UNIT I: Introduction to Environmental Science

1. What is the primary component of an ecosystem?

A) Soil B) Organisms and their environment C) Water D) Rocks
Answer: B
2. The process of converting sunlight into chemical energy in plants is called:
A) Respiration B) Photosynthesis C) Transpiration D) Decomposition
Answer: B
3. The carbon cycle mainly involves the movement of carbon between:
A) Plants and soil B) Water and air C) Atmosphere, oceans, biosphere, and geosphere
D) Rocks and rivers
Answer: C
4. Which of the following is NOT a biotic component of an ecosystem?
A) Plants B) Animals C) Microorganisms D) Water
Answer: D
5. Energy flow in an ecosystem is:
A) Cyclic B) One-way C) Bi-directional D) Always increasing
Answer: B
6. The basic unit of ecological hierarchy is:
A) Community B) Population C) Ecosystem D) Organism
Answer: D
7. The water cycle is also known as:
A) Hydrological cycle B) Carbon cycle C) Oxygen cycle D) Rock cycle
Answer: A
8. Carbon dioxide is primarily removed from the atmosphere by:
A) Respiration B) Decomposition C) Photosynthesis D) Combustion
Answer: C
9. An example of a decomposer is:
A) Bacteria B) Grass C) Cow D) Tree
Answer: A
10. Food chain always starts with:
A) Herbivores B) Producers C) Carnivores D) Omnivores
Answer: B
11. The flow of energy in the ecosystem is governed by:
A) Law of gravity B) Laws of thermodynamics C) Newton’s laws D) Law of
motion
Answer: B
12. Which cycle involves nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A) Nitrogen cycle B) Carbon cycle C) Oxygen cycle D) Water cycle
Answer: A
13. Root cause of modern environmental degradation includes:
A) Urbanization B) Industrialization C) Overpopulation D) All of the above
Answer: D
14. Energy enters the ecosystem through:
A) Decomposers B) Consumers C) Sunlight D) Fossil fuels
Answer: C
15. Psychological cause of degradation includes:
A) Poverty B) Ignorance C) Religion D) Climate
Answer: B
16. Which of the following is NOT a part of the ecosystem?
A) Air B) Water C) Plastic D) Soil
Answer: C
17. Energy in an ecosystem flows from:
A) Consumers to producers B) Decomposers to consumers C) Producers to
consumers D) Soil to plants
Answer: C
18. The term "ecosystem" was first coined by:
A) Ernst Haeckel B) Arthur Tansley C) Charles Darwin D) Rachel Carson
Answer: B
19. Cultural causes of degradation include:
A) Deforestation B) Consumerism C) Mining D) Overgrazing
Answer: B
20. The main source of energy for the Earth is:
A) Wind B) Sun C) Water D) Geothermal
Answer: B
21. Which cycle is responsible for nutrient circulation?
A) Hydrological B) Geological C) Biogeochemical D) Energy cycle
Answer: C
22. The process of biological magnification affects:
A) Temperature B) Oxygen C) Toxins in food chains D) Energy
Answer: C
23. An example of abiotic component is:
A) Mushroom B) Bacteria C) Rock D) Fungi
Answer: C
24. Current state of environment in India includes:
A) High forest cover B) Pollution problems C) Zero emission zones D) Arctic
weather
Answer: B
25. A balanced ecosystem requires:
A) Only producers B) Only consumers C) All types of organisms D) Only abiotic
factors
Answer: C

