Classified IMAT Past Paper Questions -

CHEMISTRY (2024 - 2011)

Index
Constitution of matter: states of matter, heterogeneous and homogeneous
systems, compounds and elements: 10 questions
Ideal gas laws: 6 questions
Structure of the atom: subatomic particles, atomic number and mass, isotopes,
electronic structure: 14 questions
Periodic table: groups and periods, periodic properties (atomic radius, ionization
potential, electronegativity, etc.): 14 questions
Chemical bonds: ionic, covalent, metallic; polarity, bond energy, intermolecular
bonds: 17 questions
Inorganic chemistry: nomenclature and properties of oxides, acids, bases, salts: 6
questions
Reactions and stoichiometry: mole, Avogadro’s number, mass calculations,
reaction balancing: 26 questions
Solutions: solubility, concentration expressions: 11 questions
Aqueous equilibria: 7 questions
Elements of chemical kinetics and catalysis: 1 question
Oxidation and reduction: oxidation number, redox reactions: 14 questions
Acids and bases: definitions, pH, hydrolysis, buffers: 17 questions
Organic chemistry: carbon bonding, isomerism, hydrocarbons, functional groups
(alcohols, aldehydes, ketones, etc.), basic nomenclature: 25 questions

Constitution of matter: states of matter, heterogeneous and homogeneous

systems, compounds and elements
1. Question 39 (2023): Which of the following statements about 1Kg of water is
correct?
A) Ice has a greater volume than liquid water as the particles are further apart
B) Liquid water has a greater volume than ice as the particles are further apart
C) Liquid water has a greater volume than ice as the particles have more kinetic
energy
D) Liquid water and ice have the same volume, which explains why ice partially floats
in water
E) Ice has a greater volume than liquid water as the particles have more kinetic
energy
2. Question 42 (2023): The formulae of the five most abundant substances in air are
shown: N2 O2 Ar CO2 H2O How many of these five substances are elements and
 how many of these five substances are made of molecules?
A) Elements = 3, molecules = 4
B) Elements = 1, molecules = 4
C) Elements = 1, molecules = 2
D) Elements = 3, molecules = 2
E) Elements = 5, molecules = 4
3. Question 38 (2022): Equal volumes of liquids are mixed as the following pairs:
1 heptane and hexane
2 water and methanol
3 hexane and water
Which of the pairs form(s) a homogenous mixture?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only
E) 1, 2 and 3
4. Question 45 (2022): Which of the following separation techniques can be used to
obtain liquid ethanal from an aqueous mixture of ethanol, ethanal and ethanoic acid?
1 filtration
2 fractional distillation
3 centrifugation
A) 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2 only
E) 1 and 3 only
5. Question 41 (2020): What does the formula Br2 represent?
A) a compound of the element bromine
B) two separate atoms of the element bromine
C) a molecule of the element bromine
D) a molecule of the compound bromine
E) two bromide ions
6. Question 43 (2020): The occurrence of which of the following could allow you to
distinguish between the processes of DNA replication and transcription?
1 The breaking of hydrogen bonds.
2 The formation of hydrogen bonds.
3 The formation of phosphodiester bonds.
A) 3 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 only
D) 1 and 3 only
E) 1, 2 and 3
 7. Question 41 (2017): Which one of the following statements correctly describes the
type of mixture and the most appropriate method used to separate the specified
component from the mixture?
A) salt from salt solution – homogeneous; paper filtration
B) water from salt solution – heterogeneous; simple distillation
C) chlorophyll from a solution of different plant pigments – homogeneous;
chromatography
D) red blood cells from blood – homogeneous; centrifuge
E) gasoline/petrol from crude oil – heterogeneous; simple distillation
8. Question 48 (2017): Consider the following list of particles:
1. Molecules
2. Ions
3. Single atoms
Which one of the following options correctly describes the particles that are
present in an aqueous solution of sodium chloride?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 3 only
D) 1 only
E) 2 only
9. Question 45 (2013): Which name of the following phase changes is NOT correct?
A) Solid to liquid = Melting
B) Gas to solid = Freezing
C) Solid to gas = Sublimation
D) Liquid to gas = Evaporation
E) Gas to liquid = Condensation
10. Question 60 (2012): Which of the following statements are correct about the solvent
properties of water?
1. All ionic substances dissolve in water.
2. All covalent substances are insoluble in water.
3. The solubility of solids usually increases with a rise in temperature.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) none
E) 3 only
Ideal gas laws
11. Question 33 (2024): A mixture of 0.3 mol of N2, 0.5 mol of CO2, and 0.4 mol of O2
exerts a pressure of 2.4 atm on the walls of the vessel that contains it. What is the
pressure exerted by the nitrogen?
A) 0.6 atm
B) 0.8 atm
 C) 0.5 atm
D) 0.3 atm
E) 0.75 atm
12. Question 34 (2024): A gas, confined in a rigid cylinder and maintained at a
temperature of -3 °C exerts a pressure of 9 atm. What pressure would the same gas
exert if it were heated to 27 °C?
A) 10 atm
B) -81 atm
C) 8.1 atm
D) 9.6 atm
E) 12.5 atm
13. Question 34 (2023): A sample of n moles of an ideal gas is contained in a closed
system of fixed volume V m³ at pressure P Pa and temperature 27.0 °C. If the gas is
heated to 327.0 °C, what will be the pressure, in Pa, at this new temperature?
Assume absolute zero is at -273.0 °C
A) 2P
B) P/2
C) P
D) 327/27 P
E) 27/327 P
14. Question 48 (2018): Consider a fixed volume and amount of an ideal gas at 10 °C.
What temperature would it have to be changed to in order for the pressure to be
doubled?
A) 5°C
B) 20°C
C) 566°C
D) 293°C
E) 278°C
15. Question 50 (2018): A sealed container contains 1.00 mol of hydrogen gas, which
behaves as an ideal gas. Which of the following changes increase(s) the total kinetic
energy of the hydrogen gas molecules initially within the container?
1. Changing the amount of hydrogen from 1.0 mol to 1.2 mol whilst keeping the
pressure and volume constant.
2. Changing the pressure from 1.0 atm to 1.2 atm whilst keeping the volume and
number of moles constant.
3. Changing the volume from 1.0 L to 1.2 L whilst keeping the pressure and
number of moles constant.
A) 3 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1 and 2 only
E) 1 only
16. Question 46 (2017): In an experiment involving the reaction shown below, 150 cm³
of F2 reacts with 100 cm³ of Cl2.

