Islamic Republic of Iran

Ministry of Health and Medical Education

Deputy of Education
Secretariat of the General Medical Education Council

Comprehensive Examination
of basic medical sciences

February 2025

Number of questions: 190

Number of pages: 31
Exam time: 200 minutes

Candidate details
Name: ....................................................
Family name: ........................................
Candidate ID number: ............................

Important notes:

- Choose the best option for each question.

- This exam does not have negative mark.
- Before answering the questions, check the exam booklet carefully to
make sure of the correct number of the pages and questions. In case
of any problems, inform the exam proctors; otherwise, no objection
will be accepted after the exam.
Comprehensive Examination of basic medical sciences February 2025

Physiology

1- Which of the following regarding the comparison of primary and secondary active transports is
correct?
a) The primary and secondary active transports are respectively performed through
channels and carriers.
b) In primary active transport always two substances transport with each other
c) Na+-Ca2+ transporter is an example of co-transporter.
d) Na+-Glucose transporter is an example of co-transporter.

2- Which of the following about membrane potential is correct?

a) In resting membrane potential, permeability to Na+ is more than Ca2+.
b) During depolarization, the Na+-K+ conductance ratio decreases.
c) In action potential peak, the inactivation gate of Na+ channels is closed.
d) In threshold potential both gates of Na+ channels are closed.

3- In comparing the skeletal to smooth muscle cells which option is correct?

a) Excitation-contraction coupling occurs just in skeletal muscles.
b) Motor end-plate potential just occurs in skeletal muscles.
c) The maximum contraction force in skeletal muscle is greater than in smooth muscle
cells.
d) Titin filaments exist in both skeletal and smooth muscle cells.

4- Which of the following causes increased force in skeletal muscle?

a) Increase in activity of voltage-gated K+ channels in skeletal muscle sarcolemma
b) Increase in activity of the Ca2+ pump in the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane.
c) Increase in activity of the myosin-kinase enzyme.
d) Recruitment of a greater number of motor units and tetanization.

5- A person with gastric mucosal atrophy disorder may suffer from which of the following blood
disorders?
a) Hypochromic anemia
b) Iron deficiency anemia
c) Megaloblastic anemia
d) Polycythemia vera

6- Sympathetic nerve stimulation is associated with a decrease in which of the following variables?
a) End-systolic volume
b) Heart rate
c) Cardiac output
d) Myocardial contractility

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7- If the number of small cells between the two R waves in a normal electrocardiogram is 20,
what is the heart rate (per minute) of this person?
a) 75
b) 50
c) 100
d) 60

8- Which of the following is correct about the hydrostatic pressure of interstitial fluid?
a) In tissue with a tight cover, it is usually negative
b) It is normally a few millimeters of mercury higher than the surrounding pressure
c) In loose subcutaneous tissue, it is usually higher than atmospheric pressure
d) The pumping function of the lymphatic system is the main cause of negative interstitial
fluid pressure.

9- Which of the following substances plays a role in both long term and acute regulation of blood
flow?
a) Vascular growth factors
b) Oxygen
c) Endothelin
d) Renin

10- What does occur after significant decrease in arterial pressure?

a) The heart contractility decreases
b) The venous tone and the filling pressure decreases
c) The resistance of the arteriols increases
d) The blood volume is reduced by the kidneys

11- Which of the following factors plays the most important role in determining vascular
resistance?
a) Vessel’s diameter
b) Vessel’s length
c) Pressure difference
d) Blood viscosity

12- In what term does hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock due to
diarrhea and vomiting differ?
a) Blood volume reduction
b) Cardiac output reduction
c) Changes in blood viscosity
d) The degree of acidosis developed

13- How long does it take to activate inhibitory entero-gastric reflexes in response to acidic-
chyme?
a) 3 s
b) 30 s
c) 3 min
d) 30 min

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14- Digestion of which protein is highly decreased following pepsin deficiency

a) Peas
b) Beans
c) Meat
d) Fish

15- Which of the following statements regarding the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates
is correct?
a) 80 percent of starch is hydrolyzed by salivary amylase
b) Fructose is absorbed through a co-transport mechanism involving sodium.
c) Monosaccharides are the direct products of the alpha-amylases activity.
d) Intestinal brush border enzymes hydrolyze oligosaccharides into monosaccharides.

16- Alveolar ventilation increase leads to an increase in which of the following?

a) Oxygen diffusion capacity
b) Arterial blood oxygen pressure
c) Carbon dioxide diffusion coefficient
d) Arterial blood carbon dioxide pressure

17- Which of the following remains into the lungs at the end of normal exhalation?
a) Residual volume
b) Tidal volume
c) Functional residual capacity
d) Inspiratory reserve volume

18- A decrease in which option results in a decrease in the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen?
a) pH
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Temperature
d) Metabolism

19- In which part of nephron does ADH increase urea permeability?

a) Proximal tubule
b) Distal tubule and cortical collecting duct
c) Descending limb of the loop of Henle
d) Medullary collecting duct

20- What is the effect of efferent arteriolar contraction on GFR?

a) Increases GFR
b) Decreases GFR
c) At first GFR increases then decreases
d) Has no effect on GFR

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21- In the first part of the proximal tubule which carriers are respectively involved in glucose
reuptake the apical and basolateral (left to right)?
a) SGLT2-GLUT2
b) SGLT2-GLUT4
c) SGLT1-GLUT1
d) SGLT1-GLUT2

