SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG

QUẢNG NINH NĂM HỌC 2025 - 2026

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên)
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC (Dành cho thí sinh thi vào Trường THPT Chuyên Hạ Long)
(Đề thi này có 13 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ghi chú:
- Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này. Nếu viết sai thì gạch bỏ rồi viết lại.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.
HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH PHẦN NGHE HIỂU
- Bài nghe hiểu gồm 04 phần.
- Thí sinh nghe và trả lời câu hỏi theo yêu cầu; mỗi phần được nghe 02 lần.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
A. LISTENING (2.5 points)
Part 1: Listen to someone on the radio talking about how to improve your concentration. For questions
1-10, complete each sentence with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. (1.0 point)
Mandy is employed as a (1) __________.
She takes a break after she’s been working for (2) __________.
Mandy says that research shows that listening to (3) __________ helps you train.
Mandy recommends exercising for (4) __________ every day.
You need to eat regular snacks if you want to preserve your (5) __________.
A healthy snack that Mandy recommends is a (6) __________.
Minerals have been shown to help your (7) __________.
Mandy recommends eating (8) __________ in order to get enough minerals.
You can give your brain a workout by studying, for example, a (9) __________.
If you are feeling particularly stressed, try taking (10) __________.

Part 2: You will hear an interview with two trainee teachers, called Amy and John, about students using
smartphones in school. For questions 11-15, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according
to what you hear. (0.5 points)
11. Amy would like schools to teach students __________.
A. to be aware of advertising on smartphones
B. about the effects of overuse of smartphones
C. how to avoid being distracted by smartphones

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 D. to decide for themselves when to use smartphones
12. Amy and John both say that some parents __________.
A. aren’t consistent in applying rules about using smartphones.
B. buy smartphones for quite young children.
C. fail to set a good example of smartphone use.
D. don’t know which sites their children use on their smartphones.
13. John approves of students using smartphones in class in order to __________.
A. take photos of their work. B. look up information.
C. record a conversation. D. use the calculator.
14. John mentions workplaces to point out that company rules regarding smartphone use __________.
A. vary according to the type of work done. B. should be reviewed regularly.
C. are difficult to enforce. D. acknowledge that phones are valuable tools.
15. What does Amy conclude about the debate on the topic of using smart-phones in school?
A. It shows parents and teachers hold very different views from each other.
B. It is being used to hide more serious matters.
C. It reflects significant changes in society.
D. It will soon seem outdated.

Part 3. You will hear a talk about One-Day Clean-Up. For questions 16-20, decide whether each of the
statements is True or False. If it is True, put a tick (✓) in the box under T. If it is False, put a tick (✓) in
the box under F. (0.5 points)
16. The speaker found out about the One-Day Clean-Up event from his cousin.
17. Everyone in the speaker’s team came from the same country, Australia.
18. The speaker’s group wasn’t assigned to the same coastline area as most others.
19. The speaker enjoyed the experience of picking up rubbish in the event.
20. The event made the speaker more environmentally conscious and motivated to take action at home.

Part 4: You will hear five short extracts in which people are talking about an occasion when they came
into contact with a well-known celebrity. For questions 21-25, choose from the list A- H what each
speaker says about coming into contact with a celebrity. (0.5 points)
A. I failed to recognise the person.
B. I realised I had forgotten something. 21. Speaker 1 __________
C. I insisted on something. 22. Speaker 2 __________
D. I was upset by personal criticism. 23. Speaker 3 __________

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 E. I had been given incorrect information. 24. Speaker 4 __________
F. I was pleasantly surprised. 25. Speaker 5 __________
G. I refused a request.
H. I was amused by something.

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2.0 points)

Part 1: Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer that best fits each of the blanks in the
following questions. (1.0 point)
1. I can’t give you the answer on the __________; I’ll have to think about it for a few days.
A. place B. minute C. scene D. spot
2. The company’s eco-tours __________ travelers’ requirements for sustainable adventures.
A. adapt B. address C. fulfil D. assess
3. __________ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
4. Jim and Anna are talking about their schoolwork.
- Jim: “The subject is so hard. There is a lot of information to remember.”
- Anna: “__________. The information is logically ordered and it is not that difficult to learn.”
A. I couldn't agree with you more B. I beg to differ
C. I'm with you D. Let's drop it
5. The report would have been accepted __________ in checking its accuracy.
A. if more care B. more care had been taken
C. had taken more care D. had more care been taken
6. __________ classical dance for six years, Jane finally felt ready to perform in public.
A. Having learned B. Learned C. To learn D. Being learned
7. My parents __________ when I came home late last night without answering their phone calls.
A. gave me the third degree B. caught me off guard
C. held sway over me D. cut me some slack
8. You are going to need her help. If I were you, I’d __________ a bit. I’d try to get her on my side, you know
what I mean.
A. soap her down B. oil her over C. butter her up D. grease her out
9. I wrote to them a fortnight ago but __________ I have not had a reply.
A. as yet B. those days C. so long D. just now
10. Despite being an underdog, Division B team gave the best team of the tournament run __________ their
money.

