2025l 2026

Preparing for
the A‌C‌T® Test
What’s Inside
y Full-length practice A‌C‌T test,
including the optional Science and Writing test
y Information about the multiple-choice and
writing sections
y Test-taking strategies
y What to expect on test day
Esta publicación también se puede ver o
descargar en español

www.act.org
 A Message to Students
This document is an important first step as you get ready for college and your
career.
The information here is intended to help you do your best on the A‌C‌T to gain
admission to colleges and universities. Included are helpful hints and test-
taking strategies, as well as a complete practice A‌C‌T, with “retired” questions
from earlier test subjects given on previous test dates at A‌C‌T test centers. Also
featured are a practice writing test, a sample answer document, answer keys,
and self-scoring instructions.
Read this document carefully and take the practice tests well before test day.
That way, you will be familiar with the test format, test subjects and what they
measure, and strategies you can use to do your best on test day.
You may also want to consider The Official A‌C‌T® Self-Paced Course, Powered by
Kaplan® to learn test content and strategies in a virtual classroom. To view all of
our test preparation options, go to www.act.org/the-act/testprep.

Overview of the A‌C‌T

Contents
The A‌C‌T test consists of three multiple-choice
A Message to Students 2 sections—English, mathematics, and reading.
Students may opt to take an optional multiple-
Overview of the A‌C‌T 2 choice science section and/or an optional
writing section. Some colleges and universities
Test-Taking Strategies 3 require or accept A‌C‌T science or writing scores,
so you may consider taking the science and
Prohibited Behavior at the Test Center 6 writing sections.
Content of the A‌C‌T Sections 6 Test Questions Minutes per Test

Taking the Practice Tests 12 English 50 (40 scored) 35

Mathematics 45 (41 scored) 50
Practice Multiple Choice Test 13 Reading 36 (27 scored) 40
Practice Writing Test 60 Science (optional) 40 (34 scored) 40
Writing (optional) 1 essay 40
Practice Answer Document 64
Each of the multiple-choice sections will
How to Score the Practice Multiple-Choice include some embedded field test items
Tests 72 that will not be included in your score. The
results of the embedded field test items help
Scoring the Practice Writing Test 78 develop future test questions. These items are
not labeled, so you will not know which items
Next Steps 81 contribute to your score. You should try your
best on all items.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 2 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

Test-Taking Strategies However, you will want to pace yourself to avoid
spending too much time on one passage or
puzzling over an answer to a specific problem.
Test Strategies for the A‌C‌T If you don’t know how to work toward an
answer to a question, it is a better strategy to
Each multiple-choice section contains guess, flag the question, and then move on to
questions with four answers from which you other questions that you know how to do. If
are to choose the correct or best answer. there is time, you can come back to the flagged
If you do not complete all your sections and questions.
want to test again, you will need to re-register
and pay for a new test date. Once you access
9 Read the directions carefully.
test content, you cannot request a Test Date Before you begin each section, read the
Change. directions carefully.This should occur before
you take the test so that you do not use testing
Strategies to help you prepare for the time.
A‌C‌T y The English, reading, and science sections
9 Get familiar with the content of the ask for the best answer. Read and consider
sections. all of the answer choices and choose the
Review the information in this document. answer that best responds to the question.
Note which content areas make up a large y The mathematics section asks for the
proportion of the sections. The topics included correct answer. You may want to work out
in each content area are examples of possible the answer you feel is correct and look for
topics; they do not include all possibilities. it among the choices given. If your answer
is not among the choices provided, reread
9 Update your knowledge and skills in the the question and consider all the answer
content areas. choices.
Review content areas that you have studied but
that are not fresh in your mind. Refresh your
9 Read each question carefully.
You need to understand exactly what each
knowledge in the content areas that make up
question asks. Some questions will require you
large portions of the test.
to go through several steps to find the correct
9 Study content areas you are not familiar with. or best answer, while others can be answered
If some content areas of the A‌C‌T are unfamiliar more quickly.
to you, consider taking coursework in those
areas before you take the test.
9 Answer the easy questions first.
A good strategy is to answer the easy questions
and skip the questions you find difficult. After
Tips for Taking the Multiple-Choice
answering the easy questions, go back and
Sections answer the more difficult questions if you have
9 Pace yourself. time.
It is important that you have enough time to
read the passages/questions and figure out
9 Use logic on more difficult questions.
your responses. For each section, subtract When you return to the more difficult
the number of minutes you estimate you will questions, try to use logic to eliminate incorrect
spend skimming the passages or reading the answers. Compare the answer choices to
information provided, then divide the total each other and note how they differ. Such
number of remaining minutes allowed by differences may provide clues as to what the
the number of questions to determine the question requires. Eliminate as many incorrect
estimated time you should spend on each answers as you can, then make an educated
question. If possible, spend less time on each guess from the remaining answers.
question and use the remaining time allowed
for a section to review your work and return to
9 Answer every question.
Your scores in the sections will be based only
the questions in that section that were most
on the number of questions that you answer
difficult for you.
correctly; there is no penalty for guessing. Try to
The time limits set for each section give answer every question within the time allowed
nearly everyone enough time to finish all the for each section.
questions.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 3 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

9 Review your work. What to Bring
If there is time left after you have answered every y A printed copy of your admission ticket. Your
question in a section, go back and check your ticket contains important information that
work. You will not be allowed to go back to any helps connect your answer document to the
other section or mark responses to a section registration on file. If you have lost your ticket,
after time has been called in that section. you can print another through your MyACT
account. If you do not bring your ticket on test
When testing on an answer day, your scores may be delayed.
document: y Acceptable photo identification. You will not
9 Be precise in choosing your responses. be permitted to test if your ID does not meet
A‌C‌T requirements. See A‌C‌T requirements for
If you are taking the A‌C‌T on paper, make sure
ID on your ticket or at www.act.org/the-act/id.
that you properly select the desired answer on
your answer document. Marks on your answer y If you have registered for the Bring Your
document that extend beyond the intended Own Device (BYOD) option at a participating
oval may be scored as incorrect. location, it is your responsibly to ensure you
have your testing device and have performed
9 Erase completely. the appropriate device readiness.
If you want to change a multiple-choice answer y Number 2 pencil. Bring sharpened No. 2
on paper, make sure you erase completely. Do pencils and good erasers (no mechanical
not cross out answers or use correction fluid or pencils or ink pens). Do not bring any other
tape; you must erase. Smudges or unintended writing instruments. You will not be allowed
marks may cause errors in scoring. to use them. Note: International test centers
provide approved whiteboards and erasable
markers.
Get Ready y Watch or other timing device. You may bring
Prepare well in advance for the A‌C‌T. a watch to pace yourself, but it may not have
an alarm. Your watch or other timing device
y Know what to expect on test day. Review must be removed and placed on your desk
this document and visit www.actstudent.org while in the test room, so that it remains
for more information, including an overview visible to staff during the test. If your alarm
of each test subject, multiple test prep sounds during testing, you’ll be dismissed
resources, and a comprehensive test day and your answers will not be scored.
checklist.
y Take the practice tests in the order they are y Calculator. If you wish to use a calculator
(use of a calculator is not required), it is your
shown in this booklet, time yourself, and
responsibility to ensure the calculator is
review your responses using the answer keys.
permitted according to the A‌C‌T Calculator
y Get plenty of rest the night before the tests. Policy.
Note: Most procedures in this document y Word-to-Word Bilingual Dictionary. If you are
refer to testing on a National test date at an English Learner student, you may bring a
an A‌C‌T test center (within the United States, word-to-word bilingual dictionary as long as
US territories, or Puerto Rico). Procedures it is listed in ACT-Approved Bilingual Word-
may differ slightly if you take a different to-Word Dictionaries list. If it is not on the
administration of the A‌C‌T test. approved list, you may not use it for the ACT
test. Doing so will void your testing scores.

On Test Day y Snacks. You may consume snacks and drinks

outside the test room during the break.
Report on Time
What NOT to Bring
y For National test dates, you must report to y Textbooks, notes, dictionaries (unless
your assigned test center by the time stated
on your admission ticket (usually 8:00 a.m.). If approved by the test administrator for
you are late, you will not be admitted to test. translations), or other aids
If your ticket does not list a specific test room, y Highlighter pens, colored pens or pencils, or
the test staff or posted signs will direct you. correction fluid/tape
If you are unfamiliar with the test center, you y Any electronic device other than a permitted
should allow extra time and try to arrive early testing device and calculator
to prevent the possibility of being late. y Reading material

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 4 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

In the Test Room After Testing
y Test staff will direct you to a seat. If you need
Voiding Your Test on Test Day
a left-handed desk, tell the staff as you enter.
y Do not leave the test room after you have If you have to leave the test center before
completing all sections, you must decide
been admitted.
whether you want your test scored and then
y Only pencils, erasers, a permitted calculator,
inform the test staff of your decision. If you do
your watch (if brought to the test center),
not inform the staff, your test will be scored.
and your paper ticket will be allowed on your
desk. If you are testing on computer, you may If you do not complete all your sections and
be provided with scratch paper. want to test again, you will need to re-register
and pay for a new test date. Once you access test
y You will be required to put all other personal
content, you cannot request a Test Date Change.
belongings away.
y Reporting time for the test will be 8:00 a.m. Testing More Than Once
Testing will begin as soon as all examinees
who are present at 8:00 a.m. are checked in A‌C‌T will calculate and report a superscore for
and seated. students who have taken the A‌C‌T test more
than once. This gives colleges the option to
y Listen carefully to all directions read by the
use the student’s best scores from all test
test staff.
administrations, rather than scores from just
y It is important that you follow all directions one sitting, in their admission and scholarship
carefully. decisions.
y ACT estimates that if you are taking the For information about superscoring, see www.
English, mathematics and reading sections act.org/the-act/superscore.
you will be dismissed between 11 and 11:15
For more information about retaking the A‌C‌T,
a.m.; if you add either science or writing, you
see www.act.org/the-act/retaking.
will be dismissed between 12:00 and 12:15
p.m.; and if you add both science and writing,
Testing More Than Once in the Same
you will be dismissed between 12:45 and 1:00
p.m.. Administration
You may not receive scores from more than
For Students Approved to Test at one test taken during a scheduled National
or International test date. For example, you
National Test Center with One and
may test on Saturday, on an authorized non-
One-Half Time Saturday date, or on a rescheduled test date—
Testing with one and one-half time is available but not on more than one of those days on a
on the multiple-choice and writing sections particular test date. If you are admitted and
for students with diagnosed disabilities and/or allowed to test a second time on a particular
limited English proficiency. test date, we will report only the scores from
If you are approved for one and one-half time the first test. The second set of scores will be
at a National test center, you will have 50% canceled without refund.
additional time to complete each section.
Requesting a Copy of Your
The A‌C‌T:
Test Questions and Answers
Test Questions Minutes per Test
On certain test dates, you may order (for an
English 50 (40 scored) 52 min 30
seconds
additional fee) a copy of the multiple-choice
test questions used to determine your scores, a
Mathematics 45 (41 scored) 75
list of your answers, and the answer key. If you
Reading 36 (27 scored) 60 took the writing section, you will also receive a
Science (optional) 40(34 scored) 60 copy of the writing prompt, scoring guidelines,
Writing (optional) 1 essay 60 and the scores assigned to your essay.
This service is not available for all test dates and
is available only for National testing or Special
testing in the United States, US territories, and
Puerto Rico. Restrictions apply.
If you are interested in this service, check www.
act.org/the-act/tir for more detail.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 5 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

Prohibited Behavior at highlighted portions of the passage and
offer several alternatives to that portion.
the Test Center You decide which answer choice is most
appropriate in the context of the passage.
A complete list of the prohibited behaviors was y Many questions offer “No Change” to the
provided during the registration process. The passage as one of the choices.
following behaviors can also result in dismissal.
The English section puts you in the position
Please be reminded of the following:
of a writer who makes decisions to revise and
y You may not fill in or alter responses to any edit a text. Essays in different genres provide
multiple-choice questions or continue to a variety of rhetorical situations. These English
write or alter the essay after time has been passages are written in-house, not chosen
called. This includes fixing stray marks. from existing content like reading passages for
y You may not look at any section of the test their appropriateness in assessing writing and
language skills and to reflect students’ interests
outside of the designated time for that test.
and experiences.
y Using a watch or other timing device with
recording, internet, communication, or Four scores are reported for the English
calculator capabilities (e.g., a smart watch section: a score for the section overall and
or fitness band). Accessing any electronic three reporting category scores based on
device other than an approved calculator or specific knowledge and skills. The approximate
watch. All other electronic devices, including percentage of the section devoted to each
cell phones and other wearable devices, reporting category is as follows:
must be powered off and stored out of sight
from the time you are admitted to test until Production of Writing (38-43%)
you leave the test center.
This category requires you to apply your
y You may not give or receive assistance by understanding of the purpose and focus
any means. This includes looking at another of a piece of writing.Topic Development:
person’s test. Demonstrate an understanding of, and control
y The test is confidential and remains so even over, the rhetorical aspects of texts. Identify the
after the exam is complete. You may not purposes of parts of texts, determine whether a
remove any materials from the test room. text or part of a text has met its intended goal,
You may not discuss or share test questions, and evaluate the relevance of material in terms
answers, or test form identification numbers of a text’s focus.
during test administration, during breaks, or
after the test.
y Organization, Unity, and Cohesion: Use
various strategies to ensure that a text is
y You may not disclose test questions or logically organized, flows smoothly, and has an
answers in any way or at any time, including effective introduction and conclusion.
through social media, in whole or in part.
Knowledge of Language (18–23%)
y You may not eat, drink, or use reading
These questions require you to demonstrate
materials in the test room.
effective language use through ensuring
If you are observed or suspected of engaging in precise and concise word choice and
prohibited behavior, you will be dismissed and maintaining consistency in style and tone.
your test will not be scored.
Conventions of Standard English (38–
43%)
Content of the A‌C‌T These questions require you to apply an
Sections understanding of the conventions of Standard
English grammar, usage, and mechanics to
revise and edit text.
English Section
The English section consists of several essays,
y Sentence Structure and Formation: Apply
understanding of sentence structure and
or passages, each accompanied (English items formation in a text and make revisions to
appear alongside the essay, not after) by a set of improve the writing.
multiple-choice questions.
y Punctuation: Recognize common problems
y Some questions refer to the passage as with Standard English punctuation and
a whole. Others refer to underlined or make revisions to improve the writing.
©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 6 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
y Usage: Recognize common problems with others. Be careful not to choose an answer that
Standard English usage in a text and make corrects one error but causes a different error.
revisions to improve the writing.
9 Determine the best answer.
Tips for Taking the English Section When a question asks you to choose the best
9 Be aware of the writing style used in each alternative to an underlined or highlighted
passage. portion, consider the following approach:
The passages cover a variety of topics and are y Decide how the underlined or highlighted
written in a variety of styles. It is important portion might best be phrased in standard
that you take into account the writing style written English or in terms of the particular
used in each passage. When responding to a question posed.
question, be sure to understand the context | If the underlined or highlighted portion is
of the question. Consider how the sentence
the best answer, select “No Change.”
containing an underlined or highlighted
portion fits in with the surrounding sentences | If not, check to see whether your phrasing
and into the passage as a whole. is one of the other answer choices. If you
do not find your phrasing, choose the best
9 Examine the underlined or highlighted of the answers presented.
portions of the passage.
Before responding to a question with an
y For questions cued by a number in a box or
a highlighted asterisk in brackets, decide
underlined or highlighted portion, carefully which choice is most appropriate in terms of
examine what is underlined or highlighted in the the question posed or the stated rhetorical
text. Consider the elements of writing included situation.
in each underlined or highlighted portion.Some
questions will ask you to base your decision on y Reread the sentence, using your selected
answer. Once you have selected the answer
some specific element of writing, such as the
you feel is best, reread the corresponding
tone or emphasis the text should convey.
sentence(s) of the passage, inserting your
y Some questions will ask you to choose the selected answer at the appropriate place in
alternative to the underlined or highlighted the text to make sure it is the best answer
portion that is NOT or LEAST acceptable. within the context of the passage.
The answer choices for each question will
contain changes in one or more of those Mathematics Section
elements of writing.
The mathematics section is designed to assess
9 Be aware of questions with no underlined the mathematical skills students have typically
portions. acquired in courses taken up to the beginning
You will be asked some questions about a of grade 12. All questions are self-contained.
section of the passage or about the passage as The material covered emphasizes the major
a whole in light of a given rhetorical situation. content areas that are prerequisites to
Questions of this type are often identified successful performance in entry-level courses
by a question number in a box located at in college mathematics. Knowledge of basic
the appropriate point in the passage or by a formulas and computational skills are assumed
highlighted asterisk in brackets. as background for the problems, but recall of
Questions about the entire passage are placed complex formulas and extensive computation
at the end of the passage. For paper testing, are not required.
these questions are introduced by a horizontal
Note: You may use a permitted calculator
box enclosing the following instruction:
on the mathematics section. See www.act.
“Questions __ and __ ask about the preceding
org/calculator-policy.html for details about
passage as a whole.” For online testing, similar
prohibited models and features.
instructions will appear above the individual
questions. Nine scores are reported for the mathematics
section: a score for the section overall and eight
9 Note the differences in the answer choices. reporting category scores based on specific
Many of the questions in the section will involve mathematical knowledge and skills. The
more than one aspect of writing. Examine approximate percentage of the section devoted
each answer choice and how it differs from the to each reporting category is as follows:

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 7 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

Preparing for Higher Math (80%) You will solve non-routine problems that involve
combining skills in chains of steps, applying
This category covers the mathematics that skills in varied contexts, understanding
students have learned more recently, starting connections, and demonstrating fluency.
with using algebra as a general way of
expressing and solving equations. This category Modeling
is divided into five subcategories:
This category represents all questions that
y Number and Quantity (10-12%): Demonstrate involve producing, interpreting, understanding,
knowledge of real and complex number evaluating, and improving models. Each
systems. Reason with numerical quantities question is also counted in other appropriate
in many forms, including expressions with mathematics reporting categories. This
integer and rational exponents and vectors category is an overall measure of how well you
and matrices. use modeling skills across mathematical topics.
y Algebra (17-20%): Solve, graph, and model
multiple types of expressions. Interpret and Tips for Taking the Mathematics Section
use many different kinds of equations, such
as linear, polynomial, radical, and exponential
9 If you use a calculator, use it wisely.
relationships. Find solutions to systems of All of the mathematics problems can be solved
equations, even when represented by a without a calculator. Many of the problems
simple matrix equation, and apply results to are best done without a calculator. Use good
real-world contexts. judgment in deciding when to use a calculator.
For example, for some problems you may wish
y Functions (17-20%): Demonstrate
to do scratch work to clarify your thoughts
knowledge of functions: definition, notation,
on the question before you begin using a
representation, and application. Use
calculator to do computations.
functions including linear, radical, piecewise,
polynomial, exponential, and logarithmic. 9 Solve the problem.
Manipulate and translate functions, as well To work out solutions to the problems, you
as interpret and use important features of will usually do scratch work. You may wish to
graphs. glance over the answer choices after reading
y Geometry (17-20%): Apply your knowledge the questions. However, working backwards
of shapes and solids, using concepts such from all four answer choices can take a lot of
as congruence and similarity relationships time and may not be effective.
or surface area and volume measurements.
Apply your understanding to composite 9 Find your solution among the answer
objects and solve for missing values in choices.
triangles, circles, and other figures. Use Once you have solved the problem, look for
trigonometric ratios and equations of conic your answer among the choices. If your answer
sections. is not included among the choices, carefully
y Statistics & Probability (12-15%): Describe reread the problem to see whether you missed
important information. Pay careful attention to
center and spread of distributions. Apply and
analyze data collection methods. Understand the question being asked. If an equation is to
and model relationships in bivariate data. be selected, check to see whether the equation
Calculate probabilities by recognizing the you think is best can be transformed into one of
related sample spaces. the answer choices provided.

