budget is presented in the Assembly only with his
permission.
JUDICIAL POWERS:
He appoints the Attorney General of the state₹
DISCRETIONARY POWERS:
He can dismiss the Council of Ministers ₹
EMERGENCY POWERS:
He recommends to the President to impose President‘s rule if need
arises.

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 UNIT 4 - INDIA’S FOREIGN POLICY
7. Write a detailed note on Non-alignment. Foreign Policy
1. AIMS
Formed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs.
Staying away from the two alliances.
2. Membership
120 countries, 17 states (observers) and 10 international
organizations.
3. Founding fathers of NAM.
Jawaharlal Nehru - India
Tito - Yugoslavia
Nasser - Egypt
Sukarno - Indonesia and
Kwame Nkumarah - Ghana
4. NIEO
To build a New International Economic Order (NIEO)

8. Discuss the core determinants of India‟s foreign policy?

Geographical position and size of territory
Nation‘s history, traditions and philosophical basis
Natural resources
The compulsion of economic development
Political stability and structure of government
The necessity of peace, and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons
Military strength
International milieu
Movement (N

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9. Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly

relations with its neighbours.
Preservation of national interest
Achievement of world peace
Disarmament
Fostering cordial relationship with other countries
Solving conflicts by peaceful means
Independence of thought ( as per NAM )
Equality in conducting international relations
Anti-colonialism, anti-imperialism, antiracism

UNIT 5 - INDIA’S INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

10. Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives.
Alternate to World Bank.
Carried development to member nations.
Objectives:
To achieve (or) attain regional development.
Bridge between developed countries.
Contribute to development of Humanity.
To establish a more equitable world.
To solve the problems of member nations.

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 ECONOMICS - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK FIVE MARKS – QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
UNIT 1 – GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT AND ITS GROWTH: AN INTRODUCTION
1. Briefly explain various terms associated with measuring of National
Income.
Various terms associated with measuring of National Income.
1. Gross National Product (GNP)
It is the total value of (goods and services) produced and income
received in a year.
GNP = C+I+G+(X - M) + NFIA.
2. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
It is the total value of output of goods and services produced within
the geographical boundaries of the country.
3. Net National Product (NNP)
 (NNP = GNP – Depreciation)
4. Net Domestic Product (NDP)
 (Depreciation) NDP = GDP – Depreciation
5. Per Capita Income (PCI)
National Income
Percapita Income = ---------------------------------
Population
6. Personal Income (PI)
Personal Income is the total money income received by individuals
and households of a country from all possible sources before direct
taxes.
7. Disposable income (DI)
DPI= PI – Direct taxes.

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2. What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product? and
explain it.
Methods of GDP calculating
1. Expenditure Approach:
Y = C+I+G+(X - M)
2. The Income Approach:
Y = wages + rent + interest + profit
3. Value Added Approach:
Tea Powder + Milk + Sugar = Tea
Intermediate Goods = Final Good

3. Write about the composition of GDP in India.

Primary Sector: (Agriculture Sector)
Agriculture – Forestry, Fishing, Mining, Quarrying
Secondary Sector: (Industrial Sector)
Manufacturing – Electricity – Construction
Teritiary: (Services Sector)
Trade – Transport
Communication – Bank
Insurance – Services
4. Explain the following the Economic Policies.
1. Agricultural Policy 2. Industrial Policy 3. New Economic Policy
1. Agricultural Policy
Development of domestic Agriculture
Farmers earn more income
Elimination of Agricultural Risks.
2. Industrial Policy
Provides Employment opportunities
Creating new Technology
Workers get Income
3. New Economic Policy
Liberalisation Privatisation
Globalisation

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 UNIT 2 – GLOBALIZATON AND TRADE
5. Write briefly the history of globalization.
1. ARCHAIC GLOBALISATION:
Trade between Sumer and Indus Valley Civilisation ( 3rd
Millennium BC)
The Roman Empire, Parthian Empire and the Han dynasty had
trade links
- Inspired the development of the Silk Route.
2. PROTO GLOBALISATION:
Characterized by the rise of maritime European empires like the
Portuguese, the Spanish, the Dutch and the British empires during
the 16th and 17th centuries.
3. MODERN GLOBALISATION:
The 19th century Globalization took a modern form.
Multinational trade contracts and agreements (GATT and WTO)

6. Write about the World Trade Organization.

The World Trade Organization was set up in 1994.
At present there are 164 member countries.
Its headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland.
OBJECTIVES OF WTO:
To set and enforce rules for international trade.
To resolve trade disputes.
Introducing sustainable development and environment.
Increase the transparency in decision making process.
Ensure full employment.

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7. Write the challenges of Globalization.

Global competition
 (in wages, labour rights and employment practices, etc.)
Consuming junk food
Degradation of health and spread of diseases.
Various Problems
Child labour and slavery.
Environmental degradation.
Global imbalance.
UNIT 3 – FOOD SECURITY AND NUTRITION
8. Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born.
Famine
Food production decreased
India importing food products from other countries.
Main cause
The growth of population in India.
U S A („Ship to Mouth‟ existence)
Extended assistance through its Public Law 480 (PL 480) scheme.
Key Contributors of the Green Revolution
Dr. Norman Porlae father of green revolution.
Dr. M.S.Swaminathan and Central Minister C.Shanmugam
Effect of Green Revolution 1967
Self-sufficiency in food grain production.
Rural employment
Economic Growth

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 UNIT 4 – GROSS GOVERNEMENT AND TAXES
9. What is black money? Write the causes of Black Money.
The unaccounted money.

It is concealed from the tax payer.

Causes of Black Money.

Shortage of goods

Licensing proceedings

Contribution of the industrial sector

Smuggling – because of rigid exchange- Eg. Gold.

Tax Structure – tax rate is high more black money is generated.

UNIT 5 – INDUSTRIAL CLUSTERS IN TAMIL NADU

10. Write about the Textile industry cluster in Tamil Nadu?
Tamil Nadu is home to the largest textiles sector in the country.
Coimbatore
‗Manchester of South India‘
Most of the spinning mills are in Coimbatore.
Palladam and Somanur are small towns near Coimbatore.
Dynamic powerloom weaving cluster.
Erode and Salem region:
Have large number of power loom units.
Tiruppur:
Famous production of cotton Knitwear.
Karur:
Major centre of exports of home furnishings like
Table cloth, curtains, bed covers and towels.