26. Which process adds carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?

A) Photosynthesis B) Combustion C) Absorption D) Precipitation
Answer: B
27. Forests are known as:
A) Water filters B) Earth’s skin C) Lungs of the Earth D) Earth's blanket
Answer: C
28. The primary producers in aquatic ecosystems are:
A) Fish B) Phytoplankton C) Whales D) Coral
Answer: B
29. Which component fixes nitrogen in soil?
A) Viruses B) Worms C) Bacteria D) Fungi
Answer: C
30. Ozone is found in which layer?
A) Troposphere B) Mesosphere C) Thermosphere D) Stratosphere
Answer: D
31. The greenhouse effect is caused by:
A) Ozone B) Dust C) Greenhouse gases D) Clouds
Answer: C
32. Which gas is a major contributor to global warming?
A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon dioxide D) Helium
Answer: C
33. Which is not a greenhouse gas?
A) Methane B) CO2 C) O3 D) O2
Answer: D
34. Which activity is most responsible for habitat destruction?
A) Fishing B) Logging C) Deforestation D) Organic farming
Answer: C
35. Which layer of the atmosphere is closest to Earth?
A) Stratosphere B) Thermosphere C) Mesosphere D) Troposphere
Answer: D
36. Which natural resource is renewable?
A) Coal B) Oil C) Wind D) Natural gas
Answer: C
37. The process of turning waste into new products is:
A) Combustion B) Segregation C) Recycling D) Incineration
Answer: C
38. Soil erosion can be prevented by:
A) Overgrazing B) Afforestation C) Mining D) Urbanization
Answer: B
39. Ecological footprint measures:
A) Land ownership B) Water quality C) Environmental impact D) Soil fertility
Answer: C
40. Carrying capacity refers to:
A) Number of plants in a forest
B) Amount of energy in an ecosystem
C) Maximum population an area can support
D) Number of species in the world
Answer: C
41. Which gas is used by plants during photosynthesis?
A) CO2 B) O2 C) N2 D) CH4
Answer: A
 42. Fossil fuels are formed from:
A) Fresh water B) Dead organisms C) Rocks D) Gases
Answer: B
43. Which is a non-renewable resource?
A) Solar energy B) Wind C) Petroleum D) Biomass
Answer: C
44. Which factor does NOT affect an ecosystem?
A) Temperature B) Rainfall C) Radio waves D) Soil type
Answer: C
45. Biosphere includes:
A) Land only B) Water only C) Air only D) All living areas
Answer: D
46. The smallest unit of an element is:
A) Cell B) Atom C) Molecule D) Proton
Answer: B
47. Which human activity leads to extinction of species?
A) Bird-watching B) Ecotourism C) Deforestation D) Organic farming
Answer: C
48. An ecosystem without consumers is:
A) Balanced B) Non-functional C) Productive D) Self-sustaining
Answer: B
49. Sustainable use of resources means:
A) Unlimited use B) Use without replacement C) Wise use D) Avoid all use
Answer: C
50. Which is a living component of the environment?
A) Sunlight B) Water C) Fungi D) Minerals
Answer: C

UNIT II: Environmental Pollution and Management

1. What is the main source of air pollution in urban areas?

A) Agriculture B) Vehicles C) Forests D) Oceans
Answer: B
2. Which gas causes acid rain?
A) O2 B) CO2 C) SO2 D) N2
Answer: C
3. Photochemical smog is mainly composed of:
A) O3 and NOx B) SO2 and CO C) PM and Pb D) CH4 and CO2
Answer: A
4. Noise pollution is measured in:
A) Meters B) Decibels C) Lumens D) Joules
Answer: B
5. Primary pollutant from vehicles is:
A) CO B) O3 C) Pb D) NH3
Answer: A
6. Solid waste is best managed by:
A) Burning B) Open dumping C) Segregation and recycling D) River disposal
Answer: C
7. Which of these is a biodegradable pollutant?
A) Plastic B) Paper C) Glass D) Metal
Answer: B
8. Blue baby syndrome is caused by:
A) Lead B) Fluoride C) Nitrates D) Mercury
Answer: C
9. Which heavy metal is found in batteries?
A) Iron B) Lead C) Aluminium D) Calcium
Answer: B
10. Groundwater contamination is mostly caused by:
A) Acid rain B) Sewage C) Runoff D) Industrial effluents
Answer: D
11. The most harmful UV rays are:
A) UV-A B) UV-B C) UV-C D) Infrared
Answer: C
12. Which disease is caused by air pollution?
A) Cholera B) Asthma C) Typhoid D) Malaria
Answer: B
13. Which pollutant is reduced by catalytic converters?
A) O3 B) CO C) N2 D) SO2
Answer: B
14. Biomagnification occurs most commonly in:
A) Land animals B) Birds C) Aquatic animals D) Plants
Answer: C
15. Which of these pollutions affects hearing?
A) Soil B) Noise C) Air D) Light
Answer: B
16. Which of these is a greenhouse gas?
A) O2 B) CO2 C) N2 D) H2
Answer: B
17. Which pollution is related to eutrophication?
A) Thermal B) Air C) Water D) Soil
Answer: C
18. Landfills are primarily used for:
A) Liquid waste B) Air treatment C) Solid waste D) Radioactive waste
Answer: C
19. Fluoride pollution affects:
A) Bones and teeth B) Eyes C) Liver D) Skin
Answer: A
20. Which is not a method of air pollution control?
A) Cyclone separator B) Catalytic converter C) Scrubber D) Chlorination
Answer: D
21. World Environment Day is celebrated on:
A) April 22 B) June 5 C) May 11 D) October 2
Answer: B
22. Thermal pollution primarily affects:
A) Soil quality B) Air C) Water temperature D) Light intensity
Answer: C
23. Which gas is responsible for global warming?
A) Argon B) Helium C) Methane D) Hydrogen
Answer: C
24. The term BOD refers to:
A) Biological Oxygen Demand B) Biochemical Organic Discharge C) Basic Oxygen
Difference D) None
Answer: A
25. Ozone depletion causes:
A) Skin cancer B) Flu C) Asthma D) Bronchitis
Answer: A

