Dedicated to My Mother Smt.

MANTI DEVI

"सभी पास हो सभी ोफेसर बने""

Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)

Contact Details

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb- 8368060636

Prepared by
Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com,M.Com., MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)

Teaching Aptitude

TEACHING

Concept of teaching the chief task of education is, above all, to shape man, or to guide the
evolving dynamism through which man forms himself as a man.” Traditional concept: - Teaching
is the act of imparting instructions to the learners in the classroom situation. It is traditional
class-room teaching. In traditional class-room teaching the teacher gives information to
students, or one of the students or one of the students reads from a text-book, while the other
students silently follow him in their not merely imparting knowledge or information to students.
While imparting knowledge teacher should kept in mind the child as well as the orderly
presentation of subject-matter. Modern concept: Teaching is to cause the pupil to learn and
acquire the desired knowledge, skills and also desirable ways of living in the society. It is a
process in which learner, teacher, curriculum and other variables are organized in a systematic
and psychological way to attain some pre-determined goals. Some Expert Views about Concept
of Teaching:

1. Ryburn’s view: “Teaching is a relationship which keeps the child to develop all his powers.”

2. Burton’s view: “Teaching is the stimulation guidance, direction and encouragement of

learning.”

3. Smith’s view: In words of B.O. Smith, “Teaching is a system of actions intended to produce
learning.”

OBJECTIVES OF TEACHING

A good objective should be specific, outcome- based and measurable. The objectives of
teaching and learning must integrate at the end of the instruction. The objectives of teaching
are:

 To bring desired in student’ attitude

 To shape behavior and conduct

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 Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb- 8368060636

 Acquisition of Knowledge
 To improve the learning skills of the students
 Formation of beliefs
 To become a social and efficient member of society

Levels of teaching (Memory, Understanding and Reflective)

1. Memory level: Thoughtless teaching

2. Understanding level: Thoughtful teaching
3. Reflective level: Upper thoughtful level

1. Memory level of teaching

It is the first and thoughtless level of teaching. It is concerned with memory or mental ability that
exists in all living beings. Teaching at memory level is considered to be the lowest level of
teaching. At this level,

 The thinking ability does not play any role.

 Students only cram the facts, information, formulas and laws that are taught to them.
 the teaching is nothing but learning the subject matter by rote.[Bigge, Morris L(1967)]
 The role of the teacher is prominent and that of the student is secondary.
 The study material is organized and pre-planned. The teacher presents the study material in a
sequential order.
 Memory level teaching lacks insight. Psychologically, it is cognitive level teaching.

Merits of memory level teaching

1. Useful for children at lower classes. This is because of their intellect us under development and
they have a rote memory.
2. The role of the teacher is important in this level of teaching and he is free to make choices of
subject matter, plan it and can present it at will.
3. The knowledge acquired at memory level teaching forms a basis for the future i.e. when
student’s intelligence and thinking is required.
4. Memory level teaching acts as the first step for understanding and reflective levels of teaching.
It is pre-requisite for understanding level teaching.

Demerits of memory level teaching

1. This does not contribute to the development of the student’s capabilities.

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 Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb- 8368060636

2. Since at this level student learns by rote, the knowledge gained does not prove helpful in real
life situations as it does not develops the talents of students.
3. The pupils are kept in strict discipline and cramming is insisted on this teaching.
4. Intelligence does not carry any importance in this type of teaching and it lacks motivation

2. Understanding level

Understanding something is to perceive the meaning, grasp the idea and comprehend the
meaning. In the field of Education and Psychology, the meaning of ‘understanding‘ can be
classified as

 seeing the total use of facts

 seeing relationship
 a generalized insight

The teaching at the understanding level is of a higher quality than the one at the memory level.
It is more useful and thoughtful from the point of view of mental capabilities. At this level of
teaching, the teacher explains the student about the relationship between principles and facts
and teaches them how these principles can be applied. Memory level teaching barrier is
essential to be crossed for this level of teaching.

As compared to memory level teaching, the understanding level teaching has greater merit. This
enables students to have complete command over subject material. In the understanding level
role of the teacher is more active. The students at this level are second any. At this level, no
cramming is encouraged. The new knowledge acquired at this level is related to the earlier
knowledge gained. A generalization is made on the basis of facts and the facts are used in the
new situations.

Merits of the understanding level of teaching

1. At this level of teaching students to make use of their thinking abilities.

2. Knowledge acquired at this level forms the basis of the reflective level of teaching.
3. Here the teacher presents subject matter before the students in an organized and sequential
form. The new knowledge acquired is related to the previously acquired knowledge.
4. Here the students do not learn by rote. Here they learn by understanding the facts and
information and their use and purpose.

Demerits of the understanding level of teaching

1. Teaching at this level is subject centered. There is no interaction between the teacher and
students at this level.
2. This type of teaching mastery is emphasized.

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 Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb- 8368060636

3. Reflective level of teaching

This level is also known as introspective level. Reflecting on something means giving careful
thought to something over a period of time. It also means thinking deeply about something.

 Reflective level of teaching is considered to be the highest level at which teaching is

carried out.
 It is highly thoughtful and useful.
 A student can attain this level only after going through memory level and understanding
level.
 Teaching at the reflective level enables the students to solve the real problems of life.
 At this level, the student is made to face a real problematic situation. The student by
understanding the situation and using his critical abilities succeeds in solving the
problem.

 At this level emphasis is laid on identifying the problem, defining it and finding a solution to it.
The student’s original thinking and creative-abilities develop at this level.
 The role of the teacher in this level of teaching is democratic. He does not force knowledge on
the students but develops in their talents and capabilities.
 The role of the students is quite active.
 Reflective level of teaching is that which is problem-centered and the student is busy in original
imagination.

Merits of reflective level teaching

1. The teaching at this level is not teacher-centered or subject-centered, it is leaner-centered.

2. There is an interaction between the teacher and the taught at the reflective level teaching.
3. At this level, teaching is appropriate for the higher class.
4. At this level, teaching is highly thoughtful and useful than the teaching at the memory or
understanding level.

Demerits of reflective level teaching

1. Not suitable for small children at the lower level of teaching. It is suitable only for mentally
matured children
2. At this level, the study material is neither organized nor pre-planned. Therefore students cannot
acquire systematic and organized knowledge of their study courses.

Characteristics of teaching:-

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1. The main character of teaching is to provide guidance and training.

2. Teaching is interaction between teacher and students.
3. Teaching is an art to give knowledge to students with effective way.
4. Teaching is a science to educate fact and causes of different topics of different subjects.
5. Teaching is continues process.
6. Teacher can teach effectively, if he has full confidence on the subject.
7. Teaching encourages students to learn more and more.
8. Teaching is formal as well as informal
9. Teaching is communication of information to students. In teaching, teacher imparts
information in interesting way so that students can easily understand the information.
10. Teaching is tool to help student to adjust himself in society and its environment.

BASIC REQUIREMENTS OF TEACHING

Basic requirements of teaching include,

I. The Teacher

II. The Learner.

III. The Subject (Topic)

IV. The Environment

Learner’s characteristics

Characteristics of Adolescent Learner

The young adolescent is going through a period of significant physical, emotional, intellectual,
moral and social changes. Since the nature of these changes is at times intense and varied,
they need to be recognized and examined by those who direct their learning.

Academic

Academic characteristics of learners include the education type, education level and knowledge.
In young adolescents, intellectual development is not as visible as physical development, but it
is just as intense. During early adolescence, youth exhibit a wide range of individual intellectual
development, including meta-cognition and independent thought. They tend to be curious and
display wide-ranging interests. Typically, young adolescents are eager to learn about topics they
find interesting and useful—ones that are personally relevant. They also favor active over

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passive learning experiences and prefer interactions with peers during educational activities. All
students have some personal knowledge to relate to what is being taught. It is creative
challenge of a teacher to continually discover, or pre-assess, for meaningful connections
between pivotal subject matter concepts, related topics, and the experiences students bring to
the classroom. These connections create springboards for learning. Teacher should affirm
student’s progression learning academic concepts, successes in reaching certain goals, and
improvement in behaviors that benefit them as learners.

Social
Adolescent social development is often described as the process of establishing a sense of
identity and establishing a role and purpose. It is an outward sense of oneself. Body image is a
key factor in developing a sense of self and identity, especially for girls, and the family and
increasingly peers play an important role assisting and supporting the adolescent to achieve
adult roles. Risk-taking is a natural part of the adolescent journey. Social development and
emotional development are closely intertwined as young people search for a sense of self and
personal identity. They desire to make personal choices. They seek social acceptance and peer
relationships in order to conform to group norms. They tend to diminish family allegiances and
strengthens peer allegiances but still strongly dependent upon parental values. The actions of
adolescents are often based on myths and misinformation. In addition, the influence of the
media and the culture affect their perception of men, women and relationships. Students should
be taught to deal with social pressures resulting from competitions. Healthy attitudes towards
competition should be encouraged. Students should be encouraged to strive for self-
improvement.

Emotional
The way a person thinks and feels about themselves and others, their inward thoughts, is key to
their emotional development. Adolescents shifts moods rapidly and can become rebellious
toward adults. They are sensitive to criticism and easily get offended. Developing and
demonstrating individual emotional assets such as resilience, self esteem and coping skills is
heightened during adolescence because of the rapid changes being experienced. Schools are
important sites for social and emotional learning and have developed policies and programs
around student wellness, often with a focus on a strengths-based approach.

Cognitive
Cognition is the process involving thought, rationale and perception. The physical changes of
the brain that occur during adolescence follow typical patterns of cognitive development. They
are characterized by the development of higher-level cognitive functioning that aligns with the
changes in brain structure and function, particularly in the prefrontal cortex region. Adolescence
is a sensitive brain period that is a time when brain plasticity is heightened. During this time,
there is an opportunity for learning and cognitive growth as the brain adapts in structure and
function in response to experiences. Teachers need to provide an assortment of educational
approaches and materials that are appropriate for their student’s wide-ranging cognitive
abilities. For example, the concrete thinkers require more structured learning experiences, while

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the abstract thinkers need more challenging activities. In addition, young adolescents need
teachers who understand and know how they think Teachers need to plan curricula around real
life concepts and supply authentic educative activities (e.g., experimentation, analysis and
synthesis of data) that are meaningful for young adolescents. Because young adolescent’s
interests are evolving, they require opportunities for exploration throughout their educational
program.

Characteristics of Good Learner:-

 Curious
 Carefully understanding
 Social and personal qualities
 Willingness to learn
 Interests and attitude of learner
 Easily adjustment to change
 Internal motivation
 Learning power
 Nervousness
 Application of mind and creativity
 Social and cultural background

Factors affecting teaching related to: Teacher, Learner, Support

material, Instructional facilities, Learning environment and Institution

Teacher
Teacher – Teacher plays an important role in the teaching-learning process as facilitator of
learning. By adopting the best teaching techniques and efficient methods a teach could explore
the right talent of the learners to help them towards quality learning process.

It depends on the various factors of teacher-

 Educational Qualification – Learning of different subjects and area can provide highly
valued instruction which can effect than one who with only general degree. If you
compare the teacher who has M.ED or PhD you will be able to identify the different ways
of thinking and imparting knowledge to students.
 Skills – ‘Teaching Talent’ is different psychology. One who has higher degree can’t
assure he has right instinct and can teach in better way than others. Teaching skill is all
about you connect with students; it depends on the method of teaching you apply, your
way of explanation and engagement with students in the class room. Teacher need to
have mastery of following skill –
Communication skills for better involvement and engagement
Use of teaching aids effectively
Selection of teaching method appropriately
Passion for teaching

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Human relation skills to act as best guide or mentor

 Experience – its well-known fact that it’s easy to become teacher after fulfilling the
criteria but they actually become ‘Master’ with their experience. High Qualification may
give teachers edge in terms of understanding the different topics or complex formula but
it’s the experience in the classroom which helps you to learn and employ better methods
to effect learning of students. This is also required to handle different mindset of different
students in the class-room.

 Subject matter – Many time teachers has been assigned a subject in which he is not
specialized and he himself not in better position to help learners in effective way …so
the passion towards the subject and SME is also key factor that impact learning of
students. For example, this is very rare chance that Arts Teacher can give good learning
experience in subjects related to science.

Learner
Learner – Learning is most effective when the differences in learner’s language, cultural and
social behaviors are taken into account, it’s necessary to take note of intelligence, ethnic group,
race, belief and socioeconomic status of the learners which can influence the teaching in the
class room. Every individual is different with others in the terms of physical, social and cultural
orientation; these aspects make learner different from one another.
Also its depends on the interest of the learner including the aptitude, attitude, motivation, mental
health and aspiration towards the goals of life.
In short – Psychological difference of learns plays important role in the terms of ability to learns
things in the class room.

Environment
Environment and other factors
 Support materials – Teacher Support system is set of tools that will improve student’s
achievement by improving the capacity of teachers. Different teaching Aid and Support
System influences the way decision are made and information is passed to students. Its
help to analyze the area in which students are under performing. This also helps
teachers to gain new skill to increase student learning by use of effective strategies. This
is vast area which included many sub section to be worked upon by teacher to improve
overall learning process through effective use of tools, assessment methods and
professional development.
Student assessments and scores
Teaching Strategies and lesson plans
Standards and benchmark
Effective use of traditional, modern and ICT based tools
 Instructional facilities-
-Teaching Aids – Teaching aids are an integral component in any classroom. The many
benefits of teaching aids include helping learners improve reading comprehension skills,

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illustrating or reinforcing a skill or concept, differentiating instruction and relieving anxiety

or boredom by presenting information in a new and exciting way.
 Learning environment
- Class-room environments – Class room environment plays important role in learning
process and it affects both teacher and learner. While this is to be maintained by both by
teacher and students. For active participation in education, concentration of students is
required. Teacher need to focus of behavior of students along with other factors to
improve the class-room environment so that students listen teachers’ voice while
interacting with students
- Socio-economic factor – Economic and social background of teacher and students also
affect learning curve. It has direct and indirect effects on thinking level of students and
teacher both. Various study of teaching has pointed poor and rich student classify
economically and these factor has influence on their learning speed. On other side if
teacher is less paid in terms of salary this also impact his thinking level and ways of
teaching in the classroom.
- Expectations – Every parent have some sort of expectation with his ward in terms of
what and where they want to see their children. This has psychological impact on
students causing stress and impairments. It often seen that if student is not able to
perform mentally it create depression and sometime leads to life failure. That’s the
reason parent’s involvement in the learning process in important to ease out burden on
students and helping them to improve learning as over all.

 Institution – Teacher is abiding by administrative policy of the institution affecting the

learning process. There are chances that Teacher want to deliver in a way he loves to
do but the institute policy don’t allow him to use his own method. This leads to
dissatisfaction in teacher causing learning process to slow down. It should not be the
case that teacher should allow the way they want but effective planning of lesson and
consultation to improve learning path is required in line with the institute policy.

NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training) in its publication Core
Teaching
Skills (1982) have laid stress on the following teaching skills.
 Writing instructional objectives
 Organizing the content
 Creating set for introducing the lesson
 Introducing a lesson
 Structuring classroom questions
 Question delivery and its distribution
 Response management
 Explaining
 Illustrating with examples
 Using teaching aids
 Stimulus variation

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 Pacing of the lesson

 Promoting pupil participation
 Use of blackboard
 Achieving closure of the lesson
 Giving assignments
 Evaluating the pupil’s progress
 Diagnosing pupil learning difficulties and taking remedial measures
 Management of the class

Micro Teaching –
Micro-teaching is a product of research at Stanford University. It was first adopted in 1961 by
Dwight W. Allen and his co-workers. It implies micro-element that systematically attempts to
simplify the complexities of the teaching process. Teaching is a complex process. It cannot be
mastered in a rigid and general setting. So it is analyzed into well-defined components that can
be practiced, taught and evaluated.
Micro-teaching concentrates on specific teaching behaviors and provides opportunity for
practicing teaching under controlled conditions. So through micro-teaching, the behavior of the
teacher and pupil is modified and the teaching-learning process is more effective by the skill
training.

Teaching Methodology
There are different types of teaching methods which can be categorized into four broad types.
1. Teacher-centred methods,
2. Learner-centred methods,
3. Content-focused methods; and
4. Interactive/participative methods.

#1 Instructor/Teacher Centred Methods

Here the teacher casts himself/herself in the role of being a master of the subject matter. The
teacher is looked upon by the learners as an expert or an authority. Learners, on the other
hand, are presumed to be passive and copious recipients of knowledge from the teacher.
Examples of such methods are expository or lecture methods – which require little or no
involvement of learners in the teaching process. It is also for this lack of involvement of the
learners in what they are taught that such methods are called “closed-ended”.

#2 Learner-Centred Methods
In learner-centred methods, the teacher/instructor is both a teacher and a learner at the same
time. In the words of Lawrence Stenhouse, the teacher plays a dual role as a learner as well “so
that in his classroom extends rather than constricts his intellectual horizons”.
The teacher also learns new things every day which he/she didn’t know in the process of
teaching. The teacher “becomes a resource rather than an authority”. Examples of learner-
centred methods are discussion method, discovery or inquiry-based approach and the Hill’s
model of learning through discussion (LTD).

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#3 Content-Focused Methods
In this category of methods, both the teacher and the learners have to _t into the content that is
taught. Generally, this means the information and skills to be taught are regarded as sacrosanct
or very important. A lot of emphases are laid on the clarity and careful analyses of content. Both
the teacher and the learners cannot alter or become critical of anything to do with the content.
An example of a method which subordinates the interests of the teacher and learners to the
content is the programmed learning approach.

#4 Interactive/Participative Methods
This fourth category borrows a bit from the three other methods without necessarily laying
emphasis unduly on the learner, content or teacher. These methods are driven by the situational
analysis of what is the most appropriate thing for us to learn/do now given the situation of
learners and the teacher. They require a participatory understanding of varied domains and
factors.

THE LECTURE METHOD

A formal or semi-formal discourse in which the instructor presents a series of events, facts, or
principles, explores a problem or explains relationships

It creates new ideas. It is good for a large class. Students give their views at the end of the
lecture. The teacher is experienced and has mastery on the subject, explain all points and can
answer all questions raised by students. Students can ask if they need any clarification.
Learn through listening the teacher explains all the points. Students give their input Teacher
discusses the whole topic in the class in easy language students can easily understand the
topic. It is good for a large class.

USES
to orient students.
To introduce a subject.
To give directions on procedures.
To present basic material.
To introduce a demonstration, discussion or performance.
To illustrate the application of rules, principles, or concepts.
To review, clarifies, emphasize or summarize

ADVANTAGES
Saves time.
Permits flexibility.
requires less rigid space requirement.
Permits adaptability.
Permits versatility.
Permits better centre over contact and sequence.

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DISADVANTAGES
Involves one-way communication
Poses problems in skill teaching.
Encourages student passiveness.
Poses difficulty in gauging student reaction.
Require highly skilled instructors.

THE DISCUSSION METHOD

A method in which group discussion techniques are used to reach instructional objectives.

Students listen to other’s opinion & express Discuss with teachers the points that were Students
learn on their own & find out key ideas. Students exchange their ideas. Students get point of
view of all and not on after discussion when students give their ideas teacher corrects their
mistakes. Students can make their own notes.

USES
to develop imaginative solutions to problem
To stimulate thinking and interest and to se
To emphasize main teaching points.
To determine how well the student understands concepts and principle
To prepare students for application of the theory of procedure.
To supplement lectures, reading & laboratory exercises.
To summarize, clarify points or review.

ADVANTAGES
Increase student’s interest
Increases students’ acceptance and commitment
Utilizes student knowledge and experience.
Results in more permanent learning because high degree of student participation.

DISADVANTAGES
Require highly skilled instructor.
requires preparation by the student.
Limits content.
Consumes time.
restricts the size of groups.

THE PROGRAMMED INSTRUCTION METHOD

A method of self-instruction

 To provide remedial instruction.

 To provide make-up instruction for late arrivals, absentees, or transients.

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 To maintain previously learned skills which are not performed frequently enough.
 To provide retraining on equipment and procedures which have become obsolete.
 To upgrade production.
 To accelerate capable students.
 To provide enough common background among students.
 To provide the review and practice of knowledge and skills.

USES/ADVANTAGES
 Reduce failure rate.
 Improves end-of-course proficiency.
 Saves time.
 Provides for self-instruction.

