17 ANSWER SHEET

Final Exam
313A Level 3 Advance
October 30, 2017

DO NOT WRITE ON EXAM PAPER

EXAM IS NOT TO LEAVE THE ROOM

Read each question carefully

Select the most correct answer
Place the answer in the appropriate bubble on the answer sheet

Good Luck!
 Given the following conditions and using a PT chart for questions 1 & 2
Space temp = 35°F plus or minus 2°F
Coil TD = 12°F
Approach = 6°F
Refrigerant Type = 134a
Suction Line pressure drop = 2°FEPD

1/ What are the pressure settings on the pressure control?

a) Cut out 20.5 psi, Cut in 31 psi, differential 10.5 psid

b) Cut out 20.5 psi, Cut in 30 psi, differential 9.5 psid
c) Cut out 19 psi, Cut in 30 psi, differential 11 psid
d) Cut out 19 psi, Cut in 31 psi, differential 12 psid

2/ What is the maximum test pressure used on a refrigeration system component when
performing a pneumatic pressure test?

a) 130% of system high side pressure

b) 110% of system low side pressure
c) 110% of component pressure
d) 130% of component pressure

3/ How is oil added to HFC containing semi-hermetic or scroll type compressors

having oil service valves?

a) Pull compressor into a vacuum and draw in polyolester oil

b) Pressurize oil container with nitrogen and oil into system
c) Use a hand pump and pump in mineral oil
d) Use a hand pump and pump in alkylbenzene oil

4/ Upon start- up of a supermarket system, the following readings are taken:

Refrigerant Type = R-507
Condensing Pressure = 297 psig
Outdoor Wet Bulb Temp = 75°F
Outdoor Dry Bulb temp = 90°F

What is the condenser split?

a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) 30
5/ What condition could cause a variable frequency drive to fail?

a) Disconnect downstream of drive is opened under load

b) Disconnect upstream of drive is opened under load
c) Contactor (with vfd interlock contacts), located upstream of motor is opened
under load
d) Contactor (with vfd interlock contacts), located downstream of vfd is opened
under load

6/ A technician has obtained the following resistance readings across the

terminals on a single phase compressor: 12 ohms from T1 to T3, 2 ohms
from T1 to T2, and 10 ohms from T2 to T3. Which terminals are RUN,
START, and COMMON?

a) T1 is Common
T2 is Run
T3 is Start

b) T1 is Run
T2 is Common
T3 is Start

c) T1 is Run
T2 is Start
T3 is Common

d) T1 is Start
T2 is Common
T3 is Run

7/ What are the operating temperatures of a HFC134a system, having a condensing pressure
of 161 psig and an evaporating pressure of 46 psia?

a) 36º F SST, 116º F SCT

b) 51º F SST, 116º F SCT
c) 36º F SST, 110º F SCT
d) 51º F SST, 122º F SCT

8/ The lowest temperature to which a direct expansion air conditioning coil can cool the air
is limited by________.

a. Coil face velocity

b. The coil design
c. Refrigerant temperature
d. The number off U bends
9/ Which application uses an internally equalized thermostatic expansion valve?
a) When used with an penbarthy type distributor
b) When used with a slip tee type distributor
c) When used with a multi circuited evaporator
d) When used with a single circuit evaporator

10/ Which of the following refers to compound compression?

a) 1st stage refrigerant is the lowest pressure, lowest temperature and lowest volume
b) Injection of liquid between 1st stage discharge and 2nd stage suction for
Increased subcooling
c) 2nd stage refrigerant is higher pressure higher temperature and
lower volume
d) 1st stage discharge is equal to 2nd stage suction when desuperheating
valve is open

11/ What documentation must the installer affix to a newly installed split AC system?

a) Voltage, current, phase unbalance

b) Refrigerant charge and oil type
c) Refrigerant charge and type
d) System design parameters

12/ When two 50 ufd capacitors are wired in parallel, the result is:

a) 25 nfd
b) 50 ufd
c) 100 ufd
d) 25 ufd

13/ What is the percentage of full load at start up, for a compressor having four cylinders?
a) 12.5 %
b) 25%
c) 50 %
d) 100 %
14/ If all conditions in a refrigeration system remain constant except for an increase
condensing pressure the results is:
a. A drop in evaporator pressure
b. A rise in suction pressure
c. A decrease in system capacity
d. None of the above

15/ What are the terminal connections for a dual voltage motor wired in low voltage wye?
A) 1MC T1 – T1 – T7, 1MC T2 – T2 – T8, 1MC T3 – T9, T4 – T10, T5 – T11, T6 – T12
B) 1MC T1 – T1, 1MC T2 – T2, 1MC T3 – T3, 2MC T7 – T7, 2MC T8 – T8, 2MC T9 – T9
C) 1MC T1 – T4, 1MC T2 – T5, 1MC T3 – T6, 2MC T7 – T7, 2MC T8 – T8, 2MC T9 – T9
D) 1MC T1 – T1 – T12, 1MC T2 – T2 – T10, 1MC T3 – T3 – T11, T4 – T7, T5 – T8, T6 – T9

16/ Where should a filter be placed in an HVAC system?

a) in the return air system upstream from a heat exchanger or a cooling coil
b) in the return air system downstream from a heat exchanger or a cooling coil
c) in the supply air system upstream from a heat exchanger or a cooling coil
d) in the supply air system downstream from a heat exchanger or a cooling coil

17/ A compressor operates under a condition such that its volumetric efficiency is 75%. If
discharge pressure increases but suction pressure remains unchanged, volumetric
efficiency will:
a. Be greater than 75%
b. Be less than 75% ( Increase in compression ratio will decrease Volumetric
efficiency)
c. Remain at 75%
d. Depends upon the clearance volume of the compressor

18/ Which method is used for testing a 3 wire oil pressure failure control?

a) with power removed, disconnect compressor leads from load side of

contactor coil and call for mechanical cooling
b) with power removed, disconnect oil failure control leads and call for
mechanical cooling
c) with power removed, disconnect compressor leads from load side of
contactor and call for mechanical cooling
d) Remove the jumper from between terminals 2 & M
best method compressor not running and proof of switch staying closed
19/ What is the problem when a technician finds a compressor not operating, the level in the
oil sight glass is normal and the oil pressure failure control tripped?

a) system has too many inverted traps

b) compressor has unloading capabilities and vapour risers have no p traps
c) compressor has a leaking discharge service valve
d) closed crankcase heater
oil hung up in lines

20/ Where is the vapour barrier of a walkin freezer located?

a) in the middle of the wall

b) on the inside of the insulation
c) adjacent to the freezer air side
d) adjacent to the ambient air side

21/ When is the superheat adjustment made on a thermostatic expansion valve?