Integrating Essential Skills (20%) 9 Make sure you answer the question.
This category focuses on measuring how well The solutions to many questions will involve
you can synthesize and apply your knowledge several steps. Make sure your answer accounts
and skills to solve more complex problems. The for all the necessary steps. Frequently, an
questions ask you to address concepts such as answer choice is an intermediate result, not the
final answer.
y rates and percentages;
y proportional relationships; 9 Make sure your answer is reasonable.
y area, surface area, and volume; Sometimes an error in computation will result
in an answer that is not practically possible
y average and median; and
for the situation described. Always think
y expressing numbers in different ways. about your answer to determine whether it is
reasonable.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 8 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

9 Check your answer. Key Ideas & Details (44-52%)
You may arrive at an incorrect solution by This category requires you to read texts closely
making common errors in the problem-solving to determine central ideas and themes;
process. If there is time remaining before the summarize information and ideas accurately;
end of the mathematics section, it is important draw logical inferences and conclusions;
that you reread the questions and check your and show an understanding of relationships,
answers to make sure they are correct. including sequential, comparative, and cause-
effect relationships.
Reading Section Craft & Structure (26-33%)
The reading section measures your ability to
These questions ask you to do the following:
read closely, reason logically about texts using
evidence, and integrate information from y determine word and phrase meanings
multiple sources. y analyze an author’s word choice rhetorically
The questions focus on the mutually supportive y analyze text structure
skills that readers must bring to bear in
studying written materials across a range of
y understand the author’s purpose and
perspective
subject areas. Specifically, questions will ask
you to do the following: y analyze characters’ points of view

y determine main ideas y interpret authorial decisions rhetorically

y locate and interpret significant details y differentiate between various perspectives

and sources of information
y understand sequences of events
y make comparisons Integration of Knowledge & Ideas (19-
y comprehend cause-effect relationships 26%)
y determine the meaning of context- This category requires you to understand
dependent words, phrases, and statements authors’ claims, differentiate between facts
y draw generalizations and opinions, and use evidence to make
connections between different texts that
y analyze the author’s or narrator’s voice and
are related by topic. Some questions will
method
require you to analyze how authors construct
y analyze claims and evidence in arguments arguments and to evaluate reasoning and
y integrate information from multiple texts or evidence from various sources.
formats
The reading section is composed of multiple Visual and Quantitative Information in
parts. Some parts consist of one long prose the Reading Section
passage and others consist of shorter prose One passage may be accompanied by an
passages. The passages represent the levels element like a graph, figure, or table that
and kinds of texts commonly encountered in contains information relevant to the reading
first-year college curricula. task. In the passage containing these visual and
Each passage is preceded by a heading that quantitative elements, some of the questions
identifies the author and source; it may also will ask you to identify or interpret information
include important background information to from the graphic or integrate the information
help you understand the passage. Each portion from the passage and graphic to determine the
contains a set of multiple-choice questions. best answer.
These questions do not test the rote recall
of facts from outside the passage or rules Tips for Taking the Reading Section
of formal logic, nor do they contain isolated
vocabulary questions. In sections that contain
9 Read each passage carefully.
two shorter passages, some of the questions Before you begin answering a question, read
involve both of those passages. all of the content carefully. Be conscious of
relationships between or among ideas. Take
Four scores are reported for the reading
notes about important ideas in the passages.
section: a score for the section overall and
three reporting category scores based on
specific knowledge and skills. The approximate
percentage of the section devoted to each
reporting category is as follows:
©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 9 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
9 Refer to the passages when answering the Interpretation of Data (38-50%)
questions.
This category asks you to manipulate and
Answers to some of the questions will be found analyze scientific data presented in scientific
by referring to what is explicitly stated in the tables, graphs, and diagrams (e.g., recognize
passages. Other questions will require you trends in data, translate tabular data into
to determine implicit meanings and to draw graphs, interpolate and extrapolate, and reason
conclusions, comparisons, and generalizations. mathematically).
Consider the text before you answer any
question. Scientific Investigation (18-32%)
This category requires you to understand
Science Section(optional) experimental tools, procedures, and design
(e.g., identify controls and variables) and
If you are taking the optional science section, it
compare, extend, and modify experiments (e.g.,
will be administered after the reading test. The
predict the results of additional trials).
science section measures the interpretation,
analysis, evaluation, reasoning, and problem- Evaluation of Scientific Arguments
solving skills required in the natural sciences.
The section presents several authentic scientific
and Models with Evidence (24-38%)
scenarios, each followed by a number of These questions ask you to judge the validity
multiple-choice questions. of scientific information and formulate
The content includes biology, chemistry, Earth/ conclusions and predictions based on that
space sciences (e.g., geology, astronomy, information (e.g., determine which explanation
and meteorology), and physics. Advanced for a scientific phenomenon is supported by
knowledge in these areas is not required, but new findings).
background knowledge acquired in general,
The science section presents information in
introductory science courses may be needed to
three formats:
correctly answer some of the questions.
The science section focuses on y Data Representation (26-32%): This format
multidimensional assessment, with questions presents graphic and tabular material
that assess science content in concert with similar to that found in science journals and
science skills and practices. texts. The questions associated with this
format measure skills such as recognizing
The questions require you to:
relationships among data in tables and
y recognize and understand the basic features graphs; interpolating and extrapolating; and
of, and concepts related to, the provided translating tabular data into graphs.
information;
y Research Summaries (50-56%): This format
y examine critically the relationship provides descriptions and results of one or
between the information provided and the more related experiments. The questions focus
conclusions drawn or hypotheses developed; on the design of the experiments and the
and interpretation of experimental results.
y generalize from given information to gain y Conflicting Viewpoints (18-21%): This format
new information, draw conclusions, or make presents two or more explanations for the
predictions. same scientific phenomena that, because they
Note: You are not permitted to use a calculator are based on differing premises or incomplete
in the science section. data, are inconsistent with one another. The
questions focus on the understanding, analysis,
Four scores are reported for the science and comparison of alternative viewpoints or
section: a score for the section overall and hypotheses.
three reporting category scores based on
scientific knowledge, skills, and practices. The Tips for Taking the Science Section
approximate percentage of the section devoted 9 Read the passage carefully.
to each reporting category is as follows: Before you begin answering a question, read
the scientific material provided. It is important
that you read the entire text and examine any
tables, graphs, or figures.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 10 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

You may take notes about important ideas. Development and Support
Some of the information sets will describe
experiments. You should consider the Scores in this domain reflect the ability to
experimental design, including the controls discuss ideas, offer rationale, and bolster an
and variables, because questions are likely to argument. Competent writers explain and
address this component of scientific research. explore their ideas, discuss implications, and
illustrate through examples. They help the
9 Note the different viewpoints in passages. reader understand their thinking about the
Some material will present conflicting issue.
viewpoints, and the questions will ask you to
distinguish among them. It may be helpful for Organization
you to take notes summarizing each viewpoint. Scores in this domain reflect the ability to
organize ideas with clarity and purpose.
Writing Section (Optional) Organizational choices are integral to effective
writing. Competent writers arrange their essay
If you register for the A‌C‌T with writing, you will
in a way that clearly shows the relationship
take the writing section after all the multiple-
between ideas, and they guide the reader
choice sections. Your score in the writing
through their discussion.
section will not affect your scores on the
multiple-choice sections or your Composite
Language Use and Conventions
score.
The writing section is a 40-minute essay test Scores in this domain reflect the ability to use
that measures your writing skills—specifically, written language to convey arguments with
writing skills taught in high school English clarity. Competent writers make use of the
classes and in entry-level college composition conventions of grammar, syntax, word usage,
courses. and mechanics. They are also aware of their
audience and adjust the style and tone of their
The section consists of one writing prompt that
writing to communicate effectively.
describes a complex issue and provides three
different perspectives on the issue. You are Tips for Taking the Writing Section
asked to read the prompt and write an essay
in which you develop your own perspective 9 Pace yourself.
on the issue. Your essay must analyze the Budget your time based on your experience in
relationship between your own perspective and taking essay tests in school or when you have
one or more other perspectives. You may adopt done writing within a time limit. It is unlikely
one of the perspectives given in the prompt that you will have time to draft, revise, and
as your own, or you may introduce one that is recopy your essay.
completely different from those given. Your
score will not be affected by the perspective 9 Plan.
you take on the issue. Before writing, carefully read and consider all
Five scores are reported for the writing section: prompt material. Be sure you understand the
a single subject-level writing score reported issue, the different perspectives on the issue,
on a scale of 2–12 and four domain scores that and your essay task.
are based on an analytic scoring rubric. The Included with the prompt are planning
subject score is the rounded average of the four questions that will help you analyze the
domain scores. The four writing domains are as different perspectives and develop your own.
follows: Use these questions to think critically about the
prompt and generate an effective response.
Ideas and Analysis How would you best organize and support
your ideas in a written argument? Spend time
Scores in this domain reflect the ability to
structuring or outlining your response.
generate productive ideas and engage critically
with multiple perspectives on the given issue. Note: The planning questions are optional and
Competent writers understand the issue they are not scored.
are invited to address, the purpose for writing,
and the audience. They generate ideas that are
relevant to the situation.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 11 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

9 Write. require 2 hours 20 minutes to complete. Take
Establish the focus of your essay by making them in order, in one sitting, with a 10-to-15-
clear your argument and its main ideas. minute break between Tests 2 and 3. If you
take the ACT with science, the four multiple-
y Explain and illustrate your ideas with sound choice sections of the test require 3 hours,
reasoning and meaningful examples. with a 10- to 15- minute break between Tests
y Discuss the significance of your ideas: what 2 and 3.
are the implications of what you have to y You will need only sharpened, soft lead No. 2
say, and why is your argument important to pencils and good erasers. Remove all other
consider? items from your desk. You will not be allowed
to use unapproved scratch paper, but you
As you write, ask yourself if your logic is clear, if can use the test booklet to make notes.
you have supported your claims, and if you have
chosen precise words to communicate your y If you plan to use a permitted calculator on
the mathematics test, use the same one you
ideas.
will use on test day.
9 Review your essay. y Use a digital timer or clock to time yourself
Try to make your essay as polished as you can. on each practice test. Set your timer for
Take a few minutes before time is called to read five minutes less than the time allowed for
over your essay and correct any mistakes. each test so you can get used to the verbal
If you take the A‌C‌T on paper, be sure to write announcement of five minutes remaining.
your essay legibly. If you find words that are y Give yourself only the time allowed for each
hard to read, recopy them. Make corrections test.
and revisions neatly, between the lines. Do not
write in the margins.
y Detach and use the sample answer
document on pages 64–60.
9 Practice. y Read the test directions on the first page
There are many ways to prepare for the writing of each multiple-choice test. These are the
section. Read newspapers and magazines; same directions that will appear in your test
watch or listen to news analyses online, on TV, booklet on test day.
or on the radio; or participate in discussions y Start your timer and begin with Test 1.
and debates, thinking carefully about other Continue through Test 4,if taking the
perspectives in relation to your own. optional science section, or end after Test
One good way to prepare for the writing section 3 if you are not taking the science section.
is to practice writing with different purposes for taking a 10-to-15-minute break between Tests
different audiences. The writing you do in your 2 and 3. Use the timing table on page 2 to
classes will help you, as will writing a personal time each section of the test.
journal, stories, essays, editorials, or other y Score your multiple-choice tests using the
writing you do on your own. information beginning on page 72.
It is also a good idea to practice writing within
a time limit. Taking the practice writing test
y If you plan to take the A‌C‌T with writing, read
the directions on the first page of the practice
will give you a sense of how much additional A‌C‌T writing test (page 81 ). These are the
practice you may need. You might want to take same directions that will appear in your test
the practice writing section even if you do not booklet on test day. Start your timer (set
plan to take the A‌C‌T with writing. It will help for 40 minutes), then read the prompt on
you build skills that are important in college- page 61. After you understand what the
level learning and the world of work. prompt is asking you to do, plan your essay
and then write it on lined paper. On test day, if
you test on paper, your answer document will
Taking the Practice Tests have lined pages on which you will write your
essay. Score your essay using the information
It is a good idea to take the practice tests under on pages 78–80.
conditions as similar as possible to those you
will experience on test day. The following tips
y A screen reader accessible practice test is
available at https://practice.actdigitalservices.
will help you: org/.
y If you are taking the A‌C‌T (without science
or writing), the three multiple-choice tests

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 12 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

 Practice Test 1
EXAMINEE STATEMENTS, CERTIFICATION, AND SIGNATURE
1. Statements: I understand that by registering for, launching, starting, or submitting answer
documents for an ACT ® test, I am agreeing to comply with and be bound by the Terms and
Conditions: Testing Rules and Policies for the ACT ® Test (“Terms”).
I UNDERSTAND AND AGREE THAT THE TERMS PERMIT ACT TO CANCEL MY SCORES IN
CERTAIN CIRCUMSTANCES. THE TERMS ALSO LIMIT DAMAGES AVAILABLE TO ME
AND REQUIRE ARBITRATION OF CERTAIN DISPUTES. BY AGREEING TO ARBITRATION,
ACT AND I BOTH WAIVE THE RIGHT TO HAVE THOSE DISPUTES HEARD BY A JUDGE
OR JURY.
I understand that ACT owns the test questions and responses, and I will not share them with
anyone by any form of communication before, during, or after the test administration. I understand
that taking the test for someone else may violate the law and subject me to legal penalties.
I consent to the collection and processing of personally identifying information I provide, and its
subsequent use and disclosure, as described in the ACT Privacy Policy (www.act.org/privacy.html).
If I am taking the test outside of the United States, I also permit ACT to transfer my personally
identifying information to the United States, to ACT, or to a third-party service provider, where it will
be subject to use and disclosure under the laws of the United States, including being accessible to
law enforcement or national security authorities.
2. Certification: Copy the italicized certification below, then sign, date, and print your name in the
spaces provided.
I agree to the Statements above and certify that I am the person whose information appears on
this form.

Your Signature Today’s Date Print Your Name

Form 25MC1
2025 l 2026
Directions
This booklet contains tests in English, mathematics, Only responses marked on your answer document
reading, and science. These tests measure skills and will be scored. Your score on each test will be based only
abilities highly related to high school course work and on the number of questions you answer correctly during
success in college. Calculators may be used on the the time allowed for that test. You will not be penalized
mathematics test only. for guessing. It is to your advantage to answer every
The questions in each test are numbered, and the question even if you must guess.
suggested answers for each question are lettered. On You may work on each test only when the testing
the answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered staff tells you to do so. If you finish a test before time is
to match the questions, and the ovals in each row are called for that test, you should use the time remaining
lettered to correspond to the suggested answers. to reconsider questions you are uncertain about in that
For each question, first decide which answer is best. test. You may not look back to a test on which time
Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals has already been called, and you may not go ahead
numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the to another test. To do so will disqualify you from the
oval in that row lettered the same as your answer. examination.
Finally, fill in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called
and make your marks heavy and black. Do not use ink at the end of each test. You may not for any reason fill
or a mechanical pencil. in or alter ovals for a test after time is called for that test.
Mark only one answer to each question. If you change To do so will disqualify you from the examination.
your mind about an answer, erase your first mark Do not fold or tear the pages of your test booklet.
thoroughly before marking your new answer. For each
question, make certain that you mark in the row of ovals DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET
with the same number as the question. UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
© 2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved.
NOTE: This test material is the confidential copyrighted property of ACT Education Corp., and may not be
copied, reproduced, sold, scanned, emailed, or otherwise transferred without the prior express written permission
of ACT Education Corp. Violators of ACT Education Corp.’s copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 13 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

1 ENGLISH TEST
1
35 Minutes—50 Questions

DIRECTIONS: In the passages that follow, certain words For each question, choose the alternative you consider
and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the document. Read each passage through once before you
underlined part. You are to choose the best answer to begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
each question. If you think the original version is best, many of the questions, you must read several sentences
choose “No Change.” beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
You will also find questions about a section of the pas- that you have read far enough ahead each time you
sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions choose an alternative.
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.