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 Bhavani and Kumrapalayam:
Major centres of production of carpets
Both for the domestic and the global markets.
Madurai and Kanchipuram:
The traditional artisanal clusters
Produce silk and cotton handloom sarees.

11. Explain the Role of an Entrepreneur.

They promote development and help to industrialising rural and
backward areas.
Increase the GDP and PCI.
They contribute the development of society.
They are giving better goods.
They helps to improve their standard of living.
They are giving employment.

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 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK– HEADING QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
LES – 1 – OUTBREAK OF WORLD WAR I AND IT’S AFTERMATH
1. Imperialism:
a. What do you know of monopoly capitalism?
b. How did Japan emerge as an imperial power?
c. Why did the industrial countries need colonies in the nineteenth century?
d. What were the contrasts capitalism produced?
ANSWERS:
a. The principles of free trade without any control or regulation by the state
are known as Monopoly. After 1870, the alliance of industry and finance
seeking profits in markets for goods and capital, which was an essential
characteristic of imperialism, became evident in the latter half of the
nineteenth century.
b. Japan took to Western education and machinery. With a modern army,
navy, and advanced industrialized power.
c. Large-scale mass production needed vast supplies of raw materials.
Rubber, oil, nitrates, sugar, cotton, tropical foodstuffs, mineral, etc., were
raw materials which were necessary to monopoly capitalists everywhere.
d. Capitalism produced huge contrasts. The contrasts were: extreme poverty
and extreme wealth, slum and skyscraper, empire-state and dependent
exploited colony.
2. German Emperor:
a. What was the nature of Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany?
b. What was the violent form of Germany called?
c. Why did Kaiser Wilhelm intervene in the Morocco affair?
d. What happened to Germany's colonies in Africa?
ANSWERS:
a. Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany was ruthlessly assertive and
aggressive.
b. Kultur
c. The British agreement with France over Morocco was not consented by
Germany. So Kaiser Wilhelm II intentionally recognized the
independence of the Sultan and demanded an international conference to
decide on the future of Morocco.
d. The German colonies in western and eastern Africa were also attacked by
the Allies. As these colonies were quite far from Germany they could not
receive any immediate help, and therefore surrendered to the Allies.

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3. Balkan Wars:
a. Why was Balkan League formed?
b. What was the outcome of the first Balkan War?
c. Who were defeated in this war?
d. What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan War?
ANSWERS:
a. Taking advantage of the political and economic instability of the Turkish
Empire from the second half of the eighteenth century, Greeks followed
by others began to secede, one after another, from Turkish control.
Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and later Montenegro for the control of it. In
March 1912 they formed the Balkan League.
b. According to the Treaty of London signed in May 1913 the new state of
Albania was created and the other Balkan states divided up Macedonia
between them. Turkey was reduced to the area around Constantinople.
c. Turkish forces were defeated.
d. Second Balkan War ended with the signing of the Treaty of Bucharest in
August 1913.

LES – 2 – THE WORLD BETWEEN TWO WORLD WARS

1. Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-China:
a. Define the concept of decolonization.
b. What were the three States that formed Indo-China
c. How did Communist ideas help in developing the spirit of anti-colonialism?
d. Which was the mainstream political party in Indo-China?
ANSWERS:
a. Decolonization is a process through which colonial powers transferred
institutional and legal control over their colonies to the indigenous
nationalist governments.
b. Indo-China (today's Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam)
c. Communist ideas from mainland China were also a major influence.
Many became convinced that the considerable wealth of Indo-China was
benefiting only the colonial power. At the turn of the twentieth century
growing nationalism led to sporadic violent outbursts.
d. The mainstream political party in Indo-China was the Vietnam
Nationalist Party. Formed in 1927, it was composed of the wealthy and
middle class sections of the population.

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2. Ho Chi Minh:
a. Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
b. How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
c. What do you know of Ho Chi Minh's Revolutionary Youth Movement?
d. How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
ANSWERS:
a. Tongking
b. His articles in newspapers and especially the pamphlet, French
Colonialism on Trial, made him well known as a Vietnam nationalist.
c. In 1921 he became a founder – member of the French Communist Party.
Two years later he went to Moscow and learnt revolutionary techniques
than. In 1925, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement.
d. Ho Chi Minh and his lieutenants used this turn of events to advance the
Vietnamese cause. Crossing over the border into Vietnam in Jan. 1941,
they organized the League for the Independence of Vietnam, or Viet
Minh. This gave renewed emphasis to a distinct Vietnamese nationalism.

3. Political developments in South America:

a. By which year did the whole of South America become free from European
domination?
b. How many republics came into being from the Central America?
c. In which year was Cuba occupied by the USA?
d. What made oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America

ANSWERS:
a. By 1830 the whole of South America was free from European domination.
Thus the U.S. protected the South America.
b. Five republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, and
Nicaragua).
c. From 1898 to 1902.
d. The situation created by the Great Depression made it impossible for
oligarchic regimes to accommodate the rising expectations of several
assertive groups.

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 LES – 3 – WORLD WAR – II
1. Battle of Stalingrad:
a. When did Germany attack Stalingrad?
b. What were the main manufactures of Stalingrad?
c. What was the name of the plan formulated by Hitler to attack Stalingrad?
d. What is the significance of the Battle of Stalingrad?

ANSWERS:
a. In August 1942
b. Armaments and Tractors
c. Fall Blau ("Operation Blue")
d. The people remained loyal to the government, despite Hitler's hopes of an
anti- Stalin revolution.

2.Japanese Aggression in South-east Asia:

a. Name the South-east Asian countries which fell to the Japanese.
b. Account for the setback of Allies in the Pacific region?
c. What is the significance of Battle of Midway?
d. What happened to the Indians living in Burma?
ANSWERS:
a. Guam, the Philippines, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaya, the Dutch East
Indies (Indonesia) and Burma.
b. The Allies faced many reverse in the Pacific region because of their
inadequate preparation.
c. The US navy defeated the Japanese navy in the Battle of Midway, which
turned the tide in favour of the Allies.
d. Many Indians walked all the way from Burma to the Indian border,
facing many hardships. Many died of disease and exhaustion. Those who
remained suffered under the Japanese.

3. General Assembly and Security Council:

a. List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
b. What is the Holocaust?
c. Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?
d. What is meant by veto?

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ANSWERS:
a. Five countries - the United States, Britain, France, Russia and China - are
permanent members.
b. The word ‘Holocaust’ is used to describe the genocide of nearly six million
Jews by the Germans during World War – II.
c. The widow of President Franklin Roosevelt.
d. VETO right has often been used to block major decisions, especially by
the superpowers, the US and Russia.