a) At full load conditions

b) At design conditions
c) Nearing maximum conditions
d) Nearing space conditions

22/ What is the procedure for cleaning an ice cube making machine?

a) remove ice, remove any mineral deposits and sanitize with sodium hypochlorite
b) remove ice, remove any mineral deposits and flush with reverse osmosis water to
remove scale and flush with clean water
c) remove ice, remove any mineral deposits, sanitize with antibacterial agent
and flush with clean water
d) remove ice, remove any mineral deposits and flush with antibacterial agent

23/ Where is the humidity control of an ERV located?

a) outside air space

b) conditioned space
c) exhaust air
d) discharge air
24/ In order to decrease the defrost cycle of an electric defrost unit freezer coil, where is the
termination sensor located?

a) adjacent to the defrost and condensate heaters

b) opposite the defrost and condensate pan heaters
c) farthest from the coil front face
d) bottom of coil at the coil outlet

25/ The coil of a high impedance lock out relay is wired:

a) in parallel with the safeties and parallel with the load

b) in series with the safeties
c) in parallel with the safeties and in series with the load relay
d) in series with the load relay and series with the safeties

26/ When adding or removing liquid refrigerant to a water source heat exchanger, it is
important to allow the water to circulate through:

a) to prevent system contamination

b) to prevent laminar flow
c) to prevent turbulent flow
d) to prevent tube damage

27/ The _____________________ metering device is best suited to a condenser using a

reverse acting HPC
a. Capillary tube
b. Multi circuited capillary tube
c. Balanced port TXV
d. None of the above

28/ Where is the centrifugal economizer located?

a) between the 1st stage compressor discharge and 1st stage condenser suction
b) between the 2nd stage metering device and the 2nd stage compressor inlet
c) between the 1st stage condenser and the 2nd stage evaporator
d) between the 1st stage metering device outlet and the 2nd stage compressor inlet
29/ What is the procedure for verifying brine flow?

a) check continuity with ammeter while manually triggering flow switch during
winter maintenance.
b) check continuity while automatically shutting down pump during winter
maintenance.
c) automatically turn off brine pump and observe compressor control circuit
energize.
d) manually turn off brine pump and ensure flow switch opens and
refrigeration plant shuts down.
Preferred method would be to perform control circuit test with no line voltage to
compressor

30/ What procedure is required in order to reduce evacuation pull down time?

a) Remove Schrader cores, increase hose size and lower surrounding temperature
b) Increase hose size and raise surrounding temperature
c) Leave Schrader cores intact, increased hose size and raise surrounding
temperature
d) Remove Schrader cores, increase hose size and raise surrounding
temperature
Does not say where pulling from, but if pulling through Schrader with core intact there will be a
pressure drop.
When pulling through access on service valve, all Schrader cores throughout system must be in
place and all valves open/mid seat

31/ What is the procedure for verifying refrigerant flow to the heat reclaim coil in a
supermarket application?

a) raise temperature setting above ambient temperature

b) raise temperature setting above room temperature
c) raise temperature setting of condenser fan cycling control
d) lower temperature setting of condenser fan cycling control

32/ What does the symbol imply regarding work boot safety?

a) omega symbol
b) electrical insulating properties for the sole
c) electrical insulating properties for the heel and sole
d) electrical insulating properties for the boot, sole and heel
33/ What does the symbol imply regarding work boot safety?

a) Grade 1 protective toe

b) Grade 1 protective toe plus sole puncture protection
c) Grade 2 protective toe
d) Grade 2 protective toe plus sole puncture protection

34/ What is meant by fall arrest?

a) Work-positioning systems using either safety belts or full body harnesses that attach
you to an anchor and leave both your hands free to work
b) Travel-restriction systems of guardrails or personal fall protection
equipment used to prevent you from travelling to an edge from where you
may fall
c) Safety belts connected by lanyards or lifelines to secure anchors
d) Full body harnesses connected by lanyards or lifelines to secure
anchors

a & b are fall restraint and you must never wear a safety belt for fall arrest

35/ A rope grab is a device that travels along a lifeline and will lock onto it in the event of a
fall.
a) True
b) False

36/ Which application requires a Class T mechanical room utilizing a fire valve?

a) 1,000 lbs R 507

b) 1,000 lbs R 717
c) 1,000 lbs R 718
d) 1,000 lbs R 744

37/ Which of the following is the correct statement with regards to steam
humidifier installation?

a) Installed in the supply air

b) Dispersion tube should be sloped back away from generator
c) High air velocity does not affect steam dispersion
d) high air velocity is prevented by the use of an air proving switch
High air velocity will result in carryover
38/ As applied to a VAV RTU the heating would be enabled ______________
a. As required
b. During morning warm up
c. During day time warm up
d. b&c

39/ Which device is required with a deep well fed, water source heat pump, to prevent short
cycling of the pump motor?

a) a volumetric tank
b) an expansion tank
c) a decompression tank
d) a pressure tank

40/ What happens when the air handler freezestat activates?

a) outside air dampers open, heating valve closes, pneumatic pressure off
b) outside air dampers open, heating valve opens, pneumatic pressure on
c) outside air dampers close, heating valve opens, pneumatic pressure off
d) outside air dampers close, heating valve opens, pneumatic pressure on

41/ Where is the space temperature sensor for a makeup air unit located?

a) 33% down supply air

b) 75% down supply air
c) 100% down supply air
d) Return air
Typically 50 to 75% ideally 66.7%

42/ The three way head pressure control valve operation is replicated by
a. CRO and ORI
b. ORI and ORD
c. EPR and ORI
d. The valve does not exist
43/ When replacing a replaceable core filter dryer, pump system down to 1 psi and:

a) heat dryer, close valve, back off bolts, crack gasket, remove nuts & core
b) back off bolts, heat dryer, crack gasket, remove nuts & core
c) heat dryer, back off bolts, crack gasket, remove nuts and core
d) back off bolts, crack gasket, heat dryer, remove nuts and core

do not heat with torch, do not want to drive out moisture

44/ What method is used for reversing a permanent split capacitor type motor?

a) reverse incoming power leads

b) reverse motor leads
c) reverse rotor
d) switch capacitor location from auxiliary winding to main winding
true psc motor will have similar windings

45/ Where is the temperature sensor located for a plate and frame type free cooling heat
exchanger?

a) cooling tower inlet

b) cooling tower outlet
c) condenser leaving
d) evaporator leaving

46/ What is the correct procedure for adjusting the Crankcase Pressure Regulating
Valve?
a) Turn CRO clockwise all the way, start compressor, turn CRO counterclockwise until
compressor nameplate amps are obtained
b) Turn CRO counterclockwise all the way, start compressor, turn CRO clockwise
until compressor nameplate amps are obtained
c) Adjust CRO to design suction pressure
d) Adjust CRO to design condensing pressure
Actually back out and then turn in one turn prior to energizing compressor