3F2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2ClF3(g)

On completion of the reaction, what is the final gaseous volume at the same
temperature and pressure?
A) 250 cm³
B) 100 cm³
C) 350 cm³
D) 200 cm³
E) 150 cm³
Structure of the atom: subatomic particles, atomic number and mass, isotopes,
electronic structure
17. Question 33 (2023): A simple ion of element A can be represented: 2x+2A2+. How
many electrons are present in this ion?
A) x-2
B) x
C) x+2
D) 2x
E) 2x+4
18. Question 37 (2022): Which of the following particles has the same number of
neutrons as the 79/35 Br⁻ ion?
A) 78/34 Se
B) 81/35 Br²⁺
C) 81/35 Br⁻
D) 82/36 Kr
E) 101/44 Ru⁺
19. Question 42 (2022): An atom has a mass number of 18 and contains 10 neutrons. A
common ion of this atom has a charge of -2. What is the electron configuration of this
ion in its lowest energy state?
A) 1s²2s²2p⁶
B) 1s²2s²2p⁴
C) 1s²2s²2p²
D) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²
E) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁴
20. Question 42 (2020): An atom has atomic number x and a mass number of 2x + 6.
How many neutrons are in the nucleus of this atom?
A) 6
B) x - 6
C) x + 3
D) x + 6
E) x - 3
21. Question 50 (2019): Hydrogen has a radioactive isotope called tritium. Tritium atoms
have two neutrons. The most abundant naturally occurring isotope of hydrogen has a
relative atomic mass of 1.0. What is the value for the relative atomic mass of a
sample of hydrogen gas that has an equal amount of these two isotopes of
hydrogen?
A) 3.0
B) 2.0
C) 4.0
D) 1.5
E) 1.0
22. Question 44 (2018): Which of the following species have the same number and
arrangement of electrons in their lowest energy states?

A) 8O– and 8O2–

B) 19K+ and 16S–
C) 11Na+ and 8O2–
D) 19K+ and 11Na+
E) 8O– and 16S–
23. Question 42 (2017): Which one of the following options gives the correct electron
structure of the particle?

A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
E) Option E
24. Question 52 (2017): Which one of the following statements about the four
atoms/ions below is correct?
 A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
E) Option E
25. Question 44 (2016): Which of these particles have the same electronic structure?

A) 1, 2 and 5 only
B) 2, 4 and 5 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) 3, 4 and 5 only
E) 1, 2 and 4 only
26. Question 50 (2016): Identify the number of protons (p), neutrons (n) and electrons
(e) present in the ion:

A) p = 27 n = 25 e = 21
B) p = 24 n = 28 e = 24
C) p = 27 n = 25 e = 24
D) p = 24 n = 28 e = 21
E) p = 24 n = 24 e = 21
27. Question 44 (2015): The atomic number of aluminium is 13. Which electron
configuration given below corresponds to the Al2+ ion in its ground state?

A) 1s22s22p63s23p1
B) 1s22s22p63s23p3
C) 1s22s22p6
D) 1s22s22p63s1
E) 1s22s22p53s2
28. Question 48 (2014): The atomic numbers of five atoms are given below. Which atom
would have an electronic configuration ending in a p⁵?
A) 7
B) 9
C) 5
D) 8
E) 6
29. Question 64 (2012): What is the total number of electrons in the ions of sodium
chloride?
A) sodium ion = 11; chloride ion = 17
B) sodium ion = 8; chloride ion = 8
C) sodium ion = 11; chloride ion = 18
D) sodium ion = 10; chloride ion = 18
E) sodium ion = 10; chloride ion = 17
30. Question 66 (2012): What is the total number of electrons in an ammonium ion,
NH4+ ?
 A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 11
E) 12
Periodic table: groups and periods, periodic properties (atomic radius, ionization
potential, electronegativity, etc.)
31. Question 43 (2023): Which of these elements has the highest first ionisation
energy?
A) Neon (Z = 10)
B) Lithium (Z = 3)
C) Sodium (Z = 11)
D) Argon (Z = 18)
E) Potassium (Z = 19)
32. Question 41 (2022): As Group VII of the Periodic Table (F to I) is descended, which
of the following properties of the elements DECREASE?

1 Melting points
2 Electronegativities
3 First ionisation energies

A) 2 and 3 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 only
D) 1 and 3 only
E) 1, 2 and 3
33. Question 50 (2022): Which of the following lists the given elements in order of
DECREASING first ionisation energies? [Atomic numbers: Li = 3; Be = 4; Na = 11]
A) Be, Li, Na
B) Li, Be, Na
C) Li, Na, Be
D) Be, Na, Li
E) Na, Be, Li
34. Question 46 (2019): Element Z reacts with water at room temperature and hydrogen
gas is released. The oxide of element Z is a solid at room temperature and does not
conduct electricity. The oxide reacts with acids and has the formula ZO. To which
group/part of the Periodic Table does element Z belong?
A) Group VII
B) Transition metals
C) Group I
D) Group III
E) Group II
35. Question 47 (2019): Which statement about a positive ion explains why it is
positively charged?
A) The ion has the same number of protons and neutrons.
B) The ion has more electrons than protons.
C) The ion has more protons than electrons.
D) The ion has more electrons than neutrons.
E) The ion has more protons than neutrons.
36. Question 45 (2018): Five atoms are shown below. The letters are NOT chemical
symbols. Which one of the following atoms has the highest first ionisation energy?

A) [Atom A]
B) [Atom B]
C) [Atom C]
D) [Atom D]
E) [Atom E]
37. Question 52 (2018): Which of the following statements, if any, are correct for the
properties of Group I elements?
1. They form hydrides where the hydrogen has an oxidation state of –1.
2. They can reduce iodine to iodide.
3. Their outer electrons are delocalised when in the liquid state.
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) none of them
E) 2 and 3 only
38. Question 50 (2017): Element X is a grey solid.
It combines with chlorine to form a polar molecule with the formula XCl. In this
compound,
element X has an oxidation state of +1.
In potassium iodide solution, it dissolves to form a coloured solution.
At 500°C, it becomes a coloured vapour.
What is the identity of element X?
A) manganese
 B) fluorine
C) iodine
D) carbon
E) lithium
39. Question 49 (2013): The positions of the main group elements in the Periodic Table
are shown below:

Which one of the following formulae is NOT correct?

A) GaCO3
B) CSNO3
C) BeSO4
D) SnS2
E) Ba(HCO3)2
40. Question 62 (2012): Which one of the following is NOT correct about Fe, Cu and Zn,
which are in the first row of the transition metals?
A) They all form basic oxides.
B) They all have densities greater than those of Group 1 metals.
C) They are all reactive metals.
D) All of them form M2+ ions.
E) Only two of them form coloured ions.
41. Question 65 (2012): Which one of the following is correct about the first and second
electron affinities of oxygen?
A) first = slightly exothermic; second = very endothermic
B) first = slightly exothermic; second = very exothermic
C) first = slightly endothermic; second = very exothermic
D) first = slightly endothermic; second = very endothermic
E) first = very exothermic; second = very exothermic
42. Question 59 (2011): Which of the following shows how the atomic radius of the
elements changes on crossing from left to right in the row of the Periodic Table from
potassium to bromine?
 A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
E) Option E
43. Question 64 (2011): The positions of some elements in the Periodic Table are shown
below.