LES – 4 – THE WORLD AFTER WORLD WAR – II

1. Cold War:
a. Name the two military blocs that emerged in the Post-World War II.
b. Who coined the term "Cold War" and who used it first?
c. What was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO?
d. What was the context in which Warsaw Pact was dissolved?

ANSWERS:
a. US and the USSR
b. The term 'Cold War' was first coined by the English writer George
Orwell (1945).
c. As a counter to the NATO, Soviet Union organized the Soviet-bloc
countries for a united military action under the Warsaw Pact.
d. Warsaw Pact was dissolved in 1991 following the break-up of USSR.
2. Korean War:
a. Who was the President of North Korea during the Korean War?
b. Name the southern rival to the President of North Korea.
c. How long did the Korean War last?
d. What was the human cost of the War?

ANSWERS:
a. Kim II
b. Syngman Rhee (the Republic of Korea)
c. The war lasted for three years.
d. The human cost was enormous. But the Korean people gained nothing.

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3. Non-Aligned Movement (NAM):
a. When and where was the first conference on Non-Aligned Movement held?
b. Who were the prominent personalities present in the first conference?
c. What were the objectives of NAM?
d. List out any two basic principles of Non – Aligned Movement enunciated in the
Belgrade Conference.
ANSWERS:
a. The NAM held its first conference at Belgrade in 1961.
b. Tito – Yugoslavia, Nasser – Egypt, Nehru – India, Nkrumah – Ghana and
Sukarno – Indonesia
c. The Newly independent countries of Asia and Africa gave a call for
abstaining from allying with any of the two Super Powers. It also pledged
to fight all forms of colonialism and Imperialism.
d. Peaceful co-existence, commitment to peace and security, no military
alliance with any super power.

LES – 5 – SOCIAL AND RELIGIOUS REFORM MOVEMENTS IN THE 19 TH

CENTURY
1. Aligarh Movement:
a. What is the main aim of this Movement?
b. Who is considered the soul of this Movement?
c. Why were English books translated into Urudu?
d. Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?

ANSWERS:
a. To exhorted the Muslims to accept Western science and take up
government services.
b. Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan
c. He translated many English books, especially science book into Urdu. In
order to enable the Muslims to accept the western science and take up
government services.
d. Aligarh Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College.
2. Ramalinga Adigal:
a. What is Jeevakarunya?
b. What are the Songs of Grace?
c. Point out the major contribution of Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya
Sangam?
d. Where did he establish his free feeding house?

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ANSWERS:
a. To compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants.
b. His voluminous songs were compiled and published under the title
Thiruvarutpa (Songs of Grace).
c. Ramalinga emphasised the bonds of responsibility and compassion
between living beings. Ramalinga also established a free feeding house for
everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur (1867).
d. Vadalur in 1867

3. Deoband Movement:
a. Who were the organizers of this Movement?
b. What were the two main objectives of the Movement?
c. Who founded the school at Deoband?
d. Against whom the fatwa was issued by Deoband Ulema?
ANSWERS:
a. Deoband was a revivalist movement organized by the orthodox Muslim
Ulema. Muhammad QasimWanotavi (1832-80) and Rashid Ahmad
Gangotri (1828-1905).
b. The twin objectives of propagating the pure teachings of the Quran and
the Hadith as well as encouraging the spirit of Jihad against the foreign
and un-Islamic elements.
c. Muhammad QasimWanotavi (1832-80) and Rashid Ahmad Gangotri
(1828-1905).
d. In 1888 the Deoband Ulema issued a religious decree (fatwa) against Syed
Ahmed Khan's Organisation called "The United Patriotic Association"
and "The Muhammaden Anglo - Oriental Association."

LES – 6 – EARLY REVOLTS AGAINST BRITISH RULE IN TAMIL NADU

1. Velunachiyar:
a. Who was the military chief of Velunachiyar?
b. What were the martial arts in which she was trained?
c. Whom did she marry?
d. What was the name of her daughter?
ANSWERS:
a. Dalavay (military chief) Thandavarayanar.
b. Velunachiyar, training her in martial arts like valari, stick fighting and to
wield weapons.
c. Velunachiyar was married to Muthu Vadugar, the Raja of Sivagangai.
d. Vellachinachiar

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2. Dheeran Chinnamalai:
a. When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?
b. How did he earn the title "Chinnamalai"?
c. Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan?
d. Why and where was he hanged to death?

ANSWERS:
a. Born as Theerthagiri in 1756 in the Mandradiar royal family of
Palayakottai.
b. Tax was collected by Tipu's Diwan Mohammed Ali. Once, when the
Diwan was returning to Mysore with the tax money, Theerthagiri blocked
his way and confiscated all the tax money. He let Mohammed Ali go by
instructing him to tell his Sultan that "Chinnamalai", who is between
Sivanmalai and Chennimalai, was the one who took away taxes. Thus he
gained the name "Dheeran Chinnamalai".
c. Mohammed Ali.
d. Finally the English captured him and his brothers and kept them in
prison in Sankagiri. When they were asked to accept the rule of the
British, they refused. So they were hanged at the top of the Sankagiri Fort
on 31 July 1805.

LES – 7 – ANTI – COLONIAL MOVEMENTS AND

THE BIRTH OF NATIONALISM
1. Deccan Riots:
a. When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the
moneylenders in the Deccan appear?
b. What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
c. What did it result in?
d. Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.

ANSWERS:
a. The first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the
Deccan was in May 1875, in Supa a village near Poona.
b. Under a new law moneylenders were allowed to attach the mortgaged
land of the defaulters and auction it off.
c. This resulted in a transfer of lands from the cultivators to the non-
cultivating classes.
d. The rioting was directed mostly at the Gujarat moneylenders.

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2. The Revolt of 1857:
a. Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
b. Who was proclaimed the Sahhensha – e – Hindustan in Delhi?
c. Who was the correspondent of London Times who reported on the brutality of
the 1857 revolt?
d. What did the Queen‘s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?

ANSWERS:
a. Mangal Pandey
b. Bahadur Shah II
c. William Howard Russell
d. Queen Victoria Proclaimed to the Indian people that the British would not
interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters.

3. Indian National Congress:

a. What were the techniques adopted by the congress to get its grievances
redressed?
b. What do you know of Lal – Bal – Pal triumvirate?
c. Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
d. How did the British repond to the Swadeshi Movement?