26. Ganga Action Plan was launched in:

A) 1985 B) 1990 C) 2000 D) 2010
Answer: A
27. Greenhouse effect leads to:
A) Global warming B) Cooling C) Rainfall D) Eutrophication
Answer: A
28. Mercury pollution causes:
A) Bone deformities B) Skin rashes C) Minamata disease D) Cancer
Answer: C
29. CFCs are mainly used in:
A) Refrigerators B) Water filters C) Batteries D) Fuel
Answer: A
30. The most common indoor air pollutant is:
A) CO2 B) Radon C) Methane D) Ozone
Answer: B
31. Biomedical waste should be disposed by:
A) Composting B) Incineration C) Dumping D) Recycling
Answer: B
32. Thermal pollution is caused by:
A) Organic waste B) Heated industrial waste C) Cold water discharge D) Soil
erosion
Answer: B
33. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in:
A) 1974 B) 1981 C) 1986 D) 1995
Answer: B
34. The main source of NOx in urban areas is:
A) Domestic waste B) Vehicles C) Industries D) Agriculture
Answer: B
35. Particulate matter PM2.5 refers to particles with diameter:
A) Less than 2.5 mm B) Less than 2.5 micrometres C) Less than 2.5 nm D) None
Answer: B
36. Leachate is a pollutant produced from:
A) Incinerators B) Oceans C) Landfills D) Wetlands
Answer: C
37. Which gas is used in wastewater treatment for disinfection?
A) CO2 B) O2 C) Chlorine D) Ammonia
Answer: C
38. Eutrophication causes:
A) Increase in oxygen B) Algal bloom C) Soil erosion D) Clean water
Answer: B
39. The major contributor to smog formation is:
A) Water vapor B) Carbon monoxide C) Nitrogen oxides D) Ozone
Answer: C
40. What is a key indicator of water pollution?
A) TDS B) pH C) BOD D) Temperature
Answer: C
41. Composting converts organic waste into:
A) Methane B) Toxic gas C) Fertilizer D) Water
Answer: C
42. The major pollutant from thermal power plants is:
A) SO2 B) NH3 C) CH4 D) H2S
Answer: A
43. Which is the best method to reduce e-waste?
A) Burning B) Burying C) Recycling D) Export
Answer: C
44. A pollutant that causes global dimming:
A) Aerosols B) CO2 C) Methane D) Ozone
Answer: A
45. Which of the following is used in air filters?
A) Plastic B) Activated carbon C) Water D) Sulfur
Answer: B
46. Air Quality Index (AQI) measures:
A) Temperature B) Pollutant concentration C) Noise D) Soil pH
Answer: B
47. Bhopal Gas tragedy involved leakage of:
A) Chlorine B) MIC (Methyl Isocyanate) C) Ammonia D) Ozone
Answer: B
48. Thermal power stations mainly contribute to:
A) CO2 and SO2 emissions B) NO2 only C) O3 only D) CH4 only
Answer: A
 49. Vermicomposting involves:
A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Earthworms D) Termites
Answer: C
50. Pollutant that damages the nervous system:
A) Lead B) Copper C) Calcium D) Iron
Answer: A

