Solutions to

NCERT PRACTICE WORKBOOK

SCIENCE
For Class VIII

GOYAL BROTHERS PRAKASHAN

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 1
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2 Solution Book
 C O N T E N TS

1. Crop Production and Management 4

2. Microorganisms : Friend and Foe 16
3. Synthetic Fibres and Plastics 26
4. Materials : Metals and Non-Metals 37

Periodic Test – 1 47
5. Coal and Petroleum 51
6. Combustion and Flame 61
7. Conservation of Plants and Animals 71
8. Cell-Structure and Functions 83
9. Reproduction in Animals 93
  Periodic Test – 2 104
  Model Test Paper 1 108
10. Reaching the Age of Adolescence 116
11. Force and Pressure 126
12. Friction 135
13. Sound 144
  Periodic Test – 3 153
14. Chemical Effects of Electric Current 158
15. Some Natural Phenomena 168
16. Light 177
17. Stars and the Solar System 186
18. Pollution of Air and Water 196
  Periodic Test – 4 206
  Model Test Paper 2 212
 Crop Production and
1 Management

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. The plants of the same kind grown and cultivated at one
place are called a
(a) nursery (b) crop (c) forest
Ans. (b) nursery
2. Agriculture is the cultivation of
(a) Fruit and vegetable (b) Rice and wheat
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b)
3. Which of the following is a Rabi crop?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Maize
Ans. (b) Wheat
4. The process of putting the seeds in the soil is called
(a) Ploughing (b) Sowing (c) Winnowing
Ans. (b) Sowing
5. The small plants that develop after the germination of the
seeds are called
(a) Herbs (b) Nursery (c) Plantlets
Ans. (c) Plantlets
6. Which one of the following is not an organic substance?
(a) Fertiliser (b) Manure (c) Compost
Ans. (a) Fertiliser
B. Match the items in column A with those in column B :
Column A Column B
1. Gram (a) Compost
2. The product obtained from a crop (b) Combine
3. Manure obtained by the decomposition (c) Leguminous
of dead plant and animal plants

4 Solution Book
 4. Machine used for harvesting and (d) Grains
threshing
5. Storage bins are used for safe storage of (e) Rabi crop
6. The association between nitrogen fixing (f) Produce
bacteria and root nodules of plants is
seen in
Ans. 1. (e) 2. (f) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c)
C. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given
below :
1. Agriculture includes the cultivation of land, and breeding and
management of crops and animals.
2. Rabi season crops are sown in the beginning of winter and
harvested by March or April.
3. Ploughing aerates the soil and improves soil drainage.
4. A seed drill is used for planting some of the crops like potato.
5. Transplanting is helpful in selecting healthy seedlings and
increasing crop yield.
6. Rice crop requires standing water in the field.
Ans. 1. True 2. True 3. True
4. True 5. False 6. True
D. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:
1. Sickle is used for manual harvesting of crops.
2. The tools used in agricultural practices are called agricultural
implements.
3. Mustard, gram, pea, etc., are rabi crops.
4. Paddy and maize are kharif crops.
5. Watering of the crop field is called irrigation.
6. Seed drill is used for sowing seeds.

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Give a term for the process of removal of weeds.
Ans. The process of removal of weeds is called weeding.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 5

 2. Which agricultural implement is used for harvesting?
Ans. Harvester is used for harvesting.
3. Where are the foodgrains stored on a large scale?
Ans. On a large scale, foodgrains are stored in silos and granaries.
4. What is removed from the chaff during winnowing?
Ans. Grains are removed from the chaff during winnowing.
5. Which one, manure or fertilizer will you use in case of poor
quality of soil?
Ans. Manure
6. Name two methods of traditional type of irrigation.
Ans. Two methods of traditional type of irrigation are dhekli
and rahat.
7. Which machine is used for a combined work of harvester
and thresher?
Ans. “Combine” is used for both harvesting and threshing.
8. Name two harvest festivals of India.
Ans. Pongal and baisakhi are two harvest festivals of India.
9. Which vitamin is found in cod liver oil?
Ans. Cod liver oil is rich in Vitamin D.
10. Give two examples of winter crops.
Ans. Pea and Mustard are two Winter crops.
11. Which crop needs standing water?
Ans. Rice (Paddy) needs standing water.
12. Name the irrigation system which provides water drop by
drop to the plants.
Ans. Drip system provides water drop by drop to the plants.
13. Name the first agricultural activity for crop production.
Ans. First agricultural activity for crop production is preparation
of soil.
14. Which agricultural implement is used to turn over and breakup
the soil.
Ans. Plough is used to turn over and break up the soil.
15. Give a reason for using manure in place of fertilisers.
Ans. Manure enhances the water holding capacity.

6 Solution Book
 16. List the food products which we get from animals.
Ans. Milk and other milk products, eggs, meat etc.
17. Give one benefit of ploughing the soil.
Ans. Ploughing of soil helps in bringing nutrient rich soil to the
top.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. Define the term ‘Agricultural implements’.
Ans. The term agricultural implements refer to the equipments,
tools and machines used for agriculture. For e.g., “Combine”
is used for harvesting and threshing.
2. What do you understand by the term ‘agriculture’? Give few
examples of crop plants.
Ans. Agriculture refers to the practice of farming which may include
cultivation of land along with growing crops and the rearing
of animals in order to provide food, and other products. Rice,
wheat, gram are some examples of crop plants.
3. Give the name of the two crop seasons. Give examples of
different crops grown in different crop seasons.
Ans. The two crop seasons are :
(i) Rainy crop season (khariff crop) e.g., paddy, maize,
soyabean etc.
(ii) Winter crop season (Rabi crop) e.g., gram, pea mustard
etc.
4. What are weeds? List the different ways of crop protection
from weeds.
Ans. The undesirable plants that may grow naturally along with the
crop are known as weeds. Different ways of protecting crops
from weeds include tilling, manual removal and weedicide
spraying.
5. Define the term irrigation. List different methods of irrigation.
Ans. The supply of water to crops at different intervals is called
irrigation. Different methods of irrigation are (i) Traditional
methods e.g., moat, chain pump, dhekli and rahat (ii) Modern
methods e.g., sprinkler system and drip system.
6. Write examples of few milk giving animals.
Ans. Some examples of milk giving animals are cow, buffalo, goat,
camel, yak, horse etc.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 7
 7. Write names of different agricultural implements used in
agricultural practices.
Ans. Different agricultural implements used in agricultural practices
are plough, hoe, cultivator, seed drill.
8. Differentiate between manure and fertilisers.
Manure Fertiliser
1. It is an organic substance 1. I t i s a n i n o r g a n i c
obtained from natural chemical.
residues
2. It can improve the 2. It does not improves the
texture and quality of soil. texture and quality of soil.
3. Less rich in nutrients 3. Very rich in nutrients
(NPK)
9. When we put some seeds in water in a vessel, some of them
sink in bottom while some others float on the top. Give the
reason for both the types.
Ans. The damaged seeds, become hollow and are lighter in weight.
Thus, when some seeds are poured in water the damaged ones
being lighter float on water while the healthier one’s Sink.
10. Differentiate between threshing and winnowing.
Threshing Winnowing
1. It is carried out in It is carried out in winnowing
“Combine” machine.
2. Adopted by farmers with Adopted by farmers with
larger lands. small holding of land.
11. Draw the diagram of a plough.

12. Give one use of each one — Sickle, Hoe, Silos.

Ans. Sickle – It may be used for harvesting
Hoe – It is a simple tool used for removing weeds and
loosening of soil.
Silos – large scale storage of grains is done in silos.

8 Solution Book
C. Long answer type questions :
1. Why should we remove weeds from the crop fields? How
can we control the weeds?
Ans. Weeds are the undesirable plants that grow along with the
crops. These plants compete with the crop plants for water,
nutrients. Space and light affecting the growth of the crop.
Weed also interfere in harvesting and can also be poisonous
for animals and plants. Thus, farmers must remove weeds from
the crops fields. Weeds can be controlled by using chemicals
called weedicides (e.g., 2, 4 – D) to kill the weeds.
2. Describe two methods of irrigation which conserve water.
Ans. The two methods of irrigation that conserve water are:
(i) Sprinkler system : In this system main pipeline is
connected to perpendicular pipes with rotating nozzles
on top. When water is allowed to flow, it gets sprinkled
on the crop.
(ii) Drip system : The system provides water to plants drop
by drop just at the position of their roots. This method
is a boon in regions where water availability is poor.
3. What is crop? Explain the two main crop seasons giving
examples.
Ans. A crop refers to the plants of same kind grown and cultivated
at one place on a large scale. The two main crop seasons include.
(i) Khariff crop season – It starts from june and ends in
September. Paddy, maize, soyabean etc. are khariff crops.
(ii) Rabi crop season – It starts from October and ends in
March. Wheat gram, pea are rabi crops.
4. Look at the given pictures. Write about the functions of each one.
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 9

 Ans. (a) Plough : It is used for turning and loosening of the soil
(b) Seed drill : This tool sows the seeds at proper depth and
distance.
(c) Moat system of irrigation : This is a traditional way of
watering plants.
(d) Winnowing machine : Separation of grain and chaff is
done by winnowing machine.
5. Give a brief account of storage of grains.
Ans. Storage of grains is an important task especially when grains
are to be kept for a longer period. Grains should be safe from
moisture, insects, rats and microbes. Before storage, grains
are first dried in sun to avoid their spoilage and microbial
attack. Farmers store grains in jute bags or metallic bins.
Large scale storage of grains is done in silos and granaries.
6. Why do the farmers add manure or fertilisers to the soil of
crop fields? Give advantages of manure.
Ans. Continue growing of crops in a field makes the soil poorer
in certain nutrients. Thus, to replenish the soil with nutrients
farmers add manure or fertilisers to the fields. Manure enhances
the water holding capacity of soil, increases the number of
friendly microbes in soil and also improves the texture of soil.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. Why are some food items stored in cold stores while others
are stored in normal places? [HOTS]
Ans. Some food items which have moisture in them are generally
perishable for microbes. Thus, to avoid the growth of microbes
on them, they are stored in cold stores. On the other hand,
food items with relatively less moisture content, cannot be
attacked by microbes easily. Hence, stored in normal places.
2. Which types of bad impacts of fertilizers are observed on
crops? [HOTS]
Ans. Fertilisers are chemical substances that increase the yield of
crops. Excessive use of fertilizers makes the soil less fertile.
They can also become source of water pollution when they
enter rivers, ponds etc. as surface run-off.
3. Priya went to a farmhouse. In the farmhouse, the farmers were
using drip system to water the plants. She enquired from the
farmers about the drip system and was quite impressed to
10 Solution Book
 learn that in this method water is not wasted at all and it is
of great advantage in regions of poor water availability. Later
when she went to her village, she advised the farmers to use
the drip system of irrigation. [Value Based Question]
Based on the above information answer the following questions:
(a) Why is drip system a good method of irrigation?
Ans. Drip system is a good method of irrigation because
(i) It provides water at the position of their roots
where water is required the most.
(ii) It ensures no wastage of water.
(b) What is the message that you get from Priya’s action?
Ans. Priya’s action shows us that we must be aware of our
surroundings and must employ methods that are advantageous
for us.
(c) Which system of watering the plants is followed in your
school garden? What is your suggestion?
Ans. Hint : Students can talk to the gardener and ask them, how
they provide water to the plants. You must suggest them to
use ways that can save the water.
4. Visit some fields in which different types of plants are
being grown. Ask the farmers why do they grow different
plants in different fields? And ask about the differences in
cropping pattern and irrigation methods. Note down the useful
points. [Project Based Question]
Ans. Hint : Students can visit the nearby fields or gardens and talk
to the farmers. Different plants are grown in different fields
because the mineral nutrient requirement of every plant is
different and they require different kind of soil.
5. Visit your village and talk to the farmers about the agricultural
equipments they adopted and prepare a report on the
information you get from them. [Project Based Question]
Ans. Students must provide details about plough, hoe, cultivators,
sickle, seed drill etc.
6. The agricultural scientists have developed disease-resistant
varieties of wheat and some other cereals. They also promoted
a new technique for their cultivation. Find out more about
work of agricultural scientists on new varieties of seeds and
new techniques of cultivation which are helpful to increase
production of crop enormously. [Activity Based Question]

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 11

 Ans. Students can either talk to their teachers or search or internet.
They must provide details of Dr. M.S. Swaminathan and
hybridization technique to raise disease-resistant varieties of
wheat and other cereals.
7. Visit a nearby village and collect information on
(i) name of crops grown. [Activity Based Question]
(ii) time of growth and harvest.
(iii) irrigation process.
(iv) kind of fertilizers and manures used.
(v) methods of storage of grains.
Ans. While visiting the village students must observe the plants
growing in the village. They must enquire from the farmers
that in which season the plants are sown and harvested.
They should also see how the crops are watered and whether
fertilisers or manure used in fields.
Olympiad Based Questions
1. Which term is used to describe the science or practice of
growing crops along with rearing of animals to provide food,
wool and other products?
(a) Animal husbandry (b) Nursery
(c) Agriculture (d) Horticulture
Ans. (c) Agriculture
2. Fill in the blanks with suitable word :
Ploughing

Levelling

Irrigation

Sowing seeds
(a) Broadcasting the seeds (b) Manuring
(c) Drilling (d) Transplanting
Ans. (b) Manuring
12 Solution Book
 3. Process of transferring and combining of desirable characteristic
features into plants and multiply them.
(a) Eugenics (b) Genetic engineering
(c) Plant breeding (d) Crop improvement
Ans. (c) Plant breeding
4. Which of these parts of a plant contain the nitrogen fixing
bacterias in legumes?
(a) Leaves (b) Flowers
(c) Root nodules (d) Stems
Ans. (c) Root nodules
5. Which of the following is considered to be modern technology
in agriculture?
(a) Genetic engineering (b) Synthetic chemicals
(c) Agromachinery (d) All of the above
Ans. (a) Agromachinery
6. Which method of cultivation will reduce soil fertility?
(a) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers
(b) Shifting cultivation
(c) Crop rotation
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d) Both (a) and (b)
7. Which of the following crops requires most irrigation?
(a) Rice (b) Maize
(c) Jowar (d) Pulses
Ans. (a) Rice
8. Which crop enriches the soil with nitrogen?
(a) Pea (b) Potato
(c) Pumpkin (d) Wheat
Ans. (a) Pea

Practical work

Investigation – 1

Aim : To select the healthy seeds for sowing.

Materials Required : Beaker, wheat seeds, water.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 13
Procedure :
1. Take a beaker filled with water.
2. Put some wheat grains in the beaker.
3. Leave them untouched for sometime, then
observe and conclude.
Observation : After sometime, some seeds will
float in the water while other will sink.
Conclusion and Explanation : Damaged seeds
become porous and thus lighter in weight. This makes them float in the
water. On the other hand, healthy seeds sink in the water.

Investigation – 2

Aim : To show the importance of right depth and right distance

between the seeds to grow.
Materials Required : 3 wide pots, kidney bean seeds, fertile soil.
Procedure :
1. Take three wide pots. Label A, B and C.
2. Put fertile soil in all the pots.
3. Take pot A and sow
seeds very close
to each other at a
depth of 6 cm. A B C

4. In pot B, sow seeds

at a distance of ½ cm from each other at a depth of 1 cm.
5. In pot C, sow seeds at a distance of 5 cm from each other and
at a depth of 3 cm.
6. Water them regularly and keep them in proper sunlight.
Observation : We can observe that in pot c plant growth is more
as compared to pot B and pot. In pot A, growth of plants is minimal.
Conclusion and Explanation : This experiment shows that
an appropriate distance between the seeds is important. It avoids
overcrowding of plants and thus all plants can get sufficient sunlight,
nutrients and water from the soil. This is why, in pot C growth is
maximum.

14 Solution Book
 Investigation – 3

Aim : To study the effect of manure and fertiliser on plant growth.

Materials Required : Moong seeds, soil, 3 plastic glasses, cow
dung manure, urea, water, petridish, blotting paper.
Procedure :
1. Take a petri dish and put a wet blotting paper in it.
2. Place the moong seeds in the petri dish, cover it and keep it
aside.
3. After one or two days
seedlings germinate from
the seeds. Select some A B C
equal size seedlings out of
these.
4. Take 3 empty glasses and add little amount of soil in the
following ways :
— Soil mixed with cow dung manure in A.
— Same amount of soil mixed with urea in B.
— Only soil in glass C.
5. Now plant equal number of seedlings in each glass. Water
them regularly.
6. Keep them in sunlight and observe their growth for 7-10
days.
Observation : After some day, we will see that in pot A the growth
of plant is fair, in pot B growth is high whereas in Pot C plant growth
is minimal
Conclusion and Explanation : Fertilizers being chemical
substances are rich in particular nutrient. This help the farmers to get
better yield of crop. On the other hand, Manures are relatively less rich
in plant nutrients. Thus, they do not cause a very high plant growth.
However, manure improves the quality of the soil as compared to
fertilizers.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 15

 2 Microorganisms : Friend and Foe

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. Which of the following is the smallest of all microorganisms?
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi (c) Protozoa
Ans. (a) Bacteria
2. Which of the following lacks a cellular structure?
(a) Bacteria (b) Protozoa (c) Viruses
Ans. (c) Viruses
3. Alexander Fleming is known for the discovery of
(a) Bacteria (b) Tetanus disease (c) Penicillin
Ans. (c) Penicillin
4. Which of the following is responsible for causing malaria?
(a) Plasmodium (b) Mosquito (c) Bacteria
Ans. (a) Plasmodium
5. The bacteria which is found in the root nodules of leguminous
plants is
(a) Bacillus (b) Rhizobium (c) Pseudomonas
Ans. (b) Rhizobium
6. Which of the following bacteria is responsible for the formation
of curd from milk?
(a) Acetobacter (b) Lactobacillus (c) Bacillus
Ans. (b) Lactobacillus
7. Which of the following is used in antibiotic formation?
(a) Ustilago (b) Puccinia (c) Penicillium
Ans. (c) Penicillium
B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:
1. Disease causing microorganisms are called pathogens.
2. Rhizobium is the bacterium living in root nodules of some
plants.
3. Yeasts are fungi.
16 Solution Book
 4. Blue-green algae increase the soil fertility.
5. Chlamydomonas is a unicellular alga.
6. Smallpox is a viral disease.
7. Bacteria cause food poisoning.

C. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given

below :
1. Louis Pasteur discovered that fermentation is caused by yeast.
2. Bacteria are not found in desert and saline water.
3. Typhoid is a bacterial disease.
4. Polio drops are antibiotics.
5. Cholera, chicken pox and common cold are communicable
diseases.
Ans. 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Write the name of two diseases caused by bacteria.
Ans. Tuberculosis and cholera are caused by bacteria
2. Name two food items prepared by using yeast.
Ans. Breads and pastries can be prepared using yeast.
3. Give two examples of unicellular fungi.
Ans. Yeast and Candida
4. Give two examples of disease causing bacteria.
Ans. Salmonella typhi and Vibrio Cholerae
5. Name the chemical, used to check the microbial growth in
food.
Ans. Sodium benzoate
6. Which food item is stored by pasteurization?
Ans. Milk is stored by pasteurization.
7. Who discovered the bacterium that causes anthrax disease?
Ans. Robert Koch discovered the bacterium that causes anthrax disease.
8. Through which sources the pathogens enter our body?
Ans. Pathogen enters our body via air, water and food items.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 17

 9. Name a common carrier of communicable diseases.
Ans. Mosquitoes are common carrier of communicable diseases.
10. What makes the bread or idli dough rise?
Ans. CO2 gas produced by yeast makes the bread or idli dough rise.
11. Name two food items which are preserved by chemical method.
Ans. Jams and pickles are preserved by chemical method.
12. What is used to preserve jam and jellies?
Ans. Sugar is used to preserve jam, jellies and squashes.
13. Where do we find the bacterium, Rhizobium?
Ans. Rhizobium is found in the root nodules of legumes.
14. Name an antibiotic which is obtained from fungi.
Ans. Penicillin is obtained from Penicllium notatum.
15. Name two food items which are preserved by using oil and
vinegar.
Ans. Pickles, vegetables, fruits, fish and meat are preserved by oil
and vinegar.
16. Which communicable disease is spread by housefly?
Ans. Typhoid is spread by housefly.
17. Which disease is spread by female Anopheles mosquito?
Ans. Malaria spreads by female Anopheles mosquito.
18. Who discovered the vaccine for smallpox?
Ans. Edward Jenner discovered the vaccine for small pox.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. What are microorganisms?
Ans. Living organisms which we cannot see with our eyes alone
are called microorganisms or microbes. These can be seen
with the help or microscope.
2. What happens to dough when you add a small amount of
yeast powder to it?
Ans. When we add yeast to dough, the yeast start reproducing rapidly
in the dough producing carbon dioxide through respiration.
Bubbles of the gas fill the dough and increases its volume.
Thus, the dough rises.
3. How do the vaccines protect children from diseases?
Ans. Vaccines are dead or weakened microbes which when injected

18 Solution Book
 into the body induces the production of antibodies to fight
and kill the microbe. These antibodies remain in the body and
provide protection upon subsequent entries of that microbe
again.
4. Atmospheric nitrogen cannot be taken directly from atmosphere
by plant, but it is an essential component. How do they take
nitrogen?
Ans. The atmospheric nitrogen cannot be taken directly by plants
and animals. There are certain bacteria and blue green alga in
the soil which fix nitrogen from the atmosphere and convert
it into nitrogen compounds that can be utilised by plants.
5. Why should we not let the water collect anywhere in our
neighbourhood?
Ans. We should not let the water collect anywhere in our
neighbourhood because it acts as the breeding site for
mosquitoes which are carriers of communicable diseases.
6. How does some food become poisonous? Explain in short.
Ans. Food become poisonous when it gets spoilt by some
microorganisms. These microorganisms produce toxic
substances in our food making it poisonous.
7. List the harmful effects of bacteria.
Ans. Bacteria causes disease in humans, animals and in plants for
e.g., tuberculosis, cholera, typhoid are human diseases caused
by bacteria, citrus canker is a plant disease caused by bacteria
and anthrax is a cattle disease caused by bacteria.
8. Give a list of common diseases caused by microorganisms
to humAns. Mention the type of pathogenic microorganisms
also.
Ans. The common human diseases caused by micro-organisms
are Tuberculosis–bacteria, measles–virus, chicken pox–virus,
polio–virus, cholera–bacteria, typhoid–bacteria hepatitis B–
virus, Malaria–protozoa etc.
9. Why should we keep a handkerchief on the nose and mouth
while sneezing?
Ans. The droplets of nose and mouth consists of a number of
micro-organisms. These micro-organism may enter air during
sneezing and can cause diseases to other individuals also.
Thus, we should keep a handkerchief on the nose and mouth.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 19
 10. What is pasteurization? Who discovered this process?
Ans. To prevent the growth of microbes in milk, the milk is heated
to about 70°C for 15 to 30 seconds and then suddenly cooled
and stored. This process is called pasteurization. It was
discovered by Louis Pasteur.
11. Define the term ‘carrier’. Name some common carriers of
disease causing microbes.
Ans. Carriers are some insects or animals which carry the disease
causing pathogen from one organism or individual to another.
For examples, Anopheles mosquito is carrier of malaria and
Aedes mosquito is carrier of dengue.
12. Why should we preserve food?
Ans. If we do not preserve our food, then it gets attacked by
microbes which spoil the food. Spoiled food emits bad smell
as well as bad taste. It can be dangerous for our health too.
Thus, we must preserve our food.
13. What are antibiotics? Who discovered antibiotics?
Ans. The medicines or chemicals that are prepared using other
micro-organisms to stop the growth of other micro-organisms
are called antibiotics. Alexander fleming discovered the
antibiotic pencillin from mould penicilium notatum.
14. How are dry fruits or dry food items stored?
Ans. Dry fruits or dry food items can be stored in sealed air tight
packets to prevent the attack of microbes.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. What are communicable diseases? How will you prevent the
spread of communicable diseases?
Ans. Microbial diseases which spreads from an infected person to
a healthy person via air, water, food or physical contact are
called communicable diseases. We can prevent their spread
by
(i) Keeping handkerchief on nose and mouth while sneezing.
(ii) Keeping distance from infected person.
(iii) Keeping the surroundings clean and dry.
(iv) not letting water to collect anywhere.
2. Give a brief account of various methods of food preservation.
Ans. Various methods of food preservation are as follows :
20 Solution Book
 Chemical method : Chemicals such as sodium benzoate and

sodium metabisulphite are used to preserve jams, squashes etc.,
salt is used for preserving meat, fish, amla, raw mangoes etc.
Sugar is used to preserve jams, jellies, squashes. It reduce the
moisture and inhibits the growth of bacteria oil and vinegar
are also used to preserve, vegetables, fruits, fishes etc.
3. What is vaccine? Why is vaccination necessary for children?
List the name of some important vaccines.
Ans. A vaccine is a solution of dead or weakened microbes.
Vaccination is necessary for children because it induces the
antibodies in them against diseases. It activates the immune
system of a child. Some common examples of vaccines are
DPT against diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus, BCG against
tuberculosis, Salk’s vaccine against polio and Tab vaccine
against typhoid etc.
4. Explain the beneficial role of microorganisms in the field of
food industry.
Ans. In food industry, micro-organisms are used for the preparation
of curd, bread, pastries, cakes etc. Cord is made from milk
with the help of a bacterium called Lactobacillus. It multiplies
in milk and converts it into curd. Bacteria are also involved in
making of cheese, pickles etc. Yeast is used to make breads.
It reproduces and respires in dough and cause it to rise which
is important for the making of breads, pastries and cakes.
5. Draw the diagrams of four unicellular micro organisms, one
from each group.
Ans.

Amoeba Chlamydomonas Rod shaped bacteria Yeast cells

D. Some other types of questions :

1. Why are protozoans known as an important link for aquatic
food chains? [HOTS]
Ans. In an aquatic food chain, protozoans feed upon small algae and
bacteria and are in turn fed by small insects. In the absence
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 21
 of protozoa, algae increases in number causing the sunlight
to not reach the lower layer. Also, the number of small insect
decreases in the absence of food. Thus, the balance is disrupted
in the food chain. Therefore protozoans are an important link
for aquatic food chain.
2. Most of the preservatives are chemicals we use them in our
foods to preserve why? [HOTS]
Ans. Most of the preservatives are chemicals. However, these
chemicals prevent the growth of microbes in the food, leaving
the food unaffected. Thus, we use them to preserve our food.
3. Aadesh observed his grandma preparing mango pickle at
home. She put cut pieces of unripe mango in three jars and
then added a lot of salt and oil to the jars. Then, she kept
the jars in the sun. After a few days, his grandma declared
that the pickle was ready to use. Adesh went to see the jars.
In one of the jars he found that there was some growth of
microbes. He showed the jar to his grandma, who removed
that jar from the others and threw away the contents.
[Value Based Question]
Based on the above information answer the following questions:
(a) What would have happened if the contents of the jar
which had microbial growth were consumed?
Ans. Consumption of food contaminated by microbes can cause food
poisoning. Thus, if the contents of the jar having microbial
growth were consumed, it may cause food poisoning.
(b) What values are displayed by Adesh in taking such
initiative?
Ans. Aadesh is aware of the happenings in his surroundings He
is aware of the consequences of consumption of spoilt. He
is also concerned about his family.
(c) Why are salt and oil added to the mango pickles?
Ans. Salt and oil act as food preservatives. When added to mango
pickle, they stop or check the growth of micro-organisms in
pickle.
4. The United Nation has declared that 74 countries have been
affected from swine flu. Make a report on the history, causes,
mode of transmission and preventive measures of swine
flu. [Project Based Question]

22 Solution Book
 Ans. Swine flu is a disease of pigs which can also be passed to
humAns. It is a respiratory disease caused by HINI virus. In
2009 swine flue outbroke and infected humAns. Swine flu
transmits in humans through contact with infected pigs and
humAns. Its main symptoms are body aches, chills, cough,
headache etc. It can be controlled by limiting contact with
other people, covering mouth, nose while sneezing etc.
5. During the process of fermentation yeast converts glucose into
alcohol and CO2. The CO2 released causes the dough to rise
in case of bread and idlis making them fluffy. Find out how
fermentation is used on large scale and list some commercial
productions in which fermentation is applied.
[Activity Based Question]
Ans. On a large scale, fermentation is done in big tanks called
bioreactors. Fermentation is required for alcohol production,
wine production and organic acids production.
6. Several diseases such as smallpox have been eradicated
completely by vaccination. Several vaccines are given in
childhood to prevent diseases such as measles, cholera,
hepatitis, mumps, etc.
Visit a nearby vaccination centre and collect information about
kinds of vaccinations, their appropriate time period and their
fruitful results in modern time. [Activity Based Question]
Ans. The main vaccines that are given to include BCG, OPV and
hepatitis B1 given at birth, DPT, Rotavirus, Hepatitis B2 at
6 weeks, DPT2, Rotavirus 2 when the child is 10 weeks old,
PCV, Hib3, when child is 14 weeks old, MMR, OPV when
child is of a month. In modern times, vaccination is very
important because, pollution is increasing day by day and so
the danger.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. Name the process that occurs when yeast is added to apple
juice and left for a week?
(a) Distillation (b) Fermentation
(c) Oxidation (d) Decomposition
Ans. (b) Fermentation

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 23

 2. Which of the following bacteria causes cholera?
(a) Streptococcus (b) Vibrio
(c) Pasteurcella (d) Clostridium
Ans. (b) Vibrio
3. Which of the following is called pond silk?
(a) Volvox (b) Euglena
(c) Spirogyra (d) Chlamydomonas
Ans. (c) Spirogyra
4. What do we call microorganisms that cause diseases?
(a) Antigens (b) Vectors
(c) Antibodies (d) Pathogens
Ans. (d) Pathogens
5. Which of the following is a bacteriophage?
(a) Algae (b) Fungi
(c) Protozoa (d) Virus
Ans. (d) Virus
6. Which of the following food components is digested by
bacteria living in the intestine of herbivorous Animals?
(a) Cellulose (b) Fat
(c) Vitamin (d) Mineral
Ans. (a) Cellulose
7. Which of the following microorganisms exhibit symbiotic life?
(a) Volvox (b) Blue-green algae
(c) Spirogyra (d) Lichens
Ans. (d) Lichens
PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : To demonstrate that microorganisms are present everywhere
in soil, water and human body.
Materials Required : Slides, dropper, microscope, soil, tap water,
and scrapper.
Procedure :
1. Collect a sample of soil, sample of tap water and scraping
from your mouth.
24 Solution Book
 2. Take a drop from each sample with the help of dropper and
place these drops on three separate slides.
3. Carefully observe each of the slides under the microscope.
Observation : All three of the slides are full of tiny organisms
called micro-organisms. However, soil and water sample contain
more number of these organisms as compared to mouth.
Conclusion and Explanation : Micro-organisms are microscopic
organisms that are present everywhere in soil, water, air, inside
living beings etc. However, due to their small size, they cannot
be seen.
Investigation – 2
Aim : To show that organic matter is decomposed by microbes
present in soil.
Materials Required : 2 pots, soil, plant wastes, polythene bags,
empty glass bottles and plastic toys.
Procedure : Take two pots A and B and put some soil in each of
the pot. Take Pot A and put some plant wastes in it. In Pot B put
polythene bags, empty glass bottles and plastic toys. Cover the upper
surface of each pot with a thick layer of soil. Put the pots aside,
sprinkle some water daily on each pot and observe them after 3-4 weeks.
Observation : In pot A the plant waste got converted into manure
via decomposition. In pot B, the polythene bags, empty glass and
plastic toys did not undergo such change.
Conclusion and Explanation : The plant waste is organic while
plastic bags etc. are inorganic. Plant waste can be converted into
manure. On the other hand, plastic bags can not be converted into manure.

Investigation – 3
Aim : To show that yeast produce bubbles of gas during respiration.
Materials Required : Two test-tubes,
sugar, water, balloons, test-tube stand.
Procedure : Take a test tube (A) and
fill some water in it. Keep it in a stand.
Take another test tube (B) and fill some
water in it. Pour a spoonful of yeast
in it. Keep it in the stand as well. Add
two spoonful of sugar in each test-tube. (A) (B)

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 25

Tie one balloon on the mouth of each test-tube. Keep this stand in
a warm place. Observe it for the next 3-4 days.
Observation : In case of test tube A, the balloon will remain as
such while in test tube B, balloon will inflate.
Conclusion and Explanation : When we keep yeast with some water,
yeast starts reproducing and respiring. During respiration it produces
CO2 and the bubbles of this gas are causing the balloon to inflate.

3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. Wool and silk are
(a) Plant fibres (b) Animal fibres (c) Synthetic fibres
Ans. (b) Animal fibres
2. Polymers are
(a) Repeated units (b) Natural fibres (c) Artificial fibres
Ans. (a) Repeated units
3. The non-sticking coating on cookwares is
(a) Teflon (b) Koroseal (c) Polypropene
Ans. (a) Teflon
4. It is used for making toys and comb
(a) PVC (b) Polypropene (c) Melamine plastic
Ans. (b) Polypropene
5. PET is a familiar form of
(a) Polyester (b) Acrylic (c) Teflon
Ans. (a) Polyester
6. These fibres are actually stronger than steel wires.
(a) Nylon (b) Polyester (c) Terylene
Ans. (a) Nylon
7. The plastic used for making floor tiles and kitchenware is
(a) Bakelite (b) PVC (c) Melamine
Ans. (c) Melamine
26 Solution Book
B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:
1. We should develop the habits which are environment friendly.
2. Rayon is obtained from wood pulp by chemical treatment.
3. Terylene is a popular polyester.
4. Nylon is used for making parachutes.
5. Acrylic fibre is used for making yarn for hand knit sweaters.
6. A polymer is made up of a long chain of molecules.

C. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given

below :
1. Polyester fibres are used for making hand knit sweaters.
2. Thermosetting plastics can be easily remoulded on heating.
3. Synthetic fibres shrink on washing.
4. Synthetic fibres melt on heating.
5. Polystyrene is used for packaging expensive items.
6. Cotton and jute are animal fibres.
Ans. 1. False 2. False 3. False
4. True 5. True 6. False

D. Match the items in column A with those in column B :

Column A Column B
1. Socks, ropes, toothbrush (a) Polyester
are made of
2. Bakelite and melamine (b) Thermoplastics
3. Artificial silk (c) Synthetic wool
4. Repeating units of ester (d) Nylon
5. Acrylic (e) Thermosetting plastics
6. Polythene and PVC (f) Rayon
Ans. 1. (d) 2. (e) 3. (f) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b)

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Name two natural fibres.
Ans. Two natural fibres are cotton and wool.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 27
 2. Name a synthetic fibre which is prepared with the help of
plant fibre.
Ans. Rayon is a synthetic fibre which is prepared with the help of
plant fibre.
3. Give two examples of biodegradable waste.
Ans. Dead plant and cow-dung are two examples of biodegradable
waste.
4. Which fibre is used in place of silk?
Ans. Rayon is used in place of silk.
5. What is polymer?
Ans. A long chain like unit consisting of large number of smaller
molecules joined to each other by chemical bonds is called
a polymer.
6. Give two examples of man-made fibres.
Ans. Two man made fibres are rayon and acrylic.
7. Give two examples of thermoplastics.
Ans. Two examples of thermoplastics are polythene and PVC.
8. List two examples of thermosetting plastics.
Ans. Two examples of thermosetting plastics are bakelite and
melamine.
9. Which two things are made by using PVC?
Ans. Rain coats, shoe-soles.
10. Name two things made of melamine.
Ans. Unbreakable dinner-ware and decorative objects.
11. Which one is cheaper – plastic or metal?
Ans. Plastic is cheaper.
12. Give one special feature of plastics.
Ans. Plastics are highly resistant to chemicals and water.
13. Name two non-biodegradable things, found in your
surroundings.
Ans. Two non-biodegradable things are plastics, aluminium/metal
cAns.
14. Name a flame resistant plastic.
Ans. Melamine is a flame resistant plastic.
28 Solution Book
 15. What should we use in place of plastic bag?
Ans. In place of plastic bag we should use cotton bag or jute bag.
16. Give one precaution for disposing the plastics.
Ans. Do not throw plastics or polythene into water bodies.