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 A. with B. in C. at D. for
11. It was with a __________ heart that she said goodbye to all her colleagues.
A. solemn B. heavy C. dismal D. grim
12. __________ about the job offer, I knew that relocating to Paris would be an adjustment.
A. Delighted though I was B. As I was delighted
C. However delighted was I D. Were I delighted
13. I’ll __________ a deal with you - you wash the car and I’ll let you use it tonight.
A. have B. make C. take D. leave
14. Mrs. Winslet resigned __________. No one, including me, in our company forced her to do so.
A. for her own sake B. of her own accord C. with a will D. on purpose
15. You __________ then; otherwise, the policeman wouldn’t have stopped you.
A. could have been speeding B. must have been speeding
C. might have been speeding D. ought to have been speeding
16. If Harold __________ with his piano playing, I believe that he can eventually reach concert standard.
A. sustains B. perseveres C. maintains D. survives
17. Kevin and Tony are discussing about technology.
- Kevin: “It's beneficial to have CCTV cameras installed throughout the school.”
- Tony: “__________. They help guarantee the safety for both the staff and the students.”s
A. It's nonsense. B. It isn't the case. C. You've got a point. D. I can't believe it.
18. Anything he does is in __________ with the law and that’s why I have suggested him for the post.
A. compliance B. obedience C. commitment D. responsibility
19. She may still have a few fans in the world, but she is definitely past her __________.
A. fame B. abilities C. prime D. fortune
20. What stands out from The Voice Kids is that many young children are __________ with natural talent for
music.
A. bestowed B. conferred C. endowed D. vouchsafed

Part 2: Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correcting in each of the
following sentences. (0.25 points)
21. The maintenance of strong social relationships, volunteering, and other social activities are linked to
A B C
positive mental health and even increased longevity.
D
22. Although the professor attempted to explain the scientific term with great clearance, it was still beyond

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 A B C
the intellectual grasp of some students.
D
23. The highway patrol advised to take the old route through the city because the interstate highway is under
A B C D
major repairs.
24. Anne reacts like a true professional and keeps smiling as if her music is the only thing that matters with
her.
A B C D
25. The inflammable remarks from the president’s inauguration speech only invited more criticism from the
A B C
masses.
D

Part 3: Fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable particle to make the correct sentences. (0.25 points)
26. Unfortunately, our school had to do away __________ the music department because of lack of funds.
27. Our stay in the town will certainly be a good chance for Michael to visit his grandfather’s birthplace, so
I’m sure he will jump __________ the opportunity.
28. He didn’t speak a word of French when he first moved to France. He had to pick up the language
__________ scratch.
29. The service was slow and the bill was incorrect. I put it __________ to the poor management.
30. The employees have been working flat __________ to get the job finished ahead of the deadline.

Part 4. Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
(0.5 points)
31. Research shows that sending young offenders to prison can be __________. (PRODUCT)
32. There is evidence to indicate that most of the animals face __________ on a daily basis. (TREAT)
33. This statue __________ the soldiers who sacrificed their lives to protect the country. (MEMORY)
34. The pain that he was suffering after he had a serious accident was truly __________. (DESCRIBE)
35. Great applause was given to the referee’s __________ in the final football match between Viet Nam and
Thailand. (PART)
36. The best way to solve this dispute is to find a neutral, __________ third party and follow his or her
suggestions. (INTEREST)
37. The woman detected her __________ conditions soon after she felt ill in her body. (CANCER)

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38. Sammy is going to be very __________ when you tell him he hasn’t been accepted by the Police Academy.
(ILLUSION)
39. The __________ of the document you gave me is wrong! There’s no page 15. (PAGE)
40. The __________ vigor of man-made things, as suggested by these metaphors, is at the same time ungainly
and unnatural. (HUMAN)

C. READING (3.0 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (0.7 points)
Translation Technology
In recent years, translation technology has (1) __________ rapidly, leading to the development of
applications and (2) __________ tools that have transformed the way translations are conducted. So, what
impact has this technological (3) __________ had on human translators, and what are the benefits for the wider
community?
The earliest form of translation technology was a simple machine translation tools, which could only
translate basic sentences. Over time, more advanced translation tools were developed, such as computer-
assisted translation software, which can (4) __________ translations in a database and suggest translations for
new text based on previous ones.
Another significant development has been the (5) __________ of neural machine translation (NMT).
NMT uses artificial intelligence (A.I) and deep learning to translate text more accurately than previous
methods.
However, the impact of translation technology on human translators has been mixed. On the one hand,
it has made their work more efficient and (6) __________, allowing them to focus on the creative aspects of
translation rather than repetitive tasks. On the other hand, some translators are (7) __________ about
technology potentially replacing them altogether, particularly as A.I continues to advance. Despite these
concerns, translation technology has many benefits for the wider community.
1. A. evolved B. converted C. benefited D. released
2. A. innovative B. gifted C. customary D. conventional
3. A. disaster B. revolution C. rebellion D. establishment
4. A. store B. supply C. collect D. prolong
5. A. reign B. rise C. raise D. rendering
6. A. enlarged B. analysed C. streamlined D. trimmed
7. A. eager B. agitated C. diligent D. apprehensive

