CDB:

Question 14:
Examine this configuration:
1.CDB1 is a container database.
2.PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
You execute these commands successfully:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•PDB1 and PDB2 are in READ ONLY state.
•PDB1 and PDB2 are in MOUNT state.
•Redo logs are opened.
•CDB$ROOT is in MOUNT state.
•PDB$SEED is in READ ONLY state.

ANS : 2,4

Question 41:
Examine this configuration:
1.CDB1 is a container database.
2.PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
3.PDB1 and PDB2 are OPEN in READ WRITE mode.
You execute these commands successfully:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•CDB1 is shut down.

•Uncommitted transactions in PDB1 have been rolled back.
•PDB1 is closed.
•Uncommitted transactions in CDB1 and PDB1 have been rolled back.
•CDB1 is in MOUNT state

ANS: 2,3

Question 34:
PDB1 and PBD2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
Examine these commands:

CDB1 is then restarted. Which three are true? (Choose three.)

•PDB1 will be MOUNTED.
•PDB$SEED will be MOUNTED.
•PDB2 will be opened READ WRITE.
•PDB1 will be opened READ WRITE
•PDB2 will be MOUNTED.
•PDB$SEED will be opened READ ONLY.

ANS 4,5,6

Question 5.1:
You plan to perform cross-platform PDB transport using XTTS. Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•The source PDB can be in MOUNT or OPEN state.

•The source PDB must be in MOUNT state.
•A backup of the PDB must exist, taken using the BACKUP command with the TO PLATFORM clause.
•The source PDB must not be an application root.
•The source and target platforms must have the same endianness.
•Automatic conversion of endianness occurs.

ANS : 2,5

Question 59:
Which three resources are always shared among CDB$ROOT and pluggable databases (PDBs)? (Choose three.)

•The data dictionary in CDB$ROOT

•temporary tablespaces
•undo tablespaces
•the Process Monitor Process (PMON)
•the log writer process (LGWR)
•SYSAUX tablespaces

ANS : 1,4,5
CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE:
Question 36:
For which two requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)

•to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same CDB.
•to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a PDB
•to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the CDB seed
•to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB
•to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a PDB
•to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB

ANS : 2,5

Question 20:

A container database called CDB1 is OMF-enabled.

PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT is not configured in CDB1. PDB1 was unplugged from CDB1 earlier in the week.
Examine this command, which will be executed in CDB1:

CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 USING '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/pdb1.xml'

SOURCE_FILE_NAME_CONVERT = ('/u01/app/oracle/oradata/', '/u02/app/oracle/oradata/');
Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•PDB1 data files already exist in the correct location

•PDB1 must be dropped from CDB1.
•/u01/app/oracle/oradata/pdb1.xml does not contain the current locations of data files for PDB1.
•PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT must be set before executing the command.
•DBMS_PDB.CHECK_PLUG_COMPATIBILITY must be run in CDB1 before executing the command.

ANS : 1,2

Question 54.1:
Which three are true about creating container databases (CDBs) and pluggable databases (PDBs) in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)

•A CDB can be duplicated using Recovery Manager (RMAN) with no configuration required before starting the duplication.
•A PDB snapshot can be a full copy of a source PDB.
•A PDB snapshot can be a sparse copy of a source PDB.
•A CDB can be duplicated using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) in silent mode with no configuration required before starting the duplication
•A PDB snapshot depends on an existing storage snapshot of the source PDB.
•A snapshot copy PDB can be a full copy of a source PDB.

ANS : 2,3,4

Question 53:
Which two are true about creating pluggable databases (PDBs) using snapshots in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose two.)

•A PDB snapshot is always a sparse copy of the source PDB

•A PDB snapshot is always a full copy of the source PDB
•A snapshot copy PDB depends on a storage snapshot which can be stored on any file system.
•A snapshot copy PDB can be created from a stand-alone clone PDB.
•A PDB snapshot depends on a storage snapshot which can be stored on any file system.
•A PDB snapshot depends on a storage snapshot which can only be stored on specific file systems.
•A snapshot copy PDB depends on a storage snapshot which can only be stored on specific file systems.

ANS : 1,2

Question 76:
Examine the command for creating pluggable database PDB2 in container database CDB2.

Select three options, any one of which is required for it to execute successfully. (Choose three.)

•Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and enable Oracle Managed Files (OMF)
•Add only the CREATE_FILE_DEST clause to the statement.
•Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
•Set only the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
•Set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter and enable OMF.
•Enable only OMF.

ANS : 2,4,6

Question 56.1:
HR_ROOT is an application container with the HR_APP application installed.
No application PDBs and no application seed have yet been created in HR_ROOT.
An application PDB, PDB1, must be created so that the HR_APP application's common objects are accessible to it.
Which two methods can be used? (Choose two.)

•Create an application seed, synchronize it with HR_ROOT, and then create the PDB1 application PDB
•Create an application seed, and install HR_APP in it.
•Create the PBD1 application PDB and synchronize it with HR_ROOT
•Create the PBD1 application PDB and synchronize it with PDB$SEED.
•Create the PDB1 application PDB and install HR_APP in it.

ANS : 1,3

Question 57:
Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 and CDB2 are two container databases.
2. PDB1 is a pluggable database in CDB1.
3. PDB1_C1_SRV is a service for PDB1.
4. CDB1_LINK is a database link in CDB2 referring to PDB1.
5. CDB2 is also an entry in tnsnames.ora pointing to the CDB2 database default service.
You execute these commands successfully:
$ sqlplus sys/oracle_4U@cdb2 as sysdba

SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 FROM PDB1@CDB1_LINK -

SERVICE_NAME_CONVERT=('PDB1_C1_SRV','PDB1_C2_SRV')
Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•PDB1_C2_SRV will be created but not started.

•PDB1 will be created in CDB2 and automatically opened.
•PDB1_C1_SRV in CDB1 will be renamed PDB1_C2_SRV.
•PDB1_C2_SRV will be created and started automatically
•PDB1 will be created in CDB2 and left in MOUNT state

ANS : 4,5

LOCAL UNDO MODE

Question 11.1 :
Your container database, CDB1, is in local undo mode. You successfully execute this command while connected to CDB1:

CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 -

ADMIN USER pdb1_admin IDENTIFIED BY pdb123 ROLES=(CONNECT)
CREATE_FILE_DEST='/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/pdb1'

Which three are true about PDB1? (Choose three.)

•It has the same common users defined as does CDB1

•It has no local users.
•Service PDB1 is created for remote logins to PDB1.
•It has only local roles.
•It is in mount state after creation
•It has the same number of roles as CDB1.

ANS : 1,3,5

Question 78:
Which two are true about changing the LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED property to false in a CDB? (Choose two.)

•Any new PDB and existing PDBs are automatically configured to use the default undo tablespace in CDB$ROOT.
•After the change, only one undo tablespace can exist in CDB$ROOT.
•After the change, each existing PDB has to be reopened for the new undo mode to take effect.
•After the change, any user with the required privilege can create an undo tablespace in the PDBs.
•Undo tablespaces existing in PDBs must be dropped before the change.
•After the change, only a common user with the required privilege can create an undo tablespace in CDB and ROOT.

ANS : 3,6

Question 3:
How do you configure a CDB for local undo mode?

•Open the CDB instance in read-only mode. In CDB$ROOT, execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON, and then change the CDB to read/write mode.
•Open the CDB instance in restricted mode. In CDB$ROOT, execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON, and create an UNDO tablespace in each PDB, then restart the CDB
instance.
•Open the CDB instance in restricted mode. In CDB$ROOT, drop the UNDO tablespace. Execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON in each PDB, and then restart the CDB
instance.
•Open the CDB instance in upgrade mode. In each PDB, execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON, create an UNDO tablespace, and then restart the CDB instance.
•Open the CDB instance in upgrade mode. In CDB$ROOT, execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON, and then restart the CDB instance

ANS : 5

USER MGMT – ROLE MGMT :

Question 1:

You are managing this configuration:

1.CDB1 is a container database.
2.PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases in CDB1.
3.USER1.EMP is a table in PDB1 and USER2.DEPT is a table in PDB2.
CDB1 user SYS executes these commands after connecting successfully to PDB2:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•The inserts on USER1.EMP were rolled back when the session connected to PDB2.
•The inserts on USER1.EMP remain uncommitted when the session connected to PDB2
•The insert on USER2.DEPT is a recursive autonomous transaction by the child session and is committed.
•The insert on USER2.DEPT is uncommitted.
•The insert on USER2.DEPT fails because of the active transaction in the parent container
•The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session inserted a row into USER2.DEPT.

ANS: 2,5 :
Explanation: The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session connected to PDB2.

Question 49:
Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. COMMON_USER_PREFIX is set to an empty string.
3. PDB1 is a pluggable database in CDB1.
4. APP1_ROOT is an application container in CDB1.
5. APP1_PDB1 is an application PDB in APP1_ROOT.
You execute these commands:
$ sqlplus sys/oracle@localhost:1521/cdb1 as sysdba
SQL> CREATE ROLE role1 CONTAINER=CURRENT;

What is true?
•ROLE1 will be created in CDB$ROOT, PDB1, APP1_ROOT, and APP1_PDB1.
•ROLE1 will be created only in CDB$ROOT.
•ROLE1 will be created only in CDB$ROOT and APP1_ROOT.
•It will return an error because creation of a local role is not allowed in CDB$ROOT
•It will return an error because common roles must start with C##.