B. Short answer type questions :

1. Define thermoplastics?
Ans. Plastics which get deformed easily on heating are
thermoplastics. A thermoplastics is a polymer that turns liquid
when heated and freezes to a very glassy state when cooled
sufficiently. They can be recycled.
2. What are thermosetting plastics?
Ans. Thermosetting plastics are hard plastics and once heated
cannot be remoulded. They do not melt on heating. They can
maintain their shape until burnt or charred.
3. Name the raw materials used for the preparation of rayon.
State two important uses of rayon fibres.
Ans. Rayon is made in factories using the cellulose obtained from
wood pulp. Rayon is used to make apparels such as facets,
tracksuits, etc. It is also used to make tyre cords, carpets, etc.
4. State three ways in which synthetic fibres are superior to
natural fibres.
Ans. Synthetic fibres are strong, that is they have high tensile
strength. Maintenance of synthetic fabrics is hassle free as they
do not wrinkle easily. They are less expensive as compared
to natural fibres.
5. State three ways which show that synthetic fibres are inferior
to natural fibres.
Ans. Synthetic fibres are highly inflammable i.e., they easily catch
fire. They are non-biodegradable do not decompose naturally.
They are uncomfortable in summers.
6. List the raw materials used for making nylon. Give examples
of things made of nylon.
Ans. Basic raw materials for the production of nylon are coal,
petroleum, water and air. Nylon is used in making tooth brush
bristles, carpets and sleeping bags. It is also used for making
ropes for mountain climbing.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 29

 7. Give two differences between thermoplastic and thermosetting
plastics.
Thermoplastic Thermosetting
Are long chain polymers Are the polymers in which
with no cross-linking. chains get highly cross-linked
Can be processed repeatedly on heating. Once moulded,
e.g. polythene. PVC, nylon, cannot be remoulded.
polyesters, etc. Example : Bakelite, melamine
formaldehyde, resin.
8. Why are the handles of cookers and saucepan made of
thermosetting plastics?
Ans. Thermosetting plastics are hard as well as poor conductor of
heat and electricity. This is why the handles of cookers and
saucepan are made of thermosetting plastics.
9. ‘Plastics are non-corrosive in nature’. Explain with examples.
Ans. Plastics are highly resistant to chemical and water. Unlike
iron that gets rusted when exposed to moist air, plastics are
not at all affected by air, water and various chemicals. So,
we can say that plastics are non-corrosive in nature.
10. Which one will you prefer to buy for rainy season– a cotton
shirt or a synthetic shirt? Give reason.
Ans. I will prefer to buy synthetic shirt because it absorb less water
and dries quickly.
11. Why should we avoid wearing synthetic clothes while working
in kitchen?
Ans. We should avoid wearing synthetic clothes while working in
kitchen because synthetic clothes catch fire easily.
12. How is plastic affecting the health of stray animals? Explain
with examples.
Ans. Plastic bags, once ingested, cannot be digested or passed by
an animals so it stays in the gut. Plastic in an animal’s gut
can prevent food digestion and can lead to a very slow and
painful death.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. What are synthetic fibres? List the specific features of different
types of synthetic fibres.

30 Solution Book
 Ans. Synthetic fibres are man-made fibres produced from chemical
substances.
Rayon : It absorbs moisture and is comfortable to wear. it

can be easily dyed in vivid colours.
Nylon : It is strong and easy to dye, do not crease easily.

Nylon fibres do not absorb water easily and highly durable.
Polyester : Its fibres are extremely strong, very durable. It

does not absorb water so it dries quickly.
Acrylic : Its fibres are strong and wrinkle resistant. It is easy
to wash and dries quickly.
2. Give three uses of each type of fibre–
(a) Rayon (b) Nylon (c) Polyester (d) Acrylic
Ans. (a) Rayon : It is used to make apparels such as jackets,
tracksuits and make home furnishing materials. It is also
used to make tyre cords, carpets and surgical dressings.
(b) Nylon : It is used in making toothbrush bristles, carpets,
sleeping bags. It is also used widely for making ropes for
mountain climbing and in parachutes.
(c) Polyester : It is used to make polyester clothes, ropes.
Due to durable property is used in making PET bottles
(d) Acrylic : It is often used for making sweaters and
tracksuits. It is used in furnishing fabrics and carpets. It
is also used in boat sails and vehicle covers.
3. What is polythene? Why is it being a big problem for the
environment?
Ans. Polythene, a thermoplastic, is used widely as a packaging
material for liquids. Polythene bags are often thrown out.
Such disposal of plastic bags caused following environmental
problems : (i) These are non biodegradable causes soil
pollution. (ii) Blockage of drains and sewer lines; (iii) Death
of animals who happen to chew these bags along with the
food wrapped their in. (iv) Reduces the percolation of water
into the soil.
4. What is plastic? Discuss the characteristic properties of plastics.
Ans. Plastic is a synthetic polymer that can be moulded or shaped
in any form. Plastics shows following general characteristics.
Plastics are light weight. They are strong and durable. Synthetic
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 31
 fibres do not allow heat and electricity to flow through them.
Plastics are not affected by water, air, soil etc. Most plastics
are transparent and translucent. Plastics are cheaper than metals.
5. Why should we avoid the use of plastic as far as possible in
our daily life? Explain with the help of examples.
Ans. Discarded plastics float on water bodies and become home
to many disease causing germs. They also clog drains and
pose threat to sewage disposal. Burying plastics is also not a
safe way to disposal as they are non-biodegradable and this
might pose problems to the growth of plants in that area.
Apart from disposal, the making of plastics involves large
amount of chemical pollutants which again are a threat to
the environment.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. As a responsible citizen what measures do you suggest to
keep public places clean and free of plastic? [HOTS]
Ans. While traveling don’t throw any wrapper, paper or any dry
waste on road. Avoid spitting on roads. Avoid use of plastic
bags. Spread awareness to keep our city clean. Use dustbin only.
2. Should the handle and bristle of a toothbrush be made of the
same material? Give reason for your response. [HOTS]
Ans. The handle and bristles of tooth brush should not be made
of the same material. As handle require strength and stiffness
so it should be made from plastic. Whereas bristles are soft
and elastic so they should be made from nylon.
3. Rekha advises not to wear synthetic clothes while working
in the kitchen or in a laboratory. [Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) Why does Rekha advice not to wear synthetic clothes
while working in the kitchen or in a laboratory?
Ans. Synthetic clothes melt on heating. If they catch fire, they
melt and stick to the body of the person wearing them. So
Rekha advice not to wear synthetic clothes while working in
the kitchen or in a laboratory.
(b) What values do you learn from Rekha?
Ans. Caring, concern for others, proactive.

32 Solution Book
 4. Burn natural and synthetic fibres one by one. State their nature
of burning. What do you conclude from such an activity?
[Activity Based Question]
Ans. Take a piece of natural silk fabric and another piece of
artificial silk fabric. Burn both of the fabrics separately and
observe the smell. The fabric which burns giving a smell
of burning hair will be natural silk. The fabric which burns
giving smell of burning paper will be artificial silk. Just likes
natural silk wool is also made up of proteins. So a piece of
woollen fabric also burns giving the smell of burning hair.
5. Visit a plastic recycling plant and observe the different
processes which convert used and damaged plastic into new
usable plastic. [Project Based Question]
(a) For what purpose is recycled plastic used?
Ans. By recycling, we can conserve the additional 80% of energy
that is typically used while making new plastic bottles,
containers and other items.
(b) What are the disadvantages of using recycled plastics?
Ans. Plastics are not ecofriendly. Some plastics can be recycled
but recycled plastics are inferior in quality. Inferior quality
plastics prove to be hazardous if used in food packaging or
eatables.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. The characteristics of different fibres are listed as
A : I am strong, elastic, light and burn slowly. I shrink on
heating and form hard beads with smell of burning hair.
B : I burn completely leaving no residue.
C : I can be woven like silk fibres and dyed in a wide variety
of colours. I burn quickly with a smell of burning paper.
D : I do not get wrinkled easily. I burn slowly and produce
black smoke.
A, B, C and D are respectively
(a) Terylene, rayon, cotton and nylon
(b) Bakelite, nylon, rayon and cotton
(c) Melamine, PVC, nylon and rayon
(d) Nylon, cotton, rayon and polyester.
Ans. (d) Nylon, cotton, rayon and polyester.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 33
 2. Pre-weighed pieces of cloth of silk, cotton, nylon and wool of
equal measurements are taken and soaked in a beaker filled
with water. After a few minutes, the cloth pieces were taken
out of the beaker and weighed again. Which of the following
options in the correct order of their final weights?
(a) Wool > Silk > Nylon > Cotton
(b) Cotton > Silk > Nylon > Wool
(c) Silk > Wool > Cotton > Nylon
(d) Wool > Cotton > Silk > Nylon
Ans. (d) Wool > Cotton > Silk > Nylon
3. Match column I with column II and mark the correct option
from the codes given below :
Column I Column II
A. Polyester (i) Prepared by using wood pulp
B. Teflon (ii) Used for making parachute and
stockings
C. Rayon (iii) Used for making non-stick cookwares
D. Nylon (iv) Fabrics do not wrinkle easily

A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Ans. (b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

4. Read the following statements carefully.
A. I am extensively used in the healthcare industry but my
one disadvantage is that I am non-biodegradable.
B. I am very familiar form of polyester and used for making
bottles, utensils, films, wires, etc.
C. I am artificial silk and mixed with wool to make carpets.c
A, B and C are respectively
(a) PET, Rayon and Plastic (b) Rayon, Plastic and PET
(c) Plastic, Rayon and PET (d) Plastic, PET and Rayon
Ans. (d) Plastic, PET and Rayon
34 Solution Book
 5. Why is it not advisable to wear clothes made up of synthetic
fibres in hot and humid weather?
(a) Synthetic fibres catch fire very easily.
(b) Synthetic fibres do not absorb sweat.
(c) Synthetic fibres stick to the body.
(d) Both (B) and (C)
Ans. (b) Synthetic fibres do not absorb sweat.

PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : To test the action of water on fabrics made of different fibres.
Materials Required : Small pieces of fabric made of cotton, silk,
wool, nylon, polyester and rayon of nearly the same size, a mug of
water, a beam balance, some weights.
Procedure : Weigh each piece of fabric and note down their weights.
Dip each one of them in water, weigh them and again note down
their weights. Subtract the first weight from the second weight of
the same fabric. This will give you the weight of water absorbed
by the fabric. Which fabric absorbs the maximum amount of water
and which absorbs the minimum?
Keep all the fabrics out in the sun. Note the time taken for each
of them to dry.
Observation and Calculation :
Complete the following table :
Fabric Weight of the Weight of the Weight Time taken
taken dry fabric (A) wet fabric (B) of fabric by the
(in grams) (in grams) (B–A) fabric to dry
(in grams) (in minutes)

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 35

Conclusion and Explanation : Cotton, wool and silk absorb water
readily and become heavy. Nylon, polyester and rayon do not
absorb water readily and also dry soon. These are lighter than natural
fibres.

Investigation – 2
Aim : To test the action of heat on fabrics made of different fibres.
Materials Required : Small pieces of fabric made of cotton, silk,
wool, nylon, rayon, acrylic and a matchbox.
Procedure : Suspend small pieces of fabric made of cotton, wool,
silk, nylon, rayon and acrylic from some support. Bring a burning
matchstick to each of them at their loose ends. Allow them to burn
for sometime and make observations. Draw your inference about the
nature of fibres on the basis of information given.

Fibre Burn slowly or Kind of smell Bead

vigorously formation
Cotton Burn slowly Burning paper like light feathery
smell ash
Wool Slow flickering flame Burning hair smell Crisp dark
and silk dark irregular
Rayon Burn slowly with Burning paper like Black smooth
bright flame smell ash
Nylon Soften melt and burn mixed smell of hard bead
chemical
Polyester soften melt & burn mixed smell of hard bead
chemical
Acrylic Soften melt and burn mixed smell of hard bead
chemical

Conclusion and Explanation : The behaviour of the fibres on

approaching the flame, in the flame, on burning and the residue left
after burning, are different each have specific burning pattern. So one
can recognise them accordingly.

36 Solution Book
 Materials : Metals and
4 Non-Metals

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. Metals are usually
(a) Shiny (b) Non-lustrous
(c) Bad conductors of electricity
Ans. (a) Shiny
2. Which one of the following has minimum density?
(a) Mercury (b) Iron (c) Sodium
Ans. (c) Sodium
3. Which one of the following metals is a liquid at room
temperature?
(a) Sodium (b) Iron (c) Mercury
Ans. (c) Mercury
4. Which one of the following metals is soft?
(a) Sodium (b) Iron (c) Arsenic
Ans. (a) Sodium
5. Silver, gold and platinum are
(a) Liquid metals (b) Noble metals (c) Non-metals
Ans. (b) Noble metals
6. Which one of the following non-metals is a good conductor
of electricity?
(a) Graphite (b) Diamond (c) Silicon
Ans. (a) Graphite
7. Metallic oxides are
(a) Acidic (b) basic (c) neutral
Ans. (b) basic
B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:
1. Metals are generally harder than non-metals.
2. Graphite is a non-metal, yet it conducts electricity.
3. Mercury is a liquid metal at room temperature.
4. Gold, silver and platinum are called noble metals.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 37
 5. The property by which a substance can be drawn into wires
is called ductility.
6. Melting point of most metals is higher than non-metals.

C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :

Column A Column B
1. An allotrope of carbon which has lustre (a) Mercury
2. A metal in liquid state at room (b) Acidic oxide
temperature
3. The ringing sound of metals (c) Oxides
4. A non-metal oxide that dissolves in (d) Conductivity
water
5. The compounds of metals/non-metals (e) Graphite
and oxygen
6. The property due to which substances (f) Sonorous
conduct heat and electricity
Ans. 1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (f)
  4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d)

D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given

below :
1. All metals are solid at room temperature.
2. Aluminium has no reaction with air, when exposed to it.
3. Non-metals form acidic or neutral oxides.
4. Silicon is used for making electric wires.
5. Sodium is a liquid metal at room temperature.
Ans. 1. False 2. False 3. True
4. False 5. False

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Name the property of metals by which they can be drawn
into wires.
Ans. The property of metals by which wires can be drawn is known
as ductility.
38 Solution Book
 2. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?
Ans. Mercury exists as a liquid at room temperature.
3. Which property of iron helps a blacksmith to make flat sheets?
Ans. The malleability property of iron helps a blacksmith to make
flat sheets.
4. Name two metals which do not show malleability.
Ans. Sodium and potassium don’t show malleability.
5. Which two metals are poor conductors of electricity?
Ans. Tungsten and Bismuth are metals which are poor conductors
of electricity.
6. What is called the property of metals by which they produce
ringing sound?
Ans. The property of metals by which they produce ringing sound
is called sonority.
7. How is sodium stored?
Ans. Sodium metal is always kept in kerosene.
8. How is phosphorus stored?
Ans. Phosphorus is kept under water.
9. Which gas burns with a ‘pop’ sound?
Ans. Hydrogen gas burns with a ‘pop’ sound.
10. What does the ‘pop’ sound indicate?
Ans. Pop sound indicate that the gas is hydrogen.
11. Arrange in a sequence from more reactive to less reactive
among - Zn, Fe and Cu.
Ans. Zn, Fe, Cu
12. Where is iron found in our body?
Ans. About 70% of body’s iron is found in the red blood cells.
13. Name one thing, used in temples which shows the sonorous
property of metals.
Ans. Temple bell shows sonorous property of metals.
14. Name two metals which can be cut by knife.
Ans. Sodium and potassium metals can be easily cut with a knife.
15. Name two non-metals which are used for making handles of
cooking utensils.
Ans. Wood and plastic are used for making handles of cooking utensils.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 39

 16. Which property of metals shows the silver foil?
Ans. Silverfoil shows malleable property of metals.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. What is malleability?
Ans. Some metals can be beaten into then sheets with hammer
without breaking. This property of metal in called malleability.
Gold and silver are the most malleable metals. They can be
hammered into very then sheets.
2. List four important physical features of metals.
Ans. (i) Physical state : All metals are solid at room temperature
except mercury.
(ii) Metallic lustre : Metals in the pure state generally shine
and can be polished.
(iii) Hardness : Metal are generally hard except potassium
and sodium.
(iv) Conductivity : Metals generally allow electricity and heat
to pass through them.
3. What do you mean by ‘ductility of metals’?
Ans. Ductility is the property by virtue of which metal can be
drawn into wire. Gold and silver are the best ductile metals.
Copper and Aluminium are also drawn into wire and used in
electric wiring.
4. State four important chemical properties of metals.
Ans. (i) Metals react with oxygen to form metal oxides which
are called basic oxides. (ii) Metals react with water forming
metal oxide or metal hydroxide. Metals react with acids to
form salt and hydrogen gas. Most metals do not react with
base.
5. State chemical properties of non-metals.
Ans. Non-metal react with oxygen to form neutral oxide or acidic
oxides. Non-metals do not react with water. Non metals do
not react with dilute acids.
6. What happens when a piece of sodium is dropped in water?
Ans. When a piece of sodium is dropped in water it reacts
violently with water forming sodium hydroxide and
liberating hydrogen gas.
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2↑
40 Solution Book
 7. List the uses of metals.
Ans. Metals are used in making machinery, automobiles, aeroplanes,
trains, satellites, industrial gadgets, cooking utensils, water
boilers, etc.
8. List the uses of non-metals.
Ans. Non-metals are essential for our life which all living being
inhale during breathing. They are used in fertilisers, water
purification process, used in the purple coloured solution
which is applied on wounds as antiseptic, used in crackers.
9. Give a short note on reactive nature of phosphorus.
Ans. Phosphorus is a very reactive non-metal. It catches fire if
exposed to air. To prevent the contact of phosphorus with
atmospheric oxygen, it is stored in water.
10. What happens when sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water?
Give chemical equation also.
Ans. When sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water sulphurous acid
is formed. The reaction can be given as follows :
SO2 + H2O → H2SO3.
11. How will you check the sonorous feature of a metal? Give
an example also.
Ans. Metals are usually in solid state at room temperature. Molecules
of a substance oncoming contact with molecules of another
solid causes the formation of sound. Sonorous is the basic
property of metal to create sound on being stricken upon with
a hard object e.g. school bell being hit by a hammer.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. Why are the metals like gold and silver preferred for making
jewellery? Explain in detail.
Ans. Gold and silver are used in jewellery, because metals like
gold, silver, have lusture and these are less reactive. These
metals cannot react with water, air and acids. These metals
are malleable and ductile. Gold and silver are resistant to
corrosion. Due to these properties these metals are used in
jewellery.
2. Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of
their physical features only.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 41

 Metals Non-metals
(i) A l l m e t a l s e x c e p t (i) N o n m e t a l s m a y b e
mercury are solid at solid, liquid or gas solid
room temperature. nonmetals are soft.
(ii) All metals (except sodium, (ii) Non metals are brittle.
potassium) are hard.
(iii) Most of the metals are (iii) N o n m e t a l s a r e n o t
malleable as well as ductile.
ductile
(iv) All metals are ductile (iv) Different non metals
Most of the metals are have different colours.
silvery gray. Gold is
golden yellow, copper
is reddish-brown.
3. Explain the chemical property of metals on the basis of–
(a) Reaction with oxygen (b) Reaction with water
(c) Reaction with acids
Ans. (a) Most of the metals combine with oxygen to form metals
oxides. Different metals react with oxygen under different
conditions. For example, potassium and sodium catch fire if
kept in the open. Silver and gold do not react with oxygen
at room temp.
Sodium + Oxygen Room temp. Sodium oxide.
The oxides are basic in nature, that turn red litmus paper
blue.
(b) When metals react with water they form metal oxide or
metal hydroxide and hydrogen gas evolved.
Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide + hydrogen + heat
(c) Metals react with acids to form salts and liberate hydrogen
gas.
Metal + Acid → Salt + Hydrogen
sodium + hydrochloric acid → Sodium chloride + hydrogen.
4. What are non-metals? Explain the chemical properties of
non-metals.
Ans. Nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, chlorine, sulphur, etc are non-metals.
Non-metals reacts with oxygen to give covalent oxides. Such
oxides are neutral or acidic in nature. The acidic oxides when
42 Solution Book
 dissolved in water they form acids which turn blue litmus
red. Non-metals do not react with water or steam to evolve
hydrogen gas. Non-metals do not react with dilute acid. But
sulphur react with hot concentrated nitric acid to produce
sulphur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide and water. No hydrogen
gas is evolved.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. Can you store lemon pickle in an aluminium utensil? Give
reason for your response. [HOTS]
Ans. Lemon pickle cannot be stored in aluminium utensils because
lemon pickle contains acids, which can react with aluminium
(metal) liberating hydrogen gas. This can lead to the spoiling
of the pickle.
2. Have you seen wooden bells in temples? Give reason for
your response. [HOTS]
Ans. No, I haven’t seen wooden bells in temple because wooden
bells are non sonorous which means if we ring it the sound
will not come.
3. Kamlesh’s mother always gives lunch packing in aluminium
foil to Kamlesh. [Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) What value do you learn from Kamlesh’s mother?
Ans. Concern for good health.
(b) Why does Kamlesh’s mother give lunch packing in
aluminium foil to Kamlesh?
Ans. Aluminium is a metal and hence it is a good conductor of
heat. Therefore it absorbs heat and keeps the food hotter for
a longer time.
4. Aradhya took a piece of burning charcoal and collected the
gas evolved in a test tube.[Project Based Question]
(a) She wants to find the nature of the gas. How will you
help her in such a case?
Ans. The gas is CO2. CO2 has no colour or smell. In the presence
of CO2 the burning splint will stop burning. CO2 will turn
moist litmus paper from blue to red. CO2 will turn lime
water milky.
(b) Write down word equations of all the reactions taking
place in this process.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 43
 Ans. Calcium hydroxide + carbondioxide = calcium carbonate + water
Ca(OH2) + CO2 (g) = CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
5. One day Rani’s mother gave an old gold jewellery to the
goldsmith to polish. When they brought the jewellery back,
they found that there was a slight loss in its weight. Suggest her
a reason for the loss of weight. [Activity Based Question]
Ans. To polish gold ornament the goldsmith use a liquid called
aqua regia. Usually gold doesn’t react with acid. But aqua
regia can dissolve gold. When gold is dipped in aqua regia
the outer dull layer dissolves in aqua regia and the inner
shiny layer appears. Due to this some gold is lost during the
polishing process. This causes the reduction in weight.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. Materials ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the figure are
(a) Aluminium foil, pencil lead
(b) Pencil lead, copper block
(c) Pencil lead, wooden block
(d) Copper block, pencil lead
Ans. (c) Pencil lead, wooden block
2. Rani placed a copper wire in silver nitrate solution as shown
in the figure.
Which of the following
represents the correct
observation?
(a) The colour of the solution
turned blue and precipitate
of solid silver was obtained.
(b) Colour of solution turned green and copper wire turned
blue.
(c) There was no change in the colour of solution or colour
of the wire.
(d) Colour of the solution became silver and there was no
change in the colour of copper wire.
Ans. (a) The colour of the solution turned blue and precipitate of
solid silver was obtained.

44 Solution Book
 3. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement A : The gas produced on burning sulphur in air is
dissolved in water to form an acidic solution.
Statement B : The process represents a physical change as
the substance formed is composed of same elements sulphur,
oxygen and hydrogen.
(a) Both statements A and B are true and statement B is the
correct explanation of statement A.
(b) Both statements A and B are true but statement B is not
the correct explanation of statement A.
(c) Statement A is true and statement B is false.
(d) Both statements A and B are false.
Ans. (c) Statement A is true and statement B is false.
4. Each beaker contains two metal strips of same size fastened
together and immersed in hydrochloric acid. After a few
minutes, which beaker will contain the least amount of zinc
ions?

Ans. (a)

V. PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : To observe the reaction between sodium and water.
Requirements : A small piece of sodium metal, a trough of water,
a pair of tongs, knife, filter paper, red and blue litmus paper.
Procedure : Cut a small piece of sodium kept in kerosene with a
knife. Remove it with a pair of tongs and dry it between the folds
of a filter paper. Drop the metal into the trough of water.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 45

Observation : When water makes contact with sodium the reaction
takes place with explosion.
Conclusion and Explanation : When sodium reacts with water sodium
hydroxide is formed which is a very strong base. Hydrogen gas also evolved
2Na + 2H2O = 2NaOH + H2↑
[Note : This experiment should be demonstrated in the presence
of the teacher or the elder one. During observation keep a
distance from the trough.]

Investigation – 2
Aim : To show that metals conduct electricity and non-metals do not.
Requirements : Small pieces of metals and non-metals like iron,
aluminium, copper, wood, sulphur, coal, zinc and graphite, a cell, a
copper wire and a bulb.
Cell

x
Copper Metal or
y
wire non-metal
Bulb to be tested

Procedure : Set up an electric circuit as shown.

Take a metal or a non-metal and place it in the circuit between the
terminals X and Y. What do you observe? Does the bulb glow? What
can you say about the electrical conductivity of the material? Repeat
the activity for all the other metals and non-metals. Observe and note
down your result in a table.
Observation :
Material Metal/Non-metal Conductor/Non-conductor
Iron Metal Conductor
Aluminium Metal Conductor
Copper Metal Conductor
Wood Non-metal Non-conductor
Sulphur Non-metal Non-conductor
Coal Non-metal Non-conductor
Zinc Metal Non-conductor
Graphite Non-metal Conductor
46 Solution Book
 Conclusion and Explanation : Metals are good conductors of
electricity. Non-metals are bad conductors of electricity. But graphite
is a good conductor of electricity.

PERIODIC TEST–1
(Based on Chapters 1 to 4)
1. Seed drill is used for :
(a) harvesting (b) weeding
(c) sowing (d) threshing
Ans. (c) sowing
2. Name two microorganisms which cause diseases in plants.
Ans. Two microorganisms which cause diseases in plants are fungi
and bacteria.
3. Which microorganism is used in the production of alcohol,
bread, pastries, etc.?
Ans. Yeast is used in the production of alcohol, bread, pastries, etc.
4. Which raw material is used for making synthetic fibres?
Ans. All synthetic fibres are obtained from small organic molecules
which are obtained from petroleum and natural gas.
5. Which of the following fibres is used as artificial wool?
(a) Nylon (b) Cotton
(c) Rayon (d) Acrylic
Ans. (d) Acrylic
6. Name the property of the metals by virtue of which these
can be used in making ringing bells.
Ans. Because of sonority property metals are used in making
ringing bells.
7. Name a metal that is soft and can be easily cut with a knife.
Ans. Sodium
8. What is a crop?
Ans. Plants of the same kind, when cultivated at the same place
on a large scale for food, fodder, fibre or any other useful
product, are called crops.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 47
 9. Define threshing. Name a machine that is used for this purpose.
Ans. The whole process of separation of grains from the harvested
crop is known as threshing. Threshing can be done using the
machine called combine.
10. Why is it necessary to remove weeds from our fields?
Ans. Weeds can adversely affect plant growth as they compete
with the crop plants for nutrients, space, water and sunlight.
Hence, weeds need to be removed from the field.
11. Is it true that microbes are an essential part of our life?
Ans. It is true that microbes are an essential part of our life.
• Microbes are used in preparation of cakes, breads, dos
and idles.
• Microbes help to clean our environment by acting on the
dead organic matter.
• Microbes help to recycle nutrients like nitrogen in nature.
12. Why do we keep food products at low temperature by using
refrigerator to protect from decay?
Ans. Microorganisms grow best at a temperature of about 21°C.
That is why food kept in a refrigerator does not spoil, the
temperature in the refrigerator is around 5°C. Such preservation
of food is called refrigeration.
13. Write two disadvantages of synthetic fibres.
Ans. Synthetic fibres are non-biodegradable and hence causes
pollution.
They cannot absorb sweat. Therefore clothes made from
synthetic fibres are very uncomfortable in summer or rainy
season.
14. Which type of plastics is used to make this container?
Give its one specific property.

Ans. Thermoplastics is used to make container. A thermoplastic

is a polymer that turns liquid when heated and freezes to a
glassy state when cooled sufficiently. They can be recycled.

48 Solution Book
 15. What does the given electrical circuit show?

Ans. Metals are good conductors of electricity.

16. Look at the given picture. Which property of metals is it
showing? Give its one use for us.

Ans. Given picture shows malleable property of metals.

Aluminium foil is used in the packaging of food materials.
17. Given picture shows an agricultural implement (tool) :
(a) Name this tool.
(b) How should it be used to get good crop?

Ans. (a) Plough or cultivators.

(b) Ploughing provides good crop because
• It provides aeration and drainage. Cells in the
roots needs oxygen to carry out respiration and
thus grow.
• Loosening of soil allows the roots to penetrate
deep into the soil.
• Fertilisers mix uniformly with loosened soil.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 49

 • Loosing soil aids the growth of earthworms and
microbes. Some of these microbes decompose
dead plants and animals, and help in recycling
of nutrients.
18. Describe an activity to observe the biodegradable and non-
biodegradable wastes.
Ans. Activity to observe the biodegradable and non-biodegradable
waste.
Materials Required : Two pots, soil, plastic, polythene,
aluminium foils, canes, plants and animal waste, waste papers.
Procedure : 1. Take two pots half filled with soil,
2. Label them biodegradable and non-biodegradable
3. Put plastic polythene, aluminium foils in non-biodegradable
pot.
4. Put plant and animal waste in Biodegradable pot.
5. Record changes occur in these pots at least for 6 days.
Observation:
1. No change in the Non-biodegradable pot.
2. Bio-degradable substances break down naturally.
Conclusion : Non-biodegradable waste does not break down
into natural components and remains in the environment for
a long time. Biodegradable waste as such can break down by
biological process into simpler components and be recycled
naturally by the action of bacteria or other saprophytes.
19. (a) What is nylon?
(b) List four things made up of nylon.
(c) List two unique features of nylon.
Ans. (a) Nylon is a synthetic fibre made from simple chemicals
obtained from coal. Nylon is the first fully synthetic fibre.
(b) Nylon is used in making toothbrush bristles, sleeping
bags, fishing nets and parachute ropes.
(c)  (i) Nylon fibres are very strong.
(ii) Nylon fibres are elastic and lustrous.
20. How will you check the nature of rust formed as a result of
the reaction between iron, oxygen and water. Describe the
activity.

50 Solution Book
 Ans. Collect a spoonful of rust and
dissolve it in a very little amount
of water. You will find that the
rust remains suspended in water.
Shake the suspension well. Test
the solution with red litmus
papers.
Observation : The red litmus

turns blue.
So, the oxide of iron is basic in
nature.
Testing nature of rust

5 Coal and Petroleum

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
A. Multiple choice questions :
1. Which of the following is not a natural resource?
(a) Sun (b) Plastic (c) Forest
Ans. (b) Plastic
2. Coal is mainly composed of
(a) oxygen (b) carbon dioxide (c) carbon
Ans. (c) carbon
3. Petroleum is a mixture of
(a) hydrocarbons (b) gases (c) rocks and soil
Ans. (a) hydrocarbons
4. The gas responsible for global warming is
(a) carbon monoxide (b) oxygen (c) carbon dioxide
Ans. (c) carbon dioxide
5. Petroleum literally means
(a) Mountain oil (b) Ocean oil (c) Rock oil
Ans. (c) Rock oil

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 51

 6. Liquefied petroleum gas is commonly known as
(a) PGL (b) LPG (c) LGP
Ans. (b) LPG
B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:
1. Forest is an exhaustible natural resource.
2. The process of formation of coal is called carbonisation.
3. Petroleum is a fossil fuel.
4. Petrol is used as fuel in light vehicles.
5. The liquefied form of petroleum gas is called LPG.
6. Bacterial action slowly converts the wood into coal in the
absence of air.

C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :

Column A Column B
1. LPG (a) Petroleum
2. Paraffin wax (b) Fuel for heavy motor vehicles
3. Crude oil (c) Raw material for vaseline
4. Coal tar (d) Tough, porous and black substance
5. Coal (e) Dyes, paints, plastics, etc
6. Diesel oil (f) Cooking gas
7. Coke (g) Used in thermal power plants
Ans. 1. (f) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (e)
5. (g)
6. (b) 7. (d)
D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given
below :
1.
Burning of fossil fuels does not cause any problem.
2.
LPG is liquefied paraffin gas.
3.
Coal and petroleum are inexhaustible fossil fuels.
4.
Solar energy is the largest inexhaustible source of energy.
5.
Petroleum is always found trapped between two impervious
rocks.
6. The process of coal formation is an anaerobic decomposition.
Ans. 1. False 2. False 3. False
4. True 5. True 6. True
52 Solution Book
 SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Name the process of conversion of wood into coal.
Ans. Anaerobic thermal degradation of wood into coal termed as
carbonisation.
2. Which petroleum product is used for surfacing the roads?
Ans. Bitumen is used for surfacing the roads.
3. Name the process of separation of different constituents from
petroleum.
Ans. The process of separation of different constituents from
petroleum is called refining.
4. Which fossil fuel for the vehicles is least polluting?
Ans. CNG (compressed natural gas) is the least polluting fuel for
vehicles.
5. Which fossil fuel is almost pure form of carbon?
Ans. Coke is almost pure form of carbon.
6. Name the product of coal which is used to make dyes, paints
and naphthalene balls.
Ans. Coal tar is used to make dyes, paints and naphthalene balls.
7. For which types of vehicles is petrol used as fuel?
Ans. For light vehicles petrol is used as fuel.
8. Name the fossil fuel that is used in heavy motor-vehicles.
Ans. Diesel is used in heavy motor vehicles.
9. Where was the world’s first oil well drilled?
Ans. The world’s first oil well was drilled in Pennsylvania, USA,
in 1859.
10. Name two places in India from where petroleum is obtained.
Ans. Assam and Mumbai High.
11. Which petroleum product is being used in place of coal tar
for metalling the roads these days?
Ans. Bitumen is used in place of coal tar for metalling the roads
these days.
12. Which one among the fossil fuels is also called ‘black gold’?
Ans. Coal is also called ‘black gold’.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 53

 13. Give the full form of CNG.
Ans. Full form of CNG is Compressed Natural Gas.
14. Which gas gets released when we burn coal?
Ans. When heated in air, coal burns and produces mainly carbon
dioxide gas.
15. Name the black, thick liquid with an unpleasant smell. It is
produced from coal.
Ans. Coal tar is a thick, black liquid with an unpleasant smell
produced from coal.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. Define fossil fuels. Give examples.
Ans. The fuels produced from the remains of plants and animals,
burried under Earth, million years ago are known as fossil
fuels. They produce large amount of energy on burning. Coal,
petroleum and natural gas are the primary fossil fuels.
2. What are natural resources? Give their types on the basis of
their availability.
Ans. Air, water, soil, forest and minerals are called natural resources.
Depending upon the availability of various resources in nature,
the natural resources can be broadly classified to inexhaustible
natural resources and exhaustible natural resources.
3. What are inexhaustible natural resources? Give examples.
Ans. Inexhaustible natural resources are the resources which are
present in an unlimited quantity in nature and are not likely
to get exhausted by human activities. Wind, water, sunlight,
etc are inexhaustible natural resources.
4. What is coal? Where is it used?
Ans. Coal is one of the most important minerals and earliest used
fossil fuels. It occurs at varying depth under the upper crust
of the earth. Uses of coal : It is used as a fuel. It is used for
the manufacturing of coke, coal tar, coal gas, synthetic petrol
etc.
5. Define the term ‘carbonisation’.
Ans. The slow conversion of wood into coal under the influence
of high temperature, high pressure and in the absence of air,
is termed as carbonisation.

