26-06-2024

7601CMD30313224003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The relation between conservative force and potential energy U is given by :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest to v1 in time t1. As a function of time t, the
instantaneous power delivered to the body is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A particle moved from position to position under the action of

force N. The work done is :-

(1) 10 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 0.01 J
(4) 1 J

4)

A force F = (3x2 + 2x – 7)N acts on a 2kg body as a result of which the body gets displaced from x =
0 to x = 5m. The work done by the force will be :-

(1) 35 Joule
(2) 70 Joule
(3) 115 Joule
(4) 270 Joule

5) Two springs A and B having spring constant KA and KB. (KA = 2KB) are stretched by applying force
of equal magnitude. If energy stored in spring A is E then energy stored in B will be :-

(1) 2E

(2)

(3)

(4) 4E

6) A force F acting on the object varies with distance x as shown here. The force is in N and x in m.
The work done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6m is :-

(1) 18.0 J
(2) 13.5 J
(3) 9.0 J
(4) 4.5 J

7) A simple pendulum is released from A as shown. If m and represent the mass of the bob and

length of the pendulum, the gain in kinetic energy at B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A body is projected at an angle θ to the horizontal with kinetic energy EK. The potential energy at
the highest point of the trajectory is
(1) EK
2
(2) EKcos θ
2
(3) EKsin θ
2
(4) EKtan θ

9) This pulley system is released from rest. Then find work done by tension force on 6 kg block in 2

sec

(1) – 240 J
(2) –192 J
(3) – 96 J
(4) + 96 Joule

10) A block of mass 1 kg is projected with initial velocity (V0) of 10 m/s on a rough inclined surface.
The block moves up and comes back to its initial position and stops. Find work done by the friction

on the block.

(1) zero
(2) –50 J
(3) –100 J
(4) 50 J

11) If and m/s then instantaneous power is :-

(1) 195 watt

(2) 45 watt
(3) 75 watt
(4) 100 watt

12) Work done by the force of friction

(1) Can be positive
(2) Can be negative
(3) Can be zero
(4) All of the above

13) A body of mass 1 kg falls from rest through a distance of 200 m and acquires a speed of 50m/s.
Work done against friction of air is
(Take g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 700 J
(2) 12500 J
(3) 750 J
(4) 1960 J

14) If the kinetic energy of a body is increased by 800%, the momentum will increase by :

(1) 100%
(2) 200%
(3) 150%
(4) 300%

15) The kinetic energy of a body of mass 2 kg and momentum of 2 Ns is :

(1) 1 J
(2) 2 J
(3) 3 J
(4) 4 J

16) For the system shown in figure the potential energy stored in the spring is (K = 200 N/m)

(1) 10J
(2) 15J
(3) 25J
(4) 50J

17) A particle of mass 2 kg travels according to equation S = 3t2 + 2t. Find the work done in 3
seconds of its motion.

(1) 6889 J
(2) 6885J
(3) 1782J
(4) None

18) An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a
velocity of 2 m/s. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power of the
engine?

(1) 400 W
(2) 200 W
(3) 100 W
(4) 800 W

19) Initially mass m is held such that spring is in relaxed condition. If mass m is slowly lowered,

maximum elongation in spring will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The ratio of angular speed of hours hand and seconds hand of a clock is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 60
(3) 1 : 720
(4) 3600 : 1

21) A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50 m with a velocity of 36 km/hr. The centripetal force
is :-

(1) 250 N
(2) 1000N
(3) 750N
(4) 1200 N

22) A motor car is travelling at 60 m/s on a circular road of radius 1200 m. It is increasing its speed
at the rate of 4m/s2. The acceleration of the car is :
(1) 3m/s2
(2) 4m/s2
(3) 5m/s2
(4) 7m/s2

23) A mass m rotating freely in a horizontal circle of radius 1 m on a frictionless smooth table
supports a stationary mass 2m, attached to the other end of the string passing through smooth hole

O in table, hanging vertically. Find the angular velocity of rotation.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) In a uniform circular motion , which of the following will be true :

(ac = centripetal acceleration and at = tangential acceleration)

(1) ac = 0, at ≠ 0
(2) ac = 0, at = 0
(3) ac ≠ 0, at = 0
(4) ac = at

25) Find the maximum safe speed of a car on a horizontal circular track having radius = 4m and µ =
0.4.

(1) 16 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 8 m/s
(4) 2 m/s

26) A suspended simple pendulum of length l is making an angle θ with the vertical. On releasing, its
velocity at lowest point will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Assertion : Work done by the centripetal force in moving a body along a circle is always zero.
Reason : In circular motion the displacement of the body is along the force.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

28) Assertion : Acceleration of the particle in uniform circular motion remains constant.
Reason : Velocity of the particle doesn't change in circular motion.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to
the car has a constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of radius R. A body slides down the track from
point A which is at a height h = 5 cm. Maximum value of R for the body to successfully complete the

loop is :-

(1) 5 cm.
(2) 2 cm.

(3)
cm.

(4)
cm.