ANS: 4

SECURITY:

Question 2 ;
Which three are true? (Choose three.)

•Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies on objects in an application root are automatically synchronized with all application PDBs contained in the application container.
•Application-common Oracle Label Security (OLS) policies cannot be created in an application root outside an install/patch BEGIN-END block
•Fine-grained auditing (FGA) policies in an application root are automatically synchronized to all application PDBs contained in the application container.
•Application-common TSDP policies are always container specific
•Application-common OLS policies can be created in an application root inside an install/patch BEGINEND block.
•Application-common Transparent Security Data Protection (TSDP) policies can be created only within an application install/patch BEGIN-END block.
•Unified auditing can be automatically synchronized to all application PDBs in an application container

ANS :2,4,7

Question 27:
Which three are true about Audit policies in container databases (CDBs)?

•Application-common unified audit policies defined in an application root must be manually synchronized by each application PDB contained in the application root.
•Fine-grained auditing policies defined in an application root must be manually synchronized by each application PDB contained in the application root.
•All audit records are written to the audit trail in CDB$ROOT
•An application PDB cannot have a local audit policy.
•A common unified audit policy can be created at the application root level.
•A common unified audit policy can be created at the CDB level.

ANS :2,5,6

Question 79:
Which three are true in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)

•Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued directly by an audited user.
•If the password file location changes, then the new location is used automatically by the Oracle Server.
•Privilege Analysis is included in Oracle Enterprise Edition and no longer requires Database Vault.
•Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued indirectly by an audited user.
•Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges.
•All the Oracle-supplied accounts are Schema Only accounts.

ANS : 1, 3, 5

APP – CDB:
Question 36:
Which three activities are possible for PDBs? (Choose three.)

•converting an application PDB to a regular PDB

•converting an application container into another application container in the same CDB
•converting an application container into another application container in a different CDB
•converting an application PDB to an application root
•converting a regular PDB to an application PDB
•converting an application PDB to an application seed
•converting an application seed to an application PDB

ANS : 5,6,7

Question 50.1:
Which three are true about an application container? (Choose three.)

•Two application containers can share an application seed PDB.

•It must have an application seed PDB.
•It can contain multiple applications
•It can contain a single application
•An application PDB can belong to multiple application containers.
•It must have an application root PDB

ANS: 3,4,6

Question 21:
Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. COMMON_USER_PREFIX is C##.
3. PDB1 is a pluggable database contained in CDB1.
4. APP1_ROOT is an application container contained in CDB1.
5. APP1_PDB1 is an application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.
You execute these commands successfully:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•C##_APP_USER1 can be created in CDB1

•APP1_USER1 can have different privileges in each Application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.
•C##_USER1 will have the same privileges and roles granted in all PDBs in CDB1.
•APP1_USER1 can be created in PDB1.
•P1_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
•APP1_USER1 can be created in CDB1.

ANS: 1,4

Question 11:
Oracle Managed Files (OMF) is enabled in a CDB and this command is successfully executed:

Which three are true? (Choose three.)

•An application root PDB is created for APP1.
•A default service is created for the application root APP1.
•Application PDBs that are subsequently created in the APP1 application container will be cloned from PDB$SEED.
•Application PDBs that are subsequently created in the APP1 application container will be cloned from APP1$SEED.
•APP1 can never be unplugged.
•An application seed PDB is created for APP1.

ANS: 1,2,3

Question 28:
Which three are true about an application seed pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose three.)

•It cannot be dropped from its application container.

•It is automatically synchronized with its application root PDB when an application is upgraded.
•It cannot be added to an application container after the application container has already been created.
•A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an old version of the application installed after cloning completes
•It is automatically synchronized with its application root PDB when an application is installed.
•It is not required in an application container.
•A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an up-to-date version of the application installed after cloning completes

ANS: 4,6,7

Question 44:
Which two are true about unplugging an application container from a container database and plugging it into a different container database?

•Application PDBs In the application container must be unplugged before the application root Is unplugged
•It requires local undo mode in both container databases.
•Plugging the application root into a different CDB plugs In all its application PDBs.
•Unplugging the application root from a CDB unplugs all its application PDBs
•It requires only local undo mode in the database where the application container will be unplugged.
•The application root of an application container should be plugged Into the other CDB before Its application PDBs are plugged in.

ANS: 1,4

Question 45.1:
The HR_ROOT application container must support the execution of a query on a table shared by application local PDBs PDB1 and PDB2,
and remote PDB PDB3. Which three are true? (Choose three.)

•A database link must exist in the remote CDB referring to the local CDB.
•The HR_ROOT replica must exist in the remote CDB
•A proxy PDB must exist in the application root in the local CDB.
•PDB3's application root replica must exist in the local CDB.
•A proxy PDB must exist in the application root in the remote CDB.
•A database link must exist in the local CDB root referring to the remote CDB.

ANS: 2,3,6
Question 47:
Your container database, CDB1, has an application container, HR_ROOT, with an application PDB, HR_PDB1.
You have the required privilege to clone HR_PDB1 to container database CDB2, which does not contain HR_ROOT.
Which two are always true? (Choose two.)

•All transactions in HR_PDB1 of CDB1 must commit before the cloning process starts.
•CDB1 and CDB2 must be in shared undo mode.
•A common user must exist in CDB2 with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE privilege.
•The HR_PDB1 clone created in CDB2 will be in mount state when cloning ends
•Cloning HR_ROOT automatically clones HR_PDB1.

ANS: 3,4

Question 57:
Your SALES_ROOT application container has two application PDBs. The SALES_APP application has a common table, FIN.REVENUE, in the two PDBs. Examine this query and its
output:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•The REVENUE table partitions are not pruned across the PDBs automatically.
•The MAPTABLE table is a metadata-linked table.
•The CONTAINERS clause cannot be used in queries on the REVENUE table.
•The REVENUE table must be a list-partitioned table.
•The MAPTABLE tables defines a logical partition key on a commonly used column for the REVENUE table.
•A container map exists for the REVENUE table, but is not enabled.

ANS: 1,5

Question 14: Skipped

Your CDB has two regular PDBs as well as one application container with two application PDBs and an application seed. No changes have been made to the standard
PDB$SEED.How many default temporary tablespaces can be assigned in the CDB?

•seven
•five
•six
•three
•eight

ANS: 1

ALERTS – LOGS :
Question 24:
Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)

•All metrics are instance related.

•STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.
•A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved.
•Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.
•They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.
•Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.

ANS: 3,4,6

Question 62:
Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)

•Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history.

•Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history.
•Stateful alerts must be created by a DBA after resolving the problem.
•Stateless alerts are automatically cleared.
•Stateless alerts can be cleared manually

ANS: 1,5

FAILURES – ISSUES:

Question 2;
Examine this configuration: While CDB1 is open,
'/u02/app/oracle/fast_recover_area/cdb1/CDB1/controlfile02.ctl' is accidentally deleted.

To recover from this critical failure, you execute these commands:

What will be the outcome?

•It will fail because there is no autobackup of the controlfiles.
•It will re-create '/u02/app/oracle/fast_recover_area/cdb1/CDB1/controlfile02.ctl'
•It will create '/u01/app/oralce/oradata/CDB1/controlfile/controlfile02.ctl'.
•It will create '/u01/app/oracle/product/12.2.0.1/db_1/dbs/snapcf_cdb1control02.ctl'.
•It will create '$ORACLE_HOME/dbs/cdb1/CDB1/controlfile02.ctl'

ANS: 2

Question 29:
Which three are true about the tools for diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations? (Choose three.)

•RMAN can always repair corrupt blocks.

•The Data Recovery Advisor uses the ADR.
•The Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) has a separate home directory for each instance of each Oracle product that is installed and uses it
•Flashback commands help with repairing physical errors.
•The ADR can store metadata in an Oracle Database repository.
•The ADR command-line utility (ADRCI) can package incident information to send to Oracle Support

ANS: 2,3,6

ASM :

Question 2:
Which three are performed by Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instances? (Choose three.)

•managing space allocation for Oracle ASM files

•managing Allocation Units (AUs) for disk group content
•mounting disk groups
•acting as an I/O server to write data file blocks to ASM disks on behalf of Database Writer processes (DBWn)
•acting as an I/O server to read data file blocks from ASM disks on behalf of database server processes
•managing extent allocation for Oracle database segments

ANS: 1,2,3

Question 46:
Which three actions will add a resource to an Oracle Restart configuration? (Choose three.)

•creating an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance with ASM Configuration Assistant (ASMCA)
•creating an Oracle Database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES parameter
•creating a database using the CREATE DATABASE SQL statement
•creating a database service using DBMS_SERVICE.CREATE_SERVICE
•creating a database service using Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
•creating a disk group using the CREATE DISKGROUP SQL statement

ANS: 1,5,6

GRID:

Question 17:
You plan to install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server and Oracle Database for the first time on a server.
Examine this command and its outcome:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•oracle must be the owner of every Oracle Database installation.
•oracle will be an owner of the Oracle Inventory.
•The user account oracle, and group oinstall, can be used for all Oracle software installations
•oracle will be granted the SYSASM privilege when installing the Oracle Database software.
•oracle can own an Oracle Database installation but not an Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation.