Which two of the elements shown react most energetically with each other?
A) Li and Kr
B) Ne and Na
C) C and He
D) Li and Br
E) Na and Cl
44. Question 67 (2011): One group of elements in the Periodic Table contains, in
descending order, boron, aluminium, gallium, indium and thallium. Which of the
following are correct about these elements?
1 Indium forms the oxide In2O3
2 Boron is the least reactive element in the group
3 Gallium forms the sulphate GaSO4
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 3
E) 1, 2 and 3
Chemical bonds: ionic, covalent, metallic; polarity, bond energy, intermolecular
bonds
45. Question 44 (2023): Which of these molecules has an overall dipole moment?
A) PF3
B) BeF2
C) CF4
D) PF5
E) SF6
46. Question 40 (2022): Which of the following substances in pure liquid form has/have
hydrogen bonds between their molecules?
1 H2O
2 HF
3 CH4
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 2 only
D) 3 only
E) 2 and 3 only
47. Question 41 (2022): In which of the following does the central atom share all of its
outer shell electrons? [Atomic numbers: H = 1; B = 5; C = 6; N = 7; O = 8; F = 9]
1 BF3
2 NH4+
3 CO2
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only
E) none of them
48. Question 48 (2022): Phosphorus is in Group V of the Periodic Table. What is the
shape and the bond angle for the PH4+ ion?

A) row 1
B) row 2
C) row 3
D) row 4
E) row 5
49. Question 49 (2022): At room temperature and pressure, which of the following
substances has the strongest hydrogen bonds between their molecules?
A) ethanoic acid, CH3COOH
B) propanal, CH3CH2CHO
C) fluoromethane, CH3F
D) trimethylamine, (CH3)3N
E) hydrogen sulfide, H2S
50. Question 44 (2020): Which of the following substances has the weakest overall
intermolecular forces? [atomic numbers: H = 1; C = 6; N = 7; O = 8; F = 9]
A) H2O
B) CH4
C) HF
D) NH3
E) CO2
51. Question 48 (2020): Which of the following molecules has a permanent overall
dipole moment? [C is in Group IV; N and P are in Group V; O and S are in Group VI;
F and Cl are in Group VII]
A) NF3
B) PCl5
C) SF6
D) CCl4
E) CO2
52. Question 47 (2018): Which row correctly shows the shape of each molecule and
whether the molecule is polar (i.e. has a permanent dipole moment) or non-polar?

A) row 3
B) row 1
C) row 4
D) row 2
E) row 5
53. Question 51 (2017): Which option correctly describes the following features of a
silane (silicon tetrahydride) molecule?
• number of bonding pairs (bp) of electrons
 • number of lone/non-bonding pairs (lp) in the valence shell of the silicon atom
• bond angle
[Atomic number: Si = 14; H = 1]
A) 3 bp; 1 lp; 107°
B) 3 bp; 1 lp; 109.5°
C) 4 bp; 0 lp; 109.5°
D) 4 bp; 2 lp; 90°
E) 4 bp; 0 lp; 90°
54. Question 46 (2016): The compounds carbon dioxide (CO2), propane (C3H8) and
ethanal (CH3CHO) all have Mr = 44.

Which of the following lists correctly shows these compounds in the order that they
become gases as their temperature rises from –100°C at the same pressure?
A) CO2, C3H8, CH3CHO
B) CH3CHO, C3H8, CO2
C) CO2, CH3CHO, C3H8
D) C3H8, CO2, CH3CHO
E) C3H8, CH3CHO, CO2
55. Question 51 (2016): Which of the following molecules contain bond angles of 180°
in their gaseous states?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 only
D) 2 and 3 only
E) 2 only
56. Question 45 (2015): Atoms X and Y form an ionic compound with formula XY2.
Which option below could give the correct atomic numbers for X and Y?
A) X = 11; Y = 16
B) X = 3; Y = 17
C) X = 12; Y = 9
D) X = 6; Y = 16
E) X = 14; Y = 8
57. Question 46 (2015): 2,2 – dimethylpropane, C(CH3)4, is an isomer of pentane,
CH3(CH2)3CH3. Pentane has a boiling point of 36 °C whilst the boiling point of 2,2 –
dimethylpropane is 10 °C. Which statement below explains the difference in the
boiling points for these two substances?
A) 2,2 - dimethylpropane has stronger intermolecular forces.
B) The molecules have different relative molecular masses.
C) Isomers have different chemical properties.
D) Pentane has permanent dipoles.
E) Longer chain, less branched molecules have stronger spontaneous/induced
dipoles.
58. Question 52 (2014): Which two of the following molecular substances in the
gaseous state have the strongest permanent molecular dipole?

A) CO2 and SiF4

B) ICl and CH2Cl2
C) CH2Cl2 and CO2
D) ICl and CO2
E) GeH4 and SiF4
59. Question 48 (2013): Which of the following are correct about carbon to carbon
bonds?
1. The length of carbon to carbon bonds increases in the order C=C, C=C, C-C.
2. The strength of the C=C bond is less than twice the strength of the C-C bond.
3. The carbon atoms are joined by six electrons in the C≡C bond.
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1 and 2 only
E) 3 only
60. Question 66 (2012): The positions of some elements in the Periodic Table are
shown below. Which one of the following pairs of elements is most likely to form a
covalent bond?
A) magnesium and bromine
B) strontium and oxygen
C) potassium and chlorine
D) calcium and chlorine
E) beryllium and iodine
61. Question 60 (2011): How many nitrogen electrons are involved in bond formation in
HONO2?
A) 3
B) 4
 C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Inorganic chemistry: nomenclature and properties of oxides, acids, bases, salts
62. Question 35 (2024): Which of the following compounds forms a hydroxide when
reacting with water?
A) BaO
B) CI2O
C) SO3
D) SiO2
E) N2O3
63. Question 38 (2023): Which one of the following is a gaseous compound (at room
temperature and pressure) that exists as linear molecules and reacts with water to
form an acidic solution?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Silicon dioxide
C) Nitrogen dioxide
D) Sulfur dioxide
E) Sulfur trioxide
64. Question 43 (2020): Which of the following is the equation for the reaction of
magnesium with excess cold water?
A) Mg + 2H2O → Mg(OH)2 + H2
B) Mg + H2O → Mg(OH)2 + H2
C) 2Mg + 2H2O → 2MgOH + H2
D) Mg + H2O → MgO + H2
E) 2Mg + H2O → Mg2O + H2
65. Question 51 (2015): Which two of the following oxides would NOT give acidic
solutions in water? CO, CO2, SO2, NO
A) NO and SO2
B) NO and CO2
C) CO and SO2
D) CO and CO2
E) CO and NO
66. Question 50 (2014): How many of the following compounds are acidic, alkaline or
amphoteric (react with both acids and alkalis)?