31)

If the speed and radius both are trippled for a body moving on a circular path, then the new
centripetal force will be :-

(1) Double of previous value

(2) Equal to previous value
(3) Triple of previous value
(4) One third of previous value

32) Two particles having mass 'M' and 'm' are moving in a circular path having radius R and r. If
their time period are same then the ratio of angular velocity will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

33) A particle moves in a circle describing equal angle in equal times, its velocity vector :-

(1) remains constant

(2) change in magnitude
(3) change in direction
(4) changes in magnitude and direction

34) Which of the following is a non conservative force :-

(1) Electric force

(2) Gravitational force
(3) Spring force
(4) Viscous force

35) A constant force is acting on a body of mass m with constant velocity as shown in the
figure. The power of P exerted is

(1) Fv cos

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) 4 J of work is required to stretch a spring through 10 cm beyond its unstretched length. The extra
work required to stretch it through additional 10 cm shall be

(1) 4 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 12 J
(4) 16 J
2) A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on a smooth table and one third of its length is
hanging vertically down over the edge of the table. If g is acceleration due to gravity, the work
required to pull the hanging part on to the table is

(1) MgL

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Potential energy function is given by U = xyz2 Expression for conservative force would be

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of above

4) Two blocks of mass 3 kg and 6 kg respectively are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. They
are connected by a light spring of force constant k = 200 N/m. Initially the spring is unstretched.
The indicated velocities are imparted to the blocks. The maximum extension of the spring will be :-

(1) 30 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 15 cm

5) The blades of a wind mill sweep out a circle of area A. If wind flows with velocity v perpendicular
to blades of wind mill and its density is ρ then the mechanical power received by wind mill is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 2

6) The potential energy of a particle in a certain field is given as : where a & b are
positive constants, r is the distance from the centre of the field.
(1)
At , particle is in stable equilibrium

(2)
At , particle is in unstable equilibrium

(3)
At , particle is in stable equilibrium

(4)
At , particle is in neutral equilibrium

7) If a person is pushing a box by force inside a moving train, the work done in the frame of the
earth will be :-
[ = displacement of train, = displacement of box with respect to train]

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

8) A block of mass 50 kg is projected horizontally on a rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of

friction between the block and the floor is 0.1. The block strikes a light spring of stiffness k = 100

N/m with a velocity 2 m/s. the maximum compression of the spring is.

(1) 1m
(2) 2m
(3) 3m
(4) 4m

9)

In the given figure, a = m/s2 represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the
clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed of the
particle is :-

(1) 7.5 m/s

(2) m/s
(3) m/s
(4) 15 m/s

10) When a body moves with a constant speed along a circle

(1) no work is done on it

(2) no acceleration is produced in it
(3) its velocity remains constant
(4) no force acts on it.

11) Two identical particles are jointed together by thread as shown in figure. Both particles are

rotating as a system as shown :- Ratio of tensions in two section of

string is

(1) 2:3
(2) 1:1
(3) 4:5
(4) 4:3

12) Tangential acceleration of a particle moving in a circle of radius 1 m varies with time t as (initial
velocity of particle is zero). Time after which total acceleration of particle makes and angle of 30°

with radial acceleration is

(1) 4 sec
(2) 22/3 sec
(3) 42/3 sec
(4) sec

13) A small cube with mass M starts at rest at point 1 at a height 4R, where R is the radius of the
circular part of the track. The cube slides down the frictionless track and around the loop. The force
that the track exerts on the cube at point 2 is nearly____times the cube's weight Mg.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Statement-1: Frictional forces are conservative forces. Statement-2: Potential energy can be
associated with frictional forces.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false

15) A car wheel is rotated to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. Initial angular velocity of it
is zero and rotates through an angle in the first 2s. In the next 2s , it rotates through an angle .

Then the ratio of will be

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which among the following is not paramagnetic ?

(1) O2
–
(2) O2
+
(3) N2
(4) C2

2) Which compound of xenon is not possible ?

(1) XeF2
(2) XeF4
(3) XeF5
(4) XeF6

3) Successive ionisation energies of an element 'X' are given below (in K. Cal)
IP1 IP2 IP3 IP4
165 195 556 595
Electronic configuration of the element 'X' is:-

(1) 1s2 , 2s22p6 , 3s2 3p2

(2) 1s2 , 2s1
(3) 1s2 , 2s22p2
(4) 1s2 , 2s22p6 , 3s2

4) The correct bond order value among the following is

I. NO– II. NO+
III. NO IV. NO2+
V. NO2–

(1) I < IV < III < II < V

(2) IV = II < I < V < III
(3) V < I < IV = III < II
(4) II < III < IV < I < V

5) Assertion :- Geometry of ICl3 is tetrahedral.

Reason :- Its shape is pyramidal.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) The formation of the Cl2 molecule can be understood in terms of

(1) the transfer of electron from one chlorine atom to another

(2) the sharing of a pair of electrons between the two chlorine atoms
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

7) Statement-I: Water is liquid but H2S is a gas.

Statement-II: Molecular weight of H2O is higher than H2S.

(1) Both statement are correct

(2) Btoh Statement are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct while statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect while statement II is correct

8) Considering X-axis as the internuclear axis which of the following will not form sigma bond?

(1) 1s –1s
(2) 1s and 2px
(3) 2py and 2py
(4) 1s and 2s

9) Incorrect statement for protonation of NH3 is :-

(1) A co-ordinate bond is formed
(2) Bond angle increases
(3) NH3 acts as a lewis base
(4) % s-character in hybrid orbitals increases

10) Which has maximum dipole moment :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the following
sequences represents the increasing order of the polarizing power of the cationic species, K+, Ca+2,
Mg+2, Be+2

(1) Be+2 < K+ < Ca+2 < Mg+2

(2) K+ < Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Be+2
(3) Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Be+2 < K+
(4) Mg+2 < Be+2 < K+ < Ca+2

12) The diamagnetic molecule is :-

(1) Super oxide ion

(2) Oxygen molecule
(3) Carbon molecule
(4) Unipositive ion of nitrogen molecule
13) Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent bond character follows the order :-

(1) LiCl < BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4

(2) LiCl > BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(3) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(4) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4

14) Which of the following species is paramagnetic in nature having only π bond ?

(1) O2
(2) B2
(3) C2
+
(4) N2

15) Assertion : N2 and NO+ both are diamagnetic substances.