DISADVANTAGES
 Require local or commercial
 Preparation.
 Requires lengthy programmer training.
 Increases expenses.
 Requires considerable lead time.

THE STUDY ASSIGNMENT METHOD

A method in which the instructor assigns reading to books, periodicals, project or research
papers or exercises for the practice.

 To orient students to a topic prior to classroom or Laboratory work.

 It enhances the ability of research on any topic as the student’s search topic from
different books, webs Active learning
 To set the stage for a lecture demonstration or discussion.
 To provide for or capitalize on individual differences in ability, background, or experience
through differed
 To provide for the review of material covered in class or to give practice.
 To provide enrichment material.

THE TUTORIAL METHOD

A method of instruction in which an instructor works directly with an individual student.
 To reach highly complicated skills operations or operations involving danger or
expensive equipment.
 To provide individualized remedial assistance

THE SEMINAR METHOD

A tutorial arrangement involving the instructor and groups, rather than instructor
 To provide general guidance for a group working on an advanced study or research
project.

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 To exchange information on techniques and approaches being explored by members of

a study or research group.
 To develop new and imaginative solutions to problems under study by the group.

THE DEMONSTRATION METHOD

A method of instruction where the instructor by actually performing an operation or doing a job
shows the students what to do, how to do it, and through explanations brings out why, where,
and when it is done.

 To teach manipulative operations or procedures.

 To teach troubleshooting.
 To illustrate principles.
 To teach operation or functioning of equipment.
 To teach teamwork.
 To set standards of workmanship.
 To teach safety procedures

Brainstorming
 More interesting
 More informative
 Gain knowledge
 Learning is effective
 More participation of students
 Students give their opinion
 Active learning
 Creative thinking is encouraged.
 Students think beyond their knowledge.
 Everyone gets the chance to express their thoughts.
 Simple topics can be learnt from different angles.

Roleplay
 Interesting method
 Creative thinking is encouraged.
 Students think beyond their knowledge.
 Students enjoy the situation
 Active learning
 Easy to learn

Case study
 Active learning
 Creative thinking is encouraged.
 Students think beyond their knowledge.

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Swayam, Swayamprabha, MOOCs etc.

(Details on Digital Initiative in Higher Education through NMEICT has been covered in another
post)

Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM)

SWAYAM is an indigenous (Made in India) IT Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) Platform
for providing best quality education that can be accessed by anyone, anytime and anywhere
using the IT system. The Concept of Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) involves online
delivery of interactive learning content to large number of people simultaneously. It allows
sharing of best quality education with everyone, thereby bringing in equity as far as the quality
of education is concerned. SWAYAM platform is developed by Ministry of Human Resource
Development (MHRD) and All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) with the help of
Microsoft. It’s ultimately capable of hosting 2000 courses and 80000 hours of learning: covering
school, undergraduate, post-graduate, engineering, law and other professional courses. All the
courses on this platform are interactive, prepared by the best teachers in the country and are
available, free of cost to the students in India.

SWAYAM Prabha: the 32 Educational DTH Channels

The SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 32 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high-quality

educational programmes on 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite. Every day, there will be
new content for at least (4) hours which would be repeated 5 more times in a day, allowing the
students to choose the time of their convenience. The channels are uplinked from BISAG,
Gandhinagar. The contents are provided by NPTEL, IITs, UGC, CEC, IGNOU, NCERT and
NIOS. The INFLIBNET Centre maintains the web portal.

TRADITIONAL TEACHING METHODS AND SUPPORT SYSTEM

Traditional education, also known as back-to- basics, conventional education or customary
education, refers to long-established customs that society traditionally used in schools.The
back-to-basics traditional education method, also known as ‘chalk & talk method’ This old
fashioned way of teaching was all about the recitation and memorization techniques.
The traditional role of teaching focuses on the teacher as organizers of learning activity,
providers of information and experts of knowledge. The teacher carries too much of
responsibility for teaching in the classroom to make sure everything they are teaching is
understood by the students. Teacher is also responsible to control class where the teacher
teaches using blackboard, explains concepts, asks students to copy and makes sure that
students are paying attention This technique of teaching is a one-way Follow of information in
which the teacher often continuously talks for an hour or more expecting that when he asks a
question, the students will able to reproduce the same thing that he was talking about. Every
important thing regarding the topic is written on the blackboard and students make important
notes from the blackboard. After the lecture is over students revise their notes and try to

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memories the notes. Instruction based on textbooks, lectures and individual written assignments
the main objective of traditional teaching is to pass the examination.

MODERN AND ICT BASED TEACHING METHODS

Gone are the days of blackboard and chalk …it all replaced by LCD Projectors & interactive
whiteboards in the classroom. When we talk about the modern or ICT based education system
it’s include full fledged usages of high tech equipment in the educational institutions.
Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in education is the mode of education that
uses information and communications technology to support, enhance, and optimize the
delivery of information.

Below are few key teaching techniques based on Modern and ICT Based teaching methods.
o Flipped Classroom – It’s allowing students to go beyond their normal boundaries and explore
the lesson before teacher describes them in class-room.
o Design Thinking & Creative ideas – This involves real life case to increase the curiosity,
analytical skills and creativity.
o Mind Maps – Use of self-learning tools
o Gamification – Learn through the play using quizzes and hunt ideas
o Free online Learning Tools
o ICT Based Teaching Methods – Virtual Reality , Virtual Labs , Open educational Resources
o Learning Management system (LMS) & Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs)

Evaluation system
In any education system evaluation is a critical part. Evaluation basically means the judgment
about the student by the teacher, but these judgment is really, really tough. Evaluation is an
interwoven activity in the process of teaching and learning. Nowadays evaluation by using the
multiple-choice questions type is better than the broad question.

Principles of evaluation
Student evaluation in the teaching-learning processes must be well planned, goal
oriented and continuous. One piece of paper cannot evaluate a student’s ability. So it
is better that evaluation must be done inside the classroom throughout the semester.
Following are some rules regarding evaluation.

∙ The process of evaluation should be informed properly to all the student

∙ Evaluation must be continuous process.
∙ Evaluation should be sensitive to learners and must not be biased.
∙ At the end of the day evaluation must be reliable judgment to student

Difference between evaluation and assessment

In teaching-learning process. The terms evaluation and assessment are used

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interchangeably, but there is some inherent difference between these two terms.

Assessment

Assessment is a preliminary phase in the evaluation process. A student can be

assessed by using the multiple sources like class test, assignment, presentations,
quiz, brainstorming session.

Evaluation

Evaluation is the action in the entire process that allows teachers to make a judgment
based on assessment records with reference to learning objectives. Assessment
without evaluation has no purpose. Following are the different evaluation techniques.

1. Written test

2. Classroom activities

3. Assignment

4. Project tasks

5. Laboratory activities

6. Social activities

Normally, there are four types of evaluation

1. Criteria referenced evaluation:

2. Formative evaluation

3. Norm referenced evaluation

4. Summative evolution

CHOICE BASED CREDIT SYSTEM IN HIGHER EDUCATION

As already mentioned above, most of the educational institutions follow marks or percentage
based evaluation systems which restrict the students to take up the subject or the course of
their choice. Our educational system should be flexible that is, the student must get a choice to
study his/her course/subject of interest. It can only be possible if the Choice Based Credit
System (CBCS) are being introduced. The CBCS opens up many opportunities and path for the
students to learn and explore not only the subject of their choice but beyond which also
develops ones individual self. These courses can further be
Evaluated through grading system, which is considered to be better than the age old marking
system. It is better if we introduce and follow the uniform grading system across India which will
further help the students to move across institutions within India and across countries.

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Teaching Aptitude – MCQ- 8 Questions in Exam

1. Emotional Adjustment of students is effective in-

(A) Personality formation
(B) Class-teaching
(C) Discipline
(D) All of the above
Answer (D) All of the above

2. Black-board can be included in which group/category of teaching-aids?

(A) Audio-aids
(B) Visual aids
(C) Audio-visual aids
(D) None of the above
Answer :(B) Visual aids

3. Which of the following is related with teaching skill ?

(A) Black-board writing
(B) Solving questions
(C) Asking questions
(D) All the above
Answer :(D) All the above

4. Students who ask questions in the class should be-

(A) Advised to meet the teacher after the class
(B) Encouraged to participate in the discussion in the class
(C) Encouraged to continue asking questions

(D) Encouraged to search answers independently

Answer :(C) Encouraged to continue asking questions

5. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of
teaching ?
Indicate your answer by selecting from the code.
(a) Teaching and learning are integrally
(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
(e) A teacher is a senior person.
(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.
Code :

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb- 8368060636

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (a), (c) and (f)
(4) (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: (3)

6. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of

teaching ?
(1) Prior experience of the learner
(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner
(3) Peer groups of the learner
(4) Family size from which the learner comes.
Answer: (1)

7. In the two sets given below Set – I indicates methods of teaching while Set – II provides
the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your
answer by choosing from the code :
Set – I Set – II
(Method of teaching) (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)
(a) Lecturing (i) Small step presentation with feedback provided
(b) Discussion in groups (ii) Production of large number of ideas
(c) Brainstorming (iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(d) Programmed Instructional (iv) Use of teaching-aids
Procedure (v) Theme based interaction among participants
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer: (3)

8. At authoritarian level teaching is ……

(A) Teacher centered
(B) Child—centered
(C) Headmaster centered
(D) Experience based
Answer :(A) Teacher centered

9. Who developed the interaction analysis category system in education for increasing the
teacher effectiveness
(A) Flander
(B) Rayon

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(C) Amidon and Simon

(D) Richard Over
Answer :(A) Flander

10. One of the important theory of moral development has been proposed by——
(A) Laurence Kohlberg
(B) Erik Fromm
(C) Daniel Coleman
(D) Benjamin Bloom
Answer :(A) Laurence Kohlberg

11. Character is developed by-

(A) Will-power
(B) Conduct and behavior
(C) Morality
(D) All of the above
Answer :(D) All of the above

12. Which of the following is not a level of teaching learning ?

(A) Differentiation level
(B) Memory level
(C) Reflective level
(D) Understanding level
Answer :(A) Differentiation level

13. NUEPA is mainly concerned with-

(A) Educational Supervision

(B) Educational Unity
(C) Educational Planning
(D) Educational Evaluation
Answer :(C) Educational Planning

14. The name of Yashpal Committee Report (1993) is-

(A) I.C.T. in Teacher education
(B) Learning without Burden
(C) Learning through Broad- casting
(D) None of the above
Answer :(B) Learning without Burden

15. The Father of Psychoanalysis is-

(A) Erik H. Erikson
(B) ]ean Piaget

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(C) Jerorne S. Bruner

(D) Sigmund Freud
Answer :(D) Sigmund Freud

16. In pedagogy computer is used-

(A) To motivate the learner
(B) To provide feedback
(C) To interact with the learner
(D) For all the above
Answer :(D) For all the above

17. Which of the following is die brain of the computer ?

(A) Programme
(B) Central processing unit
(C) Memory
(D) Hard Disc
Answer :(B) Central processing unit

18. Spare the rod —- spoil the child.

This assumption is related to that type of discipline which has been advocated-
(A) By naturalist philosophy
(B) By pragmatist philosophy
(C) In Victorian Era
(D) In Democratic Era
Answer :(C) In Victorian Era

19. The concept of school complex was first executed in-

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Rajasthan
Answer :(D) Rajasthan

20. The proponent of the Cognitive Theory of teaching is-

(A) N. L. Gage
(B) Shiv Kumar Mitra
(C) B. F. Skiner
(D) McDonald
Answer :(A) N. L. Gage

21. Instruction medium affects the absence and escape from class teaching-
(A) Agreed
(B) Indianite

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(C) Disagreed
(D) None of the above
Answer :(A) Agreed

22. The determinant of teaching skill training is-

(A) Components
(B) Pupil-teacher
(C) Supervisor
(D) Headmaster
Answer :(A) Components

23. For a good communication ..,…… is required.

(A) Clarity of thought
(B) Dramatic Presentation
(C) Speaking in a mild tone
(D) Speaking without pause
Answer :(Clarity of thought

24. Which of the following is an approach to educational planning ? .

(A) Man-power approach
(B) Social Demand approach
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer :(C) Both (A) and (B)

25. Institutional planning should be based on-

(A) Aim and needs
(B) Time—table
(C) Administration

(D) Need
Answer :(A) Aim and needs

26. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called
‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code :
(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.
(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective
feedback.
(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.
(d) The teacher clarifies the doubts of students in the class itself.
(e) The overall performance of a students is reported to parents at every three months
interval.
(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Code :

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb- 8368060636

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (e)
(4) (b), (d) and (f)
Answer: (4)

27. Assertion (A) : All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R) : All learning results from teaching.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (3)

28. Teacher behaviour ought to be-

(A) Administrative
(B) Instructive
(C) Idealistic
(D) Directive
Answer :(C) Idealistic

29. Information highway or net is-

(A) Computer
(B) Internet
(C) Intranet
(D) Key-board
Answer :(B) Internet

30. INSAT—1(B) has been launched in-

(A) 30 April, 1983
(B) 30 August, 1983
(C) 30 December, 1983
(D) 30 January, 1984
Answer :(B) 30 August, 1983

31. Computer language is based on-—

(A) Number system
(B) Symbol system
(C) Series system
(D) None of the above
Answer :(A) Number system

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32. The main task of educational computer is-

(A) Scoring the answers
(B) Preserve the information
(C) Analysis of data
(D) All of the above

Answer:- (D)

33. UNESCO satellite directed television program was used first

(A) 1926
(B) 1959
(C) 1961
(D) 1965
Answer :(D) 1965

34. In which of the following instructional procedure is the main component ?

(A) Synaptic teaching model
(B) Basic teaching model
(C) Inductive model
(D) Social-stimulation
Answer :(B) Basic teaching model

35. The computer based teaching model has been developed by-
(A) Gilbert (1962)
(B) Stolurow and Davis (1965)
(C) Robert Gagne (1965)
(D) Mecner (1965)
Answer :(B) Stolurow and Davis (1965)

36. Which of the following expectation students have from group learning ?
(A) To get appreciation from the group
(B) To distribute the work equally
(C) To ignore individual view point
(D) To attract isolated student towards the group
Answer :(D) To attract isolated student towards the group

37. In order to modify the undesirable behaviour of a student the most effective method is-
(A) To punish the student
(B) To bring it to the notice of parents
(C) To find out the reasons for the undesirable behaviour and provide remedies
(D) To ignore it
Answer :(C)

38. In which university the micro-teaching system started in 1961 ?

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(A) Stanford University

(B) Oxford University
(C) Delhi University
(D) M. S. University Baroda(India)
Answer :(A) Stanford University

39. The correct meaning of C.A.I. is-

(A) Characteristics of Assistant Instructor
(B) Computer Assisted Instruction
(C) Community Assisted Instruction
(D) None of the above
Answer :(B) Computer Assisted Instruction

40. “Man is born free but every-where he is in chains/’ This statement has been given by-
(A) Abraham Maslow
(B) Jean Jacques Rousseau
(C) John Dewey
(D) W. I-I. Kilpatrick
Answer :(B) Jean Jacques Rousseau

41. Written communication strategy includes-

(A) Algorithms
(B) Decision Table
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer :(C) Both (A) and (B)

42. Main responsibility of School Management lies on-

(A) Principal
(B) Teachers
(C) Manager
(D) All of the above
Answer :(A) Principal

43. Major objective of School Discipline is-

(A) To ensure safety of staff and students
(B) To create an environment conducive for teaching
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer :(C) Both (A) and (B)

44. At primary level teacher-taught ratio was 1 : 39-

(A) According to sixth educational survey of all India
(B) According to fifth educational survey of all India

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(C) According to fourth educational survey of all India

(D) According to second educational survey of all India
Answer :(A)

45. A fault in a computer programme which prevents it from working correctly is known as-
(A) Bug
(B) Error
(C) Boo~Boo
(D) Virus
Answer :(A) Bug

46. Practical knowledge of language is learnt at—

(A) School
(B) Language laboratory
(C) Language teaching
(D) Language instruction
Answer :(B) Language laboratory

47. Dropping out from school means-

(A) To come to school casually
(B) To leave the school forever
(C) To play truant from class
(D) None of the above
Answer :(B) To leave the school forever

48. Which one of the following is not a principle of a good time table ?
(A) Flexibility
(B) Ruthless master
(C) Variety
(D) Coordination of efforts
Answer :(B) Ruthless master

49. The reason of absence and escape from school is—

(A) Lack of interest in syllabus
(B) Poor method of teaching
(C) Ineffective teacher
(D) All the above
Answer :(D) All the above

50. Ministry of Human Resource Development was established on-

(A) Oct. 26, 1985
(B) Sept. 16, 1985
(C) Sept. 26, 1985
(D) Sept. 10, 1986

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Answer :(C) Sept. 26, 1985

51. The scope of Decision-Making is—

(A) Management

(B) Organization
(C) Administration
(D) Supervision
Answer :(C) Administration

52. Factor of personality is—

(A) Ductless glands
(B) Family background
(C) School
(D) All the above
Answer :(D) All the above

53. Which of the following aspects is discussed in a Teacher’s Diary ?

(A) Class Time Table
(B) Teaching Content
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer :(C) Both (A) and (B)

54. 10 + 2 + 3 system of education was recommended by—

(A) Kothari Commission
(B) Mudaliar Commission
(C) Radhakrishnan Commission
(D) National Policy on Education (1986)
Answer : (A) Kothari Commission

55. ………. refers to states within a person or animal that drive behaviour towards some
goal.
(A) Competence
(B) Affiliation
(C) Motivation
(D) Self-actualization
Answer : (C) Motivation

56. Psychologists who diagnose learning problems and try to remedy them are called
…………… Psychologists.
(A) Social
(B) Community
(C) School

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(D) Clinical
Answer : (C) School

57. A child with average potential intelligence but fertile environment will achieve—
(A) A better life
(B) An average life
(C) Nothing in life
(D) Everything in life
Answer : (A) A better life

58. Siblings, parents and teachers are important source of ………. for the children.
(A) Motivation
(B) Information
(C) Opinions
(D) Attitudes
Answer : (A) Motivation

59. A good understanding of ……….. makes us know about ourselves better.

(A) Education
(B) Colours
(C) Social perception
(D) None of the rest
Answer :(A) Education

60. Good tests of a psychological nature bear the following features—

(A) Reliability
(B) Cheaper
(C) Guessing Power
(D) Rote learning
Answer : Reliability

61. Mental Health is—

(A) Harmonious functioning of the total personality
(B) Symptoms of maladjustment
(C) Terrible excitement
(D) Throwing up temper-tantrums
Answer : (A) Harmonious functioning of the total personality

62. During the ………….. children are faced with a problem of coping with school.

(A) Toddlerhood
(B) Pro-social period
(C) Preschool period
(D) Middle childhood

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Answer : (C) Preschool period

63. The best way to memorize is—

(A) Study for long time
(B) To understand the concept
(C) To read loudly
(D) To write the concept
Answer : (B) To understand the concept

64. Students like that teacher who—

(A) Has attractive personality
(B) Belongs to his/her caste
(C) Awards goods work liberally
(D) Has very good knowledge of his/her subject
Answer : (D) Has very good knowledge of his/her subject

65. With the development of technology, the role of teacher in future will be—
(A) To provide information
(B) To develop new text-books
(C) To guide students
(D) To use internet in teaching
Answer : (C) To guide students

66. To prepare students as good citizen, a teacher should—

(A) Maintain strict discipline
(B) Provide good leadership
(C) Be good orator
(D) Have good general knowledge
Answer : (B) Provide good leadership

67. Students should be given home-work to—

(A) Study at home
(B) Check their progress by teachers
(C) Keep them busy
(D) develop habit of self-study
Answer : (D) develop habit of self-study

68. It is necessary for the development of school—

(A) Principal and teacher
(B) Students
(C) Good building
(D) Other facilities
Answer :(B) Students

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69. If a student comes late in class, then you—

(A) Will ignore him
(B) Will not allow him to sit in class
(C) Will punish him
(D) Will allow him to sit silently
Answer : (D) Will allow him to sit silently

70. The purpose of National Education Policy is—

(A) Universalisation of primary education
(B) Vocationalisation of education
(C) To review the education
(D) To give equal opportunity of education to all
Answer :(C) To review the education