ANS: 2,3

Question 34:
Which two are true about OS groups and users for Oracle Grid Infrastructure and the Oracle Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)? (Choose two.)

•The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner must have OSOPER, OSBACKUPDBA, and OSKMDBA as secondary groups.
•The Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation must be owned by the grid user.
•The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner owns Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management binaries.
•By default, members of the OSASM group can access Automatic Storage Management and RDBMS instances.
•The same OSDBA group must be used for Automatic Storage Management and the Oracle Database.
•The primary group for the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database owners must be the Oracle Inventory group.

ANS: 3,6

Question 67:
Which three are true about Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server?

•It requires the operating system oracle_base environment variable to be predefined before installation.
•It requires Oracle ASM Filter Driver (ASMFD) to manage Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disks
•It requires Oracle ASM Lib to manage Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disks.
•It includes both Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) software
•Automatic Storage Management (ASM) requires that O/S groups OSASM and OSDBA be assigned as secondary groups for its installation owner.
•It creates one disk group during installation.

ANS: 2,4,6

Question 16.1:
Which two are true about Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server? (Choose two.)
•The CSS daemon runs from the Grid Infrastructure home
•It must be installed before the Oracle database software is installed.
•It supports volume management, file system, and automatic restart capabilities
•It can manage database resources on the server where it is installed or on a different server.
•It requires Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) components to be installed separately.

ANS: 1,3

INSTALL:

Question 39: Which three are located by using environment variables? (Choose three.)

•the Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files.
•default directories for temporary files used by temporary tablespaces
•the temporary disk space used by Oracle Installer during installation
•the list of a disk group names to be mounted by an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance at startup
•the maximum number of database files that can be opened by a database instance
•the location of Oracle Net Services configuration files

ANS: 1,3,6

Question 42:
Which three actions are performed by the Oracle Preinstallation RPM, oracle-database-server-xxxx-preinstall, for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, where xxxx is the Oracle version and
release? (Choose three.)

•configuring the OS for Oracle Automatic Storage Management shared storage access
•creating the oraInventory (oinstall) group
•creating the OSDBA (dba) group
•creating the oracle OS user
•performing checks to ensure minimum configuration requirements for Oracle Grid Infrastructure are met
•creating the grid OS user

ANS: 2,3,4

Question 75.1:
Which two are true about an RPM-based Oracle Database installation? (Choose two.)

•It requires an Unbreakable Linux Network (ULN) subscription.

•It performs a software-only Oracle Database installation.
•It includes the Oracle Preinstallation RPM.
•It uses a service configuration script to create a single-instance database as part of the installation
•From Oracle Database 18c, a single RPM can be used to install only Oracle Database Server for a single instance.

ANS: 2,4

Question 70:
Which three are true about performing an Oracle Database install on Linux? (Choose three.)

•It can be done before installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server
•The Oracle Preinstallation RPM must be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group.
•The runfixup.sh script can install missing RPMs.
•It allows you to select the languages supported by the Oracle database server.
•It can be done after installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server.
•The Oracle Preinstallation RPM can be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group

ANS: 1,5,6

Question 21.1:
Which two are true about the automatic execution of operating system scripts when performing silent mode installation starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose two.)
•Silent install always runs operating scripts automatically.
•The installer will prompt for the root or sudo password.
•The response file can specify the path of the sudo program.
•The response file must contain the root or sudo password.
•The response file can specify the root or sudo password.

ANS: 2,3

Question 28:
Which operating system group is NOT needed to perform an Oracle Database installation?
•OSDBA
•OSOPER
•OSRACDBA
•OSKMDBA
•OSASM

ANS: 5

Question 67.1:
Which two are true about an Oracle gold image-based installation in Oracle 18c and later releases? (Choose two.)

•It can only install and configure Oracle Database software. The database has to be created separately.
•It does not require the setup wizard.
•It uses a single RPM that automatically extracts and installs the Oracle Database software.
•It can be used for both Oracle Database and Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation.
•It can be used to install and upgrade Oracle Database for single-instance and cluster configurations.

ANS: 4,5
RAPID HOME PROVISIONING (RHP):

Question 37:
Examine this command:
$ rhpctl move database -sourcehome Oracle_home_path -destinationhome Oracle_home_path
For which two purposes can you use this command? (Choose two.)

•to switch the Oracle Database home when using a centralized Rapid Home Provisioning server
•to switch back to the previous Oracle home as part of a rollback operation
•to switch to a read-only Oracle home
•to switch an existing Oracle Database home to a newer release of Oracle software on the same server
•to switch to a patched Oracle Database home

ANS: 2,5

Question 45:
Which two are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Orcale 18c? (Choose two.)

•It is an Oracle Database service

•It can be used to provision applications.
•It can be used to patch Grid Infrastructure homes containing Oracle Restart.
•It cannot be used to upgrade Oracle Database homes.
•It can be used to provision middleware.

ANS: 2,5

Question 39.1:
Which three are true about Rapid Home Provisioning of Oracle software? (Choose three.)

•It can be used to upgrade only single-instance databases running on Oracle Restart.
•It can be used to create templates of Oracle homes as gold images of only Oracle databases.
•It can be used to create a single-instance Oracle Database in an already-installed Oracle home.
•It can be used only on nodes with Oracle Grid Infrastructure installed.
•It can be used to deploy new homes without disrupting active databases.
•It can be used to patch existing Oracle software installations.

ANS: 3,5,6

Question 60.1:
Which two are true about Rapid Home Provisioning of Oracle software? (Choose two.)
•It can be used only for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, excluding Oracle Restart.
•It can be used for both Oracle Database and Oracle Grid Infrastructure, excluding Oracle Restart.
•It can be used for applications and middleware.
•It can be used for both Oracle Database and Oracle Grid Infrastructure, including Oracle Restart.
•It can be used only for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, including Oracle Restart.

ANS: 3,4

Question 61.1:
Which three are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Oracle 18c? (Choose three.)

•It can be used to deploy Oracle Database homes.

•It can be used to deploy Grid Infrastructure homes, including Oracle Restart
•It cannot be used to provision applications.
•It is an Oracle Database service.
•It is an Oracle Grid Infrastructure service.
•It cannot be used to provision middleware.

ANS: 1,2,5

DBCA :
Question 6:
Which two are true about Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) templates? (Choose two.)

•The Data Warehouse template is most suitable when transaction response time is the key criterion.
•Oracle DBCA templates can be used to create new databases and duplicate existing databases.
•Oracle DBCA templates can store only logical structure and not database files.
•The General Purpose of Transaction Processing templates are most suitable when concurrency and recoverability are key criteria.
•New templates can only be created by modifying an existing user-created template.

ANS: 2,4

Question 20.1:
Which are three of the steps taken by Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to clone a remote pluggable database (PBD) starting from Oracle 19c? (Choose three.)

•creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the local database to the PDB in the remote system that is to be cloned
•opening the cloned PDB
•creating a new empty PDB in the local database from PDB$SEED
•creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the local database to CDB$ROOT in the remote system that is to be cloned
•automatically dropping the database link to the remote database if it already exists
•creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the remote database to be cloned to CDB$ROOT in the local database
•creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the remote database to the PDB in the local database

ANS: 2,4,5
Question 24:
Which three can be done using Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose three.)

•relocating a remote pluggable database in silent mode

•cloning a remote pluggable database in silent mode
•cloning a remote container database in silent mode
•relocating a remote container database in interactive mode
•relocating a remote container database in silent mode
•relocating a remote pluggable database in interactive mode
•cloning a remote container database in interactive mode

ANS: 1,2,3

Question 31.1:
Which two are true about Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)? (Choose two.)

•It can only be launched from the command line interface.

•It can be used to convert a non-container database to a container database.
•It can be launched from both the command line and the Universal Installer (OUI) interfaces.
•It can be used to create container databases and non-container databases.
•It can be used to change the character set of an existing database.

ANS: 3,4

PATCH:
Question 19:
Which three are true about opatchauto? (Choose three.)

•It performs a shutdown and then a restart of all processes in both Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home during the patching process.
•It requires the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database instances to be shut down before being invoked.
•It applies patches in nonrolling mode by default.
•It is used to apply interim patches to Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home combinations.
•Users must always input patch plans to opatchauto.
•It must be invoked by a user with root user privileges.
•Patches are applied via opatchauto.

ANS: 1,4,6

Question 61:
Which two are true about the execution of operating system scripts starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose two.)

•The sudo password can be specified in a response file.

•orainstRoot.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer by using sudo or root credentials.
•The root password cannot be specified in a response file.
•root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database Installer only if it is provided with root credentials.
•root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer only by using sudo credentials.
•The sudo password must be specified in a response file.

ANS: 2,3

Question 37:
Which three are true about patchsets? (Choose three.)
•They can introduce new features.
•Installing a patchset is considered an "upgrade".
•They are only released quarterly.
•They are installed via OPatch or OPatchAuto.
•A base release is not needed to install patchsets.
•They can be applied in a rolling fashion for Clusterware and the databases.

ANS: 1,2,5

UPGRADE:
Question 12: Which three are true about upgrading Oracle Grid Infrastructure? (Choose three.)