PASSAGE I

Alex Atala and Brazilian Cuisine

At first, Brazilian chef Alex Atala opened his 1. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
1 acceptable?
restaurant in São Paulo in 1999, people told him he’d A. No Change
B. Years ago,
never succeed. In a country where European cuisine C. When
D. Delete the underlined portion.
was held in the highest regard, they said, no one would

patronize a restaurant serving Brazilian food. Atala, whose

restaurant has consistently ranked among the world’s best,

has long disproven the naysayers. Using traditional

Brazilian ingredients, such as, manioc root and even 2. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
2 acceptable?
F. No Change
G. ingredients—such as manioc root
H. ingredients such as—manioc root
J. ingredients such as, manioc root,

ants—in innovative ways, he has thrilled diners from 3. The writer wants to emphasize the positive experience
3 diners have had at Atala’s restaurant. Which choice
around the world. best accomplishes that goal?
A. No Change
B. mystified
C. shocked
D. startled

Still, Atala felt he could do more for his country 4. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one pro-
4 vides the best transition from the preceding paragraph
and its cuisine. In 2012, he founded Instituto Atá to help to this paragraph?
4
F. No Change
promote lesser-known ingredients, particularly those of G. Atala is known for sometimes incorporating fra-
grances into his dishes as well.
the Amazon basin, while working to protect Brazil’s H. In fact, Atala’s culinary training took place in
classic European restaurants.
biodiversity. Hearts of palm, for example, were typically J. Atala’s obvious affection for his homeland is said
to be infectious.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 14 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1
harvested from Brazil’s wild juçara palms in an
1
unsustainable way. Needing eight years to mature,

the tree dies once its large heart is removed. Atala 5. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
5 acceptable?
began persuading producers to cultivate Amazonian A. No Change
B. tree dies once their
pupunha palms, which grow clusters of stems, each C. trees die once its
D. tree dies once it’s
with a small heart. Careful harvesting ensures that

the tree will live to yield more hearts, resulting in 6. Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s
6 tone?
environmentally friendly production. F. No Change
G. pull through and spawn
Atala prioritizes his working relationships H. continue to churn out
J. keep doling out
with Amazonian tribes. Utilizing their historical

know-how they have, he aims to bolster tribe members’ 7. Which choice is least redundant in context?
7
A. No Change
livelihoods while exposing a wider audience to Brazilian B. knowledge that tribe members know about local
plants,
ingredients. For instance, Baniwa women have farmed C. knowledge of local plants in the area,
D. knowledge of local plants,

distinctly flavorful chili peppers for centuries that use 8. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
8 acceptable?
indigenous agricultural techniques, to create a seasoning F. No Change
G. centuries, which use
called pimenta jiquitaia. Partnering with Instituto Atá H. centuries who use
J. centuries, using

have enabled these women from a remote rain forest region 9. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
9 acceptable?
to scale up production and market their product globally. A. No Change
B. has enabled
C. are enabling
Expanding awareness of the rich diversity of Brazil’s D. enable

native ingredients, Atala continues to lead in deciphering 10. Which choice is clearest and most precise in context?
10
F. No Change
the country’s food culture. With his characteristic passion G. transforming
H. dislocating
and intensity, the renowned chef seeks to inspire Brazilians J. contorting
to rediscover the connections between culture, nature, and

food.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 15 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1
PASSAGE II
1
Rediscovering Hrosvitha

Hrosvitha, a medieval author and dramatist—is 11. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
11 acceptable?
one of the earliest known European women playwrights. A. No Change
B. author and dramatist,
Although little is known about her life, scholars agree C. author, and dramatist
D. author and dramatist
Hrosvitha was born to a noble family around 935 CE.

As a relation of Holy Roman Emperor Otto I, she

most likely spent her early years as part of his court.

Later, sometime before 959 CE, she entered

the abbey at Gandersheim, it was well known 12. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
12 acceptable?
as a significant center of learning. F. No Change
G. Gandersheim and, historically, this abbey was
Hrosvitha entered Gandersheim as a canoness rather H. Gandersheim, it was an abbey
J. Gandersheim, an abbey
than a nun. Her title did not require a vow of poverty,

but Hrosvitha did take the abbey’s customary vow of

chastity, which absolved her of an obligation to marry.

This circumstance made it okay for her to keep her 13. Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s
13 tone?
financial status without incurring responsibilities to A. No Change
B. permitted her to hang on to
C. allowed her to retain
D. let her keep up

a husband and children. Nevertheless, Hrosvitha had 14. Which transition word or phrase is most logical in
14 context?
a greater level of independence—she could acquire F. No Change
G. On the other hand,
property, receive guests, employ servants, and visit H. As a result,
J. In contrast,
the royal court—than most women of her time.

Hrosvitha produced at least eight narrative religious

poems, two historical epics (about the court of Otto I and 15. Which choice best helps indicate that each historical
15 epic covered different subject matter?
Gandersheim), and six comedy-dramas. It is for these A. No Change
B. (each focused on the court of Otto I and
dramas that she is best known today. C. (focusing on the court of Otto I as well as
D. (one about the court of Otto I, the other about

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 16 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1
PASSAGE III
1
A Musical Detour

[1]

Every night while driving home from a hectic

day at work, my three-year-old twins quarreling in the

backseat, I take a short detour. I turn off the gridlocked

highway, onto a stretch of Route 66 that is, surrounded by 16. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
16 acceptable?
arid New Mexico hills. When we’re nearly three miles into F. No Change
G. highway onto a stretch of Route 66, that is,
our detour, I roll down the windows. Looking pointedly H. highway onto a stretch, of Route 66 that is
J. highway onto a stretch of Route 66 that is

into the rearview mirror, windows rolled down, I say 17. Which choice is least redundant in context?
17
A. No Change
something about not throwing anything out of the car, but B. into the rearview mirror, three miles into our
detour,
neither boy is listening. I check my speed. [A] Carefully, I C. behind me by looking into the rearview mirror,
D. into the rearview mirror,
steer toward the fog line. “Here it is, boys!” I yell at the

backseat, the passenger-side tires finding the rumble

strips etched into the asphalt.

[2]

Normal rumble strips create that loud, grating

noise when you drive over them—like a built-in alarm for 18. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion
18 (adjusting the punctuation as needed), the paragraph
drivers who drift too close to the road’s edge. These strips would primarily lose:
18
F. information that indicates how prevalent rumble
are different. The boys abruptly stop their squalling as the strips are on roadways.
G. a detail that reveals the narrator’s opinion of dis-
car begins to vibrate. Then, instead of that jolting warning tracted drivers.
H. information that clarifies a primary function of
noise, we hear the distinct strain of the song “America the rumble strips.
J. a detail that indicates what the rumble strips look
Beautiful.” [B] The road is playing us a song. like.
[3]

I’ve been taking this detour out of Albuquerque

for two years, ever since these musical rumble strips

were installed. City planners wanted to find out whether 19. Which choice is least redundant in context?
19
A. No Change
the novelty of hearing a snippet of song would give B. were implemented just outside Albuquerque.
C. that play music were put in.
drivers an incentive to obey the speed limit; the tune is D. were added a couple years ago.
only recognizable if they’re going a reasonable forty-five

miles per hour. Whether this strategy works, I don’t know.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 17 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1
[C] For me, this brief musical interlude is a charming
1
curiosity, a welcome interruption in my work-week slog.

Even though constant traffic has worn down the musical

rumble strips and warped the sound of some of the notes,

there are currently no plans to restore the strips. 20. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one most
20 effectively leads into the rest of the essay?
F. No Change
G. lots of other drivers, not just me, still make this
detour to hear the tune.
H. sometimes drivers will turn around and drive over
the strips again.
J. this detour on our drive home never fails to buoy
[4] my spirits.

After the last one of the notes fades into the darkening 21. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
21 acceptable?
A. No Change
B. have disappeared
C. disappear
D. fade

sky, I glance back at the boys, who have been lulled by the 22. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
22 acceptable?
wonder of the song. [D] I stop worrying about work, about F. No Change
G. whom have
how many toy cars might have gotten lost between there H. they have
J. whose

and home. Until then, I feel like everything is going to 23. Which transition word or phrase is most logical in
23 context?
A. No Change
B. Now and then,
C. For now,
D. Later,

be just fine. 8 24. At this point, the writer is considering adding the fol-
lowing accurate sentence:
I hear there is another musical road in the US,
somewhere in California.
Should the writer make this addition?
F. Yes, because it makes clear that the narrator has
plans to travel on other musical roads.
G. Yes, because it indicates that the musical road in
New Mexico is not unique.
H. No, because it draws the focus away from the New
Mexico musical road and its effect on the narrator.
J. No, because it fails to provide specific details
about the construction of the musical road in
California.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 18 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1 1
Question 25 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.

25. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the

essay:
It is marvelously quiet.
The sentence would most logically be placed at:
A. Point A in Paragraph 1.
B. Point B in Paragraph 2.
C. Point C in Paragraph 3.
D. Point D in Paragraph 4.

PASSAGE IV

The Case for Visible Storage

[1]

Public museums exist for two main reasons: to

educate the public and provide stewardship (legal and 26. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion, the
26 essay would primarily lose a:
ethical management, care, documentation, and use) of F. suggestion that not all public museums provide
26
proper stewardship for their artifacts.
their collections. Unfortunately, due to space constraints, G. clarification of what public museum stewardship
entails.
a typical museum only exhibits about ten percent of the H. list of reasons for educating the public on
stewardship.
items in its collection; the other ninety percent remains J. description of the daily tasks performed by
curators.

in storage. When displaying such a small portion of 27. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
27 acceptable?
artifacts severely limits public access and therefore public A. No Change
B. With the display of
education. Furthermore, maintaining such a large number C. While displaying
D. Displaying
of artifacts in storage while acquiring additional items

makes finding enough suitable storage space difficult,

especially for delicate items. [A]

[2]

To remain true to the goals of education and

stewardship, museums should dedicate public access

space to visible storage. [B] Also known as open storage,

visible storage provides ways to display many items in 28. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
28 acceptable?
small or irregular spaces, allowing more artifacts to be F. No Change
G. storage makes providing
on exhibit. [C] H. storage, which provides
J. storage, providing

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 19 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1 [3]
1
In a traditional museum display, each

artifact is labeled and positioned at eye level

with plenty of space between it and the other objects. 29. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
29 acceptable?
A. No Change
B. between them
C. among them
D. among it

Subsequently, artifacts in visible storage spaces are placed 30. Which transition word is most logical in context?
30
F. No Change
close together and are often displayed from floor to ceiling G. Conversely,
H. Namely,
with few labels. Areas of a museum that cannot house a J. Granted,
traditional display, therefore, might be ideal for a visible

storage display. Ceramic pottery where it might otherwise 31. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
31 acceptable?
be positioned in individual glass cases might be lined up A. No Change
B. that which
on shelves behind a glass wall. An antique fork and spoon C. that
D. Delete the underlined portion.
fastened to a large informational board might instead be

part of an entire set of silverware arranged under glass

in pull-out cabinet drawers. [D]

[4]

While some artifacts can never be displayed @, 32. At this point, the writer is considering adding the fol-
lowing parenthetical phrase:
(whether because of light sensitivity or the
request of a donor)
Given that the information is accurate, should the
writer make this addition here?
F. Yes, because it gives specific examples to help
explain why some objects can never be displayed
in a museum.
G. Yes, because it offers specific examples of items
that require special storage.
H. No, because it detracts from the paragraph’s focus
on the ideal museum layout.
J. No, because it diminishes the role museums play
in educating the public.

many pieces that can—and should—be viewed are not. 33. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
33 acceptable?
A. No Change
B. can and should—
C. can, and should
D. can and, should

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 20 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1
Whereas a museum designates areas for visible storage, it
1
34. Which choice is clearest and most precise in context?
34
F. No Change
uses space efficiently, providing safe displays for artifacts G. Although
H. When
and allowing visitors greater access to independently study J. Since
the works that make the museum unique.
Question 35 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.

35. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the

essay:
This potentially compromises stewardship.
For the sake of logic and cohesion, the sentence should
be placed at:
A. Point A in Paragraph 1.
B. Point B in Paragraph 2.
C. Point C in Paragraph 2.
D. Point D in Paragraph 3.

PASSAGE V

The Sociable Weavers’ Complex Nest

In the sparse yet relatively green environment of the

Kalahari Desert, birds known as sociable weavers build

their enormous nests atop the desert’s signature camelthorn

trees. Slung across the branches, each nest—which can

measure up to thirteen feet wide and seven feet thick—is

a sprawling community home to hundreds of birds. D 36. If the writer were to delete the phrase “which can mea-
sure up to thirteen feet wide and seven feet thick” from
the preceding sentence (adjusting the punctuation as
needed), the sentence would primarily lose:
F. specific information that illustrates the minimum
height at which the weavers begin building their
nests.
G. specific information that underscores the enor-
mousness of the weavers’ nests.
H. details that clarify how the weavers are able to sur-
vive in the Kalahari Desert.
J. details that explain how the weavers’ nests differ
from other birds’ nests.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 21 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1 A weaver nest does not resemble a common
1
bowl-like bird nest. Although the weavers use

typical materials such as sticks, grass, and feathers

to construct their nests, the nests look more like

disorganized piles. Built within each nest are as 37. The writer wants to emphasize the unusual appearance
37 of the weavers’ nests by using playful language to
many as one hundred four-to-six-inch-wide chambers. evoke a specific image. Which choice best accom-
plishes this goal?
A bird enters a chamber by flying to the underside of the A. No Change
B. carelessly plunked-down haystacks.
C. collections of disparate items.
D. large knots.

nest, it squeezes through a one-inch-wide entrance hole, 38. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
38 acceptable?
and continuing up a passageway to a chamber. In each F. No Change
G. then squeezes
chamber, up to five of the sparrow-sized birds can huddle H. squeezing
J. to squeeze

as a group together when the Kalahari nights get cold. 39. Which choice is least redundant in context?
39
A. No Change
B. all together, staying warm when the temperature
drops and gets colder at night.
The multi-chamber construction of the weaver nest C. and stay warm when temperatures plummet at
night and it’s cold.
has drawn comparisons to that of an apartment building. D. for warmth during the cold Kalahari nights.

Indeed, the nests exemplify communal living at there most 40. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
40 acceptable?
effective. Each one houses multiple generations of birds, F. No Change
G. when its at it’s
all of whom work together to maintain their home. H. at it’s
J. at its

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 22 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1
PASSAGE VI
1
The Artful Stitch of Paj Ntaub

She depicts flowers with layers of petals, intricate

spirals and rosettes, teardrops bending within circles, and

dizzying mazes of lines—embroidering them in vibrant 41. Which choice best maintains the stylistic pattern of
41 descriptions established earlier in the sentence?
reds, blues, pinks, yellows, and greens on fabric of delicate A. No Change
B. something with a dizzying effect—
silk or cotton. Pang Xiong Sirirathasuk Sikoun is a master C. mazes that she creates—
D. so many lines—
of paj ntaub, or “flower cloth” embroidery, the most

difficult of the century’s-oldest Hmong needlework arts. 42. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
42 acceptable?
F. No Change
G. centuries-old
H. centuries’-old
J. century’s-old

Paj ntaub is increasingly made in lighter, softer shades 43. The writer is considering deleting the underlined sen-
43 tence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
today. She’s been creating stitched textiles since she was a A. Kept, because it compares Pang Xiong’s embroi-
43
dery style with that of modern paj ntaub.
young woman living in northern Laos. For the past several B. Kept, because it places the subject of the essay in a
modern context.
decades, she’s been designing paj ntaub in Philadelphia, C. Deleted, because it detracts from the paragraph’s
focus on the various styles of ancient Hmong
Pennsylvania, where she also teaches her craft. needlework arts.
D. Deleted, because it adds a detail that is irrelevant
to the paragraph’s introduction of Pang Xiong’s
connection to paj ntaub.

Flower cloth (commonly as a shirt, 44. The best placement for the underlined portion would be:
44
F. where it is now.
dress, coat, or collar) is made to be worn G. after the word made.
44
H. after the word clothing.
as clothing and, depending on the amount J. after the word needlework.
of needlework on the piece, is designed either

for everyday wear or for a special occasion.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 23 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1
With pattern names such as “elephant’s foot” and
1
“snail house” and images of animals framed by

geometric designs, paj ntaub patterns are versatile. 45. Which choice most clearly builds on the information
45 provided earlier in the sentence about a common theme
What distinguishes paj ntaub from other Hmong in paj ntaub patterns and images?
A. No Change
needlework arts are the artist’s use of tiny, tight B. only a master artist is able to create paj ntaub
clothing for special occasions.
stitches and several complex techniques. One C. paj ntaub patterns are extraordinarily colorful.
D. paj ntaub celebrates the natural world.

technique is reverse appliqué, in which shapes 46. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
46 acceptable?
are cut out from, rather than added on top of, F. No Change
G. appliqué which
the embroidered fabric. Another is elaborate H. appliqué and
J. appliqué,
overstitching: thousands of layered stitches

are applied to its surface. 47. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
47 acceptable?
A. No Change
B. the surface of the fabric.
C. the surface of it.
Pang Xiong regrets that most people she knows D. their surface.

today wear only regular clothes. When she was growing 48. The writer is considering revising the underlined por-
48 tion to the following:
up in Laos, she explains, she had few items of clothing, mass-produced
but each garment she owned was handcrafted paj ntaub. Should the writer make this revision?
F. Yes, because the revision creates a clearer contrast
between the homogeneous styles of clothing that
are popular today and the handcrafted paj ntaub.
G. Yes, because the revision emphasizes Pang Xiong’s
desire for her handcrafted paj ntaub to be sold on a
large scale in stores.
H. No, because the original word reinforces the idea
that although paj ntaub clothing can be used for
everyday wear, it should be saved for special
occasions.
J. No, because the original word more specifically
describes the type of clothing Pang Xiong disap-
proves of.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 24 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
1
However, she still wears flower cloth every day and
1
49. Which transition word or phrase, if any, is most logical
49 in context?
would like to inspire others to do so. Pang Xiong teaches A. No Change
B. For example, she
paj ntaub in art museums—including at the Smithsonian C. Besides, she
D. She
Institution, where some of her textiles are on permanent

display—and in community settings around Philadelphia.