22- Which hormone has the longest half-life?

a) Growth hormone
b) Thyroxine
c) IGF
d) Estrogen

23- Which hormone is a nanopeptide?

a) Prolactin
b) Glucagon
c) Oxytocin
d) Growth hormone

24- Which hormone is a member of the amine group?

a) Aldosterone
b) Dehydroepiandrosterone
c) Testosterone
d) Epinephrine

25- Which option leads to an increase in ADH secretion?

a) Decrease in blood volume
b) Increase of blood pressure
c) Decrease in osmolarity
d) Increase of nicotine

26- Which option is correct about the effects of insulin?

a) Inhibits the activity of glucokinase enzyme
b) Inhibits liver phosphorylase
c) Increases the activity of hormone-sensitive lipase
d) Reduces the activity of phosphofructokinase

27- Which of the following effects is related to parathyroid hormone?

a) Decreased calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
b) Increased formation of hydroxyapatite crystals
c) Decreased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
d) Increased renal phosphate excretion

28- Which of the following is true about sensory receptors?

a) Tonic receptors adapt quickly
b) Tonic receptors have predictive function
c) Phasic receptors adapt slowly
d) Tonic receptors adapt slowly

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29- What is the definition of astereognosis?

a) Failure to recognize the exact location of touch
b) Lesion of the somatic sensory association area
c) Failure to recognize the weight of objects
d) Failure to recognize the shape and form of objects

30- In which of the following muscle spasm does not cause pain?
a) Stimulation of pain mechanoreceptors
b) Pressure on blood vessels
c) Increase in metabolism rate
d) Release of enkephalins

31- Which of the following is true about impedance matching by the ossicular system of the
middle ear?
a) It helps maintain the intensity of sound vibration through the middle ear to the inner ear
b) It attenuates the intensity of sound transmission through the external ear to the inner ear
c) It is created by the contraction of the tensor tympanic and stapes muscles
d) The main factor in impedance matching is the limited range of motion of the malleous

32- Which of the following is an adaptation mechanism in the olfactory system?

a) Stimulation of granular cells in glomerulus by centrifugal nerve fibers from the olfactory
cortex
b) Progressive closure of voltage-gated calcium channels at the nerve endings
c) Stimulation of mitral cells in the olfactory bulb by centrifugal nerve fibers from the
olfactory cortex
d) Direct inhibition of olfactory cortical neurons by granular cells in glomerulus

33- Which of the following is the function of the cerebrocerebellum?

a) Controlling and planning of ballistic movements
b) Planning and timing of complicated movements
c) Preventing overshoot and modulating movements
d) Controlling balance and doing postural movements

34- Which of the following is a characteristic of the putamen nucleus circuit?

a) Controlling subconscious execution of learned patterns of movement
b) Controlling spontaneous ballistic movements
c) Planning of sequential movements of the body
d) Controlling cognitive movements of the body

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Biochemistry

35- Which of the following formulae is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

a)

b)

c)

d)

36- Which of the following hormones performs its signal transduction through JAK/STAT
pathway?
a) TSH
b) Insulin
c) ADH
d) Prolactin

37- In Alzheimer disease changes in proteins lead to their aggregation. What biochemical process
occurs in this disease?
a) β-amyloid protein increases
b) Proteins become rich in alpha helices
c) β-sheets are reduced in proteins
d) Protein synthesis is inhibited at the translation level

38- One of the side effects of drugs such as sulfonamides is the development of
methemoglobinemia. From a biochemical perspective, which statement about
methemoglobinemia is correct?
a) Oxygen binds to hemoglobin but is not transported
b) Ferric ion is converted to ferrous form
c) Heme protein is not synthesized
d) A decrease in erythrocyte count occurs

39- In which following statements, hyperuricemia does not occur?

a) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
b) von Gierke disease
c) Cancer chemotherapy
d) Fanconi syndrome

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40- Which repair system corrects errors that lead to mismatched base pairs during the
replication process?
a) Mismatch repair
b) Base excision repair
c) Nucleotide excision repair
d) Homologous recombination

41- Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by the effect of 5-fluoruracil as an anticancer
agent?
a) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
b) 5-phosphoribosyl 1-pirophosphate synthase
c) Xanthine oxidase
d) Thymidylate synthase

42- Which ion channel dysfunction causes cystic fibrosis?

a) Sodium channel
b) Potassium channel
c) Chloride channel
d) Calcium channel

43- Streptomycin belongs to which of the following groups?

a) Proteoglycans
b) Glycosides
c) Lipoproteins
d) Glycolipids

44- A 46-year-old man visits the doctor complaining of chest pain and fatigue. Family history
indicated his parents in young age died from heart disease. Laboratory findings show
elevated cholesterol, increased LDL, normal triglycerides level, and slightly decreased HDL.
Which of the following genes is likely to be defected?
a) LDL receptor
b) PCSK9 (Proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9)
c) Lipoprotein lipase
d) Apolipoprotein E

45- Which is the carbon donor in the elongation step of fatty acid synthesis?
a) Propionyl CoA
b) Acetoacetyl CoA
c) Malonyl CoA
d) Succinyl CoA

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46- The parents of a child with progressive neurological symptoms, intellectual disability,
blindness, and cherry-red spots in the macula of the retina visited the clinic. The child had
passed away at the age of three, and autopsy results confirmed the presence of high amounts
of GM2 ganglioside in the nerve cells and brain. Which of the following enzymes is likely to
be impaired?
a) Sphingomyelinase
b) Glucocerebrosidase
c) Galactocerebrosidase
d) Hexosaminidase A

