FINAL EXAMINATION – 2024 - 2025
Chemistry Revision Worksheet Grade 11
General Instructions:
In the final exam paper-
a. There will be 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b. SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c. SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d. SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e. SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g. All questions are compulsory, however internal choice will be there for few questions.
h. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.
Section A (1 Marks)
1. Photoelectric effect established that light
a) behaves like particles
b) behaves like magnetic fields
c) behaves like waves
d) behaves like rays
2. A reaction occurs spontaneously if:
i. TS = H and both H and S are positive
ii. TS > H and both H and S are positive
iii. TS < H and both H and S are positive
iv. TS > H and H is positive and S is negative
a) i and ii
b) iv and i
c) iii and iv
d) only ii
3. Which of the following information can be obtained on the basis of Le Chatelier’s
principle?
a) Shift in equilibrium position on changing value of a variable
b) Equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
c) Entropy change in a reaction
d) Dissociation constant of a weak acid
4. Which of the following is not an aromatic compound?
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5. The first element of a group in many ways differs from the other heavier members of the
group. This is due to:
a) all of the these
b) the small size
c) the high electronegativity and high ionisation potential
d) the unavailability of d-orbitals
6. For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of H and S are 40.63 kJ
mol-1 and 108.8JK-1 mol-1 respectively. The temperature when Gibbs energy change (G)
for this transformation will be zero, is:
a) 393.4 K
b) 373.4 K
c) 293.4 K
d) 273.4 K
7. Stereo isomeric alkenes due to the different arrangement of atoms or groups in space are
referred to as:
a) Constitutional isomers
b) Position isomers
c) Chain isomers
d) Geometric isomers
8. Which of the following property is not a state function?
a) Work
b) Enthalpy
c) Internal energy
d) Entropy
9. When the rate of evaporation is equal to the rate of condensation, it is called _______.
a) equilibrium
b) stable reaction
c) balanced reaction
d) reaction at rest
10. The molecular formula C3H8O represents two alcohols: propan-1-ol and propan-2-ol. This
property is called as:
a) Functional group isomerism
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b) Position isomerism
c) Chain isomerism
d) Metamerism
11. Pick up an INCORRECT statement with regard to ozonolysis of alkenes
a) Ozonolysis is carried out at low temperatures.
b) Ozonolysis helps in locating the position of double bond.
c) Ozonides formed in ozonolysis are highly unstable.
d) Two different alkenes on ozonolysis give the same combination of aldehydes or
ketones.
12. Enthalpy of sublimation of a substance is equal to
(i) enthalpy of fusion + enthalpy of vapourisation
(ii) enthalpy of fusion
(iii) enthalpy of vapourisation
(iv) twice the enthalpy of vapourisation
13. Nucleophile is a species that should have
(i) a pair of electrons to accept
(ii) positive charge
(iii) negative charge
(iv) electron deficient species
14. On the basis of thermochemical equations (a), (b) and (c), find out which of the algebric
relationships given in options (i) to (iv) is correct.
15. During complete combustion of one mole of butane, 2658 kJ of heat is released. The
thermochemical reaction for above change is
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16. What is the correct order of decreasing stability of the following cations.
17. For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is:
(i) T = 0
(ii) p = 0
(iii) q = 0
(iv) w = 0
18. Choose the correct answer. A thermodynamic state function is a quantity
(i) used to determine heat changes
(ii) whose value is independent of path
(iii) used to determine pressure volume work
(iv) whose value depends on temperature only.
19. The number of atoms present in one mole of an element is equal to Avogadro number. Which of the
following element contains the greatest number of atoms?
(i) 4g He
(ii) 46g Na
(iii) 0.40g Ca
(iv) 12g He
20. Which of the following options does not represent ground state electronic configuration
of an atom?
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s2
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1
(iv) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1
21. The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an
atom on its outer shell electrons is:
(i) s > p > d > f
(ii) f > d > p > s
(iii) p < d < s > f
(iv) f > p > s > d
22. Which of the following angle corresponds to sp2 hybridisation?
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(i) 90°
(ii) 120°
(iii) 180°
(iv) 109°
23. The enthalpies of elements in their standard states are taken as zero. The enthalpy of
formation of a compound:
i) is always negative
ii) is always positive
iii) may be positive or negative
iv) is never negative
23.
24. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between system and surroundings.
Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the
following.
a) q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, w = 0
b) q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
c) q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
d) q = 0, ∆T < 0, w ≠ 0
25. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their boiling points.
(A) n–butane (B) 2–methylbutane
(C) n-pentane (D) 2,2–dimethylpropane
(i) A > B > C > D
(ii) B > C > D > A
(iii) D > C > B > A
(iv) C > B > D > A
26.
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27. In which of the following compounds, an element exhibits two different oxidation states.
a) NH2OH
b) NH4NO3
c) N2H4
d) N3H
Assertion and Reason Type
In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose
the correct option out of the choices given below each question.
