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MT - 04 (ASSIGNMENT)
Class: CBSE XII Date: 28-06-2025
Time: 180 Minutes Max marks: 720

Exam Instructions :
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully
with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180
questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the
candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of 45 questions (all questions
are mandatory)
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct
option will be considered as answer.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this
page/marking responses.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the
Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer
Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are
allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not
make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No.
anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/ Answer
Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

PHYSICS

1. The distance of the centre of mass of the T-shaped plate from O is

1) 7m 2) 2.7 m 3) 4m 4) 1m

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2. The instantaneous velocity of a point B of the given rod of length 0.5 m is 3

ms in the represented direction. The angular velocity of the rod for
−1

minimum velocity of end A is

1) 1.5 rads
−1
2) 5.2 rads
−1
3) 2.5 rads
−1
4) None of these

3. A dog weighing 5 kg is standing on a flat boat so that it is 10 m from the

shore. The dog walks 4 m on the boat towards the shore and then halts.
The boat weighs 20 kg and one can assume that there is no friction
between it and the water. How far is the dog from the shore at the end of
this time?
1) 3.2 m 2) 0.8 m 3) 10 m 4) 6.8 m

4. Four bodies of masses 2, 3, 5 and 8kg are placed at the four corners of a
square of side 2m.The position of centre of mass from 2kg will be

1) (
8

9
,
13

9
) 2) (
7

9
,
11

9
) 3) (
11

9
,
13

9
) 4) (
11

9
,
8

9
)

5. Two men of masses 40 kg and 20 kg are standing on a boat of mass 100

kg. Length of boat is 20 m. Neglect the friction between water and boat.
Find the displacement of the boat when both persons meet at middle of
boat.

1) 5

4
m , towards right 2) 5

4
m , towards left
3) 5

8
m , towards right 4) 5

8
m , towards left

6. A uniform square sheet has a side length of 2R . A circular sheet of

maximum possible area is removed from one of the quadrants of the
square sheet. The centre of mass of the remaining portion from the centre
of the original sheet is at a distance of
π
1) πR

√2 (16−π)
2) (16−π)
3) π(16−π)
R
4) Rπ

(16−π)

7. Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 are connected with a
massless rod of length 2R as shown in the figure. What will be the moment
of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the centre of one of

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the spheres and perpendicular to the rod

1) 21

5
MR
2
2) 2

5
MR
2

3) 5

2
MR
2
4) 5

21
MR
2

8. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about its own axis is the same as
that about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its
axis.The relation between radius 'R', and length of the cylinder (L) is
1) –
L = R√ 3 2) L =
R
3) L = 3R 4) 2L =
R

√3 √3

9. Moment of inertia of big drop in I . If 8 droplets are formed from big drop,
then moment of inertia of small droplet is
1) I

32
2) I

16
3) I

8
4) I

10. One quarter section in cut from a uniform circular disc of radius R. the
section has mass M. It is made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its
plane and passing through centre of original disc. Its moment of inertia
about its axes is

–
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2
MR 2
MR MR
√2MR
2 4 8

11. According to the theorem of parallel axes I = I cm + M x

2
, the graph
between I and x will be
1) 2)

3) 4)

12. A uniform disc of radius 14.14cm lies in x - y plane with its centre at
origin. Its moment of inertia about z - axis is equal to its moment of
inertia about line y = x + c. The value of c is ____ cm

1) 10 2) 20 3) 5 4) 15

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13. From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of radius R/3
is removed from the disc. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc
about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through
O is

1) 4MR
2
2) 40

9
2
MR 3) 10MR
2
4) 37

9
2
MR

14. A homogeneous solid sphere of radius 0.2m and mass 5kg rotates about
its diameter. Angular velocitity of the sphere as a function of time is given
by ω = (3 + 5t) rad s . The tangential force applied to the sphere is
−1

1) 4N 2) 3N 3) 2N 4) 1N

15. At shaped object made of uniform rods with dimensions shown in the
figure, is lying a smooth floor. A force ' F ' is applied at the point P parallel
to AB, such that the object has only the translational motion without
rotation. Find the location of P with respect to C

1) 4

3
l 2) l 3) 2

3
l 4) 3

2
l

16. A string is wound over a pulley (disc) as shown. Mass of pulley is 8 kg and
radius is 0.2 m. If a force F = 12 N is acting on the string, then angular
acceleration of the pulley will be

1) 1.8 rev/s
2
2) 2.38 rev/s
2
3) 4 rev/s
2
4) 0.6 rev/s
2

17. Average torque on a projectile of mass m, initial speed u and angle of

projection θ between initial and final positions P and Q as shown in figure,
about the point of projection is:

1) 2)
2
mu sin 2θ 2
mu cos 2θ
2

3) 4)
2
2 mu cos 2θ
mu sin 2θ
2

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18. A ring of radius R is first rotated with an angular velocity ω and then 0

carefully placed of friction between the surface and the ring is μ Time
after which its angular speed in reduced to half is
1) ω 0 μR
2) ω 0 μR
3) 2ω 0 R

μg
4) ω0R

2μg
2g 2μR

19. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall its lower end at a
distance 5m from the wall. The minimum coefficient of friction between
the ladder and the floor so that the ladder remains in equilibrium is
nearly
1) 0.52 2) 0.72 3) 0.21 4) 0.36

20. A cord is wound round the circumference of a wheel of radius r. The axis
of the wheel is horizontal and moment of inertia about it is I . A weight mg
is attached to the end of the cord and falls from rest. After falling through
distance h, the angular velocity of the wheel will be :
−−−
1) 2gh
1/2
2) 2mgh
1/2
3) 2mgh
1/2
4) √2gh
[ ] [ 2
] [ ]
I+mr I+mr I+2m

21. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about it's
horizontal axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one
end attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required
to produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s is : −2

1) 25 N 2) 50 N 3) 78.5 N 4) 157 N

22. A force of −F k
^ acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque

about the point (1, −1) is

1) −F (^
i + ^
j) 2) F (^
i + ^
j) 3) F (^
i − ^
j) 4) −F (^
i − ^
j)

23. A uniform disc of mass M and radius r is hinged at its centre C . a force F
is applied on the disc as shown. At this instant, angular acceleration of
the disc is

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–
1) √3
F

MR
2) F

MR
3) 2

√3 MR
F
4) F

2MR

24. A ring of radius 20 cm and mass 100g is acted upon by four forces as
shown in Fig. The angular velocity acquired by it in 2s starting from rest
is

1) 90 rad/s 2) 900 rad/s 3) 180 rad/s 4) 450 rad/s

25. Two balls of mass m and 4m are connected by a rod of length L. the mass
of the rod is small and can be treated as zero. The size of the balls also
can be neglected. We also
assume the centre of the rod is hinged, but the rod can rotate about its
centre in the vertical plane without friction. What is the gravity-induced
angular acceleration of the rod when the
angle between the rod and the vertical line is θ as shown?