54 Solution Book
 6. What is coke? Give its uses.
Ans. The greyish black and porous residue left after the destructive
distillation of coal is called coke. It is about 98% of carbon.
Coke is used as a domestic fuel. Coke is used as a reducing
agent in metallurgical processes. Coke is used for producing
fuel gases.
7. Give the various uses of coal tar.
Ans. Products obtained from coal tar are used as starting materials
for manufacturing various substances used in every day and
in industry, like synthetic dyes, drugs, explosives, perfumes,
plastics, paints, photographic materials, roofing materials etc.
8. List the various constituents of petroleum along with their uses.
Ans. Constituents Uses Constituents Uses
of petroleum of petroleum
Petroleum As domestic Diesel Fuel for truck,
gas fuel buses railway
engines, etc.
Petrol and Fuel for Fuel oil Industrial
light naptha automobiles, fuel for
solvent for boilers and
dry cleaning furnaces.
Kerosene As a Lubricating Lubricant
domestic oil, paraffin for machine
fuel and wax, Asphalt Making
illuminant candle,
Shoe polish
For making
roads.
9. Define the word ‘refining’. Why is it necessary to refine the
petroleum?
Ans. The process of separating the various constituents of
petroleum is known as refining. Petroleum in its original
form cannot be used for any useful purposes. So it is
refined to obtained useful product as fuel, lubricating oil,
wax, asphalt; petrochemical, etc.
10. What do you mean by petroleum? Give the uses of two
important components of petroleum.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 55
Ans. Petroleum is a viscous, dark-coloured oily liquid which exists
deep inside the earth. It has an unpleasant odour.
Petrol : It is used in motor vehicles and aircraft. it is used
as a solvent for dry-cleaning.
Diesel : It is used to run heavy vehicles like buses, trucks,
railways and ships. It is also used in electric generators.
11. Give two differences between coal and coke.
Coal Coke
Coal is a natural Coke is a material with few
substance. impurities and high carbon
content, usually made from coal.
Coal is a solid mass in Coke is porous thus making it
physical appearance. more suitable for heat treatment.
12. Draw a simple diagram to show the layer of natural gas and
petroleum deposits.

C. Long answer type questions :

1. What are the different types of natural resources? Explain in
brief each type with examples.
Ans. Natural resources are broadly classified into (i) Inexhaustible
resources (ii) Exhaustible natural resources. Inexhaustible
resources of energy do not get exhausted and are present in
the nature in plenty. Energy from the sun, wind, tides, earth,
56 Solution Book
 nuclear and biogas are some examples of inexhaustible sources
of energy. Exhaustible resources are the sources of energy
which get consumed up quickly and cannot be regained in
short period of time. Natural resources like coal, petroleum,
natural gas and wood are examples of exhaustible resources.
2. From where do we get coal? How is it formed?
Ans. We get coal from coal mines. About 300 million years ago
the earth had dense forests in low lying wetland areas. Due
to natural processes, like flooding, these forests got buried
under the soil. As more soil deposited over them, they were
compressed. The temperature also rose as they sank deeper
and deeper. Under high pressure and high temperature, dead
plants got slowly converted to coal.
3. How is petroleum formed in nature? Explain.
Ans. Petroleum was formed from organisms living in the sea. As
these organisms died, their bodies settled at the bottom of
the sea and got covered with layers of sand and clay. Over
millions of years, absence of air, high temperature and high
pressure transformed the dead organisms into petroleum and
natural gas.
4. What is natural gas? How is it useful to control the air
pollution?
Ans. Natural gas is another fossil fuel that occurs along with the
crude oil. It is formed due to the slow decomposition of fossils.
It is made up of many gases of which methane is the most
prominent. It burns completely releasing carbon-dioxide and
water and a large amount of heat. It releases more energy than
any other fuel. It produces the least amount of carbon dioxide
as it burns completely. Thus, it is said that it contributes to
a cleaner and greener environment.
5. ‘Combustion of fossil fuels is the main cause of global
warming’. Justify the statement.
Ans. Fossil fuels like coal and petroleum are huge reservoirs of
carbon and its compounds mainly with nitrogen, oxygen,
sulphur and hydrogen. Combustion of fossil fuels emits lots
of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere which definitely increase
the carbon dioxide level in the atmosphere. Thus combustion
of fossil fuels is the main cause of global warming.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 57

D. Some other types of questions :
1. Try to find out the location of major thermal power plants
in India. What could be the reasons for their being located
at those places? [HOTS]
Ans. Dadri (UP), Farakka (West Bengal), Ramagundam (Andhra
Pradesh). Singrauli (Uttar Pradesh), Talcher (Orissa). These
plants are located in those place because of 1. Availability of
raw materials like coal, water. 2. Availability of skilled and
unskilled labours. 3. Transportation facility.
2. Can we use all our natural resources forever? Give reason
for your response. [HOTS]
Ans. Renewable resources are in abundance and they never run out
e.g. wind and sun energy. On the other hand non-renewable
resources which we need to use wisely or soon they will run
out. They take millions of years for formation. So, if we use
our natural resources wisely by limiting their use then yes
we can use them for ever.
3. One day Samir saw a gardener collecting all dry leaves and started
to burn it. He went there and told him not to burn dry leaves. He
also suggested him about its adverse effect on the environment.
Gardener satisfied and thanked him for his suggestion.
[Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) What do you learn from the act of Samir?
Ans. Concern awareness for environment
(b) Why did Samir suggest not to burn dry leaves?
Ans. Samir knows that burning of dry leaves is dangerous because
burning leaves emit carbon monoxide which is very dangerous
for seniors, people with cardiovascular problems and infants.
So, Samir suggested not to burn dry leaves.
4. Visit to your colony and enquire the measures they
adopt to conserve energy. Do you satisfy with them?
Give reason in support of your response.
[Activity Based Question]
Ans. Following measures have been adopted. Using room coolers,
air conditioners, geysers etc., only when needed. Reducing the
flame of the burner while cooking to save fuel. Using CFLs
and LEDs Which uses less energy instead of bulbs. Walking
or cycling for small distances.
58 Solution Book
 5. In petroleum and natural gas deposits diagram, you can see
the layer containing petroleum oil and gas is above that of
water. Why is it so? [HOTS]
Ans. As petroleum is lighter than water it floats over water. Natural
gas is lighter than petroleum and hence occurs above the
petroleum.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. Coal tar can be used as a starting material for manufacturing

A Drugs B Photographic materials
C Cookwares D Explosives
(a) Only (A) (b) B and D
(c) A, B and D (d) B, C and D
Ans. (c) A, B and D
2. Fill in the blanks left in the classification of the fossil fuels.

A B C D E F
(a) Petroleum Coal Petroleum Bitumen Coal gas Coke
gas
(b) Coal Petroleum Coal gas Coke Petroleum Bitumen
gas
(c) Coal Petroleum Coal Charcoal Gasoline Coal tar
gas
(d) Petroleum Coal Gasoline Bitumen Natural Coke
gas
Ans. (b) Coal Petroleum Coal gas Coke Petroleum Bitumen
gas

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 59

 3. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called fossil fuels.
B. Coal and natural gas are exhaustible substances.
C. CNG is more polluting than petrol.
D. Coke is used in the manufacture of steel.
(a) A and B only (b) B and D only
(c) A, C and D only (d) A, B and D only
Ans. (d) A, B and D only
4. Which of the following represents the correct decreasing order
of boiling points of the given liquids?
(a) Paraffin wax > Diesel > Kerosene > Petrol
(b) Diesel > Kerosene > Petrol > Paraffin wax
(c) Kerosene > Petrol > Paraffin wax > Diesel
(d) Petrol > Paraffin wax > Diesel > Kerosene
Ans. (a) Paraffin wax > Diesel > Kerosene > Petrol
5. When air is passed through red hot coke, a gaseous fuel is
produced. The name of this gaseous fuel and its composition
are
(a) Natural gas, CO + H2 (b) Producer gas, N2 + CO
(c) Water gas, H2 + CO (d) All of these.
Ans. (c) Water gas, H2 + CO

PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Make a list of different things which we use in our daily life.
List of things : In our daily life we use following things. Solar energy
moving water in the river air, clay sand, hydroelectric power, oil coal
and natural gas, as well as minerals like iron, copper and aluminum.
Now categorise them into inexhaustible and exhaustible sources of energy.
S.N. Inexhaustible Sources Exhaustible Sources
1. Solar energy Oil
2. Moving water in the river Coal
3. Air Natural gas
4. Clay sand Iron
5. Hydroelectric power Copper

60 Solution Book
 Investigation – 2
To find out how much fossil fuel you use every day at your home
or in your family. Check and make a list of things in which you
use fossil fuels. Write the approximate quantity also.
(a) Cooking gas LPG/PNG, _____________________________
__________________________________________________
(b) Petrol/Diesel/CNG in the vehicle, _____________________
__________________________________________________
(c) Use of coal at home, ________________________________
_________________________________________________
(d) Kerosene oil, ______________________________________
__________________________________________________
(e) Coal tar, __________________________________________
__________________________________________________
(f) Wax, _____________________________________________
__________________________________________________
(g) Vaseline, __________________________________________
__________________________________________________
(h) Naphthalene balls, __________________________________
__________________________________________________
Conclusion: _____________________________________________
Students to do themselves.
________________________________________________________

6 Combustion and Flame

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. Combustion of a substance is a/an
(a) reduction reaction
(b) oxidation reaction
(c) decomposition reaction
Ans. (b) oxidation reaction
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 61
 2. The gas present in the atmosphere which helps in the
combustion of substances is
(a) hydrogen (b) nitrogen (c) oxygen
Ans. (c) oxygen
3. The materials which burn, are commonly called
(a) Combustible materials
(b) Burning materials
(c) Inflammable materials
Ans. (a) Combustible materials
4. A substance which helps in the combustion of a combustible
substance is called
(a) Combustion
(b) Supporter of combustion
(c) Fuel
Ans. (b) Supporter of combustion
5. The hottest region of a candle flame is
(a) Blue zone (b) Dark inner zone (c) Luminous zone
Ans. (a) Blue zone
6. Which one of the following is an inflammable substance?
(a) Petrol (b) Water (c) Mercury
Ans. (a) Petrol

B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:

1. A good fuel should have low ignition temperature.
2. LPG is an inflammable fuel.
3. During incomplete combustion of a fuel carbon monoxide
gas is formed.
4. A region of burning gases is called flame.
5. CNG is an example of a gaseous fuel.
6. For combustion, there must be a continuous supply of oxygen.
7. A good fuel should have high calorific value.

C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :

Column A Column B
1. The burning region of gases (a) Dark inner zone
2. A fuel with least calorific value (b) Flame

62 Solution Book
 3. A gas produced during combustion, (c) Sulphur dioxide
which acts as plant food
4. A gas produced during combustion, (d) Carbon dioxide
which causes acid rain
5. A temperature of a material at (e) Cow dung
which it catches fire in air
6. The coldest part of the flame (f) Ignition temperature
Ans. 1. (b) 2. (e) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (f) 6. (a)
D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given
below :
1.
CNG is liquefied natural gas.
2.
Forest fires occur as a result of spontaneous combustion.
3.
Coal is an inflammable fuel.
4.
Blue zone of a candle flame is the coolest.
5.
Oxygen is a supporter of combustion.
6.
The calorific value of fuels is expressed in kilojoules per
kilogram.
Ans. 1. False 2. False 3. True
4. False 5. True 6. True

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Name the hottest region of a flame.
Ans. The outer nonluminous zone is the hottest region of a flame.
2. Name a substance which has a low ignition temperature.
Ans. Petrol has a low ignition temperature.
3. Give an example each of solid, liquid and gaseous fuels.
Ans. Coal, petrol and CNG, are examples of solid, liquid and
gaseous fuels respectively.
4. What is the fuel for our body?
Ans. Food is the fuel for our body.
5. How many zones are found in a flame of burning candles?
Ans. According to Berzelius, candle flame consists of four zones.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 63
 6. Give an example of explosion.
Ans. Firework is an example of explosion.
7. Name a fuel that does not vaporize.
Ans. Coal does not vaporize.
8. Name the least hot zone of a flame.
Ans. Inner dark zone is the least hot zone of a flame.
9. Give one effect of global warming on glaciers?
Ans. Glaciers are vanishing due to global warming.
10. What is essential for combustion?
Ans. The presence of a combustible substance.
11. What is commonly used to control fire?
Ans. Fire extinguisher is commonly used to control fire.
12. Name a gas responsible for acid rain.
Ans. Sulphur di-oxide
13. Which is the easily available fuel in rural areas?
Ans. Biogas is easily available in rural areas.
14. Give a feature of a good fuel.
Ans. A good fuel should have high calorific value.
15. Which gas is released from incomplete combustion of coal?
Ans. Carbon monoxide is produced due to incomplete combustion
of fossil fuel.
16. What causes rise in temperature of the atmosphere?
Ans. Greenhouse gas is the basic reason for temperature rise of
the atmosphere.
17. Give an example of rapid combustion.
Ans. The immediate burning of cooking gas in a gas stove is an
example of rapid combustion.
18. Name a fuel having high calorific value.
Ans. The fuel LPG has a high calorific value.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. Define combustion.
Ans. The process of burning of fuels to produce heat and light is
known as combustion. The materials which burn, are called
combustible materials like paper, wood, petrol, etc.

64 Solution Book
 2. What is the supporter of combustion? Give an example.
Ans. A substance which helps in combustion is called supporter of
combustion. For example during the combustion of carbon,
oxygen (or air) is a supporter of combustion.
3. What do you mean by ignition temperature?
Ans. Each combustible substance must be heated to certain
temperature before it could catch fire. The lowest temperature
upto which a substance must be heated before it catches fire
is called its ignition temperature.
4. Define inflammable substances. Give three examples of
inflammable substances.
Ans. Such substance which catch fire easily and burn are called
inflammable or combustible substance. For example wood,
coal, petrol, etc are inflammable substances.
5. Give the suitable conditions necessary for combustion.
Ans. Presence of a combustible substance, combustion is only
possible if the substance is combustible. Presence of a supporter
of combustion, adequate supply of a supporter of combustion
(e.g. oxygen) is essential for combustion. Attainment of ignition
temperature.
6. Give three characteristics of a good fuel.
Ans. Characteristics of a good fuel (i) have a high caloric value
(ii) have a definite ignition temperature (well above the room
temperature but not too high) (iii) be easy and safe to handle
with least polluting.
7. What is a solid fuel? Give two examples.
Ans. Combustible substances which are solid at room temperature
are called solid fuels. Solid fuels contain mainly carbon both
as free and combined carbon. Two solid fuels are coal and wood.
8. What is a liquid fuel? Give two examples.
Ans. Volatile liquids which produce combustible vapour are called
liquid fuels. Two examples of liquid fuels are petrol and kerosene.
9. What is gaseous fuel? Give two examples.
Ans. Combustible gases or mixtures of combustrible gases are called
gaseous fuels. Two examples of gaseous fuels are natural gas,
biogas.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 65

 10. What is the difference between a combustible substance and
a fuel?
Combustible substance Fuel
Combustible substance is a Fuel is such a substance
substance which react with which react with oxygen
oxygen to burn. Wax is a continuously to produce
combustible substance but adequate amount of heat.
not fuel. Wood or LPG are fuel and
combustible substance.

11. What is acid rain? What causes acid rain?

Ans. The rain water containing dissolved oxides of nitrogen and
sulphur is called acid rain. Burning of coal and diesel releases
sulphur dioxide gas. More over, petrol engines give off gaseous
oxides of nitrogen. Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen dissolve
in rain water forming acid rain.
12. Water is a good fire extinguisher. But it is not used to extinguish
electrical fires and oil fires. Explain.
Ans. Water cannot be used in case of electrical fire, because water
is a good conductor of electricity and it might give shock.
Water cannot be used in case of fire caused due to liquid fuel
like oil. Oil is lighter than water and floats on its surface,
hence water cannot extinguish such fire.
13. It is not safe to burn a coal in a closed room. Give reason.
Ans. Coal on burning produces carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and
carbon monoxide. Carbon monoxide is very poisonous gas.
Excessive inhaling of carbon dioxide gas can kill a person.
So it is not safe to burn coal in a closed room.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. How can a fire be controlled? Explain.
Ans. Fire can be extinguished or controlled by the following ways.
By removing the combustible substances from the place and
the surrounding area. By cutting the supply of the supporter
of combustion, i.e, by cutting the supply of air. By lowering
the temperature of the burning object below its ignition
temperature. Water should not be used for extinguishing fire
caused by electric short circuiting and oil fires.

66 Solution Book
 2. How does burning of fuels lead to harmful products? Give a
brief account.
Ans. The burning of fuels like wood, coal and petroleum products
releases unburnt carbon particles in the air. These fine carbon
particles are dangerous pollutants. Incomplete combustion of
fuels produces a very poisonous gas called carbon monoxide
Burning of fuels releases carbon dioxide in air causing
global warming.
3. Explain the types of combustion with the help of examples.
Ans. Spontaneous combustion : Some substances have a very low
ignition temperature. These substances need not to be brought
in contact with any igniting material. this type of combustion
is termed as spontaneous combustion. Sodium and phosphorus
are example of such combustion. Fast combustion; Substance
like petrol, kerosene, LPG under go fast combustion. These
fuels catch fire instantly, the moment an igniting material
is brought in contact with them explosion. When cracker is
ignited a sudden reaction takes place with heat and light.
This is called explosion. Slow combustion: Some substances
have moderate ignition temperature, so they burn slowly. e.g.
wood, coal and candle.
4. Draw a diagram showing different zones of a candle flame.
Which zone contains :
(a) unburnt vapour of wax
(b) very hot carbon particles?
Ans. (a) Innermost zone contain
unburnt vapour of wax.
(b) Central luminous zone contain
very hot carbon particles.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. Burning of a heap of green leaves is difficult but dry leaves
catch the fire easily. Why? Explain briefly. [HOTS]
Ans. Green leaves contain moisture where as dry leaves do not.
As a result the ignition temperature of green leaves is higher
than that of dry leaves. Due to this reason it is difficult to
burn a heap of green leaves.
2. Paper by itself catches fire easily but a piece of paper wrapped
around a copper pipe does not. Give the reason. [HOTS]
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 67
 Ans. Paper by itself catches fire easily because it has low ignition
temperature, hence it easily burns. Whereas a paper wrapped
around a copper pipe does not burn because: Copper is a
metal and a good conductor of heat. Heat energy supplied is
absorbed by the copper pipe. Paper never attains its ignition
temperature. Hence paper wrapped in copper pipe does not burn.
3. One day Gopal was walking nearby his slum area. He saw that
clothes of a person had caught fire. He went there immediately
and wrapped a blanket around the person then his clothes
extinguished. In this way Gopal saved his life. Answer the
following questions based on the above information :
[Value Based Question]
(a) What value were depicted by Gopal’s action?
Ans. Helping nature
(b) Why did Gopal wrap a blanket around the person?
Ans. Gopal wrapped the body part with blanket because it restricts
the supply of oxygen to that area and hence the fire is
extinguished.
4. Make a list of five fuels used in your locality. Calculate the
calorific value of each fuel. Find out their cost per kilogram.
Then determine about which fuel is the cheapest, which is
the costliest and by how much. [Project Based Question]
Ans. Name of fuel Calorific value (kJ/g)
Coal 25-33
Cow dung cakes 17-22
LPG 55
Petrol 47
Diesel 50
5. Blow out the burning candle after it has burnt for some time.
Immediately bring a lighted matchstick near the smoke. What
happens to the burning matchstick? What do you conclude
from such an action? [Activity Based Question]
Ans. It is notice that the flame from the match jumps the gap and
reignites the wick. It is only the wax vapours that burns.
Neither liquid wax nor solid wax burns. When candle wick
is lit the heat produced from the flame melts the wax, heat
vaporizes the molten wax in the wick.

68 Solution Book
 OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is the correct increasing order of
calorific value of the given fuels?
(a) Coal < LPG < Biogas < Cow dung cake < hydrogen
(b) Cow dung cake < Biogas < Coal < LPG < Hydrogen
(c) Cow dung cake < Coal < Biogas < LPG < Hydrogen
(d) Hydrogen < Cow dung cake < LPG < Biogas < Coal
Ans. (c) Cow dung cake < Coal < Biogas < LPG < Hydrogen
2. Saurabh, a class 8 student conducted the following experiment
and recorded the observations in the given table.
Balloon Balloon
fully filled half filled
with air with air

Figure X Figure Y
Observation Does balloon explode? Is ignition temperature
of balloon reached?
Fig. X Fig. Y Fig. X Fig. Y
A. Yes Yes No Yes
B. Yes No Yes No
C. No Yes Yes Yes
The correct observation and inference drawn are :
(a) A balloon has a higher ignition temperature than water
hence, it explodes.
(b) B, water increases the melting point of balloon.
(c) C, water in the balloon absorbs the heat.
(d) B, water conducts the heat away from the balloon.
Ans. (d) B, water conducts the heat away from the balloon.
3. Natural resources are classified as :
X. Exhaustible Y. Inexhaustible
Some natural resources are
(A) Petrol, diesel (B) Coal, petroleum
(C) Air, water (D) Cow dung cakes, sunlight
(E) Forests, minerals
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 69
 Which of the following represents the correct match?
(a) X–C, D; Y–A, B, E
(b) X–A, B, E; Y–C, D
(c) X–B, E; Y–A, C, D
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) X–A, B, E; Y–C, D
4. Which of the following statements are true?
A. In the luminous zone of candle flame, vaporised wax gets
oxidised to carbon dioxide which burns with a blue flame.
B. There is no burning in the dark inner zone of the flame.
C. Non luminous zone is the hottest part of the flame.
D. Luminous zone of a flame is mainly due to incomplete,
burning of carbon.
(a) A and C only (b) B and C only
(c) B, C and D only (d) All of these
Ans. (c) B, C and D only
5. What is the principle of soda fire extinguisher?
(a) Carbon dioxide produced cuts off the supply of oxygen
by covering the fire like a blanket.
(b) Water produced breaks the supply of oxygen by covering
the fire.
(c) Base present in the container neutralises the fire.
(d) Nitrogen gas produced cuts off the supply of oxygen by
covering the fire.
Ans. (a) Carbon dioxide produced cuts off the supply of oxygen
by covering the fire like a blanket.

PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1

Aim : To show that air/oxygen is necessary for burning.

Requirements : Two candles, a glass jar
and a matchstick.
Procedure : Light the two candles and fix
them on a table.
Invert the glass jar over one of the candles.
70 Solution Book
Observation : The candle burns for a little while, then flickers and
blow off.
Conclusion and Explanation : The candle burns for a while using
the oxygen present inside the glass tumbler. It then blows off as the air
supply is cut off. This indicates that air is necessary for combustion.

Investigation – 2
Aim : To show that attainment of ignition temperature is necessary to
burn a substance.
Requirements : Two paper cups,
bunsen burner, tripod stand, water, and
wire-mesh.
Procedure : Take two unused paper
cups. Hold one on the flame of a burner.
Now fill half of the other cup with
water. Place the cup on a wire-mesh
and heat it using a burner. Now, observe carefully.
Observation : The paper cup without water started burning, where as the
water in the second paper cup started to boil and paper cup did not burn.
Conclusion and Explanation : The paper cup with water doesn’t burn
because the heat given by the flame is quickly transferred from the paper
cup to the water. As a result the ignition temperature of the paper is not
reached and hence the paper does not burn. The heat gained by water
raises its temperature and finally it starts boiling.

Conservation of
7 Plants and Animals

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. The species which are in danger of extinction are known as
(a) Extinct (b) Endangered (c) Vulnerable
Ans. (b) Endangered
2. Wise and judicious use of natural resources is known as
(a) Conservation (b) Reservation (c) Deforestation
Ans. (a) Conservation
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 71
 3. Which of the following provides protection to wild animals
only?
(a) National Park (b) Biosphere Reserve
(c) Wildlife Sanctuaries
Ans. (c) Wildlife Sanctuaries
4. Seasonal journey undertaken by animals is known as
(a) Migration (b) Cruise (c) Joy ride
Ans. (a) Migration
5. Source book containing records of all endangered species of
plants and animals is known as
(a) Green Book (b) Orange Data Book
(c) Red Data Book
Ans. (c) Red Data Book
B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:
1. The overuse or wastage of resources would lead to imbalance
among the natural resources.
2. Maximum biodiversity occurs in forests.
3. The most serious threat to biodiversity comes from habitat
destruction.
4. A group of populations which are capable of interbreeding
are known as species.
5. Endemic species of plants and animals are found exclusively
in a particular area.
6. Species of plants and animals which have been lost forever
are known as extinct.
C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :
Column A Column B
1. Kaziranga sanctuary (a) Biodiversity
2. Wildlife Protection Act (b) Reforestation
3. Restocking of forests with new plants (c) 1972
4. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary (d) Satpura
National Park
5. Gir sanctuary (e) Assam
6. National Park having finest Indian Teak (f) Gujarat

72 Solution Book
 7. Variety of living organisms found (g) Rajasthan
on earth
Ans. 1. (e) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (g)
5. (f)
6. (d) 7. (a)
D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given
below :
1. Migration is a joy trip taken by humans only.
2. Paper is manufactured from wood.
3. Restocking of forests with new trees is known as reforestation.
4. Species which are already extinct are known as threatened
species.
5. Careful use of natural resources is called conservation.
6. Activities like grazing or cultivation are not allowed in national
parks.
Ans. 1. False 2. True 3. True
4. False 5. True 6. True

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Give one consequence of deforestation.
Ans. Loss of habitat for wildlife
2. Name two natural calamities caused due to deforestation.
Ans. Drought, desertification
3. Name the protected area where only animals are protected
from any disturbance.
Ans. Wildlife sanctuary
4. Name two threatened wild animals which are protected in
Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary.
Ans. Chinkara, nilgai
5. What do the plants, animals and microorganisms along with
non-living things make together?
Ans. Ecosystem.
6. Name the source book of records of endangered animals and
plants.
Ans. Red Data Book
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 73
 7. How many trees are cut-down to make one tonne of paper?
Ans. 17 full-grown (approximately) trees are cut-down to make
one tonne of paper.
8. Name the Act aimed at preservation and conservation of
natural forests.
Ans. Forest (Conservation) Act
9. Which factor is responsible for migration of birds from one
place to another?
Ans. Weather change
10. Name an extinct animal.
Ans. Dodo
11. Name two endemic species of the Pachmarhi Biosphere
Reserve.
Ans. Bison, giant squirrel
12. What is called a group of population which are capable of
interbreeding?
Ans. Species
13. Name the national park found in Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Ans. Satpura national park.
14. Name two types of protected areas.
Ans. Biosphere reserve, national park
15. What does biological diversity refer to?
Ans. Interdependence of all the components in nature.
16. What does the increased amount of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere lead to?
Ans. Global warming.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. What is Red Data Book?
Ans. Red Data Book is the source book which keeps a record of all
the endangered and threatened species of plants and animals.
These books are maintained by IUCN.
2. Define ‘biodiversity’.
Ans. The great variety of all living organisms found on earth, their
interrelationships and their relationship with the environment
is known as biodiversity.

74 Solution Book
 3. What are extinct species? Give two examples.
Ans. The species of plants and animals which have been lost forever
are called extinct species. Examples: dinosaurs, dodo, etc.
4. What do you mean by ‘biosphere reserve’? Name any two
biosphere reserves in India.
Ans. Large areas of protected land for conservation of biodiversities
in that area is called biosphere reserve. Examples : Panchmarhi
and Sunderbans are two of 14 biosphere reserves in India.
5. What is the purpose of making national parks, wildlife
sanctuaries and biosphere reserves?
Ans. To protect the flora and fauna and their habitats is the purpose
of setting national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere
reserves.
6. What is deforestation? Give its main purposes.
Ans. Clearing of forests for using that land for other purposes is
called deforestation. Main purposes are for cultivation, building
houses and factories, furniture or fuel.
7. Give a brief account of consequences of deforestation.
Ans. Deforestation increases global average temperature and
pollution level on earth, it lowers the ground water level,
results in a decrease fertility of soil, shortage of forest products,
landslide, etc.
8. There is a need of conservation of biodiversity. Give the reasons.
Ans. Any disturbance to the living or non-living components of
the biodiversity will cause drastic adverse effects on all
other organisms. To maintain balance, we need to conserve
biodiversity.
9. Why are the protected areas not completely safe for wild
animals in present scenario?
Ans. Although killing or capturing of animals is strictly prohibited,
people living in the neighbourhood encroach upon them and
destroy them.
10. What is migration? Why do the birds migrate from one country
to another?
Ans. Migration is the seasonal journeys by animals in response
to changes in weather. Birds migrate for laying eggs as the
weather in their natural habitat becomes inhospitable.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 75

 11. What will happen if the habitats of animals in an area are
destroyed?
Ans. When habitats are destroyed, the animals and other organisms
that live in the area decline in population and extinction of
the animals species become more likely.
12. How does deforestation affect the soil of that area?
Ans. Deforestation result in soil erosion. It also leads to change in
the physical properties of soil such as water holding capacities
fertilities nutrient content, texture, etc.
13. Give differences between a zoo and a wildlife sanctuary.
Zoo Wildlife Sanctuary
1. Zoo is an artificial setting. 1. It is a natural habitat.
2. A n i m a l s a r e k e p t i n 2. Animals in sanctuaries live
captivities. freely.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. Explain about the different types of protected areas.
Ans. (a) Biosphere reserves are large areas of protected land for
conservation of wildlife, plant and animal resources and
traditional tribals living in that area.
(b) Wildlife sanctuaries provide protection and suitable living
conditions to wild animals.
(c) National parks are large and diverse areas set up to protect
the whole sets of ecosystem as well as landscape and
historical objects.
2. Make a list of National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries and
Biosphere Reserves in India.
Ans. National Parks Wildlife Sanctuaries Biosphere Reserve
1. Jim Corbett Bharatpur Panchmarhi
2. Kanha Kaziranga Nilgiri
3. Satpura Sultanpur Similipal
4. Palamau Bandipur Sunderbans
5. Similipal Periyar Great Rann of Kutch
6. Todaba Sariska Nanda Devi
7. Kaziranga Gir Panna

76 Solution Book
 3. Why should we save paper? List the different ways by which
you can save paper.
Ans. Paper is another cause of deforestation. It takes about 17
full grown trees to make one tonne of paper. Also amount of
water, energy and chemicals used in paper production can be
reduced by saving paper. The ways of saving paper are reuse,
recycle, use both sides of a sheet of paper, think before you
print, borrow, share and donate books, buy recycled paper
products, etc.
4. What is reforestation? How does it replenish the biodiversity?
Give the role of Forest (Conservation) Act also.
Ans. Restocking of forests by planting new trees is known as
reforestation. The planted trees should generally be of the same
species as found in that forest. As forests provide food, shelter
and numerous other things to animals, the ecosystem or the
wildlife will naturally grow. The Forest (Conservation) Act is
aimed at preservation and conservation of natural forest. Forest
also have the capacity to re-restablish themselves naturally.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. Why should we protect the wildlife? [HOTS]
Ans. Wild life is an important part of ecosystem where different
organisms are interrelated through food chains and food webs.
Even if a single wildlife species gets extinct, it disturbs the
whole food chain and the balance in nature is also disturbed.
2. How are the wild animals affected by cutting of forests?
[HOTS]
Ans. Forests provide the wild animals with food and shelter, thus it
is home to them. If we cut forests, the habitat of wild animals
is then destroyed and their species is threatened. The species
may face extinction.
3. After studying the chapter on ‘conservation’, Rakesh went
with his parents to a forest area where trees were being cut.
Rakesh asked why were the trees being cut and whether they
had permission to do so? He learnt that trees were being cut
for paper making. He soon realized that he should not waste
paper. He also started using greeting cards made of recycled
paper. [Value Based Question]

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 77

 Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) How can the cutting of trees be reduced or prevented?
Ans. Cutting of trees can be reduced or prevented by reducing,
reusing and recycling paper.
(b) What values are displayed by Rakesh in taking initiative?
Ans. Rakesh displayed his concern and a sense of responsibility
towards the environment.
(c) Suggest two school activities to promote such values in
school children.
Ans. 1. School children can learn to make book covers, scratch
pads and art-papers from waste papers.
2. Collect waste papers in a classroom for a week and try
to reduce.
4. Write a note on Van Mahotsava program and plant some
plants in your locality or garden. [Project Based Question]
Ans. Van Mahotsava program is a week long festival of planting
trees and spreading awareness and enthusiasm among people.
It started in 1950 and is celebrated every year during July 1
to 7.
5. Make a report on the animals and plants that exist in your
locality and compare it with the biodiversity of Biosphere
reserves, wildlife sanctuary etc. [Project Based Question]
Students to do themselves.
Ans. __________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
6. Visit a biosphere reserve collect the information about
vulnerable species, endangered species and endemic species
in that area. [Activity Based Question]
Find out what steps have been taken to protect wildlife.
Ans. Students
__________________________________________________
to do themselves.
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
_________________________________________________

78 Solution Book
 7. Paper can be recycled five to seven times for use. Recycled
paper is prepared from waste paper. You know that paper
mills convert the wood of a tree into pulp. The pulp is then
bleached and rolled into paper. Prepare a chart of recycled
papers and their proper uses and also find out how recycled
paper differs from the writing paper? [Activity Based Question]
Ans. Recycled paper is used as office paper, toilet paper and
tissues, paper towels, greeting cards, cardboard, magazines
and newspepers. Recycling paper saves trees, energy, water
and other chemicals. Writing paper is bleached with chemicals
to make it white and its source is wood pulp.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is/are caused due to uncontrolled
deforestation?
(a) The destruction of habitats
(b) Landslides
(c) Floods
(d) All of these
Ans. (d) All of these
2. Which of the following is an abiotic component?
(a) Crow (b) Grass
(c) Humidity (d) Bacteria
Ans. (c) Humidity
3. Which of the following is the result of the introduction of
exotic species?
(a) Conservation of wildlife
(b) Maintenance of biodiversity
(c) Adverse effect on native species
(d) Survival of native species
Ans. (c) Adverse effect on native species
4. Which of the following should be practised to preserve and
conserve the environment?
(a) Deforestation (b) Recycling
(c) Soil erosion (d) Pollution
Ans. (b) Recycling

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 79

 5. Which of the following are biotic components of an ecosystem?
(a) Flora (b) Fauna
(c) Soil (d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d) Both (a) and (b)
6. Which of the following is a biodiversity hotspot?
(a) Oceans (b) Rivers
(c) Forests (d) Deserts
Ans. (c) Forests
7. What is the direction of energy flow in an ecosystem?
(a) Unidirectional (b) Bidirectional
(c) Circular (d) Multidirectional
Ans. (a) Unidirectional
8. Species which are on the verge of extinction are called
(a) Extinct species (b) Rare species
(c) Vulnerable species (d) Endangered species
Ans. (d) Endangered species

PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Visit a nearby zoo.
List the animals, you see there.
Analyse the conditions provided to them. Note down your observation
and analysis :
S. No. Name of animals Suitable Harming
conditions conditions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

80 Solution Book
Analysis :
Students to do themselves.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________

Observation :
____________________________________________
Students to do themselves.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
___________________________________________

Investigation – 2
Make a list of famous National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries and
Biosphere Reserves in our country.
Ans. National Parks – Jim Corbett, Kaziranga, Kanha, Namdapha
Wildlife sanctnaries – Bhadra, Koyna, Karlapat, Bharatpur,
Hastinapur, Sukhna Biosphere reserve – Nilgiris, Sunderbans,
Panchmarhi, Nanda Devi, Similipal

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 81

Now, mark the location of all these protected areas in the given map.
N
INDIA
OUTLINE MAP (POLITICAL)

Sukhna wildlife Sanctuary

Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
Jim Corbett National Park
Hastinapur Kaziranga
wildlife sanctuary National Park
Bharatpur Bird
Sanctuary Namdapha
National Park

Panchmartion
Biosphere reserve Sunderbans
Kanha National Park Biosphere Reserve
Similipal
Koyna wildlife Karlapat wildlife sanctuary
sanctuary
Bay
of
Bengal
Arabian
Sea Bhadra wildlife
sanctuary National Park
Wildlife sanctuary
Nilgiris
Biosphere Biosphere Reserve
Reserve

82 Solution Book
 8 Cell-Structure and Functions

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. The basic unit of living things is
(a) Tissue (b) Nucleus (c) Cell
Ans. (c)
2. Who discovered the ‘cell’ for the first time?
(a) Louis Pasteur (b) Robert Hooke (c) Charles Darwin
Ans. (b)
3. Which of the following is the largest cell?
(a) Hen’s egg (b) Amoeba (c) Ostrich egg
Ans. (c)
4. The spherical dense body present inside the nucleus is known
as
(a) nuclear membrane (b) nucleolus
(c) chromosome
Ans. (b)
5. Genes are present on
(a) chromosomes (b) lysosome (c) golgi bodies
Ans. (a)
6. Green coloured plastids found in plant cells are known as
(a) centrosomes (b) chloroplasts (c) chromosomes
Ans. (b)

B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:

1. The term “cell” was given by Robert Hooke.
2. Cell wall is present in plant cells.
3. The nucleus is the control centre of the cell.
4. An ostrich egg is a cell that can be seen without a microscope.
5. Chloroplasts are the green coloured structures.
6. Vacuoles present in plant cells are large.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 83

C. Match the statements in column A with those in column B :
Column A Column B
1. Blue-green algae (a) Animal cell
2. Basic unit of living body (b) Nucleus
3. Lack of cell wall (c) Structural and
functional unit
4. Control centre of cell (d) Cytoplasm
5. The cell (e) Prokaryotic cell
6. Jelly like substance between (f) Cell
cell membrane and nucleus
Ans. 1. (e) 2. (f) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d)

D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given

below :
1. Cells show great variation in their sizes and shapes.
2. The shape of a cell is never related with its function.
3. Cell membrane is present only in animals.
4. Every cell possesses cytoplasm.
5. Most cells are microscopic.
6. Only the nucleus of a cell represents the protoplasm.
Ans. 1. True 2. False 3. False
4. True 5. True 6. False

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Name the largest cell in human body.
Ans. Human ovum is the largest cell of human body.
2. Which unicellular organism has pseudopodia?
Ans. Amoeba has pseudopodia
3. Which part of a cell is called the “control centre of the cell’?
Ans. Nucleus is called the control centre of the cell.
4. Name an organ of human body.
Ans. Stomach is an organ of human body
84 Solution Book
 5. Name an organ system of human body.
Ans. Alimentary canal represents an organ system of human.
6. Name a prokaryotic organism.
Ans. Bacteria and blue-green algae are prokaryotic organisms.
7. Which unicellular organism has no definite shape?
Ans. Amoeba has no definite shape.
8. What is the shape of WBC (white blood cell)?
Ans. WBC has no definite shape. It can change its shape.
9. Name the long branched cell found in human body.
Ans. Nerve cell is a long branched cell found in human body.
10. What is a group of similar cells performing a specific function
known as?
Ans. A group of similar cells performing a specific function is
tissue.
11. Name the outermost membrane of animal cell.
Ans. Cell membrane is the outermost membrane of animal cell.
12. What is a gene?
Ans. Gene is a unit of inheritance in living organisms.
13. Which organelles give green colour to plant cells?
Ans. Chloroplasts give green colour to plant cells.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. What is a cell? Name its different parts.
Ans. A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living
organisms. Its different parts include cell membrane, cytoplasm,
cell organelles, nucleus etc.
2. What is protoplasm?
Ans. Protoplasm refers to the cell excluding cell membrane. It
includes cytoplasm, cell organelles and nucleus of the cell.
It is considered to be the living part of a cell.
3. Why is the nucleus called the ‘control centre of the cell’?
Ans. Nucleus is known as the control centre of the cell because
all the activities of a cell are operated from nucleus via small
units called genes.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 85

 4. Draw the diagram of a plant cell and label its different parts.

5. What are cell organelles? Name the cell organelles which are
found only in plant cells.
Ans. Cell organelles are components of cell present in cytoplasm.
They take care of different activities of a cell. The organelles
found only in plant cells are mitochondria, Golgi complex,
chloroplast, endoplasmic reticulum and nucleus.
6. Give a brief description about ‘discovery of cell’.
Ans. Robert Hooke discovered ‘cell’ for the first time while
studying cork under microscope. He observed honey comb
like structures which were partitioned by walls. He coined
the term ‘cell’ for each of these boxes.
7. Are the cells in big animals, larger than the cells in small
animals? Explain.
Ans. The size of cells has no relation with the size of animals.
Size of the cell is related to its function. For example, cell
size in an elephant and rat is the same. Nerve cells are long
and branched in both animals.
8. What is cell wall? Give its role in the cell body.
Ans. Cell wall is the outermost, hard-rigid covering of bacteria
and plants. It provides protection to the cell body from outer
harsh environment.