47/ What is the procedure for installing a sweat connection expansion device?

a) Ensure the device is plumb and horizontal aim flame towards female end
b) Wrap the pipe with a wet cloth aim flame towards male end
c) Use a heat sink on the device
 d) Install the device in a vertical position
48/ When must the system charge be verified during the start-up of a newly installed system?

a) At indoor design conditions

b) At system design conditions
c) At component design conditions
d) At outdoor design conditions

49/ What happens when an ice cube making machine goes into harvest cycle?

a) discharge gas circulates through the evaporator

b) compressor ceases to operate and hot gas circulates through evaporator
c) discharge gas circulates through condenser
electric heaters are energized within evaporator and compressor continues to operate

50/ What is the affect on a system when the liquid line solenoid valve is installed backwards?

a) Mechanical failure of compressor

b) Low pressure control remains open
c) System will pump down
d) System cycles on HPC

51/ What effect as a result of an increase in the secondary refrigerant’s pressure drop, across
the chilled water coil?

a) increased brine flow

b) decreased the brine flow
c) increased refrigerant flow
d) decreased refrigerant flow

52/ What procedure is done when there is no oil return in an ammonia system?

a) clean the oil separator demistor screen

b) recover the refrigerant and oil
c) clean the oil separator float assembly
d) drain the oil from the condenser drain pots
53/ What are the terminal connections for a single voltage motor wired in high voltage?

A) 1MC T1– T1, 1MC T2 – T2, 1MC T3 – T3, T4 –T5–T6

B) 1MC T1 – T4, 1MC T2 – T5, 1MC T3 – T6, T7 – T10, T8 – T11, T9 – T12
C) 1MC T1 – T4, 1MC T2 – T5, 1MC T3 – T6, 2MC T7 – T7, 2MC T8 – T8, 2MC T9 – T9
D) 1MC T1 – T1, 1MC T2 – T2, 1MC T3 – T3, 2MC T7 – T7, 2MC T8 – T8, 2MC T9 – T9

54/ What are the water flow rates through a recycling and once through condensers as found
in vapour compression systems?

a) 1.0 gpm & 2.4 gpm respectively

b) 1.5 gpm & 2.4 gpm respectively
c) 3.0 gpm & 1.5 gpm respectively
d) 1.5 gpm & 3.0 gpm respectively

55/ What is the procedure for adjusting a cooling tower float?

a) fill to water line 1/2″ below overflow of hot deck with pump off
b) fill sump to 1/2″ below overflow with pump on
c) fill sump to 1/2″ below overflow with pump off
d) fill to water line of hot deck with pump off
verify with pump running… some manufacturer’s claim 1 ½”

56/ When replacing the heat exchanger fill in a cooling tower, which measurement is critical?

a) top of the fill to the drift eliminators

b) bottom of the fill to the top of the fill
c) cold pan to bottom of the fill
d) float control to bottom of fill
do not want chemical build up on fill bottom…also easier to clean

57/ How is the hot gas bypass line installed in an evaporator feed capacity control
system?

a) entering side of distributor tee at 45º

b) entering side of TEV tee at 45º
c) entering side of distributor tee at 90º
d) entering side of TEV tee at 90º
The following questions 58 – 66 apply to diagram 48DH
58/ During normal operation during the heating season, what is the voltage across the glow
coil?

a) 0 volts
b) 24 volts
c) Less than 24 volts, but greater than 0 volts
d) Greater than 24 volts

59/ What is the voltage across the crankcase heater when TC1 closes?

a) 0
b) 24
c) 120
d) 230

60/ What would cause LLPS to have a voltage drop across it?

a) System pump down

b) System short of refrigerant
c) System high pressure cutout open
d) Low ambient temperature above – 20°F

61/ What component(s) are used to adjust 1st stage heat anticipator?

a) MGV
b) MGV, TDR, GVR
c) TDR, GVR
d) TC1, TDR, GVR

62/ On a call for heating the Induced draft fan motor is running, but no heat. Why?

a) 24 volts across IDR coil

b) 0 volts across IDR contacts
c) 24 volts across CS and GVR contacts circuit
d) 0 volts across CS and GVR contacts circuit
63/ What voltage is the IFM motor?

a) 230 volt
b) 460 volt
c) 575 volt
d) Line voltage

64/ How many field wires are required in the controller sub base?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

65/ What are the LS and OTL switches for?

a) high limits
b) freezestats
c) under temperature protection
d) gas valve operating control

66/ The procedure for reversing the compressor motor rotation is:

a) reverse L1 and L2
b) place capacitor in series with other winding
c) replace run capacitor
d) replace transformer

67/ What procedure is used to verify rotation, prior to startup, of a 3 phase compressor?

a) verify fan counter clockwise rotation with power applied

b) use a phase sequence indicator on the load side of the starter
c) use a phase sequence indicator on the line side of the starter
d) verify fan clockwise rotation with power applied

68/ The relative humidity within an ice rink is:

a) high to stop the ice from melting

b) high to prevent condensation on the ice
c) low to assist in latent cooling of the ice
 d) low to reduce water from dripping on to the ice
69/ The entrance door frame of a walkin freezer requires:

a) a dead bolt latch

b) a heater
c) a window
d) 4 hinges
mullion heater

70/ A single phase motor has a power factor of .85, a voltage of 240 and a current
draw of 20 amps. Calculate the true power.

a) 1920 watts
b) 2040 watts
c) 4080 watts
d) 4800 watts

Using refrigerant weight tables

71/ A 10 3/4″ x 48″ receiver holds 142 lbs of R-22. How much 407C will it hold?

a) 149.9 lbs
b) 142 lbs
c) 134.5 lbs
d) 99.5 lbs

72/ What is the effect when the water regulating valve, valve stem is turned counter
clockwise?

a) Condensing pressure will decrease

b) Condensing pressure will increase
c) Water flow will remain increase
d) Controlled variable temperature will remain unchanged

73/ What is the result when a thermostatically controlled LLSV is used to replace an EPRV?

a) No Change in operation
b) Space temperature remains constant
c) Hunting of thermostatic expansion valve
d) Space humidity remains constant
74/ A VAV air distribution damper box is not controlling, the problem is

a) Space temperature set too high

b) Space temperature set to low
c) An open temperature sensor
d) Thermistor sensor has a reading of 1,000 ohms

75/ Excessive distances between a motor and the power source may result in voltage
drop. What practice may be required to compensate?
a) use a larger motor
b) increase wire gauge number
c) run wire in conduit
d) decrease wire gauge number