71. A teacher learns most by—

(A) His students
(B) His colleagues
(C) His Principal
(D) His experiences during training
Answer :(D) His experiences during training

72. On first day in a class you will—

(A) Start teaching from first chapter
(B) Take introduction of students and introduce yourself
(C) Explain the syllabus
(D) Explain the rules of school and your teaching way
Answer : (B) Take introduction of students and introduce yourself

73. The standard of education can be raised by—

(A) Appointing good teachers
(B) Providing physical facilities in schools

(C) Reforming examination system

(D) Providing computer in schools
Answer : (A) Appointing good teachers

74. The purpose of establishing Navodaya Schools is—

(A) To complete ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’ in rural areas
(B) To provide good education in rural areas
(C) Check wastage of education in rural areas
(D) To increase number of schools in rural areas
Answer : (B) To provide good education in rural areas

75. During teaching, a teacher gives example—

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(A) To attract student’s attention

(B) To make lesson interesting
(C) To explain the lesson
(D) To continue the lesson for long time
Answer : (C) To explain the lesson

76. If students are not taking interest in your teaching, then you will—
(A) Ignore them
(B) Leave the class
(C) Ask them to pay attention
(D) Change the teaching method
Answer : (D) Change the teaching method

77. According to you, the aim of education should be—

(A) To provide knowledge
(B) To develop personality
(C) To make good citizen
(D) To reform the society
Answer :(B) To develop personality

QUESTION BASED ON UGC NET EXAM

1. Which of the following set of statements best represents the nature and objective of
teaching and learning ?
(a) Teaching is like selling and learning is like buying.
(b) Teaching is a social act while learning is a personal act.
(c) Teaching implies learning whereas learning does not imply teaching.
(d) Teaching is a kind of delivery of knowledge while learning is like receiving it.
(e) Teaching is an interaction and is triadic in nature whereas learning is an active
engagement in a subject domain.
Code :
(1) (a), (d) and (e)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: (1)

2. From the list given below identify the learner characteristics which would facilitate
teaching learning system to become effective. Choose the correct code to indicate your
answer.
(a) Prior experience of learner (b) Learner’s family lineage
(c) Aptitude of the learner (d) Learner’s stage of development
(e) Learner’s food habits and hobbies (f) Learner’s religious affiliation

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Code :
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (d) and (e)
(4) (b), (c) and (f)
Answer: (1)

3. Assertion (A) : All teaching implies learning.

Reason (R) : Learning to be useful must be derived from teaching.
Choose the correct answer from the following :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (1)

4. On the basis of summative tests, a teacher is interpreting his/her students, performance

in terms of their wellness life style evident in behaviour. This will be called :
(1) Formative testing
(2) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation
(3) Norm – referenced testing
(4) Criterion – referenced testing
Answer: (4)

5. Which one of the following is a key behaviour in effective teaching ?

(1) Using student ideas and contribution
(2) Structuring
(3) Instructional variety
(4) Questioning

Answer: (3)
6. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of
teaching-learning relationships ? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.
(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.
Codes :
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

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Answer: (2)

7. Assertion (A) : Learning is a lifelong process.

Reason (R) : Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (2)

8. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of

(1) Course coverage
(2) Students’ interest
(3) Learning outcomes of students
(4) Use of teaching aids in the classroom
Answer: (3)
9. In which teaching method learner’s participation is made optimal and proactive ?
(1) Discussion method
(2) Buzz session method

(3) Brainstorming session method

(4) Project method
Answer: (1)

10. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the
(1) Social system of the country
(2) Economic status of the society
(3) Prevailing political system
(4) Educational system
Answer: (4)

11. Assertion (A) : Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.
Reason (R) : As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (3)

12. The best way for providing value education is through

(A) discussions on scriptural texts
(B) lecture/discourses on values

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(C) seminars/symposia on values

(D) mentoring/reflective sessions on values
Answer: (B)

13. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with intent to develop
cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below,
given are two sets of items
Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set – II comprising basic requirements
for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct
alternative from the code:
Set – I Set – II
(Levels of Cognitive (Basic requirements for promoting Interchange) cognitive interchange)
a. Memory level i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point.
b. Understanding level ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.
c. Reflective level iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information.
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.
Codes:
abc
(A) ii iv i
(B) iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv
(D) i ii iii
Answer: (C)

14. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation
system. Choose the correct code:
Set – I Set – II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive aspects with regularity

b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and certain
yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive iii. Grading the final learning outcomes evaluation
d. Norm and criterion referenced iv. Quizzes and discussions tests
Codes:
abcd
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) i iii iv ii
Answer: (A)
15. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of
teaching:
List of factors:
(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.

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(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.

(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.
(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.
(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (c), (d) and (f)
(C) (b), (d) and (e)
(D) (a), (c) and (f)
Answer: (D)

16. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

(A) Attracting student’s attention in the class room.
(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems in the classroom.
(C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.

Answer- (B)

17. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative
thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
18. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.
(A) Use of peer command
(B) Making aggressive statements
(C) Adoption of well-established posture
(D) Being authoritarian
Answer: (C)

19. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status.
Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a
context?
(A) Horizontal communication
(B) Vertical communication
(C) Corporate communication
(D) Cross communication

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Answer: (A)

20. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing
students in a classroom.
(A) Avoidance of proximity
(B) Voice modulation
(C) Repetitive pause
(D) Fixed posture
Answer: (B)

21. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the
demand on the:
(A) Family
(B) Society
(C) Teacher
(D) State
Answer: (C)

22. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?

(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.
(b) It replaces marks with grades.
(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (D)

23. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?

(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(b) Setting examples
(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(d) Acknowledging mistakes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (B)

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24. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple – choice type
questions?
(A) They are more objective than true-false type questions.
(B) They are less objective than essay type questions.
(C) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.
(D) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.
Answer: (A)
25. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to
UNESCO was titled
(A) International Commission on Education Report
(B) Millennium Development Report
(C) Learning : The Treasure Within
(D) World Declaration on Education for All
Answer: (C)

26. What are required for good teaching?

(a) Diagnosis
(b) Remedy
(c) Direction
(d) Feedback
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a) and (b)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (c) and (d)
Answer: (A)

27. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:

(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b), (c) and (d) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only
(D) (a) only
Answer: (B)

28. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic
pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation
(B) Problem – orientation

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(C) Idea protocol

(D) Mind mapping

Answer: (D)

29. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are
considered as:
(A) Verbal
(B) Non-verbal
(C) Impersonal
(D) Irrational
Answer: (B)

30. Most often, the teacher – student communication is:

(A) Spurious
(B) Critical
(C) Utilitarian
(D) Confrontational
Answer: (C)

31. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by:

(A) the use of hyperbole
(B) the change of voice level
(C) the use of abstract concepts
(D) eye contact
Answer: (D)

32. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability

(A) Knowing
(B) Understanding
(C) Analyzing
(D) Evaluating
Answer: (D)

33. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching

(A) Class room activities that encourage learning
(B) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
(C) Learning through experience
(D) Teacher’s Knowledge
Answer: (B)

34. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct
a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration
b) They help students learn better

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c) They make teaching learning process interesting

d) They enhance rote learning
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: (B)

35. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include

a) Lecture
b) Interactive lecture
c) Group work
d) Self study
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: (B)

36. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of

(A) Making selections for a specific job
(B) Selecting candidates for a course
(C) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
(D) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching
Answer: (D)

37. A good teacher is one who

(A) gives useful information
(B) explains concepts and principles
(C) gives printed notes to students
(D) inspires students to learn
Answer: (D)

38. Maximum participation of students during teaching is possible through

(A) Lecture method
(B) Demonstration method
(C) Inductive method
(D) Textbook method
Answer: (C)

39. Diagnostic evaluation ascertains

(A) Students performance at the beginning of instructions.
(B) Learning progress and failures during instructions.

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(C) Degree of achievements of instructions at the end.

(D) Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during instructions.
Answer: (D)

40. Instructional aides are used by the teacher to

(A) Glorify the class
(B) Attract the students
(C) Clarify the concepts
(D) Ensure discipline
Answer: (C)

41. Attitude of the teacher that affects teaching pertains to

(A) Affective domain
(B) Cognitive domain
(C) Connective domain
(D) Psychomotor domain
Answer: (A)

42. “Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man” was stated by

(A) M. K. Gandhi
(B) R. N. Tagore
(C) Swami Vivekanand
(D) Sri Aurobindo
Answer- (C)

43. Which of the following is not a prescribed level of teaching?

(A) Memory
(B) Understanding
(C) Reflective
(D) Differentiation
Answer: (D)

44. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The
students are really
(A) Encoders
(B) Decoders
(C) Agitators
(D) Propagators
Answer: (B)

45. A smart classroom is a teaching space which has

(i) Smart portion with a touch panel control system.
(ii) PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.

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(iii) Document camera and specialized software

(iv) Projector and screen
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)

46. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?

(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes
Answer: (A)

47. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?

(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
Answer: (C)

48. Dyslexia is associated with

(A) Mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
Answer: (C)

49. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry
of Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer: (B)

50. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective

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Answer: (C)

51. Who among the following propounded the concept of paradigm?

(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright
Answer: (C)

52. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish those causing disturbance
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance
(D) not bother of what is happening in the class
Answer: (C)

53. Effective teaching is a function of

(A) Teacher’s satisfaction.
(B) Teacher’s honesty and commitment
(C) Teacher’s making students learn and understand
(D) Teacher’s liking for professional excellence.
Answer: (C)

54. The most appropriate meaning of learning is

(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
Answer: (B)

55. Arrange the following teaching process in order:

(i) Relate the Present knowledge with Previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
Answer: (D)

56. CIET stands for

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(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology

(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Central for integrated techniques
Answer: (C)

57. 6. Teacher’s role at higher education

(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.
Answer: (B)

58. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by

(A) German Social scientists
(B) American philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian political Analysts
Answer: (A)

59. A good teacher must be

(A) resourceful and autocratic
(B) resourceful and participative
(C) resourceful and authoritative
(D) resourceful and dominant
Answer: (B)

60. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?

(A) Lecture method
(B) Discussion method
(C) Demonstration method
(D) Question-Answer method
Answer: (C)

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Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)

Research Methodology

According to John W. Best “research is considered to be the more formal, systematic intensive
process of carrying on the scientific method of analyses. It involves a more systematic structure
of investigation usually resulting in some sort formal record of procedure and a report of results
or conclusions.”

The followings are the features of Research:

1. Research is an attitude of new discovery.

2. Research is an attempt to redefine the facts.
3. Research is a scientific method.
4. Research is friendly, welcoming attitude towards a change.
5. Research is investigating something from known to unknown.
6. Research means establishing new facts from known facts.

Characteristics of research
1. Research is directed toward the solution of a problem.

2. Research emphasizes the development of generalizations, principles, or theories that will be

helpful in predicting future occurrences. Research usually goes beyond the specific objects,
groups, or situations investigated and infer characteristics of a target population from the
sample observed. Research is more than information retrieval, the simple gathering of
information.

3. Research is based upon observable experience or empirical evidence. Certain interesting

questions do not lend themselves to research procedures because they cannot be
observed.

4. Research demands accurate observation and description. Researchers may choose to use
quantitative measuring devices when possible. When this is not possible or appropriate to
answer the researcher’s question, they may choose from a variety of qualitative or non
quantitative, descriptions of their observations. Good research utilizes valid and reliable
data gathering procedures.

5. Research involves gathering new data from primary or first-hand sources or using
existing data for a new purpose. The students are expected to read a number of
encyclopedias, books, or periodical references and to synthesize the information in a
written report. Merely reorganizing or restating what is already known and has already
been written, valuable as it may be as a learning experience, is not research. It adds
nothing to what is known.

6. Although research activity may at times be somewhat random and unsystematic, it is more
often characterized by carefully designed procedures that apply rigorous analysis.

7. Research requires expertise. The researcher knows what is already known about the
problem and how others have investigated it. He or she has searched the related literature
carefully and is also thoroughly grounded in the terminology, concepts, and technical skills
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necessary to understand and analyze the data gathered.

8. Research strives to be objective and logical, applying every possible test to validate the
procedures employed, the data collected, and the conclusions reached. The researcher
attempts to eliminate personal bias. There is no attempt to persuade or to prove an
emotionally held conviction. The emphasis is on testing rather than on proving the
hypothesis.

9. Research involves the quest for answers to unsolved problems. However, previous
important studies are deliberately repeated, using identical or similar procedures, with
different subjects, different settings, and at a different time. This process is replication, a
fusion of the words repetition and duplication. Replication is always desirable to confirm
or to raise questions about the conclusions of a previous study.

10. Research is characterized by patient and unhurried activity. It is rarely spectacular, and
researchers must expect disappointment and discouragement as they pursue the
answers to difficult questions.
Research is carefully recorded and reported. Each important term is defined, limiting
factors are recognized, procedures are described in detail, references are carefully
documented, results are objectively recorded, and conclusions are presented with
scholarly Caution and restraint. The written report and accompanying data are made
available to the scrutiny of associates or other scholars. Any competent scholar will
have The information necessary to analyze, evaluate, and even replicate the study.
Research sometimes requires courage.

Essential elements of any research:-

 Empirical: Research is based on direct experience or observation by the researcher.
 Logical: Research must be based on valid procedures and principles.
 Cyclical: Research is a cyclical process because it starts with a problem and ends with a
problem. The result of research can be negative, positive or even nil.
 Analytical: Research utilizes proven analytical procedures in gathering the data, whether
historical, descriptive, and experimental and case study.
 Critical: Research exhibits careful and precise judgment.
 Methodical: Research is conducted in a methodical manner without bias using systematic
method and procedures.
 Reliability: The research design and procedures are replicated or repeated to enable the
researcher to arrive at valid and conclusive results.

Qualities of a Good Researcher

To be a good researcher, one must have the following qualities:

 Research- Oriented

 Efficient

 Scientific

 Effective

 Active

 Resourceful

 Creative

 Honest
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 Economical

Characteristics of the Researcher

To be a good researcher, one must have more or less the following characteristic.
1. Intellectual Curiosity: The researcher must take care of deep thinking and enquiry
about the things and situation around the world
2. Prudence: The researcher is careful to conduct his research study at the right time and
at the right place wisely, efficiently, and economically.
3. Healthy Criticism: The researcher is always doubtful as to the truthfulness of the results.
4. Intellectual Honesty: An intelligent researcher is honest to collect or gather data or facts
in order to arrive at honest results.
5. Intellectual Creativity: A productive and resourceful investigator always creates new researches.

Classification of Research

1. Fundamental or basic research: Fundamental research is also known as basis

research. If the goal of the research is to find out the basic truth or principles, it is
called as fundamental or basic research. This type of research is carried out in a
laboratory or other sterile environment, sometimes with animals also. Examples of
fundamental research Newton Law.
2. Applied research: most of the characteristics of fundamental research is found in
applied research. This type of research involves finding new applications of scientific
knowledge to the solution of a problem such as development of the new system, new
device or new methods or tools in order to solve the problem. Mind it, most of the
educational research falls under the category of applied research.

3. Action research: action research is used to solve an immediate application, not on

the development of theory or general application. If the researcher finds any
problem at time of his fields, investigation and observation, the researcher applies
action research at that time

4. Historical research: Historical research talks about the past. In this type of
research we need investigation, recording, analyzing and interpreting the events of
the past for the purpose of discovering generalization.

5. Quantitative descriptive research: This method is used to describe what is being

described, recording, analyzing, and interpreting conditions that make this around
ours. It is used to discover the relationship between non-manipulated existing
variables.

6. Qualitative descriptive research: This type of research use non-quantitative

methods. This method of research is used to discover non-quantified relationship
between existing variable.

7. Experimental research: It describes “what will happen” in the future if certain

variables are carefully controlled and manipulated. Main focus of this kind of
research is to find out the relationship between variables

Steps of research
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To do a research one has to keep in mind the research goal and its purposes. The technique of
research needs different tools and instrument for gathering the data. Following are the steps to do
research
1. Select the topic of candidate interest.
2. Exhaustive literature study
3. Formulation of the problem
4. Definition of the problem
5. Create own method/ Algorithm
6. Selection of the sample data

7. Data Collection, Data Processing, and Analysis

8. Correctly interpretation of the data
9. Testing the Hypotheses¡ Answering the Research questions
10. Throwing of inferences or conclusions
11. Reporting of the research done that means the research report

The variable
Variable is defined as a quantity which is fluctuated its value under different conditions. In this
section we will discuss different types of variable
1. Independent and dependent variable: Independent variable is chosen by the researcher
to predict the relationship with observed phenomena. In an experiment, the independent
variable is the variable that is varied or manipulated by the researcher, and the
dependent variable is the response that is measured. An independent variable is the
presumed cause, whereas the dependent variable is the presumed effect.
2. Moderator variable: this is a secondary or special type of independent variable chosen by
the researcher to determine if it changes or modifies the relationship between the
independent and dependent variables.
3. Control variable: This is the variable that is controlled by the investigator in which the
effects can be neutralized by eliminating or removing the variable.
4. Intervening variable: This is a variable which interferes with the independent and
dependent variables, but its effects can either strengthen or weaken the independent and
dependent variables.

Standard of good research

Research activity is set to be standard or good if it satisfies some criteria as shown below
 The skeleton (Structure) of the research process must be carefully planned to get the output of the
research.
 A researcher should be frank to discuss things among colleagues.
 The concepts used in research should be common
 the purpose of the research must be clearly designed
 For further advancement of research, one must give details about their research.
 Careful attention must be needed to check the method of analysis
k. The analysis of data would be sufficiently adequate to reveal its significance in the research.
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How to find the research problem

To find a good research problem, we must have to consider five factors to check whether the
problem is researchable or not. The five factors are as follows.
 All the existing problem in country or in the world, which don³t have any known solution
 Whether the solution can be obtained by using the statistical tools and techniques
 There are lots of solutions available, but they are not yet tested physically
 To conclude a solution, problem needs scientific investigation.
 Emergency needs or problems of the mankind where it demands research

Characteristics of any research problem

Not all the problem arises in universe a research problem. A research problem must have
some characteristics. Following are the characteristics of a research problem. If any problem
posses all these properties, then it is said to be a research problem.
 Specific: The problem must be specifically tested
 Measurable: The problem is easy to measure by using some research tool or equipment
 Achievable: The data needs to do the research must be achievable using correct tools to get the
final result
 Realistic: The final result must be realistic and must reflect in the real world
 Time bound: In all the activities of the research, there must be time bound because if the
time span to complete an activity is smaller than it is obviously better

Sources of research problem

Though it is true that there are lots of research problem available in our world, but sometimes
students failed to find a good research problem. Finding out the research problem is a big task
for a researcher specifically, student. Following are important points, which must keep in mind
to find out a research problem.
 Specialization of the researcher( one have to take care about the specialization of the student)
 what are the current scenarios in research and what have been done in past on that topic
 One can take recommendation from previous theses or research reports.
 Look after all the problems in the locality or in nation.

Criteria of a good research problem

Some research problem is said to be good, some are moderate and others not at all fits in
current scenario. The research problem is said to be good if it has the following properties.

 Interesting: research problem must be interested such that it attracts the students

 Innovative: problem must be innovative, so that students can apply innovative idea in that
problem to get the result.

 Cost-effective: a good research problem must be economical

 Relevancy: Research problem must be relevant to the needs of people

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 Research problem must be relevant to the government, nation, and mankind.

 Timeliness: An unbounded research problem is not feasible. There must be time bound in
a good research problem.