g g
1) 5g
sin θ 2) 6L
cos θ 3) 6g
sin θ 4) 3L
sin θ
6L 5L

26. A meter stick is balanced on a knife edge at its center. When two coins,
each of mass 5g are put one on top of the other at the 12 cm mark the
stick is found to be balanced at 45cm. The mass of the meter stick is
1) 75 g 2) 66 g 3) 74 g 4) 73 g

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27. When a hollow sphere is rolling without slipping on a rough horizontal

surface then the percentage of its total K.E which is translational is
1) 72% 2) 28% 3) 60% 4) 40%

28. A carpet of mass M made of inextensible material is rolled along its length
in the form of a cylinder of radius R and is kept on rough floor. The carpet
starts unrolling without sliding on the floor when a negligibly small push
is given to it. The horizontal velocity of the axis of cylindrical part of the
carpet when its radius reduces to .
R

2
−−
− −
− −−−
1) √
14g
R
2) √
g
R
3) 14gR
4) √
3gR

3 3
3 14

29. A heavy wheel of radius 20cm and weight 10kg is to be dragged over a
step of height 10cm, by a horizontal force F applied at the centre of the
wheel. The minimum value of F is
– –
1) 20 kgwt 2) 1 kgwt 3) 10√3 kgwt 4) 10√2 kgwt

30. A weightless rod of length 2l carries two equal masses each 'm', one tied
at lower end A and the other at the middle of the rod at B. The rod can be
rotated in a vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis passing through C.
The rod is released from rest in horizontal position. The speed of the mass
B at the instant rod, become vertical is:

−
−− −
−− −
−− −
−−
1) √
3gl 2) √
4gl 3) √
6gl 4) √
7gl

5 5 5 5

31. A triangular frame consists of three identical rods, each of mass m and
length ℓ. It rests upright on a horizontal smooth surface with its lower
right corner against a stop about which the frame could pivot. A
horizontal force of magnitude F is applied to the upper corner of the frame
as shown in the figure. What is the largest value of F may have without
causing the frame to pivot upward about the stop?

– mg
1) √3mg 2) 3mg 3) √3
4) 3

2
mg

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32. A stick of length 'L' and mass 'M ' lies on a frictionless horizontal surface
on which it is free to move in any way. A ball of mass m moving with
speed u collides elastically with the stick as shown in the figute. If after
the collision the ball comes to rest, then what should be the mass of the
ball?

1) m = 2M 2) m = M 3) m = M /2 4) m = M /4

–
33. A particle of mass 5 kg is moving with a uniform speed v = 3√2 in XOY
plane along the line Y = x + 4. The magnitude of the angular momentum
of the particle about the origin is
–
1) 60 units 2) 40√2 units 3) 7.5 units 4) zero

34. A hemisphere of radius R and mass 5M is free to slide with its base on a
smooth horizontal surface. A particle of mass M is placed on the top of
hemisphere initially at rest. The angular velocity of the particle relative to
hemisphere at angular displacement θ with vertical when velocity of
hemisphere is v , is

1) 6v

R cos θ
2) 5v

R cos θ
3) 4v

R cos θ
4) 5v

R sin θ

35. A uniform rod of mass M and length L is kept on a horizontal surface.

The rod receives an impulse J at its lowest point, normal to its length as
shown, then choose the correct statement.

1) The velocity of point P just after impact is 2 J

2) The velocity of point P just after impact is J

3) Kinetic energy after impact is

2
J

4) Kinetic energy after impact is (

2 J
2

)
M

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36. A thin massless rod of length 2ℓ has equal point masses m attached at its
ends as shown in the figure. The rod is rotating about an axis passing
through its centre and making angle θ with it. The magnitude of net
torque about O is

1) 2 mℓ ω
2 2
sin θ cos θ 2) 2 mℓ ω
2 2
sin θ

3) 2mℓ ω
2 2
sin
2
θ 4) 2 mℓ ω
2 2
cos
2
θ

37. A uniform circular disc of radius r placed on a rough horizontal surface

has initially a velocity v and angular velocity ω as shown in the figure.
0 0
v0
The disc comes to rest completely after moving some distance. Then is rω 0

1) 1 2) 1/2 3) 3/2 4) 2

38. A hollow sphere rolls without slipping on an incline of inclination θ. The

minimum coefficient of static friction to support pure rolling is to be
1) 2

3
Tanθ 2) 2

5
Tanθ 3) 2

7
Tanθ 4) 3

7
Tanθ

39. A uniform, solid cylinder having mass M and radius R is pulled by a

horizontal force F acting through the center as shown. The cylinder rolls
to the right without slipping. What is the magnitude of the force of friction
between the cylinder and the ground?

1) F/4 2) F /3 3) F/2 4) 2F /3

40. A solid sphere and a disc of same mass and radius starts rolling down a
rough inclined plane, from the same height the ratio of the time taken in
the two cases respectively is
−− −− −− −−
1) 15 : 14 2) √15 : √14 3) 14 : 15 4) √14 : √15

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41. An object of radius R and mass M is rolling horizontally without slipping

2

with speed v. It then rolls up the hill to a maximum height is h =

3v

4g
. The
moment of inertia of the object is (g = acceleration due to gravity).
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2
2 MR 3 2
MR MR MR
5 2
2

42. When a ring is rolling V , V , V and V are velocities of top most point,
1 2 3 4

lowest point, end point of horizontal diameter, centre of ring respectively,

the decreasing order of these velocities is
1) V2 , V1 , V4 , V3 2) V2 , V1 , V3 , V4

3) V1 , V2 , V3 , V4 4) V1 , V3 , V4 , V2

43. A hollow sphere is at rest at the top of a rough inclined plane of height h0 .
If it rolls without slipping, then rotational kinetic energy of the sphere
when it will reach at the bottom of the inclined plane is
1) 2

3
mgh0 2) 3

5
mgh0 3) 2

5
mgh0 4) mgh 0

44. A disc at rest at the top of the inclined plane of heigh `h' rolls down
without slippling and acquires a velocity `v' on reaching the bottom. If the
same disc slides down a smooth incline and acquires the same velocity on
reaching the bottom the height of smooth incline is
1) h/3 2) h/2 3) 2h

3
4) h

45. A wheel of radius r rolls without slipping with a speed v on a horizontal

road. When it is at point A on the road, a small blob of mud separates
from the wheel at its highest point and lands at a point B on the road.
Then
−
− −
−
1) AB = v√
r
2) AB = 2v√
r

g g

−− −−
3) AB = 4v√
r
4) AB = 8v√
r

g g

CHEMISTRY

46. Consider the plots for the types of reaction nA → B + C

These plots respectively correspond to the reaction orders :

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1) 0, 2, 1 2) 0, 1, 2 3) 1, 1, 2 4) 1, 0, 2

47. A graph plotted between log t vs. log 𝑎 concentration is a straight line.
50%

What conclusion can you draw from the given graph?