76/ Net oil pressure operating an oil pressure failure control is:

a) Oil pump discharge pressure plus oil sump pressure

b) Oil pump discharge pressure minus crankcase pressure
c) Oil pump sump pressure less oil pump discharge pressure
d) Oil pump discharge pressure less compressor discharge pressure

77/ The terminals L and M in a 230 volt control circuit, will have what voltage across
them during loss of oil pressure lock out?

a) 230 volts
b) 115 volts
c) 0 volts
d) control volts

78/ What is the equation used to calculate the amount of new refrigerant when converting
from a CFC to a HCFC?

a) new density x new weight

old density
b) old density x old weight
new density
c) new density x old weight
old density
 d) old density x new weight
new density

79/ What is the procedure to energize a chilled water system?

a) compressor on, cooling tower on, condenser water pump on, chilled water pump on
b) chilled water pump on, condenser water pump on, compressor on, cooling tower
fan on
c) compressor on, condenser water pump on, cooling tower fan on, chilled water pump
on
d) compressor on, chilled water pump on, cooling tower fan on, condenser water pump
on

80/ What is the purpose of the evaporator fan delay after a defrost cycle?

a) Allow moisture to blow off the coil

b) Allow moisture to solidify on the coil
c) Prevent the space from overheating
d) Prevent the suction pressure from rising too high

81/ What would happen, on a call for cooling, to a rooftop unit, having free cooling
when, outdoor air conditions are 50°F Db and 40% RH.?

a) economizer would attempt to maintain 55°F return air

b) mechanical cooling would be energized
c) economizer would attempt to maintain 55°F and mechanical cooling would
supplement
d) economizer would attempt to maintain 55ºF supply air

82/ An air source heat pump will not come out of cooling mode, the valve appears to be
stuck. What procedure would you do?

a) Block off indoor coil and alternate thermostat from cooling to heating and back
several times
b) Block off outdoor coil and alternate thermostat from cooling to heating and
back several times
c) heat valve with heat gun to free up
d) tap valve lightly on the end with a dead blow hammer
83/ What is the cause of a space being over pressurized in an air distribution system?

a) bypass damper has failed closed

b) bypass damper has failed open
c) relief damper failed open
d) mixed air damper failed closed

84/ What is the required size of the motor sheave for a motor turning at 3500 rpm and the
required fan rpm is 1100 and the fan drive is 12″?
a) 19.1″
b) 7.5″
c) 6.3″
d) 3.8″

85/ Secondary refrigerant, glycol’s freeze point is tested with a:

a) Hygrometer
b) Manometer
c) Psychrometer
d) Refractometer

86/ A micrometer is just over 3 full turns past 0.3″ and it reads 6 on the rotating shaft. What
is its reading?

a) .336
b) .356
c) .381
d) .386

87/ The pressure at the inlet of a water pump is 40 ft water gauge and the pressure at the
outlet is 110 psig. What is the feet of head across the pump?

a) 161.7 feet
b) 207.9 feet
c) 214 feet
d) 254.1 feet
88/ What is the size of a round diffuser having 80% free area and providing 1250 cfm @ 625 fpm?

a) 17″
b) 18.5″
c) 19″
d) 21.5″

A = vol/vel = 1250/625 = (2 ft2 x 144)/.8 = 360 in2

Area of circle = Πr2 = r = 10.7 in
Diameter = 21.5 inches

89/ How much cooling is required to turn 10 pounds of water at 210°F in to ice at 30°F?

a) 1,800 Btu’s
b) 3,230 Btu’s
c) 6,460 Btu’s
d) 25,900 Btu’s

90/ An air handler has generated a suction pressure of 0.35″ water column, what is the depth
of the condensate trap?

a) -0.40″
b) 0.25″
c) 0.35″
d) 0.40″

91/ In a chilled water system, the location of the chemical pot feeder would be found:

a) Pump discharge
b) Pump suction
c) Pump diffuser
d) Make up water line

92/ Ammonia liquid line pipe of 2″ and less shall be:

a) ACR Type L copper tube

b) Schedule 40 black iron
c) Schedule 80 black iron
d) Threaded
93/ When mixing a brine solution the procedure is:

a) Determine the quantity of calcium chloride required and add water then mix
b) Determine the quantity of calcium chloride required and add to water and mix
c) add sodium pentathol to water then mix
d) add measured quantity of sodium bicarbonate to water then mix

94/ The temperature of the ice surface in an ice rinks is:

a) 8 to 12 ºF
b) 0 to 5 ºF
c) 13 to 19 ºF
d) 23 to 29 ºF

95/ A 4″ x 22″ sleeve through a wall, will hold how many 1 1/8″ pipes having ½″ insulation.
If there is required to be a 25 mm space between each insulated pipe. How many pipes
will fit through the pipe cover?

a) 12
b) 10
c) 8
d) 7

96/ An R-134a system has a TEV operating in mid position, having a spring pressure of 9 psi,
an evaporator pressure of 19 psig. Calculate the superheat
a) 8°F
b) 10°F
c) 11°F
d) 14°F

97/ The EPR valve is:

a) located after the low temperature evaporator to prevent evaporator pressure from
rising above set point
b) located before the low temperature evaporator to prevent evaporator pressure
from rising above set point
 c) located after the high temperature evaporator to prevent the evaporator
pressure from decreasing below set point
d) located after the high temperature evaporator to prevent the evaporator pressure
from rising above set point
98/ The CPR valve is:

a) located after the compressor to prevent overloading

b) located before the evaporators to prevent evaporator pressure from rising above set
point
c) located after the evaporators to prevent the compressor from overloading
d) located after the evaporators to prevent the evaporator pressure from decreasing
below set point

99/ A 100 T system maintains a 40°F SST. The enthalpy of the refrigerant entering the
evaporator is 40 Btu/lb and the enthalpy entering the suction line is 120 Btu/lb. How
many pounds of refrigerant are circulated?

a) 167 lb/min
b) 222 lb/min
c) 250 lb/min
d) 286 lb/min

100/ What condition will not cause a fan to surge?

a) reversal of air flow

b) static pressure controller allowing multiple cfm’s at the same static
pressure
c) fan selection to the left of the surge curve
d) operating point at maximum static efficiency

101/ Which of the following conditions may cause the forward curved fan motor to
overload?

a) low flow, high static pressure

b) high flow, low static pressure
c) high flow, high static pressure
d) low flow, low static pressure
102/ What component is removed first when replacing a shaft seal on an inline booster pump?

a) motor
b) coupling housing
c) pump housing
d) impeller

103/ What components are removed when replacing a seal on a close-coupled, end suction
pump?

a) Motor & coupling bracket

b) coupling bracket and pump volute
c) pump volute and impeller
d) impeller and pump assembly