A) Acidic = 10; Amphoteric = 2; Alkaline = 4

B) Acidic = 7; Amphoteric = 1; Alkaline = 5
 C) Acidic = 9; Amphoteric = 2; Alkaline = 2
D) Acidic = 6; Amphoteric = 1; Alkaline = 6
E) Acidic = 8; Amphoteric = 1; Alkaline = 4
67. Question 69 (2012): Which one of the following is NOT the correct formula for a
lithium compound?
A) Li₂S
B) LiCO3
C) CH3CO₂Li
D) LiHSO4
E) Li₃N
Reactions and stoichiometry: mole, Avogadro’s number, mass calculations,
reaction balancing
68. Question 35 (2024): Which of the following compounds forms a hydroxide when
reacting with water?
A) BaO
B) CI2O
C) SO3
D) SiO2
E) N2O3
69. Question 36 (2024): Given the theoretical reaction yield of 4 FeS2 + 11 O2 → 2
Fe2O3 + 8 SO2 which of the following statements is correct
A) From 2 mol of FeS2 and 11 mol of O2, 1 mol of Fe2O3 can be obtained.
B) From 4 mol of O2 and 11 mol of FeS2, 8 mol of SO2 can be obtained.
C) To obtain 1 mol of Fe2O3, 2 mol of FeS2 and 5 mol of O2 are necessary.
D) From 10 mol of O2 and 1 mol of FeS2, 3 mol of SO2 can be obtained.
E) To obtain 1 mol of Fe2O3 and 6 mol of SO2, 2 mol of FeS2 and 9 mol of O2 are
necessary.
70. Question 44 (2024): Given that the relative atomic mass of nitrogen is 14 u, how
many nitrogen atoms are present in 0.7 g of gaseous nitrogen?
A) 3.01×10^22
B) 6.02×10^22
C) 3.01x10^23
D) 1.51×10^22
E) 2.01×10^-23
71. Question 45 (2024): Carbon and oxygen can react at high temperatures to form
CO2. Assuming that the relative atomic mass of the carbon is 12 u, the relative
atomic mass of the oxygen is 16 u and the yield of the reaction is 100%, what
happens when 9 g of carbon reacts with 36 g of oxygen?
A) 33 g of CO2 are produced.
B) 45 g of CO2 are produced.
C) 9 g of oxygen remain.
D) 4 g of oxygen remain.
E) 18 g of oxygen remain.
72. Question 46 (2023): Iron is made by reduction of iron oxide using carbon monoxide.
Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2. 50 g of iron is made in a reaction from 80 g of iron
oxide. What is the percentage yield of iron in this reaction? (Mr Fe2O3 = 160, Ar Fe =
56)
A) 50/56 × 100
B) 50/80 × 100
C) 25/80 × 100
D) 50/56 / 80/160 × 100
E) 25/112 / 80/160 × 100
73. Question 44 (2022): Barium sulfate is insoluble in water. Aqueous solutions of
barium chloride and sodium sulfate are mixed. Which of the following equations is
the SIMPLEST ionic equation for the reaction that occurs?
A) Ba²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s)
B) 2BaCl(aq) + Na₂SO₄(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
C) BaCl₂(aq) + Na₂SO₄(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
D) 2Ba⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → Ba₂SO₄(s)
E) Ba²⁺(aq) + 2Cl⁻(aq) + 2Na⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2Na⁺(aq) + 2Cl⁻(aq)
74. Question 46 (2022): A metal oxide, MO, reacts with sulfuric acid according to the
following equation: MO + H₂SO₄ → MSO₄ + H₂O. 2.8 g of the metal oxide requires 25
mL of 2.0 mol L⁻¹ sulfuric acid for complete reaction. What is the relative atomic mass
(Aᵣ) of the metal? [Aᵣ value: O = 16]
A) 40
B) 24
C) 56
D) 96
E) 112
75. Question 52 (2022): A sample of an oxide of iron contains 1.68g of iron and 0.64g of
oxygen only. What is the formula of this oxide? [Ar values: Fe = 56; O = 16]
A) Fe3O4
B) Fe4O3
C) Fe2O3
D) Fe3O2
E) FeO
76. Question 44 (2019): A compound consists of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only. 8 g
of this compound contains 3 g of carbon and 1 g of hydrogen. Which one of the
following could be the molecular formula of the compound? [Ar values: C = 12; H = 1;
O = 16]
A) CH2O
B) C3HO4
C) C2H8O
D) C2H4O
E) CH4O
77. Question 52 (2020): 40 cm³ of a solution of sodium hydroxide is exactly neutralised
by 25 cm³ of 0.40 mol L⁻¹ sulfuric acid.

2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O.

What is the concentration, in g L⁻¹, of the sodium hydroxide solution?

[Mr value: NaOH = 40]
A) 20 g L⁻¹
B) 5 g L⁻¹
C) 0.25 g L⁻¹
D) 10 g L⁻¹
E) 0.5 g L⁻¹
78. Question 52 (2019): What is the minimum mass of sulfur dioxide needed to make
500 mL of a solution of concentration 3.0 mol / L? [Ar values: O = 16; S = 32]
A) 32 g
B) 48 g
C) 192 g
D) 384 g
E) 96 g
79. Question 44 (2018): A compound consists of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only. 8 g
of this compound contains 3 g of carbon and 1 g of hydrogen. Which one of the
following could be the molecular formula of the compound? [Ar values: C = 12; H = 1;
O = 16]
A) CH2O
B) C3HO4
C) C2H8O
D) C2H4O
E) CH4O
80. Question 45 (2017): Which one of the following samples of gases contains the most
particles?
All gases are at 0°C and 1 atm pressure, when 1 mole of gas has a volume of 22.4 L.
[Relative atomic mass, Ar: H = 1, He = 4, C = 12, O = 16, Cl = 35.5]
A) 33.6 L of chlorine gas
B) 66.0 g of carbon dioxide gas
C) 22.4 L of hydrogen gas
D) 10.0 g of helium gas
E) 64.0 g of oxygen gas
81. Question 42 (2016): Lead(II) nitrate solution and potassium iodide solution react to
form potassium nitrate in solution and a bright yellow precipitate of lead(II) iodide.
Which one of the following correctly represents the ionic equation for this chemical
reaction?
A) Pb2+(aq) + I ¯(aq) → PbI(s)
B) Pb2+(aq) + I2-(aq) → PbI(s)
 C) Pb+(aq) + 2I (aq) → PbI2(s)
D) Pb2+(aq) + 2I ¯(aq) → PbI2(s)
E) Pb+(aq) + I ¯(aq) → PbI(s)
82. Question 47 (2016): A sample of lithium was completely reacted with water. The
equation for this reaction is:

2Li(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2LiOH(aq) + H2(g).