86 Solution Book
 9. What are vacuoles? How do they differ in plant cells from
animal cells?
Ans. Vacuoles are sac-like blank-looking structures in the cytoplasm.
In plant cells, they are larger in size while in animal cells,
they are smaller as well as less in number.
10. Define plastids. Name the plastids found in plant cells.
Ans. Small coloured bodies present in the cytoplasm of the plant
cells are called plastids. The plastids found in plant cells are
green in colour and are called chloroplast.
11. Differentiate between eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

Eukaryotes Prokaryotes
1. Organisms with cells 1. Organisms with cells
having well organised lacking a well-organised
nucleus enclosed by a nucleus.
nuclear membrane. 2. These do not possess
2. These poses membrane membrane-bound
bound cell organelles e.g. organelles. e.g.,
Humans, plants etc. Bacteria, Amoeba etc.
12. What are genes? Give their functions.
Ans. Genes are the units of inheritance in living organisms. These
control the transfer of a hereditary characteristics from parents
to offspring.
13. Draw a well-labelled diagram of human cheek-cells.
Ans.

14. Amoeba keeps on changing its shape. What advantages does

Amoeba derive from it?
Ans. Amoeba is an organism capable of changing shape. This
feature allows it to form pseudopodia with the help of which,
movement and capturing of food is facilitated.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 87

 15. ‘The shapes of cells are related to their functions’. Justify
this statement with the help of some examples.
Ans. The shapes of cells are related to the functions of the cell. For
example nerve cells are long and branched having a trap like
shape. It is to allow the cell to receive and transfer messages
to control and co-ordinate the working of different parts of
the body.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. Discuss the role of different cell organelles found in cytoplasm
of a cell.
Ans. The cytoplasm of cell consists of nucleus, mitochondria
chloroplasts, golgi bodies, ribosomes and endoplasmic
reticulum. Mitochondria plays an important role in energy
generation, nucleus controls all the activities of cell.
Chloroplasts help in photosynthesis in plants. Endoplasmic
reticulum and Golgi bodies are responsible for transport of
substances in cell. Ribosomes play an important role in protein
synthesis.
2. Give the differences between plant cells and animal cells in
detail.
Plant cells Animal cells
1. Cell wall is present 1. Cell wall is absent
2. Chloroplasts with the 2. Chloroplasts are absent
pigment chlorophyll are
present
3. Vacuoles are larger and 3. Vacuoles are smaller and
fewer in number many in number
3. Explain the structure of an animal cell with the help of a
labelled diagram.
Ans. An animal cell is a eukaryotic
cell. The outer membrane
of animal cells is plasma
membrane. They lack cell
wall. Cell membrane encloses
cytoplasm in which cell
organelles are scattered. The
nucleus is present in the centre.

88 Solution Book
 4. Describe the structure and function of nucleus in eukaryotic
cells. How is it different from prokaryotic nucleus?
Ans. Nucleus is generally spherical and located in the centre of
the cell. It is separated from the cytoplasm by a membrane
called the nuclear membrane which is porous and allows
the movement of materials between cytoplasm and nucleus.
Nucleus also contains a small, spherical body called nucleolus.
In addition, nucleus also contains small thread like structures
called chromosomes which carry genes and help in the transfer
of characters from one generation to another. Thus, nucleus
plays an important role in inheritance. Nuclei also controls
the activities of cells and is thus, called the control centre
of the cell. In prokaryotic cells, the nucleus does not have
nuclear membrane.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. Label the parts mentioned in the given picture.
[Diagram Based Question]
Explain the functions of only those mentioned parts which are
different from
animal cells. (ii) Cell membrane
Ans. Cell wall and (i) Cell wall
vacuole of a (iii) Vacuole
plant cell are
different than
that of animal
(iv) Nucleus
cells. Cell
wall protects
the plant cells
(v) Cytoplasm
from outer
environment.
Vacuoles stores
water and waste
materials.

2. Look at the given picture and answer the questions :

[Diagram Based Question]
(a) Name its any three parts which are visible through a
microscope.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 89

 Ans. The three parts of the cell that are visible
through a microscope are cell membrane,
cytoplasm and nucleus.
(b) Mention any three features in which these
are different from the cells of onion peel.
Ans. These cells lack a cell wall. The shape of
these cells is rounded. These cells do not have chloroplast.
These cells do not have a large vacuole.
3. Plants have no skeletal system still they stand upright for
years and years. Give reason. [HOTS]
Ans. Plants do not have skeleton still they maintain their shape
due to the presence of cell wall which has sufficient tensile
strength to support the plant. This rigidity makes the plant
to stand upright without the need of bones.
4. Why are the vacuoles found in plant cells are larger than
those found in animal cells? [HOTS]
Ans. The vacuoles found in plant cells are larger because these
help the cell in maintaining rigidity. Vacuoles maintain the
shape of cell, they store food material as well as water. Thus,
they are larger as compared to those found in animal cells.
5. Whenever Richa’s mother cuts the onion, it makes her cry.
Once her uncle suggested them to cut the onion in water or
under the running water to avoid irritation response. He told
us as cut the onions its cells are broken which allow enzymes
to break down the acids and make us cry.
[Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions, based on above information:
(a) What happens to cells when we cut or break them down
under the running water?
Ans. When we cut onion under running water, much of the vapours
from onion are redirected by the moving water, thus preventing
from reaching our eyes.
(b) Suggest any other method to avoid irritation due to onions.
Ans. To avoid irritation due to onions, we can wear kitchen goggles
or use a sharp knife so that less acid is released.
(c) Which type of value is explored by Richa’s uncle?
Ans. Wisdom, scientific knowledge.

90 Solution Book
 6. Search in science books and on internet about the discovery,
structure and uses of compound microscope. You can visit a
laboratory for senior secondary students also to see a laboratory
for compound microscope. Prepare a detail report.
[Project Based Question]
Ans. Compound microscope was invented in the 17th century.
The person who discovered microscope is still a matter of
debate. However, Zacharias Jansen is the most popular name.
It contains a combination of lenses to magnify small objects.
Compound microscopes are used to visualise small cells and
other structures.
7. Take an egg of hen. Boil it, peel and then cut it into two
halves. Draw a diagram and mention its different parts.
[Activity Based Question]

Students to do themselves.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. The green coloured structures found in cytoplasm of the cells
make the plants
(a) tall (b) autotroph
(c) flowering (d) strong
Ans. (b)
2. Look at the given picture (i). Which one of the following
is not correct for it?
(i)
(a) It has a spherical body.
(b) It contains thread like structures.
(c) It never get divided.
(d) It plays an important role in inheritance.
Ans. (c)

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 91

 3. In which of the following living organisms this cell does not
found?
(a) Human females
(b) Amoeba
(c) Rat
(d) Grasshopper
Ans. (b)
4. Which one of the following represents a
group of cells?
(a) Leaf
(b) Ostrich egg
(c) Amoeba
(d) Human sperm
Ans. (a)

PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : To observe the basic components of a cell.
Requirements : Leaf peel of Tradescantia, glass slides, forceps,
dropper, water, coverslip, compound microscope.
Procedure : 1. Take a Tradescantia leaf and take out the
epidermal peel.
2. Take glass slide and put the peel on the slide.
3. Put a drop of water on the peel then a drop of
methylene blue and cover it with coverslip.
4. Observe the slide under high power of compound
microscope.
Observation : Rectangular cells were observed with outer covering
cell wall, inner to which cell membrane is present. Cytoplasm and
nucleus are also visible.
Conclusion and Explanation : Tradescantia is a plant whose cells
are rectangular-shaped with cell wall and cell membrane enclosing a jell-
like substance called cytoplasm in which cell organelles are embedded.
Nucleus which is peripherel in location is also found.

92 Solution Book
 Investigation – 2
Aim : To study the structure of animal cells (cheek cells) by
temporary mount.
Requirements : Glass slides, coverslip, dropper, toothpick, methylene
blue, blotting paper.
Procedure : Scrap the inner lining of your cheek to collect the
cheek cells with the help of a toothpick. Now, place the cheek cells
on a drop of water in the centre of slide and leave it for 1 minute.
Now, add one drop of methylene blue and place the coverslip on it
and ensure that there should
be no air bubble under the
coverslip. Remove the excess
stain with the help of blotting
paper. Observe the slide under
the microscope.
Observation : Large-rounded cells were observed with spherical
nuclei in the centre. The cells were filled with cytoplasm enclosed by
a membrane called plasma membrane.
Conclusion and Explanation : Cheek cells are animal cells with
outermost covering as plasma membrane. Inside it, jelly-like substance
called cytoplasm is present in which nucleus is found. Nucleus is a
rounded body with a membrane called nuclear membrane.

9 Reproduction in Animals

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. In butterfly, the eggs are laid on a plant’s
(a) Roots (b) Leaves (c) Flowers
Ans. (b) Leaves
2. Sperms are produced in
(a) Ovary (b) Testes (c) Vas deferens
Ans. (b) Testes

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 93

 3. Animals which give birth to young ones are called
(a) Oviparous (b) Foetus (c) Viviparous
Ans. (c) Viviparous
4. Fertilization in case of frogs takes place
(a) In the soil
(b) Inside the female body
(c) In water
Ans. (c) In water
5. Zygote divides repeatedly to give rise to a ball of cells called
(a) Ovum (b) Oviduct (c) Embryo
Ans. (c) Embryo
6. Metamorphosis in butterfly does not include the stage of
(a) Egg (b) Tadpole (c) Larva
Ans. (b) Tadpole
B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:
1. Ovary is present in the lower abdomen of female humans.
2. The caterpillar changes into immobile pupa.
3. Fertilisation refers to the fusion of egg with sperm.
4. Budding is a method of asexual reproduction.
5. Tadpole larva develops into adult frog by the process of
metamorphosis.
6. Binary fission occurs in Amoeba.
C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :
Column A Column B
1. Caterpillars (a) Hydra
2. External fertilisation (b) Sperm
3. Binary fission (c) Butterfly
4. Budding (d) Amoeba
5. Male gamete (e) Zygote
6. Fertilised egg (f) Frog

Ans. 1. (c) 2. (f) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (e)

94 Solution Book
D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given
below :
1.The animals which lay eggs are called viviparous.
2.Embryo gets embedded in the wall of uterus.
3.In human females, one ovum is released every week.
4.A zygote is formed as a result of fertilisation.
5.External fertilisation takes place in frog, fish and other
aquatic animals.
Ans. 1. False 2. True 3. False
4. True 5. True

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Which life process is necessary for continuation of a species?
Ans. Reproduction is necessary for continuation of a species.
2. List two modes of reproduction in animals?
Ans. Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction
3. Name the mode of reproduction in Amoeba.
Ans. Binary fission is the mode of reproduction in Amoeba.
4. Name the resultant stage after fertilisation of male and female
gametes.
Ans. Fertilization of male and female gamete results in zygote.
5. Name the animal whose life stages are as follows–
Egg Caterpillar Pupa Adult
Ans. Butterfly
6. What are the bulges called that develop in Hydra?
Ans. The bulges that develop in Hydra are called buds.
7. In the development of which animal metamorphosis is seen?
Ans. Frog
8. Name an animal that was developed through cloning.
Ans. Sheep Dolly was developed through cloning
9. Egg Tadpole Adult .
Name the animal whose life stages are shown above.
Ans. Frog
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 95
 10. Name two animals in which internal fertilisation occurs.
Ans. Humans and primates
11. Name two animals in which external fertilisation occurs.
Ans. Frog and fish
12. Which animal produces a large number of eggs?
Ans. Fish produces a large number of eggs.
13. Name the largest egg in the world.
Ans. Ostrich egg is the largest in world.
14. Where does fertilisation occurs in female human?
Ans. In human female, fertilisation occurs in fallopian tube.
15. Name the male and female gametes in humans.
Ans. Male gamete–sperm, female gamete–ovum.
16. Give the full form of IVF.
Ans. IVF–Invitro fertilisation
B. Short answer type questions :
1. Define fertilisation.
Ans. Fertilisation is the process of fusion of male and female
gametes. It results in the formation of zygote.
2. Define metamorphosis.
Ans. The transformation of larva into an adult through different
stages of drastic changes is called metamorphosis.
3. What do you mean by sexual reproduction? Name two animals
that reproduce by this method.
Ans. The mode of reproduction in which a male parent and a
female parent are involved to produce their young ones is
called sexual reproduction. Example–lion, tiger.
4. What is asexual reproduction? Name two animals that
reproduce asexually.
Ans. The mode of reproduction in which only one parent is
involved to produce its offspring is called asexual reproduction.
Example– Hydra, Amoeba.
5. What is a sperm? Give its functions.
Ans. Sperm is the male gamete. Its function is to carry the male
chromosome set and fuse with the female gamete.

96 Solution Book
 6. Draw a well-labelled diagram of human sperm and ovum.

7. What is IVF? Explain in brief.

Ans. The technique in which fertilisation of ovum with sperm
occurs in a well-controlled environment outside the body is
known as In Vitro fertilisation.
8. What would have happened if living organisms had not
reproduced?
Ans. There would have been no living organisms, if they had not
reproduced.
9. Why do frogs and aquatic animals lay eggs in hundreds?
Ans. Aquatic animals lay eggs in water. There is a chance that the
eggs would be destroyed by the outer climatic and aquatic
conditions and also predators. To increase the chances of
survival of a few eggs they release eggs in hundreds.
10. Why does a hen’s egg has shell on it?
Ans. The shell in a hen’s egg is the protective layer around the
developing embryo, The shell forms around the zygote as the
zygote divides repeatedly and travels down the oviduct.
11. Differentiate between internal fertilisation and external
fertilisation with examples.
Internal Fertilisation External Fertilisation
1. Fertilisation which takes 1. Fertilisation takes place
place inside the female outside the female body.
body is called internal
fertilisation.
2. Example – Humans, cows 2. Example – fish frogs.
and hens.
12. What are viviparous animals? Give examples.
Ans. The animals which give birth to young ones are called
viviparous animals. Examples – humans, dogs, cats, etc.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 97
 13. What are oviparous animals? Give examples.
Ans. The animals which lay eggs are called oviparous animals
Examples– hens, frogs, birds, etc.
14. Differentiate between oviparous and viviparous animals.
Oviparous animals Viviparous animals
1. Animals lay eggs. Example 1. Animals give birth to
Hens and birds. young ones. Examples
Humans, cows.
2. Young ones may undergo 2. Young ones are identical
different structural to the parents.
changes. Before growing
into the adult.
15. Explain in brief – the process of budding in Hydra.
Ans. In each hydra, there are one or more outgrowths or bulges
on its bodies. These are called buds. These buds develop
into new individuals. This type of asexual reproduction is
called budding.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. What is the male reproductive system in humans? Explain in
brief with the help of simple diagram.
Ans. The male reproductive system
consists of a pair of testes, two
sperm ducts and a penis, testes
produce millions of sperms. The
sperms pass into the fallopian tube
via sperm-duct and penis.
2. E x p l a i n t h e f e m a l e
reproductive system (human)
in brief. Draw a diagram also.
Ans. The female reproductive
system consists of a pair of
ovaries, a pair of oviduct and
a uterus. The ovaries produce
ovum into the oviduct. The
zygote develops into embryo
in the uterus.
98 Solution Book
 3. What is cloning? Explain the development of the first
mammalian clone ‘Dolly’ sheep.
Ans. Cloning is the production of an exact copy of a cell, any
other living part or a complete organism. During the process
of cloning of Dolly, the nucleus of Finn Dorsette sheep was
inserted into the nucleated egg cell of Scottish black-face
ewe. The egg was implanted into the womb of ewe. The egg
developed normally into embryo and finally Dolly was born.
Dolly looked identical to Finn Dorsette ship and did not show
any character of Scottish black face ewe.
4. Draw the life cycle of a frog.
Ans.
Egg mass

Adult frog Tadpole

Tadpole
Young frog with legs

D. Some other types of questions :

1. Look at the given diagrams. How are these organisms different
from each other in case of reproduction? Mention three points
of differences. [Diagram Based Question]

Ans. 1. In Hydra, reproduction 1. In Amoeba, reproduction

takes place through occurs through binary
budding. fission.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 99

 2. Buds are the bulges or 2. Reproduction starts with
out growth on the lateral the division of nuclei,
sides of the body.
3. The buds grow and detach 3. The body divides into
from the parent body two, each part having a
and grow as separate nucleus.
individuals.

2. Answer the following based on the given diagram :

[Diagram Based Question]
(a) Name the male and female gametes.
Ans. The male gamete is the sperm.
The female gamete is the ovum.
(b) Define the process shown in the figure.
Ans. The process is the fusion of male gamete with the female
gamete and is called fertilisation.
(c) Where does this process occur in humans?
Ans. Fertilisation occurs in the fallopian tube inside the female
body.
3. Most of the aquatic animals lay eggs in running water. Still
there is external fertilisation occurring in most of the aquatic
animals. How is it possible? [HOTS]
Ans. The aquatic females lay eggs which are held together by a
layer of jelly. The aquatic males deposit sperms over them.
The sperms swim randomly in water with the help of long
tails. Few sperms come in contact with eggs, which results
in external fertilisation. They lay eggs and sperms near slow
moving water.
4. Most of us buy eggs from market to consume them. Are they
fertilised or unfertilised eggs? [HOTS]
Ans. The eggs we buy from market for consumption are not
fertilised. Hens can lay eggs whether they have been fertilised
or not. Also an egg can not be fertilised once it is laid.
5. There were two eggs of pigeons in a nest at the balcony of
Mehul’s house. Mehul was happy to look at them. But his
mother warned him not to touch, hold or break the eggs,
because if these will remain safe the baby pigeons will be
hatched out from the eggs. [Value Based Question]
100 Solution Book
 Answer the following questions, based on the above
information :
(a) What may happen if Mehul holds the eggs in his hands?
Ans. The first thing is that the nest and egg are disturbed. Also,
the parent bird which might be near could not come to it out
of fear. Again, you may drop the egg if not hold carefully.
(b) Suggest a way to keep these eggs safe?
Ans. Watch for any outside animals or birds that may approach
the nest.
(c) Which type of values are explored by Mehul’s mother?
Ans. Sense of wisdom, care for wildlife and environment.
6. Go to a pond or lake where frogs lay eggs. Observe the cluster
of frogs eggs. Draw its diagram and mention its specific
features about eggs. [Activity Based Question]

Ans. The frog’s eggs are covered by a delicate membrane and

a layer of jelly holds the eggs together and provides them
protection.
7. Sometimes, you see the twins who look exactly similar. Search
about such identical twins on internet. Compare them with
the first clone Dolly. Make a report and discuss it with your
teacher. [Project Based Question]
Ans. __________________________________________________
Students to do themselves.
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 101

 OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following shows correct function of a part of
human sperm?
(a) Part (i) helps in keeping it
active.
(b) Part (ii) transfers the genetic
material.
(c) Part (iii) helps in movement.
(d) None
Ans. (c)
2. The stage of development called foetus shows some parts
such as
(a) hands, legs, head, eyes, ears.
(b) head, nose, fingers, eyes.
(c) eyes, nose, ears, tongue.
(d) legs, toes, fingers, nose.
Ans. (a)
3. Dolly, the first clone was developed from
(a) Finn Dorsett and Scottish white face ewe.
(b) Finn ewe and Scottish Dorsett
(c) Scottish Dorsett and Fin white face ewe.
(d) Finn Dorsett and Scottish blackface ewe.
Ans. (d)
4. Which one of the following animal does not show a four-stage
life cycle?
(a) Silkworm (b) Frog
(c) Butterfly (d) Mosquito
Ans. (b)
PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Collect eggs of the following organisms, listed in the table and fill
the space provided.
Then conclude which of them show internal fertilisation and which
shows external fertilisation.
102 Solution Book
Observation :
S.N. Organisms From where Shape of Colour of
you get eggs eggs
1. Hen
2. Lizards
3. Frog
4. Butterfly
5. Duck
Conclusion and Explanation : Hen, duck and lizard show internal
fertilization. Frogs and butterfly show external fertilization.

Investigation – 2
Aim : To study asexual reproduction (budding) in Hydra.
Requirements : Permanent slides of budding in Hydra of different
states, microscope, pencil, eraser, paper, etc.
Procedure : Take a permanent slide of Hydra and observe them
under a microscope and draw its diagram of it. Repeat this process
with other slides. Now, count the number of bulges and their growth
in slides that you have seen in different slides and compare it with
the given picture.
Observation : The bulges on the lateral sides grow into a hydra
and finally detaches from its parent body.
Conclusion and Explanation : In hydra, reproduction is asexual
and occurs through the process of building.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 103

 PERIODIC TEST–2
(Based on Chapters 5 to 9)
1. Give one use of paraffin wax.
Ans. Paraffin wax is used for making candles.
2. Name two important constituents of petroleum.
Ans. Paraffin and naphthalene.
3. Which of the following is a non-combustible substance?
(a) Wood (b) Paper
(c) Straw (d) Iron nails
Ans. (d)
4. Out of these, which is able to control fire?
(a) NH3 (b) H2
(c) CO2 (d) F2
Ans. (c)
5. Give the other name for a fertilised cell.
Ans. Zygote
6. Which part of the cell contains cell organelles?
Ans. Cytoplasm
7. Name a cell that can be observed with our naked or unaided
eye.
Ans. Egg of Ostrich.
8. Is it a multicellular or unicellular structure?

Ans. Unicellular Structure

9. Why should we choose CNG as a fuel in place of petrol or
diesel?
Ans. CNG has higher calorific value than petrol and diesel. CNG
is less polluting then petrol and diesel.
10. Label the different zones of candle flame. Mention, which
one is the hottest zone?

104 Solution Book

 Ans. The outermost non-luminous zone is the hottest zone.

11. Which one will have higher ignition temperature? Give the
reason also.

Ans. The paper glass with water will have higher ignition
temperature. The heat supplied to the paper cup is transferred
to water by conduction. The ignition temperature of paper is
not reached in the presence of water. Hence, it does not burn,
instead, water in the cup become hot.
12. Look at the given picture :

(a) Name the project that was launched by the

Government to protect this species.
(b) Name two natural parks that are famous for this
animal.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 105
Ans. (a) Project Tiger was launched by the government to protect
this species.
(b) Ranthambore National Park and Sunderbans National Park.
13. What would happen if we had no wood? Give only two
effects.
Ans. No wood means no tree and there would be desert everywhere
and there would be no food, no ground water, etc.
No wood means there would be no paper, since paper is the
most important product we get from wood.
14. Give two differences between the given cells:

(A) (B)

Ans. 1. It is a plant cell, in an 1. It is an animal cell,

onion peel observed in a human’s
cheek
2. C e l l m e m b r a n e i s 2. There is no cell wall.
covered by a cell wall.
15. What is fertilisation? Give two examples of animals of each
type showing external fertilisation and internal fertilisation.
Ans. (a) Fusion of the male gamete, sperm, with the female gamete,
egg, is called fertilisation.
(b) External fertilisation occurs in fish and frog.
(c) Internal fertilisation occurs in humans and tigers.
16. Draw a labelled diagram to show binary fission in Amoeba.
Ans.

Parent Division of Separation Division

Amoeba nucleus of nuclei of Cell

Daughter
Amoeba

106 Solution Book

 17. What do you mean by IVF? Describe the technique.
Ans. IVF is the In-Vitro fertilization. In this technique, fertilisation
of ovum with sperm occurs in the test-tube outside the bodies.
Doctors collect freshly released eggs and sperms and keep
then together in a test tube for fertilisation. The zygote is
allowed to develop for a few weeks. Then zygote is placed
in the uterus of the female. The embryo then further develops
into foetus and then into a body for 40 weeks. Baby born is
this way is called test tube baby.
18. Complete the comparative table on the basis of given features:
Feature Plant cell Animal cell
1. Cell wall Present Absent
2. Cell membrane Present Present
3. Nucleus Present Present
4. Nuclear membrane Present Present
5. Cytoplasm Present Present
6. Plastids Present Absent
7. Vacuole Present, large Absent, small
8. Lysosomes Present Present
19. Write a short note on:
(a) Global warming (b) Acid rain
Ans. (a) Global warming – Gases in atmosphere such as carbon
dioxide, water vapour, sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxide,
methane, ozone, etc. can trap the reflected heat from the
surface of earth. Thus, they keep the atmosphere warm.
When these gases are present in excess amount in the
atmosphere, then they trap more heat and cause the
average temperature to rise in excess. This heating of the
atmosphere is called global warming. Global warming is
harmful for all forms of life on earth.
(b) Acid rain – Gases in atmosphere such as carbon dioxide,
oxide of sulphur and nitrogen dissolve in rain water to
form carbonic, sulphuric and nitric acid, respectively.
The rainwater containing these dissolved acids is called
acid rain. Acid rain is highly corrosive and corrodes the
metallic structures and building, destroy plants and marine
life and decreases the fertility of soil.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 107
 20. Look at the given figure and answer the following questions:

(A) (B)
(a) What does the blackish ring formed on the glass indicate
(B)?
(b) Which zone of the flame is used by goldsmith? Give the
reason.
Ans. (a) The formation of blackish ring on the glass slide indicates
the deposition of unburnt carbon particles present in the
luminous zone of the flame.
(b) Goldsmiths use outermost non luminous zone of flame,
as this is the hottest region of the flame.

MODEL TEST PAPER–1

[For Term I or Half Yearly Examination]
(Based on Chapters 1 to 9)
(Based on the entire syllabus of Term I and 30%
from the significant topics of Term I) M. M. : 80
1. The metal which is not corroded by air, water and acid is [1]
(a) Aluminium (b) Gold
(c) Zinc (d) Copper
Ans. (b) Gold
2. Compost is a [1]
(a) Manure (b) Fertiliser
(c) Fungicide (d) Weedicide
Ans. (a) Manure
3. Why are the following made of thermosetting plastics? [2]
(a) Electric plugs and switches
(b) Saucepan handles

108 Solution Book

 Ans. (a) Electric plugs and switches require materials which are
bad conductor of heat and electricity. These also require
materials that are hard and stiff. Thus they are made of
thermosetting plastic such as backelite.
(b) Saucepan handles require material which is bad conductor
of heat, fireproof, smooth. Thus these, are made of
thermosetting plastics such as melamine.
4. Distinguish between pesticides and weedicides. [2]
Ans. Weedicides are used to remove undesired plants or weeds in
a crop field that compete with the crop plants. Weedicides
kill the weeds effectively without causing any harm to crops.
Pesticides are used to control pests that damage the crops.
Pesticides can help the farmers to have a disease free crop.
5. How do these roots increase the soil fertility? [2]
Ans. Bacteria such as Rhizobium are present in
the nodules of the roots of leguminous plants.
They fix the atmospheric nitrogen, and thus
replenish the soil with nitrogen. In this way
these increase the soil fertility.
6. Draw a circuit diagram to show that metals
are good conductors of electricity. [2]
Ans. Bulb Bulb

+ Cell – + Cell –
Copper
wire
Non- Metal Metal
SO2+ H2O Litmus Paper
7. A student tested
the red and blue
litmus papers in
the given solution
as shown in the
picture. [2]
Find the change in colour of litmus papers.
Ans. Here the blue litmus paper turns red, as the solution is acid
(Sulphuric acid), whereas the red litmus does not change in
its colour.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 109
 8. Give two examples each of [2]
(a) Exhaustible natural resources.
(b) Inexhaustible natural resources.
Ans. (a) Exhaustible natural resources – Coal, petroleum.
(b) Inexhaustible natural resources – the sun, wind.
9. (a) Name the burning thing shown in the given picture.
(b) What does it form and produce on burning? [2]
Ans. (a) The burning is a piece of magnesium strip.
(b) It produces a heat and light on burning and
forms magnesium oxide after burning.
10. Define the term ‘cell’. Is the size of a cell related to the size
of body of the animal? [2]
Ans. Cell is the basic structural and functional building block of
living being.
The size of a cell is independent of the size of an organism.
11. Name two animals of each type showing [2]
(a) External fertilisation
(b) Internal fertilisation
Ans. (a) External fertilisation is shown by fish and frogs.
(b) Internal fertilisation occurs in humans and lions.
12. What are viviparous and oviparous animals? Explain in brief
with examples. [3]
Ans. The animals that give birth to young ones, are called viviparous
animals. Example coco, human, goat, etc.
Animals those lay eggs are called oviparous animals. Examples
– then, bird, etc.
13. How will you prepare a slide to observe the cells in onion
peel? [3]
Ans. Take a glass slide and coverslip and clean properly. Take an
onion bulb and remove the dry pink coverings. Separate the
fleshy white layers of bulb with forceps. Place a small piece
of the thin layer of onion peel in a drop of water on a slide.
Add a drop of methylene blue solution to the layer. Place
the coverslip on it, so that there should be no air bubbles
under the coverslip. The slide is now ready to observe under
a microscope.

110 Solution Book

 14. Write a short note on ‘reforestation’. [3]
Ans. Planting new trees, generally of the same species for
restocking of forests is known as reforestation. Reforestation
can take place naturally also. Reforestation is the solution to
deforestation.
15. A goldsmith is using a flame as shown in the given figure.
[3]
(a) Why is he doing so?
(b) Which zone of the flame is being
used by him and why?
(c) Why does he not use the innermost
zone of the flame?
OR
Observe the given figure. Give the
reason for what happens in all the
three conditions.
Ans. (a) To smoothen or melt the
metals, the goldsmith blows
the zone with a metallic blow pipe on the metals.
(b) He is using the hottest outermost non-luminous zone of
the flame. It is hottest due to complete combustion of
wax vapours.
(c) The innermost zone of the flame is the least hot region
of the candle flame. It is the zone of no combustion. So
there is no use of this part of the flame.
OR
(a) The candle burns freely, when air can enter the glass
chimney from below.
(b) Air does not enter the chimney from below, the flame
flickers and produces smoke.
(c) The flame goes off because air is not available.
16. List six natural and six man-made things used by you in your
daily life. [3]
Ans. Natural things – Wood, vegetable, cotton, silk, wool, coal.
Man-made things – Plastics, rayon, nylon, pet, acrylic, batteries.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 111
 17. What are the uses of non-metals? List them. [3]
Ans. (i) Living beings use air for inhalation.
(ii) Non-metals used in fertilisers.
(iii) Non-metals used in switches and handle of cooking pans.
(iv) Non-metals used as fuels.
18. Write about the consequences of swallowing waste materials
like polythene by cows. [3]
Ans. The cows swallow the plastic materials in the process of eating
the food waste. The plastic materials choke the respiratory
system of these animals, or forms a lining in their stomachs
and can be the cause of their death.
19. Explain the preventive measures that should be taken to protect
ourselves from [3]
(a) Measles or chicken pox
(b) Cholera and typhoid
(c) Malaria and dengue
Ans. (a) To protect ourselves from measles or chicken pox, keep
the patient in complete isolation, keep personal belongings
of the patient away from those of the others. Vaccination
should be given at a suitable age.
(b) To prevent from cholera and typhoid, maintain personal
hygiene and good sanitary habits. Consume properly
cooked food and boiled drinking water. Give vaccination.
(c) To protect from malaria and dengue, use mosquito nets
and repellants. Spray insecticides. Do not allow water to
collect in the surroundings.
20. Write the importance of silos and granaries for storage of
foodgrains. [3]
Ans. Silos are tall cylindrical storage structures with openings.
They can store different stock of foograins at different levels.
Whenever required, grains can be taken out from the openings.
Granaries consists of gunny bags filled with food grains, which
are stacked in a large godown on wooden raved platforms
away from the walls.
112 Solution Book
 Storage of large quantities of grains is done in silos and
granaries.
21. Write a short note on each of the following methods of
irrigation. [3]
(a) (b) (c)

OR
Define the terms :
(a) Acid rain
(b) Global warming
Ans. (a) Moat is a pully system used to lift water from a well.
(b) Dhekli is a very crude system in which a log of wood is
used to pull out water from the well.
(c) Rahat is a simple lever system consisting of a wheel
attached to a number of buckets. Wheel is rotated using
animals that pulls out water from the well and distributes
it in the field.
OR
(a) Acid rain – Gases like carbon dioxide and oxides of
sulphur and nitrogen mix with rainwater to form acids.
These acid dissolve in rain water and is called acid rain.
Acid rain corrodes the metallic structures, buildings and
burns plants.
(b) Global warming – Gases like carbon dioxide water vapour,
oxides of nitrogen and sulphur, methane, etc. trap the heat
reflected from surface of the earth and keep the atmosphere
warm. Excess of these gases in the atmosphere raise the
average temperature. This rise in average temperature of
atmosphere is called global warming. Global warming is
harmful for all forms of life.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 113

 22. Name two agricultural tools that are used for preparing the
soil. Draw the labelled diagram of these tools. [5]
Ans. Plough and hoe, are two traditional tools used for preparation
of soil.