•The upgrade process will automatically install all mandatory patches for the current version of Oracle Grid Infrastructure.
•The newer version is installed in a separate Oracle Grid Infrastructure home on the same server as the existing version.
•An existing Oracle base can be used.
•A direct upgrade can be performed only from the immediately preceding Oracle Grid Infrastructure version.
•Existing Oracle Database instances must be shut down before starting the upgrade.
•Only the grid user can perform the upgrade.

ANS: 2,3,6

Question 68: Which three methods can be used for heap table data migration after upgrading a database? (Choose three.)

•using operating system file copy utilities

•using the CREATE TABLE AS SELECT SQL statement
•using Database Upgrade Assistant
•using Database Replay
•using SQL Developer
•using Oracle Data Pump

ANS: 2,3,6

Question 71: Examine this configuration:

1.CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 database containing pluggable databases PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2.
2.PDB$SEED is open READ ONLY
3.PDB1 is open READ WRITE
4.PDB2 is MOUNTED.
5.ORACLE_HOME is /u01/app/oracle/product/18.1.0/dbhome_1.
You execute these commands before upgrading the database to the current release:

For which databases will fixup scripts be created?

•CDB1, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 only

•CDB1 and PDB$SEED only
•CDB1, PDB1, and PDB2 only
•PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 only
•CDB1, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2

ANS: 1

Question 15.1:
Which three actions are performed by Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA)? (Choose three.)

•It empties the RECYCLE BIN.

•It increases tablespace size, if required, to meet upgrade requirements.
•It removes the AUDSYS schema and the AUDIT_ADMIN and AUDIT_VIEWER roles
•It performs prerequisite checks to verify if the Oracle database is ready for upgrade.
•It recompiles all stored PL/SQL code by using utlrp.sql.
•It sets all user tablespaces to "read-only" before starting the upgrade.

ANS: 1,4,6

Question 18.1:
Which three are true about using Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a database? (Choose three.)

•A whole database backup must exist before upgrade

•The Pre-Upgrade Information Tool script is executed by DBUA.
•All pluggable databases are automatically upgraded as part of a container database upgrade.
•The database must be opened in read-only mode.
•Multiple databases with the same ORACLE_HOME can be upgraded simultaneously.
•DBUA must be launched from the target Oracle Home.

ANS: 2,3,6

Question 70.1:
Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 container database (CDB).
2. PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases (PDBs) in CDB1.
After successfully performing all the preupgrade tasks, you execute these commands from the Oracle Database 18c environment:

What is the outcome?

•Only CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 are upgraded.
•Only CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are upgraded.
•It fails because PDB2 is not in UPGRADE state.
•CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 are upgraded.
•Only CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and PDB2 are upgraded.
•It fails because PDB$SEED is in MIGRATE state.

ANS: 1

Question 66.1:
In which two situations can you use Database Upgrade Assistant? (Choose two.)

•when a character set conversion is required during the upgrade

•when the operating system (OS) needs to be changed as part of the upgrade
•when multiple pluggable databases in a container database have to be upgraded in a specific sequence
•when the target and source database are on the same platform
•when the hardware platform needs to be changed as part of the upgrade

ANS: 3,4

INSTANCE RECOVERY:
Question 32:
Which two are true about Oracle instance recovery? (Choose three.)

•Recovery begins from the beginning of the CURRENT redo log group.
•Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread. SMON rolls back any dead transactions, and then the database is opened.
•Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was recorded in the control file by the checkpoint process (CKPT).
•Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was calculated by the Database Writer before instance failure.
•Recovery begins from the start of any ACTIVE redo log group or the start of the CURRENT log group if no other group is ACTIVE.
•Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread, and then opens the database. SMON then rolls back any dead transactions.

ANS: 3,6

Question 32.1:
Which two are true about instance recovery? (Choose two.)

A. It is not possible if an archived log is missing.

B. It is performed automatically after the database is opened; however, blocks requiring recovery are not available until they are recovered.
C. Setting FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a lower value reduces instance recovery time by causing dirty buffers to be written to disk more frequently, thereby reducing the
number of I/Os needed during instance recovery.
D. It is performed by the Recovery Writer (RVWR) background process.
E. Setting FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a higher value reduces instance recovery time by causing the log writer to write more frequently, thereby reducing the number of I/Os
needed during instance recovery.
F. It is performed automatically while the database remains in MOUNT state. Then the database is opened.

ANS: C,F

Question 10:
Which two are true about diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations using Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose two.)

•Data Recovery Advisor can proactively check for failures.

•Data Recovery Advisor can be used if a database is closed.
•Using the Data Recovery Advisor LIST FAILURE command always requires that the database for which failures are to be listed is in MOUNT state.
•A failure can be closed only when it has been repaired.
•The Data Recovery Advisor CHANGE FAILURE command can be used only to change failure priorities.

ANS: 1,2

RMAN :

Question 71.1 :
Which three true about recovering tables using RMAN? (Choose three.)

•RMAN can recover tables owned by the SYS user.

•RMAN always uses an auxiliary instance.
•RMAN can recover tables owed by the SYSTEM user.
•RMAN can recover tables in the SYSAUX tablespace.
•RMAN can recover tables in a standby database.
•RMAN can recover a table after a DDL operation has altered the table structure.
•RMAN can recover tables in the SYSTEM tablespace.

ANS: 2,3,6

Question 79.1: Which three are true about a whole database backup? (Choose three.)

•It is the only possible backup type for a database in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
•It always includes all data files, the current control file, the server parameter file, and archived redo logs.
•It can be inconsistent.
•It can be created only by using RMAN.
•It can be consistent.
•It can consist of either backup sets or image copies.

ANS: 3,5,6

Question 60:
Examine these queries and their output:

After a system crash, an instance restart and an attempted opening of the PDBs result in:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•Data file 24 must be recovered while the CDB is opened.
•Data file 24 can be recovered while PDB2 is opened.
•Data file 24 cannot be recovered while the CDB is opened.
•Data file 24 can be recovered while CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are opened.
•Data file 24 must be recovered while PDB2 is closed.
ANS: 3,5

Question 18:
A container database (CDB) contains two pluggable databases PDB1 and PDB2. The LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED database property is set to FALSE in the CDB. Data file 24 of PDB2
was deleted and you need to restore and recover it. The only RMAN backup that exists was created with the BACKUP DATABASE command while connected to CDB$ROOT.
Which three are true? (Choose three.)
•Data file 24 can be restored only while connected to PDB2.
•Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to PDB2.
•Data file 24 can be restored and recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.
•Data file 24 can be recovered only while connected to PDB2.
•Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.
•Data file 24 can be restored only while connected to CDB$ROOT.

ANS: 2,3,5

Question 29:
On the 10th of August, you implement an incremental database backup strategy and configure a recovery window of five days.
Level 0 backups are taken on the 10th, 17th, and 24th of August. Differential level 1 incremental backups are taken daily between the level 0 backups.
Today is the 26th of August. Which backups will be obsolete?

•all backups prior to 20th of August

•all backups prior to 10th of August
•all backups prior to 24th of August
•all backups prior to 17th of August
•all backups prior to 22nd of August

ANS: 4

Question 35:
While backing up to an SBT channel, you determine that the read phase of your compressed Recovery Manager (RMAN) incremental level 0 backup is a bottleneck. FORCE
LOGGING is enabled for the database. Which two could improve read performance? (Choose two.)

•Increase the size of tape I/O buffers.

•Enable asynchronous disk I/O.
•Disable FORCE LOGGING for the database.
•Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing.
•Increase the size of the database buffer cache.

ANS: 2,4

Question 51:
Which two are true about RMAN encryption? (Choose two.)

•RMAN encryption keys are stored in a database keystore.

•Dual-mode encrypted backups can be restored only if both the password and the keystore used for encryption are available.
•RMAN can encrypt the Oracle Database password file.
•The SET ENCRYPTION command overrides encryption settings specified by the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION command.
•Password encryption can be persistently configured using the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION command.

ANS: 1,4

Question 59:
Which three are true about RMAN persistent configuration settings, administration, and their effects? (Choose three.)

•A target database's persistent RMAN configuration settings are always synchronized automatically with the RMAN catalog.
•The RMAN SHOW ALL command displays only settings with nondefault values.
•A target database's persistent RMAN configuration settings are always stored in the target's control file
•The V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with values that have been modified.
•A DBA must specify either a redundancy retention policy or a recovery window retention policy.
•Backup older than the recovery window retention policy are always deleted automatically if the backup location has insufficient space.
•Backups written to the fast recovery area (FRA) that are obsolete based on the redundancy retention policy can be deleted automatically to free space.

ANS: 3,4,7

Question 1.1:
Which three are true about actions that can or cannot be performed by users with the SYSBACKUP privilege? (Choose three.)
•They can view data from any data dictionary view or dynamic performance view.
•They cannot create restore points.
•They cannot drop tablespaces.
•They can view data from any user-defined tables.
•They can create any table.
•They can drop any tablespace.

ANS: 1,5,6

Question 42:
Which three are true about interpreting Recovery Manager (RMAN) error stacks returned to standard output? (Choose three.)

•Some messages in the error stack are not errors.

•If an RMAN command fails, the output will only identify the command that failed.
•If an RMAN command fails, the output will identify the channel ID where the failure occurred.
•Media Management errors appear as a line with "Additional information" and a number.
•Media Management errors appear as a line with "sbtio" and a number.
•Media Management errors appear as a line with "sbtio".