ANSWERS:
a. The techniques included appeals, petitions and delegations to Britain, all
done within a constitutional framework.
b. Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bala Gangadhar Tilak of Maharashtra and
Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal were three prominent leaders during the
Swadeshi period and were referred to as Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate.
c. Bombay
d. The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi Movement by jailing
prominent leaders for long spells of imprisonment. Revolutionaries were
hanged to death. The press was crushed.

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 LES – 8 – NATIONALISM: GANDHIAN PHASE
1. Gandhi and Mass nationalism:
a. Which incident is considered a turning point in the life of Gandhi?
b. Name the works that influenced Gandhi?
c. How did Gandhi use satyagraha as a strategy in South Africa?
d. What do you know about the Champaran Satyagraha?

ANSWERS:
a. Gandhi faced racial discrimination for the first time in South Africa. On
his journey from Durban to Pretoria, at the Pietermaritzburg railway
station, he was physically thrown out of the first class compartment.
Indians were treated only as coolies. But Gandhi was determined to fight.
b. Tolstoy's the Kingdom of God is within You, Ruskin's Unto this Last and
Thoreau's Civil Disobedience.
c. He experimented with it for fighting the issues of immigration and racial
discrimination. Even when the police let loose violence no resistance was
offered by the satyagrahis.
d. In Champaran in Bihar the tinkathia system was practiced. It was the
first satyagraha movement inspired by Gandhi. It was a farmer uprising
that took place in Champaran district in Bihar, India during the British
colonial period.
2. Constructive Programme of Gandhi:
a. What is Constructive Programme?
b. What did Gandhi exhort the Congressmen to do?
c. How did Gandhi try to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity?
d. What is the contribution of Gandhi towards abolition of untouchability?
ANSWERS:
a. As a part of this effort he focused on promoting Khadi, Hindu-Muslim
unity and the abolition of untouchability.
b. He exhorted the Congressmen, "Go throughout your districts and spread
the message of Khaddar, the message of Hindu-Muslim unity, the
message of anti-untouchability and take up in hand the youth of the
country and make them the real soldiers of Swaraj."
c. Gandhi undertook a 21- days a fast in between 1924.
d. He undertook an all- India tour called the Harijan Tour. He started the
Harijan Sevak Sangh to work for the removal of discriminations. He
worked to promote education, cleanliness and hygiene and giving up of
liquor among the depressed class. He also undertook two fasts in 1933 for
this cause.

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3. Subhas Chandra Bose and INA:
a. How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
b. Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
c. How did Subhas Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
d. Name the slogan provided by Subhas Chandra Bose.

ANSWERS:
a. In February 1943, he made his way to Japan on a submarine
b. Lakshmi Sahgal
c. Bose reorganised it into three brigades: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade
and a women's brigade named after Rani of Jhansi.
d. 'Dilli Chalo'
LES – 9 – FREEDOM STRUGGLE IN TAMIL NADU
1. Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu:
a. What were the objectives of Madras Native Association?
b. What led to the emergence of nationalist press in Tamil Nadu?
c. What were the demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha?
d. Who were the early nationalist leaders in Tamil Nadu?
ANSWERS:
a. The objective was to promote the interests of its members and their focus
was on reduction in taxation. It also protested against the support of the
government to Christian missionary activities.
b. The appointment of T. Muthuswami as the first Indian Judge of the
Madras High Court in 1877 created a furor in Madras Presidency. The
entire press in Madras criticized the appointment of an Indian as a Judge.
The press opposed his appointment and the educated youth realized that
the press was entirely owned by Europeans. The need for a newspaper to
express the Indian perspective was keenly felt.
c. Its demands included conduct of simultaneous civil services examinations
in England and India, abolition of the Council of India in London,
reduction of taxes and reduction of civil and military expenditure.
d. V.S. Srinivasa Sastri, P.S. Sivasamy, V. Krishnasamy, T.R.
Venkatramanar, G.A. Natesan, T.M. Madhava Rao, and S. Subramaniar.

2. Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu:

a. List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.
b. Why did Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry?
c. Name a few of the revolutionary literature?
d. What did Vanchinathan do?

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ANSWERS:
a. M.P.T. Acharya, V.V. Subramanianar and T.S.S. Rajan.
b. To avoid imprisonment Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry which
was under French rule.
c. India, Vijaya and Suryodayam.
d. Vanchinathan of Senkottai was influenced by this organisation. On 17
June 1911 he shot dead Robert W.D'E. Ashe, Collector of Tirunelveli in
Maniyachi Junction.

3. Non Brahmin Movement:

a. Why was the South Indian Liberal Federation formed?
b. What is the Non-Brahmin Manifesto?
c. Why did EVR join the Non-Brahmin Movement?
d. What do you know about anti-Hindi agitation?

ANSWERS:
a. To promote the interests of the non-Brahmins.
b. Reservation of jobs for non-Brahmins in government service, and seats in
representative bodies.
c. He raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in the legislature.
His efforts to achieve this since 1920 had met with failure. When the
resolution was defeated, he left the Conference along with other non-
Brahmin leaders who met separately.
d. Rajaji was the introduction of Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools.
This was considered to be a form of Aryan and North Indian imposition
detrimental to Tamil language and culture, and therefore caused much
public resentment. E.V.R. led a massive campaign against it.

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LES – 10 – SOCIAL TRANSFORMATION IN TAMIL NADU

1. Periyar E.V.R
a. When did Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam?
b. What were the Newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
c. Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
d. Which was the most important work of Periyar?
ANSWERS:
a. 1944
b. Kudi Arasu, Puratchi, Paguththarivu, and Viduthalai.
c. The "lower caste" people were denied access to the temples and the
streets surrounding the temple. In Vaikom (a town in the then Princely
State of Travancore and in present day Kerala), people protested against
this practice. Periyar led the movement and was imprisoned. People
hailed him as Vaikom Virar (Hero of Vaikom).
d. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is
enslaved?
2. Labour Movement in Tamilnadu:
a. Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in
Madras.
b. Identify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour
Union.
c. Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
d. Who organised the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras and which
year?
ANSWERS:
a. Combined with high prices, this gave a momentum to the labour
movement. The nationalists realising the value of organised labour power
began to support the cause of labour.
b. B.P. Wadia, M. Singaravelar, Thiru. Vi. Kalyanasundaram.
c. Bombay
d. M. Singaravelar in 1923
3. Maraimalai Adigal:
a. Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
b. Name the Journal where he worked as a young man.
c. Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
d. Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal's life?