28. Assertion (A):Ionization potential across the period is Na < Al < Mg < Si.
Reason (R):lonization potential decreases with decrease in atomic size.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
29. Assertion (A):Density is an intensive property.
Reason (R):Density does not depend on the size of the sample.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
30. Assertion (A):Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.
Reason (R):Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, an equal volume of
gases does not contain an equal number of atoms.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
31. Assertion (A) : Pent- 1- ene and pent- 2- ene are position isomers.
Reason (R) : Position isomers differ in the position of functional group or a substituent.
(i) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) Both A and R are not correct.
(iv) A is not correct but R is correct.
32. Assertion (A) : All the carbon atoms in H2C = C = CH2 are sp2 hybridised
Reason (R) : In this molecule all the carbon atoms are attached to each other by double bonds.
(i) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) Both A and R are not correct.
(iv) A is not correct but R is correct.
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33. Assertion (A) : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason (R) : The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various
atoms present in a compound.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) A is true but R is false.
(iii) A is false but R is true.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
34. Assertion (A) : Combustion of 16 g of methane gives 18 g of water.
Reason (R) : In the combustion of methane, water is one of the products.
(i) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(ii) A is true but R is false.
(iii) A is false but R is true.
(iv) Both A and R are false
.
35. Assertion (A) : All isotopes of a given element show the same type of chemical behaviour.
Reason (R) : The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the number of electrons in the atom.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
36. Assertion (A) : It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum of an electron
simultaneously.
Reason (R) : The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true and R is false.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
37. Assertion (A) : Generally, ionisation enthalpy increases from left to right in a period.
Reason (R) : When successive electrons are added to the orbitals in the same principal quantum level,
the shielding effect of inner core of electrons does not increase very much to compensate for the
increased attraction of the electron to the nucleus.
(i) Assertion is correct statement and reason is wrong statement.
(ii) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(iii) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
(iv) Assertion is wrong statement and reason is correct statement.
Section B (2 Marks)
38. Show the distribution of electrons in oxygen atom (atomic number 8) using orbital diagram.
39. The electronic configuration of valence shell of Cu is 3d104s1 and not 3d94s2.
How is this configuration explained?
40. Explain why the electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than that of chlorine.
41. Identify the group and valency of the element having atomic number 119. Also predict the
outermost electronic configuration and write the general formula of its oxide.
42. Arrange the following bonds in order of increasing ionic character giving reason.
N—H, F—H, C—H and O—H
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43. Wavelengths of different radiations are given below :
λ(A) = 300 nm ; λ (B) = 300 µ m ; λ(C) = 3 nm ; λ(D) = 30 A0
Arrange these radiations in the increasing order of their energies.
44. Nitrogen has positive electron gain enthalpy whereas oxygen has negative. However, oxygen has
lower ionisation enthalpy than nitrogen. Explain.
45. How would you explain the fact that first ionisation enthalpy of sodium is lower than that of
magnesium but its second ionisation enthalpy is higher than that of magnesium?
46. Structures of molecules of two compounds are given below :
(a) Which of the two compounds will have intermolecular hydrogen bonding and which
compound is expected to show intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
(b) The melting point of a compound depends on, among other things, the extent of
hydrogen bonding. On this basis explain which of the above two compounds will show
higher melting point.
47. The equilibrium constant expression for a gas reaction is-
Write the balanced chemical equation corresponding to this expression.
48. Explain why alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to a pi bonded system.
49. Explain, how is the electronegativity of carbon atoms related to their state of hybridisation in
an organic compound?
50. Write bond line formulas for : Isopropyl alcohol, 2,3-Dimethylbutanal, Heptan-4-one.
51. Name the compounds whose line formulae are given below :
Section C (3 Marks)
52. Draw the resonance structures of the following compounds;
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53. What is Kc for the following equilibrium when the equilibrium concentration of each substance
is: [SO2] = 0.60M, [O2] = 0.82M and [SO3] = 1.90M ?
54. What are electrophiles and nucleophiles? Explain with examples.
55. If the photon of the wavelength 150 pm strikes an atom, and one of its inner bound electrons
is ejected out with a velocity of 1.5 x 107 ms-1. Calculate the energy with which is a bound
to the nucleus.
56. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is just sufficient to ionise the sodium
atom. Calculate the ionisation energy of sodium in kJ mol–1.
57. How would you convert the following compounds into benzene?
(i) Ethyne (ii) Ethene (iii) Hexane
58. Which out of NH3 and NF3 has higher dipole moment? Explain with diagram.
Section D (4 Marks)
Case study Questions
Comprehension given below is followed by some multiple choice questions. Each question has one
correct option. Choose the correct option. 15=5
In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic numbers which is
related to the electronic configuration. Depending upon the type of orbitals receiving the last electron,
the elements in the periodic table have been divided into four blocks, viz, s, p, d and f. The modern
periodic table consists of 7 periods and 18 groups. Each period begins with the filling of a new energy
shell. In accordance with the Arfbau principle, the seven periods (1 to 7) have 2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32 and 32
elements respectively. The seventh period is still incomplete. To avoid the periodic table being too long,
the two series of f-block elements, called lanthanoids and actinoids are placed at the bottom of the main
body of the periodic table.