The aqueous lithium hydroxide solution formed has a concentration of 0.10 mol/L.
What is its concentration in g/L? (Ar: Li = 7.0; O = 16.0; H = 1.0)
A) 240
B) 480
C) 4.8
D) 3.1
E) 2.4
83. Question 41 (2015): 0.75 g of a hydrocarbon compound contains 0.60 g of carbon.
(Ar : C = 12.0; H = 1.0) Which one of the following could be the molecular formula of
the hydrocarbon compound?
A) C3H8
B) C2H4
C) C2H6
D) CH4
E) C2H3
84. Question 42 (2015): In the reaction

C3H7Br + KOH → C3H7OH + KBr.

24.6 g of 1-bromopropane reacts with excess potassium hydroxide to produce 8.00 g

of propan-1-ol.

Mr: C3H7Br = 123.

Ar: H = 1.0; C = 12.0; O = 16.0.

What is the percentage yield of this reaction?

A) 57.1%
B) 93.0%
C) 32.5%
D) 33.3%
E) 66.7%
85. Question 49 (2015): When propan-1-ol is burnt in excess oxygen the only products
formed are carbon dioxide and water. In the balanced equation for this reaction what
is the ratio of CO2 : H2O molecules formed?
A) 4:7
B) 3:8
C) 2:7
 D) 3:4
E) 5:12
86. Question 44 (2014): Excess lead (II) nitrate solution is added to 1.30 g of zinc
powder and the mixture is stirred. When the reaction is finished the lead formed is
filtered, dried and weighed. It has a mass of 3.31 g. What is the percentage yield of
the lead?
[Ar: Pb = 207; Zn = 65]
A) 60%
B) 70%
C) 100%
D) 90%
E) 80%
87. Question 49 (2014): The relative molecular mass of calcium carbonate is 100. What
is the minimum volume of 2.0 M hydrochloric acid that would be needed to
completely react with 2.0 g of calcium carbonate?
A) 40 cm³
B) 20 cm³
C) 30 cm³
D) 5 cm³
E) 10 cm³
88. Question 51 (2013): What value does c need to be so that the following equation
can be balanced?

A) 21
B) 11
C) 16
D) 17
E) 26
89. Question 52 (2013): How many atoms of hydrogen are there in 3.0kg of ethane?
[relative atomic mass: H=1, C=12; Avogadro constant = 6.0 × 1023 per mol]
A) 3.6 × 1026
B) 3.9 x 1026
C) 6.0 × 1025
D) 3.6 × 1023
E) 6.0 x 1022
90. Question 63 (2012): The Avogadro constant is 6.0 x 1023 mol-1. How many
hydrogen atoms are there in 0.420 g of cyclohexane?
[Ar: H = 1; C = 12]
A) 1.8 x 1023
B) 1.8 x 1022
C) 3.0 x 1021
 D) 3.0 x 1022
E) 3.6 x 1022
91. Question 67 (2012): Consider the following reactions.

Which one of the following types of reaction is NOT included in this list?
A) substitution
B) oxidation/reduction
C) displacement
D) precipitation
E) elimination
92. Question 63 (2011): 8.0 g of copper oxide is reduced to 5.6g of copper using
hydrogen gas. [relative atomic mass: Cu=64, O=16]

What is the yield of copper as a percentage of the theoretical maximum?

CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
A) 14.3%
B) 43.9%
C) 56.0%
D) 70.0%
E) 87.5%
93. Question 68 (2011): Sodium chloride (relative molecular mass = 58.5) has a
solubility of 36.0 g per 100 g of water. The density of the solution is 1.13 g/ml. Which
of the following calculations would give the solubility in moles per litre?
A) 36.0 x 10/58.5
B) 36.0 x 1000/(58.5 x 1.13)
C) 36.0 x 10 x 1.13/58.5
D) 36.0 x 10 x 1.13/(58.5 x 136)
E) 36.0 x 1000 x 1.13/(58.5 x 136)
Solutions: solubility, concentration expressions
94. Question 37 (2024): How many mL of water must be added to 15 mL of a 0.25 M
solution of H2SO4 to obtain a 0.05 M solution?
A) 60 mL
B) 30 mL
C) 120 mL
 D) 75 mL
E) 50 mL
95. Question 38 (2024): How many Na⁺ ion moles can be found in 250 mL of a 1.2 M
solution of Na2SO4?
A) 0.6
B) 1.2
C) 1.8
D) 0.3
E) 0.4
96. Question 46 (2024): How much water needs to be added to 1 mL of an HCI solution
with a pH of 2 to obtain a solution with a pH of 4?
A) 99 mL
B) 1 mL
C) 2 mL
D) 24 mL
E) 49 mL
97. Question 45 (2020): Sucrose, C12H22O11, is added to water at 20 °C until no more
sucrose will dissolve. Four statements are made about sucrose and the solution that
is produced:
1 A saturated solution of sucrose is produced.
2 The freezing point of the solution is 0 °C.
3 Sucrose is a non-polar substance.
4 Sucrose is the solute.
Which two statements are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 1 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only
E) 1 and 4 only
98. Question 47 (2022): 0.365 g of hydrogen chloride is dissolved in sufficient water to
make 10 litres of solution. What is the pH of the HCl(aq) solution formed, at 25 °C?
[Aᵣ values: H = 1.0; Cl = 35.5]
A) 3.0
B) 2.0
C) 0.01
D) 4.0
E) 1.0
99. Question 50 (2022): 100mL of a solution contained 3.2g of potassium nitrate. 25mL
of this solution was added to an empty 250mL volumetric flask. Distilled water was
added up to the 250mL mark and the flask was shaken to ensure that mixing is
complete. A pipette was used to transfer 25mL of the resulting solution from the
volumetric flask to an empty conical flask. What is the concentration of the potassium
nitrate solution, in g L⁻¹, in the conical flask?
 A) 3.20gL⁻¹
B) 0.80g L⁻¹
C) 0.32gL⁻¹
D) 8.00g L⁻¹
E) 0.08gL⁻¹
100. Question 41 (2019): A student observed that when powdered sugar at ±1 °C was
added to ice at -1 °C all of the ice melted.

Which of the following statements explain this observation?