47- Dubin-Johnson syndrome is caused by:

a) Deficiency of the enzyme glucuronyl transferase
b) Failure of conjugated bilirubin secretion from the liver into the bile
c) Excessive secretion of coproporphyrins I and II
d) Ferrochelatase deficiency

48- Which of the following enzymes, when genetically defected, causes increased urinary
excretion of citrulline?
a) Argininosuccinate synthetase
b) Argininosuccinate lyase
c) Carbamyl phosphate synthetase 1
d) Ornithine transcarbamylase

49- Which hormone receptor has tyrosine kinase activity?

a) Cortisol
b) Glucagon
c) Insulin
d) Somatostatin

50- Which of the following metabolites, when accumulated in the lens of the eye causes
cataracts?
a) Galactitol
b) Galactose
c) Fructose
d) Fructose-6 Phosphate

51- A patient is hospitalized with glycogen accumulation in the liver and renal tubules,
hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, ketosis, and hyperlipidemia. Which biochemical disorder
does he have?
a) Muscle phosphorylase deficiency
b) Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
c) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
d) Fatty acid synthase deficiency

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52- A 20-year-old woman is taking the antimalarial drug primaquine as prescribed by her
doctor. The patient develops severe hemolytic anemia as a result of taking the medicine.
Which of the following is the cause of the anemia?
a) Uronic acid disorders
b) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
c) NADPH production disorder
d) 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase deficiency

53- The following curve shows the effect of substrate concentration on the initial rate of an
enzyme-catalyzed reaction. Which of the following statements is not true about this curve?

a) The curve is hyperbolic in shape.

b) “?” here represents Km of the enzyme
c) At point C, only a small amount of the enzyme is present as the Enzyme-Substrate
complex
d) At point A, Vi is independent of [S]

54- A bodybuilder starts eating raw eggs instead of protein supplements. He developed fatigue
on moderate exercise. The doctor prescribes a vitamin. Which of the following enzymes
activity impaired?
a) Glucose-6-Phosphatase
b) Pyruvate Carboxylase
c) Phosphoenolpyruvate Carboxykinase (PEPCK)
d) Glycogen Phosphorylase

Bacteriology
55- A patient presents with symptoms of fever, cough, viscous and bloody sputum, and chest
pain. Which of the following bacteria is the most probable causing agent?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c) Streptococcus agalactiae
d) Group D streptococcus

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56- All the following statements are correct regarding the Corynebacterium diphtheria toxin
EXCEPT -------------- .
a) It is heat-labile polypeptide.
b) The toxin gene is coded by a lysogenic bacteriophage.
c) B fragment inhibits protein synthesis.
d) It is an exotoxin.

57- A patient suspected to have typhoid fever is referred to a physician after one week of fever.
Which of the following is the best clinical samples for the isolation of Salmonella in this
patient?
a) Blood
b) Urine
c) Feces
d) Bone Marrow

58- Which of the following Escherichia coli pathotypes relates to stacked-brick arrangement on
the surface of epithelial cell of intestine?
a) Enteroaggregative Escherichia coli
b) Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli
c) Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli
d) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

59- Gram-positive, catalase and coagulase positive cocci have been isolated from the blood
culture of a patient exhibiting symptoms of sepsis. Which bacterial species could be
responsible for this infection?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Staphylococcus epidermidis

60- A 61-year-old farmer while walking in his garden was injured on his toe. He was unable to
eat for 4 days because of facial muscle spasms and severe pain in his jaw. What is the
probable diagnosis for this case?
a) Botulism
b) Tetanus
c) Leptospirosis
d) Lyme disease

61- What is the best treatment regimen for patients with lepromatous form of leprosy?
a) Clofazimine, Dapson, Isoniazid
b) Rifampin, Isoniazid, Clofazimine
c) Dapson, Clofazimine, Pyrazinamide
d) Dapson, Rifampin, Clofazimine

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62- What is the best definition for multidrug-resistant (MDR) Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
a) Resistance to all first line drugs
b) Simultaneous resistance to isoniazid and rifampin
c) Resistance to rifampin and pyrazinamide
d) Simultaneous resistance to fluoroquinolones and streptomycin

63- Which structure represents the O antigen in Gram-negative bacteria?

a) Cell membrane proteins
b) Lipid A as part of LPS
c) Cell wall lipoprotein layer
d) Polysaccharide chains as part of LPS

64- Which of the following antibiotics is used to treat infections caused by methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus?
a) Piperacillin
b) Mezlocillin
c) Vancomycin
d) Ticarcillin

65- Which of the following microorganisms causes Lyme disease?

a) Borrelia burgdorferi
b) Treponema pallidum
c) Leptospira interrogans
d) Borrelia recurrentis

66- A 70-year-old hospitalized patient admitted in ICU has developed ventilator-associated

pneumonia (VAP). Which bacterium is the most likely causative agent?
a) Proteus mirabilis
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Escherichia coli
d) Acinetobacter baumannii

67- Which statement is correct about the chemical composition of Gram-negative bacterial cell
wall?
a) Contain teichoic acid and peptidoglycan
b) Contain phospholipid and peptidoglycan
c) Contain lipopolysaccharide and no peptidoglycan
d) Contain phospholipid and teichoic acid