1. The element with atomic number 57 belongs to
(a) s-block
(b) p-block
(c) d-block
(d) f-block
2. The last element of the p-block in 6th period is represented by the outermost electronic
configuration.
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(a) 7s2 7p6
(b) 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p0
(c) 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p6
(d) 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p4
3. Which of the elements whose atomic numbers are given below, cannot be accommodated in the
present set up of the long form of the periodic table?
(a) 107
(b) 118
(c) 126
(d) 102
4. The electronic configuration of the element which is just above the element with atomic number
43 in the same group is ________.
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s2
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s3 4p6
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 4s2
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d7 4s2
5. The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 are all ________.
(a) noble gases
(b) halogens
(c) heavy metals
(d) light metals
59. Electron Gain Enthalpy is the enthalpy change accompanying the process of an electron being
added to a neutral gaseous atom to convert it into a negative ion. Electron gain enthalpy
depends on the ease with which an atom accepts an electron. It depends on the atomic radius,
whether the atom has a stable electronic configuration, the effective nuclear charge and nuclear
pull, electron-electron repulsion in that energy level etc. Atoms that readily accept an electron
have highly negative electron gain enthalpy and the atoms that do not readily accept an electron
have less negative or positive electron gain enthalpy. Study the table of electron gain enthalpies
of some main group elements and answer the questions that follow based on the table and
related concepts.
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(a) Explain why do group 1 elements have less negative electron gain enthalpies?
(b) Explain why do noble gases have positive electron gain enthalpies?
(c) Define electron gain enthalpy. Arrange P, S, Cl, F in increasing order of electron gain
enthalpies.
(d) Define electron gain enthalpy. Why is electron gain enthalpy of sulphur more negative
than oxygen?
60. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
“Stability of carbocations depends upon the electron releasing inductive effect of groups
adjacent to positively charged carbon atom involvement of neighbouring groups in
hyperconjugation and resonance.”
The resonance effect is defined as ‘the polarity produced in the molecule by the interaction
of two -bonds or between a -bond and lone pair of electrons present on an adjacent
atom’.
The resonance structures have (i) the same positions of nuclei and (ii) the same number of
unpaired electrons. Among the resonance structures, the one which has more number of
covalent bonds, all the atoms with octet of electrons (except hydrogen which has a duplet),
less separation of opposite charges, (a negative charge if any on more electronegative
atom, a positive charge if any on more electropositive atom) and more dispersal of charge,
is more stable than others.
a) Draw the possible resonance structures for the below compound and predict which of the
structures is more stable. Give reason for your answer. (1)
b) Which of the following ions is more stable? Use resonance to explain your answer. (1)
c) Write structures of various carbocations that can be obtained from 2-methylbutane.
Arrange these carbocations in order of increasing stability. (2)
Section E (5 Marks)
61. a) Addition of HBr to propene yields 2-bromopropane. Write the chemical equation for
the reaction and explain why the major product is 2-bromopropane.
b) Under what conditions does this reaction yield 1-bromopropane? Write the chemical
equation for the reaction.
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62. Draw the molecular orbital energy level diagram for N2 molecule. Calculate its bond order
and predict its magnetic character.
63. Does Ne2 molecule exist? Prove it with the molecular orbital energy level diagram
followed by calculating the bond order.
64. a)For the following equilibrium, Kc = 6.3 × 1014 at 1000 K
What is Kc , for the reverse reaction?
b) A sample of HI(g) is placed in flask at a pressure of 0.2 atm. At equilibrium the partial
pressure of HI(g) is 0.04 atm. What is Kp for the given equilibrium?
65. a) Describe the effect of -
i) addition of H2
ii) removal of CO
on the following reaction at equilibrium.
b) Dihydrogen gas is obtained from natural gas by partial oxidation with steam as per
following endothermic reaction:
A. Write an expression for Kp for the above reaction.
B. How will the values of Kp and composition of equilibrium mixture be affected by-
(i) increasing the temperature
(ii) using a catalyst
66. Briefly describe the valence bond theory of covalent bond formation by taking an
example of hydrogen. How can you interpret energy changes taking place in the
formation of dihydrogen?
67. A compound contains 4.07 % hydrogen, 24.27 % carbon and 71.65 % chlorine. Its molar
mass is 98.96g. What are its empirical and molecular formulas?
68. What is photoelectric effect? State the result of photoelectric effect experiment that could
not be explained on the basis of laws of classical physics. Explain this effect on the basis
of quantum theory of electromagnetic radiations.
69. The net enthalpy change of a reaction is the amount of energy required to break all the bonds
in reactant molecules minus amount of energy required to form all the bonds in the product
molecules. What will be the enthalpy change for the following reaction?
H2 (g) + Br2 (g) 2HBr(g)
Given that Bond energy of H2, Br2 and HBr is 435 kJ mol–1, 192 kJ mol–1 and 368 kJ mol–1
respectively. (5)
70. a) Which of the following compounds will not show cis-trans isomerism? Explain.
b) Draw cis and trans isomers of the following compounds and write their IUPAC names:
(i) CHCl = CHCl
(ii) C2H5CCH3 = CCH3C2H5
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