1) n = 1, t1/2 =
1

K⋅a
2) n = 2, t1/2 =
1

3) n = 1, t1/2 =
0.693

K
4) None of the above

48. Assertion (A): If two liquids on mixing form a solution with liberation of
heat, it is a non ideal solution with negative deviation.
Reason(R): Solutions with negative deviation are accompanied by decrease
in volume
1) Both A & R are correct, R is the correct explanation of A

2) Both A & R are correct, R is the not correct explanation of A

3) A is correct but R is incorrect

4) A is incorrect and R is incorrect

49. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250g mol-1) was dissolved
in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point constant, Kf of benzene is 5.12 K
kg mol-1, the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by
1) 0.2K 2) 0.4K 3) 0.3 K 4) 0.5K

50. Assertion (A): When acetic acid is dissolved in Benzene then due to
intermolecular hydrogen bonding, the value of osmotic pressure is
observed to lesser than expected.
Reason (R): Acetic acid will dissociate in benzene to give greater number of
particles and thus value of colligative property Increases.
1) A and R both correct and R is correct explanation of A

2) A and R both correct but R is not correct explanation of A

3) A is true but R is false

4) A is false but R is true

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51. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. The mixture has a vapour
pressure of 400 mm at 300 K when mixed in the molar ratio of 1:1 and a
vapour pressure of 350 mm when mixed in the molar ratio of 1:2 at the
same temperature. The vapour pressures of the two pure liquids X and Y
respectively are
1) 250 mm, 550 mm 2) 350 mm, 450 mm
3) 350 mm, 700 mm, 4) 550 mm, 250 mm

52. Which of the following solutions will have highest boiling point
1) 0.1MFeCl3 2) 0.1MBaCl2

3) 0.1MNaCl 4) 0.1MUrea (NH2 CONH2 )

53. For a given reaction of first order, it takes 15 minute for the concentration
to drop from 0.8Mlitre to 0.4Mlitre . The time required for the
−1 −1

concentration to drop from 0.1Mlitre to 0.025Mlitre will be:−

−1 −1

1) 60 minutes 2) 15 minutes
3) 7.5 minutes 4) 30 minutes

54. For a binary solution of A and B, the vapour pressure of the mixture is
given by 300 = 250x + 200, where x is the mole fraction of `A'. Then the
molefraction of `B' in the vapour state is [All vapour pressure are
expressed in mm of Hg]
1) 0.8 2) 0.2 3) 0.6 4) 0.4

55. In which ratio of volume 0.4 M HCl and 0.9 M HCl are to be mixed such
that the concentration of the resultant solution becomes 0.7 M ?
1) 4 : 9 2) 2 : 3 3) 3 : 2 4) 1 : 1

56. For a gaseous reaction following data is givenA → B, K = 10 e 1

15 −1000/T

C → D, K = 10 e 2 The temperature at which K = K is

14 −1000/T
1 2

1) 1000K 2) 2000K 3) 868.82K 4) 434.2K

57. If X is the initial amount of reactant in a first order reaction A → B, then

the amount of reactant converted to product in three half lives will be
x
1) 15x

16
2) 3x

4
3) 7x

8
4) 32

58. Arrhenius equation may not be represented as −

1) ℓn
A
=
Ea
2) dln k

dT
=
E
2
k RT RT

3) log A = log k +
Ea
4) log[−
Ea
] =
k
2.303RT
RT A

59. Which is correct relation in between , and dc

dt
where 𝑐, 𝑛 and 𝑃,
dn

dt
dP

dt

represent concentration, mole and pressure terms for gaseous phase

reactant A(g) → product?

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1) −
dc
= −
1 dn
= −
1 dp
2) dc

dt
=
dn

dt
= −
dP

dt
dt V dt RT dt

3) dc

dt
=
RT dn

V dt
=
dP

dt
4) All of these

60. The freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 K kgmol . If 45 g −1

of ethylene glycol is mixed with 600 g of water, the freezing point of the
solution is
1) 2.2 K 2) 270.95 K 3) 273 K 4) 275.35 K

61. How many grams of a sucrose (molwt. = 342) should be dissolved in 100 g
water in order to produce a solution with a 105.0 C difference between the ∘

freezing point and boiling temperature? (k = 1.86C/m, k = 0.151 C) f b

∘

1) 34.2 g 2) 72 g 3) 342 g 4) 460 g

62. The ratio of the time required for th of the reaction of first order to
3

complete to that required for half of the reaction

1) 4 : 3 2) 3: 2 3) 2: 1 4) 1 : 2

63. The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCl in 1 kg of 2

water using the following information will be (molecular weight of

CuCl = 134.4 and k = 0.52Km
−1
2 b

1) 0.16 2) 0.05 3) 0.1 4) 0.2

64. If a mixture of water and ethanol boils at 370 K,then what will be the
mole fraction of ethanol in the given mixture?
∘ ∘
(at 370K P = 700mmHg, PC = 800mmHg)
H2 O 2 H5 OH

1) 0.2 2) 0.4 3) 0.6 4) 0.8

65. The amount of ice that will separate out on cooling a solution containing
50 g of ethylene glycol in 200 g water to −9.3 C
∘
is : (K
′
f
= 1.86 Kmolality
−1
)

1) 38.71 g 2) 28.71 g 3) 48.71 g 4) 58.71 g

66. The difference between the boiling point and freezing point of an aqueous
solution containing sucrose (mol = 342gmol )in 100 g of water is wt
−1

105.0 C. If K and K of water are 1.86 and 0.51Kkgmol respectively, the

∘ −1
f b

weight of sucrose in the solution is about

1) 34.2 g 2) 342 g 3) 7.2 g 4) 72 g

67. At temperature 327 C and concentration C osmotic pressure of a solution

∘

is p, the same solutions at concentration C/2 and a temperature

427 C shows osmotic pressure 2 atm, value of p will be
∘

1) 12

7
2) 24

7
3) 6

5
4) 5

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68. The rate of formation of SO3 in the reacti

S O2(g) + O2(g) → 2S O3(g) is 100g min . Hence, rate of disappearence of
−1
O2

is
1) 50g min
−1
2) 100g min
−1
3) 20g min
−1
4) 40g min
−1

69. The relationship between the values of osmotic pressure of 0.1M solution
of KNO (p ) and CH COOH (p )is
3 1 3 2

p1 p2
1) p1 +p2
=
p1 +p2
2) p1 > p2

p1 = p2
3) p2 > p1
4)
70. If 5.85 g NaCl (molecular weight 58.5) is dissolved in water and the
solution is made up to 0.5 L, the molarity of the solution will be
1) 0.1 2) 0.2 3) 0.3 4) 0.4