Hypothesis
A proposition that can be verified to determine its reality is a hypothesis. A hypothesis may be
defined as a logically conjectured relationship between two or more variables, expressed in the
form of a testable statement. Relationship is proposed by using a strong logical argumentation.
This logical relationship may be part of theoretical framework of the study. For example,
∙ Officers in my organization have higher than average level of commitment (variable).
∙ Level of job commitment of the officers is associated with their level of efficiency.
∙ Level of job commitment of the officers is positively associated with their level of efficiency.
∙ The higher the level of job commitment of the officers the lower their level of absenteeism.
There are different types of hypothesis which are as follows
1. Descriptive Hypothesis
2. Relational Hypothesis
3. Co relational hypotheses
4. Explanatory (causal) hypotheses
5. Null Hypothesis
6. Alternative Hypothesis

7. Research Hypothesis

1. Descriptive Hypothesis Descriptive hypothesis contains only one variable thereby it is also
called as univariate hypothesis. Descriptive hypotheses typically state the existence, size,
form, or distribution of some variable.
2. Relational Hypothesis These are the propositions that describe a relationship between two
variables. The relationship could be non-directional or directional, positive or negative, causal or
simply correlational. While stating the relationship between the two variables, if the terms of
positive, negative, more than, or less than are used then such hypotheses are directional because
the direction of the relationship between the variables (positive/negative) has been indicated.
These hypotheses are relational as well as directional. The directional hypothesis is the one in
which the direction of the relationship has been specified.
Non-directional hypothesis is the one in which the direction of the association has not been
specified. The relationship may be very strong but whether it is positive or negative has not
been postulated.

3. Co relational hypotheses It state merely that the variables occur together in some specified
manner without implying that one causes the other. Such weak claims are often made when we
believe that there are more basic causal forces that affect both variables. For example: Level of job
commitment of the officers is positively associated with their level of efficiency.

4. Explanatory (causal hypotheses it imply the existence of, or a change in, one variable causes or
leads to a change in the other variable. This brings in the notions of independent and the dependent
variables. Cause means to “help make happen.” So the independent variable may not be the sole
reason for the existence of, or change in the dependent variable.
5. Null Hypothesis It is used for testing the hypothesis formulated by the researcher. Researchers treat
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evidence that supports a hypothesis differently from the evidence that opposes it. They give negative
evidence more importance than to the positive one. It is because the negative evidence tarnishes the
hypothesis. It shows that the predictions made by the hypothesis are wrong. The null hypothesis
simply states that there is no relationship between the variables or the relationship between the
variables is "zero.”. That is how symbolically null hypothesis is denoted as 𝐻0. For example:

𝐻0 = There is no relationship between the level of job commitment and the level of efficiency. Or
𝐻0 = the relationship between level of job commitment and the level of efficiency is zero

Or the two variables are independent of each other. It does not take into consideration the direction of
association (i.e. 𝐻0 is non directional), which may be a second step in testing the hypothesis.

6. Alternative Hypothesis The alternative (to the null) hypothesis simply states that there is a
relationship between the variables under study. In our example it could be: there is a relationship
between the level of job commitment and the level of efficiency. Not only there is an association between
the two variables under study but also the relationship is perfect which is indicated by the number 1.
Thereby the alternative hypothesis is symbolically denoted as 𝐻1. It can be written like this:

𝐻1: There is a relationship between the level of job commitment of the officers and their level of efficiency

7. Research Hypothesis Research hypothesis is the actual hypothesis formulated by the researcher
which may also suggest the nature of relationship i.e. the direction of relationship.

Bibliography

A bibliography is a list of all the sources you have used (whether referenced or not) in the process of
researching your work. In general, a bibliography should include:

 The authors’ names

 the titles of the works
 The names and locations of the companies that published your copies of the sources
 The dates your copies were published
 The page numbers of your sources (if they are part of multi- source volumes).

MCQ on Research Aptitude For NTA NET Exam

1. There are two sets given below. Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set – II indicates their
characteristics. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate code.
Set – I Set – II
(Research types) (Characteristics)
(a) Fundamental research (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an
intervention
(b) Applied research (ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building
(c) Action research (iii) Improving an existing situation through use of
interventions
(d) Evaluative research (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations
(v) Enriching technological resources
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
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(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Answer: 1

2. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy ?
(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan
(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(4) Plan, Act, Observe,Reflect

Answer: 4

3. Which of the following sequences of research steps is nearer to scientific method ?

T
(1) Suggested solution of the problem , deducing the consequences of the solution, perceiving the problem situation,
location of the difficulty and testing the solution.

(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the
consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.
(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a
sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.
(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample,
Collecting data and arriving at generalizations and Conclusions.

Answer: 3

4. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities ?
(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis
(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative techniques
(3) Defining the population of research
(4) Evidence based research reporting

Answer: 4

5. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively
greater ?
(1) Preparing research summary
(2) Presenting a seminar paper
(3) Participation in research conference
(4) Participation in a workshop

Answer: 4

6. Which of the following research types focuses on ameliorating the prevailing situations ?
(1) Fundamental Research
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(2) Applied Research

(3) Action Research
(4) Experimental Research

Answer : 3

7. A researcher attempts to evaluate the effect of method of feeding on anxiety – proneness of children. Which
method of research would be appropriate for this ?
(1) Case study method
(2) Experimental method
(3) Ex-post-facto method
(4) Survey method

Answer : 3

8. In which of the following arrangements a wider spectrum of ideas and issues may be made possible ?
(1) Research Article
(2) Workshop mode
(3) Conference
(4) Symposium

Answer : 2

9. Infinalizingathesiswritingformatwhichofthefollowingwouldformpartofsupplementary pages ?
(1) List of tables and figures
(2) Table of contents
(3) Conclusions of the study
(4) Bibliography andAppendices

Answer : 1

10. Which of the following is susceptible to the issue of research ethics ?

(1) Inaccurate application of statistical techniques
(2) Faulty research design
(3) Choice of sampling techniques
(4) Reporting of research findings

Answer : 4

11. The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and students with a view to
explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in school programmes. This endeavour may be
related to which type of research ?
(1) Evaluation Research

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(2) Fundamental Research

(3) Action Research
(4) Applied Research
Answer: 3

12. In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps ?

(1) Reflect, observe, plan, act
(2) Plan, act, observe, reflect
(3) Plan, reflect, observe, act
(4) Act, observe, plan, reflect

Answer: 2

13. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below ?
(1) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis making,
Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
(2) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis,
Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
(3) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design,
Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
(4) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools, Formulation
of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.

Answer: 3

14. Below are given two sets – research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools (Set-II).
Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code :
Set – I
(Research Methods)
Set – II
(Data Collection Tools)
a. Experimental method i. Using primary and secondary sources
b. Ex post-facto method ii. Questionnaire
c. Descriptive survey method iii. Standardized tests
d. Historical method iv. Typical characteristic tests Codes :
a b cd
(1) ii i iiiiv
(2) iii iv iii
(3) ii iii iiv
(4) ii iv iiii

Answer: 2

15. The issue of ‘research ethics’ may be considered pertinent at which stage of research ?
(1) At the stage of problem formulation and its definition

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(2) At the stage of defining the population of research

(3) At the stage of data collection and interpretation
(4) At the stage of reporting the findings.

Answer :4

16. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical?
(A) Data collection with standardised research tools.
(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.

Answer: C

17. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research ethics’ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.

Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(D) (i), (iii) and (v)

Answer: C

18. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal
interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?
(A) Historical method
(B) Descriptive survey method
(C) Experimental method
(D) Ex-post-facto method

Answer: D

19. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis

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Answer: B

20. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

(A) preparation of a research paper/article
(B) writing of seminar presentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) presenting a workshop/conference paper

Answer: C

21. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research?
(A) It recognizes knowledge as power.
(B) It emphasises on people as experts.
(C) It is a collective process of enquiry.
(D) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge.

Answer: D

22. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis?
(A) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.
(B) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.
(C) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
(D) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.

Answer: B

23. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
(b) Invert authors’ names (last name first)
(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
(d) Alphabetically index reference list

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: B

24. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?

(a) It is a form of academic instruction.
(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
(c) It involves large groups of individuals.
(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.
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Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(A) (b) and (c)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: D

25. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What
tool should he prefer for the study?
(A) Rating scale
(B) Interview
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Schedule
Answer:
(((D
)( C

26. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:

(A) Thesis format
(B) Copyright
(C) Patenting policy
(D) Data sharing policies

Answer: A

27. Consider the argument given below:

‘Pre – employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed
had to face such a testing.’
What type of argument it is?
(A) Deductive
(B) Analogical
(C) Psychological
(D) Biological

Answer: B

28. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:
(A) Lexical
(B) Precising
(C) Stipulative
(D) Persuasive

Answer: C

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29. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called
(A) An inference
(B) An argument
(C) An explanation
(D) A valid argument

Answer: B

30. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution of a problem
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis data analysis,
interpretation and formation of principles can be done
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge

(A) (a), (b) and(c)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and(d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: D

31. A good thesis writing should involve

(a) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum
(b) careful checking of references
(c) consistency in the way the thesis is written
(d) a clear and well written abstract

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and(c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: A

32. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his
(A) Fundamental research e basis of his
(B) applied research
(C) Action research
(D) Evaluation Research

Answer: A

33. “Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test.”

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This statement indicates a(A) research hypothesis

(B) null hypothesis
(C) directional hypothesis
(D) statistical hypothesis
Answer: B

34. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations
(A) Historical research
(B) Descriptive Research
(C) Experimental Research
(D) Causal Comparative Research

Answer: C

35. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire

(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study
(b) Review of the currentliterature
(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire
(d) Revision of the draft

(A) (a), (b) and(c)

(B) (a), (c) and(d)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: B

36. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition is called
(A) Stipulative
(B) Theoretical
(C) Lexical
(D) Persuasie

Answer: B

37. The core elements of dissertation are

(A) Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations
(B) Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography
(C) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
(D) Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussion and Conclusion Answer:

38. What is a Research Design?

(A) A Way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
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(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.

(C) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph.
(D) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

Answer: D

39. “Sampling Cases” means

(A) Sampling using a sampling frame
(B) Identifying people who are suitable for research
(C) Literally the researcher’s brief case
(D) Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmes etc.

Answer: D

40. The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in shape similar to a normal distribution
but center peak is much higher, is
(A) Skewed
(B) Mesokurtic
(C) Leptokurtic
(D) Platykurtic

Answer: C

41. When planning to do a social research, it is better to

(A) Approach the topic with an open mind
(B) Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
(C) Be familiar with literature on the topic
(D) Forget about theory because this is a very practical

Answer: A

42. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentations to an audience on certain topics or a set of
topics of educational nature, it is called
(A) Training Program
(B) Seminar
(C) Workshop
(D) Symposium

Answer: B

43. Media is knownas

(A) First Estate
(B) Second Estate
(C) Third Estate
(D) Fourth Estate Answer: D

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44. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in

(A) The appendix
(B) A separate chapter
(C) The concluding chapter
(D) The text itself

Answer: D

45. A thesis statement is

(A) An observation
(B) A fact
(C) An assertion
(D) A discussion

Answer: C

46. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A) Positive paradigm
(B) Critical paradigm
(C) Naturalparadigm
(D) Interpretative paradigm

Answer: D

47. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling?

(A) Simple Random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified

Answer: B

48. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the
students during instruction.
(A) Placement
(B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative
(D) Summative

Answer: C

49. The research stream of immediate application is

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(A) Conceptual research

(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research

Answer: B

50. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics

Answer: D

51. The sequential operations in scientific research are

(A) Co-vaiation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.

Answer: A

52. In sampling, the lottery method is used for

(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D) Randomisation

Answer: D

53. Which is the main objective of research?

(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts Answer:

54. Sampling error decreases with the

(A) Decrease in sample size
(B) Increase in sample size
(C) Process of randomization
(D) Process of analysis

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Answer: B

55. The Principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) Action research
(B) Applied research
(C) Philosophical research
(D) Historical research

Answer: B

56. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ?

(A) t-test
(B) Sign test
(C) Chi-square test
(D) Ro Test
T
Answer: A

57. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) : Assertion (A)
: Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.
Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions.

Find the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: D

58. Identify the correct sequence of research steps :

(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings
(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings
(C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings
(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection Answer: A

59. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in

(A) Basic Science
(B) Applied Science
(C) Social Science
(D) Literature

Answer: D

60. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated?

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(A) Univariate analysis

(B) Factor analysis
(C) Case studies
(D) SWOT analysis

Answer: B

61. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known
as
(A) antecedent variable
(B) precedent variable
(C) predictor variable
(D) control variable

Answer: D

62. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method?

(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling

Answer: D

63. A research paper

(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.

Answer: C

64. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field
or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favor even though the colleague did not make a
serious contribution to the paper.

Answer: B

65. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?

(A) Simple Random Sampling

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(B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling

Answer: (c )

66. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005 Answer:

67. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a
specific problem.

Answer: D

68. A working hypothesis is

(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to betested.
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D) a scientific theory.

Answer: C

69. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?
(A) Impact factor
(B) h-index
(C) g-index
(D) i10-index

Answer: A

70. Good ‘research ethics’ means

(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for an academic
journal.
(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal.

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Answer: B

71. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?

(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Stratified sampling

Answer: D

72. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA)
format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill Answer:

73. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :

(1) Identification of research problem
(2) Listing of research objectives
(3) Collection of data
(4) Methodology
(5) Data analysis
(6) Results and discussion

(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

Answer: B

74. Identify the incorrect statement:

(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.

Answer: D

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Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com,M.Com., MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)

READING COMPREHENSION
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 1 to 5.
I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card - which is a horror unto itself, especially as the
keeper of the Big Card was leaning over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the
headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelmed
by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write: "Good luck, best, Joel".

It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is "tap
letters into computer". My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to
remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I'm struggling to think.
Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.

A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don't own a pen, a third have never
written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years - old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you
letter. More than 80 % have never written a love letter, 56 % don't have letter paper at home. And a
quarter have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a
pen is on an exam paper.

Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap chatting? This is
the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.

"Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as
other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography."

Answer the following questions:

1. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like "a rabbit in the headlight". What does this
phrase mean?
(1) A state of confusion

(2) A state of pleasure

(3) A state of anxiety

(4) A state of pain

Answer: 1

2. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?
(1) Handwriting

(2) Photography

(3) Sketching

(4) Reading

Answer: 4

3. The entire existence of the author revolves round:

(a) Computer

(b) Mobile phone

(c) Typewriter

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (b) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: 2

4. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(1) 800

(2) 560

(3) 500

(4) 100

Answer: 4

5. What is the main concern of the author?

(1) That the teens use social networks for communication.

(2) That the teens use mobile phones.

(3) That the teens use computer.

(4) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.

Answer: 4
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 6 to 11:
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred
considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumerelectronics industries
(eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based advantages shifted to South Korea,
then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basis of
labour. Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other
products, but the labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in
other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is clearly not limited to
manufacturing industries. Today, a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and
North America to India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces
possessing technical skills. However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other
countries, India, Singapore, and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely
to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors.

In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coins and later even paper money restricted financial
flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets
coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires
regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New
York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient
for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide. Only if an organization is able to
combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not
readily imitable by competitors can such an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable
overtime.

In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as a
resource with atleast the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An
organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the
application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military
warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current
examples. Consider semiconductors (e.g. computer chips), which are made principally of sand and
common metals. These ubiquitous and powerful electronic devices are designed within common office
buildings, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized
nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive resource in the semiconductor industry.

Based on the passage answer the following questions:

6. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades?
(1) South Korea

(2) Japan

(3) Mexico

(4) Malaysia

Answer: 2
7. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and
service sectors?
(1) Due to diminishing levels of skill.

(2) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.

(3) Because of new competitors.

(4) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.

Answer: 3

8. How can an organisation enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?

(1) Through regional capital flows.

(2) Through regional interactions among business players.

(3) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.

(4) By effective use of various instrumentalities.

Answer: 4

9. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?

(1) Access to capital

(2) Common office buildings

(3) Superior knowledge

(4) Common metals

Answer: 3

10. The passage also mentions about the trend of

(1) Global financial flow

(2) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry

(3) Regionalisation of capitalists

(4) Organizational incompatibility

Answer: 1

11. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?

(1) International commerce

(2) Labour-Intensive industries

(3) Capital resource management

(4) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage

Answer: 4

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 12 to 17:
The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world, had little impact on Indian
literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and adding to the growing
disillusionment with the ‘humane pretensions’ of the Western World. This was eloquently voiced in
Tagore’s later poems and his last testament, Crisis in Civilisation. The Indian intelligentsia was in a state
of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help sympathising with England’s dogged courage in the
hour of peril, with the Russians fighting with their backs to the wall against the ruthless Nazi hordes, and
with China groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand, their own country was
practically under military occupation of their own soil, and an Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying
from the opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of
loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the
wake of the Allies’ victory and was followed by the collapse of colonialism in the neighbouring countries of
South-East Asia, would have released an upsurge of creative energy. No doubt it did, but unfortunately it
was soon submerged in the great agony of partition, with its inhuman slaughter of the innocents and the
uprooting of millions of people from their homeland, followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi.
These tragedies, along with Pakistan’s invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did
indeed provoke a poignant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected, Bengali,
Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make
great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters have been mainly
absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great literature has always
emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in volume, range and variety than it
ever was in the past.

Based on the passage answer the following questions from 12 to 17:

12. What was the impact of the last great war on Indian literature?
(1) It had no impact.

(2) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence.

(3) It shook the foundations of literature.

(4) It offered eloquent support to the Western World.

Answer: 2

13. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?

(1) Offered support to Subhas Bose.

(2) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World.

(3) Expressed loyalty to England.

(4) Encouraged the liberation of countries.

Answer: 2

14. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?
(1) Indifference to Russia’s plight.

(2) They favoured Japanese militarism.

(3) They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties.

(4) They expressed sympathy for England’s dogged courage.

Answer: 4

15. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian literature.
(1) Military occupation of one’s own soil.

(2) Resistance to colonial occupation.

(3) Great agony of partition.

(4) Victory of Allies.

Answer: 3

16. What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh?
(1) Suspicion of other countries

(2) Continuance of rivalry

(3) Menace of war

(4) National reconstruction

Answer: 4

17. The passage has the message that

(1) Disasters are inevitable.

(2) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions.

(3) Indian literature does not have a marked landscape.

(4) Literature has no relation with war and independence.

Answer: 2
Read the passage carefully and answer question numbers from 18 to 23.
Climate change is considered to be one of the most serious threats to sustainable development, with
adverse impacts on the environment, human health, food security, economic activity, natural resources
and physical infrastructure. Global climate varies naturally. According to the Intergovernmental Panel on
Climate Change (IPCC), the effects of climate change have already been observed, and scientific findings
indicate that precautionary and prompt action is necessary. Vulnerability to climate change is not just a
function of geography or dependence on natural resources; it also has social, economic and political
dimensions which influence how climate change affects different groups. Poor people rarely have
insurance to cover loss of property due to natural calamities i.e. drought, floods, super cyclones etc. The
poor communities are already struggling to cope with the existing challenges of poverty and climate
variability and climate change could push many beyond their ability to cope or even survive. It is vital that
these communities are helped to adapt to the changing dynamics of nature. Adaptation is a process
through which societies make themselves better able to cope with an uncertain future. Adapting to climate
change entails taking the right measures to reduce the negative effects of climate change (or exploit the
positive ones) by making the appropriate adjustments and changes. These range from technological
options such as increased sea defences or flood - proof houses on stilts to behavioural change at the
individual level, such as reducing water use in times of drought. Other strategies include early warning
systems for extreme events, better water management, improved risk management, various insurance
options and biodiversity conservation. Because of the speed at which climate change is happening due to
global temperature rise, it is urgent that the vulnerability of developing countries to climate change is
reduced and their capacity to adapt is increased and national adaptation plans are implemented.
Adapting to climate change will entail adjustments and changes at every level from community to national
and international. Communities must build their resilience, including adopting appropriate technologies
while making the most of traditional knowledge, and diversifying their livelihoods to cope with current and
future climate stress. Local coping strategies and knowledge need to be used in synergy with government
and local interventions. The need of adaptation interventions depends on national circumstances. There
is a large body of knowledge and experience within local communities on coping with climatic variability
and extreme weather events. Local communities have always aimed to adapt to variations in their
climate. To do so, they have made preparations based on their resources and their knowledge
accumulated through experience of past weather patterns. This includes times when they have also been
forced to react to and recover from extreme events, such as floods, drought and hurricanes. Local coping
strategies are an important element of planning for adaptation. Climate change is leading communities to
experience climatic extremes more frequently, as well as new climate conditions and extremes.
Traditional knowledge can help to provide efficient, appropriate and time - tested ways of advising and
enabling adaptation to climate change in communities who are feeling the effects of climate changes due
to global warming.