ANS: 1,3,4
Question 31:
Which two are true about Recovery Manager (RMAN) diagnostic message output? (Choose two.)

•The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output issued during RMAN command compilation to be written to a log file only.
•RMAN error stacks should be read from the top down as that is the order in which errors are generated.
•Media Management messages for SBT devices are written to an Oracle trace file.
•RMAN error stacks should be read from the bottom up as that is the order in which errors are generated.
•Media Management messages for SBT devices are always written to sbtio.log.
•The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output issued during RMAN command compilation to be written to a log file and to standard output.

ANS: 1,4

TBS BACKUP :

Question 52.1:
The USERS tablespace consists of data files 3 and 4 and must always be online in read/write mode.
Which two are true about using RMAN to perform an open database back up of this tablespace? (Choose two.)

•The database must be registered in an RMAN catalog.

•Only consistent backups can be created.
•Backups must be done incrementally.
•Backups can be taken only if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode.
•Backups can be done incrementally.
•Backups must be contained in backup sets.

ANS: 4,5

Question 33.1:
Which two are true about creating RMAN backups for an Oracle container database? (Choose two.)

•The BACKUP TABLESPACE command can back up a PDB tablespace even if RMAN is connected to CDB$ROOT.
•Archived Redo Log backups can be created while connected to an application root CDB.
•Control file backups can be created while connected to a nonroot container.
•Control file backups can be created while connected to the root container.
•Online Redo Log backups can be created while connected to the root container.

ANS: 1,4

Question 62.1:
Which two are true about creating RMAN backups for an Oracle container database? (Choose two.)

•SPFILE backups can be created while connected to an application root PDB.

•The BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command can be used to back up CDB$ROOT.
•The BACKUP DATABASE command will create a pluggable database (PDB) backup when RMAN is connected to a PDB.
•Tablespaces from different PDBs with identical names must be backed up by connecting RMAN separately to each PDB to back up the tablespaces.
•The BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG command will back up archive logs when RMAN is connected to a PDB.

ANS: 2,3

Question 63.1:
Which four are true about RMAN backup sets? (Choose four.)

•A backup piece can belong to only one backup set.

•A backup set must be written to media.
•A data file can be split into multiple sections stored in different backup pieces in the same backup set.
•Blocks from multiple data files can be contained in one backup piece.
•A data file can be split into multiple sections stored in different backup sets.
•A backup set can contain only one backup piece.
•A backup set must be written to disk.
•Blocks from multiple data files can be contained in one backup set.

ANS: 1,3,4,8

Question 27:
Which two are true about RMAN Multi-section backups when a very large data file is divided into four sections? (Choose two.)

•The four sections can be created serially.

•The four sections must be contained in backup sets.
•The four sections can be created in parallel.
•Each of the file sections must be processed serially.
•The four sections must be image copies.

ANS: 1,3

Question 66:
Which two are true about RMAN duplexed backup sets? (Choose two.)

•A duplexed backup set always uses twice as many SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.
•A duplexed backup set uses the same number of SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.
•A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.
•A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.
•A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.
•A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.

ANS: 4,5

Question 68.1 :
Which two are true about RMAN duplexed backup sets? (Choose two.)

•They can be created by using the RMAN CONFIGURE command to specify duplexing before taking a backup.
•They can be written to media.
•They must be written to media.
•They can be written only to disk.
•They can be created only by using the COPIES option of a BACKUP command.

ANS: 1,2

Question 32.1:
Which two are true about backup set compression using RMAN default compression? (Choose two.)

•Binary compression adds CPU overhead to backup operations.

•Compressed backups cannot have a section size defined.
•Compressed backups can be written only to media.
•Unused blocks below the high water mark are backed up.
•Compression can be done only for locally managed tablespaces.

ANS: 1,5

MEDIA FAILURE:

Question 1:
A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. A full RMAN backup exists but no control file backup to trace has been taken. A media failure has occurred. In which two
scenarios incomplete recovery is required? (Choose two.)

•after losing an UNDO tablespace that is in use

•after losing all members of the CURRENT online redo log group
•after losing all copies of the control file.
•after losing a SYSAUX tablespace data file
•after losing all members of an INACTIVE online redo log group

ANS: 2,3

Question 46:
A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
Full RMAN backups are taken and no backup to trace has been taken of the control file.A media failure has occurred.
In which two scenarios is complete recovery possible? (Choose two.)

•after losing an archived log from before the most recent backup
•after losing the SYSTEM tablespace
•after losing an archived log from after the most recent backup
•after losing all copies of the control file
•when any archived log from, before, or after the most recent backup is corrupt.

ANS: 1,2

RMAN MEDIA MANAGER

Question 54:
Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager to write backups to tape when there are only two tape drives? (Choose two.)

•The SBT device should be configured to use PARALLELISM 2 to allow both tape drive to be used simultaneously.
•SBT tape compression and RMAN backup compression should be used in parallel.
•SBT tape compression can be used even if no RMAN compression is configured.
•Any backup written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup sets.
•Any backup set written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup pieces.

ANS: 1,3

Question 77.1:
Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager? (Choose two.)

•A media manager always writes RMAN requested backups to tape.

•The media manager layer (MML) routines provided by Oracle support any vendors' media management products.
•By default, a request for a proxy copy may result in a backup set being created.
•A media manager is required to create RMAN proxy copies.
•A media manager is required to create RMAN image copies.

ANS: 3,4

RMAN DUPLICATION:

Question 55:
Which two are true about duplicating pluggable databases (PDBs) with RMAN? (Choose two.)

•CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are automatically duplicated.

•The auxiliary instance is automatically created with ENABLE_PLUGGABLE_DATABASE = TRUE.
•A user with SYSDBA or SYSBACKUP must be logged in with RMAN to the PDB to duplicate it.
•Two or more PDBs can be duplicated with the same RMAN DUPLICATE command.
•All tablespaces belonging to a PDB must be duplicated when duplicating the PDB.

ANS: 1,4

Question 2:
Which four are true about duplicating a database using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose four.)
•Duplication can be done by having the target database instance push copies to the auxiliary database instance.
•A connection to the target database instance is always required.
•A subset of the target database can be duplicated.
•A backup of the target database is always required.
•A connection to the recovery catalog instance is always required.
•A connection to an auxiliary instance is always required.
•Duplication can be done by having the auxiliary database instance pull backup sets from the target database instance.
•A new DBID is always created for the duplicated database.

ANS: 1,3,6,7

Question 49:
Which four are true about a Recovery Manager (RMAN) duplication without a TARGET connection? (Choose four.)

•The NOREDO clause can be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in ARCHIVELOG mode.
•The NOREDO clause must be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
•RMAN "pushes" the backups of the database to be duplicated over the network to the auxiliary instance.
•The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is closed.
•The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the TARGET instance.
•The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is opened.
•RMAN disk-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance
•RMAN SBT-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.

ANS: 1,2,7,8

RMAN WITH RESTORE POINT :

Question 8:
You have configured RMAN SBT channels to write backups to media. You then take an RMAN backup by using this command:

Which three are true? (Choose three.)

•The control file is included in the self-contained archival backup.
•The SPFILE is included in the self-contained archival backup.
•The restore point is a label for the system change number (SCN) that will be saved two years after the archival backup was taken.
•All archive logs created after this backup are kept for two years.
•The data file backups in the self-contained archive backup are not considered obsolete for two years regardless of the retention policy.
•The restore point is a label for the system change number (SCN) before the archival backup was taken.

ANS: 1,2,5

Question 55.1:
Which three are true about RMAN archival backups with the RESTORE POINT clause? (Choose three.)

•They are never considered obsolete by RMAN.

• Archive logs are retained if they are necessary to allow the database to be recovered to a consistent state when an archival backup is restored.
•They can optionally be written to a fast recovery area (FRA).
•The SPFILE is included in the archival backup.
•All archive logs are retained after an archival backup is taken, until the next archival backup is taken of the same database.
•The ARCHIVAL attribute for a backup overrides the RMAN retention policy.

ANS: 2,4,6

VIRTUAL PRIVATE CATALOG:

Question 7.1:
Which three are true about using an RMAN Recovery Catalog with a pluggable database (PDB) target connection in Oracle Database 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)

•The target PDB must be registered in a Virtual Private Catalog.

•The base catalog must be used by RMAN when performing point-in-time recovery for the PDB registered in the Virtual Private Catalog.
•The base catalog owner must give the Virtual Private Catalog access to metadata for one or more PDBs.
•The base catalog must be enabled for Virtual Private Catalog use.
•The target PDB must be registered in a base catalog.
•The target PDB must be registered in both the base catalog and the Virtual Private Catalog.

ANS: 1,2,3

Question 50:
Which three are true about Recovery Manager (RMAN) in Oracle Database 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)

•A Virtual Private Catalog used to register a container database must be created in a pluggable database.
•A Virtual Private Catalog used to register a container database can be created in a pluggable database.
•It is always possible for RMAN to connect to a pluggable database as a target if any RMAN Catalog is used.
•It is only possible for RMAN to connect to a pluggable database as a target if an RMAN Virtual Private Catalog is used.
•It is always possible for RMAN to connect to a pluggable database as a target.
•A Virtual Private Catalog used to register a container database can be created in a non-container database.