UNIT III: Renewable and Non-Renewable Resources

1. Which of the following is a renewable resource?

A) Coal B) Oil C) Solar energy D) Natural gas
Answer: C
2. Non-renewable energy resources include:
A) Sunlight B) Wind C) Petroleum D) Geothermal
Answer: C
3. Hydropower is generated from:
A) Wind energy B) Flowing water C) Solar panels D) Tides
Answer: B
4. The major fuel used in nuclear power plants is:
A) Uranium B) Coal C) Oil D) Methane
Answer: A
5. Geothermal energy originates from:
A) The sun B) Ocean waves C) Earth’s internal heat D) Wind
Answer: C
6. Which is not a characteristic of renewable energy?
A) Sustainable B) Inexhaustible C) Clean D) Fossil-based
Answer: D
7. A key drawback of solar energy is:
A) High pollution B) Cost-free setup C) Weather dependency D) Low availability
Answer: C
8. Biomass energy comes from:
A) Rocks B) Sunlight C) Organic material D) Wind
Answer: C
9. Which country leads in wind energy production?
A) USA B) India C) China D) Brazil
Answer: C
10. Which is a biofuel?
A) Diesel B) Kerosene C) Ethanol D) Petrol
Answer: C
11. Which of these is not a fossil fuel?
A) Coal B) Oil C) Natural gas D) Hydrogen
Answer: D
12. Wind energy is harnessed using:
A) Turbines B) Transformers C) Reactors D) Panels
Answer: A
13. Solar panels work best during:
A) Cloudy days B) Night C) Sunny days D) Winter
Answer: C
14. Which is a clean energy source?
A) Coal B) Natural gas C) Solar D) Diesel
Answer: C
15. Which renewable source depends on lunar cycles?
A) Geothermal B) Solar C) Tidal D) Biomass
Answer: C
16. The process of obtaining energy from animal waste is called:
A) Incineration B) Fermentation C) Anaerobic digestion D) Pyrolysis
Answer: C
17. Which power plant releases radioactive waste?
A) Hydroelectric B) Solar C) Thermal D) Nuclear
Answer: D
18. The cleanest fossil fuel is:
A) Coal B) Oil C) Diesel D) Natural gas
Answer: D
19. Which sector uses the most fossil fuels globally?
A) Industry B) Transportation C) Agriculture D) Domestic
Answer: B
20. Which type of power plant needs a large water reservoir?
A) Thermal B) Nuclear C) Hydropower D) Solar
Answer: C
21. Which is not used in renewable energy generation?
A) Uranium B) Sunlight C) Wind D) Water
Answer: A
22. Tidal energy is a form of:
A) Mechanical energy B) Electrical energy C) Kinetic energy D) Potential energy
Answer: A
23. Which gas is a major output of biogas plants?
A) CO2 B) Methane C) Hydrogen D) Oxygen
Answer: B
24. What is the largest source of energy in India?
A) Wind B) Hydro C) Coal D) Solar
Answer: C
25. Which technology converts sunlight directly into electricity?
A) Hydro turbine B) Windmill C) Photovoltaic D) Biomass digester
Answer: C
26. Fossil fuels are formed over a period of:
A) Few years B) Centuries C) Millions of years D) Decades
Answer: C
27. Which of the following is used in photovoltaic cells?
A) Silicon B) Copper C) Zinc D) Mercury
Answer: A
28. Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) uses:
A) Salinity gradient B) Tidal waves C) Temperature difference D) Wind speed
Answer: C
29. Energy from moving air is known as:
A) Solar energy B) Hydroelectric energy C) Wind energy D) Geothermal energy
Answer: C
30. Hydrogen fuel is obtained by:
A) Decomposition B) Fermentation C) Electrolysis D) Incineration
Answer: C
31. Which one is a disadvantage of nuclear energy?
A) High fuel cost B) Large space requirement C) Radioactive waste D) Low energy
output
Answer: C
32. Renewable resources can be replenished:
A) Never B) Over long time periods only C) Naturally over time D) By chemical
reaction
Answer: C
33. The largest hydroelectric power plant in India is:
A) Bhakra Nangal B) Tehri C) Sardar Sarovar D) Koyna
Answer: B
34. Biogas is composed mainly of:
A) CO2 and H2 B) CH4 and CO2 C) CO and H2O D) N2 and CO
Answer: B
35. Energy crops are grown for:
A) Food production B) Soil fertility C) Fuel generation D) Timber
Answer: C
36. Coal is an example of:
A) Metallic resource B) Renewable resource C) Fossil fuel D) Biological fuel
Answer: C
37. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
A) Wood B) Petrol C) Natural gas D) Coal
Answer: C
38. Solar cookers work on the principle of:
A) Reflection B) Absorption C) Radiation D) All of these
Answer: D
39. Which of the following is a liquid biofuel?
A) Biogas B) Biodiesel C) Charcoal D) Bagasse
Answer: B
40. Which is the cleanest energy source among the following?
A) Coal B) Solar C) Diesel D) Kerosene
Answer: B
41. What is the full form of OTEC?
A) Ocean Temperature Energy Converter
B) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion
C) Offshore Thermal Energy Connection
D) Oceanic Technology and Energy Conservation
Answer: B
42. Which of the following is used for storing solar energy for night use?
A) Batteries B) Transformers C) Inverters D) Rectifiers
Answer: A
43. Tidal energy can be generated during:
A) Only high tide B) Only low tide C) Both high and low tides D) Rainy season
Answer: C
44. The waste from thermal power plants is:
A) Ash B) Organic matter C) Metals D) None
Answer: A
45. The main cause of non-renewable resource depletion is:
A) Natural disasters B) Overconsumption C) Ocean currents D) Volcanic eruptions
Answer: B
46. The process of harnessing wind energy involves:
A) Rotor blades B) Condensers C) Fuel combustion D) Pistons
Answer: A
47. Which of the following reduces dependency on fossil fuels?
A) Burning wood B) Use of electric vehicles C) Diesel engines D) Kerosene lamps
Answer: B
48. Which of the following contributes least to air pollution?
A) Petrol B) Diesel C) Natural gas D) Coal
Answer: C
49. Energy efficiency is improved by:
A) Using incandescent bulbs B) Keeping appliances on C) Using LED lights D)
Burning more coal
Answer: C
50. Which of these is not an advantage of renewable energy?
A) Eco-friendly B) Inexhaustible C) Low operational cost D) High carbon emission
Answer: D
UNIT IV: Environmental Policies and Practices (1–25)