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Part 2: Fill in each numbered blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word. (0.7 points)
CONFIDENCE TRICKS
Whether it is a job interview, a wedding speech or just asking someone out, there are times when we
all want to appear confident, despite not feeling that way (8) __________. Some people are more self-assured
than others, it is true, but there are also a number of tricks that are (9) __________ remembering. The important
thing, after all, is that you appear confident to others, and also that you do not allow a negative attitude to
defeat you before the game has even begun.
Our bodies give us (10) __________ most; a case of nerves produces adrenalin, which plays havoc
with our systems, causing the shaky voice, the trembling hands and the sweaty forehead. So apart from the
mental preparation, there are a number of physical steps you can (11) __________.
The first is to stand straight, head up and shoulders back (though not too much; or you will look (12)
__________ a sergeant major); a drooping posture immediately sends out a message of resignation. One way
to quickly achieve (13) __________ is to look up at the ceiling or sky for five seconds or so; this will have the
added benefit of (14) __________ your facial expression upwards, banishing the frown and the downturned
mouth.

Part 3: Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions. (0.8 points)
In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy
available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their
caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels
was taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut
wood. Charcoal gave off a more intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats.
The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into extensive use
until the Industrial Revolution.
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and
other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood,
water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By
mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was
obtained from wood. However, at the beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and
replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily
accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil
firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport.
They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid

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fuels for vehicles; a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.
By 1984, nonrenewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the
commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear
fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass.
Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a
centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from
nonrenewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to another, as is the
case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of
nonrenewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced.
Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The
extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor consuming
and costly. The resulting product is sulfur- and nitrogen-rich, and large-scale extractions are presently
prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is complex.
Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that carry them,
and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for a large-scale removal of the material. However, both
sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel
availability make alternative deposits more attractive.
15. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Applications of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use D. A historical overview of energy rates
16. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that __________.
A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples
B. the Greeks used coal in industrial production
C. the development of efficient fuels was a gradual process
D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental
17. The author of the passage implies that in the l700s, sources of energy were __________.
A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combinations
C. not derived from mineral deposits D. not always easy to locate
18. The phrase the latter in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. wood B. coal C. most regions D. climate zones
19. According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. It was a concentrated source of energy.
B. It was lighter and cheaper than coal.
C. It replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.

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 D. It could be converted to automobile fuel.
20. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th century, energy was obtained primarily from
__________.
A. fossil fuels B. nuclear fission
C. burning biomass D. hydraulic and solar sources
21. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of alternative fuel sources?
A. cheap B. numerous C. prospective D. labour-consuming
22. The word prohibitive in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. prohibited B. provided C. too expensive D. too expedient

Part 4: Read the passage below and do the tasks that follow. (0.8 points)
Food advertising on children
A. Children’s food promotion is dominated by television advertising, and the great majority of this promotes
the so-called ‘Big Four’ of pre-sugared breakfast cereals, soft-drinks, confectionary and savoury snacks. In the
last ten years advertising for fast food outlets has rapidly increased. There is some evidence that the dominance
of television has recently begun to wane. The importance of strong, global branding reinforces a need for
multi-faceted communications combining television with merchandising, ‘tie-ins’ and point of sale activity.
The advertised diet contrasts sharply with that recommended by public health advisors, and themes of fun and
fantasy or taste, rather than health and nutrition, are used to promote it to children. Meanwhile, the
recommended diet gets little promotional support.
B. There is plenty of evidence that children notice and enjoy food promotion. However, establishing whether
this actually influences them is a complex problem. The review tackled it by looking at studies that had
examined possible effects on what children know about food, their food preferences, their actual food
behaviour (both buying and eating), and their health outcomes (eg. obesity or cholesterol levels). The majority
of studies examined food advertising, but a few examined other forms of food promotion. In terms of
nutritional knowledge, food advertising seems to have little influence on children’s general perceptions of
what constitutes a healthy diet, but, in certain contexts, it does have an effect on more specific types of
nutritional knowledge. For example, seeing soft drink and cereal adverts reduced primary aged children’s
ability to determine correctly whether or not certain products contained real fruit.
C. The review also found evidence that food promotion influences children’s food preferences and their
purchase behaviour. A study of primary school children, for instance, found that exposure to advertising
influenced which foods they claimed to like; and another showed that labelling and signage on a vending
machine had an effect on what was bought by secondary school pupils. A number of studies have also shown
that food advertising can influence what children eat. One, for example, showed that advertising influenced a