ANS: 2,5,6

Question 26:
Which three capabilities require the use of the RMAN recovery catalog? (Choose three.)

•using RMAN stored scripts

•using the REPORT SCHEMA command to list a database's current data files and tablespaces
•using the KEEP FOREVER clause with the BACKUP command
•creating encrypted backups
•creating customized reports about a single database's backups
•using the REPORT SCHEMA command to list a database's data files and tablespaces at times in the past

ANS: 1,3,6

Question 73:
RMAN has just been connected to a target database and the recovery catalog database.
In which two cases would an automatic full resynchronization occur between this target database's control file and the RMAN recovery catalog? (Choose two.)

•when a new tablespace is added to a registered target database

•when the target is first registered
•when control file metadata for data file backups or image copies has been overwritten in the target database's control file due to being older than
CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME
•when control file metadata for archive log backups or image copies has been overwritten in the target database's control file due to being older than
CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME
•when a backup of the current control file is created

ANS: 1,2

FRA :

Question 65:
While backing up to the Oracle Fast Recovery Area (FRA), you determined the backup is taking too long and suspect a performance bottleneck.
Which three are true about diagnosing and tuning these problems? (Choose three.)

•Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using synchronous I/O.
•Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_SYNC_IO.DISCRETE_BYTES_PER_SECOND are a potential performance bottleneck when synchronous I/O is used.
•If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes noticeably less than an actual backup, then write I/O is a likely bottleneck.
•Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_ASYNC_IO.SHORT_WAITS are a potential performance bottleneck when asynchronous I/O is used.
•Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using asynchronous I/O.
•If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then read I/O is a likely bottleneck.
•If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then both read and write I/O are likely bottlenecks.

ANS: 1,3,6

Question 69:
You issued this command:
RMAN> BACKUP RECOVERY FILES
Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•All Oracle recovery files in the current fast recovery area (FRA) are backed up.
•All Oracle recovery files not in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.
•These backups can be written to disk or SBT.
•All Oracle recovery files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.
•All non-Oracle files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

Note : http://www.remote-dba.net/oracle_10g_new_features/flash_recovery.htm
This command backs up all the files that the BACKUP RECOVERY AREA command does, but from all areas on your file system, not just from the flash recovery area.

ANS: 2,4

Question 12.1:
Your database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and you plan to use Flashback Database.
Which two features or parameters manage space availability in the fast recovery area? (Choose two.)

•the DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_n parameter setting

•using guaranteed UNDO retention
•the backup retention policy
•the backup optimization policy
•the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter setting
•the archived log deletion policy

ANS: 3,6

Question 22.1:
You issued this command:
RMAN> BACKUP RECOVERY AREA FORCE , Which three are true? (Choose three.)

•All files in the current FRA that have been backed up already, are backed up.
•All Oracle recovery files normally written to the FRA and which have been backed up already to the current FRA, are backed up.
•All files in any previous FRA that have been backed up already, are backed up.
•All files in the current fast recovery area (FRA) that have not yet been backed up, are backed up.
•All files in any previous FRA that have not yet been backed up, are backed up.
•All Oracle recovery files normally written to the FRA and which have been backed up already to in any previous FRA, are backed up.
•All Oracle recovery files normally written to the FRA and which have not yet been backed up, are backed up.

ANS: 2,6,7

IMAGE COPIES:
Question 7:
Which three are true about backup, restore, and recovery operations done without using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose three.)

•Backing up a database in NOARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the database be in the MOUNT state.
•Oracle data file backups, copied using an O/S utility, can be added to the RMAN catalog as IMAGE COPIES.
•Backing up a database in ARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the database be in OPEN state.
•Oracle archive log backups, copied using an O/S utility, can be added to the RMAN catalog as a backup set.
•Backing up a database in NOARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be shut down.
•An Oracle database can be restored from backup files copied using O/S utilities.
•Backing up a database in ARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the database be in MOUNT state.

ANS: 2,5,6

Question 69.1:
Which three are true about recovery operations done without using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose three.)

•A lost SPFILE can be recovered from memory using SQL*PLUS.

•A lost password file can be re-created with SQL*PLUS.
•A lost password file can be manually re-created with the orapwd utility
•A lost TEMPFILE must always be re-created manually.
•A lost PFILE can be re-created alert.log using SQL*PLUS.
•A lost index tablespace can be re-created without performing any recovery.

ANS: 1,3,6

Question 4.1:

Which three are true about RMAN duplexed backup sets or image copies? (Choose three.)

•A backup set may be duplexed with both copies written to disk.

•An image copy on disk can be copied to disk.
•An image copy on sbt can be copied to disk.
•An image copy on disk can be copied to sbt.
•A backup set may be duplexed so that one copy is written to sbt and the other to disk.
•A backup set may be duplexed with both copies written to sbt

ANS: 1,2,6

Question 26:
Which three are true about transporting databases across platforms using Recovery Manager (RMAN) image copies? (Choose three.)

•Data files can be converted on the destination system.

•Data files can be converted on the source system.
•By default, the transported database will use Oracle Managed Files (OMF)
•Databases can be transported between systems with different endian formats.
•The password file is automatically converted by RMAN.
•A new DBID is automatically created for the transported database.

ANS: 1,2,3

POINT IN TIME RECOVERY:

Question 23:
Which four are true about performing Tablespace Point -In-Time Recovery (TSPITR) using Recovery Manager (RMAN) ?

•Flashback database must be enabled for it to work.

•It can be used to recover a dropped tablespace.
•It can be performed using an auxiliary instance managed by RMAN.
•RMAN automatically adds any required tablespaces to the recovery set to make it self-contained.
•It can be used to recover a truncated table.
•It can be performed using an auxiliary instance managed by a DBA.
•It can be performed repeatedly until the correct time is found without using an RMAN catalog.
•RMAN always includes tablespaces containing undo segments in the recovery set.

ANS: 3,5,6,7

Question 72:
Which three are true about Database Point-in-Time Recovery? (Choose three.)
•The database must have FLASHBACK DATABASE ON to perform Database Point-in-Time Recovery.
•The database must be open RESETLOGS after Database Point-in-Time Recovery.
•The target point for the recovery must be specified as a stime or System Change Number (SCN).
•Database Point-in-Time Recovery is performed by the Managed Recovery Process (MRP)
•The database must be in MOUNT state when performing Database Point-in-Time Recovery.
•The Database must be in ARCHIVELOG mode.

ANS: 2,5,6

FLASHBACK:
Question 16:
Which three are true about requirements for various FLASHBACK operations? (Choose three.)

•FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE requires undo to store all versions of all rows of a table being tracked.
•FLASHBACK version query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
•FLASHBACK drop requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
•FLASHBACK transaction query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
•FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.
•FLASHBACK version query requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.

ANS:2,4,5

Question 30:
Which two are true about Oracle Flashback features? (Choose two.)

•FLASHBACK TABLE can undrop a column.

•FLASHBACK VERSION QUERY can retrieve REDO records from ONLINE and ARCHIVED REDO LOG files.
•FLASHBACK QUERY can retrieve REDO records from ONLINE and ARCHIVED REDO LOG files.
•FLASHBACK DROP can undrop an index when undropping a table.
•After a database is restored from flashback logs using the FLASHBACK DATABASE command, it is sometimes rolled forward using redo logs.

ANS:3,4

Question 80:
Which two are true about flashback features in Oracle Database 19c and later releases? (Choose two.)

•Flashback logs are monitored for being older than the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET and can be deleted by an administrator written event
trigger.
•Flashback logs are automatically purged when DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is set lower than the time they have already been retained.
•Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET before there is space pressure.
•Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET only after there is space pressure.
•Flashback logs are automatically purged whenever the value of DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is changed.

ANS:2,3

Question 43:
Which three are true about the FLASHBACK DATABASE feature? (Choose three.)

•FLASHBACK DATABASE only uses FLASHBACK LOGS to get the database to the desired flashback time.
•Queries and DML have the same FLASHBACK LOG overhead when flashback is enabled for a database.
•A database can be flashed back using SQL*PLUS.
•It always generates REDO and UNDO.
•FLASHBACK LOGS are archived after a log switch.
•It requires that the target database be in ARCHIVELOG mode.

ANS:3,4,6

Question 6:
Which three are true about block media recovery? (Choose three.)

•It cannot repair logical corruption.

•It can be performed on noncorrupt blocks.
•The target database for which one or more blocks are to be recovered must be in the OPEN state.
•To use it, Flashback Database must be enabled.
•A block being recovered is not accessible.
•The data file containing the block being recovered remains online.

ANS:4,5,6

Question 9: Skipped
Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. APP_ROOT is an application root in CDB1.
3. APP_PDB1 is an application PDB in APP_ROOT.
4. FLASHBACK DATABASE is ON.
You execute these commands:

Which table or set of tables will exist after the Flashback operation has completed?

•CDB1_TAB and APP_PDB1_TAB

•CDB1_TAB only
•none of the tables, because all three tables will be dropped
•CDB1_TAB and APP_ROOT_TAB
•CDB1_TAB, APP_ROOT_TAB, and APP_PDB1_TAB

ANS:1

Question 23:
Which two are true about reclaiming space used by Flashback logs in Oracle Database 19c and later releases? (Choose two.)