71. Arrange the following aqueous solution in decreasing order of freezing

point. (Assume α = 1 for all salts).
(i) 2M N aCl

(ii) 5M CaCl 2

(iii) 3M N a 3 P O4

(iv) 2M Ca3 (P O4 )
2

1) i < ii < iii < iv 2) i > ii > iii > iv

3) ii > iii > i = iv 4) i > iv > iii > ii

72. Insulin (C H O ) is dissolved in a suitable solvent and the osmotic

2 10 5 n

pressure (π) of solutions of various concentrations c ( g/cm ) is measured 3

at 20 C. the slope of a plot of π against C is formed to be 4.65 × 10 . The

∘ −3

molecular weight of the insulin is:

1) 4.8 × 10
5
2) 9 × 10
5
3) 3 × 10
5
4) 5.17 × 10
6

73. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from
Raoult's law?
1) Water-hydrochloric acid 2) Benzene-methanol
3) Water-nitric acid 4) Acetone-chloroform

74. A gas phase chemical reaction

2 A( g) → 2 B( g) + 4C(g) in a closed vessel. The concentration of 'A' is

decreased by 4 × 10 molL in 40 seconds. What will be the rate of

−2 −1

appearance of ' C '

1) 4 × 10
−2
mol L
−1
s
−1
2) 8 × 10
−2
mol L
−1
s
−1

3) 8 × 10
−5
mol L
−1
s
−1
4) 2 × 10
−3
mol L
−1 −1
s

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75. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by
rate = k[A] [B] . On doubling the concentration of A and halving the
n m

concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of the
reaction will be:
1) 1/2
m+n
2) 2
(m+n)
3) 1/2
n−m
4) 2
(n−m)

76. A 0.10M solution of a mono protic acid (d = 1.01 g/cm ) is 3

5% dissociated. What is the freezing point of the solution. The molar mass

of the acid is 300 and K (H O) = 1.86 C/m f 2

∘

∘ ∘ ∘
1) −0.189 C 2) −0.194 C 3) −0.199 C 4) None of these

77. For a first order homogeneous gaseous reaction A → 2B + C then initial

pressure was P while total pressure after time t was P . Then expression
1 t

for rate constants K in terms P , P and t is. t t

1) K =
2.303
log(
2p∞
)
2) K =
2.303
log(
2P∞
)
t 3P ∞ −P t t 2P ∞ −P t

3) K =
2.303
log(
P∞
)
4) None of these
t P ∞ −P t

78. On increasing temperature from 200K to 220K rate of reaction A increase

by 3 times and rate of reaction B increases by 9 times then correct
relationship between activation energy of A and B is
1) EA = 3EB 2) 3EA = EB 3) EB = 2EA 4) EA = 2EB

79. The following graphical information is applicable to which of the following

combination ['X' axis = composition 'Y' axis = Temperature]

1) Benzene + Toluene 2) Cyclohexane + Methanol

3) Water + HCl 4) n − hexane + n heptane

80. The reaction takes place in three steps with activation energy
E = 180kJ /mol, E
a1 = 80kJ /mol, E a2= 50kJ /mol respectively. Overall
a3

2/3

rate constant of the reaction is and are rate

k1 k2
k = [ ] (k 1 , k 2 k3
k3

constant of first, second and third step). The overall activation energy will
be
1) 140kJ /mol 2) 150kJ /mol 3) 43.44kJ /mol 4) 100kJ /mol

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81. Select the incorrect statement

a) Vapour pressure is a colligative property
b) The ratio of vapour pressure of water and an aqueous solution with
non volatile solute is influenced by temperature
c) Freezing point of an aqueous glucose solution at 1 atm is ∘
2 C

d) Boiling point is a colligative property

The incorrect statements are
1) only a, b 2) only a, b and c
3) only b, c 4) a, b, c and d

82. Assertion (A) : van't Hoff factor for NaCl in water is greater than 1.
Reason (R): NaCl dissociates into ions in aqueous solution.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct statements, and (R) is the correct
explanation of the (A).

2) Both (A) and (R) are correct statements, and (R) is the not correct
explanation of the (A).

3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong statement.

4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct statement.

83. For the following reactions A −−

300K

−−−→ Product; It was found that activation

Catalyst

energy is decreased by 50kJ /mol in the presence of catalyst. If the rate

remains unchanged, the activation energy for catalysed reaction is
(Assume pre-exponential factor to be same)
1) 50 kJ mol
−1
2) 100 kJ mol
−1

3) 150 kJ mol
−1
4) −100 kJ mol
−1

84. The value of t 0.875

t 0.50
for n th order of reaction is
1) 2) 3) 4) none of these
n−1
(2n−2) 2(n−1)−1 8 −1
2 2
n−1
2 −1

85. The chemical reaction 2O3 → 3O2 proceeds as follows

O3 → O2 + O (F ast)

O + O3 → 2O2 ( slow )

The rate law expression should be

1) r = k[O3 ]
3
2) 2
r = k[O3 ] [O2 ]
−1

3) r = k [O3 ] [O2 ] 4) unpredictable

86. Statement−I: For complex reaction, order has no meaning.

Statement−II: Order of a reaction is experimental quantity.

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In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the
option given below.
1) StatementI is incorrect but statement−II is correct

2) Both statement−I and statement−II are correct

3) Both statement−I and statement−II are incorrect

4) Statement−I is correct but statement−II is incorrect

87. What is the correct sequence of osmotic pressures of 0.01 M aq. solutions
of :
i) Al2 (SO4 )
3
(π 1 )

ii) N a 3 P O 4 (π 2 )

iii) BaCl2 (π3 )

iv) Glucose (π 4 )

1) π4 > π2 > π3 > π1

2) π3 > π4 > π2 > π1

3) π3 > π4 > π1 > π2

4) π1 > π2 > π3 > π4

88. For the following elementary first order reaction:

If k 2 = 2k 1 , then % of B in overall product is:

1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 100%

89. For the non-stoichiometric reaction 2A + B → C + D, the following kinetic

data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298K .
Initial
Initial Initial rate of
concentration Concentration formation
(A) (B) of C
(M/sec)
−9
0.1M 0.1M 1.2 × 10

−9
0.1M 0.2M 1.2 × 10

−9
0.2M 0.1M 2.4 × 10

The rate law for the formation of C is

1) dc

dt
= k[A][B]
2
2) dc

dt
= k[A]