Reason : NO+ is isoelectronic with N2.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

16) Match the column

Column I Column II

a. ClO2+ 1. sp3 with no lone pair

b. 2. sp3d

c. ClF3 3. sp2

d. SO2Cl2 4. sp3 with lone pair

5. sp3d2
(1) a–2; b–3; c–4; d–5
(2) a–3; b–4; c–2; d–1
(3) a–3; b–2; c–4; d–1
(4) a–1; b–2; c–3; d–4

17) Which of the following statement is correct about the octet theory.

(1) It is based upon the chemical inertness of noble gases with exceptions like XeF2, KrF2 etc.
(2) This theory does not account for the shape of molecules.
(3) It does not explain relative stability of the molecules.
(4) All of the above
18) Which of the following species will have the minimum bond energy :-

(1) N2
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) According to molecular orbital theory which of the following statement about the magnetic
character and bond order is correct regarding O2+ ?

(1) paramagnetic and bond order < O2

(2) paramagnetic and bond order > O2
(3) diamagnetic and bond order < O2
(4) diamagntic and bond order > O2

20) Covalent character decreases in the order :-

(1) KI > KBr > KCl > KF

(2) KCl > KI > KBr > KF
(3) KF > KCl > KBr > KI
(4) KF > KCl > KI > KBr

21) Which one of the following orders represents the correct sequence of increasing basic nature of
given oxides ?

(1) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3

(2) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(4) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O

22) Solid CH4 is

(1) Molecular solid

Ionic solid
(2)

(3) Covalent solid

(4) None of these

23) Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest

(1) F - H ..... F
(2) O - H ..... O
(3) O - H ..... F
(4) O - H ..... N

24) Incorrect about PCI5 molecule is :-

(1) Three P-Cl bond lie in equatorial plane
(2) Two P-Cl bond lie in axial plane
(3) Axial bond pairs suffer more repulsive interaction from the equatorial bond pair
(4) Equatorial bonds are longer than the axial bonds

25) Which overlapping is involved in HCl molecule-

(1) S - S overlap
(2) P - P overlap
(3) S - D overlap
(4) S - P overlap

26) The hybridisation of orbitals of N atom in NO3-, NO2+ and NH4+ are respectively:-

(1) sp, sp3, sp2

(2) sp2, sp3, sp
(3) sp, sp2, sp3
(4) sp2, sp, sp3

27) Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs associated with Xe ?

(1) XeO3
(2) XeO4
(3) XeO6
(4) XeO2

28) In carbon suboxide C3O2(O=C=C=C=O), the hybridization state of C is—

(1) sp2
(2) sp
(3) sp3
(4) sp3d2

29) Which of the following molecules has the highest value of carbon-carbon bond energy ?

(1) C2H4
(2) C3H8
(3) C2H2
(4) C2H6

30) The molecule having smallest bond angle is :-

(1) PCl3
(2) NCl3
(3) AsCl3
(4) SbCl3

31) Which one of the following molecules will have unequal bond lengths ?

(1) NF3
(2) PF3
(3) PCl5
(4) SF6

32) Which of the following contains polar and nonpolar bonds?

(1) H2O2
(2) CH4
(3) HCN
(4) NH4CI

33) The products obtained on heating LINO3 will be :-

(1) LINO2 + O2
(2) Li2O + NO2+ O2
(3) Li3N + O2
(4) Li2O + NO + O2

34) Which of the following metal has stable carbonates?

(1) Na
(2) Mg
(3) Al
(4) Si

35) Which element do not have valency equals to its group no :

(1) Sodium
(2) Aluminium
(3) Oxygen
(4) Carbon

SECTION-B

1) Bond present in NH4Cl :-

(1) Covalent
(2) Co-ordinate
(3) Ionic
(4) All
2) During the conversion of peroxide ion to superoxide ion electron is removed from :-

(1) π2py
(2)
(3)
(4) σ2pz

3) Oxygen is more electronegative, than sulphur, yet H2S is acidic in nature while H2O is neutral.
because :-

(1) H2O molecule are associated due to inter-H bonding

(2) H2O has higher boiling point than H2S
(3) H–S bond is weaker than O–H bond
(4) H2S is gas at ordinary temperature while H2O is liquid

4) Which of the following bond angle order is correct :-

(1) BCl3 > PCl3 > AsCl3

(2) H2S < SF2 < NH3 < BF3
(3) OF2 < H2O < CH3–O–CH3
(4) All above are correct order

5)

Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?

(1) CaC 2

(2) CaBr2
(3) CaI2
(4) CaF2

6) Which one of the following conversion involves change in both hybridisation and shape.

(1) CH4 → C2H6

+
(2) NH3 → NH4
–
(3) BF3 → BF4
+
(4) H2O → H3O

7) Consider the following statements :

(a) C2 contain two π-bonds
(b) sp3 hybrid orbital contain 25% s-character
(c) contain one nodal plane
The correct statement is/are

(1) a, b
(2) Only b
(3) Only c
(4) None of the above

8) The bonds present in N2O5 are :-

(1) Only ionic

(2) Only covalent
(3) Covalent and ionic
(4) Covalent and coordinate

9) The shapes of XeF4, , and SnCl2 are respectively :

(1) Octahedral, trigonal bipyramidal and bent

(2) Square pyramidal, pentagonal planar and linear
(3) Square planar, pentagonal planar and angular
(4) See-saw, T-shaped and linear

10) Assertion : Stability of hydride decreases from NH3 to BiH3.