R Pang Xiong is showing a new generation the joys of 50. Which of the following true statements, if added here,
would best build on the ideas presented in this para-
paj ntaub and beautiful handcrafted clothing. graph and connect to the final sentence of the essay?
F. She loves when people, no matter what their eth-
nicity, wear traditional clothing every day.
G. She often teaches paj ntaub to Hmong adults her
age who want to learn new techniques.
H. Recently, she worked with nine young Hmong
women in a formal apprenticeship.
J. One of her own favorite pieces tells the story of
her family.

END OF TEST 1
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 25 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

2 MATHEMATICS TEST
2
50 Minutes—45 Questions

DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct but some of the problems may best be done without
answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your using a calculator.
answer document. Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should
Do not linger over problems that take too much time. be assumed.
Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in 1. Illustrative figures are not necessarily drawn to scale.
the time you have left for this test. 2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.
You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You 3. The word “line” indicates a straight line.
may use your calculator for any problems you choose, 4. The word “average” indicates arithmetic mean.

1. Cameron took 4 tests, and his scores were as follows: DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
100, 60, 80, and 30. Cameron took another test that was
scored x. The mean score of the 5 tests he took is 72.
What is the value of x?
A. 54
B. 67.5
C. 68.4
D. 90

2. In the Venn diagram below, circles S, C, and P represent

farms raising sheep, cows, and pigs, respectively. How
many of the 47 farms represented in the diagram do
not raise cows?
S C
13
12 10
1
2 4
5
P
F. 15
G. 17
H. 18
J. 19

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 26 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
2
3. Marco designs a spinner wheel that has exactly DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
4 sections: red, blue, green, and yellow. He wants the
spinner wheel to have a 25% chance of landing on each
section. He spins the wheel 500 times. The results of
the spins are shown in this table.

Spinner Number of times

wheel the spinner lands
section in each section
Red 80
Blue 165
Green 130
Yellow 125

Based on the results in this table, one of the following

changes would be the best fix. Which one?
A. He should decrease the area of the red section by
increasing the area of the blue section.
B. He should increase the area of the red section by
decreasing the area of the blue section.
C. He should increase the area of the red section by
decreasing the area of any of the other three
sections.
D. He should decrease the area of the blue section,
and then it does not matter which section’s area is
increased.

4. In nABC, ∠A and ∠C are congruent, and the measure of

∠B is 143.6°. What is the measure of ∠A?
F. 18.2°
G. 36.4°
H. 71.8°
J. 143.6°

5. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to

x2 − x − 30?
A. (x + 3)(x − 10)
B. (x + 6)(x − 5)
C. (x − 6)(x + 5)
D. (x − 15)(x − 15)

6. Which of the following matrices is equal to 5[−4 2 ]?

0 −5

F. [−20 −15]

G. [−10]
−25

H. [1 7]
5 0

[ 0 −25]
−20 10
J.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 27 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
27. Lavonne purchased some tickets and snack vouchers for DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
an upcoming event and gave them to the members of
her work group. Each member of her work group
received the same number of tickets and the same
number of snack vouchers. The total number of tickets
she gave to her group was 30, and the total number of
snack vouchers was 75. Which of the following could
be the number of members in Lavonne’s work group?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 30

8. The initial speed, in miles per hour, of a certain car that

skids to a stop can be estimated by multiplying the
length of the skid, in feet, by 35 and then taking the
square root of the product. According to this method,
what is the estimated initial speed, in miles per hour,
of the car when it makes a 108-foot skid?
_
F. √ 143
_
G. 7√_105
H. 6√ 105
_
J. 210√ 3

9. If 6y = 5x − 1, then x = ?

A. _6 y − 1
5

B. _6 y + 1
5
_6y − 1
C.
5
_6y + 1
D.
5

10. A boat is traveling at a speed of 30 miles per hour. What

is the boat’s speed in feet per second?
(Note: 1 mile = 5,280 feet)
F. 20
G. 30
H. 44
J. 176

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 28 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
2
11. An object is launched vertically at 30 meters per DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
second from a 55-meter-tall platform. The height,
h(t) meters, of the object t seconds after launch is
modeled by h(t) = −4.9t 2 + 30t + 55. What will be the
height, in meters, of the object 3 seconds after launch?
A. 44.1
B. 100.9
C. 145
D. 189.1

12. The whole numbers 1 through 30 were each written

on separate pieces of paper. Those 30 pieces of paper
were put into a jar. One piece of paper will be
randomly drawn from this jar. What is the probability
that this piece of paper will have a prime number
written on it?
1
F. _
30
1
G. _
20
1
H. _
10

J. 10
_
30

13. For an angle with measure α in a right triangle,

5 and tan α = _
sin α = _ 5 . What is the value of cos α?
13 12
12
A. _
13
12
B. _
_
√ 194
_
C. _ 12
√ 119
13
D. _
12

14. Which of the following values, if any, is the y-value of

the solution set to the system of equations below?
2x − y = 7
−4x + 2y = 2
F. 2
G. 5
H. 9
J. There is no such value for y.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 29 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
2
15. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
(y + 7) 3?
A. y3 + 21y2 + 147y + 343
B. y3 + 14y + 343
C. y3 + 14y + 49
D. y3 + 343

16. The sum of 3 positive integers is 180, and the ratio of

the integers is 5:3:2. What is the value of the smallest
of the integers?
F. 18
G. 36
H. 54
J. 90

17. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to

(x2 − y2) − (6x2 + 4xy − y2)?
A. −5x2 − 4xy
B. −5x2 + 4xy − 2y2
C. 7x2 + 4xy − 2y2
D. 7x2 + 4xy + 2y2

_ _ _
18. Given i = √ −1 , what is √ 9 + √ −16 ?
F. 7i
_
G. i √7
H. 3 − 4i
J. 3 + 4i

19. The first 5 terms of an arithmetic sequence are 7, 21,

35, 49, and 63. Let tn represent the nth term of the
sequence. What is the value of t25?
A. 175
B. 343
C. 357
D. 371

20. At a certain time of day, a flagpole casts a 9.0-foot-long

shadow and a nearby 4.0-foot-tall fence post casts a
2.4-foot-long shadow. Given that both the flagpole and
the fence post are vertical and on level ground, what is
the height, in feet, of the flagpole?
F. 5.4
G. 10.6
H. 15.0
J. 15.4

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 30 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
2
21. In rectangle ABCD shown, segments BE ‾ and CE‾ DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
partition the rectangle into 3 triangles. Given
DE = 7 centimeters, BE = 26 centimeters, and
CE = 25 centimeters, what is the length, in
‾?
centimeters, of BC
A B

26
E
25
7

D C
A. 10
B. 15
C. 17
D. 24

22. In a particular cleaning solution, the ratio of concen-

trated solution to water is 3:40. How many cups of
concentrated solution should be added to 5 gallons of
water to make the cleaning solution in the given ratio?
(Note: 4 cups = 1 quart; 4 quarts = 1 gallon)

F. 12

G. 6

H. 1 _12

J. 3
_
8

23. Let f (t) = 7e3t + 1. Which of the following numbers is

closest to the value of f (5)?
A. −2 × 10 −1
B. 3 × 10 2
C. 2 × 10 7
D. 6 × 10 7

24. Which of the following expresses 40° in radians?

2
F. _
9π
2π
G. _
9
9π
H. _
2
7,200
_
J. π

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 31 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
2
25. Let the function f be defined as f (x) = −9x2. In the DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
standard (x,y) coordinate plane, the graph of y = f (x)
undergoes a transformation such that the result is the
graph of y = f (x) − 4. Under this transformation the
graph of y = f (x) is:
A. shifted downward 4 coordinate units.
B. shifted left 4 coordinate units.
C. stretched horizontally by a factor of 4.
D. stretched vertically by a factor of 4.

26. For all positive values of a, b, c, and d, when

1 ab 2 + c = d, which of the following expressions is
_
2
equal to b?
_
a(d − c)
F. √__
2
2(d − c)
G. √_ a
_
2d − c
H. √_ a
_
d−c
J. √_2a

27. On a trip, 2 sisters counted 1,430 vehicles. They divided

the vehicles into categories: cars, trucks, and other.
They noted the color of each as white, black, red, or
other, as shown in the table. What is the probability
that a randomly selected truck is black?

White Black Red Other Total

Car 118 62 97 197 474
Truck 100 31 116 232 479
Other 86 85 94 212 477
Total 304 178 307 641 1,430

31
A. _
178
31
B. _
479
31
C. _
1,430
479
D. _
1,430

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 32 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
2
28. A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle with diameter DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
18 inches, as shown. What is the perimeter, in inches,
of the hexagon?

18 in

F. 54
G. 108_
H. 27√_3
J. 54√ 3

29. Tanya earns $34,000 in her 1st year at a job. She is

given a raise of the same dollar amount each year,
resulting in her earning $38,080 in the 4th year at the
job. What is the total of Tanya’s earnings during her
4 years at the job?
A. $136,000
B. $140,080
C. $144,160
D. $152,320

30. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, how many points

are both 5 coordinate units from the origin and also
2 coordinate units from the line y = 0?
F. 0
G. 1
H. 2
J. 4

31. In nABC, if the measure of ∠A is less than the measure

of ∠B, and the measure of ∠B is less than the measure
of ∠C, what is the correct ordering of the side lengths,
from least to greatest?
A. AB < BC < AC
B. AB < AC < BC
C. BC < AC < AB
D. BC < AB < AC

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 33 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
2
32. Lajuan sells exactly 4 kinds of pies in his bakery: DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
apple, pecan, coconut cream, and peach. Of the pies he
sold on Thursday, _1 were apple, _1 were pecan, 24
4 2
were coconut cream, and 8 were peach. How many
total pies did Lajuan sell on Thursday?

F. 40
G. 42
H. 56
J. 128

33. In a certain quadrilateral, 2 opposite angles each

measure (3x + 5)°. The other 2 opposite angles each
measure (x + 3)°. What is the value of x?
A. 1
B. 9
C. 43
D. 88

34. The first 4 terms of a sequence are shown in the

table. The sequence is defined by a1 = 2 and
an = an − 1 + (n − 1) 2 for n ≥ 2. What is the sixth term, a6,
of this sequence?

a1 a2 a3 a4
2 3 7 16

F. 68
G. 57
H. 41
J. 32

35. On the real number line, how many integers are between
65 and _
−_ 75 ?
6 2
A. 8
B. 28
C. 48
D. 140

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 34 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
2
36. During a particular experiment, 2 events, A and B, can DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
each occur. Events A and B are mutually exclusive
during this experiment. Which of the following
probabilities is 0?
F. P(A)
G. P(B)
H. P(A or B)
J. P(A and B)

37. The polynomial function defined by

p(x) = x3 + x2 − 8x − 12 has (x − 3) as one of its
linear factors. What are all and only the zeros of p?
A. −3 and −2
B. −3 and 2
C. −2 and 3
D. 2 and 3

38. Jonathan rode his bike every day for 18 days. The table
shows each of the distances he rode. The table also
shows the number of days he rode each of those
distances.

Distance Number
(in miles) of days
1 2
3 4
4 3
5 6
7 3

What is the median daily distance, in miles, that

Jonathan rode his bike for the 18 days?
F. 3
G. 3.5
H. 4
J. 4.5

39. A tourism organization randomly selected 100 tourists

finishing their summer visit to Spain. The organization
asked them how many cities they had toured in the
country. The table shows the results. Based on these
data, for the population of tourists that visited Spain
during the summer, what is the best estimate of the
mean number of cities toured?

Number of cities 1 2 3
Number of tourists 10 40 50

A. 0.8
B. 2
C. 2.4
D. 3

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 35 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
2 4_
40. Given the equation √ x = y, where y is a real number, DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
what must be true of x? x is:
F. an even real number.
G. a rational number.
H. an integer.
J. a nonnegative real number.

41. Given that 1 ≤ m ≤ 4, 4 ≤ n ≤ 6, and 8 ≤ p ≤ 10, what is

n ( p )?
m) _
the greatest possible value for ( _ 1

3
A. _
20
1
B. _
15
1
C. _
10

D. _1
8

42. Which of the following datasets has the largest standard

deviation?
F. 0, 0, 10, 10
G. 0, 1, 9, 10
H. 2, 3, 5, 7
J. 5, 5, 5, 5

43. Michael has a cylindrical fish tank, shown, that has an

inside diameter of 18 inches. When he put colored
gravel in his fish tank, the water level of the tank rose
2 inches. What is the volume of the gravel in cubic
inches?

18 in
A. 18π
B. 36π
C. 162π
D. 648π

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 36 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
2
44. The table gives values of f (x), g(x), and h(x) for all DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
positive integers x ≤ 5. Given h( f (g(a))) = 1 where a is
a positive integer less than or equal to 5, what is the
value of a?

x f (x) g(x) h(x)

1 2 4 3
2 1 5 1
3 4 2 5
4 5 3 4
5 3 1 2

F. 2
G. 3
H. 4
J. 5

45. Each time Coin C is tossed, it lands faceup or facedown.

The probability of landing faceup is 3 times the
probability of landing facedown. In a certain game, the
player wins $1.00 when Coin C lands faceup and
the player wins $2.00 when Coin C lands facedown. To
the nearest cent, what is the expected value of each
toss of Coin C in this game?
A. $1.25
B. $1.33
C. $1.50
D. $1.67

END OF TEST 2
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 37 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

3 READING TEST
3
40 Minutes—36 Questions

DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.

Each passage is accompanied by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.

Passage I with opulence loved it just as much. But the bowl was
not at all ostentatious, or even so noticeable that anyone
LITERARY NARRATIVE: This passage is adapted from the would suspect that it had been put in place deliberately.
short story “Janus” by Ann Beattie (©1985 by The New Yorker 45 They might notice the height of the ceiling on first
Magazine, Inc.). entering a room, and only when their eye moved down
from that, or away from the refraction of sunlight on a
The bowl was perfect. Perhaps it was not what pale wall, would they see the bowl. Then they would go
you’d select if you faced a shelf of bowls, and not the immediately to it and comment. Yet they always fal-
sort of thing that would inevitably attract a lot of atten- 50 tered when they tried to say something. Perhaps it was
tion at a crafts fair, yet it had real presence. It was as because they were in the house for a serious reason, not
5 predictably admired as a mutt who has no reason to sus- to notice some object.
pect he might be funny. Just such a dog, in fact, was
often brought out (and in) along with the bowl. Once, Andrea got a call from a woman who had
not put in an offer on a house she had shown her. That
Andrea was a real-estate agent, and when she 55 bowl, she said—would it be possible to find out where
thought that some prospective buyers might be dog- the owners had bought that beautiful bowl? Andrea pre-
10 lovers, she would drop off her dog at the same time she tended that she did not know what the woman was
placed the bowl in the house that was up for sale. She referring to. A bowl, somewhere in the house? Oh, on a
would put a dish of water in the kitchen for Mondo, table under the window. Yes, she would ask, of course.
take his squeaking plastic frog out of her purse and 60 She let a couple of days pass, then called back to say
drop it on the floor. He would pounce delightedly, just that the bowl had been a present and the people did not
15 as he did every day at home, batting around his favorite know where it had been purchased.
toy. The bowl usually sat on a coffee table, though
recently she had displayed it on top of a pine blanket She was sure that the bowl brought her luck. Bids
chest and on a lacquered table. It was once placed on a were often put in on houses where she had displayed
cherry table beneath a glorious still-life painting, where 65 the bowl. Sometimes the owners, who were always
20 it held its own. asked to be away or to step outside when the house was
being shown, didn’t even know that the bowl had been
Everyone who has purchased a house or who has in their house. Once—she could not imagine how—she
wanted to sell a house must be familiar with some of left it behind, and then she was so afraid that something
the tricks used to convince a buyer that the house is 70 might have happened to it that she rushed back to the
quite special: a fire in the fireplace in early evening; house and sighed with relief when the owner opened
25 jonquils in a pitcher on the kitchen counter, where no the door. The bowl, Andrea explained—she had pur-
one ordinarily has space to put flowers; perhaps the chased a bowl and set it on the chest for safekeeping
slight aroma of spring, made by a single drop of scent while she toured the house with the prospective buyers,
vaporizing from a lamp bulb. 75 and she . . . She felt like rushing past the frowning
woman and seizing her bowl. The owner stepped aside.
The wonderful thing about the bowl, Andrea In the few seconds before Andrea picked up the bowl,
30 thought, was that it was both subtle and noticeable—a she realized that the owner must have just seen that it
paradox of a bowl. Its glaze was the color of cream and had been perfectly placed, that the sunlight struck the
seemed to glow no matter what light it was placed in. 80 bluer part of it. Her pitcher had been moved to the far
There were a few bits of color in it—tiny geometric side of the chest, and the bowl predominated. All the
flashes—and some of these were tinged with flecks of way home, Andrea wondered how she could have left
35 silver. They were as mysterious as cells seen under a the bowl behind. It was like leaving a friend at an
microscope; it was difficult not to study them, because outing—just walking off. Sometimes there were stories
they shimmered, flashing for a split second, and then 85 in the paper about families forgetting a child some-
resumed their shape. Something about the colors and where and driving to the next city. Andrea had only
their random placement suggested motion. People who gone a mile down the road before she remembered.
40 liked country furniture always commented on the bowl,
but then it turned out that people who felt comfortable

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 38 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
3
1. The point of view from which the passage is told is best
3
5. In the passage, Andrea is characterized as believing that
described as that of a: compared to most tricks used by real estate agents to
A. first person narrator, present in the action, who impress potential buyers, her trick of placing the bowl
relates events as they happen. in a home is:
B. first person narrator, not present in the action, who A. more humorous to potential buyers.
relates events that happened in the past. B. more obvious to potential buyers.
C. third person narrator, present in the action, who C. less familiar to potential buyers.
relates the thoughts and feelings of many characters. D. less enticing to potential buyers.
D. third person narrator, not present in the action,
who relates the thoughts and feelings of primarily 6. According to the passage, the random placement of
one character. colors in the bowl’s glaze creates a surface that:
F. acts as a mirror.
G. seems to move.
H. appears cracked in the sunlight.
2. The passage as a whole can best be described as an J. scatters prisms on the walls of a room.
exploration of the:
F. career of a real estate agent and the agent’s typi- 7. One main point of the fifth paragraph (lines 53–62) is
cally mundane transactions with clients. that:
G. special glaze on a bowl and why the glaze makes A. Andrea’s bowl sometimes attracts more interest
the bowl both subtle and noticeable. than does the house itself.
H. perceived perfection of an object and that object’s B. Andrea’s bowl does not actually belong to her, but
effect on people. she hopes to find its owner.
J. problems that can result from a person’s unyield- C. Andrea is often asked about the bowl when a client
ing focus on obtaining material goods. puts in an offer on a house.
D. Andrea sometimes forgets where in a house she
has placed the bowl.