3) dc

dt
= k[A][B] 4) dc

dt
2
= k[A] [B]

90. What will be the order of reaction [A → P] and rate constant for this
chemical change having [log t ] vs [log initial concentration of A (a)]
50%

curves as :

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1) 0, 1/2 2) 1, 1 3) 2, 2 4) 3, 1

BOTANY

91. Identify the incorrect combination

1) Solanaceae - Rarely pinnately compound leaves

2) Solanaceae - Rarely small trees

3) Liliaceae - Berry, rarely capsule with non endospermic seeds

4) Liliaceae - Actinomorphic flowers and Endospermic seeds

92. Statement I : Floral formula shows cohesion and adhesion with in parts of
whorls and between whorls.
Statement II: A floral diagram provides information about the number of
parts in a flower, their arrangement and the relation they have with one
another.
1) Statement I and statement II are correct

2) Statement I only correct

3) Statement II only correct

4) Statement I and statement II are incorrect

93. Identify the incorrect statement from the following

1) The M phase represents the phase when the actual cell division or
mitosis occurs and the interphase represents the phase between two
successive M phases

2) The division phase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle

3) Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in only about 90 minutes

4) The interphase is the time during which the cell is preparing for
division by undergoing both cell growth and DNA replication in an
orderly manner

94. Migration of both chromatids towards same pole is seen/during

1) Colchicine treated mitocyte 2) Anaphase − I

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3) Anaphase of mitosis 4) Anaphase − II

95. Meiosis-II is similar to mitosis in that

1) Homologues chromosomes synapse

2) DNA replicates before the division

3) The daughter cells are diploid

4) Sister chromatids separate during anaphase

96. Which of the following events are taking place during diakinesis?
A) Crossing over
B) Terminalization of chiasmata
C) Recombinase activity
D) Full condensation of chromosomes
E) Centriole duplication
1) A, C, E 2) B, C, D and E
3) B and D only 4) B, D and E

97. Identify the correct set of statements :

(a) In plants such as bean, gram and pea, the endosperm is present in
mature seeds and such seeds are called endospermous.
(b) Embryo in monocot seed consists of one large and shield shaped
cotyledon known as epiblast and a short axis with plumule and a radicle.
(c) The fruit in muliathi is legume and seed is endospermic.
(d) Diadelphous androecium is the feature of brassicaceae family.
(e) After fertilization ovules develop into fruit and ovary matures into
seeds.
Choose the correct answer from options given below :
1) All are correct 2) All are incorrect
3) (a), (c), (d) are correct 4) only (c) is incorrect

98. The mature seeds of plants such as gram and peas possess no
endosperm, because
1) these plants are not angiosperm

2) there is no double fertilisation in them

3) endosperm is not formed in them

4) endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo during seed

development

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99. Among the following events which are not considered as prophase-I events
I) Process of synapsis
II) Dyad of cells
III) Bivalent formation
IV) Terminalisation of chiasmata
V) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
VI) Chromosomal division
1) I, II & IV 2) II & VI
3) III, IV, V & VI 4) II, III & IV

100. The correct sequence of steps during cell cycle is

1) DNA replication → Chromosome division → Spirilization
→ Reappearance of endoplasmic reticulum and golgi complex

2) Centromere division → DNA replication → Centriole movement towards

two opposite poles → Reappearance of endoplasmic reticulum and golgi
complex

3) DNA replication → Centriole movement towards poles → Division of

centromere → Reappearance of endoplasmic reticulum and golgi
complex

4) Centriole movement towards poles → Division of centromere → DNA

replication → Movement of chromosomes towards
equator. Reappearance of endoplasmic reticulum and golgi complex
→ telophase

101. Study the following statements and select the correct statement
1) Most of the organelle duplication occur during G0 phase

2) Number of chromosomes reduced to half in anaphase of mitosis

3) Crossing over occurs between sister chromatids of homologous

chromosomes

4) Inter kinesis is the short lived stage between meiosis I and meiosis II

102. If a meiocyte shows the attachment of spindle fibres to 50 kinetochores,

during metaphase-I, then the chromatids that are pulled to each pole
during Anaphase-II will be
1) 50 2) 100
3) 25 4) 200

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103. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to cell cycle and cell division
1) Cell division, DNA replication, and cell growth take place in a
coordinated way to ensure correct division and formation of progeny
cells containing intact genomes

2) The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome,

synthesises the other constituents of the cell and eventually divides into
two daughter cells is termed cell cycle

3) Although cell growth (in terms of cytoplasmic increase) is a continuous

process, DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific stage in the cell
cycle

4) The cell cycle events are not under genetic control

104. Which of the labels in the diagram given below are incorrectly
mentioned?

1) A and D only 2) B and C

3) A only 4) A, D, E and F

105. Which is correct for the gynoceium of Liliaceae?

1) Tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary, trilocular with many ovule,
axile placenation

2) Bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary, bilocular, swollen placenta

with many ovule

3) Superior ovary, monocarpellary, unilocular with many ovules

4) Tricarpellary, inferior ovary, sycarpous, trilocular with many ovules,

axile placentation

106. Identifythe stage with correct description

1) Diakinesis - The compaction of chromosomes continues throughout
this stage

2) Diplotene - The beginning of this stage is recognised by the dissolution

of the synaptonemal complex

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3) Leptotene - Chromosomes start pairing together and this process of

association is called synapsis

4) Pachytene- It represents transition to metaphase

107. Select the incorrect match.

1) Ornamental- Tulip, Gloriosa, Lupin, sweet pea,Petunia

2) Medicine- Muliathi, Atropa belladonna, Aloe

3) Fodder- Sesbania, Trifolium

4) Edible oil- Soyabean, Colchicine, groundnut

108. Statement-I: Metaphase is characterised by all the chromosomes coming

to lie at the equator of the cell
Statement-II: Each chromosome in metaphase, metaphase-I and
metaphase-II has four polynucleotide chains
1) statement-I and statement-II both are correct

2) Statement-II and statement-II both are incorrect

3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

109. The number of chromosome pairs at the equatorial plate in metaphase-I

of meiosis in a plant with 2n = 50 shall be
1) 50 2) 25 3) 30 4) 100

110. Read the following statements related to maize seed

a) Seed coat is membranous and generally not fused with fruit wall
b) Endosperm is bulky and store food
c) Outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a aleurone layer
d) The embryo is large and situated in a groove at one end of the
endosperm
e) Embryo consists of scutellum and long axis with a plumule and
radicle
f) The plumule is protected in a sheath called coleoptile and radicle is
protected in a sheath coleorrhiza
How many statements are correct?
1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 6

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111. One of the following structures is not seen in compound spike of Poaceae
members
1) Lodicule 2) Lemma 3) Involucel 4) Palea

112. Which of the following is correct about chilli?

1) Gamosepalous (K), gamopetalous (C), epipetalous stamen, superior
ovary.