18. Given below are the factors of vulnerability of poor people to climate change. Select the code that
contains the correct answer.
(a) Their dependence on natural resources

(b) Geographical attributes

(c) Lack of financial resources

(d) Lack of traditional knowledge

Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (c) only

Answer: 1

19. Adaptation as a process enables societies to cope with:

(a) An uncertain future

(b) Adjustments and changes

(c) Negative impact of climate change

(d) Positive impact of climate change

Select the most appropriate answer from the following code:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (c) only

Answer: 1

20. To address the challenge of climate change, developing countries urgently require:
(1) Imposition of climate change tax

(2) Implementation of national adaptation policy at their level

(3) Adoption of short-term plans

(4) Adoption of technological solutions

Answer: 2

21. The traditional knowledge should be used through:

(1) Its dissemination

(2) Improvement in national circumstances

(3) Synergy between government and local interventions

(4) Modern technology

Answer: 3

22. The main focus of the passage is on:

(1) Combining traditional knowledge with appropriate technology

(2) Co-ordination between regional and national efforts

(3) Adaptation to climate change

(4) Social dimensions of climate change

Answer: 3

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 23 to 27:
If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives,
keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests.
These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern
day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe
that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying
continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic
interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the
key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to
continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall
development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s
strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a
number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation
aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also
the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as
well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health
security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of
greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources.
Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The
technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important.
India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot
succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports
of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium
and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for
envisioning a developed India.

23. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension?
(a) Aspirations of people

(b) Modern day dynamism

(c) Economy in the global context

(d) Strategic interests

Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: 3

24. More productive employment demands:

(1) Pervasive use of technology

(2) Limiting competitive market place

(3) Geo-political considerations

(4) Large industries

Answer: 1

25. Absence of technology would lead to:

(a) Less pollution

(b) Wastage of precious natural resources

(c) Low value addition

(d) Hurting the poorest most

Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

Answer: 2

26. The advantage of technological inputs would result in:

(1) Unbridled technological growth

(2) Importing plant machinery

(3) Sidelining environmental issues

(4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity

Answer: 4

27. Envisioning a developed India requires:

(1) Aspiration to become a major economic player

(2) Dependence upon projects designed abroad

(3) Focus on short-term projects

(4) Development of core technological strengths

Answer: 4
Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)

COMMUNICATION

Meaning of Communication
The term communication is derived from the Latin word “communis” or “communicare” which
means to make common. Thus communication means to make common facts, information’s,
thoughts and requirements. Communication therefore is the exchange of thoughts, message,
information etc. by way of speech, signal or in writing. Communication is a two-way process and
works well with feedback, this helps to confirm that intended message has been successful.

Scholar Definition of communication

In order to understand further, many scholars have defined the term such as
“Communication is the sum of all things, one person does when he wants to create
understanding in the minds of another. It involves a systematic and continuous process of
telling, listening and understanding.”
– Allen Louis
Communication has been defined “As the transfer of information from one person to another
whether or not it elicits confidence.”
– Koontz and O’ Donell
“Communication is an exchange of facts, ideas, opinions or emotions by two or more persons.”
– George Terry
“Communication is the process by which information is transmitted between individuals and/or
organization so that an understanding response results”.
– By Peter Little
“Communication is an exchange of facts, ideas, opinions or emotions by two or more persons”.
– By W.H. New man and C.F. summer Jr.

Communication is effective when a concise and clear message is delivered well, received
successfully and understand fully. The process of communication has the following distinct
components:
Communication begins with an impulse (or motivation) to pass on a message made up of bits of
information. In the process of encoding, units of information are selected and organized for
transmission. Input is the sum of experiences that build up in the human brain or computer.
The output is the encoded message transmitted by the information source (an individual person
or group of people). The interpretation of the message is referred to as decoding.

© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

Feedback is the response or message that the recipient (decoder) returns to the sender
(encoder).
 The sender has an idea
 Sender encodes the idea
 The sender transmits the message through a medium
 The receiver gets the message
 The receiver decodes the message
 Receiver sends feedback
Feedback in the communication process is the response that gives us some indication of how
effectively we communicate. It is the gauge of efficiency in communication

TYPES AND CHARACTERISTICS OF COMMUNICATION

Based on whom the message is addressed

We classify communication according to the number of persons (receivers) to whom the
message is addressed:
 Intrapersonal Communication: It is talking to oneself in one’s own mind. Examples are
soliloquies or asides in dramatic works.
 Interpersonal Communication: It is the exchange of messages between two persons.
For example, a conversation, dialogue or an interview in which two persons interact
(others may also be present as the audience). An author communicates interpersonally
with his reader, who is always present as a silent audience in the author’s mind while he
writes. A letter too is an example of interpersonal communication between the writer and
the person to whom it is written.
 Group Communication: It can be among small or large groups, like an organization, club
or classroom, in which all individuals retain their individual identity.
 Mass Communication: It occurs when the message is sent to large groups of people, for
example, by newspaper, radio, or television. In this process, each person becomes a
faceless individual with almost no opportunity for personal response or feedback.

Based On the basis of the medium employed

Verbal Communication: It means communicating with words, written or spoken. Verbal

communication consists of speaking, listening, writing, reading, and thinking. It may further be
classified as Oral or Written Communication.

Non-verbal communication:
It includes using of pictures, signs, gestures, and facial expressions for exchanging information
between persons. It is done through sign language, action language, or object
Language. Non-verbal communication flows through all acts of speaking or writing. It is a
Wordless message conveyed through gestures (sign), movements (action language), and
Object language (pictures/clothes) and so on. Further non-verbal communication can be
Identified by personal space (proxemics), sense of smell (olfactics) and time (chronemics).

© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

Meta Communication:
Here the speaker’s choice of words unintentionally communicates something more than what
the actual words state. For example, a flattering remark like “I’ve never seen you so smartly
dressed” could also mean that the regular attire of the listener needed improvement.
Formal Communication: A formal channel of communication can be defined as a means of
communication that is formally controlled by managers or people occupying positions in an
organization. The communication flows through formal channels, that is, officially recognized
positions along the line in the organization. This ensures that the information flows orderly,
timely, and accurately. Any information, decision, memo, reminder etc. will follow this path.

Informal Communication:
Side by side with the formal channel of communication every organization has an equally
effective channel of communication that is the informal channel. It is not officially sanctioned,
and quite often it is even discouraged or looked down upon. But, then, it is very much there and
has been given the name ‘grapevine’ precisely because it
Runs in all directions-horizontal, vertical, diagonal. As the management experts put it, “it flows
around water coolers, down hallways, through lunch rooms, and wherever people get together
in groups”.

Downward Communication:
The Communication that flows from Top to Bottom is known as downward communication. Any
organization has an inbuilt hierarchical system, and in that, in the first instance, communication
invariably flows downwards.

Upward Communication:
The Communication that flows from bottom to top, which is from lower hierarchical level to
Higher level is called Upward Communication. The main function of upward communication
Is to supply information to the upper levels about what is happening at the lower levels. It is
Just the reverse of the previous dimension

Lateral Communication:
When communication takes place between two or more persons who are subordinates
Working under the same person or those who are working on the same level, it is called
Lateral or horizontal communication. A good example of this kind of communication is that
Between functional managers. It is necessary for the reviewing of the activities assigned to
Various subordinates having identical positions

Diagonal Communication:
Diagonal or Crosswise communication includes the flow of information among persons at
Different levels who have no direct reporting relationships. As an example, the Communication
between the Training Supervisor and Marketing Manager, regarding the Training of a few

© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

employees of the Marketing Department, is Diagonal Communication. This kind of

communication is used to speed up information flow, to improve understanding, and to
coordinate efforts for the achievement of organizational objectives.

Characteristics of communication

 It involved two persons

 Message is must
 Communication May be Written, Oral or Gestural:
 Communication is a Two Way Process
 Its Primary Purpose is to Motivate a Response
 Communication may be Formal or Informal
 It Flows Up and Down and also from Side to Side
 It is an Integral Part of the Process of Exchange

Objectives/Purpose of Communication

The objectives of communication are dynamic and ever-changing. Some of the common
objectives of official communication are to get or give information, to ask for or give instructions
or advice or suggestions, to make requests, to persuade other people to agree with us.
Sometimes, we communicate with the intention of complaining, or warning; but unfortunately,
we do this angrily and get into arguments. If we learn to complain and warn in an acceptable
and constructive manner, our serious intention can be conveyed quite effectively without
damaging relationships.
In order to caution, counsel, clarify, apprise, evaluate, reprimand, and organize and numerous
such objectives, we make use of communication.

Evaluation of Communication Effectiveness

Communication is not an end in itself; rather it is a means to attain other ends or goals. Hence,
it has to be effective to be able to attain these goals or objectives. Communication effectiveness
can be examined in relation to the following criteria:
 Fidelity of Communication: the distortion free quality of a message is called fidelity. An
effective person gets the message across to others with minimal possibilities of
misunderstanding.
 Economy: In an effective communication a minimum of energy time, symbols and cues
are used to encode message without losing its fidelity and impact.
 Congruence: An effective communication integrates both verbal and non-verbal cues.

© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

 Influence: The most important criterion of effectiveness is the influence that the
communicator is able to exercise over the receiver of the communication. Influence
means the communicator achieve the results he intended.
 Relationship Building: effective communication contributes to the building of trust and a
better relationship between the source and the target.

Seven C’s of Effective Communication

 Completeness
 Conciseness
 Consideration
 Clarity
 Concreteness
 Courtesy
 Correctness

Four S’s of Communication

 Shortness
 Simplicity
 Strength
 Sincerity

Types of Communication Barriers

Semantic barriers

This barrier is related to the process of coding and decoding the message. Various types of
semantic gaps found in day-to-day use of people are as follows:
 Words having similar pronunciation but multiple meaning: Same pronunciation but are
having many meanings. For example: sight, site, cite.
 Badly expressed message: Lack of clarity and precision make the message badly
expressed. Lacks of coherence, awkward sentence structure, jargons etc. are common
faults, which lead to such messages.
 Wrong interpretation: Whenever one interprets a symbol, his understanding may differ
with others. The Hindi word ‘kaka’ means uncle in one part of the country but small boy
in another part of the country.
 Technical Language: When technical language is used in the communication process, it
creates barriers in understanding the message in the same sense and in the same spirit.
When technical jargons or specialist languages are used in the communication and
conversation process, they create tension, confusion and misunderstanding between the
sender and the receiver.

© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

 New meanings given to ordinary words by computer technology; to people who are not
familiar with computers, “mouse” is only an animal, where as in computer jargon, it is a
device.

Organizational Barriers

It may originate in contradictory management policies, or too many levels of management or the
clash between line and staff operations. The specialized nature of functions or even the special
language of those functions may cause it. It may have its source in formal informal, or grapevine
transactions. Following are the organizational barriers in communication:
 Organization culture and climate: In every organization, there exists a unique culture and
climate. The climate and culture of an organization ultimately influence the freedom,
thrust and interaction pattern among people in an organization.
 Organizational rules and regulations: The rules and regulations of the organization vary
widely from one organization to another. They may be so rigid that they may influence
the flow of information in a wrong direction.
 Status relationships: The status, power and position relationship acts as the hurdle in the
effectiveness of communications. Individuals may not be able to say what they wish to
say because of their fear for the position and power of the other party in the
communication process. The complex hierarchical structure of the organization like too
tall or too much of divisionalisation of the organization may not facilitate the free flow of
communication.
 Lack of cooperation between superior and subordinate: There may not be proper
cooperation between the superior and subordinate for various personal or organizational
relationships, which may held to improper communication in an organization.

Interpersonal Barriers

The effectiveness of Communication depends a lot on the interpersonal relationship between

two people. If and when the sender and receiver are at the same economic, educational and
status level and also have good rapport with each other, there is hardly any barrier arising in
communication. But, in case of a difference at any level, there is a greater chance of
Miscommunication. The most common example for this in an organization is the Barriers
relating to Superior and Subordinate. The subordinate must follow the order of the superior,
carry out all work efficiently, and provide full information related to any matter, which arises in
the organization or in any work. Moreover, the superior should have full confidence in himself
and the subordinate.
1. Lack of proper channel: There may be complexity in the organizational structure, which
may influence proper and effective communication from the subordinate. They may not
feel free to communicate because of the pressure of position power and authority.
2. No interest to communicate: There may not be any interest on the part of subordinates
to have a dialogue, discussion and interaction with their superiors, which affect the
communication process adversely.

© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

3. Lack of cooperation: lack of cooperation and mutual understanding also leads to the
hiding of certain information between the superior and subordinates in the organization.
4. Lack of trust: There may be lack of trust and coordination between the superior and the
subordinate, which may lead to infective communication.
5. The poor relationship between superior and subordinate: A good relationship must
develop between superiors and subordinates frequently and freely. They must interact to
improve the upward and downward communication system. The superior must listen to
the subordinates’ suggestion, their problems, and must have faith in them. In the
absence of all this, it may so happen that what the superior speaks, the subordinate may
not understand it.
6. Fear of penalty: If subordinate fees that because of free expression and upward
communication he will face some type of penalty, there is a possibility that he may not
provide a full or correct message to the superior.

Individual / Psycho-sociological Barriers:

Individual or Psycho-sociological barriers are the prime barriers in interpersonal communication.
People have different styles of communication. People also have personal feelings, desires,
fears, hopes, likes, dislikes, attitudes, views and opinions. The meaning assigned to a message
depends upon the emotional or psychological status of both the parties involved in the process
of communication.
1. Style
2. Selective perception: The receiver may make a world of his own around himself. He
projects his interest and expectations as he decodes messages. He may only take that
much piece of information, which may suit his world of thinking. As a result, the person
acquires incomplete and inappropriate information, which influence the communication
process. Having a poor self-concept or self-understanding, or a poor understanding of
other can cause perceptual distortions.
3. Halo effect: People do not listen carefully because of impressions based on earlier
encounters. Even one of the parties having a halo effect will disrupt the flow of
communication.
4. Status relationship
5. Poor attention and Retention
6. Inattention
7. Undue importance of written words
8. Defensiveness
9. Closed Mind
10. State of Health
11. Filtering: Filtering is the process of reducing the details or aspects of a message. Each
person who receives the message reduces it according to his or her understanding of
the situation. In this process, much of the important information may be lost or
misinterpreted and the sender will fail to convey what he wants to convey.

Cross-Cultural/ Geographic Barriers:

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

Culture is a shared set of values and attributes of a group; it is the sum total of the ways of living
built up by a group and transmitted from one generation to another. Culture is so much a part of
an individual’s manner of talking, behaving and thinking, that communication style and
competence are influenced by it.
Some of the significant differences between cultures are:
 National Character/ Basic Personality.
 Language
 Values and norms of behavior
 Social relationships
 Concepts of time
 Concepts of space
 Nonverbal communication
 Perception

Physical Barriers/ Channel and Media Barriers

Physical distractions cause a lot of noise, often literally: insufficiently insulated rooms with car
noises filtering through, poor lighting, and such things as frequent movement of bodies
postures, with a pen in the hand, even the arrival of coffee at a critical stage on the
communication process are the causes of communication barriers in organizations. Constant
telephone interruptions are one of the commonest physical distractions. These obstacles
prevent a message from reaching the intended recipient. The following obstacles are
considered under this category:
 Noise
 Defects in the Medium

TECHNICAL ASPECTS IN COMMUNICATION BARRIERS

A few technical aspects in communication barriers are briefly narrated by Murphy’s Law on
Communication: Following are the basics in this law on communication:
 Communication usually fails. Except by chance, it succeeds. On account of various
barriers, the possibility of success in the flow of communication is rare.
 If the message can be understood, in different ways, it will be understood in just the way
that does the most harm. People receive the massage in their own way. In most of the
cases, the most harmful side of communication is considered.
 It refers to the sender manipulating information so that the receiver will see it as more
favorable. In organizations, the information is condensed and synthesized. Objective
information does not reach to the authority. The more the vertical levels in the
organization’s hierarchy, the more opportunities there are for filtering.
 Meta communication. In a communication apart from the message, there is a Meta
message. Meta message exists in the people’s minds because of their actions such as
being hard to contact. It is the most important thing in seat word language.
 Noise in communication process. Noise can enter the communication process because
of situational factors. It is one of the factors influencing the communication process.
Noise is mostly related to mechanical distractions. A few noise distractions are as

© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

follows: (i) Human sounds, (ii) Traffic, (iii) Telephone instruments (iv) Channel defects (v)
Birds (vi) Trees (vii) Fans (viii) Chalk writing (ix) Use of Duster (x) Projector and (xi)
Nasal Voice

OVERCOMING THE BARRIERS IN COMMUNICATION

Constant effort is required to overcome the barriers which unconsciously creep up in the
process of Communication. Barriers can be overcome if sufficient effort is put into the
communication process and it is desired that communication be effective and efficient.
One way of reducing the effects of these barriers is to check continuously during the
communication process what the massage really is. The actions to be taken by the Sender,
Receiver and together the two of them, to achieve this are listed below:
Sender: The sender should be clear about the following Ws and H:
 WHO To who should the message go?
 WHY Why should I communicate? What are the motives?
 WHAT decide what to communicate? Be clear about what one needs to
communicate.
 WHEN the best time for optimum reception is chosen.
 HOW Use a language, which the receiver will understand and which is
unambiguous.
 WHERE: Choose a location which will not interfere with the reception,
understanding and acceptance of the message: Privately? Home or away? In a
group? At work or outside?
Receiver: The receiver can be aware about the following, to overcome the barriers:
 Be fully attentive to sender.
 Listen actively to the message being sent.
 Ask for clarification and repetition wherever necessary.
 Keep checking the receipt of information with sender.
Both: Receiver and Sender can make the Communication Flawless if they:
 Realize that misunderstandings are bound to occur, and be alert for all cues to this
effect.
 Listen, listen, listen, and listen again.
 Share opinions, feelings and perceptions generated by the me

Mass Communication & mass media

Outside the realm of interpersonal communication exists another form of communication, which
involves communication with mass audiences and hence the name mass communication; and
the channels through which this kind of communication takes place are referred to as mass
media.