•Space might be reclaimed automatically when the retention period for Flashback logs is lowered.
•Space is always reclaimed automatically when the retention period for Flashback logs is lowered.
•Space might be reclaimed proactively before space pressure occurs.
•Space is always reclaimed proactively before space pressure occurs.
•Space is only reclaimed when there is space pressure in the Fast Recovery Area. (FRA)

ANS:2,4

Question 51.1:
Examine these queries and their output:
An online RMAN backup of the CDB was taken an hour before Restore Point R1 was created. You want to recover PDB1 to Restore Point R1. How do you achieve this?
•Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1 by using SQL while connected to PDB1.
•Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1 by using RMAN while connected to CDB$ROOT.
•This cannot be done due to the lack of a clean restore point.
•Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1 by using RMAN while connected to PDB1.
•Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1 by using SQL while connected to CDB$ROOT.

ANS:3

Question 76:
A schema owner truncated a table in error and must recover the data. Which Oracle Flashback feature could be used to recover the data?

•FLASHBACK TRANSACTION
•FLASHBACK TABLE
•FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE
•FLASHBACK DATABASE
•FLASHBACK VERSION QUERY

ANS:4

Question 74.1:
Which two are prerequisites for using FLASHBACK TABLE? (Choose two.)

•A table's indexes must be set to unusable before issuing the flashback.

•Row Movement must be enabled on the table being flashed back.
•The FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege or the FLASHBACK object privilege must be granted to the user performing the flashback.
•A table's constraints must be disabled before issuing the flashback.
•The FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege or the FLASHBACK object privilege must be granted to the table owner.

ANS:2,3

DB-PERF:

Question 5:
Which two are true about SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)? (Choose two.)

•It provides before and after execution statistics for each SQL statement in the analysis task
•It is integrated with the SQL Access Advisor.
•It predicts the impact of system changes on SQL workload response time.
•SQL statements that were originally run concurrently are run concurrently by SPA.
•It offers fine-grained analysis of all the SQL statements in the analysis task as a group.

ANS:1,3

Question 38:
Which three are true about Optimizer Statistics Advisor? (Choose three.)

•It is part of the DBMS_STATS package.

•It can be run only manually.
•It always analyzes all schemas in the database.
•It can recommend changes to improve the statistics gathering process.
•It is part of the DBMS_ADVISOR package.
•It runs automatically every night by default.

ANS:1,4,6

Question 52:
Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)

•Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.
•The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.
•Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.
•The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.
•The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.

ANS:2,3

Question 81:
Which two are true about gathering optimizer statistics? (Choose two.)

•Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to a PDB opened in read/ write mode gathers object statistics for that PDB.
•Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open PDBs except PDB$SEED.
•Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in CDB$ROOT.
•System statistics can be gathered only while connected to CDB$ROOT.
•Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open pluggable databases (PDBs)

ANS:1,3

Question 48.1:
Which two are true about Optimizer Statistics? (Choose two.)
•They can be gathered by the DBMS_STATS package.
•They provide real-time data about schema objects.
•They are ignored by Optimizer if they are stale.
•By default, they are automatically gathered by a maintenance job.
•They are gathered by the SQL Tuning Advisor.

ANS:1,4

Question 15.1:
Which three are true about the Oracle Optimizer? (Choose three.)

•It can re-optimize execution plans after previous executions detect suboptimal plans.
•It considers the filters in WHERE clauses when generating execution plans for SQL statements.
•It updates stale object statistics in the Data Dictionary.
•It considers object statistics when generating execution plans for SQL statements.
•It can only use SQL Plan Directives tied to the SQL statement for which a plan is being generated.
•It obeys all hints.

ANS:1,2,4

Question 74:
Which three are true about the SQL Tuning Advisor? (Choose three.)

•It builds SQL profiles for each poorly performing SQL statement to prevent regressions.
•It checks each query being analyzed for stale statistics.
•It can recommend semantic changes to SQL statements.
•It considers all SQL statements being analyzed by the advisor task as a group.
•It only recommends syntactic changes to SQL statements.
•It checks each query being analyzed for missing statistics.

ANS:2,3,6

Question 19:
Which statement correctly describes the SQL profiling performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor?

•It is auxiliary information collected by the optimizer for a SQL statement to eliminate estimation error.
•It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to restructure a SQL statement to avoid suboptimal execution plans.
•It is auxiliary information collected by the optimizer for a SQL statement to help use better joins orders.
•It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to change the access methods used.
•It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to create new indexes.

ANS:1

Question 33:
Which three are true about monitoring waits for sessions and services? (Choose three.)

•V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a non-waiting session last waited.
•V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a session is currently waiting.
•V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS displays waits broken down by wait class only for waiting sessions.
•V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits for all past sessions if the wait has occurred at least once for a session.
•V$SERVICE_EVENT displays all waits for all services if the wait has occurred at least once for a service.
•V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits for all past and existing sessions if the wait has occurred at least once for a session.

ANS:2,3,5

Question 40:
A user complains about poor database performance. You want to verify if the user's session has waited for certain types of I/O activity. Which view displays all waits waited on
by a session at least once?

•V$SESSION_EVENT
•V$SESSION_WAIT
•V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS
•V$SESSTAT

ANS:1

Question 64:
Which two are facets of performance planning that should always be considered or implemented for an Oracle Database environment? (Choose two.)

•defining primary keys for all tables to speed up all queries

•defining foreign keys for all tables to speed up joins
•using check constraints to speed up updates
•the physical data model
•the configuration of storage arrays

ANS:4,5

QUERY TUNNING:

Question 35.1:
Which should be tuned first when doing a performance tuning exercise for an Oracle Database environment?

•database writer performance

•database instance memory management and sizes
•general operating system health
•SQL statements
•log writer performance

ANS: 4

Question 47.1:
Which two are true about poorly performing SQL statements and their tuning in Oracle database instances? (Choose two.)

•SQL statements doing joins always do more physical I/O than single table queries.
•Poorly performing SQL statements can be tuned automatically by the Oracle server.
•SQL statements performing many physical I/Os can always have their performance improved by creating indexes.
•SQL statements doing only logical reads never require tuning because they do no physical I/O.
•The solution that best optimizes one SQL statement can degrade the performance of others.

ANS: 2,5

Question 64.1:
Which two are true about the Oracle database methodology? (Choose two.)

•The alert log should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
•Tuning activities should stop once the user is satisfied with performance.
•The database instance memory should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
•Tuning activities should stop once agreed service levels for performance have been met.
•The Oracle Database time model should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
•SQL statements should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.

ANS: 5,6

Question 72:
In performance management, which two factors might reduce the ability of an application to scale to a large number of users? (Choose two.)

•poorly written SQL

•issuing multiple savepoints during a transaction
•the number of tablespaces containing tables updated by a transaction
•poorly trained users who do not commit transactions
•the number of data files containing extents belonging to tables updated by a transaction

ANS: 1,4

AWR :

Question 63:
Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR), Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM), and the Manageability Monitor (MMON) background
process? (Choose three.)

•ADDM can recommend extending the buffer cache.

•ADDM performs its analysis only when a DBA requests it.
•AWR snapshots must be deleted when no longer required by ADDM.
•By default, MMON creates an AWR snapshot every 30 minutes.
•ADDM can recommend shrinking the buffer cache.
•By default, AWR snapshots are automatically purged after eight days.

ANS: 1,5,6

Question 75:
Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)

•The taking of AWR snapshots can be disabled.

•Its collection level is determined by the value of the STATISTICS_LEVEL database parameter.
•By default, AWR snapshots are taken every 60 minutes.
•By default, AWR snapshots are retained for 7 days.
•AWR data is stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.

ANS: 1,2,3

Question 17.1:
Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) and Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) in an Oracle multitenant environment? (Choose three.)

•AWR reports can be generated while connected to any container.

•ADDM can run in a non root container.
•AWR snapshots can be created in a PDB.
•No AWR data is stored in the CDB$ROOT SYSAUX tablespace.
•All AWR data is stored in the CDB$ROOT SYSAUX tablespace.
•AWR snapshots can be created in CDB$ROOT.

ANS: 1,2,5

Question 44:
Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots? (Choose three.)

•They are generated if STATISTICS_LEVEL is set to ALL.

•They are always created manually.
•They are generated if STATISTICS_LEVEL is set to BASIC.
•They can be retained forever.
•They are always created automatically.
•They are generated if STATISTICS_LEVEL is set to TYPICAL.

ANS: 1,4,6
Question 53:
Which two are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)

•It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the 12 hours of activity.

•A DBA can run it manually.
•It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last day of activity.
•It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.
•Results are written to the alert log.

ANS: 2,4

MEMORY:
Question 4:
Which three are true about managing memory components in an Oracle database instance? (Choose three.)

•With Automatic Memory Management, the database instance can increase the System Global Area size by reducing the Program Global Area size.
•With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Program Global Area size by reducing the System Global Area size.
•Automatically tuned and resized System Global Area components will always revert to their initial sizes after an instance restart.
•Online Transaction Processing systems often use less Program Global Area than Decision Support Systems.
•Automatic Memory Management must be used together with locking the System Global Area into physical memory.
•With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Large Pool size by reducing the Shared Pool size.

ANS: 1,4,6

Question 22:
Automatic Shared Memory Management is disabled for one of your database instances. Some SQL statements perform poorly due to excessive hard parse activity, thereby
degrading performance. What would be your next step?