2) Gamosepalous (C), stamen five, superior ovary.

3) Gamosepalous (C), polypetalous (K), diadelphous (A), superior ovary.

4) Polyseplous (C), gamopetalous (K), epipetalous stamen, superior ovary.

113. Number of megasporophylls in each flower of Moong, Tobacco, Onion

respectively
1) 1, 2, 3 2) 10, 5, 6 3) 11, 7, 9 4) 5, 5, 6

114. Which of the following statements is not incorrect

1) In the seeds of maize, seed coat is fused with fruit wall

2) Embryo does not include cotyledon

3) Scutellum is apical in position in monocot seed

4) Coleoptile and coleorhiza are found in the seeds of monocots and dicots

115. Select the characters which are not applicable to the family solanaceae?
1. Epipetalous and syngenesious anthers
2. Bicarpellary and syncarpous ovary
3. Oblique ovary with axile placentation
4. Stamens six, arranged in two whorls.
5. Bicarpellary, syncarpous and inferior ovary
1) 2 and 3 2) 1, 4 and 5 3) 2, 4 and 5 4) 1 and 3

116. Which one is correct about bivalent ?

(i) Bivalent are tetrads.
(ii) A bivalent means 4 chromatids and 2 centromere.
(iii) One bivalent consists of 2 homologous chromosomes and sister
chromatids.
(iii) Bivalents form in zygotene.
1) All are correct 2) Only 3 3) 3 and 4 4) Only 4

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117. Choose the correct combination of options to select the correct statement
for prophase
I. Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic
chromosomes
II. The assembly of mitotic spindle is initiated by the microtubules
III. Cells do not show organelles when viewed under the prophase
IV. The nucleolus or nucleoli degenerate completely
1) I only 2) II and III 3) I and II 4) All of these

118. Endospermous, Dicotyledonous seeds are present in

I) Asparagus II) Sem III) Belladona IV) Tulip
1) I, IV 2) I, II, III, IV 3) I, III, IV 4) III only

119. Calculate the DNA content of a meiocyte at the end of the S phase if the
products of meiosis have 5 pg of DNA
1) 10 pg 2) 40 pg 3) 20 pg 4) 30 pg

120. How many of the following belongs to the family Fabaceae? Datura;
Gloriosa; Sesbania; Muliathi; Atropa; Arhar; Withania; Sem; Indigofera
1) 6 2) 5 3) 8 4) 2

121. Choose characteristic features of angiospermic family Solanaceae

a) Alternate, simple leaves without stipules.
b) Valvate aestivation.
c) Swollen placenta with single ovule.
d) Obliquely placed superior ovary.
e) Persistent calyx.
1) a,c,d,e 2) a,b,d,e 3) a, b, d, only 4) b, c, d only

122. The stage of meiosis similar to Anaphase of mitosis is

1) Anaphase-I 2) Metaphase-II 3) Anaphase-II 4) Telophase-I

123. How many copies of each different DNA molecule will be found in a cell
at the beginning of each of these stages of the mitotic cell cycle?
G2 of Interphase Prophase Cytokinesis
A1 1 2
B1 2 1
C2 1 2
D2 2 1

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1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D

124. Select the following plants with two cotyledons in their seed
A) Castor B) Wheat C) Pea D) gram E) Maize
1) A, B, C only 2) A, C, D only
3) B, E only 4) B, D, E only

125. Select the incorrect statement for interkinesis stage

1) Interkinesis stage is present between two meiotic divisions

2) Generally short lived

3) Replication of DNA occurs

4) It is followed by prophase II

126. Which of the following statement (s) is/are not correct?

(i) Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs of a flower.
(ii) Zygomorphic flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any
radial plane.
(iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as bracteate.
(iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after fertilization of the ovary.
(v) In legumes, seed is non-endospermic.
(vi) Radical buds develop on roots.
1) (i) , (ii), (iii) and (iv) 2) (i), (ii) and (v)
3) (iii), (iv) and (vi) 4) (iv), (v) and (i)

127. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.

1) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase.

2) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase.

3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of
prophase.

4) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along

equatorial plate in metaphase

128. How many meiotic division would be required to produce 100 female
gametophytes in an angiosperm?
1) 100 2) 125 3) 25 4) 99

129. DNA of E. coli replicates during

1) S-Phase 2) G1 −Phase 3) G2 − Phase 4) fission

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130. In the beginning of meiosis−II, a cell contain four chromatid. What

number of chromatid is expected to be in each daughter cell at end of
telophase−II
1) 4 2) 2 3) 8 4) 16

131. Which of the following event distinguishes prophase-I of meiosis from

prophase of mitosis?
1) Nuclear membrane breaks down

2) Chromosomes become visible

3) Homologous chromosomes pair up

4) Spindle forms

132. Tetrad of chromosomes & tetrad of cells are formed at the end of
(respectively)
1) Zygotene & meiosis − I 2) Zygotene & meiosis − II
3) Pachytene & meiosis − I 4) Diplotene & meiosis − II

133. Find the correctly matched pairs and choose the correct option
I. Leptotene - The chromosomes become invisible
II. Zygotene - Pairing of homologous chromosomes
III. Pachytene - Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex takes place
IV. Diplotene - Bivalent chromosomes appear as tetrads
V. Diakinesis - Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place
1) I and II 2) II and IV 3) II and V 4) II and III

134. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Members of Fabaceae) (Economic importance)
A. Gram, Sem, moong, soybean I. Medicine
B. Soybean, groundnut II. Ornamental
C. Indigofera III. Fodder
D. Sunhemp IV. Fibres
E. Sesbania, Trifolium V. Dye
F. Lupin, sweet potato VI. Edible oil
G. Muliathi VII. Pulses

1) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV; E − V; F − VI; G − VII

2) A − VII; B − VI; C − V; D − IV; E − III; F − II; G − I

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3) A − II; B − IV; C − VI; D − I; E − III; F − V; G − VII

4) A − I; B − III; C − V; D − VII; E − II; F − IV; G − VI

135. The seed coat has 2 layers, the outer__(a)__and inner__(b)_.The __(c)___is
a scar on the seed coat through which the developing seeds are attached
to the fruit. Above the ___(c)__is a small pore called the ___(d)___
1) (a)-testa;(b)-tegmen;(c)-hilum;(d)-micropyle