ANSWERS:
a. Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.
b. Siddhanta Deepika
c. The movement was critical of Hindi, Sanskrit and the Brahminical
hegemony in Tamil Society.
d. His teachers such as P. Sundaranar and Somasundara Nayagar

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 GEOGRAPHY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK– DISTINGUISH BETWEEN QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
LESSON – 1 – INDIA – LOCATION, RELIEF AND DRAINAGE
1. Himalayan rivers and Peninsular Rivers.
HIMALAYAN RIVERS PENINSULAR RIVERS
 These rivers are found in north  The rivers in south India are
India and originate from called the Peninsular Rivers.
Himalayas. So, they are also Most of these rivers originate
called as Himalayan Rivers. from the Western Ghats.
 These are perennial rivers.  These are seasonal rivers (non –
perennial).
 Examples: Indus, Ganga,  Examples: Mahanadi, Godavari,
Brahmaputra. Krishna, Cauvery.

2. Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats. (Geo. Les. 6, D/B Question No. 1 also)
WESTERN GHATS EASTERN GHATS
 The Western Ghats forms the  Eastern Ghats run from southwest
western edge of the Peninsular to northeast form the eastern
Plateau. It runs parallel to the edge of Peninsular Plateau.
Arabian Coast.

 Western Ghats extends from the  Eastern Ghats is dissected at

Niligris in the north to many places by the rivers in Tamil
Marunthuvazh Malai at Nadu, which drain into the Bay of
Swamithope in Kanyakumari Bengal.
district in Tamil Nadu.

 It is the continuous ranges.  It is discontinuous ranges.

 The northern part of this range is  This range is also called as

called as Sahyadris. Poorvadri.

 The Southern part of the Tamil  The Southern part of the Tamil
Nadu this range is Anaimalai, Nadu this range is Javadhu Hills,
Palani Hills Agasthiyar Hills and Servarayan Hills and etc.
etc.

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3. Himadri and Himachal.
HIMADRI HIMACHAL
 It is the upper range of  It is the middle range of
Himalayas. Himalayas.
 Its average height is about 6,000  Height of this range varies from
m. 3,700 to 4,500 m.
 Major hill stations of the
 It has many glaciers like Himalayas are located in this range
Gangothri, Yamunothri and like Shimla, Mussourie, Nainital
Siachen. and Darjeeling.
 It is also known as Lesser
 It is also known as Greater Himalayas.
Himalayas.

4. Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains.

WESTERN COASTAL PLAINS EASTERN COASTAL PLAINS
 It lies between the Western Ghats  It lies between the Eastern Ghats
and the Arabian Sea. and the Bay of Bengal.
 It extends from Rann of Kutch in  It stretches along the states of
the north to Kanniyakumari in the West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra
south. Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
 The northern part of the west  The coastal plain between
coastal plain is known as Konkan Mahanadi and Krishna rivers is
Plain. called Northern Circars.
 The southern part of the plain is  The southern part lies between
known as Malabar Coast. Krishna and Kaveri rivers is
Coromandal coast.

LESSON – 2 – CLIMATE AND NATURAL VEGETATION OF INDIA

1. Weather and Climate
WEATHER CLIMATE
 Weather refers to the state of  Climate is the accumulation of
atmosphere of a place at a given daily and seasonal weather
point of time. events of a given location over a
period of 30 – 35 years.
 The study of the Weather is called  The study of the Climate is called
Meteorology. Climatology.

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2. Tropical Evergreen Forest and Deciduous Forest. (Geo. Les. 6, D/B Question
No.3 also)
TROPICAL EVERGREEN FOREST DECIDUOUS FOREST
 These forests are found in areas  These are found in the areas with
with 200 cm or more annual rain 100 to 200 cm annual rainfall.
fall.
 The annual temperature is about  The annual temperature of this
0
more than 22 C and the average region is about 270C and the
annual humidity exceeds 70 average annual relative humidity
percent in this region. is 60 to 70 percent.
 The trees in this forest do not  The trees in this forest shed their
shed their leaves and always leaves during the dry season.
remain green.
 The most important trees are  The most important trees are
rubber, ebony, rosewood, Teak, Sal, Sandalwood, rosewood,
coconut, bamboo, iron wood, etc.
cedar etc.

3. North East Monsoon and South West Monsoon. (Geo. Les. 6, D/B Question
No.2 also)
NORTH EAST MONSOON SOUTH WEST MONSOON
 This monsoon begins to retreat  The onset southwest monsoon
from North India blows towards takes place over the Southern tip
Bay of Bengal. of country.
 It is associated with the  It is influenced by global
establishment of the north phenomenon like ElNino.
easterly wind system on the Indian
Sub – Continent.
 It occurs from October to  It occurs from June to September.
November.
 It gives heavy rainfall to Orissa,  It gives rainfall to Western Ghats
Andra Pradesh and south interior and North Eastern Himalayas
part of Karnataka. region.

 This is the main rainy season for  Tamil Nadu receives only a
Tamil Nadu. meager rainfall from this
monsoon.

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 LESSON – 3 – COMPONENTS OF AGRICULTURE
1. Rabi and Kharif crop seasons.
RABI KHARIF
 Cropping Seasons from October  Cropping Season from June to
to March. September.
 Wheat, Gram, Rapeseeds,  Rice, Cotton, Bajra, Maize, Jowar
Mustard, Barley are the major and Tur are the major crops
crops cultivated in Northern cultivated in Northern States.
States.
 Rice, Maize, Ragi, Groundnut and  Rice, Ragi, Maize, Jowar and
Jowar are the major crops Groundnut are the major crops
cultivated in Southern States. cultivated in Southern States.
2. Inundational canal and perennial canal.
INUNDATIONAL CANAL PERENNIAL CANAL
 In this, water is taken out directly  These are developed from
from the rivers without making perennial rivers by constructing
any kind of barrage or dam. barrage to regulate the flow of
water.
 Such canals are useful for the  In our country, most of the canals
diversion of flood water from the fall under this category. These
rivers and remain operational canals are useful for irrigation.
during rainy season.
3. Marine fishing and Inland fishing.
MARINE FISHING INLAND FISHING
 It includes coastal, off-shore and  Rivers, lakes, canals, reservoirs,
deep sea fisheries mainly on the ponds, tanks etc. are the sources
continental shelf up to a depth of of fresh water and provide fresh
200 m. water fisheries.
 Kerala leads in the marine fish  Andra Pradesh leads in Inland
production in India. fishing in India.
 Large mechanized boats are used  Catamaran, diesel boats and
for fishing. floating nets are used in fishing.
 The fish varieties caught are  The fish varieties are catla, rogue,
sharks, flying fish, catfish, silver Mirkal etc…
bellies and crabs.