Reason : On going NH3 to BiH3 bond enthalpy decreases.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

11) SbF5 react with XeF4 and XeF6 to form ionic compound and then
molecular shape of ion and ion respectively :

(1) Square pyramidal, T-shaped

(2) Bent-T-shape, square pyramidal
(3) See-saw, square pyramidal
(4) Square pyramidal, see-saw

12) Dative bond is present in :-

(1) KI3
(2) KNO2
(3) CCl4
(4) All

13) Pick out the incorrect statement :-

3
(1) sp d hybridisation involves dx -y orbital
2 2
(2) Hybridised orbital form -bond when overlaps with other orbitals.
(3) SF2 molecule is more polar than CS2
(4) O - nitrophenol is more volatile than P - nitrophenol.

14) Number of and bond in are :-

(1) 4, 2
(2) 4, 3
(3) 4, 4
(4) 2, 3

15) Lithium chloride is highly soluble in —

(1) C6H6
(2) H2O
(3) D2O
(4) All

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Mangifera indica belongs to_______order and __________family,

(1) Sapindales, Anacardiaceae

(2) Anacardiales, Sapindaceae
(3) Poales, Poaceae
(4) Poaceae, Poales

2) The generic name of Mango is

(1) Mangifera indica

(2) Indica
(3) Mangifera
(4) Indica Mangifera

3) Specific epithet is

(1) First word in the scientific name of a species

(2) Second word in the scientific name of a species
(3) Both A and B
(4) None of the above

4) Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ classification is

(1) Species
(2) Kingdom
(3) Family
(4) Variety

5) Two families Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae are included in Polymoniales which is a :

(1) Sub-class
(2) Genus
(3) Class
(4) Order

6) What is a taxon :

(1) Group of related genus only

(2) Group of related species only
(3) Name of an organism
(4) Taxonomic group of any ranking

7) Which is the branch of taxonomy that deal with chemical constituents of plants in solving
taxonomic problems ?

(1) Cytotaxonomy
(2) Chemotaxonomy
(3) Numerical taxonomy
(4) Phylogenetic taxonomy

8) The assemblage of families with common features, is called

(1) Class
(2) Phylum
(3) Genus
(4) Order

9) The family ‘Felidae’ includes

(1) Cats
(2) Tigers
(3) Lions
(4) All of these

10) The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is

(1) Class-phylum-tribe-order-family-genus-species
(2) Phylum-order-class-tribe-family-genus-species
(3) Division-class-order-family-genus-species
(4) Division-class-family-tribe-order-genus-species

11) The particular purpose of classification of living organisms is to

(1) name the living organisms

(2) explain the origin of living organisms
(3) trace the evolution of living organisms
(4) Facilitate identification of unknown organisms

12) Binomial nomenclature consists of

(1) One Latin and one vernacular name

(2) One scientific name and one Latin name
(3) One generic and one specific name
(4) One scientific name and one vernacular name

13) Evolutionary history of a group of organisms is called :

(1) ontogeny
(2) taxonomy
(3) phylogeny
(4) systematics

14) Species is

(1) population of one type

(2) a group of interbreading populations
(3) a group of individuals inhabiting a geographical area
(4) population of individuals having same genotypes and phenotypes

15) In taxonomy, ‘class’ comes in between

(1) Kingdom and phylum

(2) Phylum and order
(3) Order and family
(4) Family and genus

16) Modern taxonomic studies are based on

(1) Cell structures

(2) External and internal structure
(3) Ecological information of organisms
(4) All of these

17) Nicotiana tabacum means tobacco. In this Nicotina is

(1) Variety
(2) Subspecies
(3) Species
(4) Genus

18) Which of the following taxonomic ranks contain organism most similar to one another?

(1) Genus
(2) Species
(3) Family
(4) Class

19) How many species are know and described till now :-

(1) 1.7 - 1.8 billion

(2) 1.7 - 1.8 million
(3) 17 - 18 million
(4) 1.5 - 1.6 million

20) Which of the following ‘suffixes’ used for the units of classification in plants indicates a
taxonomic category of ‘family’?

(1) –Ales
(2) –Onae
(3) –Aceae
(4) –Ae

21) Practical significance of taxonomy is :

(1) Identification of medicinal plant.

(2) To know evolutionary history.
(3) Identification of unknown living organism.
(4) None of these

22) The term taxonomy was proposed by

(1) Carolus Linnaeus

(2) Takhtajan
(3) A.P. de Candolle
(4) Julian Huxley

23) A group of related genera are classified as

(1) Family
(2) Order
(3) Class
(4) Tribe

24) Identify the correct sequence of taxa in decreasing order _

(1) Phylum, class, family, order and species

(2) Phylum, class, order, family Genus and species
(3) Class, family, order, species and genus
(4) Class, order, genus, species and varieties family

25) Which of the following taxonomic category of housefly is wrongly matched ?

(1) Genus - Musca

(2) Family - Muscidae
(3) Order - Primata
(4) Class - Insecta

26) Which of the following is less general in characters as compared to genus?

(1) Species
(2) Division
(3) Class
(4) Family

27) The common characteristics between tobacco and potato will be maximum at the level of their

(1) Genus
(2) Family
(3) Order
(4) Division

28) Systema Naturae was written by

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Aristotle
(3) Hippocrates
(4) Darwin

29) A group of interconnected genera is called

(1) Family
(2) Order
(3) Phylum
(4) Class

30) Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic
category ?
(1) Tiger - Tigris, the species
(2) Cuttle fish - mollusca, a class
(3) Humans - primata, the family
(4) Housefly - Musca, an order

31) Classes in plants with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called

(1) Phylum
(2) Division
(3) Order
(4) Family

32) Which one of the following has least similar character?