2) (a)-tegmen;(b)-testa;(c)-hilum;(d)- micropyle

3) (a)-testa; (b)-tegmen; (c)-micropyle; (d) - hilum

4) (a)-tegmen; (b)-testa; (c) -micropyle; (d)-hilum

ZOOLOGY

136. 'Bundle of His' is a network of

1) muscle fibres that are found distributed all over the walls of heart

2) Nerve fibres that are distributed on the walls of ventricles

3) muscle fibres found only in the wall of ventricle

4) Cord like structures found in the lumen of ventricles

137. Choose the correct sequence of CO2 diffusion

a. Capillary endothelial membrane
b. Capillary basement membrane
c. Thin interstitial space
d. Alveolar epithelial basement membrane
e. Alveolar epithelium
1) a → b → c → d → e 2) b → c → a → e → d

3) d → c → a → b → e 4) c → d → b → a → e

138. The rate of diffusion of gases across alveolar mem­branes is

1) Directly proportional to the thickness of diffusion membranes

2) Directly proportional to the solubility of gas being diffused

3) Inversely proportional to the thickness of diffusion membranes

4) Both (2) and (3)

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139. Read the following statements

(a) Rate of heartbeat is more when AV node operates as pacemaker than
to SA node
(b) Systolic pressure is higher than to diastolic pressure in normal blood
pressure
(c) Right ventricle pumps less volume of blood than to left ventricle
during systole
In the above the correct statements are
1) (a) and (b) 2) (b) only 3) (a) and (c) 4) (c) only

140. Which of the following matches correctly?

1) Inferior vena cava - Receives deoxygenated blood from the head and
body

2) Superior vena cava - Receives deoxygenated blood from the lower body
and organs

3) Pulmonary artery- Carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs

4) Hepatic artery - Carries deoxygenated blood to the gut

141. Respiration in insects is called 'direct' because

1) The cell exchange O2 and CO2 directly with air in network of tubes

2) The tissue exchange O2 and CO2 directly with erythrocytes

3) The tissue exchange O2 and CO2 directly with a carrier protein

Haemoglobin

4) The cell exchange O2 and CO2 directly with the atmospheric air through
moist body wall

142. Given below are four statements regarding human blood vascular
system. Choose the correct statement.
1) There is no role of calcium ions in blood clotting

2) Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one

beat

3) Openings of pulmonary veins are non-valvular.

4) Coronary veins open into left atrium.

143. Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Cardiac output is blood volume pumped by each ventricle
per minute.

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Statement-II : Body has the ability to alter heart rate but not stroke
volume. In the light of the above statements
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are Correct

3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong

4) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct

144. The following blood vessel among mammals carries relatively very large
amount of urea
1) Dorsal aorta 2) Renal vein
3) Hepatic vein 4) Hepatic portal vein

145. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
(a) The volume of blood pumped out by right and left ventricles is same
during each cardiac cycle.
(b) A person whose blood group is O has both A and B antigens on
his/her RBCs.
(c) Blood normally contains 15,000-35,000 platelets mm
−3
of blood.
1) Statements (a) and (b) are correct, (c) is incorrect

2) Only statement (c) is correct

3) Statements (b) and (c) are correct, (a) is incorrect

4) Only statement (a) is correct

146. Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct option.
Statement A: The valves in the heart allow the flow of blood only in one
direction.
Statement B: These heart valves prevent backflow of blood from ventricle
to atria and from aorta and pulmonary artery to ventricles.
1) Both statements A and B are correct

2) Only statement A is correct

3) Both statements A and B are incorrect

4) Only statement B is correct

147. Myogenic heart with incomplete double circulation is found in

1) Crocodilus 2) Chelone 3) Columba 4) Oryctolagus

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148. Which are the three main layers that form the diffusion membrane?
1) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, basement membrane of
bronchioles and basement substance

2) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, endothelium of alveolar capillaries

and the basement substance

3) Basement substance, cuboidal epithelium of alveoli and stratified

epitheliwn of bronchiole

4) Ciliated epithelium of trachea, endothelium of capillaries and

basement substance

149. Pick the odd one with respect to its effect on heart rate
1) Adrenaline 2) Adrenal medullary hormones
3) Acetylcholine 4) Sympathetic nervous system

150. Assertion: Medulla is considered as a respiratory centre in animals.

Reason: Rate of breathing is regulated by medulla because of the
changes in O content of blood.
2

1) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation
of assertion

2) Assertion and reason both are wrong

3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation
of assertion

4) Assertion is true but reason is wrong

151. Select the group of valves that regulate the passage of deoxygenated
blood
1) Pulmonary valve, aortic valve

2) Mitral valve, Tricuspid valve

3) aortic valve, Bicuspid valve

4) Tricuspid valve, pulmonary valve

152. What is correct about human respiration?

1) About 90% of CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin

2) Neural signals from pnemotaxic centre of pons can increase duration of

inspiration

3) Workers in grinding and stone breaking industries may suffer from lung
fibrosis

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4) Cigarette smoking leads to inflammation of trachea

153. What happens when right chordae tendinae are cut off?
1) Deoxygenated blood never flow into pulmonary arch

2) The amount of deoxygenated blood which enters into pulmonary arch

becomes less.

3) The rate of pumping of oxygenaged blood into aortic arch become slower

4) Oxygenated blood starts the back flow in heart

154. Study the following table

A. Character- Colour; Blood- Red; Lymph- Colourless
B. Character- RBC; Blood- Present; Lymph- Absent
C. Character- Abundant cells; Blood- Platelets; Lymph- Lymphocytes
D. Character- Plasma proteins; Blood- Low concentration; Lymph- High
concentration
The correct combinations are
1) B and C 2) C and D 3) B and D 4) A and B

155. Blood pressure in aorta is

1) Same as that in pulmonary artery

2) Less than that in vena cava

3) More than that in pulmonary vein

4) Less than that in carotid artery

156. Statement-I: Due to the action potentials generated by SAN both the
ventricles undergo a simultaneous contraction − the atrial systole
Statement-II: The atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the
ventricles by about 30%
1) Both the statements I and II are incorrect

2) Both the statements I and II are correct

3) Only the statement I is incorrect

4) Only the statement II is incorrect

157. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)Lymphatic system collects tissue fluid/interstitial fluid and drains it
back to the major veins.

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b)Interstitial fluid (tissue fluid) and lymph have almost similar

composition.
c)Lymph and interstitial fluid have no large proteins and RBCs.
d)Exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and cells always
occurs through tissue fluid.
e)Interstitial fluid has the same mineral distribution as that in plasma.
f)Lymph can be defined as blood minus RBC but has specialised
lymphocytes
1) All of these 2) Only (c) and (d)
3) (e) and (f) 4) (a), (c) and (d)

158. Calculate the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 6 L , blood
volume in the ventricle at the end of diastole is 150 mL and at the end of
ventricular systole is 75 mL . Choose the correct option from the
following.
1) 80 beats per minute

2) 100 beats per minute

3) 75 beats per minute

4) 72 beats per minute

159. Match the items in column I with those in column II and choose the
correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(a) P wave (p) Ventricular depolarisation
(b) QRS complex (q) Ventricular repolarisation
(c) T wave (r) Isoelectric period
(d) S-T segment (s) Atrial depolarisation

1) a − r; b − q; c − p; d − s 2) a − r; b − s; c − p; d − p

3) a − s; b − p; c − q; d − r 4) a − p; b − q; c − r; d − s

160.