1. The Environment Protection Act (EPA) was enacted in:

A) 1972 B) 1986 C) 1990 D) 1995
Answer: B
2. EIA stands for:
A) Environmental Impact Assessment
B) Energy Intensity Appraisal
C) Earth Integration Analysis
D) Environmental Institution Authority
Answer: A
3. The main purpose of EIA is to:
A) Increase land prices
B) Assess impact of development projects
C) Create employment
D) Improve GDP
Answer: B
4. Which organization monitors environmental issues in India?
A) ISRO B) RBI C) CPCB D) WHO
Answer: C
5. The Forest Conservation Act was passed in:
A) 1975 B) 1980 C) 1990 D) 2000
Answer: B
6. Which of these is a function of the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change
(MoEFCC)?
A) Budget control B) Tax collection C) Environmental regulation D) Currency
printing
Answer: C
7. The Kyoto Protocol aims to control:
A) Ozone B) Biodiversity C) Greenhouse gases D) Water pollution
Answer: C
8. Which is a legal tool for pollution control?
A) Rainwater harvesting B) Green building C) Environmental law D) Organic
farming
Answer: C
9. Which act regulates air pollution in India?
A) Air Act 1981 B) Forest Act 1980 C) Wildlife Act 1972 D) EPA 1986
Answer: A
10. Which of these is not covered under EIA?
A) Mining B) Dams C) Education policy D) Thermal power
Answer: C
11. Which international body addresses global environmental issues?
A) FIFA B) UN C) IMF D) WTO
Answer: B
12. Public hearings in EIA are meant for:
A) Protests B) Entertainment C) Stakeholder participation D) Approval of funds
Answer: C
13. Which country first hosted the UN Earth Summit?
A) USA B) India C) Brazil D) Germany
Answer: C
14. NGT stands for:
A) National Green Tribunal
B) New Global Treaty
C) Natural Green Tax
D) National Ground Team
Answer: A
15. Which principle is followed in sustainable development?
A) Overconsumption B) Equity and conservation C) Exploitation D) Ignorance
Answer: B
16. Environmental audits help in:
A) Pollution B) Compliance tracking C) Electricity use D) Mining
Answer: B
17. Which document governs international climate action post-2015?
A) Montreal Protocol B) Kyoto Protocol C) Paris Agreement D) Rio Declaration
Answer: C
18. Environmental ethics deals with:
A) Financial management B) Moral relation to nature C) Scientific laws D) Trade
Answer: B
19. Which of the following is a key global environmental concern?
A) Water sharing B) Plastic ban C) Climate change D) Taxes
Answer: C
20. Which act is aimed at controlling water pollution?
A) Water Act 1974 B) Air Act 1981 C) EIA D) EPA 1986
Answer: A
21. Carbon trading is related to:
A) Agriculture B) Pollution control C) Mineral export D) Transportation
Answer: B
22. ISO 14001 certification is related to:
A) Financial audit B) Environmental management C) Waste production D) Forest
area
Answer: B
23. Which principle is promoted by eco-labels?
A) Consumer awareness B) Price hike C) Exploitation D) Tax rebate
Answer: A
24. The Rio Earth Summit was held in:
A) 1990 B) 1992 C) 1995 D) 1998
Answer: B
25. Which act empowers the central government to take measures to protect the
environment?
 A) Wildlife Act B) Forest Act C) EPA 1986 D) CRZ Notification
Answer: C

26. Biodiversity Act was passed in India in the year:

A) 1992 B) 1995 C) 2002 D) 2010
Answer: C
27. Which document is prepared after EIA for implementation?