(1) Family
(2) Class
(3) Genus
(4) Species

33) Biology can-be defined as :-

(1) Study of livings on earth

(2) Study of life on earth
(3) Study of life forms and living processes on earth
(4) All of the above

34) "The Darwin of 20th century is :

(1) Huxley
(2) Hutchinson
(3) Ernst Haeckel
(4) Ernst Mayr

35) Solanum includes species

(1) nigrum
(2) melongena
(3) tuberosum
(4) All of the above

SECTION-B

1) Systematics refers to

(1) Identification and study of organ systems of organisms.

(2) Identification and preservation of organisms.
(3) Diversities of different kinds of organisms and their relationship.
(4) Study of habitat of organisms and their classification.

2) Find the correct option according to following taxonomic hierarchy ?

(1) A-Sapindules, B-Anacardiaceae

(2) A-Anacardiaceae, B-Sapindales
(3) A-Poaceae, B-Sapindales
(4) A-Polaes, B-Anqcardiaceae

3) In Bionomial nomenclature system of classification.

which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) name of genus first latter is Capital.

(2) Genus and species name are printed it should be in Italics
(3) Genus name is written after species name
(4) Both for genus and name of species when written freehand, underlined separately

4) Taxonomic hierarchy refers to

(1) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals.
(2) A group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals
(3) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group
(4) Classification of species based on fossil record

5) Select correctly written scientific name of mango which was first described by Linnaeus

(1) Mangifera Indica

(2) Mangifera Indica Linnaeus
(3) Mangifera indica Linn.
(4) Mangifera indica Linn.

6) Botanical name of plants are treated as in Latin because

(1) Rules of nomenclature were framed by Italian botanists and they were speaking Latin
(2) It is very difficult to pronounce latin names and they convey multiple meanings
(3) Latin was the natural language of many European countries
(4) Latin was a dead language, no people or nation uses it as the official language.

7) In a taxonomical hierarchy as we go from species to kingdom :-

(1) The number of similar characters goes on decreasing

(2) The number of similar characters goes on increasing
(3) The number of characters may increase or decrease
(4) All are incorrect

8) Assertion(A): Classification helps in studying all living organisms.

Reason(R): It groups the organisms into convenient categories based on some easily observable
characteristics.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

9) Read the following statement A and B and choose the correct options.
Statement-A : Higher the taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon
share.
Statement-B : Lower the category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other
taxa at the same level.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect

10) Assertion : All living organism present, past and future are linked to one another.
Reason : All living organism share the common genetic material but to varing degrees.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II
(Common name) (Taxonomic Category Family)

A Man 1 Poaceae

B Datura 2 Anacardiaceae

C Mango 3 Solanaceae
 D Wheat 4 Hominidae
(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

12) Consider the following statements.

I Genus comprises a group of related species.

II Taxon represents a taxonomic group of individual organism only.

III Family comprises a group of related genera

IV Taxonomic category class includes related orders.

Of the above statements
(1) I, II and IV are correct
(2) II and IV are correct
(3) I, III and IV are correct
(4) II, III and IV are correct

13) Sufix is not used for which texonomic categories :

(1) Kingdom
(2) Genus
(3) Species
(4) All of the above

14) Hominidae and Muscidae is represents taxonomic catagories

(1) Class
(2) Order
(3) Family
(4) Genus

15) Felidae and Musca represents ___ and ___ respectively

(1) Order and family

(2) Genus and order
(3) Family and Genus
(4) Genus and Family

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A
1) Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Periplaneta

(1) Gizzard - Grinds the food

(2) Gastric caecae - secrets digestive enzyme
(3) Crop - Main site of food absorption
(4) Foregut - lined by cuticle

2) Transparent, membranous wings which are used in flight in cockroach are

(1) Mesothoracic wings

(2) Metathoracic wings
(3) Tegmina
(4) Fore wings

3) Choose the mismatch with respect to cockroach

(1) Abdomen - 10 segments

(2) Anal cerci - 10th segment
(3) Malpighian tubules - 100 - 150
(4) Tracheal system - 10 spiracles

4) Nerves from supra-oesophageal ganglion in cockroach innervates A & B .

A B

1. Antenna Compound eye

2. Labrum Labium

3. Antennae Labium

4. Compound eyes Mandibles

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the circulatory system of cockroach ?

(1) Open circulatory system

(2) Blood cells are absent
(3) Hemocytes are present in haemolymph
(4) Haemolymph flows in heart anteriorly

6) All the following characteristics describe sexual dimorphism in Periplaneta , except

(1) Wings extend beyond the tip of abdomen in males

(2) 7th sternum is boat shaped in females
(3) Anal styles are present in males and absent in females
(4) Anal cerci are present in females and absent in males

7) Exchange of gases in cockroach take place at the

(1) Trachea
(2) Tracheoles
(3) Spiracles
(4) Ostia

8) Read the following statements and choose the correct option :-

Statement - A - Nervous system of cockroach consists of a series of fused segmentally arranged
ganglia joined by paired longitudinal connectives.
Statement - B - In cockroach , head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along
the dorsal part of the body.

(1) Statement A is incorrect

(2) Statement B is correct
(3) Both A & B are incorrect
(4) Only statement B is incorrect

9) Match the following columns with respect to cockroach and choose the correct option

Column - I Column - II

a. Testes i. 6th abdominal segment

b. Ovary ii. 4th - 6th abdominal segments

c. Mushroom gland iii. 2nd - 6th abdominal segments

d. Spermatheca iv. 6th - 7th abdominal segments

(1) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d (i)

(2) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv)
(3) a (iv), b (iii), c (i), d (ii)
(4) a (i), b (ii), c (iv), d (iii)

10) Ootheca which is dark reddish to blackish brown capsules , about 3/8" (8 mm) long is formed by
the secretion of -

(1) Mushroom gland

(2) Phallic gland
(3) Collaterial gland
(4) Long tubles of male accessory glands

11) Choose the odd one with respect to external genitalia in male cockroach
(1) 3 pairs of gonapophyses
(2) Chitinous asymmetrical structures
(3) Pseudopenis and titillator are part of left phallomeres
(4) Present in male genital pouch, ventral to anus

12) Posterior part of female genital pouch is called

(1) Vestibulum
(2) Vagina
(3) Genital chamber
(4) Gonapophyses

13) Assertion - The development of cockroach is gradual called paurometabolus

Reason - The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form.