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

Mass communication is the term used to describe the academic study of various means by
which individuals and entities relay information to large segments of the population all at once
through mass media.
It is observed that the term mass communication must have at least five aspects:
Large audience
Fairly undifferentiated audience composition
Some form of message reproduction
Rapid distribution and delivery
Low cost to the consumers

Characteristics of Mass communication:

Anonymous
Large audience
Fairly undifferentiated audience composition
Some form of message reproduction
Rapid distribution and delivery
Low cost to the consumers
Directs messages toward relatively large, heterogeneous and anonymous audience.
Messages are transmitted publicly no privacy.
Short duration message for immediate consumption
Feedback is indirect, non-existent or delayed
Cost per exposure per individual is minimum
Source belongs to organization or institutions
Mostly one way

Types of mass media

 Traditional media
 Print media
 Electronic media
 Social media

Functions of mass media

In a society like ours, mass media have a responsible role to play in fostering democracy,
plurality and communal harmony through the functions listed below.
 Information and education.
 Socialization
 Entertainment
 Political awareness
 Cultural transmission

Importance of Mass media

© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

-Pervasiveness of Mass Media

-Mass Communication Informs
-Mass Media Entertains
-Mass Communication Persuades
-Mass Communication Binds

QUESTIONS

1. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom

communication is the basis of :
(1) selective expectation of performance
(2) selective affiliation to peer groups
(3) selective attention
(4) selective morality
Answer: (4)

2. Assertion (A) : The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not
be critical to establish interactions later.
Reason (R) : More control over the communication process means more control over what
the students are learning.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (3)

3. Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R) : Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication
process.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: (4)

4. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R) : A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses
are purposive.
Select the correct code for your answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (1)

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

5. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human
communication process ?
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learnt ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.
(d) Communication cannot break-down.
(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Code :
(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: (4)
6. The classroom communication should essentially be :
(1) Contrived
(2) Empathetic
(3) Abstract
(4) Non-descriptive
Answer: (2)

7. A good communicator begins his/her presentation with a :

(1) Complex question
(2) Non-sequitur
(3) Repetitive phrase
(4) Ice-breaker
Answer: (4)

8. In a classroom, the probability of message reception can be enhanced by :

(1) Establishing a viewpoint
(2) Exposing the ignorance of students
(3) Increasing the information load
(4) Using high decibel audio tools
Answer: (1)

9. Effective communication pre-supposes

(1) Non-alignment
(2) Domination
(3) Passivity
(4) Understanding
Answer: (4)

10. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people
believe in
(1) indeterminate messages
(2) verbal messages
(3) non-verbal messages
(4) aggressive messages
Answer: (3)
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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

11. The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being
(1) Sedentary
(2) Staggered
(3) Factual
(4) Sectoral
Answer: (3)

12. Expressive communication is driven by

(1) Passive aggression
(2) Encoder’s personality characteristics
(3) External clues
(4) Encoder-decoder contract
Answer: (4)
13. Positive classroom communication leads to
(1) Coercion
(2) Submission
(3) Confrontation
(4) Persuasion
Answer: (4)

14. Classroom communication is the basis of

(1) Social identity
(2) External inanities
(3) Biased passivity
(4) Group aggression
Answer: (1)

15. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status.
Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context ?
(1) Horizonatal Communication
(2) Vertical communication
(3) Corporate communication
(4) Cross communication
Answer: (1)

16. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing
students in a classroom.
(1) Avoidance of proximity
2) Voice modulation
(3) Repetitive pause
(4) Fixed posture
Answer: (2)

17. What are the barriers to effective communication ?

(1) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
(2) Dialogue, summary and self-review.
(3) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
(4) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.
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Answer: (1)

18. The choice of communication partners is in_uenced by factors of

1) Proximity, utility, loneliness
(2) Utility, secrecy, dissonance
(3) Secrecy, dissonance, deception
(4) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance
Answer: (1)

19. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.
(1) Use of peer command
(2) Making aggressive statements
(3) Adoption of well-established posture
(4) Being authoritarian
Answer: 3

20. Every communicator has to experience

(1) Manipulated emotions
(2) Anticipatory excitement
(3) The issue of homophiles
(4) Status dislocation
Answer: (2)

21. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are :

(a) To gather information about student weaknc
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of leaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) only
Answer: (3)

22. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic
pattern of ideas is referred to as :
(1) Systemisation
(2) Problem – orientation
(3) Idea protocol
(4) Mind mapping
Answer: (4)

23. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as :
(1) Physical language
(2) Personal language
(3) Para language
(4) Delivery language
Answer: (3)
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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

24. Every type of communication is affected by its :

(1) Reception
(2) Transmission
(3) Non-regulation
(4) Context
Answer: (4)

25. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are
considered as :
(1) Verbal
(2) Non-verbal
(3) Impersonal
(4) Irrational
Answer: (2)

26. Most often, the teacher – student communication is :

(1) Spurious
(2) Critical
(3) Utilitarian
(4) Confrontational
Answer-3

27. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by :

(1) the use of hyperbole
(2) the change of voice level
(3) the use of abstract concepts
(4) eye contact
Answer-4

28. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following ?

(a) Attitude surveys
(b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance
(d) Selection of communication channel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: (2)

29. Assertion (A) : Formal communication tends to be fast and _exible.

Reason (R) : Formal communication is a systematic and orderly _ow of information.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but, (R) is false
4) (A) is false but, (R) is correct
Answer: (4)
© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi
Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

30. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication ?

(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (4)

31. The term ‘grapevine’ is also known as :

(1) Downward communication
2) Informal communication
(3) Upward communication
(4) Horizontal communication
Answer: (2)

32. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication ?

(1) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(2) Participation of the audience
(3) One-way transfer of information
(4) Strategic use of grapevine
Answer: (3)

33. In communication, the language is :

(1) The verbal code
(2) Intrapersonal
(3) The symbolic code
(4) The non-verbal code
Answer: (1)

34. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an audience on

certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called
(A) Training Program
(B) Seminar
(C) Workshop
(D) Symposium
Answer: (B)

35. Media is known as

(A) First Estate
(B) Second Estate
(C) Third Estate
(D) Fourth Estate
Answer: (C)

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

36. The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting information to a
large number of receivers simultaneously, is called
(A) Group Communication
(B) Mass Communication
(C) Intrapersonal Communication
(D) Interpersonal Communication
Answer: (B)

37. A smart classroom is a teaching space which has

(i) Smart portion with a touch panel control system.
(ii) PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.
(iii) Document camera and specialized software
(iv) Projector and screen Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i). (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i).(ii),(iii)and(iv)
Answer: (D)

38. The term ‘Yellow Journalism’ refers to

(A) sensational news about terrorism and violence
(B) sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers / viewers.
(C) sensational news about arts and culture
(D) sensational news prints in yellow paper.
Answer: (B)

39. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The
students are really
(A) Encoders
(B) Decoders
(C) Agitators
(D) Propagators
Answer: (B)

40. The next term in the series :

AB, ED, IH, NM, is
(A) TS
(B) ST
(C) TU
(D) SU
Answer: (A)

41. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is

(A) noise
(B) audience
(C) criticality
(D) feedback
Answer: (D)

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

42. Break-down in verbal communication is described as

(A) Short circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D)Entropy
Answer: (C)

43. The Telephone Model of Communication was _rst developed in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D)Information theory
Answer: (D)

44. Users who use media for their own ends are identi_ed as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience
Answer: (B)

45. Classroom communication can be described as

(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsigni_ed
(D) Discourse
Answer: (D)

46. Ideological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions
(D) Creations

47. In communication, myths but are have power

(A) uncultural.
(B) insigni_cant.
(C) imprecise.
(D) unpreferred
Answer: (C)

48. The first multi- lingual news agency of India was

(A) Samachar
(B) API
C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati
Answer: (C)

49. Organisational communication can also be equated with

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

(A) intra-personal communication.

(B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication.
(D) mass communication.
Answer: (C)

50. In the process of Communication, which one Of the following is in the chronological
order ?
(A) Communication, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
Answer: (C)

51. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile
telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive Communication
(C) Development Communication
(D) Communitarian
Answer: (B)

52. Classroom communication of a teacher rest on the principle of

(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Enlightenment
Answer: (B)

53. ________ is important when a teacher communicates with his / her student
(A) Sympathy
(B) Empathy
(C) Apathy
(D) Antipathy
Answer: (B)

54. Classroom communication must be

(A) Teacher centric
(B) Student centric
(C) General centric
(D) Textbook centric
Answer: (B)

55. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be banned.
(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D) children should be beaten with rods.
Answer: (C)
© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi
Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

56. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as
(A) Interpersonal
(B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (C)

57. Video-Conferencing can be classi_ed as one of the following types of communication

(A) Visual one way
(B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way
(D) Visual two way
Answer: (C)

58. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at

(A) Lucknow B) Bhopal (C) Chennai (D) Mumbai
Answer: (B)

59. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed?

(A) NTCS (B) PAL(C) NTSE (D) SECAM
Answer: (B)

60. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for

(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity
Answer: (D)

61. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for

(A) Total Rating Points
(B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points
(D) Television Rating Points
Answer: (A)

62. Photo bleeding means

(A) Photo cropping
(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting
(D) Photo colour adjustment
Answer: (D)

63. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by

(A) Audience
(B) Communicator
(C) Satellite
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(D) Media
Answer: (B)

64. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation ?

(A) English B) Hindi(C) Bengali (D) Tamil

65. Communication with oneself is known as

(A) Organisational Communication
(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication
(D) Intrapersonal Communication
Answer: (D)

66. The term ‘SITE’ stands for

(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education
Answer: (C)

67. Public communication tends to occur within a more

(A) complex structure
(B) political structure
(C) convenient structure
(D) formal structure
Answer: (D)

68. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred
to as
(A) channelisation
(B) mediation
(C) encoding
(D) decoding

69. Effective communication needs a supportive

(A) economic environment
(B) political environment
C) social environment
(D) multi-cultural environment
Answer: (C)

70. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is
an individual’s
(A) personality (B) expectation (C) social status D) coding ability
Answer: (D)

71. When communicated, institutionalized stereotypes become

(A) myths (B) reasons (C) experiences D) convictions
Answer: (D)
© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi
Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:-8368060636

72. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s

(A) competence (B) pre-disposition C) receptivity(D) ethnicity
Answer: (C)

73. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to
as
A) Networked media
(B) Connective media
(C) Nodal media
(D) Multimedia
Answer: (A)

© GSIP, Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)

Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude

Topic to be Covered from UGC NET REASONING SYLLABUS

 Number series
 letter series
 codes
 relationships

Number series
Questions on number series are prevalent in most of the exams. Almost 1-2 Questions comes in exam from this topic.
 These questions are based on numerical sequences that follow a logical rule/ pattern based on elementary
arithmetic concepts.
 A particular series is given from which the pattern must be analysed. You are then asked to predict the next
number in the sequence following the same rule
 There are some numbers are wrongly put into the series of number and you need to identify or correct them

Tips and Tricks for Number series for NTA NET EXAM
 Number series questions are mostly numbers in the series are connected to each other. When you identify the
connection, solving the question becomes easier for you.
 Identify the pattern asked in the question. Once you identify the pattern, solving the questions would be much
easier.
 Once you have identified the pattern, apply it to the number before/ after the missing number in the series to
get the answer.
 Try to analyse the given pattern such as prime numbers, perfect squares ,cubes, series of known numbers like
Mathematics progression (AP/GP) etc.
 Next, if you are unable to find the familiar number :-
 Calculate difference B/W the given series elements
 Then observe the pattern in difference to see are they following any regular pattern or known numbers like said
above.
 If the numbers are growing slowly its must be addition or subtraction series
 If the numbers are growing rapidly it might be a Square series or cube or multiplicative series.
 If the difference or sum don’t have any particular pattern it must be alternate number series.

© GSIP- Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

 Now, You need to t signifies that the series follows a complex pattern. Check for cases like multiplying the
number and adding/subtracting a constant number from it to reach the pattern.

How to Identify Common Patterns in Number Series

The common patterns asked in number series topic are-
Prime numbers
When numbers in series are prime numbers, which are divisible by own and greater than 1. There must not be any
factor of this number. Such numbers are- 11, 13, 17, 19, etc.

Squares/Cubes
When numbers in the series are of perfect square or perfect cube or perfect square roots or cube root. Such numbers
include 81, 100, 121, 144, etc. These can be of decimal nature.

Pattern in differences
Calculate the differences between the numbers given in the series provided in the question. This difference can be
constant or varying in nature. After identifying this difference, you can find the problem number or words or letters in
the problem series.

Example:- 2, 7, 12, 17, 22, ?

The difference in this series for every number is 5. Hence, the next number will be 27.

Example:- A, D, G, J, ?
The difference between the position of these letters is 3. So, The next third letter to J will be M.

Pattern in Alternate numbers

Whenever there is a pattern in the alternate numbers or letters or words in the series, then with this alternate pattern,
you can easily find the problem number, letter or word.

Example:- 2, 3, 4, 7, 6, 11, ?
In this series, the alternate numbers are incremented by 2 and 4 successively. Hence, the next number will be 8.

Similar can be done to letter series or word series to find the answer.

Geometric Series
When numbers in the series follow the geometric progression means when each successive number in the series is
obtained by multiplying or dividing the previous numbers with a fixed ratio, then problem number can be easily figured
out.

Example: 4, 20, 100, 500, ?

Each number is multiplied by 5 and in geometric progression. Hence, the next number will be 2500.

Pattern in the adjacent numbers

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

When adjacent numbers are varying with a logical pattern in the series, it can be understood with the following
example.

Example: 2, 4, 12, 48,?

In this series, first number is multiplied by 2, second number is multiplied with 3 and third one is with 4. Hence, the
next number in series will be 240.

Odd one out

All numbers but one is in the series. Such numbers can be identified for elimination.

Complex Series
In such series, the differences between numbers are dynamic instead of being fixed, but still there is a clear logical
rule.

Example: 3, 8, 15, 24, 33, ?

In this series, numbers are incremented by +5, +7, +9 and +11. Hence, the next number will be increment by +13. So,
the solution will be 46.

Complex arithmetic functions

In some series, more than one operation (+, x, - and /) is used successively. Such pattern are very tough to recognize
and sometime take a lot of time. So, it is advisable not to spend so much time on such questions. If you find the
correct answer under the expected time limits, then only attempt it otherwise switch to the next question.

Example: 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, ?

In this series, each prospective number is incremented by 2 and the next number is multiplied by 2. Hence, applying
this logic to the series, the next number will be 30.

Letter series
One of the simplest rule to solve alphabetical series problem is EJOTY rule. Most of the times, you need to remember
the position of any letter to solve puzzle. EJOTY rules will help you to easily find out the position of different letters in
the alphabet.
E J O T V
5 10 15 20 25

This type of question usually consists of a series of small letters which follow a certain pattern. However some letters are
missing from the series. These missing letters are then given in a proper sequence as one of the alternatives. The
candidate is required to choose this alternative as the answer.

Letter series classified in three types:

One lettered series

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

In One lettered series each term contains one letter and follows a certain pattern.

We have to find out the next term according to that pattern.

Example-1: What is the next letter in the series B, F, J, N, _______ ?

1) R

2) T

3) Q

4) S

Answer: 1) R

Explanation:

B = 2, F = 6, J = 10, N = 14 . Here the difference between the letters is 4. So the answer is 14 + 4 = 18 which is R.

Example-2: What is the next letter in the series B, C, E, G, ______ ?

1) J

2) I

3) K

4) M

Answer: - K

Explanation:

B = 2, C = 3, E = 5, G = 7 . Here the letters are consecutive primes. So the next prime number is 11 which is K.

Two lettered series

In Two lettered series each term contains two letters and follows a certain pattern. We have to find out the next term
according to that pattern.

1) GR

2) GQ

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

3) HQ

4) HR

Answer: 2) GQ

Explanation:

C = 3, D = 4, E = 5, F = 6.
M = 13, N = 14, O = 15, P = 16.
So next term is G = 7 and Q = 17

Three lettered series

In Three lettered series each term contains three letters and follows a certain pattern. We have to find out the next
term according to that pattern.

Example: What is the next letter in the series CNL, BLI, AJF, ZHC, _______ ?

1) XDY

2) YFZ

3) YFA

4) XFY

Answer: 2) YFZ

Explanation:

C = 3, B = 2, A = 1, Z = 26. (Decreasing by 1) So next letter is 25, which is Y.

N = 14, L = 12, J = 10, H = 8. (Decreasing by 2) So next letter is 6, which is F.
L = 12, I = 9, F = 6, C = 3. (Decreasing by 3) So next letter is 26, which is Z.

CODE

Q.1 If NOTE is coded as OQWl and BOA is coded as CQD, then which of the following is coded as NCWGM?

A MOKEB
BMATER
CCATCH
DMATCH
Correct Option: D

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

Similarly

So,

Q.2 In a certain code language OFFICE is written as NGGHDD. How is DENOTE written in that code language?

A CDMNSD
B EDONUD
C EPOPUF
D EODND
Correct Option: B

Similarly

Note: Vowels – 1; Consonants + 1

hence, option B is correct.

Q.3 If "ANANT is code as "BPDRY", then "MANOJ" will be coded as which of the following options

A NDQSO
B NCPSO
C NCQSO
D NCQSP
Correct Option: C
ANANT is coded as BPDRY, here the logic is A+1 = B, N+2 = P, A+3 = D, N+4 = R, T+5 = Y
Hence, code for MANOJ will be, M + 1 = N, A + 2 = C, N + 3 = Q, O + 4 = S, J + S = O i.e. "NCQSO".
Hence, option C is correct.

Q.4 in a certain code language, "YIELD" is written as "YHBGX" and "FORT" is written as "POME". How is "HEIGHT"
written in that code language?

A NCDFCG
B NCCECG
C NBCFCG
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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

D NCCFCG
Correct Option: D

So,

Similarly

Hence, option D is correct.

Q.5 in a certain code of language, "PREVENT" is written as "TNEVERP”. How is "SPECIAL" written in that code
language?

ALAICPES
BLAICEPS
CLCAIEPS
DLAEICPS
Correct Option: B
The letters of the word are reversed.
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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

Hence, option B is correct.

TRICKS TO SOLVE FAMILY OR BLOOD RELATIONS BASED QUESTION

 Blood Relations Based Question are very common in all type of examination where you have been given
relationship among few members of the family and based on given details you need to Find out the ‘Unknown’
relation that exists satisfying the given criteria.
 Questions depict relationships among the various members of a family in a roundabout chain.
 The candidate is expected to find the relation of two particular persons mentioned in the question.
 Generally, the question deals with a hierarchical structure which is based on seven generation three above

Q.1 Pointing to a boy, Saras said, "His father's wife's brother is the only brother of my sister's father." How is the boy
related to Saras?

A Son
B Nephew
C Cousin brother
D Uncle
Correct Option: C
Boy's father's wife means his 'mother'.
His mother's brother means his 'maternal uncle'.
Saras' sister's father means Saras' father.
Boy's maternal uncle is the only brother of Saras' father.
Boy's maternal uncle is the paternal uncle of Saras.
This clearly means that the boy is the cousin brother of Saras.

Q,2 Pointing to a boy in a photograph, a girl said, "His father's mother is the mother-in-law of my brother's mother."
How is the person in photograph related to the girl?

A Maternal Uncle
B Grandfather
C Brother
D Paternal Uncle
Correct Option: C
Girl's brother's mother means girl's 'mother'.
Mother-in-law of girl's mother means her grandmother.
Mother of the father of the boy in photograph is his 'grandmother'.
So, the boy's grandmother is also girl's grandmother.
This clearly means that the boy is related to the girl as her 'Brother.'

Q.3 pointing to a lady Pankaj Said, Her mother's only grandson is my son, “How is that Lady related to pankaj"?

A Aunt
B Sister
C Mother

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

D Wife
Correct Option: B
Q.4 introducing a girl. Ronit said, " He is the daughter of the daughter of my grandfather's only son", How is that girl
related to Ronit?

A Cousin
B Niece
C Father in law
D Nephew

Correct Option: B
" He is the daughter of the daughter of my grandfather's only son"
My grandfather's only Son - It means Ronit's father.
Daughter of my grandfather's only son - Ronit's father's daughter. It means Ronit's sister.
Daughter of the daughter of my grandfather - It means Ronit's sister's daughter.
Hence, that girl is a niece of Ronit.
Hence, option B is correct

Q.5 Pointing towards a lady in a photograph a girls says Vinita's grandmother is the mother- in - law of this lady how is
the lady in the photograph related to Vinita?

A Mother
B Sister
C Aunt
D Grandmother
Correct Option: A
()
↓
( ) + ⇔ (Lady)
↓
Vinita

Hence, option A is correct.

Mathematical Aptitude (Fraction, Time & Distance, Ratio, Proportion and Percentage,
Profit and Loss, Interest and Discounting, Averages etc.).