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primary class’s choice of daily snack at playtime.
D. The next step, of trying to establish whether or not a link exists between food promotion and diet or obesity,
is extremely difficult as it requires research to be done in real world settings. A number of studies have
attempted this by using amount of television viewing as a proxy for exposure to television advertising. They
have established a clear link between television viewing and diet, obesity, and cholesterol levels. It is
impossible to say, however, whether this effect is caused by the advertising, the sedentary nature of television
viewing or snacking that might take place whilst viewing. One study resolved this problem by taking a detailed
diary of children’s viewing habits. This showed that the more food adverts they saw, the more snacks and
calories they consumed.
E. Thus the literature does suggest food promotion is influencing children’s diet in a number of ways. This
does not amount to proof; as noted above with this kind of research, incontrovertible proof simply isn’t
attainable. Nor do all studies point to this conclusion; several have not found an effect. In addition, very few
studies have attempted to measure how strong these effects are relative to other factors influencing children’s
food choices. Nonetheless, many studies have found clear effects and they have used sophisticated
methodologies that make it possible to determine that: i) these effects are not just due to chance; ii) they are
independent of other factors that influence diet, such as parents’ eating habits or attitudes; and iii) they occur
at a brand and category level.
F. Furthermore, two factors suggest that these findings actually downplay the effect that food promotion has
on children. First, the literature focuses principally on television advertising; the cumulative effect of this
combined with other forms of promotion and marketing is likely to be significantly greater. Second, the studies
have looked at direct effects of individual children, and understate indirect influences. For example, promotion
for fast food outlets may not only influence the child, but also encourage parents to take them for meals and
reinforce the idea that this is a normal and desirable behaviour.
Questions 23-27.
The reading passage has six paragraphs, A-F. Choose the most suitable heading for each of the
paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number, i-viii, in the blanks.
List of Headings
i. General points of agreements and disagreements of researchers
ii. How much children really know about food
iii. Children often buy what they want
iv. Advertising effects of the “Big Four”
v. Connection of advertising and children’s weight problems
vi. Evidence that advertising affects what children buy to eat
vii. Advertising’s focus on unhealthy options

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 viii. Underestimating the effects advertising has on children
23. Paragraph A __________
24. Paragraph B __________
25. Paragraph C __________
Example: Paragraph D - v
26. Paragraph E __________
27. Paragraph F __________

Questions 28-30. Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the reading passage?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts with the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
28. There is little difference between healthy diet recommended by advisors and diet prompted in food
advertisements.
29. It is hard to decide which aspect accompanied with TV viewing has caused weight problems or other
detrimental effects on children.
30. Wealthy parents tend to buy more “sensible food” for their children.

D. WRITING (2.5 points)

Part 1: Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before
it. You must use NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS for each space provided. (0.5 points)
1. The number of tourists visiting the city rose sharply last year.
→ There ............................................................................... the number of tourists visiting the city last year.
2. Nancy tried to remain impartial in the quarrel between her two colleagues.
→ Nancy tried not ..............................................................................the quarrel between her two colleagues.
3. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language.
→ It .............................................................................................................. my father persuaded me to learn.
4. Alice is rumoured to be about to become a Sky News presenter.
→ Rumour has .......................................................................... the verge of becoming a Sky News presenter.
5. Someone informed the police an impending robbery at the local bank last Monday.
→ The police were tipped .................................................................... robbery at the local bank last Monday.

Part 2: Use the words in the brackets to complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning

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to the first sentence. Do not change the words given. Write between TWO AND SIX WORDS for each
space provided. (0.5 points)
6. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were double-checked. (LIGHT)
→ The mistake in the accounts only ......................................................... the figures were double-checked.
7. They have very little money to live on now that she is unemployed. (HAND)
→ They have been living ...................................................................................................... she lost her job.
8. A great many people will congratulate Brian if he wins the competition. (SHOWERED)
→ Brian ................................................................................................................ if he wins the competition.
9. She knew nothing about the party that they were planning. (DARK)
→ She ........................................................................................................ the party that they were planning.
10. His irresponsible attitude is endangering his career as a doctor. (JEOPARDY)
→ His irresponsible attitude is putting his career ...........................................................................................

Part 3: Paragraph writing (1.5 points)

Write a paragraph of about 160-180 words to suggest some ways for students to improve their self-study
skill.
Write your paragraph in the space below.
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THE END

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