68- An 18-year-old person develops severe diarrhea (rice-water stool) after drinking
contaminated water. The most likely cause of his diarrhea is ------------- .
a) Campylobacter jejuni
b) Vibrio cholerae
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) Entrotoxigenic Escherichia coli

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69- All following bacteria have animal or environmental reservoir EXCEPT ----------.
a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Legionella pneumophila
c) Bordetella pertussis
d) Brucella abortus

Parasitology

70- Which of the following worms can cause genital itching and irritation, vulvovaginitis and
fallopian tubes infection in women?
a) Dracunculus medinensis
b) Necator americanus
c) Enterobius vermicularis
d) Capillaria philippinensis

71- Which of the following parasites can cause fever, chills, right upper quadrant pain and
obstruction of biliary ducts?
a) Fasciolopsis buski
b) Fasiola hepatica
c) Heterophyes heterophyes
d) Paragonimus westermani

72- Which of the following can lead to cysticercosis in humans?

a) Direct contact with a patient with cysticercosis
b) Eating parasite eggs
c) Eating liver contaminated with cyst
d) Eating meat contaminated with cysticercus

73- Which of the following parasitic diseases is associated with ocular larva migrans (OLM)?
a) Toxocariasis
b) Ascariasis
c) Enterobiasis
d) Anckylostomiasis

74- Which of the following parasites can cause multiple colon polyps, splenomegaly, liver
periportal fibrosis and ascites?
a) Hymenolepis nana
b) Schist soma mansoni
c) Dipylidium caninum
d) Ascaris lumbricoides

75- Which of the following protozoa can produce celiac-like symptoms?

a) Entamoeba histolytica
b) Balantidium coli
c) Dientamoeba fragilis
d) Giardia lamblia

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76- Which of the following complications is specific to Indian visceral leishmaniasis?

a) Spelenomegaly
b) Anemia
c) Hyperpigmentation
d) Lymphadenopathy

77- Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of toxoplasmosis in early
pregnancy?
a) Pyrimethamine
b) Sulfadiazine
c) Spiramycin
d) Chloroquine

78- A 30-year-old man presented with fever and chills two weeks after a trip to the southeast of
Iran. In his peripheral blood smear, ring, amoboide, and schizont forms can be seen. The
infected red blood cells (RBCs) are larger than other RBCs. Which of the following
plasmodia is the cause of his disease?
a) Malariae
b) Vivax
c) Falciparum
d) Mixture of vivax and falciparum

Entomology

79- What is the most important order of insects from a medical point of view?
a) Siphonoptera
b) Anoplura
c) Hemiptera
d) Diptera

80- Which of the following vector-borne diseases does not have sylvatic form?
a) Yellow fever
b) Trench fever
c) Endemic typhus
d) Endemic tick fever

Mycology
81- Which of the following fungi produces metulae in the sporulating structure?
a) Mucor
b) Fusarium
c) Trichophyton
d) Penicillium

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82- Which of the following infections is characterized by the loss of infected hairs, pus secreting
sinuses containing arthroconidia and enlargement of local lymph nodes?
a) Athlete's foot
b) Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
c) Tineae barbae
d) Sporotrichosis

83- Which one is a subcutaneous fungal infection?

a) Piedra
b) Eumycotic mycetoma
c) Histoplasmosis
d) Cryptococcosis

84- Which fungus is angioinvasive and causes thrombosis and necrosis in infected tissues?
a) Mucor
b) Penicillium
c) Sporothrix
d) Cryptococcus

85- Which type of Candida infection is more common in patients with a history of antibiotic
therapy, leukemia and neoplasia
a) Vaginitis
b) Candidemia
c) Gastritis
d) Onychomycosis

Virology
86- All of the following viruses are arboviruses (considered to be transmitted by the arthropod
vectors) EXCEPT ----------.
a) Dengue Fever virus
b) Lassa Fever virus
c) West Nile Fever virus
d) Yellow Fever virus

87- Which of the following proteins is expressed by “Pol” gen in retroviruses?

a) gp120
b) Reverse Transcriptase
c) gp41
d) Core Protein

88- Which virus replication in epidermal cells is dependent on specific factors in sequential
differentiated states of epithelial cells?
a) Papillomavirus
b) Parvovirus
c) Poxvirus
d) Polyomavirus

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89- Which virus is associated with polyarteritis nodosa?

a) Hepatitis E
b) Hepatitis C
c) Hepatitis A
d) Hepatitis B

90- A boy suffered from “Swimming pool conjunctivitis” at a summer camp. Which virus is
likely involved?
a) Herpes simplex virus type 1
b) Enterovirus
c) Adenovirus
d) Polyomavirus

Anatomy
91- Injury to the ulnar nerve affects sensory function in which part of the upper limb?
a) Anterior aspect of forearm
b) Palmar surface of hand
c) Anterior aspect of arm
d) Posterior aspect of arm

92- Which of the following roots of spinal cord is related to the middle finger dermatome?
a) C7
b) C5
c) C6
d) C8

93- Which option is NOT a branch of brachial artery?

a) Superior ulnar collateral
b) Inferior ulnar collateral
c) Profunda brachii
d) Posterior circumflex humeral

94- Which superficial vein is located in the deltopectoral triangle?

a) Basilic
b) Cephalic
c) Accessory cephalic
d) Median cubital

95- All of the following muscles are plantar flexors of the leg at the ankle joint EXCEPT:
a) Tibialis posterior
b) Gastrocnemius
c) Soleus
d) Popliteus