1 Sugar has given the water molecules energy.

2 The melting point of the mixture is higher.

3 The melting point of the mixture is lower

‎
A) 3.20gL⁻¹
B) 0.80g L⁻¹
C) 0.32gL⁻¹
D) 8.00g L⁻¹
E) 0.08gL⁻¹
101. Question 42 (2018): Which one of the following substances has the highest solubility
in the specified liquid at a temperature of 298 K and 1 atm pressure?
A) sodium chloride in liquid cyclohexane
B) bromine in liquid hexane
C) hydrogen in liquid water
D) potassium bromide in liquid tetrachloromethane
E) silicon dioxide in liquid water
102. Question 44 (2017): A solution of hydrochloric acid has a concentration of 1.0 mol/L.
If 10 mL of this acid is added to water and made up to a total volume of 1.0 L, what is
the pH of the resulting solution?
A) 9
B) 2
C) 5
D) 6
E) 0
103. Question 49 (2017): The solubility of potassium nitrate in water increases with
temperature.
A saturated solution of potassium nitrate at 80°C is cooled to 25°C in a closed
container.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
104. The mass of undissolved potassium nitrate will increase.
105. The concentration of the potassium nitrate solution remains the same.
106. The total mass of solvent present remains the same.
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 only
D) 2 only
E) 1, 2 and 3
107. Question 50 (2015): Potassium nitrate was found to have a solubility of 120 g in 100
g of water at 80 °C and 50 g in 100 g of water at 25 °C. 50 g of water was heated to
80 °C and solid potassium nitrate added until the solution was just saturated. The
solution was then cooled to 25 °C when solid potassium nitrate separated out to
leave a saturated solution. Using the information provided in this question, what is
the minimum mass of water that must now be added to the mixture of the solution
and the solid in order to make this solid potassium nitrate redissolve at 25 °C?
A) 20 g
B) 140 g
C) 120 g
D) 70 g
E) 190 g
Aqueous equilibria
104. Question 40 (2023): At a given temperature, the K value of a gaseous exothermic
reaction is equal to 7 × 10^-5 dm^6 mol^-2. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
A) At a lower temperature the value of K will increase
B) The position of equilibrium lies over to the right-hand side
C) There are more moles on the right-hand side of the equilibrium equation
D) An increase in pressure will increase the time taken to attain equilibrium
E) Addition of a suitable catalyst will increase the equilibrium yield obtained
105. Question 43 (2022): Hydrogen sulfide gas was shaken with a solution of sodium
hydroxide in a closed system. An equilibrium was rapidly established. H₂S(g) +
2OH⁻(aq) ⇌S²⁻(aq) + 2H₂O(l). The experiment was repeated at the same
temperature and pressure, but one additional substance was added to the
equilibrium mixture. Adding which of these substances, on its own, will increase the
number of molecules of H₂S present at equilibrium?
1 hydrochloric acid
2 solid potassium hydroxide
3 sodium sulfide
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 only
C) 2 only
D) 1 and 2 only
E) 2 and 3 only
106. Question 46 (2020): P, Q and R represent substances involved in a gaseous
reaction. The equilibrium constant (Kc) and the sign of the enthalpy change for the
 reaction are:

Assuming that all other conditions remain constant, a change in which factor results
in an increase of the value of the equilibrium constant, Kc?
A) an increase in pressure
B) use of a suitable catalyst
C) a decrease in temperature
D) a decrease in pressure
E) an increase in temperature
107. Question 43 (2019): Consider the following reversible reaction at temperature T. A +
2B ⇌ 2C + D. At equilibrium, there are 0.5 moles of A, 0.2 moles of B, 0.5 moles of C
and 0.8 moles of D, all in a vessel of volume V. What is the value of the equilibrium
constant, Kc, at this temperature?
A) 0.1
B) 2
C) 10
D) 4
E) 0.25
108. Question 51 (2018): When nitrogen and hydrogen are mixed under suitable
conditions of temperature and pressure, and in the presence of a catalyst, an
equilibrium state is attained:

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) ΔH is negative.

Which of the following statements explain(s) why, when the pressure on a mixture of
nitrogen and hydrogen is increased while the temperature remains constant, the time
taken to attain equilibrium is decreased?
109. The molecules have a higher collision frequency.
110. The yield of ammonia (NH3(g)) decreases.
111. A greater proportion of molecules in the mixture have energy greater than the
activation energy.
A) 2 only
B) 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
E) 1 only
112. Question 45 (2016): A mixture of methanol and ethanoic acid is left until equilibrium
is reached. The equation for this reaction is given below.
 CH3OH(l) + CH3COOH(l) ⇌ CH3COOCH3(l) + H2O(l) ΔH = -8.5 kJmol-1.
The amount of CH3OH in this mixture at equilibrium can be increased by:
113. adding more water to the mixture
114. raising the temperature of the mixture
115. adding sodium hydroxide to the mixture
116. adding a catalyst to the mixture
A) 2 and 4 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3 only
E) 4 only
117. Question 43 (2015): Pure water self-ionises. This endothermic reaction is
represented by the equation:
H2O(l) ⇌ H+(aq) + OH-(aq).

Which of the following statements is true for pure water between the temperatures of
0 °C and 100 °C?
‎
118. The concentrations of H+(aq) and OH¯(aq) are equal between 0 °C and 100 °C.
119. An increase in temperature causes the pH to fall.
120. An increase in temperature causes the electrical conductivity to decrease.
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 3 only
C) 1 only
D) 1 and 2 only
E) 2 only
Elements of chemical kinetics and catalysis
111. Question 47 (2014): A student carried out an experiment to find the rate of
decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen gas. The student used
100 cm³ of a 1M solution of hydrogen peroxide at 25°C and 1 atm pressure. 1 g of
powdered MnO2 as a catalyst was added and the solution was constantly stirred.
The student measured the total volume of oxygen produced. The procedure was
repeated, but this time using 100 cm³ of 2M hydrogen peroxide, under identical
conditions. Which option below shows the effect on (R) the rate of reaction, (V) the
total volume of oxygen collected, by using the 2M solution compared to the 1M
solution?
A) R: Doubled; V: Halved
B) R: No effect; V: Doubled
C) R: No effect; V: No effect
D) R: Doubled; V: Doubled
E) R: Doubled; V: No effect
Oxidation and reduction: oxidation number, redox reactions
112. Question 40 (2024): Zinc nitrate, nitrogen dioxide, and water are obtained from the
reaction of metallic zinc and nitric acid in an aqueous solution. What is the reducing
species?
A) Zn(s)
B) Zn2+(aq)
C) H+(aq)
D) Zn(NO3)2(aq)
E) HNO3(aq)
113. Question 45 (2023): This reaction is used in the extraction of titanium from its ore.
TiO2 + 2Cl2 + 2C → TiCl4 + 2CO. Which substances is/are the reducing agent(s) in
this reaction?
A) C
B) TiO2
C) Cl2
D) C and Cl2
E) none of these substances - it is not a redox reaction
114. Question 42 (2022): In which of the following reactions does HCl act as a reducing
agent?
A) MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + Cl₂ + 2H₂O
B) Zn + 2HCl → H₂ + ZnCl₂
C) Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O
D) NH₃ + HCl → NH₄Cl
E) Al₂O₃ + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂O
115. Question 51 (2022): The general formula of an oxoacid is Hm XOn. Which of the
following expressions gives the oxidation state of element X?
A) 2n - m
B) m - 2n
C) m + 2n
D) 2m - n
E) n - 2m
116. Question 41 (2018): Compounds of chlorine include: Cl2O KClO KClO3 KClO4
Cl2O7. Which one of the following options correctly lists the oxidation states of
chlorine that are shown in these compounds?
A) –1, +1, +5 and +7 only
B) –1, 0 and +1 only
C) –1 only
D) –1, 0, +1, +5 and +7 only
E) –1, +1, +3, +5 and +7 only
117. Question 42 (2019): Which of the following equations represent(s) a redox reaction?
‎
1 4LiH + AlCl3 → 3LiCl + LiAlH4
‎
2 N2O3 + 3H2O → 2H3O+ + 2NO2⁻
 ‎
3 NH4NO3 → 2H2O + N2O
‎
A) 3 only
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1 and 2 only
E) 2 only
118. Question 50 (2020): In which of the following pairs of species does the vanadium, V,
have the same oxidation state?
A) VO2 and VO3⁻
B) VO2 and V2O5
C) VCl4 and VO2+
D) VCl4 and VO3⁻
E) V2O5 and VO2+
119. Question 43 (2017): In which one of the following reactions is the underlined species
acting as an oxidising agent?
‎
A) Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br2
B) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO4 + Cu
C) 3CO + Fe2O3 → 3CO₂ + 2Fe
D) H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O
E) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
120. Question 52 (2016): Five of the ions of vanadium are listed below:

Which two ions have vanadium in the same oxidation state?