104/ A 40” x 20” rectangular duct has a measured air velocity of 600 ft/min.
Calculate the air flow:

a) 1515 cfm
b) 2250 cfm
c) 3333 cfm
d) 4444 cfm

105/ A 50 lb cylinder of refrigerant has 12.5 pounds removed and then 12 lbs 9 ozs
How much refrigerant remains in the cylinder?

a) 14.8 lbs
b) 14 lbs 15 ozs
c) 24.6 lbs
d) 24 lbs 15 ozs

106/ To reduce vibration in the duct system:

a) install canvas connector between RTU & Supply plenum

b) install canvas connector between RTU & Return plenum
c) Remove shipping spacers
d) All of the above
107/ The normal procedure for cleaning a direct expansion evaporator shell & tube and heat
exchanger is:

a) use of a nylon brush and inhibited acid

b) nylon brush and flush with clean water
c) inhibited acid and neutralize flush
d) use of nylon brush and inhibited alkaline mixture

108/ The floor of a freezer has cracked and is frosting up. What is the problem?

a)mullion heater is defective

b) insufficient insulation
c) floor drain is restricted
d) perimeter heater is operational

109/ Moisture dripping from duct work is a result of:

a) space humidity control set point too low

b) room temperature too high
c) dew point temperature of air is higher
d) supply air temperature too high

110/ What are the symptoms of a TXV air conditioning system if the adjustment spring has
broken?
a) The evaporator superheat will decrease and the high side pressure will increase
b) The subcooling will decrease and the low side pressure will decrease
c) The subcooling will increase and the low side pressure will increase
d) The evaporator superheat will increase and the high side pressure will decrease

111/ A customer who owns a split air conditioning system complains that his system has
been running but the space doesn’t seem to be cooling properly. When theservice technician
arrives on the job, he finds that the air filter is clean. The condenser fan on the outdoor unit is
operating, but he notices that the liquid line is hot to the touch.
Before connecting gauges to the system, his next step should be to
a) Clean the condenser coil
 b) Remove the air filter
c) Connect the TXV sensing bulb to the suction line
d) Make sure the condenser fan is turning counter clockwise

Refer to the Defrost Clock Diagram for 112 and 113

112/ What method of defrost control is represented?

a) time or temperature initiation, time or temperature termination
b) time initiation, time and temperature termination
c) temperature initiation, time termination
d) time initiation, time or temperature termination

113/ What is the purpose of DTS?

a) initiate defrost
b) permit moisture to enter the space
c) avoid overheating of the product
d) allow the fan to initiate prior to compressor start

Refer to Oil Pressure Failure Control Diagram for 114 and 115
Oil Pressure Failure Control with voltage at L1 and L2
114/ What voltage is applied to the heater in the upper diagram?
a) 0 volts
b) 115 volts or less but greater than 0 volts
c) 120 volts
d) System control voltage

115/ What is the system status of the lower diagram?

a) normal operation
b) overload condition
c) oil pump discharge pressure is greater than sump pressure
d) oil pump discharge pressure equals sump pressure

Use Duct Friction Loss Table and Chart for questions 116 & 117
Given the following conditions:
10 ton air conditioning system
200 feet of equivalent duct work
Maximum friction loss of 0.2 in. w.g.
116/ What size round duct diameter?
a) 20 inch
 b) 22 inch
c) 24 inch
d) 26 inch
117/ What is the equivalent round duct diameter of a 14 x 20 rectangular duct?
a) 16.8 inch
b) 17.5 inch
c) 18.2 inch
d) 18.9 inch

Refer to the psychrometric chart for question 118

118/ Which statement is correct for the following?
Condition A Air at 75°F DB and 60°F WB compared with condition B air at 75°F DB
and 74°F WB

a) Condition A will have a greater specific volume than condition B

b) Condition A will have a lower specific volume than condition B
c) Condition A will have a higher grains of moisture per pound of dry air compared
with condition B
d) Condition A will have a higher specific volume than condition B

119/ The 2M contactor of a part winding start motor chatters at start up. What is the
cause?

a) decrease in line voltage, increase in current

b) decrease in line voltage, decrease in current
c) increase in line voltage, increase in current
d) increase in line voltage, decrease in current

120/ A compound compression system fails on high discharge temperature. What is the
cause?

a) high discharge pressure

b) desuperheating valve sensing bulb has lost its charge
c) desuperheating valve sensing bulb is in warm location
d) low suction temperature
121/ A coupling has a reading of .002” at the top and a reading of .010”
at the bottom. What must be done to the motor?

a) Lowered .004”
b) Raised .004”
c) Lowered .003”
d) Raised .003”

122/ When replacing a broken belt on a multigroove pulley or sheave:

a) replace the belt with a cogged style belt

b) replace only the worn belts
c) replace all of the belts with a matched set or powerband
d) replace all the belts and drive pulleys

123/ When replacing a shaft seal, what is the procedure?

a) using controls de-energize motor, remove system pressure & energy source,
remove power and then remove motor, then remove seal
b) using controls de-energize motor, remove system pressure & energy source,
remove coupling, remove housing, remove seal
c) using controls de-energize motor, remove system pressure & energy source,
remove pump, remove housing, remove seal
d) using controls de-energize motor, remove system pressure & energy source, drain
system and remove pump housing, remove coupling, remove seal

124/ If a unit cooler has 10 fans rated at 50 watts, how many Btu’s of heat energy would there
be?

a) 400 btu’s
b) 800 btu’s
c) 1090 btu’s
d) 1705 btu’s
125/ The leak testing procedure for an NH3 system containing refrigerant is:

a) sulphur candle or litmus paper

b) halide leak detector
c) ammonium hydrolide paper
d) nitrogen and soap bubbles

126/ What procedure must be done to ammonia threaded pipe below 1”?

a) seal welded
b) threaded pipe can not be used above these sizes
c) appropriate tape sealant two threads back
d) heat treated

127/ How much fresh air is being introduced to a unit having the following conditions?
The outdoor air temperature is 92F dry bulb.
The return air temperature is 75F dry bulb.
The mixed air temperature is 80F dry bulb.

a) 2%.
b) 19%.
c) 29%.
d) 47%.