(1) Both assertion & reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

14)

Select the statement True (T) or false (F)

(A) Malpighian tubules are lined by glandular and ciliated cells.
(B) Cockroach are ureotelic
(C) Cockroach produces superpositional image.
(D) Urecose gland also act as excretory organ only in male

A B C D

1. T F T T

2. T F F T

3. F T T F

4. F T F F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Which of the following structure of cockroach are similar in number

(1) Ovariole, Spiracle

(2) Hepatic caecae, Malpighian tubule
(3) Thoracic leg, Thoracic wings
(4) Ovariole, Abdominal spiracles
16) Fill in the blanks by selecting correct option
On an average, a female cockroach produces_______ ootheca, each containing _______ egg.

(1) 4 - 6; 7 - 9
(2) 7 - 9; 4 - 6
(3) 9 - 10; 14 - 16
(4) 14 - 16; 9 - 10

17) In female cockroach , sperms are stored in

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Spermatophore
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Spermatheca

18) Read the Statement - A & B and select the correct option.
Statement A - Both compound eye consists of 2000 ommatidia
Statement B - Mosaic vision is present in cockroach with less sensitivity and more resolution

(1) Both A & B are true

(2) Both A & B are false
(3) A is true , B is false
(4) A is false , B is true

19) Grinding of food first occurs by which structure in cockroach

(1) Six chitinous teeth in gizzard

(2) Crop
(3) Mandible
(4) Maxillae

20) In female cockroach the 7th sternum is boat shaped and together with 8th and 9th sterna forms a
genital pouch which contains -

(1) Female gonopore only

(2) Spermathecal pores
(3) Collaterial gland openings
(4) All of the above

21) On land , frog respires by -

(1) Skin only

(2) Skin & buccal cavity only
(3) Skin , lungs & buccal cavity
(4) Lungs only

22) Which of the following structures act as urino - genital duct in male frogs
(1) Urthera
(2) Ureter
(3) Urinary bladder
(4) Vasa efferentia

23) Which of the following is incorrect with respect to circulatory system of frog

(1) Sinus venosus opens into right atrium

(2) Conus arteriosus receives blood from ventricle
(3) Conus arteriosus is present on the dorsal side of the heart
(4) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood

24) How many of the following character are correct for frog :-
Poikilotherm, Camouflage, aestivation, monoecious, cutaneous respiration, dry skin, webbed digit in
forelimb and hindlimb, pinna

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Eight
(4) Six

25) Which of the following is not present in male frog ?

(1) Vas deferens

(2) Vasa efferentia
(3) Urinogenital duet
(4) Urinary bladder

26) Select the odd w.r.t neural system of frog

(1) Brain enclosed in cranium

(2) Unpaired optic lobes
(3) Paired cerebral hemisphere
(4) Unpaired diencephalon

27) Select the mismatch with respect to Rana

(1) Tongue - bilobed

(2) Gastric juice - Chyme
(3) Oesophagus - Long
(4) Alimentary canal - short

28) Select the correct route of transport of sperm in male frog -

(1) Testis Vasa efferentia Urinogenital duct Bidder's canal Cloaca Cloacal aperture
(2) Testis Vasa efferentia Bidder's canal Urinogenital duct Cloaca Cloacal aperture
(3) Testis Vasa efferentia Vas deferens Urinogenital duct Cloacal aperture Cloaca
(4) Testis Vas deferens Vasa efferentia Urinogenital duct Cloacal aperture Cloaca

29) Select the correct option regarding Statement A & B

Statement A - A mature female frog can lay 2500 - 3000 ova in entire life
Statement B - Fertilization in frog is external and indirect development

(1) A is true , B is false

(2) Both A & B are true
(3) Both A & B are false
(4) A is false , B is true

30) Select the wrong Statement about frog

(1) Harmful to mankind as they eat insect and protect the crop
(2) Maintain the ecological balance as they serve link of food chain & food web
(3) Muscular leg used as food in some countries
(4) Never drink water but absorb through skin

31) Malpighian tubules

(1) Are attached to gizzard

(2) Lie at the junction of foregut and midgut
(3) 6 - 8 blind sac like structure
(4) Help to excretes uric acid

32) Which of the following sentence is not applicable to Rana.

(1) Lymphatic system formed of lymph, lymph node, lymph channels & lymph heart
(2) Circulation is closed & with venous heart
(3) Well developed Renal portal system
(4) Sinus venosus is triangular joins the right atrium

33) Fill in the blanks with correct option .

Route of ova in female frog : ovaries A B cloaca Cloacal aperture

A B

1. Body cavity Ureter

2. Oviduct Ureter

3. Body cavity Oviduct

4. Oviduct Body cavity

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Which of the following type of respiration in frog common in all condition like in water, on land,
during winter sleep and summer sleep.