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96- All of the following muscles are dorsiflexors of the leg at the ankle joint EXCEPT:
a) Extensor digitorum longus
b) Extensor hallucis longus
c) Fibularis longus
d) Tibialis anterior

97- Which muscle attaches to the lesser trochanter of the femur?

a) Psoas major
b) External obturator
c) Gluteus minimus
d) Piriformis

98- All of the following pass through the greater sciatic notch, EXCEPT:
a) Piriformis muscle
b) Pudendal nerve
c) Sciatic nerve
d) Obturator internus tendon

99- Which of the following nerves innervates the mediastinal pleura?

a) Phrenic
b) Vagus
c) Intercostal
d) Splanchnic (visceral)

100- Which one is the best place for listening the aortic valves sound?
a) The 5th intercostal space on the left side of sternum
b) The 2nd intercostal space on the right side of sternum
c) The 2nd intercostal space on the left side of sternum
d) The 5th intercostal space on the right side of sternum

101- Which of the following structures runs behind the medial arcuate ligament of the diaphragm?
a) Thoracic duct
b) Sympathetic chain
c) Vagus nerve
d) Azygos vein

102- All of the following nerves are found in the superior mediastinum space, EXCEPT:
a) Right vagus
b) Left vagus
c) Right recurrent laryngeal
d) Left recurrent laryngeal

103- Which of the following contents of the inguinal canal PARTLY passes through this canal?
a) Remnants of processus vaginalis
b) Testicular artery
c) Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
d) Ilioinguinal nerve

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104- The middle part of the ureter receives blood from which of the following arteries?
a) Gonadal
b) Superior vesical
c) Renal
d) Inferior vesical

105- The superior part of the greater omentum is attached to which of the following
structures?
a) Arches of jejunum
b) Arches of the ileum
c) Upper surface of the transverse colon
d) Lesser curvature of the stomach

106- Which of the following indicates the formation place of the portal vein?
a) Anterior to the first part of the duodenum
b) Posterior to the first part of the duodenum
c) Anterior to the neck of the pancreas
d) Posterior to the neck of the pancreas

107- The round (teres) ligament of the liver is a remnant of which of the following?
a) Embryological urachus
b) Left umbilical vein
c) Left umbilical artery
d) Falciform ligament

108- A 42–year-old married man was referred to your clinic after recovering from a car
accident. His complaint is inability to have an erection. Which of the following nerves is
damaged?
a) Pudendal nerve
b) Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
c) Ilioinguinal nerve
d) Obturator nerve

109- Which of the following structures is located in the deep perineal pouch?
a) External urethral sphincter
b) Bulbospongiosus muscle
c) Ischiocavernosus muscle
d) Bulb of vestibule

110- The superior rectal artery originates from which of the following main arteries?
a) Posterior trunk of internal iliac
b) Superior mesenteric
c) Inferior mesenteric
d) Anterior trunk of internal iliac

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111- The uncinate process is located on which surface of the lateral mass of the ethmoidal
bone?
a) Inferior
b) Medial
c) Lateral
d) Superior

112- Which of the following nerves contains parasympathetic fibers of glossopharyngeal

nerve?
a) Lingual
b) Buccal
c) Auriculotemporal
d) Deep temporal

113- All of the following arteries supply the scalp, EXCEPT:

a) Facial
b) Superficial temporal
c) Posterior auricular
d) Occipital

114- All of the following structures are present on the medial wall of tympanic cavity,
EXCEPT:
a) Fenestra vestibule
b) Fenestra cochlea
c) Facial canal
d) Carotid canal

115- All of the following arteries are involved in blood supply of nasal cavity, EXCEPT:
a) Greater palatine
b) Anterior ethmoidal
c) Inferior labial
d) Sphenopalatine

116- Which nerve receives sense from the oral cavity floor?
a) Greater palatine
b) Lingual
c) Buccal
d) Inferior alveolar

117- Which nerve carries parasympathetic fibers for the secretion of lacrimal gland?
a) Lesser petrosal
b) Zygomaticofacial
c) Nasocilliary
d) Zygomaticotemporal

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118- All of the following muscles are supplied by pharyngeal plexus, EXCEPT:
a) Stylopharyngeous
b) Palatopharyngeous
c) Salpingopharyngeous
d) Superior constrictor

119- Which of the following belongs to the central group of anterior gray column of spinal
cord?
a) Proprius nucleus
b) Substantia gelatinosa
c) Accessory (spinal root) nucleus
d) Dorsal nucleus

120- All of the following nerves exit from posterolateral fissure (between the olives and the
inferior cerebellar peduncles) of medulla oblongata, EXCEPT:
a) Vagus
b) Glossopharyngeal
c) Cranial root of accessory
d) Vestibulocochlear

121- Which of the following arteries supplies the center of Broca (motor speech area)?
a) Middle cerebral
b) Anterior cerebral
c) Anterior choroidal
d) Internal carotid

122- Which nucleus of thalamus receives gustatory fibers (solitariothalamic lemniscus)?

a) VA (Ventro Anterior)
b) VPM (Ventro Posterior Medial)
c) VPL (Ventro Postero Lateral)
d) VL (Ventro Lateral)

123- Which of the following cell populations does NOT divide and only enters the
differentiation process?
a) Type B spermatogonia
b) Type A spermatogonia
c) Spermatid
d) Secondary spermatocyte