8. In the passage, the admiration the bowl receives is

3. The passage most strongly suggests that a useful charac- directly compared to the admiration received by:
teristic of the bowl, in terms of Andrea’s purpose for
the object, is the bowl’s: F. a mutt.
G. a plastic frog.
A. universal appeal. H. a cherry table.
B. famous designer. J. the aroma of spring.
C. ostentatious look.
D. commercial availability. 9. The passage suggests that one reason prospective home
buyers have difficulty sharing their thoughts about the
bowl is that they realize:
A. they are not visiting the home for the purpose of
4. In lines 53–75, Andrea responds to an inquiry about her noticing decorative objects.
bowl and explains why her bowl was placed in a client’s B. they do not want to reveal that they have the finan-
home with statements that can best be described as: cial means to buy the bowl.
F. vague generalizations. C. Andrea might start talking about the bowl instead
G. absolute truths. of discussing the home that is for sale.
H. half-truths. D. Andrea might find the bowl even more intriguing
J. lies. than they do.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 39 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
3
Passage II What the Dutch could not have known was that a
3
55 virus was responsible for the magic of the broken tulip,
INFORMATIONAL: This passage is from the book The Botany a fact that, as soon as it was discovered, doomed the
of Desire: A Plant’s-Eye View of the World by Michael Pollan. beauty it had made possible. The color of a tulip actu-
ally consists of two pigments working in concert—a
Originally cultivated in the Ottoman Empire, tulips were intro-
duced to Europe at the end of the sixteenth century and base color that is always yellow or white and a second,
became wildly popular in the seventeenth century. 60 laid-on color called an anthocyanin; the mix of these
two hues determines the unitary color we see. The virus
One crucial element of the beauty of the tulip that works by partially and irregularly suppressing the
intoxicated the Dutch, the Turks, the French, and the anthocyanin, thereby allowing a portion of the under-
English has been lost to us. To them the tulip was a lying color to show through. It wasn’t until the 1920s,
magic flower because it was prone to spontaneous and 65 after the invention of the electron microscope, that sci-
5 brilliant eruptions of color. In a planting of a hundred entists discovered the virus was being spread from tulip
tulips, one of them might be so possessed, opening to to tulip by Myzus persicae, the peach potato aphid.
reveal the white or yellow ground of its petals painted, Peach trees were a common feature of seventeenth-
as if by the finest brush and steadiest hand, with intri- century gardens.
cate feathers or flames of a vividly contrasting hue.
10 When this happened, the tulip was said to have 70 By the 1920s the Dutch regarded their tulips as
“broken,” and if a tulip broke in a particularly striking commodities to trade rather than jewels to display, and
manner—if the flames of the applied color reached since the virus weakened the bulbs it infected (the
clear to the petal’s lip, say, and its pigment was bril- reason the offsets of broken tulips were so small and
liant and pure and its pattern symmetrical—the owner few in number), Dutch growers set about ridding their
15 of that bulb had won the lottery. For the offsets of that 75 fields of the infection. Color breaks, when they did
bulb would inherit its pattern and hues and command a occur, were promptly destroyed, and a certain peculiar
fantastic price. The fact that broken tulips for some manifestation of natural beauty abruptly lost its claim
unknown reason produced fewer and smaller offsets on human affection.
than ordinary tulips drove their prices still higher.
20 Semper Augustus was the most famous such break. I can’t help thinking that the virus was supplying
80 something the tulip needed, just the touch of abandon
The closest we have to a broken tulip today is the the flower’s chilly formality called for. Maybe that’s
group known as the Rembrandts—so named because why the broken tulip became such a treasure in
Rembrandt painted some of the most admired breaks of seventeenth-century Holland: the wayward color loosed
his time. But these latter-day tulips, with their heavy on a tulip by a good break perfected the flower, even as
25 patterning of one or more contrasting colors, look 85 the virus responsible set about destroying it.
clumsy by comparison, as if painted in haste with a
thick brush. To judge from the paintings we have of the On its face the story of the virus and the tulip
originals, the petals of broken tulips could be as fine would seem to throw a wrench into any evolutionary
and intricate as marbleized papers, the extravagant understanding of beauty.
30 swirls of color somehow managing to seem both bold
and delicate at once. In the most striking examples— Excerpt from THE BOTANY OF DESIRE: A PLANT’S-EYE VIEW OF
THE WORLD by Michael Pollan, copyright © 2001 by Michael Pollan.
such as the fiery carmine that Semper Augustus Used by permission of Random House, an imprint and division of Pen-
splashed on its pure white ground—the outbreak of guin Random House LLC. All rights reserved.
color juxtaposed with the orderly, linear form of the
35 tulip could be breathtaking, with the leaping, wayward
patterns just barely contained by the petal’s edge.

Anna Pavord recounts the extraordinary lengths to

which Dutch growers would go to make their tulips
break, sometimes borrowing their techniques from
40 alchemists, who faced what must have seemed a com-
parable challenge. Over the earth above a bed planted
with white tulips, gardeners would liberally sprinkle
paint powders of the desired hue, on the theory that
rainwater would wash the color down to the roots,
45 where it would be taken up by the bulb. Charlatans sold 10. The main purpose of the passage is to:
recipes believed to produce the magic color breaks; F. highlight changes in the flower industry from the
pigeon droppings were thought to be an effective agent, seventeenth century through today.
as was plaster dust taken from the walls of old houses. G. examine the way certain plants have been repre-
Unlike the alchemists, whose attempts to change base sented in art over the centuries.
50 metals into gold reliably failed, now and then the H. provide an overview of plant viruses and the way
would-be tulip changers would be rewarded with a they affect the flower market.
good break, inspiring everybody to redouble their J. explain a particular flower variation and how it
efforts. has been perceived historically.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 40 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
3
11. The main point of the second paragraph (lines 21–36) is
3
15. According to the passage, in the seventeenth century,
that: the fact that broken tulip bulbs tended to produce
A. modern Rembrandt tulips have been painted by fewer and smaller offsets compared to typical tulip
many of today’s most famous artists. bulbs resulted in:
B. compared to seventeenth-century broken tulips, A. a decrease in the demand for broken tulips.
today’s multicolored tulips are less visually B. a fear among growers that broken tulips were
appealing. diseased.
C. the tulip break known as Semper Augustus was a C. an increase in prices for broken tulips.
striking example of the seventeenth-century broken D. a desire among growers to plant a wider variety of
tulip. crops.
D. Rembrandt was responsible for painting the most
famous tulip breaks of his time.
16. In the passage, the author compares broken tulips as
12. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that some they are represented in Rembrandt’s paintings to:
seventeenth-century tulip growers believed tulip breaks F. peach-tree blossoms.
were mainly caused by: G. paint powders sprinkled on the ground.
F. suppliers’ storage conditions. H. a painting hastily done with a thick brush.
G. diseased tulip bulbs. J. intricately marbleized papers.
H. certain growing techniques.
J. certain weather patterns.
17. The passage author most likely mentions that peach
13. The information in lines 57–64 primarily functions to: trees were a staple of seventeenth-century gardens to:
A. describe the range of potential tulip colors. A. highlight a crop favored by growers who did not
B. explain how the color variation in a broken tulip cultivate tulips.
occurs. B. emphasize that peach trees are not as popular in
C. argue that yellow and white are the only natural gardens today.
tulip colors. C. explain how peach potato aphids spread the tulip
D. indicate why broken tulips contain no anthocyanin. virus.
D. compare tulips to another popular seventeenth-
14. The sixth paragraph (lines 79–85) differs from the rest century crop.
of the passage in that it:
F. questions whether the virus that caused broken
tulips was harmful to bulbs. 18. As it is used in line 80, the word abandon most nearly
G. argues that growers should have dealt with broken means:
tulips differently. F. uninhibitedness.
H. challenges the idea that broken tulips were G. relinquishment.
beautiful. H. retreat.
J. presents a personal meditation on broken tulips. J. denial.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 41 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
3
Passage III Passage B by Steve Stoute
3
INFORMATIONAL:Passage A is from the book It wasn’t until I was nine years old, late in 1979,
Foundation: B-Boys, B-Girls, and Hip-Hop Culture in New that I even heard the words “hip” and “hop” strung
York by Joseph G. Schloss (©2009 by Oxford University together or was able to grasp the notion of what being a
Press). Passage B is from the book The Tanning of America:
How Hip-Hop Created a Culture That Rewrote the Rules of 50 rapper actually meant. That was when, fatefully, I heard
the New Economy by Steve Stoute with Mim Eichler Rivas a record that changed my life (and pop culture) forever.
(©2011 by Steve Stoute).
Like it’s yesterday, I can still remember that
Passage A by Joseph G. Schloss moment over at my aunt’s home in Brooklyn—where it
seemed there was always a party under way with rela-
The term b-boying refers to break dancing. 55 tives and neighbors hanging out, a great spread of food,
and new, hot music on the record player. Most stereo
In the first sense of the term, hip-hop refers collec- systems in those days could be adapted for the single
tively to a group of related art forms in different media two-sided records that were smaller and had the big
(visual, sound, movement) that were practiced in Afro- hole in the middle (45 RPM) as well as the bigger
5 Caribbean, African American, and Latino neighbor- 60 records with the small holes (33⅓ RPM)—which were
hoods in New York City in the 1970s. The term, when the full albums that had several songs on each side.
used in this sense, also refers to the events at which
these forms were practiced, the people who practiced But as the intro plays to what I recognize as “Good
them, their shared aesthetic sensibility, and contempo- Times” by the group Chic and I’m drawn into the living
rary activities that maintain those traditions. room because it’s a familiar hit song from the previous
10 65 summer, I encounter a record on the turntable that
Perhaps the most important aspect of this variety defies categorization. Instead of the sweet female lead
of hip-hop is that it is unmediated, in the sense that vocals of that disco smash, I hear something totally dif-
most of the practices associated with it are both taught ferent and spot a baby-blue label on the black vinyl
and performed in the context of face-to-face interac- record I’ve never seen before. Even though it’s a
15 tions between human beings. To some degree, this con- 70 twelve-inch disc, the size of an album, as I listen to the
stitutes an intentional rejection of the mass media by its rhyming words being spoken—“Singin’ on ’n’ ’n’ on
practitioners, but to a great extent it is just the natural ’n’ on / The beat don’t stop until the break of dawn /
result of the practices themselves. Activities like Singin’ on ’n’ ’n’ on ’n’ on on ’n’ on / Like a hot but-
b-boying and graffiti writing are simply not well suited tered a pop da pop da pop dibbie dibbie pop da pop
20 to the mass media. Although in both cases, brief 75 pop / Ya don’t dare stop”—it hits me that this entire
attempts were made to bring these forms of expression side is one long song.
into mainstream contexts (b-boying in a series of low-
budget “breaksploition” movies in the early 1980s and Almost fifteen minutes long as it turns out. Or, to
graffiti as part of a short-lived gallery trend around the be exact, fourteen minutes and thirty-six seconds of
25 same time), neither developed substantially in those pure fun laid over the thumping bass beat from the
environments. This, it has been suggested, was not so 80 break of “Good Times” with sing-along words easy to
much because the forms lacked appeal, but because— remember and repeat. The record, I discover, is by an
on an economic level—b-boying was an advertisement unknown group, the Sugarhill Gang, and is called
with no product. This reality is reflected in the phrase “Rapper’s Delight.”
30 that is often used to refer to this branch of hip-hop:
“hip-hop culture,” which suggests something that is From then on, nobody ever has to tell me what rap
lived rather than bought and sold. 85 is. It’s whatever words are spoken, chanted, or talk-
sung, or whatever philosophies, stories, or ideas are
The second sense of the term hip-hop refers to a espoused, by the house party Master of Ceremonies.
form of popular music that developed, or was devel-
35 oped, out of hip-hop culture. This hip-hop, also known
as “rap music,” resulted from the interaction between
hip-hop culture and the preexisting music industry. As
we would expect, this hip-hop features elements of both
sensibilities. My students are often surprised when I
40 point out that, even when hip-hop lyrics seem to reject 19. According to Passage A, one reason elements of hip-hop
every aspect of mainstream culture and morality, the culture such as b-boying are rarely represented in mass
one thing they almost never reject is a strict 16-bar media is that these art forms:
verse structure derived from Tin Pan Alley pop music. A. have never been brought to the public’s attention.
But this should not be surprising. This hip-hop, in con- B. are not bought and sold as products.
45 trast to hip-hop culture, is deeply intertwined with the C. do not appeal to young people.
mass media and its needs, largely because it does have D. declined in popularity after the 1970s.
a product: records, CDs, MP3s, and ringtones.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 42 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
3
20. As it is used in line 38, the word sensibilities most
3
24. Based on Passage B, it can reasonably be inferred that
nearly means: the author views his first exposure to rap music as:
F. emotions. F. memorable but ultimately not very important.
G. sensitivities. G. significant for his childhood but less so for his
H. perspectives. adulthood.
J. feelings of gratitude. H. a transformative experience.
J. a disappointing experience.
21. Based on Passage A, which statement best captures the
relationship between Tin Pan Alley pop music and rap
music?
A. Rap artists have rejected every aspect of Tin Pan 25. Compared to Passage A, Passage B focuses more on:
Alley pop. A. early hip-hop’s interaction with the marketplace.
B. Rap artists have been aware of Tin Pan Alley pop B. attempts to move hip-hop art into galleries.
but not influenced by it. C. the mass media.
C. Tin Pan Alley pop developed at the same time as D. the author’s personal experience.
rap.
D. Tin Pan Alley pop has influenced many rap artists.