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Select the correctly explained one from the above diagram of schematic
plan of blood circulation in human
1) D − Dorsal aorta with systolic pressure 120 mm Hg

2) B − Superior vena cava collects blood from posterior parts

3) C − Single cell thickness blood capillaries

4) A − Blood vessel without valves and no oxygen in blood.

161. Why is CO poisonous for man?

1) CO affects the nerves of the lungs

2) CO affects the diaphragm and intercostal muscles

3) CO reacts with oxygen reducing percentage of O2 in air

4) Haemoglobin combines with CO instead of O2 and the product cannot

dissociate

162. Match the following

List I List II
(a) Cardiac (i) Myocardial
arrest infarction
(b) Heart (ii) Acute chest
failure pain
(c) Angina (iii)Loss of
pectoris pumping
efficiency of
the heart
(d) Heart (iv) Sudden
attack stoppage of
heartbeat

1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) 4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

163. Assertion (A): Ventricular filling begins in joint diastole.

Reason (R): Decline in ventricular pressure causes closure of semilunar
valves in joint diastole.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.

2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion

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3) Assertion is true but reason is false

4) Both the assertion and reason are false

164. Maximum pressure of blood is experienced

1) When blood enters from left atrium to aorta

2) When blood enters from right atrium to aorta

3) When blood enters from left ventricle to aorta

4) When blood enters from right ventricle to aorta

165. Select the time interval between the closure of atrioventricular valves
and semilunar valves under normal physiological conditions in an adult
human.
1) 0.1 s 2) 0.5 s 3) 0.4 s 4) 0.3 s

166. The primary function of pulmonary circulation in human is oxygenation

of blood. This pathway does not include
1) right ventricle 2) left atrium
3) pulmonary aorta 4) left ventricle

167. Given below are four statements (a)−(d) regarding human blood
circulatory system:
a)Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins.
b)Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circu­lation to the brain is
reduced.
c)Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any
blood group under ABO system.
d)Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting.
Which two of the above statements are correct?
1) (a) and (d) 2) (a) and (b) 3) (b) and (c) 4) (c) and (d)

168. Read the given statements carefully

A. Chordate tendineae of the bicuspid valve prevents backflow of blood
from fet ventricle into left atrium.
B. Impulse travels from SAN to bundle f His through AV node and then
to heart muscles through purkinje fibres.
C. Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to
veins. How many of the above statements are correct w.r.t. circulatory
system of humans?
1) One 2) Three 3) Two 4) Zero

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169. Read the following statements.

a)Lymph absorbs and transports fat from the intestine.
b)Lymph nodes produce fibrinogen.
c)Lymphatic capillaries present in the intestinal villi are known as
lacteals.
d)Lymph transports oxygen only.
Which of the above statements are true?
1) (a) and (c) 2) (b) and (d) 3) (c) and (d) 4) (a) and (b)

170. Read the following statements :

Statement (I) : Cardiac muscle tissue is involuntary in nature
eventhough it is striated based on appearance.
Statement (II) : A special neural centre in the medulla oblangata can
moderate the cardiac function through autonomic nervous system.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are Correct

3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong

4) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct

171. Select the total number of organisms from the following which respire
through their body surface.
(Sycon, Spongilla, Admsia, Taenia, Laccifer, Pila, Antedon, Gorgonia,
Jelly fish)
1) Four 2) Five 3) Six 4) Eight

172. In an ECG, the depolarization and repolarization of ventricles are

represented respectively as
1) P-wave and QRS complex 2) QRS complex and T-wave

3) T-wave and U-wave 4) P wave and U-wave

173. Figure shows the schematic plant of blood circulation in humans with
labels A to D. Identify the label a give its function/s.

1) A - Pulmonary vein - takes impure blood from body parts, pO 2 = 60 mm

Hg

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2) B - Pulmonary artery - takes blood from heart to lungs pO2 = 90 mm Hg

3) C - Vena Cava - takes blood from body parts to right auricle, pCO2 = 45
mm Hg

4) D - Dorsal aorta - takes blood from heart body parts, pO2 = 95 mm Hg

174. The ventricular pressure declines during a phase of cardiac cycle. Which
of the following does not occur during that phase?
1) Closure of AV - valves 2) Closure of semilunar valves
3) Ventricular filling 4) Opening of AV - valves

175. Alveoli do not collapse even after forceful expiration because

1) Positive intrapleural pressure prevents exhalation of residual volume

2) Negative intrapleural pressure prevents exhalation of expiratory reserve

volume

3) Negative intrapleural pressure prevents exhalation of residual volume

4) Positive intrapleural pressure prevents exhalation of tidal volume

176. Duration of inhalation is shortened by impulses form

1) Dorsal respiratory group of respiratory rhythm centre

2) Apneustic centre

3) Pneumotaxic centre

4) Thirst centre

177. Statement - I : Strength of ventricular contraction is increased by

sympathetic division of ANS.
Statement - II : Cardiac output is increased by catecholamines.
1) Both statement I and II are correct

2) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct

3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect

4) Both statement I and II are wrong

178. I : Heart is auto excitable

II : Heart function can be moderate by itself without involvement of
hormonal mechanism
III : The pulmonary circulation starts from right ventricle
IV : All veins carry deoxygenated blood to right atrium

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V : Stroke volume = Cardiac output plus heart rate.

Which statements are correct from the above.
1) I, II, III 2) I and III 3) II, IV, V 4) I and V

179. How many of the following statements are wrong?

a)In human heart the atrium and ventricle of same side are separated by
a thick fibrous tissue called atrio − ventricular septum.
b)Heart is situated between the two lungs in the thoracic cavity.
c)When sino-atrial node gets affected, atrio­ventricular node takes over
its functions and starts producing action potentials at the rate of
−1
70 − 75 min

d)Purkinje fibres are modified nerve fibres

1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four

180. During ventricular systole

1) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is
pumped into the pulmonary artery

2) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and

deoxygenated blood is pumped into the artery

3) Oxygenated blood is pumped into aorta and deoxygenated blood is

pumped into pulmonary vein

4) Oxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary vein and deoxygenated

blood is pumped into pulmonary artery

Paper Setter Created Date & Time

HYD-NSPIRA-RO 6254 18-06-2025 12:54:52 PM

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