124- LH surge leads to all of the following, EXCEPT

a) Ovulation- Increase in progesterone
b) Termination of MII division- Formation of the second polar body
c) Increase in progesterone- Formation of the first polar body
d) Increase in collagenase- Nuclear and cytoplasmic maturation of oocyte

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Comprehensive Examination of basic medical sciences February 2025

125- Which of the following cells is the origin of the serous membranes lining the plural and
pericardial cavities?
a) Parietal layer of mesoderm
b) Endoderm layer
c) Splanchnic mesoderm
d) Intermediate mesoderm

126- Which of the following is the coronary sinus derived from?

a) Left umbilical vein
b) Left horn of sinus venosus
c) Right horn of sinus venosus
d) Left common cardinal vein

127- The squamous portion of the temporal bones originates from which of the following?
a) Splancnic mesoderm
b) Somitic mesoderm
c) Somitic mesoderm and somitomeres
d) Neural crest

128- The embryonic hematopoietic function of the liver is decreased during which of the
following?
a) Up to the 8th week
b) Up to the 12th week
c) At the last two months of pregnancy
d) At birth

129- Lateral body wall folds consist of:

a) Visceral layer of lateral plate mesoderm and its overlying ectoderm
b) Parietal layer of lateral plate mesoderm and its overlying ectoderm
c) Overlying ectoderm and intermediate mesoderm
d) Endoderm layer and overlying ectoderm

130- Which of the following nuclei originates from the basal plate of the neural tube?
a) Motor nucleus of oculomotor nerve
b) Vestibular nuclei
c) Arcuate nuclei
d) Solitaries nuclei

131- "Canals of Hering" are found in which of the following organs?

a) Gallbladder
b) Liver
c) Pancreas
d) Salivary gland

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Comprehensive Examination of basic medical sciences February 2025

132- Abnormally shaped mitochondria are found in which of the following cells?
a) Follicular
b) Chief
c) Parafollicular
d) Oxyphil

133- Which of the following cells is involved in maintaining the blood-inner retina barrier?
a) Muller
b) Horizontal
c) Amacrine
d) Ganglion

134- Which of the following is involved in thermoregulation?

a) Venous portal system
b) Arteriovenous shunt
c) Carotid bodies
d) Carotid sinuses

135- Which cellular junction in intercalated disc acts similar to an "electrical synapse"?
a) Desmosome
b) Tight junction
c) Gap junction
d) Fascia adherens

136- "Lamellar bodies" present in which cellular cytoplasm?

a) Club cell
b) Alveolar type I
c) Alveolar type II
d) Dust cell

137- "Juxtaglomerular cells" are modified cells of which structural part of kidney
parenchyma?
a) Proximal tubule
b) Distal tubule
c) Efferent arteriole
d) Afferent arteriole

138- Which of the following cells performs the phagocytosis of excess cytoplasm in
spermiogenesis?
a) Sertoli
b) Spermatogonium
c) Leydig
d) Myoid

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Comprehensive Examination of basic medical sciences February 2025

139- Which glial cell has a slightly elongated and dense nucleus?
a) Oligodendrocyte
b) Microglia
c) Ependymal
d) Schwann

140- Stereocilia present in which of the following organs?

a) Trachea
b) Ovary
c) Epididymis
d) Middle ear

141- "Matrix vesicles" present in which of the following bone cells?

a) Osteoblast
b) Osteocyte
c) Osteoclast
d) Osteoprogenitor

142- Which connective tissue forms the stroma of the bone marrow?
a) Loose
b) Irregular dense
c) Mucoid
d) Reticular

Principles of Health Services

143- Which health dimension facilitates disease acceptance and reduces the level of post-
illness depression and suicide in acute cases?
a) Physical dimension
b) Psychological dimension
c) Social dimension
d) Spiritual dimension

144- In which health system is the government obliged to guarantee the provision of health
services?
a) Pluralistic
b) Social security
c) National Health Services
d) Socialized

145- The term self-efficacy is mentioned in which of the health promotion models?
a) PRECEDE-PROCED
b) Stage of Change Model
c) Health Belief Model
d) Behavioral Intention Model

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146- Cause of death should be considered in calculating which of the following indicators?
a) Neonatal mortality rate
b) Maternal mortality rate
c) Infant mortality rate
d) Under five mortality rate

147- What is the leadership style of a health group leader who always seeks to create working
conditions based on the goals of the organization?
a) Democratic
b) Laissez-Faire
c) Transformation
d) Strategic

148- Which needs are satisfied in a mother who takes her child to a health center for
vaccination after feeling that her child is at risk of contracting a disease?
a) Unnecessary needs
b) Perceived needs
c) Expressed needs
d) Inductive needs

149- Which one is a concept of health equality?

a) Equality in access to services
b) Equality in benefiting from the services
c) Equality in using the services
d) Equality in accessing modern health technology

150- Which prevention level indicates avoidance of unnecessary use of health sources and
interventions?
a) First level
b) Second level
c) Third level
d) Fourth level

151- Which of the following principles should be considered in designing an efficient and
responsive health system?
a) Priority of outpatient services over inpatient services
b) Priority of treatment services over preventive services
c) Emphasis on centralization in delivery of service
d) Allocation of equal resources in urban and rural areas

152- Which item is NOT a part of primary health care?