128/ Which device directs refrigerant flow in a heat pump?

a) Check valve.
b) Reversing valve.
c) Expansion valve.
d) Pressure reducing valve
129/ Refer toTable below.
What is the volume of air at Test Point #2, in cfm?

a) 365 cfm
b) 538 cfm
c) 775 cfm
d) 998 cfm

TEST STATIC TOTAL PRESSURE - TRAVERSE READINGS DUCT SIZE

POINT PRESSURE (INCHES OF WATER COLUMN) (INCHES)

1 0.02" WC 0.12 0.14 0.08 0.06 0.08 0.06 0.06 0.10 0.06 20 X 30

2 0.02" WC 0.06 0.05 0.06 0.06 10 X 10

Answer

Velocity pressure = total pressure – static pressure =

Vp Velocity = 4005 x √Vp
1 .04 801
2 .03 694
3 .04 801
4 .04 801
Average velocity = total / 4 = 774 ft/min Volume = (100/144) x 774 = 538 cfm
130/ The density of old refrigerant is 60 lbs/ft3 and the density of new refrigerant is 50 lb/ft3.
Originally there was 30 lbs in the system. How much is required upon conversion?

a) 8.33 lbs
b) 10 lbs
c) 16.66 lbs
d) 25 lbs

131/ What is required when converting from 502 to 404A?

a) raise LPC set point and lower HPC set point
b) lower LPC set point and raise HPC set point
c) lower LPC set point and lower HPC set point
d) raise LPC set point and raise HPC set point
CFC 502 to HFC 404A = raise LPC, Raise HPC
HCFC22 to HFC 407C = lower LPC, raise HPC

132/ The following readings are taken with a caliper between a compressor crankshaft and
bearing: crankshaft = 2.651″, bearing = 2.658″
Which of the following is correct?
a) radial clearance is .0035″
b) radial clearance is .0025″
c) axial clearance is .005″
d) axial clearance is .010″

133/ A double suction riser is required for:

a) oil entrainment at full capacity load

b) oil entrainment at minimum capacity load
c) to reduce pressure drop in the riser
d) liquid refrigerant entrainment during low capacity load

134/ What is the voltage unbalance for the following?

L1 – L2 = 197 volts, L1 – L3 = 208 volts, L2 – L3 = 207 volts
A) 3.4%
B) 3.0%
C) 2.5%
D) 2.0%
135/ What is the result while brazing ACR tubing and not purging the lines with nitrogen?

a) excessive oil pressure

b) excessive oil flow
c) reduced sump pressure
d) reduced bearing clearance

136/ What is the primary side current draw in 600 volt to 24 volt step down
transformer, having a secondary load of 10 amps?

a) 0.1 amps
b) 0.25 amps
c) 0.4 amps
d) 0.55 amps

Refer to psychrometric Chart

137/ What is the end result of removing 10 grains of moisture and lowering the temperature by
20°F from an initial condition of 75°F and 50% RH?

a) 50.5 WBT, 73% RH

b) 52.5 F WBT, 86% RH
c) 6.6 Btu/lb of latent heat removed
d) 6.6 Btu/lb of heat added
Given the following conditions for questions 138 and 139:
HFC 404A, 20 ton system
SCT = 100°F
SST = 0°F
50 feet of suction riser piping
2°F EPD

138/ What size suction line is required?

a) 1 5/8″
b) 2 1/8″
c) 2 5/8″
d) 3 1/8″

139/ How much refrigerant would this line require for charging purposes?

a) 2.47 lbs
b) 4.3 lbs
c) 6.63 lbs
d) 9.46lbs

140/ The walls of a building are 20’ high and 800’ long. The drywall has an R value of 0.5, the
insulation has a “u” factor of .04 Btu/hr*ft2*°F, the outside polystyrene board is R4 and
the outside finish is R0.5. The indoor temperature is 72ºF and the outdoor design temp is
5ºF. Calculate the heat loss through the wall.

a) 22,333 Btu/hr
b) 24,000 Btu/hr
c) 25, 667 Btu/hr
d) 35,733 Btu/hr

Q = u x A x ΔT = (1/30) x 16,000 x 67

141/ What will decrease the evacuation time of an air conditioning system?
a) the removal of schrader valve core, smaller diameter hoses, and higher
ambient temperatures
b) the removal of a schrader valve core, larger diameter hoses, and lower
ambient temperatures
c) the removal of a schrader valve core, smaller diameter hoses, and lower
ambient temperature
d) the removal of a schrader valve core, larger diameter hoses, and higher
ambient temperature
142/ Refer to Diagram B:
What is the purpose of HR NC contacts?

a) Bypass OL and HPS

b) Energize TM during normal operation
c) Reduce shortcycling of FM
d) Prevent OL from opening

143/ Refer to 48DH:

You find a blue wire disconnected on one of the overloads. Where does it go?

a) between line voltage terminals 1 & 2

b) between terminals 1 & 2
c) between 230 voltage terminals 1 & 4
d) between 230 voltage terminals 12 & 3

144/ Refer to diagram on back page of exam information booklet:

What is the purpose of the line below OL 1, 2,3 number 65?

a) protect compressor from LLSV coil failing
b) protect compressor from TDR 1 sec failing
c) protect compressor from 5% current unbalance
d) protect compressor from short cycling on pumpdown

145/ Refer to chiller diagram on page after 48DH of exam information booklet:

What would happen if T7 and T8 were reversed?

a) compressor would run backwards
b) fuses open and OL remains closed
c) fuses open and OL open
d) normal operation

146/ Refer to chiller control diagram on page after 48DH of exam information booklet:

What is the purpose of FSTDR?

a) momentary loss of control power
b) momentary loss of condenser water flow
c) recycling pumpdown
d) air bubbles in chilled water loop

147/ What is the normal position of a cooling tower bypass valve?

a) N.O. to tower, N.C. to condenser return
b) N.C to tower, N.O. to condenser return
c) N.O. to tower, N.C. to condenser supply
d) N.C. to tower, N.O. to condenser supply
148/ When installing a display case lineup, what is the correct leveling procedure?
a) lowest point of the floor is the reference point and the balance of the case legs
are cut to trim
b) midway point of the floor and legs are cut and trimmed accordingly
c) highest point of the floor is the reference point and the balance of the
case legs are shimmed
d) at an elevation point above the highest point of the legs that are shimmed

149/ What device(s) are used to lift a large compressor having lifting holes on its top?
a) eye bolt and lifting chain
b) nylon sling and shackle
c) eye bolt and shackle
d) lifting chain and nylon sling

150/ A technician receives a service call for an air to air heat pump. The customer is
complaining about insufficient heat during low ambient conditions. Upon arrival
to the job, he notices that the mechanical heat pump system is operating properly
but the auxiliary heat is not operating. What circuit should be checked next?
a) The first stage heating circuit
b) The second stage heating circuit
c) The air pressure control circuit
d) The auxiliary contractor circuit

151. A customer calls with a preventative maintenance service call on his R-22 water cooled
air conditioning system. The technician notices the high-side pressure is 195 PSIG and
the leaving water temperature is 90̊ F. What is wrong with the system?

a. The condenser is dirty

b. The water valve is closed too much
c. The water valve is open too much
d. There is no problem