22. Which of the following details does the author of Pas- 26. Which of the following elements of Passage B is not
sage B highlight as one that caused “Rapper’s Delight” included in Passage A?
to stand out as different compared to other songs he F. A story involving a particular rap song
knew? G. A discussion of the early days of hip-hop
F. The song’s intro H. A mention of the New York City area in the con-
G. The female vocals text of hip-hop
H. The length of the song J. An acknowledgment of rap’s interaction with other
J. The fact that the song was on a vinyl record musical forms

23. In the context of Passage B, the main point of the third

paragraph (lines 62–76) is that the author was:
A. struck by the combination of new and established 27. The authors of both passages would most likely agree
musical elements in the music he was hearing. with the idea that early rap music:
B. uncomfortable with what he viewed as an unwel- A. represented artists’ rejection of the music industry
come change to a favorite song. and its practices.
C. more interested in an unfamiliar album label than B. represented a significant development in American
in the new music that was playing. popular culture.
D. convinced that the new form of music he was hear- C. was more popular than today’s rap music.
ing would become more popular than disco. D. was slow to find an audience.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 43 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
3
Passage IV
3
University studying crocodilian diversity, sequenced its
genome. When she compared the docile croc’s DNA to
INFORMATIONAL:This passage is from the article “The 55 other Nile crocodiles, she noticed some rather striking
Rise and Fall of the Living Fossil” by Ferris Jabr (©2015 by differences. Could these tame crocs be an entirely dis-
Nautilus).
tinct species?
The term “living fossil” refers to creatures that had emerged
long ago and seemed to have stopped evolving. DNA analysis of 123 African crocodiles—as well
as 57 separate samples from museum specimens,
Like all living fossils, crocodiles were thought to 60 including crocodiles mummified in ancient Egypt—
have emerged in the distant past and then stayed largely confirmed her suspicion. In a few sections of their
unchanged. The standard theory held that the crocodil- respective genomes, all the mild-mannered crocs would
ian species we know today originated in Africa during have one DNA sequence, and all the typical Nile crocs
5 the Cretaceous (145 to 66 million years ago), when the another. They even had different numbers of chromo-
seven continents were much closer together. As the 65 somes. “That made us very confident that there were
continents drifted apart, the crocodilians went with actually two different populations and they were not
them, explaining how they ended up in a band of trop- mixing their DNA,” Hekkala says. The two different
ics encircling the globe. If that were true, then modern species had diverged between 3 and 6 million years
10 crocodilian species should be very different from one ago: Crocodylus niloticus in the East and the smaller,
another at the level of genes and molecules, because 70 less aggressive Crocodylus suchus in the West. The
there would have been more than enough time for sub- vast majority of mummified crocodiles were C. suchus,
stantial mutations to accumulate. By the 1990s, how- suggesting that ancient Egyptians had recognized the
ever, molecular analysis revealed that immune system difference.
15 molecules conserved across living crocodilian species
were remarkably similar in structure and behavior. Together, Hekkala, Oaks, and other scientists
75 helped redraw the map of how crocodilians evolved in
Intrigued by this puzzle, a post-doctoral research space and time, and conclusively removed them from
fellow at the University of Washington named Jamie the category of living fossils.
Oaks began collecting DNA samples from all 23 living
20 crocodilian species, comparing sections of the genome
where mutations were most likely to have appeared.
Oaks did not find nearly as many differences between
the modern crocodilian genomes as one would expect
had those species diverged all the way back in the Cre-
25 taceous. He concluded that modern crocodilian species
split from their last common ancestor between 8 and
13 million years ago, not long before ancient hominins 28. In the context of the passage, how does the analysis of
split from their last common ancestor with chimpan- crocodilian immune system molecules relate to the
zees. The living fossil theory of crocodiles had overes- living fossil theory of crocodilian evolution?
30 timated their evolutionary age by about a factor of 10.
F. The analysis confirms the living fossil theory.
Oaks also noticed something odd about the DNA G. The analysis suggests the living fossil theory is
samples he had acquired from the iconic Nile croco- accurate.
diles (Crocodylus niloticus): they did not match up with H. The analysis supports the living fossil theory in
each other. In fact, the variation between them was some ways and does not support the theory in other
35 great enough to suggest that he was looking at two dis- ways.
tinct species. If so, then not only were modern croco- J. The analysis does not support the living fossil
diles much too young to be living fossils, but they had theory.
also continued to speciate after diverging from their
basal ancestor—something living fossils are not sup- 29. Which of the following statements best summarizes
40 posed to do. On its own, Oaks’ study was intriguing, Oaks’s analysis of Nile crocodiles’ DNA as it is pre-
but not enough to convince the larger scientific commu- sented in the third paragraph (lines 31–42)?
nity to cleave the Nile crocodile into two species. A. It suggested that Nile crocodiles are older than
what was previously believed, which does not sup-
Unbeknownst to him, however, a separate team of port the living fossil theory of crocodiles.
scientists was preparing to corroborate his results. In B. It suggested that different species of crocodiles do
45 the early 2000s, on an excursion to Chad, the wildlife not share a basal ancestor, which the scientific
conservationist Michael Klemens encountered some community has confirmed.
odd little crocodiles in a desert oasis. They were so C. It suggested that the analysis was hastily done,
docile that he and his companions could swim beside which prompted the scientific community to
them without concern. He took a tissue sample from ignore it.
50 one that had recently perished and sent it to the Ameri- D. It suggested that the DNA came from two species,
can Museum of Natural History in New York City, which did not support the living fossil theory of
where Evon Hekkala, an assistant professor at Fordham crocodiles.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 44 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
3
30. The main purpose of the fifth paragraph (lines 58–73) is
3
33. According to the passage, after Klemens sent a tissue
to: sample of a perished crocodile to Hekkala, Hekkala then:
F. describe the DNA analysis that confirmed Croco- A. estimated the crocodile’s age.
dylus niloticus and Crocodylus suchus were two B. studied the crocodile’s immune system.
distinct species. C. sequenced the crocodile’s genome.
G. provide information on the mummification of croc- D. identified mutations in the crocodile’s molecular
odiles that was pertinent to Hekkala’s analysis. structure.
H. explain how Hekkala revolutionized DNA analysis
by comparing the DNA of 123 different African 34. In the context of the passage, the detail that Crocodylus
crocodiles. niloticus and Crocodylus suchus have different num-
J. introduce the behavioral differences between bers of chromosomes provides support for the claim
Crocodylus niloticus and Crocodylus suchus. that the two species:
F. diverged during the Cretaceous.
G. had similar diets.
31. According to the passage, molecular analysis revealed H. did not evolve from the same ancestor.
that immune system molecules from living crocodilian J. were not mixing their DNA.
species were similar in:
35. According to the passage, Crocodylus niloticus and
A. structure and behavior. Crocodylus suchus diverged between:
B. color and size.
C. density and age. A. 1 and 2 million years ago.
D. shape and weight. B. 3 and 6 million years ago.
C. 8 and 13 million years ago.
D. 66 and 145 million years ago.

32. In the context of the passage, the statement in lines 47–49 36. Based on the passage, the phrase “redraw the map”
mainly serves to: (line 75) is most likely meant to be read:
F. indicate that Klemens and his companions believed F. literally; scientists no longer believed crocodiles
that the crocodiles were diseased. originated in Africa.
G. establish the tameness of the crocodiles in the G. literally; scientists no longer believed crocodiles
desert oasis. once lived in a band of tropics.
H. suggest that Klemens and his companions suspected H. figuratively; scientists amended the narrative of
they were swimming with Crocodylus niloticus. the natural history of crocodiles.
J. indicate that the crocodiles in the desert oasis had J. figuratively; scientists believed their findings
not yet fully matured. would have broader implications on archaeology.

END OF TEST 3
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 45 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

 4 SCIENCE TEST
4
40 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is followed by several questions. After
reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
You are not permitted to use a calculator on this test.

Passage I Table 2 lists the number of times each of Behav-

iors 1−4 was displayed by the anoles in a habitat. Green
Green anoles and brown anoles (2 species of reptiles) anoles display Behaviors 1−3 only; brown anoles display
behave differently when the species are together in a habi- Behavior 4 only.
tat than when the species are in separate habitats. Table 1
lists the anole species present in each of 3 habitats (Habi-
tats X, Y, and Z). Table 2

Number of times behavior was

displayed in Habitat:
Table 1
Behavior X Y Z
Habitat Anole species present:
1 4 5 N.A.
X green only
2 3 6 N.A.
Y green and brown
3 24 13 N.A.
Z brown only
4 N.A. 5 17

Note: N.A. indicates the behavior was not

displayed in the habitat.

Figure 1 shows, for each anole species, the average Table 3 lists, for the anole species in a habitat, the
perching height in a habitat. average display time for Behavior 5.

Figure 1 Table 3

1.8 Anole Average display time

average perching height (m)

1.6 Key species Habitat for Behavior 5 (s)

1.4 green anole Green X 23.1
1.2 brown anole
1.0 Green Y 23.7
0.8 Brown Y 49.6
0.6
0.4 Brown Z 33.1
0.2
0.0 Figure 1 and Tables 2 and 3 adapted from Jessica R. Edwards and Simon P.
X Y Z Lailvaux, “Display Behavior and Habitat Use in Single and Mixed Populations
of Anolis carolinensis and Anolis sagrei Lizards.” ©2012 by Blackwell Verlag
Habitat GmbH.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 46 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
1. Based on Table 2, which of the following ratios best
4
4. Based on Figure 1, for green anoles, the difference in
represents the number of times Behavior 2 was dis- average perching height between Habitat X and Habi-
played in Habitat X compared to the number of times tat Y was closest to which of the following?
Behavior 2 was displayed in Habitat Y? F. 0.0 m
A. 1:2 G. 0.3 m
B. 1:8 H. 0.7 m
C. 4:5 J. 1.0 m
D. 5:6

2. Which of the following observations for brown anoles

was(were) the same in both Habitats Y and Z?
1. Average perching height 5. A student claimed that anoles are endotherms. Which of
2. The number of times Behavior 4 was displayed the following explains why this claim is incorrect?
3. Average display time for Behavior 5 Anoles are:
F. 1 only A. amphibians and primarily generate heat from
G. 3 only internal metabolic processes to maintain body
H. 1 and 2 only temperature.
J. 2 and 3 only B. amphibians and primarily absorb heat from
the surrounding environment to maintain body
3. Based on Table 3, how many display times were mea- temperature.
sured for Behavior 5 in Habitat Z? C. reptiles and primarily generate heat from internal
A. 2 metabolic processes to maintain body temperature.
B. 4 D. reptiles and primarily absorb heat from the
C. 12 surrounding environment to maintain body
D. Cannot be determined from the given information temperature.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 47 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
Passage II Student 4
4
The warmer water circulated by ocean currents melts
The coastline of Antarctica consists of many ice the ice shelf as described by Student 3. However, calving
shelves (floating 100−1,000 m thick sheets of ice that cannot occur from this process alone. Snow accumulates
extend from a landmass). Many of these ice shelves are on the surface of the ice each winter, but each following
melting, causing them to calve (break off ) large pieces summer, warm air leads to the melting and compaction of
known as icebergs. Four students each explain iceberg the snow. The compaction lowers the surface of the ice
calving. shelf, pushing the ice down into the basal cavity, where it
is melted by the ocean water. After several winter-summer
Student 1 cycles, the ice shelf becomes top-heavy due to the snow
Antarctic ice shelves melt due to the warming of the and the melting from below, and calving occurs.
air above the surface of the ice during the summer. When
the air temperature increases, the surface ice melts and
water pools. The meltwater moves downward into the ice
shelf, causing fractures to form. The accumulation of many
fractures in the ice over many summers gradually leads to
icebergs calving from an ice shelf.

Student 2 6. Which of the following diagrams best shows the loca-

tion of the basal cavity as described by Student 3?
Student 1 is correct that an increase in air temperature
during the summer leads to surface ice melting and water F. iceberg H. basal cavity iceberg
pooling, causing fractures to form in the ice. However, the
action of the meltwater alone is insufficient to produce
fractures deep enough to cause calving. When the air tem- ice shelf ice shelf
perature lowers at the beginning of winter, falling snow land
accumulates in the fractures, increasing the pressure on the land basal cavity
ice, eventually causing calving. After a large snowfall,
calving can occur within a few days. ocean water ocean water

Student 3
Antarctic ice shelves melt only from below. During G. iceberg J. basal cavity iceberg
the summer, ocean currents circulate water that is just
above freezing into and out of the basal cavity (the area ice shelf ice shelf
underneath an ice shelf), causing the ice within the cavity
to melt. For every 0.1°C that the ocean water is above land land
freezing, the water melts a thickness of 10 m of ice from basal cavity
the bottom per year. When the ice shelf thickness has been ocean water ocean water
reduced by at least 50 m, calving occurs.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 48 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
7. Suppose that the air temperature along the Antarctic
4
10. In regard to the season(s) involved in iceberg calving,
coastline is never warmer than −10°C and that the how does Student 2’s description differ from Stu-
atmospheric pressure is always 1.0 atmosphere. Does dent 3’s description? Student 2 indicated that:
this information support the description given by F. summer and winter are involved in calving,
Student 1? whereas Student 3 indicated that only summer is
A. Yes, because ice cannot melt at those temperatures. involved in calving.
B. Yes, because ice can melt at those temperatures. G. summer and winter are involved in calving,
C. No, because ice cannot melt at those temperatures. whereas Student 3 indicated that only winter is
D. No, because ice can melt at those temperatures. involved in calving.
H. only summer is involved in calving, whereas Stu-
8. Based on the description of the icebergs that are calved dent 3 indicated that summer and winter are
along the coastline of Antarctica, do the icebergs sink involved in calving.
or float? J. only winter is involved in calving, whereas Stu-
F. Sink; they are more dense than ocean water. dent 3 indicated that only summer is involved in
G. Sink; they are less dense than ocean water. calving.
H. Float; they are more dense than ocean water.
J. Float; they are less dense than ocean water.

9. Which of Students 1 and 4, if either, implied that the 11. Which of Students 2, 3, and 4 agree(s) with Student 1
processes involved in iceberg calving will take more that some form of melting occurs on the ice shelf
than one year to result in the formation of an iceberg? surface?
A. Student 1 only A. Student 2 only
B. Student 4 only B. Students 2 and 3 only
C. Both Student 1 and Student 4 C. Students 2 and 4 only
D. Neither Student 1 nor Student 4 D. Students 3 and 4 only

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 49 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
Passage III Experiment 2
4
The procedures for Experiment 1 were repeated
Amphiprion percula, a species of clownfish, are kept except that each group was kept at a different stocking den-
in many home aquariums. Two experiments were con- sity, 0.5 fish/L, 1 fish/L, 2 fish/L, or 3 fish/L, and all fish
ducted to determine how diet and stocking density (number were fed Diet T. At the end of 4 months, the average SGR
of fish per liter of seawater, fish/L) affect the specific was determined for each group (see Table 2).
growth rate (SGR; percent increase in length per day, per-
cent/day) in A. percula.
Table 2
Experiment 1
Each of 12 identical 15 L tanks received 10 L of sea- Stocking
water having a salinity of 33 parts per thousand (ppt), a density Average SGR
temperature of 27°C, and a pH of 8.2. Salinity, tempera- (fish/L) (percent/day)
ture, and pH were kept constant over the course of the
experiment. A. percula of similar lengths were selected, 0.5 0.50
and their lengths were measured, in cm, with a ruler. Then
they were equally distributed among the tanks at a stocking 1 0.35
density of 1 fish/L. The tanks were then divided equally
into 4 groups. 2 0.25
3 0.20
For 4 months, each group was fed a different diet
(Diets Q−T). Each group was fed the same mass of food
3 times daily. At the end of 4 months, the length of each Tables adapted from João Chambel et al., “Effect of Stocking Density
fish was measured, in cm, with a ruler, and the SGR of and Different Diets on Growth of Percula Clownfish, Amphiprion percula
each fish was calculated. The average SGR was then deter- (Lacepede, 1802).” ©2015 by Springer.
mined for each group (see Table 1).

Table 1

Average SGR 12. Which of the following statements about the relation-
Diet (percent/day) ship between the number of A. percula per tank and the
average SGR is consistent with the results of Experi-
Q 0.30 ment 2? On average, as the number of A. percula per
R 0.40 tank increased, the average SGR:
F. increased only.
S 0.50 G. decreased only.
H. remained the same.
T 0.35 J. varied with no general trend.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 50 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
13. The following table gives the percent protein in each of
4
15. Suppose that, in the experiments, 1 g of food were
the 4 diets. added to each tank at each feeding. A total of how
many grams of food would have been placed into an
Percent individual tank each day?
Diet protein A. 1 g
Q 52.5 B. 3 g
C. 12 g
R 48.0 D. 36 g

S 41.1
T 38.1

Which of the following statements about the percent

protein in each diet and the average SGR is consistent
with the data shown in the table and the results of
Experiment 1? The diet that resulted in the:
A. highest average SGR also had the highest percent
protein. 16. How many A. percula were placed in each of the tanks
B. highest average SGR had the lowest percent in Experiment 1?
protein. F. 1
C. lowest average SGR had the highest percent G. 4
protein. H. 10
D. lowest average SGR also had the lowest percent J. 12
protein.

14. Based on the results of Experiment 1, if Experiment 2

were repeated except that all the A. percula were fed
Diet R, would the average SGRs more likely have been
lower or higher for each group?
F. Lower; on average, A. percula fed Diet R had an
SGR 0.05 percent/day less than those fed Diet T.
G. Lower; on average, A. percula fed Diet R had an
SGR 0.10 percent/day less than those fed Diet T.
H. Higher; on average, A. percula fed Diet R had 17. Which of the following was a dependent variable in
an SGR 0.05 percent/day greater than those fed Experiment 1?
Diet T. A. Volume of seawater in each tank
J. Higher; on average, A. percula fed Diet R had B. Specific growth rate
an SGR 0.10 percent/day greater than those fed C. Diet fed to the A. percula
Diet T. D. Stocking density of the A. percula

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 51 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
Passage IV The results for each sample are shown in Figure 1.
4
Scientists hypothesized that heating tomatoes affects Figure 1
the concentration of nutrients such as vitamin C and lyco-
pene (a red pigment) in the tomatoes. They conducted 0.8
2 experiments to test their hypothesis.

vitamin C concentration
0.7
0.6

( mol/g tomato)
Experiment 1
0.5
Two kilograms of a particular variety of raw tomatoes
were sliced and then blended in a food processor until a 0.4
homogeneous (uniform) tomato mixture was produced. The 0.3
mixture was divided into 4 equal samples (Samples 1−4).
Each sample was placed in a separate plastic bag, and the 0.2
bags were sealed. The bag containing Sample 1 was imme- 0.1
diately frozen at −40°C. The bags containing Samples 2−4 0
were each incubated in a water bath at 88°C for a different 1 2 3 4
period of time (see Table 1) and then frozen at −40°C.
Sample

Table 1 Experiment 2
Experiment 1 was repeated except that in Step 3 the
Incubation filtered liquid was analyzed to determine the lycopene con-
time at 88°C centration in milligrams per gram of tomato (mg/g tomato).
Sample (min) The results for each sample are shown in Figure 2.
1 0 Figure 2
2 2
6
3 15
lycopene concentration

5
4 30
(mg/g tomato)

4
Then, 2 days later, Steps 1−3 were performed for each 3
sample.
2
1. The sample was thawed, and then 100 g of the sample
was placed in a beaker containing 200 mL of Solvent A. 1

2. The contents of the beaker were mixed for 5 min at 25°C 0

1 2 3 4
and then filtered using a paper filter. The filtered liquid
was collected. Sample