(1) Pulmonary
(2) Branchial
(3) Cutaneous
(4) Buccopharyngeal

35) Read the statement A & B about frog & choose the correct option
Statement A - External ear is absent, tympanum represent the ear.
Statement B - 10 pair of cranial nerve & 10 pair spinal nerves present

(1) Only A is incorrect

(2) Only B is incorrect
(3) Both A & B are incorrect
(4) Both A & B are correct

SECTION-B

1) Read the following statements (A - E)

(A) The first pair of wings arises from Prothorax
(B) Presence of 3 thoracic segments
(C) Forewings called tegmina are opaque, dark & leathery
(D) The hind wings are not used in Flight
(E) Each thoracic segment bears a pair of legs
How many of the above statements are correct regarding cockroach ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

2) Male frog can be differentiate externally from female frog by all of the following features except :-
(a) Presence of sound producing vocal sac
(b) Presence of copulatory pad on the first digit of forelimb.
(c) Ureters carry both sperms and urine in male frog
(d) Testes are adhered to the upper part of kidney by a double fold of peritoreum called mesorchium

(1) a, b, c & d
(2) a & b only
(3) a, b, c only
(4) c & d only

3) Pickout incorrect pair with respect to cockroach

(1) Labrum, labium - unpaired mouth parts
(2) Anal styles - only in males
(3) Head - fusion of 6 segments
(4) Anal cerci - Paired, unjointed appendages

4) Read the following statements

A. Testes and kidneys are independent in structurally as well as functionally.
B. RBCs are enucleated and biconvex
C. Frogs are ureotelic
D. Ovaries are internally connected to kidney with mesovarium
E. Nictitating membrane is present in frog.
Choose the only correct statements about frog

(1) A & B only

(2) A, B, D
(3) A, C, E
(4) C & E only

5) The exoskeleton of cockroach is formed by _____ . Each segment is formed of four sclerites which
are joined each other by _______

(1) N - acetylglucosamine, tergites

(2) Chitin, Sternite
(3) Chitin, Arthrodial membrane
(4) Tergum, Sternum

6) Match of the following Columns A & B with respect to to cockroach and choose the correct option

Column - A Column - B

a. Phallomeres i. Chain of developing ova

b. Gonopore ii. Bundle of sperm

c. Spermatophore iii. Opening of ejaculatory duet

d. Ovariole iv. External genitalia

(1) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i)
(2) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i)
(3) a - (iv), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (ii)
(4) a - (ii), b - (iv), c - (iii), d - (i)

7) Select the statement which is not correct regarding frog

(1) Upper eyelid is immovable

(2) Bidder canal is present in kidney of both sex
(3) Renal portal system and hepatic portal system is present
(4) Adult frog has mesonephric kidney
8) Which of the following is absent in male frog

(1) Vocal sac

(2) Nuptial pad during breeding season
(3) Corpus callosum
(4) Mesonephric kidney

9) How many of the following structures is/are not a part of the reproductive system of a male
cockroach ?
Ejaculatory duct, Collaterial gland, Phallic gland, Spermatheca, Utricular gland, Spermatophore

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

10) Following are sensory organs formed of celullar aggregations around nerve endings except -

(1) Sensory papillae

(2) Taste buds
(3) Simple eyes
(4) Nasal epithelium

11) Which of the following is an unpaired structure of reproductive system of cockroach ?

(1) Collateral gland

(2) Spermatheca
(3) Oviduct
(4) Genital chamber

12) Match the column - A & B select the correct option with respect to frog

Column - A Column - B

a. Fore limb i. Bidder's canal present

b. Hind limb ii. Four digit

c. Male frog iii. Webbed feet

d. Female frog iv. Absence of nuptial pad

(1) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(2) a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (iv), d - (i)
(3) a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)
(4) a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iv)

13) Assertion - Frog respire through skin mainly during hibernation

Reason - Cutaneous respiration through skin takes place through simple diffusion
(1) Both assertion & reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

14) Select the correct for circulation in frog

(1) Heart is neurogenic & 3 chambered

(2) Only deoxygenated blood passes through heart
(3) Sinus venosus receive deoxygenated blood from all part of the body
(4) Oxygenated blood passes through truncus arteriosus

15) Read Statement - A & B and select correct option

Statement A- In female frog ureter & Oviduct open separately in the cloaca.
Statement B- The thin walled urinary bladder present dorsal to rectum which also open to cloaca.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A & B are correct
(4) Both A & B are incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 2 3 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 4 3 2 1 3 4 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 3 3 3 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 4 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 4 2 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 1 4 4 4 4 2 3 4 3 1 2 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 3 3 4 3 3 1 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 1

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 2 1 4 4 2 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 4 4 2 2 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 3 1 2 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 4 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 3 1 4 4 1 1 4 1 1 3 4 3 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 4 1 2 4 2 4 1 3 1 1 1 2 4 3 4 2 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 2 3 1 1 2 3 2 4 1 4 2 3 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 4 4 4 3 2 2 3 1 3 4 3 1 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

(as u = 0)

(as a = v1/t1)

3)

Displacement : now find W =

4)
= 125 + 25 – 35
= 115 Joule

5)

6)

Work done = area between F–x curve and x-axis

= area of trapezium

= × (6 + 3) × 3 = 13.5 J

7)

8)
Kinetic energy at highest point

Total energy remains constant

PE = TE – kE

9)
T = 48 N .......(1)

a = 2 m/s2 ......(2)
Displacement :-

[In first 2 sec]

Now work done by tension force on 6 kg block
W = Fscos180°
= – (48)(4)
= –192 J

10)

In a round trip, work done by gravity is zero because gravitational force is a conservative force.
According to work-energy theorem, W = ΔT

Wf + WN + Wg = Tf – Ti = 0 –
where, wf = work done by frictional force
wN = work done by normal reaction
wg = work done by gravity

Wf + 0 + 0 = –

∴ Wf = – = – × 1 × 100 = –50J

11)
=
=120 – 60 – 15
= 45 W

13) wgravity = wAir =

(wd by Air friction) ⇒ wAir = Air = –750 J

14) KEi = 100, KEf = 900

% change in momentum

= = 200%

15)

16) kx = mg

Stored spring potential energy

PE
= 25 J

17) S = 3t2 + 2t
v = (6t + 2)
t = 0, vi = 2m/s
t = 3, vf = 20 m/s
By WET

= 396 J

18)
 19)

When slowly lowered then at max. elongation kx = mg

20)

ωh =

ωs =

21)

F= = = 1000 N

22)

=5m/s2

23) T = 2mg (for 2m block)

Fc = mac (for m block)
⇒ T = mw2r
⇒ 2mg = mw2(1)
 ⇒w=

25)

26)

28) Both acceleration and velocity change their acceleration in case of UCM , their magnitude
are constant but direction changes
So both (A) and (R) are wrong.