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4. Alluvial soils and Black soils.

ALLUVIAL SOILS BLACK SOILS
 Formation: Sediments deposited  Formation: Derived from basalts
by streams and rivers when they of Deccan trap. Colour: Black
slowly loose. Colour: Dark colour
colour
 Chemical Properties: Rich in  Chemical Properties: Consist of
potash, Phosphoric acid, lime and calcium and Magnesium
carbon compounds but poor in carbonates, high quantities of
nitrogen. iron, aluminum, lime and
magnesia.
 Nature: Sandy – loam –silt - clay.  Nature: Sticky when wet.
 Crops: Paddy & Sugar Cane  Crops: Cotton
LESSON – 4 – RESOURCES AND INDUSTRIES
1. Renewable and non-renewable resources.
RENEWABLE RESOURCES NON – RENEWABLE RESOURCES
 Renewable Resources are those  Non – Renewable resources are
which have natural regeneration the sources that cannot be
after their utilization. replaced again after utilization.
 Solar energy, wind energy, biogas,  Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas etc.
tidal energy, wave energy etc… are the Non – Renewable
are the renewable resources. resources.
2. Metallic and non-metallic minerals.
METALLIC MINERALS NON – METALLIC MINERALS
 Metallic minerals are the minerals  These minerals do not contain
which contain one or more metal in them.
metallic elements them.
 These deposits consist of a variety  Mica, limestone, gypsum, nitrate,
of valuable metals such as iron, potash, dolomite, coal,
manganese, copper, bauxite, petroleum etc… are the non –
nickel, zinc, lead, gold etc… metallic minerals.
3. Agro based industry and mineral based industry.
AGRO BASED INDUSTRY MINERAL BASED INDUSTRY
 These industries draw their raw  Mineral based industries use both
materials from agricultural sector. metallic and non metallic
minerals as raw materials.
 Examples: Cotton textile Industry  Examples: Iron & Steel Industries

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4. Jute industry and sugar industry.
JUTE INDUSTRY SUGAR INDUSTRY
 Jute is a low priced fibre used  Sugar can be produced from
mainly for making package sugar cane, sugar-beets or any
materials like gunny bags. Today other crop which have sugar
jute is blended with cotton and content. In India, sugar cane is the
wool to produce textiles. main source of sugar.
 India is the largest producer of  India is the world’s second largest
jute goods contributing 35% of producer of sugar cane after
the world’s total output. Brazil.

 This is the second important  At present this is the second

textile industry in India after largest agro based industry of
cotton textiles. India after cotton textiles.

5. Conventional energy and non- conventional energy.

CONVENTIONAL ENERGY NON – CONVENTIONAL ENERGY
 Conventional Energy sources are  Non – Conventional energy
Non – renewable energy sources. sources are renewable energy
sources.
 It cannot be renewed.  It can be renewed again and
again.
 They cannot be replaced.  They can be replaced.
 Examples: Thermal Energy &  Examples: Solar Energy & Wind
Nuclear Energy. Energy.

LESSON – 5 – INDIA – POPULATION, TRANSPORT, COMMUNICATION

AND TRADE
1. Density of population and Growth of population.
DENSITY OF POPULATION GROWTH OF POPULATION
 Population density is a better  Population growth refers to the
measure of understanding the change in the number of
variation in distribution of inhabitants of a country/territory
population. during a specified period of time.
 It is expressed as number of  The growth of population is
persons per unit area usually per expressed in percentage and is
sq. km. described as the growth rate of
population.

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2. Personal communication and mass communication.
PERSONAL COMMUNICATION MASS COMMUNICATION
 The exchange of information  Mass Communication enables
between the individuals is called millions of people to get the
personal communication. information at the same time.
 It includes post and telegraph  They are Print Media and
services, telephone, mobile Electronic Media.
phone, short message services,
fax, internet, e –mail etc…

3. Print Media and Electronic Media.

PRINT MEDIA ELECTRONIC MEDIA
 Newspapers are the most  Radio broadcasting in India was
common but powerful means of started in 1923 by the Radio club
communication come under print of Bombay. It broadcasts a
media. India has many variety of programs related to
newspapers which carry information, education and
information on local, national and entertainment. Special news
international events to the people. bulletins are also broadcasted on
special occasions like session of
parliament and state legislature.

4. Roadways and Railways.

ROADWAYS RAILWAYS
 Roads play an important role in  Railways cater to the needs of
carrying goods and passengers large scale movement of traffic,
for short, medium and long both for freight and passenger,
distances. thereby contributing to economic
growth.
 Road transport system can  It promotes national integration
establish easy contact between by bringing people together. It
farms, fields, factories and also promotes trade, tourism,
markets and can provide door to education etc. Railways help in the
door transport services. commercialization of the
agriculture sector by facilitating
the quick movement of perishable
goods.

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5. Waterways and Airways.
WATERWAYS AIRWAYS
 It is the oldest and also the  Airways are the quickest,
cheapest means of transport. costliest, most modern and
comfortable means of transport.
 It is most suitable for carrying  It carries passengers, freight and
heavy and bulky materials from mail.
one country to another.
 The water transport is of two  The airway is of two types –
types – Inland Waterways and Domestic airways and
Ocean water ways (Sea Routes). International Airways.

6. Internal trade and International trade.

INTERNAL TRADE INTERNATIONAL TRADE
 The trade carried on within the  Trade carried on between two or
domestic territory of a country is more countries is called
termed as internal trade. International trade.
 It is also called as Domestic trade  It is also called as external trade
or Local Trade. or foreign trade. Export and
Import are two components of
International trade.
 Local Currency is used in Internal  Foreign Currency is involved in
Trade. International Trade.

LESSON – 6 – PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU

1. Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
WESTERN GHATS EASTERN GHATS
 Refer the Les. 1 D/B answer.

2. Southwest monsoon and Northeast monsoon.

SOUTH WEST MONSOON NORTH EAST MONSOON
 Refer the Les. 2 D/B answer.

3. Tropical evergreen and Tropical deciduous forests.

TROPICAL EVERGREEN FORESTS TROPICAL DECIDUOUS FRORESTS
 Refer the Les. 2 D/B answer.