3. The filtered liquid was analyzed to determine the vita- Figures 1 and 2 adapted from Veronica Dewanto et al., “Thermal Processing
min C concentration in micromoles per gram of tomato Enhances the Nutritional Value of Tomatoes by Increasing Total Antioxidant
(μmol/g tomato). Activity.” ©2002 by American Chemical Society.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 52 of 82 QU00002.CJ19373
4
18. Which of the samples in Experiment 1 was most likely
4
21. Assume that, in the experiments, the water bath con-
intended as a control for the concentration of vita- tained pure water at standard atmospheric pressure
min C present in the unheated tomatoes? (1 atmosphere; atm). While the bags containing the
F. Sample 1 samples were being incubated, was the water in the
G. Sample 2 water bath most likely boiling?
H. Sample 3 A. Yes; the incubation temperature was less than the
J. Sample 4 boiling point of water at 1 atm.
B. Yes; the incubation temperature was greater than
the boiling point of water at 1 atm.
C. No; the incubation temperature was less than the
boiling point of water at 1 atm.
19. Based on the results of Experiment 2, which of the fol- D. No; the incubation temperature was greater than
lowing incubation times would most likely have pro- the boiling point of water at 1 atm.
duced a tomato mixture with a lycopene concentration
between 5 mg/g tomato and 6 mg/g tomato? 22. In Experiment 1, how many of the samples had a vita-
min C concentration of less than 1.0 μmol/g tomato?
A. 0 min
B. 0.2 min F. 0
C. 2 min G. 1
D. 20 min H. 3
J. 4

23. Consider the following procedures performed in Experi-

ment 2 for Sample 2.
20. A student claimed that heating tomatoes decreases the 1. The sample was frozen.
concentration of nutrients present. This claim is con- 2. The sample was incubated in the water bath.
sistent with the results shown for which of vitamin C 3. The sample and solvent mixture was filtered.
and lycopene, if either? These procedures were performed in what order?
F. Vitamin C only A. 1, 2, 3
G. Lycopene only B. 1, 3, 2
H. Both vitamin C and lycopene C. 2, 1, 3
J. Neither vitamin C nor lycopene D. 2, 3, 1

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 53 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
Passage V Figure 1
4
A molten alloy (a mixture of 2 or more metallic ele- 102
ments) can be poured into a cylindrical mold and cooled to Key
form an ingot. Crystals form inside the ingot as it cools.
The average crystal length, L, in micrometers (μm), deter- 100 280°C
mines how brittle the ingot will be. A method for reducing 550°C
L using rotating magnetic fields was applied to Alloy Q as 98
it cooled in the molds. Table 1 shows the elemental compo-
sition of Alloy Q. Figure 1 shows the effect of the relative
magnetic stirring force, F, on L for ingots formed from 96
molten Alloy Q that had an initial temperature of either
280°C or 550°C. 94

Table 1 92

Percent by 90
mass in
Element Symbol Alloy Q
88
Aluminum Al 88.7 0 10 20 30 40 50
Silicon Si 10.8 F (× 107)

Manganese Mn 0.28 Figure 1 is adapted from S. Denisov, et al., “The Effect of Traveling and
Rotating Magnetic Fields on the Structure of Aluminum Alloy During Its Crys-
Magnesium Mg 0.22 tallization in a Cylindrical Crucible.” ©2014 by Institute of Physics, University
of Latvia.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 54 of 82 QU00002.CJ19373
4
24. A linear region of a graph is a range of data that can be
4
27. The following table lists the mass of silicon in 50 g
approximated with a straight line. Based on Figure 1, samples of 4 different alloys, one of which is Alloy Q.
for Alloy Q initially at a temperature of 550°C, which
of the following ranges of F best represents a linear Mass
region? of Si
F. Between 0 and 10 × 107 Sample (g)
G. Between 10 × 107 and 20 × 107 W 0.11
H. Between 20 × 107 and 30 × 107
J. Between 30 × 107 and 40 × 107 X 0.14
25. Consider the 2 trends shown for Alloy Q initially at the Y 2.7
temperatures of 280°C and 550°C, from F = 40 × 107
through F = 48 × 107. If these lines were to continue Z 5.4
along the same trend, at which of the following values
of F would the average crystal lengths most likely be Given the composition of Alloy Q, which sample is
the same? most likely Alloy Q?
A. F = 50 × 107 A. Sample W
B. F = 60 × 107 B. Sample X
C. F = 70 × 107 C. Sample Y
D. F = 80 × 107 D. Sample Z

26. Based on Figure 1, which of the following combinations

of values for initial temperature and F would produce
the shortest average crystal length in an ingot of
Alloy Q? The smallest L would be produced with a
temperature of: 28. Based on Table 1, if an ingot of Alloy Q had a mass of
7
200 g, that ingot would contain what mass of Mg?
F. 280°C and F = 10 × 10 .
F. 0.22 g
G. 280°C and F = 40 × 107. G. 0.44 g
H. 550°C and F = 10 × 107. H. 2.2 g
J. 550°C and F = 40 × 107. J. 4.4 g

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 55 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
Passage VI Study 2
4
Study 1 was repeated, substituting CM2 for CM1 (see
In a lake, water leaches (dissolves out) soluble organic Figure 2).
compounds from decaying tree leaves, producing dissolved
organic carbon (DOC). DOC is subsequently removed from Figure 2
the water if it is adsorbed by (becomes adhered to the sur-
face of) clay mineral particles that are suspended in the 60
water. Three studies done at a lake examined DOC adsorp-
50

leachate DOC
tion by 3 clay minerals—CM1, CM2, and CM3—found in

adsorbed by
percent of
the lake’s sediment. 40

CM2
30
Green leaves were collected from 5 types of trees 20
around the lake (maple, oak, pine, magnolia, and rhodo- 10
dendron). A 5 L volume of lake water was filtered to 0
remove all solid particles. The following procedures were
ple oa
k
pin
e
oli
a
ron
performed for each type of leaf: A 100 g sample of the ma ag
n
den
d
leaves was mixed with a 1 L volume of the filtered lake m do
water. The mixture was then placed in the dark for rho
10 weeks at 4°C while leaching occurred. At 10 weeks, the leachate
mixture was filtered to remove all solid particles. The
resulting liquid (the leachate) was analyzed for DOC.

Study 1 Study 3
The following procedures were performed for each Study 1 was repeated, substituting CM3 for CM1 (see
leachate: A 100 mL volume of the leachate was mixed with Figure 3).
10 g of CM1. The mixture was stirred continuously for
2 hr, then filtered to remove all solid particles. The result- Figure 3
ing liquid (the filtrate) was analyzed for DOC. The percent
of the leachate DOC that had been adsorbed by CM1 was 60
calculated (see Figure 1). 50
leachate DOC
adsorbed by
percent of

40
Figure 1
CM3

30
60 20
50 10
leachate DOC
adsorbed by
percent of

40 0
ple k e lia n
CM1

30
ma
oa pin gno ndro
20 ma de
do
10 rho
0 leachate
le k e lia ron
ma
p oa pin gn
o d
en
ma do
d Figures and table adapted from Todd Tietjen, Anssi Vähätalo, and Robert
rho Wetzel, “Effects of Clay Mineral Turbidity on Dissolved Organic Carbon and
Bacterial Production.” ©2005 by the Swiss Federal Institute for Environmen-
leachate tal Science and Technology.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 56 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
29. Based on the results of the studies, from which of the
4
32. Based on the results of the studies, which of the 3 clay
5 leachates was the greatest percent of DOC adsorbed minerals, if any, reduced the DOC in the oak leachate
by CM1, CM2, and CM3, respectively? by more than 50%?
A. CM1: maple F. CM1 only
CM2: maple G. CM2 only
CM3: rhododendron H. CM1 and CM3 only
B. CM1: oak J. None of the 3 clay minerals
CM2: pine
CM3: magnolia
C. CM1: pine
CM2: magnolia 33. Is a mixture of any one of the leachates and any one of
CM3: rhododendron the clay minerals properly considered a solution?
D. CM1: pine A. Yes, because the clay mineral particles are dis-
CM2: magnolia solved in the leachate.
CM3: magnolia B. Yes, because the clay mineral particles are not dis-
solved in the leachate.
30. Based on the results of Study 3, the percent of leachate C. No, because the clay mineral particles are dis-
DOC adsorbed by CM3, averaged across the 5 types of solved in the leachate.
leaves, is closest to which of the following? D. No, because the clay mineral particles are not dis-
solved in the leachate.
F. 10%
G. 20%
H. 30%
J. 40%
34. In lake water, DOC is broken down into simpler com-
31. Is the statement “CM2 adsorbed a greater percent of the pounds by electromagnetic energy in the visible wave-
DOC in the maple leachate than did CM3” supported length range. What action was taken in the studies to
by the results of Studies 2 and 3? prevent this process from occurring?
A. Yes; CM2 adsorbed 35% of the leachate DOC, F. Each mixture of leaves and filtered lake water was
whereas CM3 adsorbed 7%. placed in the dark.
B. Yes; CM2 adsorbed 55% of the leachate DOC, G. Each mixture of filtrate and clay mineral was
whereas CM3 adsorbed 17%. placed in the dark.
C. No; CM2 adsorbed 7% of the leachate DOC, H. Each mixture of leaves and lake water was
whereas CM3 adsorbed 35%. filtered.
D. No; CM2 adsorbed 17% of the leachate DOC, J. Each mixture of leachate and clay mineral was
whereas CM3 adsorbed 55%. filtered.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 57 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
Passage VII
4
Table 1
When light shines on a metal plate, electrons can be
ejected from the plate. An electron will be ejected if the Frequency E K
energy, E, of a photon (particle of light) striking the plate Color (× 1014 Hz) (eV) (eV)
is greater than the minimum energy, M, required for the
electron to be removed from the plate. The maximum Red 4.4 1.81 N.A.*
kinetic energy of the ejected electron, K, is the difference
between E and M as shown in the equation: Yellow 5.2 2.14 N.A.*
Green 5.6 2.31 0.11
K=E−M
Blue 6.3 2.60 0.40
Students conducted 2 experiments to examine how
differences in the light striking a metal plate affect K. The Violet 7.5 3.10 0.90
setup included a light source, a removable filter, a circuit
with an ammeter to measure current, a power supply that *N.A.—Not available; no electrons were ejected.
could be adjusted to measure K, and a vacuum tube con-
taining a metal plate and an electrode (see Figure 1).
Experiment 2
Figure 1
With the same setup as in Experiment 1 except with-
filter out a filter, the current, in milliamperes (mA), and K were
measured as the intensity of the light was varied. Table 2
shows the current and K for 4 different relative light inten-
light vacuum tube sities, each given as a percent of maximum intensity.
metal plate electrode
Table 2
electrons Relative Current K
intensity (mA) (eV)

19.8 100% 40.0 0.90

mA
power 50% 19.8 0.90
supply
ammeter 25% 9.8 0.90
12.5% 4.8 0.90
Experiment 1
A filter was placed between the metal plate and the
light source, and the K of the ejected electrons was mea-
sured. This procedure was repeated with each of 4 addi-
tional filters. Each filter transmitted light of only one
frequency. Table 1 lists the following:
35. Consider the current shown on the ammeter in Figure 1.
• color of light transmitted by the filter Based on the results of Experiment 2, when this cur-
rent was measured, what was the relative intensity of
• frequency of light in hertz, Hz the light?
A. 100%
• E in electron volts, eV B. 50%
C. 25%
• K in electron volts D. 12.5%

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 58 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
4
36. What aspect of the experimental setup was held con-
4
39. The cutoff frequency for a particular metal is the lowest
stant in Experiment 2 but not in Experiment 1? frequency of light at which electrons are ejected from
F. Color of light the metal. Based on the results of Experiment 1, the
G. Light source cutoff frequency for the metal plate was:
H. Type of metal plate A. less than 4.4 × 1014 Hz.
J. Distance between metal plate and electrode B. between 4.4 × 1014 Hz and 5.2 × 1014 Hz.
C. between 5.2 × 1014 Hz and 5.6 × 1014 Hz.
D. greater than 5.6 × 1014 Hz.
37. Based on Figure 1, are the particles ejected from the
metal plate moving toward the electrode or away from 40. The relationship between E and the frequency of light is
the electrode, and are those particles positively charged given by the equation:
or negatively charged? E = hf
A. Toward; positively charged where h is Planck’s constant and f is the frequency of
B. Toward; negatively charged light. Based on the data for green light in Table 1,
C. Away from; positively charged which of the following expressions could be used to
D. Away from; negatively charged determine the value of h?
5.6 × 10 14 Hz
F. ____________
38. Based on the equation in the passage and the results of 0.11 eV
Experiment 1, what was the value of M for the metal 0.11 eV
plate used in the setup? G. ____________
14
5.6 × 10 Hz
F. 2.14 eV 5.6 × 10 14 Hz
G. 2.20 eV H. ____________
2.31 eV
H. 2.31 eV
J. 2.42 eV J. 2.31 eV
____________
5.6 × 10 14 Hz

END OF TEST 4
STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 59 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

 Practice Writing Test Prompt 1
Your Signature:
(Do not print.)

Print Your Name Here:

Your Date of Birth:

– –
Month Day Year
Form 24WT2

WRITING TEST
BOOKLET
You must take the multiple-choice tests before you take the writing test.

Directions
This is a test of your writing skills. You will have forty (40) minutes to read the prompt, plan your
response, and write an essay in English. Before you begin working, read all material in this test
booklet carefully to understand exactly what you are being asked to do.

You will write your essay on the lined pages in the answer document provided. Your writing on
those pages will be scored. You may use the unlined pages in this test booklet to plan your
essay. Your work on these pages will not be scored.

Your essay will be evaluated based on the evidence it provides of your ability to:
• clearly state your own perspective on a complex issue and analyze the relationship
between your perspective and at least one other perspective
• develop and support your ideas with reasoning and examples
• organize your ideas clearly and logically
• communicate your ideas effectively in standard written English

Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

PO Box 168
Iowa City, IA 52243-0168

© 2024 by ACT, Inc. All rights reserved.

NOTE: This test material is the confidential copyrighted property of ACT, Inc., and may not be copied,
reproduced, sold, scanned, emailed, or otherwise transferred without the prior express written permission
of ACT, Inc. Violators of ACT’s copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 60 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

 Outer Space
The United States and other nations have been exploring outer space for more than 50 years.
Orbiting Earth, visiting the Moon, and maintaining an international space station have been
landmarks of technological and scientific achievement. But major problems persist on the home
planet, including hunger, disease, and pollution. Plans for further space exploration—sending
people to Mars, for example—compete for financial and intellectual resources that could be used
to help address these problems. To what extent, then, should we continue to explore outer space?

Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking
about the question above.

Perspective One Perspective Two Perspective Three

The pursuit of greater Life on Earth must Scientific and

knowledge is worth always be our first technological
any expense. Even if priority. Exploring achievements are
exploring space does outer space is not more the key to progress
not solve problems at important than feeding for humankind. By
home, it increases our people on Earth and exploring outer space,
understanding of the ensuring the health of we may discover new
universe and our place the planet. solutions to old
within it. problems.

Essay Task
Write a unified, coherent essay in which you address the question of whether
we should continue to explore outer space. In your essay, be sure to:
• clearly state your own perspective and analyze the relationship between
your perspective and at least one other perspective
• develop and support your ideas with reasoning and examples
• organize your ideas clearly and logically
• communicate your ideas effectively in standard written English

Your perspective may be in full agreement with any of those given, in partial
agreement, or completely different.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 61 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

 Planning Your Essay
Your work on these prewriting pages will not be scored.

Use the space below and on the back cover to generate ideas and plan your essay. You may
wish to consider the following as you think critically about the task:
Strengths and weaknesses of different perspectives on the issue
• What insights do they offer, and what do they fail to consider?
• Why might they be persuasive to others, or why might they fail to persuade?
Your own knowledge, experience, and values
• What is your perspective on this issue, and what are its strengths and weaknesses?
• How will you support your perspective in your essay?

Note
y For your practice essay, you will need scratch paper to plan your essay and four lined sheets of
paper for your response.
y On test day, if you are taking the paper test, you will receive a test booklet with space to plan
your essay and an answer document with four lined pages on which to write your response.
y Read pages 78 –80 for information and instructions on scoring your practice writing test.