1) A person sold a stove for Rs. 423 and incurred a loss of 6%. At what price would it be sold so as to earn a profit of
8%?
a. Rs. 525

b. Rs. 500

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

c. Rs. 490
d. Rs. 486

ANSWER: Rs. 486

Explanation:

2) A fruit seller buys lemons at 2 for a rupee and sells then at 5 for three rupees. His gain percent is
a. 10%

b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 20%
Explanation:

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

3) A sells a car to B at 10% loss. If B sells it for Rs. 54000 and gains 20%, the cost price of the car for A was

a. Rs. 25000
b. Rs. 50000
c. Rs. 37500
d. Rs. 60000

ANSWER: Rs. 50000

Explanation:

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

4) Ramesh sold a statue for a price 25% higher than the original price of the statue. He had however bought the statue
at 20% discount on the original price. With the profit of Rs. 2025, find the original price of the statue.

a. Rs. 6000
b. Rs. 7500
c. Rs. 3500
d. Rs. 4500

ANSWER: Rs. 4500

Explanation:

5) If selling price of 40 articles is equal to cost price of 50 articles, the loss or gain percent is

a. 25% loss
b. 20% loss
c. 25% gain
d. 20% gain

ANSWER: 25% gain

Explanation:

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

6) Two bicycles were sold for Rs. 3990 each, gaining 5% on one and losing 5% on the other. The gain or loss percent
on the whole transaction is

a. Neither gain nor loss

b. 2.5% gain
c. 2.5% loss
d. 0.25% loss

ANSWER: 0.25% loss

Explanation:

7) The ratio of cost price and selling price is 4:5. The profit percent is

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 30%

ANSWER: 25%
Explanation:

8) If a person sells a ‘sari’ for Rs. 5200, making a profit of 30%, then the cost price of the sari is
a. Rs. 4420
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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

b. Rs. 4000
c. Rs. 3900
d. Rs. 3800

ANSWER: Rs. 4000

Explanation:

9) A shopkeeper earns a profit of 15% after selling a book at 20% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost
price and printed price of the book is?

a. 20:23
b. 23:20
c. 16:23
d. 23:16

ANSWER: 16:23
Explanation:

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

10) Simran bought pet food worth Rs. 56000. She then sold 1/3rd of it incurring a loss of 40%. What profit she must earn
on rest of the supplies to nullify this loss?

a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 45%
d. 50%

ANSWER: 20%
Explanation:

© GSIP- Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

11) Ramesh gets a profit of 20% in one trade and suffers a loss of 20% in the second when he sells 2 cycles for Rs.
4000 each. What is his profit or loss in the entire trade?

a. Loss = 4%

b. Loss = 16%

c. Profit = 16%

d. Profit = 4%

ANSWER: Loss = 4%
Explanation:

12) Suman buys 160 chocolates for Rs. 480. She wanted to earn 30% profit by selling them. But Rakesh visited her
and she gave him 25% of those chocolates at the cost price itself. But even after doing this, she earned a profit of 30%
as decided. For how much did she sell each chocolate?

a. Rs. 3.8

b. Rs. 4.2

c. Rs. 6

d. Rs. 3

ANSWER: Rs. 4.2

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

Explanation:

13) Guddi buys some oranges in a shop at 4 per rupee. She goes to other shop and buys same number of oranges at 5
per rupee. She then combines them in a basket and sells them at 4 per rupee. Will she get a profit or loss? And how
much?

a. Profit = 100/9 %

b. Loss = 100/9 %

c. Profit = 116/9 %

d. Loss = 116/9 %

ANSWER: Profit = 100/9 %

Explanation:

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

14) Chaman sells 40 fans at 10% profit. He wants a total of 20% profit on the entire sale. Since he got 160 fans at rate
of Rs. 100 each, at what profit must he sell the remaining fans?

a. 70/3%

b. 160/58%

c. 30%

d. 100/3%

ANSWER: 70/3%
Explanation:

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

15) Uma wants to gain 15% profit on her sale of sugar. She buys 120 kg of sugar at Rs. 24 per kg to mix with 180 kg of
sugar bought at Rs. 28 per kg. She sells the sugar mix at ….

a. Rs. 8159

b. Rs. 9108

c. Rs. 9756

d. Rs. 8564

ANSWER: Rs. 9108

Explanation:

16) Rohit got profit of 11½% by selling his old car. However he realized that had he sold it for Rs. 8100 more, his profit
would be 38.5%. At what price did he buy the car?

a. Rs. 44500

b. Rs. 55000

c. Rs. 41000

d. Rs. 30000

ANSWER: Rs. 30000

Explanation:

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

17) Rambabu sells paper planes at the rate of 20 planes for Re. 1. If he gets profit of 20%, how many planes did he buy
in 1 rupee?
a. 16

b. 40

c. 24

d. 36

ANSWER: 24
Explanation:

18) A cheater manipulated his weighing machine so that it shows 1kg for 970 grams. How much profit does he get?
a. 397/100%

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

b. 0.3 %

c. 0.03%

d. 300/97%

ANSWER: 300/97%
Explanation:

19) Ajay incurred loss of 20% by selling a vase for Rs. 2880. To get a profit of 20% at what price should he sell the
vase?

a. Rs. 4320

b. Rs. 5760

c. Rs. 1440

d. Rs. 3500

ANSWER: Rs. 4320

Explanation:

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

20) A sold a car to B at a profit of 25%. B incurred loss of 15% while selling the same car to C. A spent Rs. 50000 for
this car. At what price did C buy it?

a. Rs. 62500

b. Rs. 60000

c. Rs. 53125

d. Rs. 90000

ANSWER: Rs. 53125

Explanation:

21) What will be selling price, if cost price is Rs. 120 and gain is 35%?

a. Rs. 13
b. Rs. 85
c. Rs. 155
d. Rs. 162

ANSWER: Rs. 162

Explanation:

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

22) A and B enter into a partnership with respective capitals of Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 40,000. At the end of the year, the
total profit is Rs. 33,000. If A receives Rs. 15,000 as both his salary and profit, then what is his salary?

a. Rs. 2000
b. Rs. 4000
c. Rs. 3500
d. Rs. 3000

ANSWER: Rs. 4000

Explanation:
A's capital : B 's capital
20000 : 40000 = 1 : 2
Since, the time period is fixed, the profit is distributed in the ratio of capital 1 : 2
Profit of A = (1/3) * 33,000 = Rs. 11,000
Salary of A = Rs. (15000 – 11000) = Rs. 4000

23) An article costs Rs. 600. What should be the marked price of an article so that after 10% discount, the trader makes
20% profit?

a. Rs. 800
b. Rs. 950
c. Rs. 1100
d. Rs. 1040

ANSWER: Rs. 800

Explanation:
Cost price of article = Rs. 600
Profit % = 20%
Therefore,
selling price of article = 120% of C.P.
= (120 / 100) * 600 = Rs. 720
Marked price = ?
Discount % = 10%
S.P. = Rs. 720
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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

90% of M.P. = S.P.

90/100 * M.P. = 720
M.P. = 720 * (100/90) = Rs. 800

24) A man buys 50 pens at marked price of 46 pens from a whole seller. If he sells these pens giving a discount of 1% ,
what is the profit percent?

a. 5.3 %
b. 7.6 %
c. 10.6 %
d. 12 %
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 7.6 %
Explanation:
Let Marked price be Re. 1 each
C.P. of 50 pens = Rs. 46
S.P. of 50 pens = 99% of Rs. 50 = Rs. 49.50
Profit % = (Profit /C.P.) x 100
Profit% = (3.50/46) x 100 = 7.6 %

25) P sells an article to Q at 10 % profit. Q sells it to R at 25 % profit. If R pays Rs. 250 for it, What did P pay for it ?
a. Rs. 225

b. Rs. 198..50
c. Rs. 181.81
d. Rs. 162.30
e. None of these

ANSWER: Rs. 181.81

Explanation:
Selling price of P = Cost price of Q
Selling Price of Q = Cost price of R = Rs. 250 ….. Given
Q sold it to R with 25 % profit.
Cost price of Q = 100/125 * 250/1 = Rs. 200 = Selling price of P.
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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

P sold it to Q with 10 % profit.

Cost price of P = 100 / 110 * 200 / 1 = Rs. 181.81

26) Sagar purchased 10 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 15 per kg and 25 kg of rice at the rate Rs. 14 per kg. He mixed the
two and sold the mixture. Approximately at what rate per kg should he sell the mixture to make 40 % profit in the
transaction?

a. Rs. 20.00
b. Rs. 19.50
c. Rs. 15
d. Rs. 17.5

ANSWER: Rs. 20.00

Explanation:

Rice variety Quantity(Kg) Rate(Rs/Kg) Cost(in Rs)

First 10 15 150

Second 25 14 350

Total 500
By 40% profit on cost price,
Selling price of mixture = 140/100 * 500
= Rs. 700
Therefore, selling price per kg of mixture = 700/35 = Rs. 20

27) A trader has 200 kg of sugar, out of which he sells some with 10% profit and the rest with 25% profit. He gains 15%
on the whole. Find the quantity of sugar sold at 25% profit?

a. 120 kg
b. 96.5 kg
c. 84 kg
d. 67 kg
e. None of these

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

ANSWER: 67 kg
Explanation:
Let CP of each kg. of sugar = Rs.1.
Cost Price of 200 kg of sugar = Rs.200.
Let quantity of sugar sold with 25% profit be X.
Therefore, (200 – X) kg of sugar sold at a profit of 10%
Then,
(125/100 * X) + 110/100 (200 – X) = 115/100 * 200
125X + 110(200 – X) = 115 * 200
125X + 22000 – 110X = 23000
125X – 110X = 23000 – 22000
15X = 1000
X = 1000/15
X = 66.66 kg
Quantity of sugar that was sold at 25% gain is 66.66 kg
Therefore, option nearby for 66.66 is 67 (d)

28) Anil purchased 30 kg of wheat at the rate of Rs. 22 per kg and 20 kg of wheat at the rate of Rs. 24 per kg. He
mixed the two. Approximately at what rate per kg should he sell the mixture to make 25% profit?

a. Rs. 25
b. Rs. 28
c. Rs. 30
d. Rs. 32.5

ANSWER: Rs. 28
Explanation:
Total quantity of mixture = 30 + 20 = 50 kg.
By earning a profit of 25% on the total cost, the selling price of the mixture is
125/100 * (660 + 480 = 1140) = Rs. 1425
Selling price per kg = Total selling price / Total of mixture
= 1425 / 50
= Rs. 28.5

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

29) At what price should the Karan mark a sewing machine that costs him Rs. 1200/- so that even after offering a 20%
discount, he makes 25% profit?

a. Rs. 2,025/-
b. Rs.1,900/-
c. Rs. 1,675/-
d. Rs. 1,875/-
e. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Rs. 1,875/-
Explanation:
Cost of a sewing machine = Rs. 1200/-
By giving 20% discount on the marked price of a sewing machine, the cost price is :
100/80 * 1200 = Rs. 1500/- By making a profit of 25% on the cost price of a sewing machine, the marked price of the
sewing machine is:
125/100 × 1500 = 125 × 15 = Rs. 1,875/-

30) Virat buys an old car for Rs. 50000 and spends Rs. 4000 on its repairs. If he sells the scooter for Rs. 60000, his
gain percent is:

a. 3 (4/7) %
b. 11 (1/9) %
c. 12 (2/3) %
d. 12%

ANSWER: 11 (1/9) %
Explanation:
C.P. = Rs. (50000 + 4000) = Rs. 54000
S.P. = Rs. 60000.
Gain% = ( (6000 / 54000) * 100 ) % = 11 (1/9)%

31) P, Q, R subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. P subscribes Rs. 4000 more than Q and Q Rs. 5000 more than R. Out
of a total profit of Rs. 25,000, what will be P's share?

a. Rs. 8400
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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

b. Rs. 10,500
c. Rs. 13,600
d. Rs. 14,700

ANSWER: Rs. 10,500

Explanation:
Let amount subscribed for R be x.
Therefore, Q = x + 5000 and P = x + 5000 + 4000 = x + 9000
So, x + x + 5000 + x + 9000 = 50000
3x = 36000
x = 12000
P : Q : R = 21000 : 17000 : 12000 = 21 : 17 : 12
P’s share = 25000 X (21/50) = Rs. 10,500

32) A trader purchases several articles at the rate of 13 for Rs. 10 and sells them at the rate of 10 for Rs. 13. What is
his gain/loss?

a. 69 % gain
b. 56.25 % gain
c. 56.25 % loss
d. 25 % loss
e. None of these

ANSWER: 69 % gain
Explanation:
We have, C. P of 13 articles = Rs. 10
& S. P of 10 articles = Rs. 13
S. P of 13 articles = ?
= (13 * 13) / 10 = 16.9
Gain = [(16.9 – 10)/10] * 100 = 69 %

33) A boy pays Rs. 369 for an article marked at Rs. 600, by enjoying two successive discounts. If the first discount is of
25%, how much should be the second discount?

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

a. 20 %
b. 10 %
c. 25 %
d. 18 %
e. None of these

ANSWER: 18 %
Explanation:
First discount = 25% of 600 = Rs. 150.
Thus, the reduced price = 600 – 150 = Rs. 450.
Since the person actually paid Rs. 369, the value of the second discount must be equal to Rs. 81 (450 – 369).
Let the second discount be x
Thus, we get, 81 = x of 450
( 81/450)*100 = 18%

34) By purchasing an article at 20 % discount on the original price and then selling it at a price of 25% above the
original price, a trader earns Rs. 200 as the profit. What was the original price of the article?

a. Rs. 444.44
b. Rs. 255.50
c. Rs. 100.10
d. Rs. 810
e. None of these

ANSWER: Rs. 444.44

Explanation:
Let the original price of the article be Rs. 100. Hence the purchase price for the trader would be Rs. 80 and his selling
price would be Rs. 125. Thus, he would earn a profit of Rs. 45 (125 – 80). Therefore,
Profit is Rs. 45 if the original price is Rs. 100
Hence, if profit is Rs. 200, then original price will be..
= 100x 200/45
= Rs. 444.44

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Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

35) A boy incurs 5% loss by selling a book for Rs. 1000. At what price should the book be sold to earn 5 % profit?

a. Rs. 1105.26
b. Rs. 1251.50
c. Rs. 1085.13
d. Rs. 1885.13

ANSWER: Rs. 1105.26

Explanation:
Let the new selling price be Rs. x
(100 – loss %) /1000 = (100 + gain %) / x
(100 – 5) / 1000 = (100 + 5) / x
x = (105 × 1000) / 95 = 105000 / 95
x = 1105.26.

36) Find the resultant profit if A sells a cupboard at a profit of 6% to B and B sells the same to C at a profit of 9%.

a. 15%
b. 16%
c. 14.5%
d. 15.54%

ANSWER: 15.54%
Explanation:
The resultant profit = 1.06 * 1.09 = 1.1554 = 15.54%
Alternatively, the resultant profit = [x + y + xy/100]
= 6 + 9 + (6*9)/100
= 15 + 0.54
= 15.54%

37) If Harsh sold a match ticket for Rs.340 at a profit of 25%, at what price did he purchased the ticket?

a. 280
b. 255

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c. 300
d. 272

ANSWER: 272
Explanation:
Cost price = Selling price/(1 + profit percent)
= 340/(1 + 0.25) = 340/1.25
= Rs.272

38) Eleven bags are bought for Rs.1000 and sold at 10 for Rs.1100. What is the gain or loss in percentage?

a. 10%
b. 21%
c. 25%
d. 20%

ANSWER: 21%
Explanation:
As selling price is Rs.1100 for 10 bags, each bag is sold at Rs.110.
Hence, the profit is Rs.100 after selling 10 bags plus the selling price of 1 bag = 100 + 110 = Rs.210.
%profit = 210/1000 *100
= 21%

39) Vijay sells a cupboard at 14% below cost price. Had he got Rs.2086 more, he would have made a profit of 14%.
What is the cost price of the cupboard?

a. 7450
b. 14900
c. 7400
d. 7500

ANSWER: 7450
Explanation:
Cost price = 2086/(0.14 + 0.14) = 2086/0.28
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= Rs.7450

40) If selling price of 12 pens is equal to the cost price of 18 pens, find the profit percent.

a. 40%
b. 33.3%
c. 50%
d. 25%

ANSWER: 50%
Explanation:
Selling price of 12 pens = cost price of 18 pens
Therefore, the profit is 6 pens and cost price is 12 pens.
% profit = profit/cost price * 100
= 6/12 * 100
= 50%

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

Prepared by

Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)

(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)

(NET- Management- 1Time)

STRUCTURING AN ARGUMENT
In this section, we will look at the structure of an argument
“I see what your premises are,” says the philosopher, “and I see your conclusion. But I just don’t see how you get
there. I don’t see the argument.”

What is the argument?

– An argument is a claim defended with reasons. It is composed of a group of statements with one or more statements
(premises) supporting another statement (conclusion).
 An argument is an act of presenting reasons to support an individual’s position or point of view.
 It is not quarrel or dispute. Or simply, as Bassham’s definition of an argument: A claim defended with reasons.
 Arguments are the basis of persuasive communication. They are combinations of statements made that are
intended to change the minds of other people.
 All arguments have structure, which can be either deliberately designed or maybe discovered through analysis.

At its simplest, an argument has premises and a conclusion.

Main components in an argument. (a) Premises, (b) Conclusion:
– A simple argument must have a conclusion and at least two premises.
– Premises or propositions are statements that directly support the conclusion.
– A conclusion is what an author or an individual wants me to believe, accept or do.

Premise
A premise of an argument is something that is put forward as a truth, but which is not proven. Although it is not
proven, it is assumed to be true (although how universally accepted this truth is maybe another matter).
 It is hot in here.
 This is a beautiful car.
 The people of this town are angry.
If you want to attack another person’s argument, you can challenge the truth of their premises. If you are making an
argument, you should be ready to defend any of your premises.
The more complex the premise, the more opportunity there is to challenge it, so if you expect a challenge, keep your
premises both short and non-controversial.
As premises are the building blocks of the argument, there may well be two or more premises in any argument.

Conclusion
The conclusion (or claim) is the statement with which you want the other person to agree. It is drawn from the
premises of the argument, of which there may be many.
 We need to get out.
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 You should buy this car.

 The new housing should be sited elsewhere.
A useful way of spotting a conclusion is that it may well be a statement of necessity, saying what must or should
happen. It may well be framed to persuade the other person to do something or make some decision.

Inference
– Between the conclusion and the premises are further statements which translate the premises into the conclusion.
This is the reasoning process, and in a formal argument uses careful logic (in informal arguments, emotional
reasoning and assumptive leaps may well be used).
A particular aspect of the logical argument is that inferential statements have true-false qualities — that is, they are
either true or false and nothing in between. Thus a sentence can contain many statements.
 If we stay here, we will not only get uncomfortable, we will also start to smell.
 There are other people interested in this car who will be here later.
 If we don’t do something, the peasants will revolt.
Inferential arguments seek to prove. Thus commands, explanations and other statements may not directly add to the
inference, although they may be a useful component of persuasion.
 Look at this. (command)
 The people are angry because we did not listen to them. (explanation)
 I hate it when cars don’t start. (emotion)

Implicit conclusion & implicit premise:

– An implicit conclusion is when the conclusion is not stated outright and the arguer assumes that you will know it.
– An implicit premise is when the premise is not stated outright and the arguer assumes that you will know it.

Based on the above fact generally, three types of Question were asked in UGC NET exam in the
logical reasoning section –
Statement & Assumption Test
Statement & Argument Test
Statement & Inference Test

How to solve –
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement:
The GOI has decided to pay compensation to the tune of Rs. 10 lakh to the family members of those who are killed in
major railway accidents.
Assumptions:
The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to compensation.
There may be a reduction in incidents of railway accidents in the near future.
(A) If the only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
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(E) If both I and II are implicit.

If you consider the statement given that Gov of India has decided to pay 10 lakh compensation for railway accidents
that means it must have been discussed in minister councils and subsequently rules has been provisioned after
considering the amount that might need to allocate for this fund.
Means- The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to compensation.
However, The no of train incidents are unpredictable and this cant guarantee that there will be a reduction in incidents
of railway accidents in the near future.
Hence – the only assumption I is implicit

These type of Question are commonly asked you need to give attention to details. You might not able
to identify that given assumption is implicit or not in the first few attempts however one you
practise more questions based on the same pattern you will be able to identify them.

Statement & Argument Test

Paper Pattern – Questions are givens with the statement and you need to identify which of
argument is strong & week

How to solve –
Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Answer:
* (A) If only argument I is strong
* (B) If only argument II is strong
* (C) If either I or II is strong
* (D) If neither I nor II is strong and
* (E) If both I and II are strong.
Usually, in these questions, a statement is given which is followed by two arguments. An individual is required to
differentiate between strong and weak arguments.
You will see many different types of questions in this section. Usually, confusing questions will be asked.
The arguments that will be provided will generally be contrary to each other.
You have to choose the strong argument which satisfies the Statement.

Example 1-
Statement: Should taxes on colour television be further increased?
Arguments:
 Yes, Colour television is a luxury item and only rich people buy them.
 No, Televisions are bought by the poor too.
1. Only argument I is strong
2. Only argument II is strong
3. Either I or II is strong
4. Neither I nor II is strong
5. Both I and II are strong
Answer: Option 4

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Explanation: Taxes on an item cannot be increased or decreased based on the financial position of the people who
buy it. So, both arguments I and II do not hold strong.

Example 2-
Statement: Should India become a permanent member of the UN’s Security Council?
Arguments:
 Yes. India has emerged as a country which loves peace and amity.
 No. Let us first solve the problems of our people like poverty, malnutrition.
1. Only argument I is strong
2. Only argument II is strong
3. Either I or II is strong
4. Neither I nor II is strong
5. Both I and II are strong
Answer: Option 1
Explaination:- A peace-loving nation like India can well join an international forum which seeks to bring different
nations on friendly terms with each other. So, the argument I hold strong. Argument II highlights a different aspect.
The internal problems of a nation should not debar it from strengthening international ties. So, argument II is vague.