A) 2 and 5
B) 1 and 5
C) 3 and 4
D) 4 and 5
E) 1 and 3
121. Question 47 (2015): Assume that the oxidation numbers are as shown below:

A) [(NH4)2CrO4]+
B) NH4Cr2O7
C) (NH4)2CrO4
D) [(NH4)3CrO4]¯
E) (NH4)3CrO4
122. Question 45 (2014): A battery has lead plates dipped in sulfuric acid. When charged,
the positive plate is covered with PbO2. After discharge both plates are covered with
PbSO4. Which option below correctly describes the overall change in the oxidation
number of the lead involved in the chemical reaction during discharge?
A) Positive plate: 4 → 2; Negative plate: 2 → 0
B) Positive plate: 4 → 2; Negative plate: 0 → 2
C) Positive plate: 4 → 0; Negative plate: 0 → 2
D) Positive plate: 4 → 1; Negative plate: 0 → 1
E) Positive plate: 4 → 1; Negative plate: 1 → 0
123. Question 50 (2013): The following are some compounds of nitrogen:

What oxidation numbers are shown by nitrogen in these compounds?

A) 3, 4, 5, 6
B) 2, 3, 4, 5
C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
 D) 4, 5, 6
E) 3, 4, 5
124. Question 61 (2012): In the following reactions, which substances are acting as
oxidising agents?

A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
E) Option E
125. Question 69 (2011): Which one of the following is not an oxidation/reduction
reaction?
A) 2Fe + 3Cl2 → 2 FeCl3
B) Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HClO
C) KClO4 → KCl + 2O2
D) NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl
E) The electrolysis of sodium chloride solution
Acids and bases: definitions, pH, hydrolysis, buffers
126. Question 39 (2024): In the reaction NH3 + BF3NH3BF3 the ammonia behaves as a:
A) Lewis base
B) Brönsted base
C) Brönsted acid
D) Lewis acid
E) Arrhenius base
127. Question 46 (2024): How much water needs to be added to 1 mL of an HCI solution
with a pH of 2 to obtain a solution with a pH of 4?
A) 99 mL
B) 1 mL
C) 2 mL
D) 24 mL
E) 49 mL
128. Question 47 (2024): According to the Brønsted-Lowry theory:
A) a strong acid forms a conjugate with a weak base
B) the conjugate base is formed by an acid that has acquired an OH- ion
C) the conjugate acid is the product of the bonding of the base with an OH– ion
D) a base is a compound which can donate OH- ions
E) an acid is a substance which can provide a pair of electrons
129. Question 35 (2023): A pH meter is used to test 0.1 mol L¯¹ aqueous solutions of the
following compounds:
130. CH3COOH
131. NaCl
132. H2SO4
133. Ba(OH)2
134. HNO3
Which of the following correctly lists these solutions in order of increasing pH?
A) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
B) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
C) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
D) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
E) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
135. Question 36 (2022): Which of the following acids is/are weak?
1 H2CO3(aq)
2 HCOOH(aq)
3 HNO3(aq)
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 2 only
D) 3 only
E) 2 and 3 only
136. Question 37 (2023): Consider the reaction: H2SO4 + HNO3 → HSO₄ + H₂NO₃.
Which of the following terms describes the role of HNO3 in this reaction?
A) A base
B) An acid
C) An oxidising agent
D) A reducing agent
E) A catalyst
137. Question 47 (2023): Which of these is a weak, diprotic acid?

A) [Structure A]
B) [Structure B]
C) [Structure C]
D) [Structure D]
E) [Structure E]
138. Question 47 (2022): X is 50.0 mL of a 0.050 molL⁻¹ aqueous solution of nitric acid
(HNO3). Y is 100 mL of a 0.050 mol L⁻¹ aqueous solution of sulfuric acid (H2SO4).
Which of the following statements about these solutions is/are correct?
1 The hydrogen ion concentration in Y is four times greater than the hydrogen ion
concentration in X.
2 Only the acid in Y will be completely dissociated into ions.
3 Y has a pH value of less than 2 at 25°C.
 A) 3 only
B) none of them
C) 1 only
D) 1 and 3 only
E) 2 and 3 only
139. Question 51 (2020): X and Y are acidic solutions. X has a pH of 2 and Y has a pH of
4. Which of the following statements about the hydrogen ion concentrations of X and
Y is correct?
A) Y has a hydrogen ion concentration 2 times greater than X.
B) X has a hydrogen ion concentration 100 times greater than Y.
C) X has a hydrogen ion concentration 4 times greater than Y.
D) Y has a hydrogen ion concentration 100 times greater than X.
E) X has a hydrogen ion concentration 2 times greater than Y.
140. Question 49 (2019): A few drops of universal indicator solution were added to
exactly 50 mL of sodium hydroxide solution, NaOH, of concentration 1 mol / L.
Exactly 50 mL of hydrochloric acid, HCl, of concentration 1 mol / L, was added drop
by drop to the sodium hydroxide solution containing the universal indicator solution.
What colour changes would be observed as the hydrochloric acid was added?
A) red → orange → yellow → green
B) blue → red
C) red → orange → yellow → green → blue → violet
D) violet → blue → green
E) violet → blue → green → yellow → orange → red
141. Question 49 (2018): Consider this ionic equation in aqueous solution:

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

‎
A) Water is acting as a Brønsted–Lowry base.
B) The CH3O– ion is a Lewis acid.
C) The final mixture of solutions would have a pH below 7.
D) CH3OH is the conjugate acid of CH3O–.
E) The hydroxide ion is the conjugate acid of the water.
142. Question 41 (2016): Which of the following substances will form an alkaline solution
when dissolved in water?
‎
1 Na2CO3
2 NaCl
3 NaHSO4
‎
 A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only
E) 1 and 3 only
143. Question 48 (2016): An aqueous solution of NaOH has a concentration of 0.01
mol/L.