If you need more space to plan, please continue on the back of this page.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 62 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

 Planning Your Essay
Use this page to continue planning your essay. Your work on this page will not be scored.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 63 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 64 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 65 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 66 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 67 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 68 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 69 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 70 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 71 of 82QU00002.CJ19373
How to Score the Practice Please note, the placement of these field test
questions varies across different test forms,
Multiple-Choice Tests and will NOT remain in the same test item slots
each test administration.
Follow the instructions below and on the These numbers are your raw scores on the
following pages to score your practice multiple- individual multiple-choice test sections. The
choice tests and review your performance. highest raw score for a given test section is
To calculate your writing score, use Scoring the the number of questions included on that test
Practice Writing Test, page 78. section:
• English: 40
Raw Scores • Mathematics: 41
• Reading: 27
The number of questions you answered correctly
• Science: 34
on each test section is a raw score. Because there
are many forms of the ACT, each with different Note: Raw scores are also provided as part
questions, the difficulty level varies between of the Summary Report for each test section
the forms. A raw score of 35 on one form of the taken online in TestNav.
mathematics test section, for example, may be
about as difficult to earn as a raw score of 37 on
another form of that test section.
Scale Scores
Computing raw scores: To compute your raw To adjust for the small differences among
scores, check your answers with the scoring different forms of the ACT test, raw scores are
information in the scoring keys and conversion converted into scale scores. Scale scores appear
table, then do the following: on reports sent to your school.
1. Mark a one (1) in the blank for each question When your raw scores are converted into
answered correctly. scale scores, it becomes possible to compare
your scores with those of examinees who took
2. Count the number of correct answers for
different test forms. For example, a scale score
each of the multiple-choice test sections.
of 26 on the mathematics test section has the
3. Add up the total number correct for each same meaning for any form of the ACT.
category and test section and capture it as
Converting Raw Scores to Scale Scores: Each
directed beneath its scoring key.
ACT test section generates a single scale
Use the scoring key for each test to score score between 1 and 36. Use the scale score
your answer document for the sections in the conversion table to convert your raw scores to
practice test. Mark a “1” in the blank for each scale scores for each test section.
question you answered correctly and add up
the total number correct for each test. Do
not count correct answers for gray cells, as
those are for field test items not included in
converting raw scores to scale scores.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 72 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

English Scoring Key
English Correct Correct Reporting English Reporting Categories
Number Answer (Mark 1) Categories (Capture raw scores/correct answers.)
1 C CSE
2 G CSE Production of Writing (POW) =    of 15
3 A POW Knowledge of Language (KLA) =    of 8
4 F POW
5 A CSE
Conventions of Standard
6 F KLA English (CSE) =    of 17
7 D KLA
8 J CSE Total English Raw Score
9 B CSE (POW + KLA + CSE) =    of 40
10 G KLA
11 B CSE English Scale Score Conversion Table
12 J CSE
Use the Total English Raw Score number
13 C KLA
from the previous table to find the scale
14 H POW
score you could expect if you got that
15 D POW
number correct on test day.
16 J CSE
17 D KLA
English English English English
18 H POW
Raw Scale Raw Scale
19 A KLA Score Score Score Score
20 J POW
40 36 19 15
21 A CSE
22 F CSE 39 35 18 15
23 C POW 38 35 17 14
24 H POW 37 33 16 13
25 D POW 36 31 15 13
26 G POW 35 29 14 12
27 D CSE 34 28 13 11
28 F CSE 33 27 12 11
29 A CSE
32 26 11 10
30 G POW
31 25 10 10
31 C CSE
32 POW 30 24 9 10
F
33 A CSE 29 23 8 9
34 H KLA 28 22 7 8
35 A POW 27 22 6 7
36 G POW 26 21 5 7
37 B POW 25 20 4 6
38 H CSE 24 20 3 5
39 D KLA
23 19 2 3
40 J CSE
22 18 1 2
41 A Not Scored ——
42 G Not Scored —— 21 17 0 1
43 D Not Scored —— 20 16
44 H Not Scored ——
45 D Not Scored —— English Scale Score =   
46 F Not Scored ——
47 B Not Scored ——
48 F Not Scored ——
49 D Not Scored ——
50 H Not Scored ——

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 73 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

Mathematics Scoring Key
Math Correct Correct Reporting Mathematics Reporting Categories
Number Answer (Mark 1) Categories (Capture raw scores/correct answers.)
1 D IES
2 J S Preparing for Higher Math
3 B IES (PHM) (A + F + G + N + S) =    of 25
4 F IES A = Algebra
5 C A F = Functions
6 J N G = Geometry
7 B Not Scored —— N = Number & Quantity
8 H N S = Statistics & Probability
9 D A
10 IES
Integrating Essential Skills (IES) =    of 16
H
11 B IES
12 J S Total Mathematics Raw Score
13 A G (PHM + IES) =    of 41
14 J IES
15 A A Mathematics Scale Score Conversion Table
16 G Not Scored —— Use the Total Mathematics Raw Score from
17 A A
the previous table to find the scale score you
18 J N
could expect if you got that number correct
19 B F
20 G
on test day.
H
21 C IES Math Raw Math Scale Math Raw Math Scale
22 G IES Score Score Score Score
23 C F
41 36 20 19
24 G F
40 36 19 19
25 A F
39 35 18 18
26 G A
27 B S 38 34 17 17
28 F G 37 34 16 17
29 C Not Scored —— 36 33 15 17
30 J G 35 32 14 16
31 C G
34 31 13 16
32 J IES
33 30 12 15
33 C IES
34 IES
32 29 11 15
G
35 C IES 31 29 10 15
36 J S 30 28 9 14
37 C A 29 27 8 14
38 J IES 28 27 7 13
39 C S 27 26 6 13
40 J Not Scored —— 26 25 5 12
41 D IES
42 IES
25 24 4 11
F
43 C IES 24 23 3 9
44 J F 23 22 2 7
45 A S 22 21 1 5
21 20 0 1

Mathematics Scale Score =   

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 74 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

Reading Scoring Key
Reading Correct Correct Reporting Reading Reporting Categories
Number Answer (Mark 1) Categories
(Capture raw scores/correct answers.)
1 D Not Scored ——
2 H Not Scored —— Key Ideas & Details (KID) =    of 13
3 A Not Scored ——
4
Craft & Structure (CS) =    of 9
J Not Scored ——
5 C Not Scored —— Integration of Knowledge &
6 G Not Scored —— Ideas (IKI) =    of 5
7 A Not Scored ——
8 F Not Scored ——
9 A Not Scored —— Total Reading Raw Score
10 J CS (KID + CS + IKI) =    of 27
11 B KID
12 H KID Reading Scale Score Conversion Table
13 B CS
Use the Total Reading Raw Score from the
14 J CS
previous table to find the scale score you
15 C KID
16
could expect if you got that number correct
J KID
17
on test day.
C CS
18 F CS
Reading Reading Reading Reading
19 B KID Raw Scale Raw Scale
20 H CS Score Score Score Score
21 D KID 27 36 13 17
22 H KID
26 35 12 16
23 A KID
24 25 34 11 15
H KID
25 D IKI 24 32 10 14
26 F IKI 23 30 9 13
27 B IKI 22 28 8 12
28 J IKI 21 26 7 12
29 D KID 20 25 6 11
30 F CS
19 24 5 10
31 A KID
18 23 4 9
32 G CS
33 KID 17 22 3 7
C
34 J IKI 16 21 2 5
35 B KID 15 20 1 3
36 H CS 14 18 0 1

Reading Scale Score =   

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 75 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

Science Scoring Key
Science Correct Correct Reporting
Science Reporting Categories
Number Answer (Mark 1) Categories (Capture raw scores/correct answers.)
1 A IOD
Interpretation of Data (IOD) =    of 16
2 F IOD
3 D IOD Scientific Investigation (SIN) =    of 9
4 H IOD
Evaluation of Models, Inferences &
5 D EMI
6 EMI
Experimental Results (EMI) =    of 9
F
7 C EMI
8 J IOD Total Science
9 C EMI (IOD + SIN + EMI) =    of 34
10 F EMI
11 C EMI Reading Scale Score Conversion Table
12 G EMI
Use the Total Science Raw Score from the
13 C EMI
previous table to find the scale score you
14 H SIN
could expect if you got that number correct
15 B SIN
on test day.
16 H SIN
17 B SIN Science Science
Science Science
18 F SIN Raw Scale Raw Scale
19 D SIN Score Score Score Score
20 F EMI 17 21
34 36
21 C SIN 16 20
33 35
22 J IOD 15 19
23 SIN 32 34
C
31 33 14 18
24 J IOD
25 IOD 30 32 13 18
B
26 J IOD 29 31 12 17
27 D IOD 28 30 11 16
28 G IOD 27 29 10 15
29 D Not Scored —— 9 14
26 28
30 J Not Scored ——
25 27 8 12
31 C Not Scored ——
32 J Not Scored —— 24 26 7 12
33 D Not Scored —— 23 25 6 11
34 F Not Scored —— 5 10
22 25
35 B IOD
21 24 4 9
36 F SIN
20 23 3 7
37 B IOD
38 IOD 19 23 2 6
G
39 C IOD 18 22 1 3
40 J IOD 0 1

Science Scale Score =   

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 76 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

Calculating a Composite Score
This version of Preparing for the ACT is geared
towards students taking the “Enhanced ACT”.
If you are taking the test on paper prior to
September 2025, please refer to the version
of the Preparing for the ACT guide labeled
2024|2025. If you are preparing for State and
District prior to spring of 2026, you should refer
to the Fall 2025 Preparing for the ACT provided
by your school.
An ACT test generates a single Composite
score of 1–36. Compute the Composite score by
averaging the three scale scores:
1. Add your English, Mathematics, and
Reading scale scores. Enter this sum in the
blanks below.
2. Divide the sum by 3. If the resulting number
ends in a fraction, round it to the nearest
whole number. (Round down any fraction
less than one-half, except for averages lower
than one; round up any fraction that is one-
half or more. Also round up averages that
are less than one.)
3. Enter this number in the blank below. This is
your Composite score.
Composite of scale scores:
English Scale Score =   
Mathematics Scale Score =   
Reading Scale Score =   
Sum of Scale Scores =   
Composite score (sum ÷ 3) =   
Note: If you left a test section completely
blank and marked no items, do not list a scale
score for that section and do not calculate a
Composite score.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 77 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

Scoring the Practice Calculating Your Writing Score
The writing test section generates a single score
Writing Test of 2–12. Complete these steps to calculate your
writing score:
It’s difficult to be objective about your own work.
However, it’s to your advantage to read your own 1. Determine which score (range 1–6) in each of
writing critically, as doing so can help you grow the four domains best describes the features
as a writer and as a reader. It may also be helpful of your writing.
for you to give your practice essay to another 2. Multiply each rubric score by 2 to get a score
reader, such as a classmate, parent, or teacher. for each domain (range 2–12).
To rate your essay, you and your reader(s) should
3. Add your four domain scores. Enter this sum
review the guidelines and sample essays at
of domain scores in the blank below (range
http://www.actstudent.org and then use The
8–48).
ACT Writing Test Scoring Rubric, starting on the
next page to assign your practice essay a score 4. Divide the sum by 4. If the resulting number
of 1 (low) through 6 (high) in each of the four ends in a fraction, round it to the nearest
writing domains (Ideas & Analysis, Development whole number. (Round down any fraction
& Support, Organization, and Language Use). less than one-half; round up any fraction that
is one-half or more.)

Scoring Rubric Writing test rubric and domain scores:

The rubric presents the standards by which Ideas & Analysis =    x 2 =   

your essay will be evaluated. Readers will use
this rubric to assign your essay four unique Development & Support =    x 2 =   
scores, one per writing domain. These are the six Organization =    x 2 =   
possible rubric scores: Language Use =    x 2 =   
Score 6: Responses demonstrate effective skill in Sum of domain scores =   
writing an argumentative essay.
Writing subject score (sum ÷ 4) =   
Score 5: Responses demonstrate well-developed
skill in writing an argumentative essay.
Score 4: Responses demonstrate adequate skill
in writing an argumentative essay.
Score 3: Responses demonstrate some
developing skill in writing an argumentative
essay.
Score 2: Responses demonstrate weak or
inconsistent skill in writing an argumentative
essay.
Score 1: Responses demonstrate little or no skill
in writing an argumentative essay.
Because each domain receives its own score,
the four scores you assign need not be identical.
For example, you may find that your essay
exhibits stronger skill in organization than
in the development of ideas. In this case,
you may determine that your essay should
receive a higher score in Organization than in
Development & Support.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 78 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

The ACT Writing Test Scoring Rubric

Ideas & Analysis Domain

Rubric Score Ideas & Analysis Scoring Standards

The writer generates an argument that critically engages with multiple perspectives
on the given issue. The argument’s thesis reflects nuance and precision in thought
6 and purpose. The argument establishes and employs an insightful context for
analysis of the issue and its perspectives. The analysis examines implications,
complexities, tensions, and/or underlying values and assumptions.
The writer generates an argument that productively engages with multiple
perspectives on the given issue. The argument’s thesis reflects precision in thought
5 and purpose. The argument establishes and employs a thoughtful context for
analysis of the issue and its perspectives. The analysis addresses implications,
complexities, tensions and/or underlying values and assumptions.
The writer generates an argument that engages with multiple perspectives on
the given issue. The argument’s thesis reflects clarity in thought and purpose. The
4 argument establishes and employs a relevant context for analysis of the issue and
its perspectives. The analysis recognizes implications, complexities, tensions, and/or
underlying values and assumptions.
The writer generates an argument that responds to multiple perspectives on the
given issue. The argument’s thesis reflects some clarity in thought and purpose. The
3
argument establishes a limited or tangential context for analysis of the issue and its
perspectives. Analysis is simplistic or somewhat unclear.
The writer generates an argument that weakly responds to multiple perspectives on
the given issue. The argument’s thesis, if evident, reflects little clarity in thought and
2
purpose. Attempts at analysis are incomplete, largely irrelevant, or consist primarily
of restatement of the issue and its perspectives.
The writer fails to generate an argument that responds intelligibly to the task. The
1
writer’s intentions are difficult to discern. Attempts at analysis are unclear or irrelevant

Development & Support Domain

Rubric Score Development & Support Scoring Standards

Development of ideas and support for claims deepen insight and broaden context.
An integrated line of skillful reasoning and illustration effectively conveys the
6
significance of the argument. Qualifications and complications enrich and bolster
ideas and analysis.
Development of ideas and support for claims deepen understanding. A mostly
5 integrated line of purposeful reasoning and illustration capably conveys the significance
of the argument. Qualifications and complications enrich ideas and analysis.
Development of ideas and support for claims clarify meaning and purpose. Lines of
4 clear reasoning and illustration adequately convey the significance of the argument.
Qualifications and complications extend ideas and analysis.
Development of ideas and support for claims are mostly relevant but are overly
3 general or simplistic. Reasoning and illustration largely clarify the argument but may
be somewhat repetitious or imprecise.
Development of ideas and support for claims are weak, confused, or disjointed.
2 Reasoning and illustration are inadequate, illogical, or circular, and fail to fully clarify
the argument.
Ideas lack development and claims lack support. Reasoning and illustration are
1
unclear, incoherent, or largely absent.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 79 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

Organization Domain

Rubric Score Organization Scoring Standards

The response exhibits a skillful organizational strategy. The response is unified
by a controlling idea or purpose, and a logical progression of ideas increases the
6
effectiveness of the writer’s argument. Transitions between and within paragraphs
strengthen the relationships among ideas.
The response exhibits a productive organizational strategy. The response is
mostly unified by a controlling idea or purpose, and a logical sequencing of ideas
5
contributes to the effectiveness of the argument. Transitions between and within
paragraphs consistently clarify the relationships among ideas.
The response exhibits a clear organizational strategy. The overall shape of the
response reflects an emergent controlling idea or purpose. Ideas are logically
4
grouped and sequenced. Transitions between and within paragraphs clarify the
relationships among ideas.
The response exhibits a basic organizational structure. The response largely coheres,
3 with most ideas logically grouped. Transitions between and within paragraphs
sometimes clarify the relationships among ideas.
The response exhibits a rudimentary organizational structure. Grouping of ideas
2 is inconsistent and often unclear. Transitions between and within paragraphs are
misleading or poorly formed.
The response does not exhibit an organizational structure. There is little grouping of
1
ideas. When present, transitional devices fail to connect ideas.

Language Use Domain

Rubric Score Language Use Scoring Standards

The use of language enhances the argument. Word choice is skillful and precise.
Sentence structures are consistently varied and clear. Stylistic and register choices,
6
including voice and tone, are strategic and effective. While a few minor errors in
grammar, usage, and mechanics may be present, they do not impede understanding.
The use of language works in service of the argument. Word choice is precise.
Sentence structures are clear and varied often. Stylistic and register choices, including
5
voice and tone, are purposeful and productive. While minor errors in grammar, usage,
and mechanics may be present, they do not impede understanding.
The use of language conveys the argument with clarity. Word choice is adequate
and sometimes precise. Sentence structures are clear and demonstrate some
4 variety. Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are appropriate for
the rhetorical purpose. While errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics are present,
they rarely impede understanding.
The use of language is basic and only somewhat clear. Word choice is general and
occasionally imprecise. Sentence structures are usually clear but show little variety.
3 Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are not always appropriate for
the rhetorical purpose. Distracting errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics may be
present, but they generally do not impede understanding.
The use of language is inconsistent and often unclear. Word choice is rudimentary
and frequently imprecise. Sentence structures are sometimes unclear. Stylistic
2 and register choices, including voice and tone, are inconsistent and are not always
appropriate for the rhetorical purpose. Distracting errors in grammar, usage, and
mechanics are present, and they sometimes impede understanding.
The use of language fails to demonstrate skill in responding to the task. Word
choice is imprecise and often difficult to comprehend. Sentence structures are often
1
unclear. Stylistic and register choices are difficult to identify. Errors in grammar,
usage, and mechanics are pervasive and often impede understanding.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 80 of 82QU00002.CJ19373

Next Steps l Directions: Did you spend too much time
trying to understand the directions for the
Your practice test score is an estimate of the test sections? Make sure you understand
score that you would receive during an actual them before test day.
administration of the ACT test. Reflecting on l Misses: Review the questions that you
your practice experience can be useful as you missed. Did you select a response that
continue to prepare for test day. was an incomplete answer or that did
not directly respond to the question
Consider the following as you review your being asked? Try to figure out what you
scores as part of your general test performance: overlooked in answering the questions.
l Types: Did a particular type of question
l Pacing: Did you run out of time? Reread confuse you? In reviewing your responses,
the information in this booklet on pacing check to see whether a particular type of
yourself. You may need to adjust the way question was more difficult for you.
you use your time in responding to the
questions.

A‌C‌T is committed to representing the diversity of society in all its aspects, including race, ethnicity,
and gender. Questions, passages, and writing prompts are chosen to reflect a range of cultures and
are written to not disadvantage any particular group of examinees. A‌C‌T employs extensive reviews
and statistical procedures to ensure the fairness of test materials.
A‌C‌T conducts research and periodically updates tests to provide test content that reflects classroom
instruction and continues to be a relevant predictor of college and career readiness. There may be
subtle differences between the A‌C‌T practice test in this booklet and the test students take on test
day.
A‌C‌T endorses the Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education and the Code of Professional
Responsibilities in Educational Measurement, which guide the conduct of those involved in
educational testing. A‌C‌T is committed to ensuring that each of its testing programs upholds the
guidelines in each Code. You may locate copies of these Codes through the following organizations:

• Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education: American Psychological Association (https://www.apa.

org/science/programs/testing/fair-testing.pdf)
• Code of Professional Responsibilities in Educational Measurement: National Council on
Measurement in Education (https://www.ncme.org/resources-publications/professional-learning/
library)

Note: This booklet is covered by federal copyright laws that prohibit the reproduction of the test
questions without the prior express written permission of ACT Education Corp. No portion of this
booklet may be copied or distributed without written permission of A‌C‌T.

©2025 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved. Page 81 of 82QU00002.CJ19373