152. What would be the approximate discharge temperature and pressure of an R-22 air cooled
condensing unit on an 80̊ F day?

a. 80-90̊ F at 145-170 PSIG

b. 100-110̊ F at 195-225 PSIG
c. 110-120̊ F at 225-260 PSIG
d. 120-130̊ F at 260-295 PSIG
153. A customer calls with an insufficient cooling complaint. Upon arrival to the service call it
is found that the outdoor condensing unit is operating, but the indoor blower is not in
operation. Technician “A” says that it is possible that it is a bad fuse to the furnace.
Technician “B” says that the control transformer could also be at fault. Who is correct?

a. Technician “A”
b. Technician “B”
c. Both technicians are correct
d. Both technicians are incorrect

154. A party-store owner tried to adjust the water valve on his water-cooled condensing unit,
then he called for assistance from an HVAC/R service technician. It was found that when
servicing the unit, the outlet water temperature was too low. Technician “A” says that
turning the adjustment on water valve clockwise will close the valve, and this will
increase the high-side pressure. Technician “B” says that turning the adjustment stem on
the water valve counterclockwise will close the valve, and this will increase in high-side
pressure. Which technician was correct?

a. Technician “A”
b. Technician “B”
c. Both technicians are correct
d. Both technicians are incorrect

155. When connecting gauges to an R-410A air conditioning system, on an 85°F day, the
pressures read 365 PSIG on the high side and 105 psig on the low side. What is a
possible problem with the system? Use the pressure temperature chart provided above, to
answer this question.

a. Dirty air filter

b. Dirty condenser
c. Insufficient compressor
d. There is no problem

156. What are two common symptoms of an overcharged air conditioning system that uses a
capillary tube type metering device?

a. An increase in discharge pressure and a decrease in suction pressure

b. An increase in suction pressure and an increase in discharge pressure
c. A decrease in discharge pressure and an increase in suction pressure
d. A decrease in suction pressure and a decrease in discharge pressure
157. Name two symptoms that are common to an overcharged air conditioning system and a
system that has a dirty condenser

a. The subcooling decreases and the amperage increases

b. The suction pressure increases and the discharge pressure decreases
c. The suction pressure decreases and the subcooling increases
d. The discharge pressure increases and the amperage increases

158. When an air conditioning system has an undercharge, what happens to the superheat and
the subcooling of the system?

a. The superheat increases and the subcooling increases

b. The superheat increase and the subcooling decreases
c. The superheat decreases and the subcooling increases
d. The superheat decreases and the subcooling decrease

159. If a rooftop air conditioning system does not have any means of low ambient
protection, what will be two symptoms on the system when operating under a low
ambient condition, what will be two symptoms on the system when operating under a
low ambient condition?

a. High discharge pressure and low superheat

b. Low discharge pressure and high suction pressure
c. High discharge pressure and high superheat
d. Low discharge pressure and high superheat

160. What are two common symptoms of a rooftop air conditioning system that operates with
a reverse acting high pressure control stuck in the closed position?

a. Condenser fans operating during a low ambient condition and a low suction
pressure
b. High discharge pressure and high suction pressure
c. High discharge pressure and condenser fans de-energized
d. High suction pressure and low superheat
161. If source voltage is applied to an electrical load and the load is inoperable, what can be
said about the load?

a. It has a short circuit

b. It has a defective control circuit
c. It has a grounded circuit
d. It has an open circuit

162. If a measurable voltage reading is obtained when testing across a normally open set of
contacts on a relay that is energized, what is the problem with the relay?

a. There is no problem
b. The contacts are burned
c. The contacts are closed
d. The contacts are shorted

163. Using the Duct Sizing Calculator, if the volume of air in a duct system is 1600 CFM,
and .1” H2O, what would the speed of the air be in the main trunk?

a. .10” WC
b. 1.6” WC
c. 1100 FPM
d. 1300 FPM

164. Why is it necessary to cycle the condenser fans during low ambient conditions?

a. to prevent an increase in high-side pressure and the flooding of the evaporator coil
b. to prevent a decrease in high-side pressure and the flooding of the evaporator coil
c. to prevent an increase in high –side pressure and the starving of the evaporator coil
d. to prevent an decrease in high-side pressure and the starving of the evaporator
coil

165. A fan motor that operates at 1050 RPM and has a pulley size of 6 inches operates a
blower that has a pulley size of 9 inches. What is the RPM of the blower?

a. 1500
b. 1575
c. 775
d. 700
166. A 220 volt 30 amp motor circuit keeps tripping the breaker after the motor is started. The
starting amperage is 60 amps. When measuring the amperage of the circuit, this is drawn
for a brief moment. After start up, the amperage drops to 22amps and then the breaker
trips. What is the problem with the circuit?

a. A shorted run winding

b. An open run winding
c. A grounded motor winding
d. A defective circuit breaker

167. A rooftop package system keeps tripping out on the high pressure switch. What are three
possible causes for this problem?

a. Condenser air being re-circulated, plugged metering device, and overcharge

b. Excessively bent condenser fins, air in the system, and undercharge
c. Dirty condenser, incorrect rotation of the condenser fan, and bad compressor valves
d. Dirty condenser, bent condenser fins, and air re-circulating over the condenser

168. A customer calls and complains that his air conditioning system is not operating properly.
It is noticed that the compressor is not operating. A check on the run capacitor shows that
there is 33 UF and the rating on the capacitor is 40 UF. Technician “A” says that the
capacitor is good because it is within its normal 20% range. Technician “B” says that the
capacitor is bad because it is not within its 10% range. Which technician is correct?

a. Technician “A”
b. Technician “B”
c. Both technicians are correct
d. Both technicians are incorrect

169. A system that is operating with a clear sight glass shows

a. The sight glass is full of liquid
b. The sight glass is full of gas
c. The system is always running efficiently
d. Both “A” and “B” are correct
170. Technician “A” says, “When charging a system using the superheat method, adding
refrigerant to the system will increase the superheat.” Technician “B” says, “When
charging a system using the superheat method, adding refrigerant will decrease the
superheat.” Which technician is correct?
a. Technician “A”
b. Technician “B”
c. Both technicians are correct
d. Both technicians are incorrect

Economizers

171. The economizer might be described as:

a. a controllable damper
b. a compressor cylinder bypass
c. a return air system
d. an indoor air recirculating system

172. An economizer is used to:

a. provide “free cooling”
b. provide ventilation air
c. both A and B
d. neither A nor B

173. When a rooftop unit equipped with an economizer starts;

a. the economizer closes
b. the economizer opens fully
c. the economizer opens to a preset position
d. none of the above