A) 13
B) 11
C) 7
D) 14
E) 12
144. Question 52 (2015): Which one of the following 0.01 M aqueous solutions has a pH
> 7.0?
A) AlBr3
B) Nal
C) NH4Cl
D) Na2CO3
E) CH3CO2H
145. Question 43 (2014): What is the pH of 0.1 M HCl?
pH = - log10 [H+]
A) -0.1
B) -1
C) 0
D) 0.1
E) 1
146. Question 52 (2012): Which one of the following 0.01 M aqueous solutions has a pH
> 7.0?
A) AlBr3
B) Nal
C) NH4Cl
D) Na2CO3
E) CH3CO2H
147. Question 65 (2011): Which one of the following is not an acid/base reaction?

A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
E) Option E
Organic chemistry: carbon bonding, isomerism, hydrocarbons, functional groups
(alcohols, aldehydes, ketones, etc.), basic nomenclature
143. Question 41 (2024): Which of the following compounds contains the most hydrogen
atoms?
A) 2,3-Dimethylpentane
B) Cyclohexane
C) 1,2-Dimethylcyclobutane
D) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene
E) 2-Hexanol
144. Question 42 (2024): A carbon-oxygen double bond is NOT present in which of the
following molecules?
A) Dimethyl ether
B) Acetaldehyde
C) Acetone
D) Acetic acid
E) Methyl acetate
145. Question 36 (2023): Which of the following compounds are structural isomers of
hexanoic acid?

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 only
 C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2 only
E) 2 and 3 only
146. Question 39 (2022): Consider the following general equation that describes one way
of synthesising a particular type of BIOFUEL, represented by Y.
X represents a neutral (uncharged) organic molecule involved in the reaction.

Which of the following statements about the reaction are correct?

1 Addition of an enzyme is an essential condition.
2 Y is an ester.
3 X contains an alcohol group.
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) none of them
E) 1, 2 and 3
147. Question 41 (2023): The structure of paracetamol is shown below:

A) Amide
B) Amine
C) Carboxylic acid
D) Aldehyde
E) Ketone
148. Question 44 (2021): Which of the following hydrocarbons are structural isomers of
hexane?
 A) 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2 only
E) 1 and 3 only
149. Question 46 (2021): Vitamin B5 has the structure:

Which of the following functional groups are contained in a molecule of vitamin B5?
 1 alcohol
2 aldehyde
3 amide
4 amine
5 carboxylic acid
6 ketone
A) 1, 3 and 5 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 6 only
D) 2, 4 and 6 only
E) 4, 5 and 6 only
150. Question 49 (2022): Which of the following organic compounds are structural
isomers of each other?
1 cyclohexene
2 methylcyclopentane
3 hexane
4 hex-1-ene
5 3-methylpent-2-ene
A) 2, 4 and 5 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only
E) 1, 4 and 5 only
151. Question 46 (2020): Which of the following pairs of molecules are structural
isomers?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 2 only
E) 3 only
152. Question 49 (2020): Which of the following functional groups is present in cysteine?

A) thiol
B) ketone
C) ester
D) alcohol
E) amide
153. Question 51 (2020): Which of the following pairs of structural formulae represent
structural isomers?
1 CH3CH2OH and CH3OCH3
2 CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH(CH3)CH3
3 CH(OH)=CHCH2OH and CH3CH2COOH
A) 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1 and 3 only
E) 2 and 3 only
154. Question 43 (2018): What is the molecular formula of the compound shown below?

A) C6H10
B) C6H12
C) C6H8
D) C6H6
E) C6H14
155. Question 46 (2018): What is the correct IUPAC name of this compound?

A) 3,3-dichloro-2,4-dimethylhexan-2-ol
B) 3,3-chloro-2-ethyl-4-methylpentan-4-ol
C) 3,3-dichloro-4-ethyl-2-methylpentan-2-ol
D) 3,3-chloro-4-ethyl-2-methylpentan-2-ol
E) 4,4-dichloro-3,5-dimethylhexan-5-ol
156. Question 47 (2017): Which one of the following molecules is a structural isomer of
methylcyclopentane?
A) hexane
B) cyclohexene
C) hex-2-ene
D) 2,2-dimethylbutane
E) 2-methylpentane
157. Question 43 (2016): The formula of a molecule is

Which functional groups given below are present in the molecule?

1 alkene
2 alcohol
3 aldehyde
4 ketone
‎
A) 1, 3 and 4 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 3 only
E) 3 and 4 only
158. Question 49 (2016): How many unbranched straight chain molecules are there with
the molecular formula C4H8F2, but with different structural formulas?
A) 8
 B) 4
C) 9
D) 12
E) 6
159. Question 48 (2015): What is the correct formula of propanal?
A) CH3CH2CH2OH
B) CH3CH2OCH3
C) CH3COCH3
D) CH3CH2CO2H
E) CH3CH2CHO
160. Question 46 (2014): The following are some compounds that can be made from
ethene, C2H4: C2H6, C2H5Br, C2H5OH, CH2BrCH2Br, -(CH2CH2)n-. Which one of
the compounds is made by oxidising ethene?
A) -(CH2CH2)n-
B) C2H5Br
C) C2H5OH
D) CH2BrCH2Br
E) C2H6
161. Question 51 (2014): The reaction scheme below shows some reaction conversions
of organic molecules.

Which is the correct combination of process and compounds for this scheme?
A) process T: reduction; compound W: ester; compound X: amide
B) process T: reduction; compound W: ketone; compound X: nitrile
C) process T: oxidation; compound W: ester; compound X: amide
D) process T: reduction; compound W: ketone; compound X: amide
E) process T: oxidation; compound W: ester; compound X: nitrile
162. Question 46 (2013):

What types of reaction are used in stages 1, 2 and 3?

‎
A) 1=substitution; 2=addition; 3=reduction
B) 1=substitution; 2=addition; 3=hydrolysis
 C) 1=addition; 2=substitution; 3=reduction
D) 1=addition; 2=addition; 3=reduction
E) 1=addition; 2=substitution; 3=hydrolysis
163. Question 47 (2013): Which of the following must be correct about organic isomers?
164. They have the same molecular formulae.
165. Their physical properties are very similar.
166. They have different structural formulae.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 only
E) 1 and 3 only
167. Question 59 (2012): Which one of the following could NOT be the formula of an
aldehyde?
A) C6H12O2
B) C5H10O2
C) C5H10O
D) C5H12O
E) C6H12O
168. Question 68 (2012): Which rows of the table correctly describe the reactions of the
aqueous acids with amines and amides?

A) Rows 2 and 3
B) Rows 1 and 3
C) None of the rows
D) All of the rows
E) Rows 1 and 2
169. Question 61 (2011): Which one of the following compounds can be made from
ethanol using only a substitution reaction?
A) Ethene
B) Ethanal
C) Ethanoic acid
D) Ethoxyethane
E) Bromoethane
170. Question 62 (2011): An aromatic compound consists of two benzene rings joined
together. Which of the following could be its formula?
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 2 and 5
E) 3 and 5