A) EMP (Environmental Management Plan)
B) EAC (Environmental Approval Code)
C) ETP (Effluent Treatment Plan)
D) GHG Inventory
Answer: A
28. Which of the following is not a type of EIA?
A) Strategic EIA B) Social EIA C) Rapid EIA D) Biological EIA
Answer: D
29. The precautionary principle in environmental law means:
A) Act after pollution occurs
B) Wait for legal approval
C) Take preventive action
D) Consult economists
Answer: C
30. Polluter Pays Principle implies:
A) Public pays for pollution
B) Government funds clean-up
C) Industry bears cost of pollution
D) NGO sponsors clean-up
Answer: C
31. Which law ensures conservation of biological diversity?
A) Wildlife Protection Act B) Forest Act C) Biodiversity Act D) EPA
Answer: C
32. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) works under:
A) Ministry of Health B) Ministry of Agriculture C) MoEFCC D) Ministry of Rural
Affairs
Answer: C
33. ISO 14000 deals with:
A) Quality control B) Environmental management systems
C) Safety measures D) Trade policy
Answer: B
34. The ‘Right to Clean Environment’ is protected under:
A) Indian Penal Code B) Directive Principles C) Fundamental Rights D) Civil Laws
Answer: C
35. The Paris Agreement was signed in:
A) 2012 B) 2015 C) 2017 D) 2020
Answer: B
36. Who can file a complaint with the NGT?
A) Only government B) Only NGOs C) Any citizen D) Only corporates
Answer: C
37. The term “Green Tax” refers to:
A) Tax on forests B) Incentives for planting trees C) Tax to promote clean technology
D) Fine on green spaces
Answer: C
38. Which law addresses hazardous waste management in India?
A) Forest Act B) Water Act C) Hazardous Waste Rules D) Solid Waste
Management Rules
Answer: C
39. Which of these does not fall under environmental policy?
A) Kyoto Protocol B) Paris Agreement C) Green Revolution D) Biodiversity Act
Answer: C
40. The first global conference on environment was held in:
A) Rio de Janeiro B) Stockholm C) Paris D) New York
Answer: B
41. National Afforestation Programme focuses on:
A) Mining B) Deforestation C) Tree planting D) Road building
Answer: C
42. A key objective of environmental education is:
A) Legal awareness B) Economic growth C) Behaviour change D) Industrial
expansion
Answer: C
43. Environmental Tribunal is meant to:
A) Frame policies B) Approve industries C) Settle disputes D) Train lawyers
Answer: C
44. Which of the following is a proactive environmental strategy?
A) Dumping waste B) Pollution fines C) Pollution prevention D) Export of waste
Answer: C
45. Which agency oversees climate change data collection in India?
A) IMD B) ISRO C) CPCB D) MoEFCC
Answer: A
46. Which is an example of a market-based environmental instrument?
A) Pollution taxes B) Forest patrol C) Environmental laws D) Bans
Answer: A
47. A document issued for green project clearance is:
A) Building permit B) Environmental Clearance Certificate
C) Construction approval D) Carbon Credit
Answer: B
48. Which term denotes the inclusion of local communities in resource management?
A) Centralization B) Privatization C) Participatory management D) Liberalization
Answer: C
49. Which body frames environmental standards in India?
A) CPCB B) WHO C) RBI D) FAO
Answer: A
 50. Which principle promotes equity in environmental access and benefits?
A) Polluter Pays B) Intergenerational Equity C) Green Tax D) Free Market
Answer: B