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 LESSON – 7 – HUMAN GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU
1. Marine Fishing and inland fishing
MARINE FISHING INLAND FISHING
 Refer the Les. 3 D/B answer.

2. Food crops and non- food crops

FOOD CROPS NON – FOOD CROPS
 Crops which are cultivated for  Crops which are cultivated for
human consumption are called commercial purposes are called
food crops. non – food crops.
 Food crops include rice, pulses,  Fibre crops like cotton and jute
cereals and millets. are examples of non – food crops.

3. Surface Water and Ground Water

SURFACE WATER GROUND WATER
 Surface water includes river  Ground water includes tube
basin, reservoirs and Tanks. wells and open wells.
 The total surface water potential  The ground water resource of the
of the state is about 24,864 Mcm. state is 22,424 Mcm.
 More than 95% of the surface  More than 80% of the ground
water had already been put into water has been already put into
use. use.

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LESSON – 1 – INDIA – LOCATION, RELIEF AND DRAINAGE
1. Himalayas are called young fold mountains.
Because they have been formed only few millions years ago and also they
were formed because of the folding of the earth crust due to tectonic activity.

2. North Indian Rivers are perennial.

These rivers are found in north India and originate from Himalayas. So they are also
called as Himalayan Rivers. These are Perennial Rivers.

3. Chottanagpur Plateau is rich in mineral resources.

Chotanagpur Plateau has rocks all of the series in its Geological structure and
hence is rich in mineral resources particularly iron ore and coal. Examples:-
Dharwar – Metalliferous minerals, Cuddapah – Limestone, dolomite, Gondwana –
Coal.

4. The Great Indian Desert is called Marusthali.

The word Marusthali has been derived from the Sanskrit word which means
land of the dead. Despite its name and implied meaning it is known for its sand
dunes, colorful culture and folk lore. The Thar Desert is situated at the extreme
North West part of India.

5. The Eastern states are called seven sisters.

North East India comprises of seven states commonly known as the “Seven
Sister”. They are Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram,
Nagaland and Tripura. They are called due to the similarity between the states in
terms of geographical features and interdependence between them.

6. The river Gothavari is often referred as Vridha Ganga.

Because of its large size and extent among the peninsular rivers, Godavari is
the longest river with an area of 3.13 lakh km2 among the peninsular rivers. It is
also called Vridha Ganga.

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 LESSON – 2 – CLIMATE AND NATURAL VEGETATION OF
INDIA
1. Western Coastal plain is narrow.
Western Coastal Plain is narrow as the rivers flowing through this plain do not
form any delta.

2. India has a tropical monsoon climate.

The winds which reverse their directions completely between the summer and
the winter is known as monsoon winds. Due to these monsoon winds, India
experiences Tropical Monsoon Climate.

3. Mountains are cooler than the plains.

When the altitude increases, the temperatures decreases. Temperature
decreases at the rate of 6.50C for every 1000 Meters of ascent. So, places in the
mountains are cooler than the places on the plains.

LESSON – 3 – COMPONENTS OF AGRICULTURE

1. Agriculture is the backbone of India.
Agriculture is the backbone of India because of Agriculture is the process of
producing food for people. The Agriculture in India employs more than 50 percent
of the population of the country and accounts for about 25 percent of the national
income.

2. Rain water harvesting is necessary.

Rain water harvesting is one of the main water conservation methods. Indian
rainfall is erratic in nature. In order to prevent surface run off we must harvest the
rain water for future domestic related and other activity.

3. Small farms are predominant in India

India is densely populated country. It has intensively cultivated states. About
67 percent of operational land holding in India is marginal holding (< 1 hector).
Hence, small farmers are predominant in India.

LESSON – 6 – PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU

1. Eastern Ghats are not a continuous range.
Eastern Ghats is a discontinuous and irregular one. It is dissected at many
places by the South Indian Rivers, which drain into the Bay of Bengal. Its height
ranges from 1,100 to 1,600 meters. Examples: Javadhu Hills, Servarayan Hills,
Kalrayan Hills etc.

2. Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during southwest monsoon.

Tamil Nadu is located in the rain shadow region for the wind, which blows
from the Arabian Sea. As a result, Tamil Nadu receives only a meager rainfall from
the monsoon.

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3. Alluvial soil is fertile.
Alluvial soils are generally fertile as they are rich in minerals such as lime,
potassium, magnesium, nitrogen and phosphoric acid.

4. Cuddalore is a multipronged disaster zone.

Cuddalore is one of the most flood prone districts of Tamil Nadu. It is also
one of the cycle prone districts. Cuddalore has also been affected by Tsunami once.
Minor damages had been caused in Cuddalore in 2011 owing to earth quake. Thus
Cuddalore is a multipurpose disaster zone.

LESSON – 7 – HUMAN GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU

1. Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.

The scheme provides financial assistance through Capital Investment Subsidy
Scheme for agro- waste compost production units, bio-fertilizers/ bio-pesticides
production units, development and implementation of quality control regime, human
resource development etc..

2. Cities are densely populated than the villages.

Cities are densely populated than the villages because of cities will have all the
facilities like market, hospital, schools, colleges, transport and so on. Cities will also
have places for recreation.

3. Karur is called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.

The textile mills are concentrated in Karur. So, Karur is known as “Textile
capital of Tamil Nadu.

4. Mostly stampede occurs in Temples

In times of temple festivals or special occasions devotees throng the temples in
large numbers. Sometimes they lose patience and it results in stampede.

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 HISTORY - VOLUME 1 & 2
TEXT BOOK BACK – TIME – LINE EVENTS
SL. NO. YEAR NAME OF THE EVENTS
01 1905 Partition of Bengal / Swadeshi Movement
02 1906 Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was started
03 1914 Outbreak of World War – I
04 1916 Home Rule League / Lucknow Pact
05 1917 Russian Revolution / Champaran Satyagraha
06 1918 End of the World War – I / Kheda Satyagraha
07 1919 Treaty of Versailles / Rowlatt Act / Jalianwalah Bagh Massacre
Establishment of League of Nation / Khilafat Movement / Non –
08 1920
Cooperation Movement
09 1922 Mussolini’s March on Rome / Chauri Chaura incident
10 1923 The formation of Swaraj Party
Formation of Vietnam Nationalist Party / The appointment of the Simon
11 1927
Commission
12 1928 Motilal Nehru Report
13 1929 The Great Depression / The Lahore Congress Session
14 1930 Salt Satyagraha / First Round Table Conference
15 1931 Gandhi – Irwin Pact / Second Round Table Conference
16 1932 Communal Award / Poona Pact / Third Round Table Conference
17 1933 Hitler became the Chancellor of Germany
18 1934 Long March
19 1935 Mussolini invaded Ethiopia / The Government of India Act
20 1937 First Congress Ministry in Provinces
21 1939 Outbreak of World War – II
22 1940 Battle of Britain / August Offer / Individual Satyagraha
23 1941 Pearl Harbour Incident
24 1942 Battle of Stalingrad / Cripps Mission / Quit India Movement
25 1945 End of the World War – II / Wavell Plan / Simla Conference
26 1945 Formation of UNO
27 1946 RIN Revolt / Cabinet Mission / Interim Government
28 1947 Mountbatten Plan / India won Independence
29 1949 NATO
30 1954 SEATO
31 1955 Warsaw Pact
32 1956 Suez Canal Crisis
33 1961 Belgrade Conference