a) Health education
b) Immunization
c) Mental health
d) Public participation

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153- Which of the following vaccines is stored in the upper shelf of a refrigerator?.
a) BCG
b) Hepatitis
c) DTP
d) Pentavalent

154- Which of the following international organizations supports prevention of gender-

specific violence?
a) United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA)
b) World Health Organization (WHO)
c) UNESCO
d) United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)

Principles of epidemiology

155- To investigate the relationship between cardiovascular disease and physical activity levels, a
researcher has simultaneously collected data about these two variables from study participants.
Which type of study has this researcher conducted?
a) Cross-sectional
b) Case control
c) Cohort
d) Clinical trial

156- Out of 100 patients, 60 were identified as patients based on a laboratory test, and the
same test identified 80 healthy individuals out of a 100 healthy population. Calculate the
positive predictive value.
a) 60%
b) 75%
c) 80%
d) 90%

157- Which of the following is defined as “an infection with no active multiplication of the
agent, as when viral nucleic acid is incorporated into the nucleus.”
a) preclinical
b) subclinical
c) persistent
d) latent

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158- The following figure shows the results of a blood sugar test for a sample of 100 people
from a population. Which answer best describes this figure?

a) valid and reliable

b) valid but not reliable
c) not valid but reliable
d) not valid but reliable

159- Which study is suitable for investigating the relationship between average salt
consumption and average systolic blood pressure across different countries?
a) Cross-sectional
b) Cohort
c) Ecologic
d) Case Control

160- Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of cohort studies?

a) The possibility of investigating only one outcome
b) Failure in investigating rare exposures
c) The need for a large sample size
d) Failure in calculating the risk of outcome

161- Which of the following studies is more appropriate for assessing the effectiveness of
prevention methods and treatment interventions?
a) Uncontrolled Clinical Trial
b) Clinical Trial with Historical Control
c) Non-randomized Controlled Clinical Trial
d) Randomized Controlled Clinical Trial

162- Out of 600 individuals with tuberculosis in a city with a population of 500,000, twenty
have died. What is the mortality rate of tuberculosis in this city? (per 100,000
population)
a) 0.03
b) 4
c) 3.3
d) 0.00004

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Immunology

163- T cell receptor (TCR) and immunoglobulin are similar in the following choices except:
a) present on lymphocyte surface
b) contain variable and constant regions
c) activate complement system
d) involve in Antigen recognition

164- Which molecules in mice and human induces autoimmune disease when it is genetically
deleted or blocked?
a) CTLA-4, PD-1
b) CD40, CD40L
c) B7, CD28
d) ICOS, ICOSL

165- Which of the following choices is present in the constant region of an antibody?
a) Paratope
b) Allotype
c) Idiotype
d) Epitope

166- The absence of which organ or lymphoid tissue makes a person susceptible to
encapsulated bacteria?
a) Lymph node
b) Thymus
c) Spleen
d) Appendix

167- Which Toll like receptors (TLRs) are capable of recognizing single-stranded RNAs?
a) TLR 3,8
b) TLR 7,8
c) TLR 2,6
d) TLR 7,3

168- Which of the following choices is the characteristic of M2 macrophages?

a) they have a short lifespan Compared to neutrophils,
b) Inhibition of cancer cells
c) IL-12 secretion
d) Contribute to the development of cancer

169- Which of the cytokines are produced by regulatory T cells:

a) IFNγ ‫ و‬TGF
b) TGF‫ و‬IL-35
c) IL-4 ‫ و‬IL-13
d) IL-10 ‫ و‬IL-13

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Comprehensive Examination of basic medical sciences February 2025

170- Which of the following mechanisms is only effective in B lymphocyte peripheral

Tolerance:
a) Receptor editing
b) Anergy
c) Deletion
d) Inhibitory receptor

English (20 Questions)

Reading Comprehension: Answer the questions 171 – 174 based on the following passage.

Passage 1

Recent advancements in medical technology have brought about drastic changes in the field of surgery,
offering significant benefits such as increased precision, reduced recovery times, and less invasive
procedures. Technologies like robot-assisted surgery, 3D printing, and artificial intelligence (AI) have
enhanced the surgeon’s ability to perform complex operations with greater control. Robot-assisted surgery,
for example, has made minimally invasive surgery more precise, reducing blood loss and the risk of
complications. However, these advancements also present challenges. High costs remain a significant barrier
to the widespread adoption of new surgical technologies, particularly in developing countries. While 3D
printing has made strides in creating customized implants and prosthetics, the technology still faces
limitations in terms of material durability and regulatory approval. Additionally, the increasing reliance on
artificial intelligence and robotics raises concerns about the diminishing role of human expertise in decision-
making. Despite these drawbacks, laparoscopic surgery, which utilizes small incisions, continues to be a
preferred method due to its reduced risk of infection and faster recovery times. Yet, the required specialized
training poses a challenge for many surgeons. Overall, while these technologies bring significant
improvements to surgery, careful consideration of their costs, training requirements, and ethical implications
is crucial.