•Run the SQL Tunning Advisor.

•Run the Memory Advisor for the System Global Area.
•Run the Memory Advisor for the shared pool.
•Run the Memory Advisor for the Program Global Area.
•Run the SQL Access Advisor.

ANS: 3

Question 8.1:
Which two are true about the Program Global Area (PGA) and its management in an Oracle database instance? (Choose two.)

•PGA_AGGREGATE_LIMIT is a hard limit on the PGA size for any one session.
•The entire PGA is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when using shared servers.
•The private SQL area (UGA) is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when using dedicated servers.
•Sorts and Hash Joins use PGA memory.
•The private SQL area (UGA) is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when using shared servers.

ANS: 4,5

Question 40.1:
Which three are true about SGA memory management in a multitenant database? (Choose three.)

•SGA_MIN_SIZE cannot be set for a PDB.

•The SHARED_POOL_SIZE setting for a PDB can be up to 80% of the SHARED_POOL_SIZE setting of the root container.
•Setting SHARED_POOL_SIZE for a PDB guarantees a minimum amount of Shared Pool memory for that PDB
•Setting DB_CACHE_SIZE for a PDB guarantees a minimum amount of Database Buffer Cache memory for that PDB.
•The SGA_TARGET setting for a PDB cannot exceed 50% of the SGA_TARGET value of the root container.
•Setting SGA_TARGET for a PDB guarantees a minimum amount of SGA memory for that PDB.

ANS: 3,4,5

Question 65.1:
Which two are true about memory advisors? (Choose two.)
•If Automatic Memory Management is enabled, no memory advisors are available.
•If Automatic Shared Memory Management is enabled, both the SGA Advisor and PGA Advisor are always available.
•All memory advisors use data from Automatic Workload Repository.
•If Automatic Memory Management is enabled, the Shared Pool Advisor and Buffer Cache Advisor are available to set the maximum size for these individual System Global Area
components.
•If Manual Shared Memory Management is enabled, only the Shared Pool Advisor and Buffer Cache Advisor are available.

ANS: 2,3

DATA PUMP :

Question 25:
Which two are true about data movement between a non-CDB and a PDB using Data Pump? (Choose two.)

•Oracle attempts to convert conventional database users to local users when moving schemas from a non-CDB to a PDB.
•A new PDB is automatically created when importing a non-CDB into a CDB.
•Tablespaces are automatically created as neeed while importing full exports in either a non-CDB or a PDB.
•Moving data from a non-CDB to a PDB is only possible by using conventional export and import.
•Moving data from a PDB to a non-CDB is only possible by using transportable tablespace export and import.
•Oracle attempts to convert common users to conventional users when moving schemas from a PDB to a non-CDB.

ANS: 1,6

Question 58.1:
Which three are true in Oracle 19c and latest releases? (Choose three.)
•Tablespaces never remain in read/write mode during transportable tablespace operations.
•A transportable data pump import can leave a plugged-in tablespace in read-only mode.
•An ordinary data pump export of a table with encrypted columns will always encrypt the same columns when imported.
•Tablespaces always remain in read/write mode during transportable tablespace operations.
•A transportable data pump import can leave a plugged-in tablespace in read/write mode.
•Simultaneous data pump jobs can be limited at the pluggable database (PDB) level.

ANS: 2,5,6

DB RESOURCE MANAGER:
Question 41:
Which three are true about using Database Resource Manager in an Oracle multitenant environment? (Choose three.)

•A PDB-level resource plan can limit session PGA memory.

•A PDB-level resource plans can limit uncommitted UNDO per consumer group.
•A CDB-level resource plan can limit session CPU utilization.
•A CDB-level resource plan can limit PDB CPU utilization.
•A CDB-level resource plan can limit PDB UNDO use.
•A CDB-level resource plan is mandatory when using PDB-level resource plans.

ANS: 1,2,4

Question 38.1:
Examine this output:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

•Any PDB not specified in the plan will be able to use a maximum of 16.5% of the available system resources.
•Any PDB not specified in the plan will be unable to execute statements in parallel.
•PDB2 is guaranteed at least 25% of the available parallel execution processes if there is enough demand.
•PDB1 is always limited to 40% of the available system resources regardless of demand.
•PDB3 can use all available parallel execution processes at times.
•PDB3 is guaranteed to receive at least 20% of the available system resources if there is enough demand.

ANS: 2,5

GENERAL :
Question 43:
Which two are true about automatic block repair? (Choose two.)

•Real-Time Query must be enabled on a physical standby database for automatic block repair to be done on its primary database.
•Automatic block repair can repair blocks with no standby database if DB_BLOCK_CHECKING = TRUE.
•Real-Time Query must be enabled on a primary database for automatic block repair to be done on any of its physical standby databases.
•It is not possible for media corrupt blocks.
•Real-Time Query must be enabled on a physical standby database for automatic block repair to be done on that physical standby database.

ANS: 1,5

Question 56:
Which two are true about the character sets used in an Oracle database? (Choose two.)

•Unicode enables information from any language to be stored using a single character set.
•Unicode is the only supported character set for Oracle databases created using Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).
•Single-byte character sets always use 8-bit encoding schemes.
•Multibyte character sets allow more efficient space utilization than single byte character sets.
•Single-byte character sets always use 7-bit encoding schemes.
•Single-byte character sets provide better performance than multibyte character sets.

ANS: 1,6

Question 77:
Examine this configuration:
1.The ORCL database data files are in Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM) disk group +DATA.
2.ORCL uses disk group +FRA for the Fast Recovery Area.
3.LISTENER is the listener for ORCL.
4.The database, listener, ASM instance, and ASM disk groups are managed by Oracle Restart.
5.All components are currently shut down.
You execute this command:

What is the outcome?

•Only the ORCL database and the ASM instances are started.
•Only the ORCL database instance, the Oracle ASM instance, and the +DATA and +FRA disk groups are started.
• The ORCL database, the Oracle ASM instances, the +DATA and +FRA disk groups, and the LISTENER are started.
•Only the ORCL database instance is started.
•Only the ORCL database instance and the +DATA and +FRA disk groups are started.

ANS: 3
ORDER :
Question 13.1:
Application PDBs, SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2, must be created and they must access common tables of the SALES_APP application.
Examine these steps:

1. Install the SALES_APP application, including the common tables, in the application root.
2. Install the SALES_APP application in the application root and the common tables in both the CDB root and the application root.
3.. Create an application seed.
4. Install the SALES_APP application in the application seed.
5. Create the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs.
6. Sync the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs with the application root.
7. Sync the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs with the application seed.
8. Sync the application seed with the application root.

Which are the minimum required steps in the correct sequence?

•3, 4, 1, 6, 8
•2, 5, 6
•1, 3, 5, 7
•1, 5, 6
•1, 3, 5, 6, 7

ANS: 4

Question 58: :
You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.
The source and destination platforms have different endian formats. Examine this list of actions:
1.Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2.Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.
3.Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.
4.Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.
5.Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.
6.Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination system.
7.Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.
8.Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.

Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
•2, 4, 5, 6, 7
•1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
•1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8
•1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
•1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

ANS: 4

Question 30.1:
You want to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.
The source and destination platforms have the same endian format.
Examine this list of steps:
1. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2. Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.
3. Create a cross-platform backup set from the UNIVERSITY tablespace on the source system, using an RMAN command that includes the DATAPUMP clause.
4. Copy the cross-platform backup sets to the destination system.
5. Copy the Data Pump dump set from the source to the destination system.
6. Restore the cross-platform backup set on the destination system using an RMAN command that includes the DATAPUMP clause.
7. Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.
8. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.

Which are the minimum number of steps required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
•2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
•3, 4, 6
•1, 3, 4, 6, 8
•1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

ANS: 3

Question 9:
Examine these actions:
1.Create a new database for a recovery catalog.
2.Create a tablespace with sufficient space in the catalog database for the recovery catalog.
3.Configure ARCHIVELOG mode for the catalog database.
4. Create a user to own the recovery catalog schema with quota on the tablespace that will contain the catalog.
5. Grant the RECOVERY_CATALOG_OWNER role to the recovery catalog schema owner.
6. Grant the SYSBACKUP privilege to the recovery catalog schema owner.

Which are the minimum actions that must be performed before executing the CREATE CATALOG command?

•2, 4, 5, 6
•1, 3, 4, 5
•2, 4, 5
•1, 2, 4, 5

ANS: 3

Question 78:
Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
2. Multiple uncommitted transactions are running in CDB1.
3. Redo log groups 1 and 2 are INACTIVE.
4. Redo log group 3 is the CURRENT group.
All members of redo log group 3 are lost before it is archived. Examine these possible steps:

1. SHUTDOWN ABORT
2. STARTUP NOMOUNT
3. STARTUP MOUNT
4. ALTER DATABASE MOUNT
5. RESTORE DATABSE
6. RECOVER DATABASE NOREDO
7. RECOVER DATABASE UNTIL AVAILABLE
8. RESTORE ARCHIVELOG ALL
9. ALTER DATABSE OPEN
10.ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS

Choose the minimum required steps in the correct order to recover the database.
•1, 3, 5, 6, 10
•1, 3, 5, 8, 6, 10
•1, 2, 5, 7, 4, 10
•1, 3, 5, 7, 10
•1, 3, 5, 6, 9

ANS: 4