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SL. NO PLACE MAP WORK

01 UK & Britain

02 Rumania

03 Italy

04 Bosnia

05 Greece

TEXT BOOK BACK – WORLD OUT LINE MAP - 2

SL. NO PLACE MAP WORK

01 Germany

02 France

Austria
03
Hungary

04 Morocco

05 Bulgaria

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NO

01 Norway

02 Denmark

03 Netherlands

04 Serbia

05 Trukey

TEXT BOOK BACK – WORLD OUT LINE MAP - 4

SL. NO PLACE MAP WORK

01 Belgium

02 Moscow

USSR
03
(Russia)

04 China

05 Japan

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01 USA

02 Canada

03 San Fransico

04 Brazil

05 New Zealand

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SL. NO PLACE MAP WORK

01 Korea

02 Hiroshima

03 Tokyo

04 Nagasaki

Hawaii
05
Island

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 MAP EXERCISE -– INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 1

EX. NO. 1 ( INDIA OUT LINE)

1. Karakoram Ranges

2. R. Godavari

3. Coastal Forests region

4. Gir – National Park

5. Vedanthangal
6. Simlipal – Biosphere
Reservoir
7. Karnapuli reservoir

8. Sugarcane growing
region

MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 2

EX. NO. 2 (INDIA OUT LINE)
1. Malwa Plateau
2. Show the direction of
North East Monsoon wind
3. Show the Alluvial soil
region
4. Damodar Dam
5. Mark any one Petroleum
centre
6. Iron & Steel Industries in
Salem
7. Headquarters of the
North – Western Railway
8. International Airport -
Bangalore

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 MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 3

EX. NO. 3 (INDIA OUT LINE)

1. Largest populated state

2. National Highway – NH –
7
3. Mark any one Natural
Gas Production centre
4. IT park in Jaipur
5. Tidal energy centre –
Ranna of Kutch
6. Nuclear power station
Kota in Rajasthan
7. Mark the Jute growing
region

8. Tehri multipurpose river

valley project

MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 4

EX. NO. 4 (INDIA OUT LINE)

1. Deccan Plateau
2. Show the direction of
South West Monsoon wind
3. Show the cold desert
forest region
4. Seshchalam
5. Show the Black Soil
region
6. Vishakhapatnam
7. Mark any one solar
energy centre
8. Godavari Delta

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MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 5

EX. NO. 5 (INDIA OUT LINE)

1. R. Ganga

2. R. Tapti

3. National park in
Ranthambore
4. National park in
Mudumalai
5. Biosphere Reserves in
Dihand-Dibang
6. Show the areas of heavy
rainfall region

7. Mountain Forests

8. Show the Red soil region

MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 6

EX. NO. 6 (INDIA OUT LINE)
1. Malakand River valley
project
2. Show the Paddy growing
region
3. Mark one of the Tea
growing areas
4. Fishing hub in Cochin
5. Mark any one of the
natural gas production
centre
6. Mark any one of the Bio
mass centre
7. Show the North – South
corridor Highway
8. Headquarter of the South
Eastern Railway

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 MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 7
EX. NO. 7 (INDIA OUT LINE)

1. Mark the water ways

from Mumbai to Kolkatta
2. International Airport in
Gawahati
3. Seaport in Kandla

4. Show the areas of cotton

growing region
5. Show the Coffee growing
region
6. Biosphere reserves in
Mannas
7. Biosphere Reserves in
Pachmarhi
8. Bird Sanctuary in
Sulthanpur
MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 8
EX. NO. 8 (INDIA OUT LINE)

1. Pulicat Lake

2. Wild sanctuary in
Chandra Prabha
3. Show the laterite soil
region
4. Show the Tropical dry
forests region
5. R. Kaveri

6. Sundarbans

7. R. Krishna

8. Hirakud Dam

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 MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 9

EX. NO. 9 (INDIA OUT LINE)

1. National park in
Dachigam

2. National Park in Guindy

3. Periyar wild Sanctuary

4. Show the alluvial soil

region
5. Show the Marshy soil
region
6. Nagarjuna Sagar river
valley project

7. Bakra – Nangal project

8. Show the sugar cane

growing region
MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 10
EX. NO. 10 (INDIA OUT
LINE)
1. Show the Tea growing
region in Assam
2. Cauvery Delta region
3. Show the desert soil
region
4. Mark any one of the Iron
ore region
5. Mark any one Gypsum
region
6. Show the Black soil
region
7. Mumbai – Sea port

8. Delhi – International Air

port

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 MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 11

EX. NO. 11 (INDIA OUT LINE)

1. Tuticorin

2. Cochin

3. Kolkatta

4. Chennai

5. Delhi

6. Bangalore

7. Hydrabad

8. Mumbai High

MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 12

EX. NO. 12 (INDIA OUT LINE)

1. Paradwip

2. Voshakhapatnam

3. Amritsar

4. Srinagar
5. Show the Densely
populated state in India
6. Mark the highest literacy
state in India
7. Bhyvaneshwar

8. Hajipur

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 MAP EXERCISE – INDIA OUT LINE MAP - 13

EX. NO. 13 (INDIA OUT LINE)

1. National Park – Sanjay

Gandhi

2. Tungabhadra project

3. Kosi Project

4. Show the paddy growing

region
5. Show the wheat growing
region
6. Show the Rubber growing
region
7. Mark any one of the silk
industries

8. Nagpur

R. VASANTHA RAJA, M.A., B. Ed., M. Phil., HDCM.

SOCIAL SCIENCE TEACHER,
MOBILE: 9629616889 & 9750774183

All the Best my dear student…….

www.nammakalvi.in

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