UNIT V: Human Population and the Environment

1. The world population reached 8 billion in:

A) 2018 B) 2022 C) 2024 D) 2020
Answer: B
2. The term “population explosion” refers to:
A) Sudden decrease in population
B) Rapid increase in population
C) Population stabilization
D) Population migration
Answer: B
3. Which country has the second highest population as of 2023?
A) USA B) Indonesia C) China D) India
Answer: C (India is now first, China second)
4. Infant mortality rate refers to deaths per:
A) 100 infants B) 1000 infants C) 100 births D) 1000 adults
Answer: B
5. Urbanization increases:
A) Forest cover B) Air quality C) Water quality D) Resource consumption
Answer: D
6. Which is not a consequence of population growth?
A) Deforestation B) Climate mitigation C) Overcrowding D) Pollution
Answer: B
7. A major impact of overpopulation is:
A) More green space B) Water scarcity C) Less carbon emission D) Higher fertility
Answer: B
8. Carrying capacity refers to:
A) Land value B) Vehicle strength C) Earth’s ability to support life
D) Birth rate
Answer: C
9. A population pyramid shows:
A) Food production B) Climate data C) Age and sex distribution
D) Energy use
Answer: C
10. Which is a method to control population growth?
A) Child marriage B) Family planning C) Deforestation D) More migration
Answer: B
11. Education helps in population control by:
A) Reducing income B) Raising fertility C) Delaying marriages D) Increasing
 mortality
Answer: C
12. Demographic transition includes how many stages?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Answer: C (Traditionally 4)
13. What is meant by “replacement-level fertility”?
A) Number of children needed to replace population
B) Number of women per household
C) Infant mortality rate
D) Aging population
Answer: A
14. One of the social impacts of overpopulation is:
A) Better education B) Less pollution C) Unemployment D) Low urbanization
Answer: C
15. Which of these is a renewable resource affected by population growth?
A) Petroleum B) Wind C) Coal D) Uranium
Answer: B
16. Which program promotes maternal health in India?
A) Ayushman Bharat B) RCH C) Skill India D) Ujjwala Yojana
Answer: B (Reproductive and Child Health)
17. The ageing population leads to:
A) Increase in workforce B) Decrease in healthcare demand
C) Increased healthcare needs D) High birth rate
Answer: C
18. The main environmental impact of slum development is:
A) Biodiversity gain B) Improved sanitation C) Waste accumulation D) Air
purification
Answer: C
19. The UN agency focused on population issues is:
A) WHO B) UNDP C) UNFPA D) UNEP
Answer: C
20. One-child policy was implemented by:
A) India B) Japan C) China D) South Korea
Answer: C
21. Gender equality can help in:
A) Population increase B) Fertility rate control
C) Urban expansion D) Water pollution
Answer: B
22. Overpopulation results in:
A) Increased biodiversity B) Enhanced water quality
C) Food insecurity D) Urban cooling
Answer: C
23. Which country has a population density >1000 per sq km?
A) Russia B) India C) USA D) Brazil
Answer: B
24. Population growth directly affects:
A) Orbit pattern B) Carbon emissions C) Earthquakes D) Ocean tides
Answer: B
25. Environmental migration is caused by:
A) Traffic B) Natural disasters C) Global trade D) Sports events
Answer: B