174. When a rooftop unit equipped with an economizer is operating in the cooling mode (air suitable);
a. the economizer closes
b. the economizer opens fully
c. the economizer modulates to a position from minimum ventilation to fully open
d. none of the above are correct

175. Integrated economizers:

a. are more efficient than non-integrated economizers
b. allow compressor(s) to operate while economizer is fully open
c. neither A nor B
d. both A and B
176. To operate properly, an economizer requires controls that will sense;
a. the temperature or enthalpy of the outside air
b. the temperature of the mixed (outdoor and return) air
c. the minimum ventilation position
d. all of the above

177. When using dry bulb sensing only, the outdoor air thermostat would typically be set:
a. 3°F below the setting of the indoor space thermostat
b. 3°F above the setting of the indoor space thermostat
c. at the indoor space thermostat setting
d. any of the above

178. With a rooftop system, we have a call for cooling, and we want to deliver 55 °F air. The return
air temperature is 79 °F. If the outdoor temperature is 67 °F (suitable), what position should the
economizer outdoor damper be in for maximum efficiency
a. Closed
b. open to the preset ventilation setpoint
c. halfway open
d. fully open

179. When the mixed air controller senses air above its setting, it;
a. completes (energizes) the damper motor circuit in the opening direction
b. completes (energizes) the damper motor circuit in the closing direction
c. holds its fixed position
d. none of the above
180. The economizer will go to the minimum ventilation position whenever the unit is operating,
except when:
a. the unit is in the heating mode
b. the unit is in the cooling mode, and outdoor air is unsuitable
c. the VAV unit is in the morning warm-up cycle
d. the VAV unit is in the heating mode

181. It is usually desirable to maintain commercial buildings at approximately:

a. a negative pressure of .01 to .03 “ w.c.
b. a positive pressure of .01 to .03 “ w.c.
c. a negative pressure of .1 to .3 “ w.c.
d. a positive pressure of .1 to .3 “ w.c.
182. You are asked to start up a rooftop HVAC package unit with 120,000 BTUH cooling capacity
and a full economizer. The job specifications are calling for 800 CFM of minimum ventilation air. The
outdoor temperature is 23 °F, and the return air temperature is 69 °F. Using the mixed air formula, what
will the mixed air temperature be when you have the minimum positioner set-up correctly?
a. 60.2 °F
b. 59.8 °F
c. 61.8 °F
d. 60.8 °F

183. When a proportional actuator is running, it can be stopped:

a. only by it’s limit switches

b. only by the controller
c. by either the controller or the limit switches
d. any of the above are correct

184. You have a 7 ½ ton rooftop unit. The Engineer has requested that the minimum fresh air
damper be set-up to bring in 20 CFM per person. The outdoor ambient temperature is
23°F, and the return air temperature is 73 °F. The unit serves a single zone office area
with 12 people working in the area.
What percentage of fresh air are we bringing in?

a. 8%
b. 10%
c. 11%
d. 13%

185. Which is the minimum class of fire extinguisher required for flammable metals?

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
HEAT PUMPS

186. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Cooling season, the indoor coil is the evaporator, the outdoor coil is the condenser
b. Heating season, the indoor coil is the condenser and outdoor coil is the evaporator
c. Refrigerant direction flow through the compressor changes with heating and
cooling operation.
d. Refrigerant direction flow through the compressor remains constant with heating and
cooling operation

187. What device diverts the refrigerant flow and what pressure is required?
a. The pilot valve diverts suction gas to discharge using a minimum of 15 psi
differential
b. The pilot valve diverts discharge gas to suction using a minimum of 15 psi
differential
c. The pilot valve diverts suction gas to discharge using a minimum of 60 psi pressure
differential
d. The pilot valve diverts discharge gas to suction using a minimum of 60 psi
pressure differential

188. What is the purpose of the reversing valve on an air to air heat pump?
a. It reverses the direction of the compressor
b. It changes the flow of the refrigerant making the outdoor coil the condenser during
the winter months.
c. It changes the flow of the refrigerant making the indoor coil the condenser
during the winter months.
d. It changes the flow of the refrigerant making the indoor coil the condenser during the
summer months.

189. On a reversing valve solenoid, what is connected to the single tube?

a. the compressor discharge line
b. the compressor suction line
c. the indoor coil
d. the outdoor coil

190. On a reversing valve solenoid, what is connected to the center tube of the three tubes
opposite the single tube?
a. the compressor discharge line
b. the compressor suction line
c. the indoor coil
d. the outdoor coil
191. When a heat pump switches into the defrost cycle, it must
a. remain in defrost until the temperature rise across the indoor coil reaches 50°F.
b. remain in defrost until the indoor coil has reached a pre-determined temperature.
c. remain in defrost until the outdoor coil has reached a pre-determined
temperature.
d. remain in defrost until the indoor thermostat is satisfied.

192. Where are the check valves located on an air to air heat pump?
a. on the outdoor coil
b. on the indoor coil
c. on the outdoor coil and indoor coil
d. on the suction line

193. How are the check valves connected in a heat pump system?
a. on the inlet of the accumulator
b. in parallel with both metering devices
c. in series with one metering device and parallel with the other
d. Both B and C

194. A ball type check valves must be installed

a. horizontally, with the seat on the outlet of the valve.
b. vertically, with the seat on the bottom of the valve.
c. horizontally, with the seat on the inlet of the valve.
d. vertically, with the seat on the top of the valve.

195. When installing a ball type check valve, what must be done to prevent warping?
a. a heat sink must be used when brazing it into the line.
b. the ball must be removed when brazing it into the line.
c. a brass coupling must be used if connecting it to the liquid line.
d. the valve must be cooled quickly after brazing it into the liquid line.

196. Where is the accumulator located on a heat pump system?

a. between the bottom center tube of the reversing valve and the compressor
b. between the top tube of the reversing valve and the compressor
c. between the bottom right tube of the reversing valve and the compressor
d. between the bottom left tube of the reversing valve and the compressor

197. When would you most likely find liquid in the vapor line on a heat pump?
a. during the cooling mode
b. during the heating mode
c. during the beginning of a defrost
d. during the heating mode after a defrost
198. What component must always be de-energized during the defrost cycle on a heat pump?
a. the reversing valve solenoid
b. the outdoor fan
c. the indoor fan
d. the defrost relay coil

199. Why are the auxiliary strip heaters energized during the defrost cycle on a heat pump?
a. to add an extra heat load to the indoor coil
b. to increase the pressure of the system for maximum defrost efficiency
c. to increase supply air temperature for comfort
d. the auxiliary strip heaters are not energized during the defrost cycle.

200. What position must the reversing valve of a heat pump be in during the defrost cycle?
a. the cooling mode
b. the heating mode
c. in the open position
d. in the closed position