23. Write a note on the nitrogen cycle. [5]

Ans. (i) Nitrogen fixation. Some bacteria like Rhizobium and blue-
green algae can fix the atmospheric nitrogen into usable
forms for the plants. Lightning also converts nitrogen into
oxides of nitrogen.
(ii) Absorption of nitrogen compounds by plants from the
soil through their root system.
(iii) Plants synthesise plant proteins and other compounds.
(iv) Animals feeding on plants get these proteins.
(v) Proteins from dead and decaying plants and animals
are converted into ammonia by ammonifying bacteria.
Ammonia is converted into nitrogen compounds by
nitrifying bacteria to be used by plants again.
(vi) Certain other bacteria convert nitrogen compounds into
free nitrogen gas which goes back into atmosphere.
24. Give the reason: [5]
(a) Lemon pickle is not stored in aluminium utensil.
(b) Copper cannot displace zinc from its salt solution.
Ans. (a) Lemon pickle contains acids. Aluminium reacts with acids
to produce hydrogen gas and poisonous metal salts. Hence,
lemon pickle is not stored in aluminium utensil.
(b) Copper is less reactive then zinc. Hence copper cannot
displace zinc from its solution.
25. How will you prepare a slide to observe the given
cells? Explain in brief. Label its different parts. [5]
Ans. Take a clean toothpick. Scrape inside of the cheek without
hurting. Place it in a drop of water on a glass slide. Add a
114 Solution Book
 drop of iodine a place a cover slip over it. Observe it under
the microscope. The parts of cell are.
a – Cell membrane b – nucleus c– cytoplasm
26. Define metamorphosis. Draw the diagram of life cycle of an
animal showing: [5]
egg → tadpole → adult
Ans. Metamorphosis is the process
of transformation of the larva
into an adult through drastic
Egg
changes in the body structures
that are completely different Tadpole
from the adult.
27. Give five features of Pachmarhi Adult
Biosphere Reserve. [5]
OR
Since burning of fossil fuels is a major cause of air pollution,
what advices will you give to people to save petrol or diesel?
Explain.
Ans. (i) Plants and animals found here are similar to those of the
upper Himalayah peaks, and to those of lower Western
Ghats.
(ii) The Panchmarhi biosphere reserve consists of Satpura
National Park and two wildlife sanctnaries named Bori
and Panchmarhi.
(iii) Animals endemic to Panchmarhi are Indian giant squirrel
and bison.
(iv) Plants endemic to Panchmarhi are wild mango and sal.
(v) Historic features such as Rock shelters and Rock paintings
have also been preserved in Panchmari.
OR
(i) Use CNG as fuel since it is of high calorific value and
pollutes less.
(ii) Use public transport services as much as you can.
(iii) Walk or use bicycle while visiting markets nearby.
(iv) Buy electric vehicle if you are willing to have a new one.
(v) Turn off engines near traffic red lights, or avoid unnecessary
burning of fuels.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 115

 Reaching the Age of
10 Adolescence
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
A. Multiple choice questions :
1. Changes taking place in adolescence are controlled by
(a) Enzymes (b) Hormones (c) Vitamins
Ans. (b) Hormones
2. Endocrine glands are also known as
(a) Ductless glands (b) Minute glands (c) Superficial glands
Ans. (a) Ductless glands
3. Hormones are required in
(a) large amounts (b) very low amounts
(c) gaseous state
Ans. (b) very low amounts
4. ________________ is the male sex hormone.
(a) Oestrogen (b) Prolactin (c) Testosterone
Ans. (c) Testosterone
5. Moustache and beard are secondary sexual characteristics
present in
(a) Females (b) Children (c) Males
Ans. (c) Males
6. Master gland controlling both the ovaries and testis is known
as
(a) Thyroid gland (b) Adrenal gland (c) Pituitary gland
Ans. (c) Pituitary gland
7. Sex of the baby is determined by
(a) mother (b) father (c) God
Ans. (b) father

B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:

1. Insulin hormone is released from pancreas.
2. Thyroxine hormone stimulates metamorphosis in tadpole.
3. Pituitary gland is the master endocrine gland.
116 Solution Book
 4. Emotions like fear, anger, etc., are controlled by adrenaline.
5. Testosterone and estrogen are sex hormones.
6. Increase in height occurs during adolescence.

C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :

Column A Column B
1. Pancreas (a) Thyroxine
2. Testis (b) Growth hormone
3. Thyroid (c) Adrenaline
4. Adrenal (d) Insulin
5. Pituitary (e) Oestrogen
6. Ovary (f) Testosterone
Ans. 1. (d) 2. (f) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (e)

D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given

below :
1. Hormones always produce very short term changes.
2. Testosterone helps in egg production.
3. Lack of insulin causes diabetes.
4. Changes occurring in adolescent boys and girls are same.
5. Stoppage of menstruation is called menarche.
6. AIDS is caused by an HIV virus.
Ans. 1. False 2. False 3. True
4. False 5. False 6. True

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. What is the most conspicuous change during puberty?
Ans. Growth in height is the most conspicuous change during
puberty.
2. By what age both the girls and boys attain their maximum
height?
Ans. By the age of 18, both boys and girls attain their maximum
height.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 117

 3. Give the other name for voice box.
Ans. The other name for voice box is larynx.
4. Which two types of glands become more active during puberty?
Ans. Sweat glands and sebaceous glands become more active during
puberties.
5. Which glands release hormones directly into the blood?
Ans. Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the blood.
6. Which endocrine gland is also called a master gland?
Ans. Pituitary gland is also called a master gland.
7. Give a term used for stoppage of menstruation.
Ans. Menopause is the term used for stoppage of menstruation.
8. What is called the first menstrual flow at puberty?
Ans. Menarche
9. Which chromosomes are called sex chromosomes?
Ans. X and Y chromosomes are called sex chromosomes.
10. Which hormone is secreted by pancreas?
Ans. Insulin
11. Which gland secretes the hormone adrenaline?
Ans. Adrenal gland.
12. Name the hormone secreted by thyroid.
Ans. Thyroxine
13. Which hormone controls the process of metamorphosis?
Ans. Thyroxine
14. Which gland in humans secretes growth hormone?
Ans. Pituitary gland.
15. Which stage of life in human is characterised by hoarse voice
and rapid growth?
Ans. Adolescence
16. Name a disease that is transmitted by sexual contact.
Ans. AIDS
B. Short answer type questions :
1. What is adolescence?
Ans. The period of life, when the body undergoes changes, leading
to reproductive maturity, is called adolescence.

118 Solution Book

 2. Define the term ‘menstruation’.
Ans. The removal of the unfertilized egg along with the linings
of the uterus and blood vessels as a bleeding in women is
called menstruation.
3. What is puberty?
Ans. The process of physical changes in a child’s body that matures
into an adult capable of sexual reproductions called puberty.
4. What changes occur during adolescence in a boy?
Ans. A boy grows in height, his shoulders and chest broadens,
develops larger voice box and voice becomes deep, sex organs
develop completely and hair grows on face and chest.
5. What are the changes that occur in a girl during adolescence?
Ans. A girl grows in height, her region below the waist widens,
develops high pitched voice, sex organs develop completely,
and breasts begin to develop.
6. A girl is 11 years old and 125 cm tall. Find her approximate
height at the end of the growth period using the formula.
Present height (cm)
Ans. Full height = × 100
% of full height at this age
125
= × 100 cm = 154 cm.
81
7. What is Adam’s Apple? What changes occur in it during
adolescence?
Ans. The visible protruding part of the throat in boys is called
Adam’s apple. During adolescence, it begins to grow in size.
8. Many teenagers get acne and pimples on their face. Give
reason.
Ans. During puberties, the secretion of sweat and sebaceous glands
increases. Because of this increased activities of these glands,
many teenagers get acne and pimples on their face.
9. What is the role of adrenal gland in our body?
Ans. Adrenal gland secretes hormone adrenaline that controls the
emotion, i.e., anger, worryness, etc. Adrenal gland also secretes
hormone that controls the salt concentration in the blood.
10. What will happen if thyroid gland is removed from a frog
during its early stage?

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 119

 Ans. Thyroid gland secretes hormone thyroxine that controls
metamorphosis in frogs. If the gland is removed, then
metamorphosis would not occur in frogs, and the tadpoles
cannot become adult frogs.
11. Presently most of the adolescents prefer to eat packed or
tinned snacks. Do you think it will provide them adequate
nutritions? Write in brief.
Ans. Packed or tinned snacks do not have adequate nutritions
required for proper growth during adolescence. That it is
advised to avoid these food items.
12. List the problems which a girl may face during adolescent
pregnancy.
Ans. Adolescent pregnancy may cause health problems, mental
agony, curtails employment opportunities, because teenage
girls are not prepared mentally or physically for motherhood.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. Explain in brief all the changes that occur at puberty in
humans.
Ans. Puberty brings about growth of reproductive organs. Hair
grows at various places over the body. Breasts develop in
girls and moustache and beard appear in boys. Voice box in
boys enlarges and voice becomes hoarse. Shoulder and chest
in boys broadens whereas portion below waist widens in girls.
Children attain maximum height. Pimples and acne appear
on many children’s face. It also brings maturity in thinking
process.
2. Is a mother responsible for giving birth to a girl or boy? How
is the sex of a baby determined?
Ans. No a mother is not responsible for giving birth to a boy or girl.
The sex of a baby is determined by the two sex chromosomes
X and Y. A female has two X chromosomes, while a male has
one X and one Y chromosome. The unfertilized egg has one
X chromosome, while sperm may have X or Y chromosome.
While a sperm containing X chromosomes fertilises the egg,
the zygote would have two X chromosomes and develops into
or female child. If the sperm contributes a Y chromosome to
the egg, the zygote develops into a male child.

120 Solution Book

 3. Draw a well-labelled diagram showing the position of endocrine
glands in human body. List the names of all the hormones
secreted by them. Pancreas
Ans. Pituitary gland secretes
growth hormones. Thyroid (i) Thyroid
gland secretes thyroxine.
Adrenal gland secretes (ii) Adrenaline
adrenaline. Pancreas
secretes insuline. Ovary (iii) Pancreas
secretes progesterone (iv) Ovary
and estrogen while testes (v) Testes
secretes testosterone.
4. What is the role of good
nutrition, personal hygiene and physical exercises for a good
reproductive health?
Ans. Reproductive health is defined as the complete physical
and mental well-being of an individual in all aspects of
reproduction. Adolescence is a stage of rapid growth and
development. Thus a nutritions or balanced diet become more
essential to remain healthy. Iron is very essential for women
for blood formation as they loose blood, personal hygiene is
necessary for teenagers because their sweat and sebaceous
glands become very active and can easily catch infection.
Physical exercise makes the body healthy and fit.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. Look at the given picture and answer the questions :
(a) Name the part (i) [Diagram Based Question]
Ans. Adam’s apple
(b) What does it indicate as per its
size in girls and boys?
Ans. It indicates that voice box or larynx
has grown in size and thus voice in
boys’ become hoarse. But in girls
it is commonly not visible from
outside.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 121

 2. Label the given picture and give a brief detail of the role of
father in it. [Diagram Based Question]
Ans. (i) Sperms, X and Y (i)

(ii) XY - boy Y X

(iii) XX - girl
(iv)
(iv) eggs or ova, X

(ii) (iii)
3. Why is personal hygiene a big issue for adolescents? [HOTS]
Ans. The sweat and sebaceous glands become very active in
adolescents and release more sweat and oil. Thus, they are
more prone to catch infections. Also menstruating girls need
extra care to clean their body to avoid infections. Thus personal
hygiene is a big issue for adolescents.
4. The legal age for marriage is 18 years for girls and 21 years
for boys. Which types of health problems may cause in case
of early marriage? [HOTS]
Ans. Teenager are not mentally or physically prepared for
parenthood. Early marriage and motherhood cause health
problems in the mother and child. It also curtails employment
opportunities and higher education for youngster. It may cause
mental agony as they are not ready mentally for responsibilities.
5. Vedant and Vaibhavi are 12 years old twin children of Ramesh
and Neha. Vaibhavi is taller than Vedant, so their mother is
worried about the height of Vedant. Their mother thinks that
Vedant will always be shorter in height. [Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions, based on the above information:
(a) Do you think Neha is correct?
Ans. No. Neha is not correct.
(b) Why is Vaibhavi taller than Vedant though they are of
equal age?
Ans. The rate of growth in height varies in different individuals.
Also, girls grow faster then boys initially during adolescent.
(c) Do you think that Vedant will become taller in coming
future? Give the reason also.
Ans. Yes, he may become taller in future. Because boys grow
initially slow, but later they grow faster and reach their
maximum height by about 18 years of age.
122 Solution Book
 6. Collect the data to fill the given table from your own family
members or a friend’s family. Draw a graph showing age
and height for girls and boys using two different colours
of pens on the same graph-paper. Conclude the results.
[Activity Based Question]
Height (in cm)
Age (in years)
Girls Boys

7. HIV-AIDS disease has become a cause of concern worldwide.

Discuss about its various modes of causes, with your teacher
or elders. You can take the help of internet also. Prepare a
report. [Project Based Question]
Ans. The virus can pass on to a normal person from an infected
person by sharing the syringes used from injection drugs. It
can also be transmitted from the infected mother to an infant
through her milk. The virus can also be transmitted through
sexual contact with a person infected with HIV.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. Identify the glands shown in the given figure. Select the
incorrect statement.
(a) Gland (i) secretes the hormone thyroxine.
(b) Gland (ii) secretes the hormone
which controls breathing and
heart rate. (i)
(c) Gland (iv) and (v) controls the
secondary sexual characters. (ii)
(d) Gland (iii) secretes the hormone
insulin. (iii)
Ans. (b) Gland (ii) secretes the hormone
(iv)
which controls breathing and
heart rate. (v)

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 123

 2. Kriti whenever feels tremors of an earthquake, starts running
down the stairs quickly. Which hormone initiates this action?
(a) Oxytocin (b) Thyroxine
(c) Adrenaline (d) Progesterone
Ans. (c) Adrenaline
3. Identify the correct statement :
(a) Reproductive life of woman lasts from menarche to
menopause.
(b) In females the uterus wall thickens to receive the embryo
once a year.
(c) Estrogen is released by testes at the onset of puberty.
(d) Hormones secreted by adrenal glands stimulate the sex organs.
Ans. (a) Reproductive life of woman lasts from menarche to
menopause.
4. Which of the following is not a myth or taboo?
(a) The mother is responsible for the sex of her child.
(b) A girl should not be allowed to work in the kitchen during
menstruation.
(c) A girl becomes pregnant when she looks on boys during
menstruation.
(d) Adolescence is a period of much activity in the body.
Ans. (d) Adolescence is a period of much activity in the body.

V. PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Collect the information related to height from your classmates and
then find their expected full height with the help of given chart.
% of full height
Age in years
Boys Girls
10 78 84
11 81 88
12 84 91
13 88 95

124 Solution Book

 14 92 98
15 95 99
16 98 99.5
17 99 100
18 100 100
Present height (cm)
Expected full height (cm) = × 100
% of full height at this age

Name Age Expected height

Investigation – 2
Write the name of the food items that you have taken in during
breakfast, lunch, dinner of the previous one week and identify the
good food items and bad (junk) food items for adolescents from
them. Fill in the given table accordingly and write your comments –
Food items Good for Bad for
Days
Breakfast Lunch Dinner Adolescents Adolescents
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Conclusion and Explanation : During adolescence, a nutritions diet
is essential to become healthy in all aspects because it is a stage of rapid
growth and development. A balanced diet contains appropriate amount
of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals and roughage. Junk
food should be avoided as their nutrient value is very low.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 125

 11 Force and Pressure

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. The SI unit of force is
(a) newton (b) kilogram (c) metre
Ans. (a) newton
2. The force of friction is
(a) always advantageous
(b) always disadvantageous
(c) sometimes advantageous and sometimes disadvantageous
Ans. (c) sometimes advantageous and sometimes disadvantageous
3. The force generated by a machine is called
(a) electrical force (b) muscular force (c) mechanical force
Ans. (c) mechanical force
4. Which of the following is an example of magnetic force?
(a) An apple falling from a tree
(b) A child riding a bicycle.
(c) A magnet pulls the steel pins towards itself.
Ans. (c) A magnet pulls the steel pins towards itself.
5. Which of the following is an example of non-contact force?
(a) The force of gravity of the earth.
(b) A child riding a bicycle.
(c) A porter carrying a load on a wheel-barrow.
Ans. (a) The force of gravity of the earth.
B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:
1. The force of gravity is a non-contact force.
2. The muscular force is an example of contact force.
3. Pull or push is commonly called force.
4. One kgf is equal to 9.8 N newton.
5. Frictional force always opposes the motion of a body.
6. Force can change the shape of objects.

126 Solution Book

C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :
Column A Column B
1. The SI unit of force (a) Non-contact force
2. The force acting due to the earth (b) newton
on a body
3. A man pulling a bucket of water (c) Gravity
out of a well
4. A force which does not need a (d) Muscular force
connector
5. A physical quantity on which (e) Atmospheric
pressure of liquids depends pressure
6. The pressure exerted by the (f) Depth
atmosphere
Ans. 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (f) 6. (e)

D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of statements given

below:
1. The movement of an object is called force.
2. A force can change the shape or size of an object.
3. Bodies can move without the application of force.
4. The force acting on a windmill is gravitational force.
5. The force exerted by the earth on the bodies is called pressure.
Ans. 1. False 2. True 3. False
4. False 5. False

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Name the pull by which an object is attracted towards the
earth.
Ans. Gravitational pull
2. Which force acts upon the another body without the help of
any material contact?
Ans. Non-contact force
3. Name the force generated by a machine.
Ans. Mechanical force

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 127

 4. What is the SI unit of pressure?
Ans. The SI unit of pressure is Nm–2.
5. Name a physical quantity on which pressure of liquids depends.
Ans. height (depth), density
6. Picking, opening, breathing, hitting, kicking. Which one is
not applying a force?
Ans. breathing
7. When a ‘car is being pushed by a man’, who is applying the
force?
Ans. Man is applying the force.
8. When two teams pull the rope equally in tug-of-war, in which
direction does the force acts?
Ans. Direction is towards the direction of the bigger force.
9. What happens to the speed of a football when a player stops
the ball?
Ans. When a player stops the ball, its speed decreases to zero.
10. Due to which force, water in rivers flows downwards?
Ans. Due to gravitational force of earth, water in rivers flows
downwards.
11. Name the envelope of air all around us.
Ans. The envelope of air all around us is known as the atmosphere.
12. A force is used to separate iron scrap from a heap of other
metals scrap. Name the force used.
Ans. Magnetic force is used to separate iron scrap from a heap of
other metal scrap.
F
13. Complete the formula; Pressure =
Ans. F = Force A = Area A
14. State whether attraction between two magnets is pull or push?
Ans. Attraction between two magnets is pull.
15. Give an example of electrostatic force.
Ans. Bits of paper clinging on a comb run through dry air.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. What is a force? Give the SI unit of force.
Ans. A push or a pull that tends to affect an object in some way
is called a force.
The SI unit of force is Newton (denoted by N).
128 Solution Book
 2. Give two examples from everyday life for the force of push
and its effects.
Ans. A man standing behind a stationary car. When he pushes
the car, the car begins to move in the direction of the force.
Pushing a moving trolley in the direction in which it is
moving. The trolley starts moving faster.
3. Give two examples from everyday life for the force of pull
and its effects.
Ans. Pulling the door of almirah. The almirah is opened. Pull the
moving trolley in the opposite direction in which it is moving.
The trolley slows down.
4. An inflated balloon rubbed with a synthetic cloth sticks to
the wall. What force is responsible for this?
Ans. An inflated balloon rubbed with a synthetic cloth sticks to
the wall, because of electrostatic force.
5. Define kilogram force. How is it related to the SI unit of force?
Ans. The force required to lift a body of mass 1 kg vertically is
called one kilogram force. The kilogram force is denoted by
the notation kgf. It has been determined experimentally that
1 kgf = 9.8 N.
6. How does pressure in liquids change with depth?
Ans. The pressure due to liquid increases with depth from the
surface of the liquid.
7. Why does the ink from a fountain pen leak at higher altitudes?
Ans. Fountain pen contain ink in their tube along with some air at
the atmospheric pressure at ground level. When this pen is
taken to higher altitude the pressure outside falls. Thus, the
air within the tube exerts pressure and force the ink out.
8. Why are cutting instruments often sharpened?
Ans. All cutting instruments, such as knife, blade, axes etc., are
sharper at the cutting edge. This is because, cutting edge has
smaller area of cross section. As a result, such things exert
more pressure and easily penetrate into the given surface.
9. Why are the rear wheels in a truck broader as compared to
the front wheels?
Ans. The rear wheels in a truck broader as compared to the front
wheels, so that the pressure on the tyres is reduced and they

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 129

 do not burst. The broader the wheels, the less is the pressure
on them, so that they can carry greater weight.
10. Why is the foundation of a high rise building wider?
Ans. The foundation of high rise buildings are kept wide, so that
the weight of the building produces less pressure on ground
and the building may not sink into the ground.
11. List different types of forces with one example of each.
Ans. (i) Muscular force : A boy holding a book on his palm. (ii)
Frictional force : A rolling ball stops due to friction. (iii)
Gravitational force : An apple falling down from a tree. (iv)
Electrostatic force : Bits of paper clinging on a comb run
through dry hair.
12. State different effects of force.
Ans. Effects of force : (i) It can make a stationary object move
(ii) It can change the speed of a moving object. (iii) It can
stop a moving object. (iv) It can change the direction of a
moving object. (v) It can change the shape of an object.
13. Define gravitational force. How is it related to weight?
Ans. Gravitational force is the force of attraction with which every
body in the universe attracts every other body.
14. Differentiate between contact and non-contact forces with
examples.
Contact Force Non-contact Force
Forces that result from the Forces that arises due to
interaction between two objects interaction between objects that
in physical contact are called are not in physical contact are
contact forces. called non-contact forces.
Muscular force and friction are Magnetic force, gravitational
examples of contact forces. force and electrostatic force are
examples of non-contact forces.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. Give a specific feature and two examples of each of the following–
(a) Muscular force
Ans. Muscular force is a contact force.
Activities such as running, jumping, lifting are examples of
muscular forces. Animals also use their muscular force to
move around, carry people.
130 Solution Book
 (b) Mechanical force
Ans. All mechanical forces are contact forces. Examples : Some
one pushing a door.
(c) Gravitational force
Ans. It is always an attractive force. Gravitational force of earth
keep us grounded to its surface. It causes an apple to fall
downward from an apple tree.
(d) Frictional force
Ans. Always acts in the opposite direction to movement. Examples:
Slowing down of rolling ball. A bicycle eventually come to
rest when you stop pedalling.
2. With the help of an activity show that electric force attracts
tiny bits of paper.
Ans. Materials needed : Plastic comb, paper,
Procedure : Tear off several bits of paper
and place them on a table. Bring the comb
near the bits of paper. Nothing happened.
Now, rub the plastic comb into your dry hair and then hold
it near the tiny bits of paper Paper bits get attracted towards
the plastic comb. This happened due to the force exerted by
the electrostatic charge.
3. What do you mean by the term ‘pressure’? State the factors
which determine pressure in solids and liquids.
Ans. Pressure is defined as force acting on unit area. Pressure in
solids depends on the amount of force and the area over
which the force is applied. Pressure in liquids depends upon
the depth at which the pressure is measured.
4. What is atmospheric pressure? Why do we not crush under
the atmospheric pressure? Explain.
Ans. Atmospheric pressure is the pressure exerted by the air column
of unit area.
We do not crush under the atmospheric pressure because,
our lungs and blood contains air at a pressure, slightly more
than the atmospheric pressure. Thus, it counterbalances the
atmospheric pressure.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 131

D. Some other types of questions :
1. If you try to hold a glass tumbler with soapy hands, it can
easily slip from your hand. What could be reason behind
it? [HOTS]
Ans. If you try to hold a glass tumbler with soapy hands, it can
easily slip from your hand because when you apply soap in
your hand it acts as a lubricant and results in a very low
frictional force between hands and glass tumbler.
2. Any object thrown up finally comes down. Why? [HOTS]
Ans. Any object thrown up finally comes down because of the
force of gravity. Gravity is the force with which the earth
pulls everything towards itself.
3. Mona was cutting vegetables in the absence of her mother.
She found it difficult to cut vegetable. She sharpened the
cutting edge of the knife and cut the vegetable easily.
[Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) What value do you learn from Mona’s action?
Ans. Accept challenges, life throws at you. Will be able to over come
many obstacle. Knowledge of your strength give confidence.
(b) How does sharpening the blunt tool help in cutting the
vegetables easily?
Ans. Mona sharpens the knife so that surface area of contact
decreases and the resultant pressure will be more and the
vegetables will be easily cut.
4. Cover the mouth of the tumbler full with water, with a thick
card. Turn the tumbler upside down while keeping the card
pressed to its mouth. Remove the hand pressing the card
gently. You will find that the card continues to hold water
in the tumbler even after it is not supported by your hand.
What could be reason behind it? [Activity Based Question]
Ans. The force of atmospheric pressure pushing up on the thick
card is greater than the liquid pressure acting on the thick
card. So, the card continues to hold water in the tumbler even
after it is not supported by hand.

132 Solution Book

 5. Press rubber sucker hard on the smooth surface. It sticks to
the surface. Now try to pull off it from the surface? Can you
do it? Give the reason in support of your response.
[Activity Based Question]
Ans. As the rubber sucker sticks to the smooth surface, the air it
goes outside and a partial vacuum is formed in it. As the huge
atmospheric pressure acts on it from the outside it is difficult
to remove it after sticking to the hard smooth surface.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. A box is being pushed horizontally along a rough surface and
a constant acceleration is achieved. If the push is stopped,
the box will
(a) slow down and finally stop.
(b) continue to move at constant speed.
(c) continue to accelerate at a lower rate.
(d) stop immediately.
Ans. (a) slow down and finally stop.
2. The surface area of the base of a brick A is 150 cm2. The
surface area of the base of the brick B is 250 cm2. Each brick
weighs 100 N. Which of the following is correct if P1 and P2
are the pressures exerted by the bricks A and B respectively?
(a) P1 = P2 (b) P1 > P2
(c) P1 < P2 (d) P1 = P2 = 0
Ans. (b) P1 > P2
3. Which of the following statements are true?
A. An object will continue moving uniformly until the resultant
force on it is zero.
B. The bodies do not change their state of rest or motion
unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force.
C. If a body is at rest on the surface of the earth then the
net downward force exerted by the earth and net upward
force exerted on the body are not equal to each other.
(a) A and B Only (b) B and C Only
(c) A and C Only (d) A, B and C
Ans. (b) B and C Only

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 133

 4. A block of mass 4 kg and dimensions 10 cm × 20 cm × 30
cm, rests on the floor. If g = 10 ms–2, then the maximum
pressure the block can exert on the floor is
(a) 2000 N m–2 (b) 1000 N m­–2
(c) 4000 N m­ –2
(d) 1333 N m­–2
Ans. (a) 2000 N m–2
5. In the given figure a beaker is filled with water. X, Y and Z
are three holes in beaker, which of the following statements
is correct regarding this?
(a) The water comes out with maximum
pressure from hole X.
(b) The pressure of water comes out from
hole Y is greater than the pressure of
water comes out from hole Z and hole X.
(c) The water falls out the farthest through the hole Z.
(d) The water falls out the nearest through the hole Y.
Ans. (c) The water falls out the farthest through the hole Z.

V. PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : To observe the action of an
electrostatic force.
Requirements : A plastic straw, blade,
cotton thread, sheet of paper.
Procedure : Take a plastic straw and cut
it into nearly two-equal pieces with the
help of a blade. Suspend one of the pieces
from any support with the help of thread.
Now, rub the one end of the other piece
of straw with a sheet of paper by holding
it from other hand. Now, bring the rubbed
end of the straw near the suspended straw.
Do not touch both pieces to each other.
What happens?
Now, rub the free end of the suspended straw with a sheet of paper.
Again, bring the pre-rubbed straw near the free end of the suspended
straw. What happens?
134 Solution Book
Observation : When we bring the rubbed end of straw to near the
suspended straw, an attraction between the straws comes into play.
A repulsion between both straw comes into play when we bring the
rubbed end of straw to near the rubbed end of the suspended straw.
Conclusion and Explanation : This is due to a force called
electrostatic force. Which results due to repulsion between similar
charges or attraction between opposite charges. In this activity, straw
is said to acquire electrostatic charge after it has been rubbed with
sheet of paper. Here, straw is an example of charged body.

Investigation – 2
Aim : To show that liquid exerts equal pressure at the same depth.
Requirements : Discarded soft drink bottle, drill machine, water.
Procedure : Take a discarded soft drink bottle and drill a few equal-
sized holes all around it at the same level. Now, fill the bottle with
water. What do you observe?
Observation : The water rushing out from all the holes falls at the
same distance from the wall of the soft drink bottle.
Conclusion and Explanation : The pressure of a liquid is the same
in all the direction at the same depth.

12 Friction

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. The friction that exists between a surface sliding on another
surface, is called the
(a) rolling friction (b) sliding friction (c) static friction
Ans. (b) sliding friction
2. Ball bearings are used to
(a) increase friction (b) decrease friction (c) optimize friction
Ans. (b) decrease friction

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 135

 3. The use of lubricants makes the surface
(a) smooth (b) rough (c) very rough
Ans. (a) smooth
4. The flying plane offering the least frictional force, should be
(a) irregular shape
(b) streamlined shape
(c) symmetrical with many arms
Ans. (b) streamlined shape
5. Friction between the two flat surfaces can be reduced by
(a) painting (b) greasing (c) using ball bearing
Ans. (b) greasing

B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:

1. Friction is very useful as it helps in the movement of the
bodies.
2. Limiting friction depends upon the nature of surfaces in
contact with each other.
3. Friction always acts in the opposite direction to the direction
of applied force.
4. Static friction is a self adjusting force.
5. The sliding friction is 10 times more than the rolling friction.
6. The boats and aeroplanes are streamlined shape so as to
reduce fluid friction.

C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :

Column A Column B
1. The opposing force called into (a) Ball-bearing
play when one body moves on
the surface of another body.
2. The friction is called into play (b) Talcum powder
when one body does not move
on the surface of another body after
applying force.
3. The special shape of the body (c) Streamlining
due to which it experiences least
fluid friction.
136 Solution Book
 4. A substance which when applied (d) Static friction
between two surfaces in contact,
reduces the force of friction
between them.
5. A device used for reducing rolling (e) Lubricant
friction, by making an axle to
move over metal balls placed
around it radially.
6. The substance used as lubricant (f) Friction
on the carrom-board.
Ans.1. (f) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (e) 5. (a) 6. (b)

D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given

below :
1. Lubricants reduce the force of friction between two surfaces
in contact.
2. Sliding friction is another name for dynamic friction.
3. Friction is independent of the nature of surfaces in contact
with one another.
4. The maximum force of friction is called into play when
one body slides over another body that is called sliding
friction.
5. Friction between the two surfaces can be reduced by polishing
the surfaces.
Ans. 1. True 2. True 3. False
4. False 5. True

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Which opposing force is called into play when one body
moves on the surface of another body?
Ans. Frictional force called into play when one body moves on
the surface of another body.
2. Give the other name for frictional force exerted on fluids.
Ans. The Frictional force exerted by fluids is also called drag.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 137

 3. What are the substances called that are used to reduce the
friction?
Ans. The substances that are used to reduce the friction are called
lubricants.
4. Name the force required to keep the object moving with the
same speed.
Ans. A body can move with same speed if it is acted upon by a
balanced force.
5. List the types of frictions.
Ans. Static friction, sliding friction, rolling friction
6. What do you sprinkle on the carrom-board to play smoothly?
Ans. We sprinkle fine power on the carrom-board to play smoothly.
7. Name two lubricants which are used in machines.
Ans. Two Lubricants used in machines are oil and grease.
8. What do the kabaddi players rub their hands with, for a better
grip of their opponents?
Ans. Kabaddi players rub their hands with soil for better grip of
their opponents.
9. Which one, is it easier to hold – a kulhar or a glass tumbler?
Ans. A kulhar is easier to hold.
10. In which case the force is greater – the sliding friction or the
static friction?
Ans. In static friction the force is greater.
11. What happens when you rub your palms?
Ans. When you rub your palms together, your palms feel warm.
12. When we use brake pads in the brake system of bicycles,
what happens to the force of friction?
Ans. We use brake system of a bicycle to slow down or stop a
bicycle when brake is applied, work is done by the force of
friction. Which reduces the speed of bicycle.
13. Which type of friction is reduced when we use ball bearings?
Ans. Sliding friction is reduced when we use ball bearings.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. What is friction?
Ans. When a body moves or tries to move over a surface, the
force that resists the motion of the body is called friction or
frictional force.
138 Solution Book
 2. What is static friction? State the laws of static friction.
Ans. The friction acting on an object at rest is called static friction.
Static friction has a limiting value depends on the nature of
surface in contact. It is independent of area of contact as long
as normal reaction remains the same.
3. Why do we use fine talcum powder while playing on carrom-
board?
Ans. While playing on carrom-board, we sprinkle fine power on the
board. The powder makes the surface of the board smooth,
so friction is reduced and the striker moves easily.
4. What is lubricant? How does a lubricant reduce friction?
Ans. The material used to make a surface smooth is called a
lubricant. The most commonly used lubricants are, oil, grease
graphite, boric power etc. When oil or grease is applied
between moving parts, it forms a thin layer, so the surfaces
do not rub directly and friction is reduced.
5. State two advantages and two disadvantages of friction?
(a) Advantages : (i) The friction between paper and pen
enables us to write. Without friction, the pen would keep
slipping. (ii) A matchstick lights up due to friction between
the head of the matchstick and the lighting surface.
(b) Disadvantages : A lot of energy is wasted in overcoming
the force of friction. (ii) The soles of our shoes and tyres
of vehicles wear out due to friction.
6. Why is friction called a necessary evil?
Ans. Friction is wasteful. It causes loss of energy and causes wear
and tear of machines. But on the other hand, our normal daily
life would not be possible if there were no friction. So, we
can say that friction is a necessary evil.
7. Why do new automobile tyres have deep grooves?
Ans. Automobile tyres have deep grooves called ‘treads’. These
treads increases friction between the tyre and the road,
providing a better road grip. This prevents skidding of tyres
on a wet road.
8. Why are the boats and aeroplane given a special shape?
Ans. The bodies of boats and aeroplane are made streamlined to
minimise the force of friction with the medium they travel.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 139

 9. Why do meteors burn on entering into the atmosphere?
Ans. The friction between earth’s atmosphere and the meteor
generates a lot of heat. This causes the meteor to burn out
in the sky before it can collide with the earth.
10. Why does a ball rolling on the ground slow down?
Ans. A ball rolling on the ground slows down because of the force
of friction acting in the opposite direction.
11. Sliding friction is always less than static friction. Give reason.
Ans. The sliding friction is less than the static friction because
when an object starts sliding the contact points on its surface
do not get enough time to interlock.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. Define the force of friction. Describe all the factors affecting
friction.
Ans. The force acting along the two surfaces in contact which
opposes the motion of one body over the other, is called the
force of friction. Factors affecting friction 1. Nature of surface.
A rough surface has more irregularities than a smooth surface.
This results in greater resistance to the motion, i.e. greater
friction. 2. Mass of a body : A heavier mass will press harder
into the irregularities. So, there will be greater resistance to
motion, that is greater friction.
2. Give the different ways to –
(a) Increase the friction. Friction can be increased by increasing
the roughness of the surface. Tyres of all kinds of vehicles
are provided with deep grooves, so as to increase friction.
The soles of shoes of athletes provided with spikes.
(b) Reduce the friction. Friction can be reduced in various
ways (i) By oiling or lubricating. (ii) Providing wheels or
ball bearings. (iii) Polishing. (iv) Streamlining – Improving
designs.
3. With the help of an activity, explain how wheels reduce friction.
Draw the related figure also.
Ans. A wooden block
with a hook on one
end is pulled by a
spring balance. The

140 Solution Book

 reading of the spring balance noted. Same block is being
pulled with wheels on its lower surface. The reading of the
spring balance is much lower than the previous one.
4. Explain why do the objects moving in air or water have
special shapes. Give suitable examples also.
Ans. When a body moves through air or water (fluid) it experiences
an opposing force which tries to oppose its motion through
the fluid. This opposing frictional force depends on the shape
of the body. By giving object special shape (streamlined
shape) the force of friction acting on it can be minimised. The
streamlined shapes can be seen in boats, ships and aeroplane,
because of which it is easier to move through the fluid.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. If your writing desk is tilted a little, a notebook kept on it
starts sliding down. Show the direction of frictional force
acting on it. Give reason in support of your response. [HOTS]
Ans. When a notebook slides on the writing desk, a frictional force
acts between the book and the surface of
the desk. The direction of friction force
on notebook is opposite to the direction
of its motion and is uphill.
2. Samir has to push a lighter box and Saurabh has to push a
similar heavier box on the same floor. Who will have to apply
a larger force and why? [HOTS]
Ans. Friction arises because of interlocking of irregularities on the
two surfaces in contact. When a heavy object is placed on
the floor, the interlocking of irregularities on the surface of
box and floor become strong because two surfaces in contact
are pressed harder. Hence, more force is require to overcome
interlocking. Hence, Saurabh has to apply a greater force than
Samir.
3. One day Aradhya had to take part in a race competition. Rani
gave new spikes-shoes to Aradhya so that Aradhya could
complete her race easily. [Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) What values were depicted by Rani?
Ans. Concern for others, accept challenges and use knowledge to
overcome weakness.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 141
 (b) How do spikes-shoes help in running?
Ans. Spikes-shoes provide better grip on the ground. This is
because force of friction between the shoes and the ground
increases with the help of spikes. On the other hand in normal
shoes there are more chances that you will slip because of
less friction between the shoes and the ground. This is how
spikes-shoes help in running.
4. Suppose you spill a bucket of soapy water on a smooth
floor accidently. Would it make easier or more difficult for
you to walk on the floor? Give reason in support of your
response. [HOTS]
Ans. It is difficult to walk on the soapy floor. We are able to walk
because of the friction between our feet and the ground. During
walking, we push the ground in the backward direction, the
force of friction pushes in the forward direction and allows
us to walk. The force of friction between the ground and feet
decreases when these is soapy water spilled on the floor.
5. Put a few pencils parallel to each other on a table. Put a book
on it. Now push the book. You notice that pencils start rolling
as the book moves. You feel it is easier to move the book in
this way than to slide it. Why? Give reason in support of your
answer. [Activity Based Question]
Ans. The book moves easily when placed on a cylindrical pencil
(or rollers). This is because rolling friction is smaller than
the sliding friction.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following arrangement of frictions is given in

a decreasing order?
(a) Sliding, static, rolling (b) Static, sliding, rolling
(c) Rolling, sliding, static (d) Rolling, static, sliding
Ans. (b) Static, sliding, rolling
2. When the applied force is thrice on an object and the object
is still at rest, then friction becomes
(a) Doubled (b) Halved
(c) remains same (d) Thrice
Ans. (c) remains same
142 Solution Book
 3. Why does a horse need to pull harder during the first few
steps in pulling the cart?
(a) Static friction is greater than sliding friction.
(b) Sliding friction is greater than rolling friction.
(c) No frictional force acts after the cart comes in motion.
(d) Sliding friction is greater than static friction.
Ans. (a) Static friction is greater than sliding friction.
4. If a vehicle going on a horizontal road towards east, the
frictional force on the vehicle by the road
(a) is towards east as the vehicle is accelerating.
(b) is zero as the vehicle is moving with a uniform velocity.
(c) must be towards east.
(d) must be towards west.
Ans. (d) must be towards west.
5. In which of the following cases the friction is helpful?
(a) Use a piece of cloth to open tightly closed lid of a bottle.
(b) Lighting a matchstick
(c) Applying the brakes on a bicycle
(d) All of these.
Ans. (d) All of these.

V. PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : Friction opposes relative motion between the two bodies in
contact irrespective of the direction of the motion.
Requirements : A book, a table.
Procedure : Take a smooth table and a book. Place the book upon
the table lengthwise. Now, gently push the book. What do you
observe? You observe that it stops after moving for some distance.

(a) (b)
Repeat this activity by pushing the book from the opposite direction.
What do you observe?
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 143
Observation : Book stops after moving for some distance.
Conclusion and Explanation : There is an invisible force between
the surface of the book and table which opposes the motion of the
book. This force is called frictional force. If we apply force along
the right direction, the friction force acts along the left direction.

Investigation – 2
Aim : To show that weight of an object increases friction.
Requirements : A spring balance, weights of 50 gf and 100 gf,
wooden block provided with a hook.
Procedure : Place wooden block on a smooth surface.
Fix spring balance to hook and try to slide wooden block by pulling
spring balance. Read and record the force shown by spring balance.
Now place the 50 gf weight on the wooden block and repeat the
same activity. Read and record the force of friction. Repeat the
activity with 100 gf weight (100 gf + 50 gf). Read and record the
force of friction in every case.
Observation : __________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
Conclusion and Explanation : As the weight of wooden block
increases, the magnitude of frictional force increases. Frictional force
is directly proportional to the weight of the body which moves.

13 Sound

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. Sound can travel through
(a) gases only
(b) solids only
(c) solids, liquids and gases
Ans. (c) solids, liquids and gases

144 Solution Book

 2. In which medium does sound travel fastest?
(a) Water (b) Air (c) Steel
Ans. (c) Steel
3. Sound is caused due to
(a) propagation of light
(b) change in physical state
(c) vibrations
Ans. (c) vibrations
4. The unit of frequency in SI system
(a) MHz (b) Hz (c) kHz
Ans. (b) Hz
5. The maximum displacement of a vibrating body from its
mean position is called
(a) loudness (b) amplitude (c) frequency
Ans. (b) amplitude
6. A sound which has a pleasant sensation on the ears is called
(a) music (b) pitch (c) noise
Ans. (a) music

B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:

1. Animals like dogs, dolphins, bats can hear the ultrasonic
vibrations.
2. Sound cannot travel through vacuum.
3. The range of ultrasonic vibrations is above 20,000 Hz.
4. Sound travels faster in solids as compared to fluids.
5. The pollution produced by noise is called noise pollution.

C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :

Column A Column B
1. The to and fro or back and forth (a) Frequency
motion of an object
2. The number of vibrations produced (b) 330 ms–1
by a vibrating particle or a body
in one second
3. Necessary for the propagation (c) dB
of sound

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 145

 4. Speed of sound in the air (d) Material medium
5. Maximum displacement of vibrating (e) Amplitude
body from its mean position
6. The unit of loudness of sound (f) Vibration
Ans. 1. (f) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (e) 6. (c)

D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given

below :
1. Sound travels faster in solids than fluids.
2. The sound can travel through vacuum.
3. Sound energy travels in the form of waves.
4. Ultrasonic vibrations have a frequency less than 20,000 Hz.
5. Most vibrating objects produce sound of one frequency only.
Ans. 1. True 2. False 3. True
4. False 5. False

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Name the sound which has pleasant sensation on the ears.
Ans. Musical sound produces pleasant sensation on our ears.
2. Name the organs in humans that produces the sound.
Ans. In humans, the sound is produced by the voice box or larynx.
3. Give the range of inaudible sound.
Ans. Sound with frequency below 20 Hz and above 20,000 Hz is
called inaudible range.
4. What is the range of audible frequency for humans?
Ans. Audible frequency for Humans is 20Hz to 20,000 Hz.
5. Give a source of noise pollution at our home.
Ans. Vacuum cleaner is a source of noise pollution at our home.
6. What would happen to the person who is exposed to a loud
sound continuously?
Ans. If a person is exposed to a loud sound continuously, then it
may cause temporary hearing impairment.
7. Name the sound with higher pitch.
Ans. Ultrasound is too high-pitched sound for human.

146 Solution Book

 8. Give an example of musical instrument with low frequency.
Ans. Tuba is an example of musical instrument with low frequency.
9. Name an animal that produces a sound of higher pitch.
Ans. Bat produces higher pitch sound.
10. Whose voice has higher frequency that of a man or woman?
Ans. The voice of woman has higher frequency.
11. Name the factor on which the loudness of sound depends.
Ans. The loudness of the sound depends on the amplitude of the
sound wave.
12. What makes the eardrum vibrate in humans?
Ans. Sound vibrations makes the eardrum vibrate.
13. Why should we not put a sharp, pointed or hard thing into
our ear?
Ans. We should not put a sharp, pointed or hard thing into ear,
since it can damage the eardrum.
14. Which part of our ear is like a stretched rubber sheet?
Ans. The eardrum is like a stretched rubber sheets.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. What is frequency?
Ans. The number of oscillations completed in one second is known
as the frequency. It is measured in hertz (Hz).
2. How is sound produced?
Ans. Sound is a kind of wave which gives us the sense of hearing.
Sound is produced by a vibrating body, A vibrating object
produce sound. When a bell is hit by a gong, the ball starts
to vibrate and produces sound.
3. What determines the pitch and loudness of sound?
Ans. Pitch of sound depends on frequency of the vibration; higher
the frequency, higher is the pitch. Loudness of a sound depends
on the amplitude of the sound wave; higher the amplitude,
louder is the sound.
4. Define amplitude.
Ans. Maximum displacement of a wave on either side from the
mean position is called amplitude. Thus, amplitude shows
how far the vibrating object moves from the mean position.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 147
 5. What are ultrasonic vibrations? Name three animals that can
hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Ans. Vibrations of frequencies greater than the upper limit of the
audible range for humans that is greater than about 20 KHz
is called ultrasonic vibrations. Rats, dogs and bats are three
animals that can hear ultrasonic sound.
6. What is noise? Name two sources of noise.
Ans. The sound that produces discordant and displeasing effect in
our ears and mind is called noise. (i) The sound produced
by machine in factory. (ii) Sounds produced by the honk of
a car horn.
7. What is pleasing sound? Give four sources of pleasing sound.
Ans. Sound which produces pleasing sensation is called pleasing
sound. Music is a pleasing sound. Four sources of pleasing
sound are (i) Sound of water falls with birds chirping
(ii) Sound of jal tarang (iii) Sound of harmonium and
(iv) Sound of violin.
8. What is vibration? How is sound produced?
Ans. Vibration is the rapid to and fro motion of an object sound
is produced due to the vibration of objects.
9. How is the sound produced in humans?
Ans. In humans, voice box or the larynx is the most important
source of sound. Two ligaments known as the vocal cords,
are stretched across the larynx in such a way that it leaves
a narrow slit between them for the passage of air. When
the lungs force air through the slit, the vocal cords vibrate,
producing sound.
10. Define oscillatory motion. What do you mean by 1 Hz?
Ans. The to and fro movement of a body on the same path with
its mean position in the middle is called oscillatory motion.
It is measured in Hz. If a pendulum makes 1 oscillation per
second, its frequency will be 1 Hz.
11. Give differences between music and noise?
Music Noise
Music is a sound which Noise is an unwanted and
produces a pleasing sensation. unpleasant sound.
Music is produced by musical Noise is produced by horns
instruments of vehicles, by machines etc.

148 Solution Book

 12. What are the causes of noise pollution at home and in surrounding?
Ans. Some causes of noise pollution are as follows:
(i) Televisions running at high volumes.
(ii) Loudspeakers and crackers.
(iii) Horns of buses, car and trucks.
(iv) Home appliances such as mixer, vacuum cleaner.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. Sound needs a medium for propagation. Explain in brief.
Ans. The substance through which sound travels is called medium.
The medium can be solid, a liquid or gas sound needs a
material medium like solid, liquid or gas to travel and heard
because the molecules of solid liquid and gases carry sound
waves from one place to another. Sound cannot travel through
vacuum or empty space because vacuum has no molecules
which can vibrate and carry sound waves.
2. What are the harms of noise pollution? Define the term
‘hearing impairment’.
Ans. Constant loud noise reduces the hearing power of our ears.
Loud noise can even damage ears permanently and causes
deafness. It can cause a person to lose concentrations in his
work or studies, can cause insomnia or inability to sleep,
hypertension, severe headache. Loud sound during night
disturbs our sleep. Hearing impairment means that a person
has damaged hearing ability and cannot hear properly.
3. Give effective measures to limit noise pollution.
Ans. We should not play stereo and televisions too loudly. The
horns of motor vehicles should not be blown unnecessarily.
The bursting of crackers should be avoided. Loud speakers
should be played at low volume during social function. Trees
should be planted along the roads and building to reduce the
noise pollution from the roads.
4. Describe an experiment to prove that sound cannot travel
through vacuum.
Ans. Place a clock that tick loudly inside
a glass jar. Now slowly remove the
air from inside the jar with help of
a vacuum pump. The ticking of the
clock slowly fades away and finally
the ticking cannot be heard at all.
This confirms that sound does not Vacuum pump
travel in vacuum.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 149
D. Some other types of questions :
1. Your parents want to buy a house. They have been offered
one on the road side and another one kilometre away from
the road. Which house would you suggest your parents to
buy? Write the reason also. [HOTS]
Ans. There will be more noise in the house which is along the
roadside. This is because noise produced by transportation
vehicles cause trouble to the residents. The intensity of noise
decreases with distance between the source and listener. So,
it is better to take the house which is 1 km away from the road.
2. Lightning is seen earlier and thunder is heard later, while the
both take place in the sky at the same time and at the same
distance from us. Give the actual reason. [HOTS]
Ans. The speed of light is more than that of sound. Due to more
speed the light reaches us before the sound does. So, lighting
is seen earlier and thunder is heard later.
3. In a colony, one person was bursting crackers and playing loud
music to celebrate birthday ceremony. Aman requested him
for playing the music at lower volume and also suggested the
adverse effects of bursting of crackers. [Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) What values did Aman exhibit?
Ans. Concern for others, responsible citizen.
(b) Why did Aman request him not to do such a kind of
activities?
Ans. Aman was very much aware of adverse effects of loud sound,
which are as follows. (i) Hearing loss (ii) Insomnia - inability
to sleep (iii) Hypertension (iv) Severe headache (v) Stress.
4. Find out the sources of noise pollution in your colony. Suggest
how to control such noise pollution. [Activity Based Question]
Ans. Sources of noise pollution in the colony (i) Honking of car
and two wheeler. (ii) Construction activities around the year
(iii) Late night party and wedding show music. To control
noise pollution following action to be taken. • No noise related
activity after 11 PM of night. Noisy construction only during
day time. Proper noise decimal measurement.
150 Solution Book
 5. Attend a live instrumental musical concert. Observe the various
instruments being used. Can you explain how and why the
musicians produce sound pleasant to the ear?
[Project Based Question]
Ans. In a musical concert various instruments like, sitar, violin,
(stringed-instruments), shehnai, flute (wind instruments) and
mridangam, table a (percussion instruments) are being used.
For sound to be pleasant, the frequency and loudness should
not change suddenly. Regular and periodic vibrations produce
pleasant sounds.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. Sound cannot travel through
(a) solids only (b) liquids only
(c) gases only (d) vacuum
Ans. (d) vacuum
2. The intensity of sound wave gets reduced by 10% on passing
through a concrete slab. The total reduction in intensity on
passing through three consecutive slabs is
(a) 30% (b) 17.1%
(c) 72.9% (d) 27%
Ans. (c) 72.9%
3. In which of the following media can sound travel the
fastest?
(a) Iron bar (b) Glass of water
(c) Balloon full of air (d) Vacuum
Ans. (a) Iron bar
4. If the temperature of medium increases, which of the following
parameters of a sound will change?
(a) Frequency (b) Wavelength
(c) Time period (d) None of these
Ans. (b) Wavelength
5. Voice of which of the following is likely to have minimum
frequency?
(a) A man (b) A woman
(c) Baby girl (d) Baby boy
Ans. (a) A man
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 151
 V. PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : To demonstrate that vibrating body produces sound.
Requirements : A shallow pan, a stick and rope.
Procedure : Take a shallow pan. Hang it with
the help of a rope at a convenient place in such a
way that it does not touch any wall. Now, strike
it with a stick. You hear sound of beating shallow
pan. Now, touch the pan gently with your finger.
What do you observe or feel?
Again, strike the pan with the stick and hold it
tightly with your hands immediately after striking.
What do you observe?
Observation : We feel the vibration of the pan and sound is heard. On
holding tightly the sound died out suddenly.
Conclusion and Explanation : A vibration produces sound. When an
object stops vibrating it does not produce any sound.

Investigation – 2
Aim : The vibrating tuning fork produces waves in water.
Requirements : A metal dish, water, tuning fork and rubber pad.
Procedure : Take a metal dish and pour
water in it. Now, take a tuning fork
and struck its one prong on rubber pad.
What do you observe? Do you hear any
sound if you hold this vibrating tuning
fork near the ear?
Now, touch the vibrating prong with the
surface of water in a metal dish. What do you see?
Observation : The prongs of tuning fork produces the disturbances
in the water in the form of ripples.
Conclusion and Explanation : The prongs of tuning fork produces
sound of splashes of water. This shows that the prongs of a sound-
producing tuning fork are vibrating. A vibration is a disturbance that
produces waves in the water.

152 Solution Book

 PERIODIC TEST–3
(Based on Chapters 10 to 13)
1. Name the disease caused by the lack of thyroxine.
Ans. Goitre disease is caused by the lack of thyroxine.
2. Out of these which one determines the sex of the baby?
(a) Hormones (b) Chloroplast
(c) Chromosomes (d) Pituitary gland
Ans. (c) Chromosomes
3. Which of the following is not a non-contact force?
(a) Electrostatic force (b) Magnetic force
(c) Force due to gravity (d) Muscular force
Ans. (d) Muscular force
4. Do liquids also exert pressure?
Ans. Liquids exert pressure. A liquid contained in a vessel exerts
pressure on its wall and bottom.

5. Name the given musical instruments (A).

Ans. The given musical instrument is manjira. (A)
6. What is the number of oscillations per second called?
Ans. Number of oscillations per second is called frequency.

7. Which force is being used

in this picture (B)
to strike a matchstick?
Ans. Frictional force is being used in
picture (B) to strike a matchstick
(B)

8. Give one effective way to reduce noise pollution.

Ans. Restricted use of loudspeakers, amplifiers and auto horns.
9. Write a short note on ‘Adam’s apple’.
Ans. Males develop larger voice boxes or larynx, which make their
voice deeper. The large voice box in males is often seen as
a protruding structure and referred to as the Adam’s apple.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 153

 10. The present height of my 12 year old sister is 152 cm.
Calculate her full expected height (in cm). (% of full height
at this age is 91%)
Present height
Ans. Full height × 100
% of full height at this age

152
= × 100 = 167 cm
91
11. Look at the given picture.
(a) Which bottle get filled first or earliest?
(b) Give the reason for the above.

(iii) (iv)
(i)
(ii)

Ans. (a) All the bottle get filled at the same time
(b) The liquid pressure doesn’t depend on the shape of the
containers.
12. In the given picture:
(a) Does the water fall at the same
distance from the bottle?
(b) What does it show?
Ans. (a) Water coming out of all the holes
falls at the same distance from the
container (bottle).
(b) It shows that a liquid exerts equal
pressure at the same depth.
13. Why are the voices of men, women and children different?
Ans. The voices of men, women and children are different because
their voices differ in pitch due to different lengths of vocal
cords.

154 Solution Book

 14. What does this experiment shows? Explain in brief.

Ans. Sound can travel through solid.

15. (a) Can we reduce friction to zero?
(b) Which type of friction is being used
in the given picture?
Ans. (a) We cannot reduce friction to zero.
(b) In the given picture rolling friction
is being used.
16. List the factors that affect the friction.
Ans. The force of friction depends on the following factors.
(a) On a horizontal surfaces, the force of friction is directly
proportional to the weight of the body which moves.
(b) The force of friction depends on the nature of the surfaces
in contact.
17. The given graph shows percentage of height with age. Answer
the given questions:
(a) Who does grow faster initially?
(b) At what age (as per the graph) do the girls and boys show
similar height?
(c) Do you think all the girls or all the boys grow at the
same rate? Give reason.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 155

 Ans. (a) Initially girls show faster growth in height than boys.
(b) Around 18 years of age both boys and girls gain their
maximum height.
(c) The rate of growth in height varies from person to person.
Height of an individual depends upon :
• The genes inherited from parents
• The food habits during the growing period.
18. Describe an activity to prove that the force of friction depends
on the nature of two surfaces in contact.
Ans. Aim of the activity : To show that the force of friction
depends on the nature of the surfaces in contact.

Materials and surfaces required : A ball, well polished

floor, concrete road. Grassy ground, sand bed.
Procedure : Roll the ball on the well polished floor, then on
a concrete surface, and then on a grassy ground and lastly on
a sand bed. Note down the distance covered in each case.
Observation : You will observe that ball will cover longest
distance on the well polished surface and shortest distance
on the sand bed.
Conclusion : Force of friction depends on the nature of two
surfaces in contact.

156 Solution Book

 19. Observe the following figure and answer the following:

(a) Which kind of force is it showing?

(b) What happens to the magnet placed on the rollers
every time when both ends of other magnet are brought
alternately near it?
(c) Give an another example of non-contact force.
Ans. (a) It is showing non-contact forces or magnetic force.
(b) The magnet attracts the magnet placed on the roller when
the unlike poles are brought nearer. The magnet repels
the magnet placed on the roller when the like-poles are
brought nearer.
(c) Another example of non-contact force is gravitational force.
20. How do whales and dolphins communicate under water?
Discuss it with the help of an activity.
Ans. Take a bucket and fill it with water. Now take a small bell and
immersed it in the bucket. If we put our ear to the side of the
bucket and shake the bell we can hear the bell sound. The sound
of the bell comes
to the ear through
water contained in
the bucket. This
shows that the sound
can travel through
the water which is a
liquid. Dolphin and Sound travelling through water
whales live in the
sea can communicate or talk with one another under water
because sound can travel through sea water which is a liquid.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 157

 Chemical Effects of
14 Electric Current

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. Which of the following is not a conductor of electricity?
(a) Petrol (b) Tap water (c) Lemon juice
Ans. (a) Petrol
2. Electroplating is a method of
(a) plating a metal with another metal
(b) coating a metal with another metal by passing an electric
current
(c) coating any object with an electrically conducting plate
Ans. (b) coating a metal with another metal by passing an electric
current
3. The electrode that is connected to the negative terminal of
the battery is called
(a) cation (b) cathode (c) anode
Ans. (b) cathode
4. The process of depositing thin layer of metal on another
material with the help of electricity is called
(a) electrode (b) electroplating (c) electrolysis
Ans. (b) electroplating
5. A weak current can be detected by replacing electric bulb in
an electric tester with
(a) LED
(b) a coil wound over a compass needle
(c) tube light
Ans. (a) LED
B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:
1. Distilled water is a poor conductor of electricity.
2. The gas which collects over positive terminal during
electrolysis of water is oxygen.
3. When electric current is passed through conducting water, the
hydrogen gas is liberated at cathode.
158 Solution Book
 4. During electrolysis, an electrolyte undergoes a chemical change.
5. If a gas burns with a pop sound, then it is hydrogen gas.
6. Electroplating is a process of depositing thin layer of a
superior metal on an object with the help of electricity.

C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :

Column A Column B
1. A solution which conducts electricity (a) Voltameter
and at the same time undergoes a
chemical change
2. The metal wire/plate/rod through (b) Cathode
which current enters or leaves an
electrolyte
3. The apparatus in which electrolysis (c) Electrolyte
is carried out
4. The electrode connected to negative (d) Electrode
terminal of a cell
5. The process of depositing thin layer (e) Electroplating
of metal on another material with the
help of electricity

Ans. 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (e)

D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given
below :
1. All solutions of acids in water are conductors of electricity.
2. During electrolysis of water, hydrogen gas is liberated at
cathode.
3. Addition of common salt into water makes it an electrolyte.
4. Distilled water containing a small amount of alcohol is a
good conductor of electricity.
5. During electrolysis, the electrolyte undergoes a physical change.
Ans. 1. True 2. True 3. True
4. False 5. False

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 159

 SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Name the positively charged ions.
Ans. The positive charged ions are called cations.
2. Which electrode is connected to the negative terminal of the
battery?
Ans. The electrode which is connected to the negative terminal of
the battery is called the cathode.
3. Name two liquids which are poor conductors of electricity.
Ans. Distilled water and vinegar.
4. Name a liquid that is good conductor of electricity.
Ans. Tap water and milk.
5. Write the full form of LED.
Ans. Full form of LED is light emitting diode.
6. What should be dissolved in distilled water to make it a good
conductor of electricity?
Ans. Distilled water becomes a good conductor of electricity on
dissolving a little salt in it.
7. Name three types of liquids that conduct electricity.
Ans. Lemon Juice, mercury and milk.
8. Which chemical process is widely used in industry for coating
objects with a thin layer of a different metal?
Ans. Electroplating is widely used in industry for coating objects
with thin layers of different metal.
9. Name a metal that has a shiny appearance and that does not
corrode.
Ans. Chromium metal has a shiny appearance and it does not
corrode.
10. Which metal is used in bridges and automobiles to provide
strength?
Ans. Steel is an iron alloy with controlled level of carbon is used
in bridges and automobiles.
11. Give one use of electrolysis for industry.
Ans. Metals are extracted using electrolytic process.

160 Solution Book

 12. What are electrode?
Ans. Electrode is a conductor through which electricity enters or
leaves an object, substance, or region.
13. Which impurities present in water make it a good conductor
of electricity?
Ans. Water conducts electricity since there are small amounts of
calcium and magnesium salts dissolved in it.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. What do you understand by electrolyte and non-electrolyte?
Ans. Electrolytes are substances that conduct electricity in the
molten state or when dissolved in water. Non-electrolytes are
substances that do conduct electricity in the molten state or
when dissolved in water.
2. State the uses of electrolysis.
Ans. Uses of electrolysis (i) It is used in electroplating (ii) Electrolysis
is used extensively in the extreaction of metals from ores
(iii) Various substances are prepared commercially by
electrolysis (iv) Electrolysis can be used to separate water
molecules into their base elements.
3. Name the gases and the ratio of their volumes liberated at
cathode and anode, when water is electrolysed.
Ans. At cathode hydrogen is liberated and at anode oxygen is
liberated. Electrolysis of water produces 2 volume of hydrogen
gas and 1 volume of oxygen gas because the ratio of hydrogen
and oxygen elements in water is 2 : 1 by volume.
4. Write the test for hydrogen gas.
Ans. When a burning matchstick is brought close to the mouth of
the test tube, the gas in the test tube burns with pop sound.
This confirms that the gas present is hydrogen.
5. What conclusion can be drawn from the electrolysis of water?
Ans. Water can be decomposed by passing on electric current
through it. Water composition is 2 atoms of hydrogen and 1
atom of oxygen.
6. Why do we add dil. sulphuric acid into water during electrolysis?
Ans. Electrolysis of pure water is very low because water is an
covalent compound so, it can’t ionize to release ions. To

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 161

 increase the conductivity of water few drops of sulphuric
acid is added.
7. Why do we get electric shocks?
Ans. An electric shock occurs when a person comes into contact
with an electric energy source. Electrical energy flows through
the body to the ground causing a shock.
8. What is an electric tester?
Ans. The tester is an instrument which is used to check the flow
of electric current. It is attached to the either terminal of the
electric current. If the bulb glows, it confirms passage of
current.
9. What happens to a compass needle kept nearby when current
flows in a wire?
Ans. When you put the compass near the electrical wire with current
flowing through it, the compass needle shows deflection.
10. Make a list of liquid materials which are good conductors of
electricity.
Ans. Liquid materials which are good conductors of electricity:
tap water, lemon juice, milk, soda compounds and mercury.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. How will you prove that distilled water is a non-electrolyte?
Ans. Apparatus needed : Distilled water, one battery, beaker, wire
connectors, tester. Procedure : First we need to take beaker and
filled it with distilled water. Now take a battery and connect
its ends with wire connector and let the other end be into the
beaker. Now with the help of the tester check whether the
distilled water is conducting the electricity or not. We observe
that the distilled water won’t conduct the electricity. As the
distilled water don’t have any salt in it. Hence the distilled
water is a non electrolyte.
2. Describe an experiment for the electroplating of an iron object
with copper.
Ans. Take a copper sulphate solution in a beaker. Connect an iron
nail that is to be electroplated to the negative terminal of a
battery. Connect a copper strip to the positive terminal of the

162 Solution Book

 battery. Dip the copper strip and object to be electroplated
in the beaker containing copper sulphate solution. Leave the
setup for half an hour. You will see a deposit of reddish
brown coating on the iron nail.
3. When the free ends of a tester are dipped into a solution, the
magnetic needle shows deflection. Explain the reason.
Ans. Solution has ions present in it causing electric current. Electric
current produces magnetic effect causing deflection of the
magnetic needle of a compass. Therefore, when a tester is
dipped in the solution the needle shows deflection.
4. Look at the given
picture alongside. A
thin plate of pure
copper and a thick Thick Impure
rod of impure copper Thin copper rod
are used as electrodes. Copper Copper
Copper from impure rod sulphate
rod is sought to be solution
transferred to the thin copper plate. Which electrode should
be attached to the positive terminal of the battery and why?
Ans. Electrode of impure copper rod is connected to the positive
terminal. Pure copper plate is connected to the negative
terminal. Copper from positive terminal is deposited over the
negative terminal of thin copper after dissolving in the solution.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. In case of fire, firstly the firemen shut off the main electrical
supply for the area then they use the water hoses to extinguish
the fire. Explain the reason. [HOTS]
Ans. Normal water is good conductor of electricity. Therefore, fire
man shut off the main electrical supply from the area, before
using of water hoses in the case of fire to prevent them from
getting electric shock.
2. It is safe for the electrician to carry out electrical repairs
outdoors during heavy down pour, or not. Explain the reason
for your response. [HOTS]
Ans. Rainwater may contain many impurities in it when it passes
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 163
 through various layers of troposphere Due to this, rainwater
becomes good conductor of electricity. If an electrician carries
out electrical repair outdoors during heavy down pour, he may
get electric shock. Hence, it is not safe to carry out electrical
repairs.
3. In a winter season Sanjay was heating water in a bucket using
an immersion rod. He saw his nephew going to put his hand
in the bucket of water. He rushed and stopped his nephew
from doing such an action. [Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) What value do you learn from Sanjay?
Ans. Concern for others, caring and attentive
(b) Why did Sanjay stop his nephew from putting his hand
in the bucket?
Ans. Sanjay knows that normal water is good conductor of
electricity. So, to prevent from getting electric shock, Sanjay
stopped his nephew from putting hand in the bucket of water.
4. Visit to an automobile factory to understand the importance
of electroplating in the automobile industry. Write short note
on it. [Project Based Question]
Ans. Zinc plating has played a significant role in the automobile
industry for many years. Specifically, zinc and zinc-nickel
alloys are often plated onto parts such as braking system and
transmission components, chass is hardware and various engine
parts to protect against corrosion. Automobile manufacturers
typically prefer zinc plating because it provides effective,
long-lasting results at a low cost.
5. A student tests the drinking water and the sea water with his
tester. He observes that the compass needle deflects more in
case of sea water. Explain the reason briefly.
[Activity Based Question]
Ans. Since sea water contains more salts dissolved in it, thus in
the case of seawater, compass needle of the tester deflects
more than the drinking water.

164 Solution Book

 OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS
1. Generally, to protect iron from corrosion and rust, it is coated
with
(a) aluminium (b) nickel
(c) zinc (d) tin
Ans. (c) zinc
2. Adding a metallic salt to water
(a) increases its conductivity
(b) decreases its conductivity
(c) never produces any change in the conductivity
(d) none of these
Ans. (a) increases its conductivity
3. An electric current is passed through a conducting solution.
Which of the following observations is/are correct?
(a) Solution may get heated
(b) Bubbles of gas may be formed on the electrodes
(c) Deposits of metal may be seen on electrodes
(d) All of these
Ans. (d) All of these
4. The given figure shows a circuit which contains three identical
lamps and two switches.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the

given circuit?
(a) When switch B is closed and switch A is open, all the
three lamps glow.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 165

 (b) When switch B is closed and switch A is open, only lamp
C glows.
(c) When switch A is closed and switch B is open, only lamp
B glows.
(d) When both switch A and switch B are closed, all the three
lamps glow.
Ans. (a) When switch B is closed and switch A is open, all the
three lamps glow.
5. The given figure shows a set-up for testing conduction of
electricity in different liquids. Pick out the group of liquids
for which the bulb will not glow.
(a) Milk, Lemon juice, Distilled water, Honey
(b) Vinegar, Distilled water,
Kerosene, Lemon juice
(c) Honey, Kerosene, Vegetable
oil, Distilled water
(d) Vegetable oil, Tap water,
Vinegar, Kerosene
Ans. (c) Honey, Kerosene, Vegetable oil, Distilled water

PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : To find out the conductors and insulators amongst the solid
materials.
Requirements : Solid metals (copper
and aluminium), rubber, plastic, wood,
electric circuit.
Procedure : Take a circuit as shown.
To test the electric circuit whether it is
working or not, join the free ends of the
A B
circuit for a moment. This completes
the circuit and the bulb should glow. Remove the joint. However, if the
bulb does not glow, it means that the electric circuit is not working. In
this condition, check all the connections, bulb, cell, etc. Now, if our
electric circuit is working, let us use it to test the various solids. Place
an aluminium wire in the gap touching the points A and B. The bulb starts
glowing. Now, repeat the above activity with other materials and observe.

166 Solution Book

Observation : On placing aluminium and copper wires in the gap
touching point A and B. The bulb start glowing. But on placing rubber,
plastic, wood in the gap touching point A and B, the bulb doesn’t glow.
Conclusion and Explanation : Copper and aluminium are good
conductors of electricity, where as rubber, plastic and wood are
insulators or poor conductors of electricity.

Investigation – 2
Aim : To observe plating of copper on stainless steel.
Requirements : Copper sulphate crystals, distilled water in a dry
and clean beaker, 10 cm × 4 cm size copper plate, battery, stainless
steel spoon, dilute sulphuric acid, sand paper, connecting wires.
Procedure : Prepare copper sulphate solution by dissolving two
teaspoonfuls of copper sulphate in distilled
water. Add a few drops of dilute sulphuric acid
to copper sulphate solution to make it more
conducting. Clean copper plate and spoon with
sand paper. Rinse them with water and dry
them. Connect a copper plate to the positive
terminal of the battery using a connecting wire.
Similarly, connect the spoon to the negative
terminal (acts as the cathode) of the battery
using a connecting wire. Dip them in copper
sulphate solution. Keep this arrangement
undisturbed for 25–30 minutes. Now, remove
both of them carefully and observe them
carefully.
Observation : Reddish coating of copper metal on the spoon is observed.
Conclusion and Explanation : When electric current is passed through
the copper sulphate solution, it decomposes copper sulphate solution
into Cu2+ ions and SO42– ions Cu2+ ions move towards the cathode and
get reduced to copper metal. This copper metal gets electroplated on the
object. The sulphate ions (SO2– 4
) moves towards anode. Here SO42– ions
do not get oxidised. In stead, an equal amount of copper gets dissolved in
the solution. As a result, the loss of copper from the solution is restored
and the process continuous.
At anode Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e–
At cathode Cu2+ + 2e– →Cu(s)

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 167

 15 Some Natural Phenomena

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. Atmospheric electricity was discovered by
(a) Newton
(b) Benjamin Franklin
(c) William Gilbert
Ans. (b) Benjamin Franklin
2. Lightning occurs because of
(a) wind (b) rain (c) electric discharge
Ans. (c) electric discharge
3. Electric charges are
(a) only positive
(b) only negative
(c) positive and negative
Ans. (c) positive and negative
4. When an ebonite rod is rubbed with wool
(a) only ebonite rod gets charged
(b) only wool gets charged
(c) both, ebonite rod and wool get charged
Ans. (c) both, ebonite rod and wool get charged
5. When a body loses electrons due to friction, it is said to be
(a) positively charged
(b) induction
(c) negatively charged
Ans. (a) positively charged

B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:

1. Opposite charges attract each other.
2. An ebonite rod when rubbed with cat’s skin, becomes
negatively charged.
168 Solution Book
 3. Lightning is produced when oppositely charged clouds get
discharged.
4. Repulsion is the surest test of electrification.
5. The intensity of earthquakes is measured on richter scale.

C. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given

below :
1. Positive charge attracts a negative charge.
2. Negative charge is due to excess of electrons.
3. Silk gets positively charged, when rubbed with a glass rod.
4. A body which does not have electric charges is called
uncharged body.
5. Earthquake in general is a gigantic destructive phenomenon.
Ans. 1. True 2. True 3. False
4. True 5. True

D. Match the statements in column A with those in column B :

Column A Column B
1. A kind of force acting between two (a) Earthing
similarly charged bodies
2. A kind of force acting between two (b) Seismograph
oppositely charged bodies
3. The process of discharging atmospheric (c) Epicentre
electricity through a conductor into
the earth
4. A point directly above hypocentre on (d) Repulsion
the surface of earth during an earthquake
5. An instrument used for recording (e) Attraction
intensity of seismic waves
Ans.1. (d) 2. (e) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b)

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Name the material which allows the charges to flow through
it easily.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 169

 Ans. The material which allows the charges to flow through them
is called conductors.
2. Through which process the atmospheric electricity discharges
through a conductor into the earth?
Ans. Through earthing the atmospheric electricity discharges through
a conductor into the earth.
3. What is called a brilliant flash of light?
Ans. A brilliant flash of light is called lightning.
4. What is the name given to the loud sound which we hear
just after lightning in the sky?
Ans. The loud sound which we hear just after lightning is called
thunder.
5. Which type of charge is produced on glass rod when rubbed
with silk?
Ans. Positive charge is produced on a glass rod when rubbed
with silk.
6. Name the instrument which detects the intensity of seismic
waves.
Ans. Seismograph detects the intensity of seismic waves.
7. Name the scale on which intensity of earthquake is measured.
Ans. An earthquake is measured on the Richter scale.
8. Name the phenomenon that takes place when the heavy charge
flows through air accompanied by heat and light.
Ans. Lightning takes place when the heavy charge flows through
air accompanied by heat and light.
9. Give one use of gold leaf electroscope.
Ans. Gold leaf electroscope used to detect the presence of charge
and its nature on a body.
10. Name two earthquake prone states of India.
Ans. Gujarat and Rajasthan are the two earthquake prone states of
India.
11. Give one use of electroscope.
Ans. An electroscope is used to compare charges on two or more
bodies.
12. Who showed the concept of lightning and the spark first time?
Ans. Benjamin Franklin showed the concept of lightning and the
spark first time.
170 Solution Book
 13. What is provided in buildings to protect us from electrical shocks?
Ans. Buildings protected from electrical shocks by providing a
lighting conductor at its highest point.
14. What is the use of electroscope?
Ans. Electroscope can be used to detect the presence of charge on
a body.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. What is an electric charge?
Ans. Electric charge is a basic property of matter carried by
some elementary particles. Electric charge can be positive or
negative, occurs in discrete natural units.
2. What is lightning? How does it take place in the clouds?
Ans. A brilliant flash of light in the sky is known as lighting.
Heavier, negatively charged particles sinks to the bottom of
the cloud. When the +ve and –ve charges grow large enough,
a giant spark called lightning occurs.
3. State the charges produced on :
(a) Silk, when rubbed with a glass rod : When you rub a
glass rod with silk it acquires a positive charge, at the
same time silk acquires negative charge.
(b) Cat skin, when rubbed with an ebonite rod : When cat
skin is rubbed with an ebonite rod, ebonite get a negative
charge, and cat skin get equal positive charge.
4. How do clouds acquire huge electric charges?
Ans. Clouds in the sky have many frozen droplets of water in the
forms of small pieces of ice. When wind blows, the frozen
droplets collide with each other and become electrically
charged by friction.
5. What causes lightning to strike tall buildings and trees?
Ans. When a charged cloud passes over a tall building or a tree,
it induces an opposite charge on them. If the charge built up
is large, an electrical discharge in the form of lightning strike
the building and trees.
6. How are tall buildings protected from damage due to lightning?
Ans. Tall building can be protected from lightning by providing
lightning conductor at the top. When highly charged cloud
passes over a tall building, it induces opposite charge on the
spikes which grounded through conductor.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 171
 7. A glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth and an ebonite rod
is rubbed with a woollen cloth. Now, out of glass rod, silk
cloth, ebonite rod and woollen cloth :
(a) Which two materials acquire negative charge?
Ans. Silk cloth and ebonite rod acquire negative charge.
(b) Which two materials acquire positive charge?
Ans. Glass rod and woollen cloth acquire positive charge.
8. Why does a glass rod get positively charged, when rubbed
with a silk cloth? Explain on the basis of electron transfer.
Ans. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, the glass rod loses
some of its electrons and the silk gains those electrons. By
losing electrons, the glass rod becomes positively charged,
while gaining electrons, silk becomes negatively charged.
9. How is the intensity of an earthquake measured?
Ans. The intensity of an earthquake is measured using Richter
scale, which was developed in 1935 by Charles Richter.
10. Name three ways by which earthquakes are caused due to
human activity.
Ans. Human activities which might caused earthquakes are
(i) Nuclear test carried out under the ground (ii) Building
dams (iii) Building large skyscrapers.
11. Define –
(a) Seismic waves : The shock waves or tremors on the surface
of earth generated by earthquakes is called seismic waves.
(b) Richter scale : The Richter scale is a scale which is used
for measuring how severe an earthquake is.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. How would you show that unlike charges attract each other?
Describe the phenomenon with labelled diagram.
Ans. Take a glass rod and suspend it from
a clamp stand with a thread. Rub
this glass rod with silk. Now rub an
ebonite rod with a woollen muffler.
Bring the ebonite rod near the rubbed
glass rod. You will notice that glass
rod moves towards the ebonite rod,
i.e., it is attracted by the rod.
172 Solution Book
 2. What should you do during an earthquake to minimise injury
to yourself? Give an account of what you should do if you
are indoor and if you are outdoor.
Ans. At home try to take shelter under a table and stay away from
windows. Do not use elevators to move out. Turn off cooking
gas connections from cylinder. Stay away from bridges,
buildings, lamp posts and similar tall structures. If in a car,
pull over to the side of the road and stop. If on the street,
move away from buildings and move to a clear place like an
open field.
3. Describe an experiment to show that like charges repel each
other. Draw the diagram also.
Ans. Take a glass rod and suspend it from
a clamp stand with a thread. Rub it
with silk. Now rub another glass rod
with silk. Bring both the glass rods
together. You will notice that they
move away from each other, i.e., they
repel each other.
4. Name the scale on which the destructive energy of an
earthquake is measured. An earthquake measures 3 on this
scale. Would it be recorded by a seismograph? Is it likely to
cause much damage?
Ans. The destructive energy on the earthquake can be measured
on the Richter scale. Yes, an earthquake measuring 3 would
be recorded by the seismograph. This earthquake would not
cause much damage.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. If you are outside your home and earthquake strikes. What
precaution would you take to protect yourself? Explain
briefly. [HOTS]
Ans. If you are outdoors and an earthquake strikes, we should take
some precaution to protect ourself. Leave building and move
to open areas. Keep away from high rise buildings. Keep
away from trees, signboards, electric poles.
2. It has been predicted by the weather department a thunderstorm
is likely to occur on a certain day. If you have to go out on
that day, would you carry an umbrella? Give reason for your
response. [HOTS]
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 173
 Ans. No, we should not carry an umbrella in a thunderstorm.
Thunderstorms are accompanied by lightning, electric discharge
from the clouds can travel through the metallic rod of
the umbrella. This may give electric shock to the person
carrying it.
3. Kamlesh went to market. While returning, lightning and
thunder striked the nearby place. He got scared. He did not
stay under a tree but rushed in a building.
[Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) What value did you learn from Kamlesh?
Ans. Don’t scare in difficult situation
(b) Why did Kamlesh not stay under a tree?
Ans. If the tip of the tree is struck by lighting and a person is
standing under the tree, then the current from the lighting
may travel down the tree and jump towards the human
conductor. Therefore, it is not wise to stand under a tree
during a thunderstorm.
4. Find out major earthquakes in India. Can you explain
why generally, such earthquakes occurred in some specific
regions? [Project Based Question]
Ans. Year Place Country Death
1737 Calculta India 3,00,000
1991 Uttarkashi India 770
2001 Bhuj India 20,000
The whole of India lies on the Indian plate whose relative
motion is generally towards the north-north east at a velocity
of about 5 cm per year. It meets the adjacent plates in the
Myanmar, Andaman, Sumatra region in the east, the Himalayan
foothills in the north. Generally earthquakes occur at plate
boundaries. The plate boundaries are the weakzones where
earthquakes are more likely to occur.
5. Charge a balloon. Switch off the tubelight of the room so
that room is completely dark. Take charged balloon near the
tubelight. You should observe a faint glow. Move the balloon
along the length of the tube and notice how the glow changes.
Explain why it happens so. [Activity Based Question]
174 Solution Book
 Ans. The glow follows with the charged balloon. Bringing a
negatively charged balloon near a fluorescent tube interacts
with the electrons in the mercury vapour in side the tube.
This excites mercury atoms. The excited mercury atoms emit
ultraviolet light and cause the phosphors coating on the inside
of the tube to glow.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. When a glass rod is rubbed with a piece of silk cloth, the rod
(a) becomes negatively charged while cloth has a positive charge.
(b) and the cloth both acquire negative charge.
(c) becomes positively charged while the cloth has a negative
charge.
(d) and the cloth both acquire positive charge.
Ans. (c) becomes positively charged while the cloth has a negative
charge.
2. Which of the following cannot be charged easily by friction?
(a) A woollen cloth (b) An inflated balloon
(c) A plastic scale (d) A copper rod
Ans. (d) A copper rod
3. When we remove polyester or woollen cloth in dark, we can
see spark and hear a cracking sound. These are due to
(a) Static electricity (b) Current electricity
(c) Reflection of light (d) Dispersion of light.
Ans. (a) Static electricity
4. Two uncharged conducting spheres are put in contact with
each other. Which of the following diagrams represents the
charge distribution when a negatively charged rod is placed
near one of them?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Ans. (c)

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 175

 5. Which of the following plays an important role in the early-
warning systems for the cyclones?
(a) Helicopters (b) Submarines
(c) Satellites (d) Rockets
Ans. (c) Satellites
PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : To find out the charged and uncharged bodies.
Materials Required : Two balloons, thread.
Procedure : Inflate a balloon and
rub it against your dry hair. Now,
gently place the balloon against a
wall. The balloon will stick to the
wall. Now, rub another balloon in
the same way. Hang both balloons
close to each other. What do you
observe?
Observation : Two balloons push each other away or repel each other.
Conclusion and Explanation : Rubbing a balloon against the hair
produces in them a kind of force which can attract as well as repel
objects. This force known as electrostatic force. The balloons are
said to be electrically charged when they are rubbed against the hair.

Investigation – 2
Aim : To demonstrate the charging by rubbing.
Requirements : Two plastic rulers, flannel, bits of paper, table.
Procedure : Take two plastic
rulers. Line one side of one
of them with flannel. Spread
some bits of paper on the
table. Rub the second ruler
on this flannel. Now, bring
both the rulers near bits of
paper one by one. What do you observe. You observe that every
ruler attracts bits of paper. Now, suspend one of the ruler. Bring the
other one near it. What do you observe?
176 Solution Book
Observation : Rulers attract each other.
Conclusion and Explanation : When two bodies are charged by
rubbing against each other, they acquire some charges.

16 Light

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. The ray of light which falls on a mirror is called
(a) reflected ray (b) emergent ray (c) incident ray
Ans. (c) incident ray
2. Diffused reflection occurs if a ray of light is reflected by a
(a) concave mirror (b) plane mirror (c) rough surface
Ans. (c) rough surface
3. Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
(a) always
(b) sometimes
(c) under special conditions
Ans. (a) always
4. The angle between an incident ray and the mirror is 30°, the
angle of reflection will be
(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 90°
Ans. (b) 60°
5. A special script developed for visually challenged people for
reading is called
(a) Kaleidoscope (b) Braille system (c) Telescope
Ans. (b) Braille system

B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:

1. Light travels in straight lines.
2. virtual images cannot be formed on screen.
3. The angle between reflected ray and the normal is called
angle of reflection.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 177

 4. The transparent front part of the eye is called cornea.
5. Light consists of seven colours.
6. Braille script is used by visually challenged people.

C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :

Column A Column B
1. Image formed in a plane mirror (a) Regular
reflection
2. A kind of reflection in which reflected (b) Dispersion
rays travel parallel to one another
3. A reflection taking place from the walls (c) Virtual
of a room
4. The phenomenon of splitting of white (d) Iris
light
5. A part of eye which controls the amount (e) Diffused
of light entering into the eye. reflection
Ans. 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (e) 4. (b) 5. (d)

D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the the statements

given below :
1. Light travels along a straight line, while passing through
different media.
2. Light is dispersed into seven colours, when it passes through
a prism.
3. Images are formed in a mirror by reflection.
4. A virtual image is always erect.
5. Cornea controls the light entering in the eye.
6. Blind spot is found on the retina of blind people.
Ans. 1. False 2. True 3. True
4. True 5. False 6. False

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Name the light ray which strikes any surface.
Ans. The light ray, which strikes any surface, is called the incident
ray.

178 Solution Book

 2. Name the ray that comes back from the surface after reflection.
Ans. The ray that comes back from the surface after reflection is
known as the reflected ray.
3. What do you understand by beam of light?
Ans. A bunch of light rays or bundle of rays is called beam of light.
4. Which law says that the angle of incidence is always equal
to the angle of reflection?
Ans. The laws of reflection states that the angle of reflection is
equal to the angle of incidence.
5. Name the angles formed on both the sides of normal during
the reflection of a ray.
Ans. Angle of incidence and angle of reflection.
6. Name the process of splitting of light into different colours.
Ans. The phenomenon of splitting of white light into seven colours
is called dispersion of light.
7. In which device you see the beautiful patterns with the help
of reflection?
Ans. A kaleidoscope is a device that uses multiple reflection to
produce beautiful patterns.
8. Name the dark muscular structure behind the cornea in human
eye.
Ans. A dark muscular tissue and ring like structure behind the
cornea is known as iris.
9. Which part of our eye controls the size of pupil?
Ans. A small opening in the iris is known as pupil. Its size is
controlled by the help of iris.
10. When we say that a person has green eyes, which part actually
we refer to.
Ans. When we say that a person has green eyes, we refer actually
the colour of the iris.
11. Which part of our eye controls the amount of light entering
into the eye?
Ans. Iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye.
12. Name some food items that contain vitamin-A.
Ans. Raw carrots, broccoli and green vegetables are rich in
vitamin A.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 179

 13. Who developed the Braille system?
Ans. Louis Braille developed the Braille system.
14. Name two Indians who are/were completely visually challenged
but have great achievements to their credit.
Ans. Ravindra Jain and Lal Advani, born completely visually
challenged, but have great achievement in their credit.
15. Which type of mirrors form lateral inversion?
Ans. Plane mirror forms laterally inverted images.
16. What is called the line that forms an angle of 90° to the
mirror?
Ans. Line that forms an angle of 90° is called the normal.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. State the laws of reflection.
Ans. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal lie in the
same plane, at the point of incidence. The angle of incidence
is always equal to the angle of reflection.
2. What is regular reflection?
Ans. When a parallel beam of light on striking some smooth and
polished surface is reflected as a parallel beam of light, such
a reflection is called regular reflection.
3. Define diffused reflection.
Ans. When the rays in a parallel beam of light, on striking some
rough surface, are reflected in different directions, then such
a reflection is called diffused reflection.
4. Differentiate between a real and a virtual image.
Ans. A real image can be captured on a screen where as a virtual
image not. A real image is always inverted where as virtual
image is always erect.
5. What are ciliary muscles?
Ans. Ciliary muscles are the muscles which are attached to eye
lens and can modify the shape of eye lens which leads to the
variation in focal length.
6. Write a short note on Braille system.
Ans. Braille is a system of writing and printing specifically for the
visually impaired people. This system uses characters formed
by patterns of raised dots that represent letters and numbers
180 Solution Book
 which can be felt by the fingers. This system was invented by
Louis Braille. It consists of patterns of raised dots arranged
in cells of up to six dots in a 3×2 configuration.
7. What is the dispersion of light? Name seven colours of white
light.
Ans. The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its seven
component colours is called dispersion of light. The white
light spits into 7 colours namely violet, indigo, blue, green,
yellow, orange and red.
8. State four uses of plane mirrors.
Ans. It is used as looking glass. It is used in solar cooker. Plane
mirrors are also used in constructing periscope which is used
in submarines. Plane mirrors are used to make kaleidoscope.
9. Draw a figure to show the
formation of image when I3
two plane mirrors are held
I5
at an angle of 60°. I1

I4

I2
10. What is the blind spot in our eyes?
Ans. Blind spot is the region on the retina of the eye. Images are
not detected by this region of the eye as it is devoid of the
photoreceptor. This is the region through which optic nerves
leaves the eye to reach the brain.
11. What do you mean by
(a) An incident ray : An incident ray is a ray of light that
strikes a surface.
(b) Angle of reflection : The angle between the normal and
the reflected ray is known as the angle of reflection.
(c) Normal : A perpendicular at the point of incidence is
known as normal to the reflecting surface at that point.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 181
 12. How should we take care of our eyes? Give a brief description.
Ans. Avoid reading in too little or too much light. Wash your eyes
with cold water at least three times. Do not look at the sun
or powerful light directly. Do not rub your eyes with dirty
hand.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. (a) Find out the position of an image of an object situated
at A in the plane mirror.
(b) Can man at B see this image?
(c) Can man at C see this image?
(d) When man moves from B to C, where does the image of
A move?
Ans. (a)

X
(b) Yes
(c) Yes
(d) The image of A does not move as position of A is not
changing.
2. Differentiate between regular and diffused reflection. Does
diffused reflection mean the failure of the laws of reflection?
Ans. Regular reflection happens from highly smooth surface, while
diffused reflection happens from a rough surface. Clear images
are formed in the case of regular reflection, while blurred
images are formed in case of irregular reflection. The laws
of reflection are followed in every situation. Hence, diffused
reflection does not mean the failure of the laws of reflection.
3. How is kaleidoscope made? Give its uses also.
Ans. A kaleidoscope, is made up of three rectangular mirror
strips about 15 cm long and 4 cm wide each. This mirrors,
are joined together to form a prism to form a kaleidoscope.
Kaleidoscope is useful for designers and artists to get idea
for new patterns to design wallpapers, jewellery and fabrics.
182 Solution Book
 4. Explain the structure of human eye with the help of a labelled
diagram.
Ans. The eye has roughly spherical
shape. The outer coat of the eye
is white. Its transparent front
part is called cornea. Behind the
cornea, we find a dark muscular
structure called iris. In the iris,
there is a small opening called the pupil. Behind the pupil
of the eye is a lens which is thicker in the centre. The lens
focuses light on the back of the eye, on a layer called retina.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. Aman wanted to perform activity for observing size of pupil
of friend’s eye using a laser torch. His teacher advised him
not to do so. How can you explain the basis of the teacher’s
advice? [HOTS]
Ans. Laser light is harmful for the human eye, because its intensity
is very high. It can cause damage to the retina and lead to
blindness Hence, Aman’s teacher advise him not to observe
size of pupil of friend’s eye using a laser torch.
2. If you are in a dark room. Can you see objects in the room?
Can you see objects outside the room? Explain briefly. [HOTS]
Ans. We see only those objects from which reflected rays enter
our eyes. When we are in a dark room then we do not see
objects because of absence of light. If there is light outside
the room then objects outside the room can be seen.
3. Mr. Sharma declared that he will donate his eyes after his
death. Thus, he can light the life of two blind persons.
[Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) What are the values depicted by Mr. Sharma?
Ans. Concern for others.
(b) Which part of the eye can be donated? How?
Cornea of an eye can be donated after death. Cornea can
survive for 40 hours after death, but it is better to have
transplantation of cornea with in 4 to 6 hours.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 183
 4. A man stands at A just on the side of a plane mirror as
shown in the figure. Can he see himself in the mirror?
Also can he see the image of objects situated at P, Q
and R? Why? [Activity Based Question]

A1 P1 Q1
Ans. Yes, he can see himself in the mirror. He can see the images
of P&Q but not R. As image of object R is far behind the mirror.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. Angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
(a) Never (b) Always
(c) Sometimes (d) Under special conditions
Ans. (b) Always
2. The image of the object is always formed at the
(a) pupil (b) iris
(c) retina (d) sclera
Ans. (c) retina
3. For the hypermetropic eye, the defect is cured by
(a) concave lens (b) convex lens
(c) bifocal lens (d) cylindrical lens
Ans. (b) convex lens
4. In the figure, the coin is just out
of sight. If water is poured into
the metal can, the coin will
(a) become visible
(b) appear smaller
(c) invisible
(d) float to the surface
Ans. (a) become visible
184 Solution Book
 5. The given figure shows a girl standing at a position A in
front of a plane mirror, at a distance of a m from the mirror.
When she moves b m away to a new position B, the distance
between the girl and her image increases by 8 m.
What is the value of b?

(a) 2 m (b) 4 m
(c) 8 m (d) Data is not sufficient
Ans. (b) 4 m

PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : To study the behaviour of light falling on the plane mirror.
Materials Required : A torch light, a plane mirror fixed on a stand,
a white plane sheet of paper, a cardboard with a slit.
Procedure : Fix a white sheet of paper on a table. Now, take a
cardboard having slit and adjust it
vertically on the white sheet of paper
with the help of any support. Shine a
torch just behind the slit. You can see
the path of light on the sheet of paper.
Keep the mirror vertically in the path
of light. What happens?
Observation : The ray of light after striking the mirror, moves
(reflected) in another direction. If we rotate the mirror, the reflected
ray also rotates.
Conclusion and Explanation : Angle of incidence = Angle of
reflection. The incident ray, reflected ray and the normal at the point
of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 185
 Investigation – 2
Aim : To show the dispersion of light.
Materials Required : A plastic box,
Spectrum
small mirror, water, torch.
Procedure : Take the plastic box,
pour some water in it. Place a small Mirror
mirror in the box at an angle on one
side of the box. Shine a torch on
the mirror below the water. Now, Water
change the angle of the torch till you
get some coloured light on the wall Sp
opposite the mirror. Look carefully ec
tru
on the wall. m
Observation : The white light
splits into different colours on the Mirror
wall. The order of the colours are : Torch
violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, Water
orange and red.
Conclusion and Explanation : The angle of deviation for different
colours is different. So, when white light is incident on the surface of
water the waves of different colours deviate through different angles.
The deviation of red light is least and the violet is the maximum.

17 Stars and the Solar System

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. Which of the following is a constellation?
(a) Silus (b) Great Bear (c) Pole-star
Ans. (b) Great Bear
2. The Ursa Major consists of
(a) Five stars (b) Seven stars (c) Eight stars
Ans. (b) Seven stars

186 Solution Book

 3. The Earth completes one rotation on its own axis in
(a) 12 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 20 hours
Ans. (b) 24 hours
4. Our solar system belongs to
(a) Sey fert galaxy
(b) Milky Way galaxy
(c) Whirlpool galaxy
Ans. (b) Milky Way galaxy
5. The nearest planet from the Sun is
(a) Earth (b) Mercury (c) Mars
Ans. (b) Mercury
6. The planet farthest from the Sun is
(a) Jupiter (b) Neptune (c) Saturn
Ans. (b) Neptune

B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:

1. The earth is the third planet of the Sun.
2. Moon is the natural satellite of the Earth.
3. The star nearest to our solar system is Alpha Centauri.
4. The heavenly bodies which revolve around the Sun are called
planets.
5. The heavenly bodies which revolve around the planets are
called satellites.
6. The motion of the Earth around the Sun is called revolution.
C. Match the items in column A with those in column B :
Column A Column B
1. A planet with rings (a) Meteorite
2. Natural satellite of the Earth (b) Saturn
3. An unburnt part of a meteor (c) Moon
4. A cluster of stars resembling some (d) Ursa Major
animal or known object
5. It appears in the sky once in 76 years (e) Constellation
6. It consists of seven stars (f) Halley’s comet
Ans.1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (f) 6. (d)
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 187
D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given
below :
1. Gravity on the Moon is six times less than the Earth.
2. Moon revolves around the Earth in 29½ days.
3. Halley’s comet appears once in 176 years.
4. Most of the stars are made of hydrogen and helium.
5. Mercury is the nearest planet to the Sun.
Ans. 1. True 2. False 3. False
4. True 5. True

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Which planet in our solar system is nearest to the sun?
Ans. The planet Mercury is closest to the Sun.
2. Name the most famous comet, appears in the sky once in 76
years.
Ans. Halley’s comet, appears in the sky once in 76 years.
3. What is called a group of stars which resembles an animal
or a known thing?
Ans. A constellation is a group of stars that resembles an animal
or a known thing.
4. Give the number of planets in our solar system.
Ans. There are eight planets in our solar system.
5. How far is the sun from the earth?
Ans. The distance between the sun and the earth is 15,00,00,000
km.
6. Name the second planet of the Sun.
Ans. Venus is the second planet of the sun.
7. Which star is nearest to our solar system?
Ans. The star nearest to our solar system is Alpha Centauri.
8. Give the other name of Ursa Major constellation.
Ans. Other name of Ursa Major constellation is Great Bear.

188 Solution Book

 9. What is called the distance travelled by the light in one year?
Ans. One light year.
10. Name the natural satellite of earth.
Ans. Moon is the natural satellite of Earth.
11. Which constellation is also called the Hunter?
Ans. Orion is the constellation which is often called as the Hunter.
12. Name the definite path in which a planet revolves around the
Sun.
Ans. The definite path in which a planet revolves around the sun
is called an orbit.
13. Name the only planet on which life exists.
Ans. Earth is the only planet on which life is known exists.
14. Which planet is also called the Red Planet?
Ans. Mars is often called the ‘Red planet’
15. Name two artificial satellites launched by India.
Ans. Two artificial satellites launched by india are INSAT, EDUSAT.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. Define solar system.
Ans. The collection of eight planets and their moons in orbit around
the sun, together with smaller bodies in the form of asteroids,
meteoroids, and comets is called solar system.
2. Name all planets in the solar system in order of their distance
from the Sun.
Ans. Name of the planets in the solar system in the order of
increasing distance from the sun : Mercury, Venus, Earth,
Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.
3. What are celestial bodies?
Ans. Celestial bodies are objects in space such as the stars, the
planets, the moon and many other objects in the space. They
form a part of the vast universe we live in.
4. What do you understand by the term ‘Planet’?
Ans. A planet is a large, round object in space that moves around
a star. The planets look like stars, but they do not have light
of their own. They merely reflect the sunlight that falls on them.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 189

 5. What is a constellation? Name any two constellations.
Ans. A constellation is a group of stars that form a recognisable
pattern in the sky. Two constellations in the night sky are
Great Bear, Orion.
6. Why do comets have a long bright tail?
Ans. A comet is a collection of frozen gases and some water ice.
As it approaches the sun, these heat up and vaporise, erupting
off the surface of the comet, then this spray of light weight
material is blown by solar wind, creating a long bright tail.
7. Write a short note on ‘phases of the moon’.
Ans. The different shapes of the lit portion of the Moon that can
be seen from Earth are known as phases of the Moon. Each
phase repeats itself every 29.5 days. One side of the Moon
always faces the Earth so the phases will always occur over
the same half of the moon’s surface.
8. What are natural satellites? Name the natural satellite of the
Earth.
Ans. A natural satellite is any celestial body in space that orbits
around a larger body. Moons are called natural satellites they
orbit planets. In Earth’s case, the moon is a natural satellite.
9. What is a star? What makes the star to give vast amount of
energy?
Ans. A star is a giant ball of g hydrogen gas with bright light
and heat. Due to the fusion of hydrogen gas, a heavier gas
i.e., helium, is formed which gives huge amount of heat and
energy. So, due to the fusion of hydrogen a star gives about
a vast amount of energy.
10. How are meteors different from meteorites?
Meteors Meteorites
Meteors are the heavenly The unburnt piece of a
bodies consisting of small meteor, which survive the
piece of stones and metallic heat and reaches the surface
rocks. of earth is called meteorite.
Meteors are shooting star that Meteorites have sizes varying
produce heat and light energy from small pebbles to big
due to the friction of earth’s blocks weighing few tonnes.
atmosphere.

190 Solution Book

 11. Give differences between a planet and a star.
Planet Star
A planet does not have its A star possesses its won heat
own light and heat. It derives and light.
it light from a star.
A planet is usually smaller Stars are very huge object
than stars. compared to a planet.
12. Why can we not hear any sound on the moon?
Ans. Sound needs medium for propagation. There is no medium
on the moon. So, we cannot hear any sound on the moon.
13. List the advantages of artificial satellites.
Ans. Long distance transmission of television programmes,
communication through telephones and internet is possible
because of artificial satellites. Artificial satellites are also used
for weather prediction research, military and remote sensing.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. What are the natural satellites? How many natural satellites
does have the earth? Does life exist on our natural satellite?
Give the reason.
Ans. A natural satellite is a celestial body that revolves around a
planet. Earth has one natural satellites called Moon. There is no
air on the moon. It experiences extreme surface temperatures
like 100°C during the day and –168°C at night. Force of
gravity at the Moon’s surface is only about one sixth of that
on the earth. It has no life of any kind.
2. Define constellation. Explain in brief about the famous
constellations.
Ans. The stars forming a group that has a recognisable shape of
animals, human beings or other objects is called constellation.
Some famous constellations are. Ursa Major : Ursa Major
constellation consists of seven bright stars. These seven
stars arranged in the form of a dipper. Orion : Orion is also
known as Kalpurush. There are seven bright stars and several
faint stars in the Orion. The arrangement of stars in Orion
resembles a hunter. Cassiopeia : This constellation is visible
during winter in the northern sky. It looks like a distorted
letter W or M.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 191
 3. Describe the solar system with the help of a labelled diagram.
Ans. T h e t e r m
solar system
refers to the
family of
the sun. The
sun is a star
around which
eight planets,
among other
celestial
objects revolve in orbits. This whole system of bodies is
called the solar system. Planets in the order of their distance
from the sun is as follows: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars,
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune. The Earth is regarded
as the only planet known to support life.
4. What are the different members of solar system other than
sun and planets? Give a short note about each one.
Ans. Different members of solar system other than sun and planets
are satellites, asteroids, comets and meteors. A solid heavenly
body that revolves a planet is called its natural satellite. Natural
satellites are also called moons. Asteroids are the rocks pieces
that revolve around the sun between the orbits of Mars and
Jupiter. Comets are heavenly bodies that revolve around the
sun in vary large orbits. Meteors are the heavenly bodies of
small pieces of stones and metallic rocks. Meteors are seen
as a bright-streak of light flashing for a moment across the sky.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. The sun appears to move east to west across the sky, while,
the sun remains stationary. What could be the reason behind
it? Explain briefly. [HOTS]
Ans. Earth spins on its axis. Earth spins or rotates, west to east
and that’s why sun, Moon, planets and stars all rise in the
east and make their way westward across the sky.
2. The pole star appears to be almost stationary. Give reason
properly. [HOTS]
Ans. Polaris or Pole star appears stationary in the sky because it
is positioned close to the line of Earth’s axis projected into

192 Solution Book

 space. As such, it is the only bright star whose position relative
to a rotating Earth does not change.
3. Saurabh’s younger brother wanted to look the solar eclipse
with naked eyes. Saurabh stopped him not to do so.
[Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
(a) What are the value you learn from Saurabh?
Ans. Concern for others.
(b) Why did Saurabh stop him not to do so?
Ans. Viewing the sun with your naked eye during the eclipse can
burn your retina. So, Saurabh stop his younger brother to
stop observing solar eclipse with naked eye.
4. Starting from the month of November or May, after every two
weeks, note the position from where the Sun rises and mark
this on a chart paper with the date of observation. Report this
for a few months. Does the Sun always rise from the same
direction? Explain briefly. [Activity Based Question]
Ans. Actually the sun only rises due east and sets due west on 2
days of the year the equinoxes. On the other days, the Sun
rises either north or south of ‘due east’ and sets north or
south of due west.
5. Sometimes, you may look a star like object in the eastern
sky before sunrise. Sometimes it appears in the western sky
just after sunset. Therefore, it is known as a morning or an
evening star but is not a star? Can you identify such celestial
body? Explain briefly. [Project Based Question]
Ans. Venus is called morning or evening star because it could be
seen for a few hours before the sun grew too bright. The
planet actually becomes brightest before the sun rises or just
after sun set.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not considered as a planet of the Sun?
(a) Earth (b) Jupiter (c) Mars (d) Pluto
Ans. (d) Pluto
2. Which of the following is not a member of the solar system?
(a) A comet (b) A constellation
(c) A satellite (d) An asteroid
Ans. (b) A constellation
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 193
 3. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Venus is the hottest planet of the solar system.
B. Jupiter is called the red planet as it has a large red spot
on its surface.
C. Revolving speed of Mercury is fastest of all planets.
D. Mars has no natural satellites of its own.
E. Saturn is the least dense planet among all planets
(a) B and C only (b) B, D and E only
(c) C and E only (d) A, B, D and E only
Ans. (c) C and E only
4. Which of the following planet is called born sister of the Earth?
(a) Jupiter (b) Saturn (c) Mars (d) Venus
Ans. (d) Venus
5. Which of the following options truly represents the relative
positions of the Sun (S), Moon (M) and Earth (E) on the day
of full moon and new moon?
Full Moon New Moon
(a) MES MSE
(b) SME ESM
(c) SEM SME
(d) ESM EMS
Ans. (c) SEM SME

PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Aim : To show that the moon appears in different shapes at different
positions.
Materials Required :
A big ball, black paint,
brush, string, two pointed
wooden nails.
Procedure : Take a big
ball and paint black its
half with the help of
brush. Go out into the
open, where clear

194 Solution Book

sunlight is available. Draw a circle of radius about 3 m on the earth
with the help of string and wooden nail.
Divide the circle into eight equal
parts. Stand yourself at the centre
of the circle. Now, ask your friend
to hold the ball at different points
of the circle. Ask him to keep the
white portion of the ball towards
the sun and the line dividing the
black and white portion is kept
always vertical during this activity.
From the central point observe the visible white portion of the ball at
these eight points while your friend stands at these points. Draw the
shape of the white portion on your notebook as you see it. Compare
these with the figure of phases of moon. What do you find?
Observation : We can find the similar figure as shown in phases
of moon.
Conclusion and Explanation : We cannot see other side of the moon
because moon rotates on its axis during revolution around the earth.
And the time periods of both are approximately same.