36)

Work done in stretching a spring

W = kx2
where k is the spring constant and x is the extension in the spring

∴ W1 = ....(i)

and W2 = ....(ii)
Divide (ii) by (i), we get

=4
W2 = 4W1
Extra work done = W2 – W1 = 4W1 – W1
= 3 W1 = 3 × 4 J = 12 J
( W1 = 4J (Given))

37)

As 1/3 part of the chain is hanging from the edge of the table. So by substituting n = 3 in standard
expression

38)
 39)

At maximum extension, v3kg = v6kg = vcm

= (right)
By COME,

⇒ xm = 0.3 m = 30 cm.

40) Mechanical power received by the wind mill

41)

At equilibrium,

∴ Stable equilibrium

42) = Disp. of box w.r.t. train

Here is disp of box w.r.t. ground

So WD w.r.t. ground

43) By WET
 wspring + wfriction = ΔKE

⇒ 50X2 + 50X = 100

⇒ X2 + X – 2 = 0
⇒ (X + 2) (X – 1) = 0
⇒ X = –2 & X = 1m

44)

Centripetal acceleration =
⇒

= 7.5 m/s

46)

47) y = mx + c
⇒ at = (tan60°)t + 0 (from graph)
⇒ at =

⇒v=

⇒ v2 =

ac = =

tan 30° =

⇒
⇒ t = (2)2/3

48) Apply COME from 1 to 2 ;-

⇒
V2 = 4gR
At position 2 :-
 ⇒
⇒ N = 3mg

50)

θ1 = × (2)2

(θ1+θ2) = × (4)2 = 4θ1

θ2 = 4θ1- θ1
θ2 ⇒ 3θ1

∴ =3

CHEMISTRY

51)

O2 → σ1s2σ*1s22s2σ*2s2σ2pz2, [π2p2x = π2py2], [π*2p'x = π*2p'y] (paramagnetic)

O2+ → Paramagnetic (electron removed from antibonding MO)
N2+ → Paramagnetic : KK : σ2s2, σ*2s2, [π2p2x = π2py2], σ2p'2
C2 → Diamagnetic : KK : σ2s2, σ*2s2, [π2px2 = π2py2]

53)

Number of valence electron =2

54)
0
Hint: (NO = 15 e–)KK: σ2s2 < σ2s2 < σ2p2 < π2p2x = σ2p2y < σ2p1x = π2p y

55) ICl3 = T-shape

56) Cl2 molecule has non polar covalent bond which foem due to the sharing of an electron pair

57) Molecular mass of H2S is higher than H2O

58)

2py – 2py are perpendicular to x-axis and parallel to each other so form π-bond.

59)
 Protonation means addition of H+
NH3 + H+ →

Since hybridisation does not change so % s-character in hybrid orbital remain same.

60)

61)

Polarizing power ∝

Correct order of polarising power

62)

C 2 (12 e – ) ⇒ σ1s 2 < σ*1s 2 < σ2s 2 < σ*2s 2 < ,C 2 Molecule is Diamagnetic in nature
because No unpaired electrons are present in molecular orbital.

63)

LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4 (Polarisation ∝ charge on a cation)

64)

Only B2 has π bond.

B2 →

65)

N 2 and NO + both are diamagnetic substance as both have zero unpaired electron. NO + is
isoelectronic with N2.

66) NCERT-XI, Part-I, Pg. # 120

 67)

It is clear that octet rule is based upon the chemical inertness of noble gases. However, some
noble gases (for example xenon and krypton) also combine with oxygen and fluorine to form a
number of compounds like XeF2, KrF2, XeOF2 etc.
• This theory does not account for the shape of molecules.
• It does not explain the relative stability of the molecules.

68)

Bond Energy ∝ Bond order

Molecule Bond order
N2 3
2.5
2.5
2 .
have minimum bond energy.

69)

→ 15e–

= =

B.O. = (10-5) = 2.5

Unpaired e– is present so paramagnetic.

70)

Covalent character ∝ Polarisation ∝ Size of anion

KI > KBr > KCl > KF

71)

86) NH4Cl ⇒ NH4+ + Cl–

NH4+ ⇒ covalent and coordinate
NH4+ Cl– ⇒ ionic bond.

87)

According to MOT
 88) Acidic nature of Non metal hydride ∝ bond length

89)

Concept

90) Greater the covalent character, lower the melting point.

91)

BF3 is sp2 hybrid and BF4– is sp3 hydrbid

92) Ncert, Class11th, Part-1, Page no : 122,128,130, Edition-2023-2024.

93)

94)

XeF4 → 4 σ + 2 L. P.

XeF5– → 5 σ + 2 L. P.

Pentagonal planar
SnCl2 → 2 σ + 1 L. P.

angular

95)

On going top to bottom (NH3 to AsH3) size of central atom increases so bond dissociation enthalpy
decreases hence stability of hydride decreases from NH3 to AsH3.

96)
 97)

KI3 → K+ +

KNO2 → K+ +

BOTANY

119) NCERT, Pg. # 6

133)

ZOOLOGY