171- Robot-assisted surgery is beneficial because it can ---------.

a) evaluate infection control measures
b) assist in predicting complications
c) replace surgeons in invasive procedures
d) encourage human involvement in decision-making

172- One drawback of 3D printing in surgery is its --------------.

a) practice of cost-effective procedures
b) inability to create custom implants
c) use of low-endurance material
d) failure to replace traditional surgeries

173- The author’s attitude toward medical technology in surgery is best described as --------.
a) skeptical, questioning technological advancements
b) supportive, focusing on future achievements
c) critical, highlighting the main drawbacks
d) optimistic, recognizing both pros and cons

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Comprehensive Examination of basic medical sciences February 2025

174- A concern with AI in surgery is that it may result in --------------.

a) technology dominance over human expertise
b) complete elimination of traditional surgery
c) reduction of the quality of surgical outcomes
d) increase of human involvement in surgery

Reading Comprehension: Answer the questions 175 – 177 based on the following passage.

Passage 2

Liquid biopsies offer a revolutionary approach to cancer diagnosis and monitoring. Unlike traditional
tissue biopsies that require invasive procedures, liquid biopsies analyze bodily fluids, primarily blood, for
circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA), tumor cells, and other biomarkers. This minimally invasive technique
allows for recurring sampling, which provides valuable insights into the evolving nature of the disease.
Additionally, liquid biopsies reduce patient discomfort and lower the risk of complications associated with
surgical biopsies. By detecting ctDNA, liquid biopsies can identify genetic mutations in cancer cells. This
capability enables personalized treatment strategies. Such targeted approaches help optimize therapeutic
effectiveness while minimizing unnecessary treatments. They can also monitor treatment response in real-
time, allowing for early detection of treatment resistance and the swift adjustment of treatment plans. This
adaptability makes liquid biopsies particularly useful for tracking cancer progression over time.
Furthermore, liquid biopsies can potentially detect early signs of cancer recurrence, enabling early
intervention and improving patient outcomes. Early detection not only improves survival rates but also
enhances the quality of life for patients undergoing treatment. While still an emerging field, liquid biopsies
highly ensure revolutionizing cancer care. Their integration into routine clinical practice could transform
oncology by making cancer management more proactive and precise. Continued research and technological
advancements are crucial to further refine these techniques and expand their clinical applications.

175- According to the passage, liquid biopsies improve cancer treatment by -------------- .
a) supplementing chemotherapy with other treatments
b) intervening genetic mutations in cancer cells
c) predicting the outcome for each patient with certainty
d) adjusting treatment plans to individual patient needs

176- Liquid biopsies contribute to improved patient outcomes by ---------------- .

a) facilitating early identification of treatment resistance
b) lowering the risk of cancer development
c) providing a cure for various types of cancer
d) eliminating the need for further medical interventions

177- The current status of liquid biopsy in cancer care is best described as ------------- .
a) an already established diagnostic approach
b) a mature technique with widespread use
c) a promising procedure for future treatments
d) an unlimited sampling method with low accuracy

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Comprehensive Examination of basic medical sciences February 2025

Vocabulary
Direction: Complete the following sentences by choosing the best option.

178- Scientists are working on the ------------------ of malaria through improved treatments
and widespread mosquito control measures.
a) fortification
b) proliferation
c) eradication
d) deterioration

179- Although the patient’s blood test results indicated a ------------------ of essential
nutrients, his ongoing symptoms suggested the need for further testing.
a) sufficiency
b) discrepancy
c) scarcity
d) disparity

180- The doctor prescribed medicine to ---------- the patient’s chronic pain and improve his
quality of life.
a) induce
b) alleviate
c) underscore
d) corroborate

181- The shift to a patient-centered -------------in modern medicine has significantly

improved treatment outcomes and patient satisfaction.
a) adversary
b) paradigm
c) equilibrium
d) nullification

182- To ensure better resources and services for the community, the hospital increased its
budget --------- for better patient care this year.
a) allocation
b) attribution
c) adaptation
d) authentication
Medical Terminology
Direction: Complete the following sentences by choosing the best option.

183- The patient experienced ---------------- of food shortly after eating, which suggested a
possible digestive disorder.
a) sedimentation
b) fermentation
c) constipation
d) regurgitation

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Comprehensive Examination of basic medical sciences February 2025

184- The patient became --------------- after the operation, which made bladder management
a priority.
a) anhydrous
b) afebrile
c) incontinent
d) impulsive

185- Powerful --------------- for the relief of severe pain are often prescribed for patients
recovering from surgery or suffering from chronic conditions
a) laxatives
b) stimulants
c) analgesics
d) hallucinogens

186- After eating a large meal, she experienced abdominal -------------, making her feel
uncomfortably full and bloated.
a) distention
b) herniation
c) paresthesia
d) ischemia

187- A person who has been exposed to a sexually transmitted infection (STI) is prescribed
antibiotics even though they are currently asymptomatic. This procedure is an example
of ---------------.
a) catheterization
b) prophylaxis
c) cauterization
d) anaphylaxis

188- A patient arrives at the emergency room after a car accident. They are restless,
speaking rapidly, and appear visibly distressed. The patient's behavior in the emergency
room is best described as -------------.
a) sedated
b) lethargic
c) comatose
d) agitated

189- A patient presents with recent vision changes and difficulty closing their eyelids
completely. Upon examination, the doctor notices that the patient's eyes appear to be
bulging out of their sockets. This condition is known as ---------------- .
a) cataract
b) glaucoma
c) strabismus
d) exophthalmos

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Comprehensive Examination of basic medical sciences February 2025

190- During the physical examination, the physician presses down on the patient's abdomen
and then quickly releases the pressure. The patient cries out in pain as the pressure is
released. This condition is known as ----------------.
a) rebound tenderness
b) Murphy’s sign
c) guarding
d) rigidity

Good luck

31
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