Investigation – 2
Aim : To study the rotation and revolution of the moon.
Materials Required : Two
wooden nails, one strong 2 m
long string.
Procedure : Draw a circle of
about 2 m diameter on the earth
with the help of wooden nail
and string. Stand yourself at the
centre. Ask one of your friend
to revolve around you on the circle keeping their face towards you.
See continuously your friend. Can you see his back?
Observation : No, we cannot see his back.
Conclusion and Explanation : Moon completes one rotation in one
revolution. And we cannot see back side of the moon.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 195

 18 Pollution of Air and Water

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Multiple choice questions :
1. The suspended particulate matter in air is also known as
(a) Aerosol (b) Fog (c) Dust
Ans. (a) Aerosol
2. Pollutants that are in the form of tiny particles are called
(a) Particulate pollutant
(b) Suspended particulate matter
(c) Tiny pollutants
Ans. (b) Suspended particulate matter
3. In birds, DDT prevents
(a) Fertilisation
(b) Formation of egg shell
(c) Flying in birds
Ans. (b) Formation of egg shell
4. Domestic sewage, faecal matter, paper, cloth, wood and
agricultural residues are the examples of _______ wastes.
(a) Non-biodegradable
(b) Biodegradable
(c) Toxic
Ans. (b) Biodegradable
5. In Bhopal gas tragedy, the gas leaked was
(a) Methyl bromide
(b) Methyl chloride
(c) Methyl isocyanate
Ans. (c) Methyl isocyanate

B. Fill in the blanks with the suitable words given below:

1. DDT is a non-biodegradable pollutant.
2. Use of alum increases the rate of sedimentation.

196 Solution Book

 3. Ozone layer protects the earth from UV rays.
4. Burning of fossil fuel releases carbon dioxide.
5. Particulate air pollutants can be controlled by the use of filter.
C. Match the statements in column A with those in column B :
Column A Column B
1. Greenhouse gases (a) CFCs
2. Water pollutants (b) Plastics
3. Acid rain (c) Industrial effluents
4. Depletion of ozone (d) Carbon dioxide and methane
5. Non-biodegradable (e) Oxides of sulphur and
pollutant nitrogen
Ans. 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (e) 4. (a) 5. (b)

D. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in front of the statements given

below :
1. Gaseous fumes from the vehicles are one of the causes of air
pollution.
2. Particulate pollutants may be solid, liquid or gas.
3. Non-biodegradable pollutants can be altered very quickly.
4. Decomposition is naturally brought about by higher animals.
5. Methyl isocyanate affects the nervous system.
6. Acid rain kills aquatic life and damages buildings.
Ans. 1. True 2. False 3. False
4. True 5. True 6. True

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Very short answer type questions :
1. Give the constituent of nitrogen in air.
Ans. Constituent of nitrogen in air 78%.
2. What is called the substance that causes pollution?
Ans. Substance that causes pollution is called pollutants.
3. Name the water, fit for drinking.
Ans. Water which is fit for drinking is called potable water.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 197

 4. Name the compound of hydrogen and oxygen in liquid state.
Ans. Water (H2O) is the compound of hydrogen and oxygen in
liquid state.
5. Name the envelope of air surrounding the earth.
Ans. Atmosphere.
6. Name a gas responsible for greenhouse effect.
Ans. Carbon dioxide is responsible for greenhouse effect.
7. Write the full form of –
(a) CNG – Compressed Natural Gas
(b) LPG – Liquefied Petroleum Gas
8. Give one effect of global warming on the sea level.
Ans. Global warming can cause sea levels to rise dramatically.
9. Name two sources of air pollutants.
Ans. Two sources of air pollutants are automobile exhausts and
petroleum refineries.
10. Name the fuels from which carbon-monoxide gas is released
on incomplete burning.
Ans. Carbon-monoxide is released by the incomplete combustion
of fuels such as petrol and diesel.
11. Which air pollutant is made up of smoke and fog?
Ans. Smoke mixed with fog forms a complex substance called smog.
12. In which household things CFC is being used?
Ans. CFCs are released by air conditioners, refrigerators, etc.
13. From which type of rays, ozone protects us?
Ans. Ozone protects us from harmful ultraviolet radiations.
14. Which type of pollution will increase when we fire the crackers?
Ans. Air pollution will increase when we fire the crackers.
15. Name the fuel being used in vehicles in place of petrol.
Ans. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is being used in vehicles in
place of petrol.
B. Short answer type questions :
1. Define pollution.
Ans. Pollution is the contamination of our physical environment,
which consists of air, water and soil. The substances which
contaminate the environment are called pollutants.

198 Solution Book

 2. What is particulate pollutant?
Ans. Particulate pollutants are the pollutants that are in the form
of minute particles. It may be solid (like dust, sand, tobacco
and smoke) or liquids (as droplets, mist, fog). The particulate
matter remains suspended in the atmosphere.
3. What are the gaseous pollutants? Give two examples.
Ans. Gaseous pollutants are the pollutants which remain in gaseous
state at normal temperature and pressure. Two examples of
gaseous pollutants are carbon monoxides and sulphur dioxide.
4. What is aerosol? Which type of pollutant it is?
Ans. The suspended particulate matter in air is known as aerosol.
These are the pollutants that are in the form of minute particles.
It may be solid like dust, sand or liquid like water droplets,
mist and fog.
5. Define non-biodegradable pollutants. Give examples.
Ans. Those waste materials which cannot be broken down into non-
poisonous or harmless substances in nature by bacteria, such
materials are called as non-biodegrable pollutants substances
such as metallic oxides particulates of mercury, lead, arsenic,
insecticides, pesticides, DDT etc. are non-biodegradable pollutants.
6. Give the harmful effects of DDT.
Ans. Low to moderate exposure to DDT may result in nausea,
diarrhea, irritation of eyes, nose or throat, while higher does
can cause chronic effects on the nervous system, liver, kidneys
and immune system.
7. What are biodegradable pollutants? Give two examples.
Ans. Those waste materials that can be broken down into non-
poisonous substances in nature due to action of bacteria and
other microbes in due course of time are called biodegradable
pollutants. Two examples are dead plants and animals, animal
excreta.
8. Give main causes of air pollution.
Ans. Burning of fossil fuels, automobile exhausts, incomplete
combustion of fuels, city sewage, decay of organic waste.
Vapour of organic solvents from paint and varnish industry.
Acid fumes from fertilizer and chemical industry.
9. Explain the term ‘Acid rain’.
Ans. Burning of coal, petrol and diesel produces carbon dioxides,
carbon monoxide, oxides of nitrogen and sulphur. These oxides

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 199

 react with rainwater to form acids. The rainwater containing
acids of sulphur and nitrogen is called acid rain.
10. How does the ozone layer get depleted?
Ans. Chlorofluoro carbons released by air conditioners, refrigerators
accumulate in the stratosphere. Sunlight breaks down CFCs
releasing chlorine atoms. The atomic chlorine reacts with
ozone and destroys it.
11. Give the characteristics of potable water.
Ans. It should be colourless, transparent and free of odour. It should
be free of any suspended impurities, germs and pathogenic
bacteria. It should contain essential amounts of dissolved
mineral salts of sodium, calcium and magnesium. It should
contain dissolved gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide
which give a quality of freshness to the water.
12. How will you remove the suspended pollutants from water?
Explain the method in brief.
Ans. Any suspended impurity in the water from well, river or lake
can be removed by filtering water through a fine muslin cloth,
gravel, sand and charcoal.
C. Long answer type questions :
1. What causes air pollution? How can we control air pollution.
Give effective measures.
Ans. Petroleum refineries are a major sources of air pollution like
sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxides. Sulphur dioxide is
produced by combustion of fuels like coal in power plants
to control air pollution. Avoid using cars as much as possible
and use public transport whenever possible say no to crackers
during festivals Using alternative sources of energy instead of
fossil fuels. By planting more trees By do not burning dried
leaves.
2. Give the bad effects of water pollution and vehicular pollution
on human health.
Ans. Polluted water can cause many diseases like cholera, dysentery,
typhoid, gastroenteritis, hepatitis, diarrhoea and skin diseases
in human beings. Vehicular pollution containing lead, can be
dangerous for small children and can lead to lower IQ and
Kidney problems. For adults, exposure to lead can increase
the chance of having heart attacks.

200 Solution Book

 3. What causes water pollution? Give five measures to check
water pollution.
Ans. Causes of water pollution : Discharge of untreated domestic
sewage into rivers and lakes. Discharge of toxic industrial
wastes into rivers and lakes. Excessive use of fertilizers and
pesticides in agriculture. Do not throw the garbage into river,
lakes. Toxic industrial waste should be treated chemically to
remove the harmful substance present in it. The city sewage
should be treated at the sewage treatment plant. Excessive
use of fertilizers and pesticides should be discouraged. Trees
and plant must be planted on banks.
4. What is ozone hole? Give the harmful effects of
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
Ans. In 1980s atmospheric scientists working on Antarctica reported
about depletion of ozone layer commonly known as ozone
hole over the south pole. CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) cause
the depletion of ozone layer by decomposing ozone to oxygen.
This result in increased amount of UV radiation, from the sun,
reaching the earth. This can cause skin cancer and damage
to eyes.
5. Write the causes of – greenhouse effect and global warming.
Ans. The heating of earth’s atmosphere due to the trapping of
infrared radiations reflected by the surface of the earth by
carbon dioxide is the main cause of greenhouse effect. As we
know that the amount of CO2 is now increasing due to human
activities. Excess carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere
traps a lot of heat and leads to warming of the earth’s surface,
hence increased temperature which leads to global warming.
D. Some other types of questions :
1. Look at the given picture and answer the questions
followed– [Diagram Based Question]
(a) Which type of pollution it is
causing?
Ans. It is causing air pollution by releasing
ash, dust particles, carbon dioxide,
sulphur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide etc.
(b) What type of health problems it
may cause?
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 201
 Ans. Oxides of sulphur are highly suffocating. These gases cause
respiratory problems and damage lungs. At lower concentration,
SO2 causes irritation in the throat. Oxides of nitrogen cause
lung congestion. Carbon monoxide causes nausea, headache
and giddiness. Inhalation of CO can leads to death.
(c) List two other sources of this type of pollution.
Ans. Automobile exhausts, incomplete combustion of fuels.
2. Look at the picture alongside. Answer the questions based
on it. [Diagram Based Question]
(a) What are the children
doing?
Ans. Children planting saplings
(b) Name the special day
celebrated for it, every
year.
Ans. Van Mahotsav is a programme
undertaken for planting trees every year in the month of July.
(c) How will this act of children change the environment?
Ans. By planting more trees
• Greenhouse effect is reduced
• Dust particles in the air are reduced.
3. ‘Say No to Crackers’, a campaign was organised by children.
Do you think it can make a big difference in case of worst
level of air pollution during festivals?  [HOTS]
Ans. Crackers contain toxic chemicals. Fire crackers release
pollutants such as sulphur dioxide, lead, magnesium and nitrate.
Which leads to spikes in dangerous level of air pollution.
So ‘Say No to crackers’ campaign definitely decrease the air
pollution during festivals.
4. You must have seen the buses run by government in Delhi
for public transport. It was done by the Government to reduce
the level of air pollution. What other eco-friendly options are
provided there? Answer in brief. [HOTS]
Ans. The swachh bharat abhiyan is India’s biggest cleanliness drive
ever. The campaign covers as many 4041 towns and cleaning
streets roads and infrastructure. National Air Quality Index
Launched. This will monitor air quality level in 10 cities
throughout the country. Government directed the states of
202 Solution Book
 India to ensure 50% of work taken up by MNREGA, should
be for the improvement of water conservation.
5. While returning home from school in the school bus, Rita and
her friends noticed that domestic sewage was being released
in the river. They requested the teacher accompanying them
in the bus to stop the bus so that they could go near the
spot. They found that foul smell was coming from the water.
Through the school, they informed the municipal office and
pollution control board to solve the above problem.
[Value Based Question]
Answer the following questions, based on the above
information :
(a) What are the consequences of sewage being released into
the river?
Ans. The resulting water pollution causes the quality of water to
deteriorate and affects aquatic ecosystem. Pollutants can also
seep down and effect groundwater deposit.
(b) What values are displayed by Rita and her friends in
taking the initiative?
Ans. Good and responsible citizen. Concern for others and
environment.
(c) Suggest one school activity to promote such value in
school children.
Ans. Activity : Sharing stories Tell the truth, be caring, respect
others, be responsible for what you say and do.
6. Most often the hot water or hot fluid from the power plants
and related industries is released into the rivers or lakes.
Search about, how this hot water affects the aquatic life in
these water sources. Note down its bad effects and discuss
with your teacher. [Activity Based Question]
Ans. Higher temperature diminish the solubility of oxygen in water
and thus decrease the availability of this essential gas. Elevated
temperature increase the metabolism, respiration and oxygen
demand of fish and other aquatic life.
7. A recent study by the WWF found that Ganga is one of the
ten most endangered rivers in the world. Ask your teacher
for organising a field-trip of Ganga river bank in your nearest
place and observe the quality of its water. Search on internet

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 203

 about Ganga Action Plan and make a project file on quality
of water before and after GAP. [Project Based Question]
Ans. Ganga Action Plan – Namami Gange Programme an integrated
conservation mission, was approved as the flag ship programme
by the government in June 2016. The objective is to effective
abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of the
Ganga. Under the project 8 states are covered.

OLYMPIAD BASED QUESTIONS

1. We should plant trees because they help to reduce pollution
in different ways. Find those correct ways–
(i) They take in CO2
(ii) They absorb noise
(iii) They trap dust particles
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans. (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. Choose the incorrect statement regarding to the given picture:
(a) Air pollutants are discolouring its white marble.
(b) The water pollutants
present in Yamuna
river is responsible
for discolouring it.
(c) This phenomenon of
marble corrosion is
called marble cancer.
(d) The Supreme Court has
taken several steps to save the Taj.
Ans. (b) The water pollutants present in Yamuna river is responsible
for discolouring it.
3. The ‘greenhouse effect’ shows the
(a) Building up of air pollution in the atmosphere.
(b) Formation of hole in the ozone layer.
(c) Gradual warming of the Earth’s atmosphere.
(d) Increase in population.
Ans. (c) Gradual warming of the Earth’s atmosphere.

204 Solution Book

 4. The harmful effects of air pollutants are :
(i) They cause breathing problems.
(ii) They form acid rain.
(iii) They interfere with photosynthesis in plants.
(iv) They cause depletion of ozone layer.
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans. (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

PRACTICAL WORK

Investigation – 1
Collect samples of water from a tap, pond, river, well and lake. Pour
each into separate glass containers. Compare these for smell, acidity
and colour. Observe and complete the following table :
Observation
Water sample Smell Acidity Colour
Tap Water No smell pH varies about 7.5 clear
Pond Water algae and mud pH varies 6.5 to 9 blue/Green
River Water mud pH around 7.4 dark
Well Water smells like oil pH varies 6.5 to 8.5 clear
Lake Water algae and mud pH varies 7.5 to 8.5 Clear Blue/
Green

Students to do themselves.
Conclusion and Explanation : _____________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
________________________________________________________

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 205

 Investigation – 2
Visit the following places and take a walk for 15 minutes to get an
idea of air pollution :
 A park and city road with heavy traffic.
 A village and a town.
 A residential area and an industrial area.
Observe carefully and note down the following :
(a) The smoke present in these different places.
(b) Whether you start coughing or not?
(c) Whether you get burning sensation in your eyes or not?
Make a report.
Students to do themselves.
______________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________

PERIODIC TEST–4
(Based on Chapters 14 to 18)

1. Which of the following processes is done to prevent corrosion

of iron objects?
(a) Electrolysis (b) Refining
(c) Electroplating (d) Metallurgy
Ans. (c) Electroplating
2. Give the full form of LED.
Ans. Full form of LED is Light emitting diode.
3. What is the sudden shaking of the Earth called?
Ans. Sudden shaking of the earth is called earthquake.

206 Solution Book

 4. Name the layers
(a) and (b) of the earth shown in
(a)
the given figure.
Ans. (a) Mantle (b)
(b) Inner core
5. What is incident ray?
Ans. The ray of light which falls on an object is called incident
ray of light.
6. Which of the following can be used by the visually challenged
people to read and write?
(a) Electronic writer (b) Digital pens
(c) Braille system (d) Hearing aids
Ans. (c) Braille system
7. Name the radiations absorbed by ozone.
Ans. The ozone layer absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation coming
from the sun.
8. Which of the following does not belong to the family of the
solar system?
(a) Planet (b) Comet
(c) Galaxy (d) Meteors
Ans. (c) Galaxy
9. Give two drawbacks of electroplating.
Ans. (i) Safe disposal of the electrolyte or chemicals
(ii) Not every metals can be electroplated.
10. What is earthing? Give its application.
Ans. Earthing means to connect the metal case of electrical appliance
to the earth by means of a metal wire. High-rise building can
be protected from lighting by providing a lightning conductor
at its highest point. A lightning conductor consists of long,
thick metal rod/strip having sharp spikes at its upper end.
The tower end of the metal rod/strip is connected to a large
copper or aluminium plate which is buried deep inside the
Earth.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 207

 11. Label the given diagram of human eye:
Ans. (b)
)a(
)d(
)b(
)c(

Ans. (a) Ciliary muscle (b) Iris

(c) Lens (d) Optic nerve
12. Priya performed an activity to know about the charged objects.
Help her by filling the given table:

Materials Attracts/does not Charged/

Objects
used for attracts the pieces not
Rubbed
Rubbing of paper charged
Attracts the pieces
(a) Balloon Woollen cloth charged
of paper
Attracts the pieces
(b) Eraser Woollen cloth charged
of paper
Attracts the pieces
(c) Refill Polythene charged
of paper
Does not attracts
(d) Steel spoon Polythene Not charged
pieces of paper
13. List two advantages of artificial satellites.
Ans. Satellites are used to forecast the weather. Satellites helps in
the navigation of ship and aircraft.
14. Label the star (a) in the given figure of constellation orion.
How can you locate this star?
Ans. Star (a) is Sirius. The three middle star
of the orion constellation, join them in
a line and extend line in the east, you
can spot the Sirius.
(a)

208 Solution Book

 15. Why do we need to filter water before drinking?
Ans. In villages and small towns, people, get their water from
wells, hand pumps, springs or from rivers and lakes. Water
from these sources may not be fit for drinking and cooking
due to presence of water pollutants. So, we need to filter
water to made it fit for drinking and cooking.
16. Look at the given figure:

(a) What type of pollution is it causing?

(b) Which type of health problems it can cause?
Ans. (a) The smoke from the industries causing air pollution.
(b) It can cause respiratory problems and damage lungs.
It can also cause nausea, headache and giddiness. Carbon
monoxide combines with haemoglobin and decreases its
oxygen carrying capacity. As a result, blood becomes oxygen-
deficient and causes unconsciousness or death.
17. Look at the given figure and answer the questions:

(a) What does it show?

(b) In case the bulb does not glow, what may be the possible
reasons?
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 209
 (c) Name two liquids other than water which are good
conductors of electricity.
Ans. (a) Figure shows the testing of a liquid for conduction of
electricity.
(b) The experimental liquid is bad conductors of electricity.
(c) Soda water and Lemon juice are good conductor of
electricity.
18. Suppose, you are outside your home and suddenly a
thunderstorm with lightning occurs. What precautions would
you take to protect yourself?
Ans. You must take following precautions during lightning, if you
are outside the house.
• Do not carry an umbrella over your head.
• Do not stand near tall trees, high-rise building, electric
pole and any metallic structure.
• Do not lie on the ground. Instead squat low on the ground
with your hands on your knees and head in between.
• If there is no shelter around, take shelter under shorter
trees.
F G
19. Describe the activity B E
O
on the basis of given D
figure to show an image-
formation by a plane
mirror PQ. A C
Ans. Image of a point object P Q
in a plane mirror.
Let us consider a point
object ‘O’ placed in front I

of the mirror PQ. We consider two rays of light.

OA and OC falling on the mirror at points A and C respectively.
These rays after reflection, get reflected along AB and CD
respectively. The reflected rays appear to come from point I.
The point I is the image of the point Object ‘O’.
20. Write a short note on each of the following:
(a) Asteroids (b) Comets
(c) Meteors and meteorites (d) Artificial satellites

210 Solution Book

 Ans. (a) Asteroids are the rock pieces that revolve around the
sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. The largest
asteroid called Ceres has a radius of 350 km, while the
smallest is about 100 m in size. Asteroids are believed
to the remains of the early formation of solar system.
(b) Comets are heavenly bodies that revolve around the sun
in very large orbits, beyond the orbit of Pluto. While
approaching the sun, a comet has a head and a tail. The
head is a large cloud of glowing gases called the coma
of the comet. The gases are so light that the wind from
the sun blows them and a tail gets formed. One of the
best known comet is Halley’s comet, appears after nearly
every, 76 years.
(c) Meteors are the heavenly bodies of small pieces of stones
and metallic rocks. When meteors enters the earth’s
atmosphere, they get heated up due to friction and becomes
visible as a bright-streak of light flashing for a moment
across the sky. We call them as shooting stars or falling
stars. Meteors burn out almost completely before reaching
the earth’s surface. The part of a meteor, which survive its
entry into the earth’s atmosphere and lands on the earth
is called meteorite. Meteorites have sizes varying from
small pebbles to big blocks weighing a few tonnes.
(d) An artificial satellite is man-made machine that continuously
orbit around a heavenly body for the purpose of scientific
investigation. Artificial satellites are launched into space
by rocket and space shuttle. Artificial satellites are used
for
• Weather forecasting
• Satellite communication-cellular phones and long
distance telephones, fax etc.
• Television transmission
• In the navigation of ships and air craft, monitor crops
and other resources and support military activities.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 211

 MODEL TEST PAPER–2
[For Term-2 or Yearly Examination]
(Based on Chapters 1 to 18)
(Based on the entire syllabus of Term II and 30%
from the significant topics of Term I) M.M. : 80
1. The disease caused by fungi is [1]
(a) Measles (b) Polio
(c) Chicken pox (d) Ringworm
Ans. (d) Ringworm
2. What is a sensation produced inside the ears by the vibrating
air that goes into the ear from outside called? [1]
Ans. Sound vibrations.
3. Label (a) in the given figure of the
solar system. Define the term (a). [2]
Ans. Asteroid belt : They are
small heavenly bodies
present with in our
solar system, that are
revolving around the (a)
sun. They are found
between orbits of Mars
and Jupiter and this
region is called the
asteroid belt.
4. Differentiate between regular and diffused reflection. [2]
Ans.
Regular reflection Diffused reflection
When a parallel beam of When a parallel beam of light
light incident on a surface incident up on a surface is
is reflected back as a parallel reflected ‘unparalleled’, ie,
beam in one particular in different directions, then
direction, then it is called it is called diffused reflection.
regular reflection.
5. Look at the given figures. Conclude the charges in both the
conditions giving reason. [2]

212 Solution Book

 Ans. In the figure A we have brought
close together the charged objects
that are made of the same material.
Observation : A charged balloon
repelled a charged balloon.
Conclusion : Like charges repel
each other. (A) (B)
In the figure B. A rubbed refil is placed in a glass tumbler.
A charged balloon is brought near the charged refill.
Observation : A charged balloon attracted a charged refill.

Conclusion : Unlike charges attract each other.
6. Give two harms of noise pollution to humans. [2]
Ans. Exposure to high levels of sound over a long time can damage
our hearing and cause deafness. Noise pollution cause many
health related problems like high blood pressure, headache,
nervous tension and irritation.
7. How does the given shape help in movement? [2]

(A)
(B)
Ans. When a body moves in a fluid (gas or liquid) the particles of
the fluid exert frictional force. The resistance offered by fluid
is the minimum when the shape of the body is streamlined.
Streamlined shapes are rounded at the front and narrower at
the end. This streamlined shapes enable them to overcome
fluid friction without spending much energy.
8. Label the given process
Y Father X
of sex determination
(A)
in humans: [2]
Ans. A → Sperm X X
Mother
B → Ovum (B)
C → Boy XY XX

D → Girl
(C) (D)

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 213

 9. Name the synthetic fibre, used to make the articles given in
the figure. Give its one special, useful feature. [2]

Ans. Nylon is used to make the articles given in the figure.

Nylon fibre is strong and light.
10. Give two benefits of recycling the paper. [2]
Ans. To make one tonne of paper pulp, seventeen trees are
required. So if we recycle paper, it will help in conserving
trees, power, forest, wildlife and hence biodiversity.
It will also help to reduce the air pollution.
11. Give two differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic
cells. [2]
Ans. Eukaryotic cells Prokaryotic cells
Most eukaryotic cells are Most prokaryotic cells are
multicellular. unicellular.
Eukaryotic cells have well- Prokaryotic cells have their
defined nucleus with a nuclear material without a
nuclear membrane. nuclear membrane.
12. Give a brief detail of secondary sexual characters developed
during adolescence in girls and boys. [3]
Ans. The physical features which help to distinguish the male from
the female are known as secondary sexual characteristics.
The development of moustaches and beard, hair on the chest,
and development of the Adam’s apple are considered as
secondary sexual characters of human male.
Similarly, the development of breasts, a typical voice and
hair pattern on the body, and wider hip region are some of
the secondary sexual characters of the females.
13. What is the necessary condition for a force to come into play?
Give the possible results of a force applied on an object?[3]
Ans. At least two object must interact for a force to come into
play. The interacting objects may or may not be in direct
physical contact. Example of physical interaction. Pulling a
rope, hitting a ball with bat etc. Example of non physical
contact: magnetic force, electrostatic force etc.
214 Solution Book
 Possible results of a force applied on an object.
• It can make a stationary object move.
• It can change the speed of a moving object.
• It can change the direction of a moving object.
• It can stop a moving object.
• It can change the shape of an object.
14. A pendulum oscillates 30 times in 3 seconds. Find its frequency
and time period. [3]
Ans. Given that the 30 oscillations are made by the pendulum in
3 seconds.
So, it makes 10 oscillations in 1 s
We know that the number of oscillations per second (10
oscillations per second) is called frequency.
\ Frequency = 10 Hz
1
Time period = Frequency
1
= 10 s

= 0.1 s
15. Give the application of chemical effects of electricity in our
daily life. Describe with the help of two examples. [3]
OR

What does the given
activity show?
Describe the process in brief.

Ans. Electroplating : One metal is coated on the other substance

or metal by the effect of electric current. This is called
electroplating. Electroplating is necessary for making articles
look attractive as well as protection against corrosion.
Electrolysis : The compound is decomposed into its constituents
under the effect of electric current is called electrolysis.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 215

 OR
As you pour water into the tube, the balloon bulges out.
As the height of the water column in the tube increases the
balloon bulges more.
Conclusion : The bulge in the balloon is caused due to the
pressure exerted on it by the weight of water in the tube.
Increased height of the water column means increased weight
of water. This put more pressure on the balloon and it bulges
more.
Cilliary
16. Label the given muscle
diagram of human
eye and give the (c)
function of each Optic
Lens Nerve
(a), (b) and (c)
labelled part. [3]
(b)

OR (a)

What do you mean by a full moon day? Give important

features of moon.
Ans. (a) Retina : The eye lens focuses the image of the object on
the retina, which acts like a screen.
(b) Cornea : It protects the eye.
(c) Iris : It gives the eye its characteristic colour.
For example, a blue-eyed person have blue iris and a black-
eyed person has black iris.
17. While returning home from school in the school bus, Rita and
her friends noticed that domestic sewage was being released
in the river. They requested the teacher accompanying them
in the bus to stop the bus so that they could go near the
spot. They found that foul smell was coming from the water.
Through the school, they informed the municipal office and
the pollution control board. [3]
Answer the following questions, based on the above
information :
(a) What are the consequences of sewage being released into
the river?

216 Solution Book

 (b) What values are displayed by Rita and her friends in
taking such initiative?
(c) Suggest one school activity to promote such values in
school children.
Ans. (a) The resulting water pollution causes the quality of water
to deteriorate and affects aquatic ecosystem. Pollutants
can also seep-down effect groundwater deposit.
(b) Concern for other and environment, caring for the enviro.
(c) School Activity : Sharing stories, tell the truth, respect
others, be responsible for what you say and do.
18. What are the test tube babies? For which type of women is
this technique very useful? Describe the process in brief.[3]
Ans. In IVF technique the ovum collected from a female’s body
is allowed to fuse with sperms collected from a male’s body
in an external medium or outside the body of the female.
The zygote so developed is allowed to grow in a controlled
environment for a week and then implanted in the female’s
uterus where it further develops as a normal embryo. A baby
born of this technique is often called a ‘test tube body’.
This technique is employed to set pregnancy in an woman
who has problems related to the oviduct that does not allow
fertilisation to happen normally.
19. Chloroplasts are found only in the plant cells. Explain its
function. [3]
Ans. Chloroplasts are found only in plant cells. They contain green
pigment called chlorophyll. This green pigment is important
for photosynthesis in green plants. This chlorophyll pigment
traps solar energy and utilises it to manufacture food for the
plant.
20. Define combustion and combustible substances. List the
essential requirements for producing fire. [3]
Ans. The process in which a substance combines chemically with
oxygen, with simultaneous evolution of heat and light is called
combustion.
The substances which burn in air or oxygen are called
combustible substances. For example, petrol, LPG (cooking
gas), kerosene, paper, cloth, wood, coal etc, are combustible
substances.
NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 217
 Essential requirements for producing fire.
• The presence of combustible substances.
• The presence of supporter of combustion.
• Initial heating to bring the combustible substance to its
ignition temperature.
21. What is coal? Give its uses. Mention the differences between
coke and coal. [3]
Ans. Coal is one of the most important mineral and earliest fossil
fuels.
Some of the common uses of coal are as follows.
• Coal is used as a fuel
• Coal is used for the manufacture of synthetic petrol and
synthetic natural gas.
• Coal is used as a source of many organic compounds,
such as benzene, toluene, phenol, naphthalene etc.
• Coal is used for manufacture of coal tar, coke and coal
gas. Coal gas is also used as a fuel.
• Coal is used in the extraction of metals.
Differences between coke and coal.
Coke Coal
Coke is obtained from coal Coal is a natural substance.
by removing moisture and It is one of the earliest-used
other volatile matter from it. fuels.
Coke is about 98% carbon. Coal is not a pure carbon. it
is a mixture of large number
of organic compounds.
22. (a) How is ozone layer helpful for our environment? [5]
(b) What will happen if the ozone cover of the atmosphere
is removed?
(c) List the gases responsible for depletion of ozone.
Ans. (a) The ozone layer filters out harmful radiations from sun
and prevents it from coming into the atmosphere. These
harmful rays are infrared rays and ultraviolet rays that are
responsible for. Sunburn, eye problems and skin cancer.
Thus, ozone layer absorbs harful ultraviolet radiation
coming from the sun and protects animal and plant life
on the earth.
218 Solution Book
 (b) If the ozone cover of the atmosphere is removed, it will
give free access of harmful radiation from the sun to
enter the earth’s atmosphere. Thus, if the ozone layer in
the atmosphere disappears completely then the harmful
ultraviolet radiation reach the Earth and cause skin cancer
and also damage the plants.
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
23. Look at the given diagram. [5]
(a) What are these? Define the term.
(b) Name all the structures given in the diagram.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(c) Give a brief detail about the constellation also called
hunter.
Ans. (a) These are constellations.
Recognisable shape formed by group of stars are called
constellations. They are usually named after mythological
characters, people, animals and objects they resemble in
shape. There are 88 constellations known so far.
(b) (i) Ursa major (saptarshi). Ursa major is also called Great
Bear.
(ii) Orion (Kalpurush). It is also called hunter.
(iii) Cassiopia
(iv) Leo
(c) Orion is well known constellation which can be seen in
the winter. It is also called Hunter. There are seven bright
stars and several faint starts in the Orion. The arrangement
of stars in Orion resembles a hunter. The three middle
stars represent the belt and the four bright stars describe
the shoulder and legs of the hunter.
24. In the event that an earthquake strikes what steps will you
take to protect yourself? [5]

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 219

 OR
Describe an activity to test the conduction of electricity through
tap water and distilled water, with the help of a tester.
Ans. During an earthquake very first step is not to panic.
Following things need to do to protect yourself.
• If you are at home, try to take shelter a table until the
vibrations stop. Stay away from windows.
• Do not use elevators to move out.
• If in bed, be there, cover your head with a pillow. Stay
away from tall and heavy objects.
• If in a car or bus, do not come out move slowly to a
clear area.
• Be away from tall buildings, large trees and overhead
transmission lines.
• Sit on the ground.
OR
Testing the conduction of tap water.
Material Required : Tap water, plastic cup or beaker, tester,

a circuit of bulb and battery.
Procedure : Take some tap water in beaker and connect it to
the circuit. First see with the help of tester working properly.
For this touch the bare ends of the two wires with one another.
You will observe that bulb glows. Dip the bare end of the
two wires into the tap water. Take care that the ends are not
more than 1 cm apart. Do not touch each other.
Observation and conclusion : The bulb glows which indicates
that tap water conducts electricity.

Bulb

Battery Tap water

Test the conduction of electricity through distilled water

220 Solution Book

 Replace the tap water with some distilled water. Dip the bare
end of the two wires into the distilled water. You will observe
that the bulb is not glowing.
Conclusion : This activity proves that distilled water does
not conduct electricity.

25. Look at an experiment shown in the given diagram: [5]

(a)
What does it show?
(b)
Explain the process in brief.
(c)
Conclude the result and give the explanation.
Ans. (a)
This diagram shows demonstration of electrostatic force.
(b)
Here a plastic straw cut into nearly equal pieces. Suspend
one of the pieces from the edge of the table with the help
of a thread. Now hold the other piece of straw in your
hand and rub its free end with a sheet of paper. Bring
the rubbed end of the straw near the suspended straw.
Observation : The straw rubbed with paper attracts the
suspended straw.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 221

 Next rub the free end of the suspended straw with a
sheet of paper. Again bring the piece of the straw that
was rubbed earlier with paper near the free end of the
suspended straw.
Observation : There is repulsion between the straws.
(c) A straw is said to be acquired electrostatic charge after it
has been rubbed with a sheet of paper. The force exerted
by a charged body on another charged or uncharged body
is known as electrostatic force. This force comes into play
even when the bodies are not in contact. It is an example
of non-contact force.
26. Give the reaction of metals with [5]
(a) Acids (b) Bases (c) Water
Ans. (a) Most metals react with dilute acids to produce salt and
hydrogen gas.
Reaction of some common metal with dilute hydrochloric
acid are given below:
Sodium + Hydrochloric acid (dil) → Sodium + Hydrogen
Chloride
Zinc + Hydrochloric Acid (dil) Room temp Zinc chloride
+ Hydrogen.
Copper + Hydrochloric acid (dil) → No reaction even on
heating.
(b) Reaction with bases
Certain metals like, zinc, aluminium react with strong
bases on heating to form a soluble salt and hydrogen gas
is evolved.
Zinc metal + Sodium Hydroxide heat Sodium Zincate
+ Hydrogen gas
Aluminium + Sodium Hydroxide heat Sodium Aluminate
Solution + Hydrogen gas.
(c) Different metals react with water under different conditions.
Reactions of some metals with water are given below.
Sodium + Water(cold) Sodium hydroxide +
Hydrogen gas
Iron (Red hot) + Steam ferric oxide + Hydrogen gas

222 Solution Book

 Tin, lead, copper, silver, gold and platinum do not react
with water or steam.
27. What is LED? Give the advantages and disadvantages of LED
and CFL. [5]
Ans. LED is a Light emitting diode.
Advantages of LED – LEDs produce more light-per watt

than incandescent bulbs.
• LEDs can be very small.
• LEDs can light up very quickly. It is ideal for the use of
in application that are frequent on off cycling.
In contrast to most light sources. LEDs radiate very little heat
in the form of IR that can cause damage to sensitive objects.
Life time : LEDs can have relatively long useful life.
Disadvantage of LEDs

Main disadvantages of LED light bulb is their cost. Because
the technology is fairly young the cost of LEDs is more than
CFLs.
Advantages of CFL light bulbs
• They are cost effective
• They are efficient
• They come with various sizes and shapes that they can
be used for table lamps, recessed fixtures, ceiling lighting
and track lighting.
They help to reduced emission of carbon dioxide.
Disadvantages of CFLs
• They contain mercury. Which is a toxic metal
• They cannot hold up to frequent switching.
• Because of their design, they usually take a certain amount
of time to warm-up to full brightness.

NCERT Practice Workbook (Science – VIII) 223