26. The country with the highest population density (as of 2023) is:
A) Bangladesh B) India C) Japan D) UK
Answer: A
27. Which factor contributes most to urban sprawl?
A) Rural employment B) Industrialization C) Population decline D) Desertification
Answer: B
28. Which of the following is not an effect of urbanization?
A) Air pollution B) Traffic congestion C) Groundwater recharge D) Noise pollution
Answer: C
29. The population control measure adopted by India in 1952 was:
A) Family Planning Programme B) Sterilization Act
C) Birth Control Bill D) Population Tax Scheme
Answer: A
30. Which is a positive outcome of population stabilization?
A) Increased poverty B) Balanced resource use
C) High dependency ratio D) Overcrowding
Answer: B
31. Overpopulation puts strain on:
A) Soil fertility B) Resource availability C) Land distribution D) All of the above
Answer: D
32. Population momentum refers to:
A) Increase due to immigration
B) Continued growth after fertility falls
C) Sudden population crash
D) Rural to urban migration
Answer: B
33. Which indicator shows pressure on resources due to human activity?
A) GDP B) HDI C) Ecological footprint D) Literacy rate
Answer: C
34. Environmental refugees are displaced due to:
A) Economic collapse B) Environmental factors C) Terrorism D) Urbanization
Answer: B
35. The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) required for population replacement is about:
A) 1.0 B) 2.1 C) 2.9 D) 3.5
Answer: B
36. Biocapacity means:
A) The amount of pollution nature can absorb
B) Capacity of species to adapt
C) Earth's ability to regenerate resources
 D) Maximum yield of crops
Answer: C
37. A population policy aims to:
A) Improve air quality B) Reduce migration C) Manage growth rate D) Promote
urbanization
Answer: C
38. High infant mortality rates usually lead to:
A) Low birth rates B) High fertility rates
C) Better healthcare D) Population decline
Answer: B
39. One effect of population growth on water resources is:
A) Increased availability B) Better irrigation
C) Water scarcity D) More rainfall
Answer: C
40. Urban heat islands are caused by:
A) High altitude B) Green cover C) Concrete structures D) Rivers
Answer: C
41. Which of these has the lowest ecological footprint?
A) Developed nations B) Developing nations
C) Rural populations D) Urban populations
Answer: C
42. The percentage of India's urban population (2023 estimate) is around:
A) 20% B) 35% C) 50% D) 70%
Answer: B
43. Rapid population growth affects biodiversity by:
A) Protecting habitats B) Promoting conservation
C) Causing habitat loss D) Reducing extinction
Answer: C
44. Which is a consequence of overpopulation in developing countries?
A) Increase in per capita income B) Unemployment
C) Decline in pollution D) More forest cover
Answer: B
45. Which term refers to population per unit of arable land?
A) Population density B) Agricultural density
C) Ecological footprint D) Crude birth rate
Answer: B
46. Family welfare programs focus on:
A) Tax reduction B) Employment only C) Reproductive health and awareness D)
Industrial growth
Answer: C
47. Migration from villages to cities is known as:
A) International migration B) Rural to urban migration
C) Urbanization D) Intergenerational mobility
Answer: B
48. Sustainable cities aim to:
A) Maximize pollution B) Eliminate green zones
 C) Reduce carbon footprint D) Increase road traffic
Answer: C
49. The ideal population is defined as:
A) Maximum possible people in a region
B) Population where quality of life is maximized
C) Minimum required population
D) Highest birth rate
Answer: B
50. An effective strategy to manage urban population growth is:
A) Limiting education B) Joblessness C) Rural development D) Industrial shutdown
Answer: C