Statement & Inference Test

Paper Pattern – Questions are givens with the statement and you need to identify which of
inference/Conclusion is correct.

How to solve –
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume
everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically
follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statements:
The government has spoiled many top-ranking financial institutions by appointing bureaucrats as Directors of these
institutions.
Conclusions:
 The government should appoint Directors of the financial institutes taking into consideration the expertise of
the person in the area of finance.
 The Director of the financial institutions should have expertise commensurate with the financial work carried
out by the institute.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Answer: Option E
Explanation: According to the statement, the Government has spoiled financial institutions by the appointing
bureaucrats as Directors. This means that only those persons should be appointed as Directors who are experts in
finance and are acquainted with the financial work of the institute. So, both I and II follow.

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Statement: Should an organization like UNO be dissolved?

Arguments:
 Yes. With cold war coming to an end, such organizations have no role to play
 No, In the absence of such organizations there may be a world war.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: Option B
Explanation: An organization like UNO is meant to maintain peace all over and will always serve to prevent conflicts
between countries. So, its role never ends. So, the argument I do not hold. Also, lack of such an organization may in
future lead to increased mutual conflicts and international wars, on account of lack of a common platform for mutual
discussions. So, argument II holds.

The Difference Between Deductive and Inductive Reasoning

First, both deduction and induction are ways to learn more about the world and to convince others about the truth of
those leanings. None of these terms would mean anything or are useful to anyone if they weren’t used to do
something useful, like determining who
committed a crime, or how many planets might harbor life in the Milky Way galaxy. Induction and Deduction help us
deal with real world problems.
“The biggest difference between deductive and inductive reasoning is that deductive reasoning starts with a statement
or hypothesis and then tests to see if it’s true through observation, where inductive reasoning starts with observations
and moves backward towards generalizations and theories.”
Key Points
 Deduction moves from idea to observation, while induction moves from observation to idea.
 Deduction moves from more general to more specific, while induction moves from more specific to more
general.
 Deductive arguments have unassailable conclusions assuming all the premises are true, but inductive
arguments simply have some measure of probability that the argument is true—based on the strength of the
argument and the evidence to support it.
“ All men are mortal. Harold is a man. Therefore, Harold is mortal.”

Deduction
I have a bag of many coins, and I’ve pulled 10 at random and they’ve all been pennies, therefore this is probably a
bag full of pennies.

Induction
This gives some measure of support for the argument that the bag only has pennies in it, but it’s not complete support
like we see with deduction.

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 Deduction has theories that predict an outcome, which are tested by experiments. Induction makes
observations that lead to generalizations for how that thing works.
 If the premises are true in deduction, the conclusion is definitely true. If the premises are true in induction, the
conclusion is probably true.
 Deduction is hard to use in everyday life because it requires a sequential set of facts that are known to be true.
Induction is used all the time in everyday life because most of the world is based on partial knowledge,
probabilities, and the usefulness of a theory as opposed to its absolute validity.
 Deduction is more precise and quantitative, while induction is more general and qualitative.
What is Analogies
 ‘Analogy’ means ‘correspondence’ or ‘Similar items’. In other words, we can say the similarity or similar relation
existence between the given subject.
 In analogy based question section, you will find that a particular relationship is given and another similar
relationship has to identify from the alternatives provided.
 Analogy based tests are meant to test a candidate’s overall knowledge, power of verbal reasoning and ability
to think concisely and accurately. There is three types of Analogy-
 Number Analogy
 Letter Analogy
 Word Analogy

Number Analogy
The candidates are asked to identify and point out relationships, similarities or differences, and dissimilarities in a
series or between groups of numbers.
In most of the cases relationships between the numbers in a given pair can be any of the following:
 One number is a multiple of the other.
 One number is the square or square root of the other.
 One number is the cube or cube root of the other.
 The two numbers can be consecutive, even, odd or prime numbers.
Understanding Number Analogy is a crucial step in solving questions on reasoning ability. The reasoning ability is
checked mainly by the questions related to Number Analogy.

Examples based on Number Analogy

#1 What number will follow the given series of numbers: 3, 6, 11, __ _?
1. 13
2. 16
3. 18
4. 22
The missing term is = 4 x 2 + 2 = 18. Hence the answer is 18.

#2 121 : 12 : : 25 : ?
The relationship is x2 : (x + 1).

Letter Analogy

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The questions based on letter analogy are similar to number analogy. Here, the questions are based on the
relationship between two groups of letters on each side of the sign : :
Normally, three pairs of letters are given followed by a question mark where the fourth pair of letters is supposed to
come.

Examples based on Letter Analogy

#1 Find the missing term : YWZX : USVT : : MKNL : ?

(a) IGGH (b) IGJH (c) IGJJ (d) IGHH
Alphabets are used in reverse order. In the first term, the order of alphabet is 2, 4, 1 and 3 and in the second term, the
order is 6, 8, 5 and 7. So, the missing term is IGJH.

#2 ? : I K M O : : Q S U W : YA C E
(a) ACEG (b) ADEG (c) ACDG (d) ADDG
In each group, one letter is skipped between every two consecutive letters. So, the missing term will be ACEG.

Word Analogy
In word analogy questions there is a certain relationship between the two given words on one side of and one word is
given on the other side.
Students are asked to find the correct alternative that has same relationship with that word.
There are many possibilities in establishing a relationship. Here are some useful points on the basic knowledge
required for the test.
Tool and Action
Worker and Working Place (Eg: Farmer : Field : : Doctor : Hospital)
Worker and Product (Eg: Carpenter : Furniture : : Mason : Wall)
Quantity and Unit (Eg: Length : Metre : : Distance : Light Year)
Instrument and Measurement
Study and Topic (Eg: Botany : Plants : : Ornithology : Birds)
Word and Antonym
Person and field
Book & author

Examples based on Word Analogy

#1 Sailor : Ship : : Lawyer : ?

(a) Legal (b) Law (c) Court (d) Ruling
‘Sailor’ works at ‘Ship’, similarly ‘Lawyer’ works at ‘Court’.

#2 Love : Hate : : Create : ?

(a) Make (b) Renovate (c) Destroy (d) Building
Solution.(c) ‘Hate’ is just opposite of ‘Love’. Similarly, ‘Destroy’ is just opposite of ‘Create’.

#3 In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Book : Publisher : : Film ; ?
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(a)Writer (b) Editor (c) Director (d) Producer

#4 Current is related to Ampere in the same way as Weight is related to

1. Measurement
2. Commodity
3. Pound
4. Scale E. None of these
Current is measured in terms of Ampere and Weight is measured in terms of Pound.

#5 Fish is related to Water in the same way as Bird is related to

1. Water
2. Sky
3. Food
4. Air
5. None of these
Fish swims in Water and Bird flies in the Sky.

MCQ on Logical Reasoning

1.Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave
mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.
(1) Mathematical
(2) Psychological
(3) Analogical
(4) Deductive
Answer:3

2.Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states
validity drawn conclusion (s) (taking the premises individually or jointly). Premises:
(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.
(B) Most of the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.
(b) Most of the dancers are singers.
(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.
(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.
Code:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (d) and (a)
Answer:2

3. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?

(1) Law of identity
(2) Unchangeability in nature
(3) Harmony in nature
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(4) Uniformity of nature

Answer:4

4. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following
proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.
(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.
Code:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) only
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b) only
Answer:1

5. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?
(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.
(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
Answer:3

6. It is Truism to say that no one was there when life first appeared on earth. Any assertion about life’s origin
thus, should be treated as a theory. The above two statements constitute:
(1) A narrative
(2) An argument
(3) A conjecture
(4) A historical explanation
Answer:2

7. Given below are four statements. Among them, two are related in such a way that they can both be true but
they cannot both be false. Select the code that indicates those two statements:
Statements:
(a) Honest people never suffer.
(b) Almost all honest people do suffer.
(c) Honest people hardly suffer.
(d) Each and every honest person suffers. Code:
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (b)
Answer:3

8. A deductive argument is invalid if:

(a) Its premises and conclusion are all false
(b) Its premises are all false but its conclusion is true.
(c) Its premises are all true but its conclusion is false.
(d) Its premises and conclusion are all true.
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Answer:3

9. Given below are two premises (a and b), from those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are
drawn. Select the code that states the conclusion/conclusions drawn validity (taking the premises singularly or
jointly).
Premises:
(a) All bats are mammals
(b) No birds are bats
Conclusion:
(i) No birds are mammals
(ii) Some birds are not mammals
(iii) No bats are birds
(iv) All mammals are bats
Code:
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (iii) only
(3) (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (i) only
Answer:2

10. Just melting ice-cubes do not change a glass of water to overflow. Melting sea – ice does not increase
change volume. What type of argument is it?
(1) Hypothetical
(2) Psychological
(3) Statistical
(4) Analogical
Answer:4

11.Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not of
deductive reasoning:
(1) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.
(2) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.
(3) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.
(4) The argument may be valid or invalid.
Answer:1

12. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343, … is
(1) 30
(2) 49
(3) 125
(4) 81
Answer:3

13. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered inferior or superior
to the other, any more than a bird’s wings can be considered superior or inferior to a fish’s fins.
What type of argument it is ?
(1) Biological
(2) Physiological
(3) Analogical
(4) Hypothetical
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Answer:3

14. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be true but can both be
false. Select the code that states those two propositions.
Propositions:
(a) Every student is attentive.
(b) Some students are attentive.
(c) Students are never attentive.
(d) Some students are not attentive.
Codes:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)
Answer:3

15. Given below are two premises ((a) and (b)). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are
drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises (taking singly or jointly.)
Premises:
(a) Untouchability is a curse.
(b) All hot pans are untouchable.
Conclusions:
(i) All hot pans are curse.
(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.
(iii) All curses are untouchability.
(iv) Some curses are untouchability.
Codes:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:4

16. If the statement ‘None but the brave wins the race’ is false which of the following statements can be
claimed to be true?
Select the correct code:
(1) All brave persons win the race.
(2) Some persons who win the race are not brave.
(3) Some persons who win the race are brave.
(4) No person who wins the race is brave.
Answer:2

17. Among the following propositions, two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which
are those propositions? Select the correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All women are equal to men
(b) Some women are equal to men
(c) Some women are not equal to men
(d) No women are equal to men
Codes:
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(1) (a)and(b)
(2) (a)and(d)
(3) (c)and(d)
4) (a)and(c)
Answer:4

18. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to
be true ?
Propositions:
(1) Some thieves are poor.
2) Some thieves are not poor.
(3) No thief is poor.
(4) No poor person is a thief.
Answer:2

19. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it:
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the in_nite space is as absurd as to assert that in an
entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
(1) Astronomical
(2) Anthropological
(3) Deductive
(4) Analogical
Answer:4

20. Select the code which is not correct about Venn diagram:
(1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(2) It can provide clear method of notation.
(3) It can be either valid or invalid.
(4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
Answer:3

21. Select the code which is not correct in the context of a deductive argument with two premises:
(1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.
(2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be valid.
(4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
Answer:2

22. Given below are two premises and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together).
Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn.
Premises:(i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusions :(a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes:
(1) (a),(b),(c)and(d)
(2) (a)only
(3) (a) and (c) only
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(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer:3

23. Consider the argument given below ;

‘Pre-employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors; architects and engineers who are now
employed had to face such a testing.’
What type of argument it is ?
(1) Deductive
(2) Analogical
(3) Psychological
(4) Biological
Answer:2

24. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way thai, they can both be true although they
cannot both be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code.
Propositions :
(a) Some priests are cunning.
(b) No priest is cunning.
(c) All priests are cunning.
(d) Some priests are not cunning.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a) and (d)
Answer:4

25. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called :
(1) An inference
(2) An argument
(3) An explanation
(4) A valid argument
Answer:2

26. Consider the following assertion (A)and reason (R) and select the correct code given below :
(A) : No man is perfect.
(R) : Some men are not perfect.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer:1

27. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called :
(1) Lexical
(2) Precising
(3) Stipulative
(4) Persuasive
Answer:3

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28. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/ propositions can
be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions :
(1) All men are honest
(2) Some men are honest
(3) Some men are not honest
(4) No honest person is man
Answer:2

29. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the
type:
(1) Inductive
(2) Deductive
(3) Demonstrative
(4) Physiological
Answer:1

30. A deductive argument is invalid if:

(1) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(2) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(3) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
(4) Its premises and conclusions are all true
Answer:2

31. Inductive reasoning is grounded on :

(1) Integrity of nature
(2) Unity of nature
(3) Uniformity of nature
(4) Harmony of nature
Answer:3

32. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents
them :
Statements :
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes :
(1) (a)and(b)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (b) and (c)
Answer:3

33. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Select the code :
Statements :
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
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(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.

(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
Answer:2

34. When the purpose of a de_nition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition is called:
(1) Stipulative
(2) Theoretical
(3) Lexical
(4) Persuasive
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer:3

35. “A man ought no more to value himself for being wiser than a woman if he owes his advantage to a better
education than he ought to boast of his courage for beating a man when his hands were tied.”
The above passage is an instance of
(1) Deductive argument
(2) Hypothetical argument
(3) Analogical argument
(4) Factual argument
Answer:3

36.By which of the following proposition, the proposition wise men are hardly afraid death is contradicted?
(1) Some wise men are afraid of death.
(2) All wise men are afraid of death.
(3) No wise men is afraid of death.
(4) Some wise men are not afraid of death.
Answer:2

37. When in a group of propositions, one proposition is claimed to follow from the others, the group of
propositions is called
(A) An argument
(B) A valid argument
(C) An explanation
(D) An invalid argument
Answer:A

38. Namita and Samita are brilliant and studious. Anita and Karabi are obedient and irregular Babita and
Namita are irregular but brilliant. Samita and Kabita are regular and obedient. Who among them is/are brilliant,
obedient, regular and studious?
(A) Samita alone
(B) Namita and Samita
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(C) Kabita alone

(D) Anita alone
Answer:A

39. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but can not both be false,
the relation between those two propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) sub-contrary
(D) subaltern
Answer:C

40. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written?
(A) 32
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 38
Answer:A

41. “If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of
soldiers, it loses its strength.” The argument put above may be called as
A) Analogical
(B) Deductive
(C) Statistical
(D) Causal
Answer:A

42. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic
which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C)The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.
Answer:C

43. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that
expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions:
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
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Answer:C

44. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other,
the relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation
Answer:A

45. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does.
Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi.
Who can speak and follow English, Hindi, and Bengali?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna
Answer:C

46. A stipulative definition may be said to be

(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false
(D) Neither true nor false
Answer:D

47. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument
Answer:C

48. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the
Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is. What type of argument
is contained in the above passage?
(A) Deductive
(B) Astrological
C) Analogical
(D) Mathematical
Answer:C

49. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes.
Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All saints are religious, (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
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(C) Some honest persons are religious.

(D) All religious persons are honest
Answer:C

50. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true
Choose the correct code given below
(i) All men are honest
(ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest
(iv) All men are dishonest
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)
Answer:B

51. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question Bee – Honey, Cow – Milk,
Teacher–?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D) Wisdom
Answer:D

52. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P, If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to
T?
(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law
Answer:B

53. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(A)Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D)Precisions
Answer:B

54. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) &(iv)
(C) (ii) (iii)& (iv)
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(D) (i) (iii) &(iv)

Answer:B

55. Inductive reasoning presupposes

(A) Unity in human nature
(B) Integrity in human nature
(C) Uniformity in human nature
(D) Harmony in human nature
Answer:C

56. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted?
(A) All men are honest.
(B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:A

57. A stipulative definition is

(A) always true
(B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes false
(D) neither true nor false
Answer:D

58. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor–?
(A) Customer
(B) Path-Finder
(C) Perceiver
(D) Disciple
Answer:D

59 .If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of
statements can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.
Codes :
(A) I&II
(B) II & III
(C) III & IV
(D) II&IV
Answer:C

60. Choose the right code :

A deductive argument claims that :
I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
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IV If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.

Codes :
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) All the above
Answer:A

61. The basis of the following classification is :

‘First President of India’ ‘author of Godan’ ‘books in my library’, ‘blue things’ and ‘students who work hard’
(A) Common names
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Indefinite description
Answer:C

62. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is
(A) antisymmetric
(B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive
(D) irreflexive
Answer:D

63. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed
than ever before.
Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below :
(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:A

64. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is correct?
Choose from the code given below :
1. “All men are mortal” is true.
2. “Some men are mortal” is false.
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
4. “All men are mortal” is false.
Code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Answer:B

65. Determine the nature of the following

definition : “Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.
(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
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(C) Stipulative
(D) Theoretical
Answer:B

66. Which one of the following is not an argument?

(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.
Answer:B

67. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to

(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
Answer:A

68. Reasoning by analogy leads to

(A) certainty
(B) definite conclusion
(C) predictive conjecture
(D) surety
Answer:C

69. Which of the following statements are false? Choose from the code given below :
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.
Code :
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Answer:C

70. Six persons A, B, C, D, E, and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to
the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
Answer:C

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Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

Prepared by

Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)

(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)

(NET- Management- 1Time)

DATA INTERPRETATION

Data Sources & acquisition

Data can be defined as the quantitative or qualitative values of a variable. Data is plural of
datum which literally means to give or something given. Data is thought to be the lowest
unit of information from which other measurements and analysis can be done.
Data can be numbers, images, words, figures, facts or ideas. Data in itself cannot be
understood and to get information from the data one must interpret it into meaningful
information. There are various methods of interpreting data.

Data sources are broadly classified into primary and secondary data.
Data collection plays a very crucial role in the statistical analysis. In research, there are
different methods used to gather information, all of which fall into two categories, i.e.
primary and secondary data (Douglas, 2015).
As the name suggests, primary data is one which is collected for the first time by the
researcher while secondary data is the data already collected or produced by others.
There are many differences between primary and secondary data, which are discussed in
this work. But the most important difference is that—
• primary data is factual and original whereas secondary data is just the analysis and
interpretation of the primary data.
• While primary data is collected with an aim for getting a solution to the problem at
hand, secondary data is collected for other purposes.
• The fundamental differences between primary and secondary data are; the term
primary data refers to the data originated by the researcher for the first time while
secondary data is the already existing data collected by the investigator agencies
and organizations earlier.

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• Primary data sources include surveys, observations, experiments, questionnaire,

personal interview etc. on the other contrary, secondary data collection sources are
government publications, websites, books, journal articles, internal records etc.

PRIMARY DATA
Primary data means original data that has been collected specially for the purpose in mind.
It means Data collected this way is called primary data. Primary data has not been
published yet and is more reliable, authentic and objective. Primary data has not been
changed or altered by human beings; therefore, its validity is greater than secondary data.

SECONDARY DATA
Secondary data is the data that has been already collected by and readily available from
other sources. When we use Statistical Method with Primary Data from another purpose for
our purpose we refer to it as Secondary Data. It means that one purposes Primary Data is
another purposes Secondary Data. So that secondary data is data that is being reused.
Such data are more quickly obtainable than the primary data.
These secondary data may be obtained from many sources, including literature, industry
surveys, compilations from computerized databases and information systems, and
computerized or mathematical models of environmental processes.

DATA ACQUISITION
Data is one of the most important and vital aspect of any research studies. Researchers
conducted in different fields of study can be different in methodology but every research is
based on data which is analyzed and interpreted to get information. Data is the basic unit in
statistical studies. Statistical information like census, population variables, health statistics,
and road accidents records are all developed from data.
There are two sources of data collection techniques. Primary and Secondary data collection
techniques, Primary data collection uses surveys, experiments or direct observations.
Secondary data collection may be conducted by collecting information from a diverse source
of documents or electronically stored information, census and market studies are examples
of a common sources of secondary data. This is also referred to as “data mining.”

Survey-
Survey is most commonly used method in social sciences, management, marketing and
psychology to some extent. Surveys can be conducted in different methods.

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Questionnaire-
Questionnaire is the most commonly used method in survey. Questionnaires are a list of
questions either an open-ended or close -ended for which the respondent give answers.
Questionnaire can be conducted via telephone, mail, live in a public area, or in an institute,
through electronic mail or

Interview-
Interview is a face-to-face conversation with the respondent. It is slow, expensive, and they
take people away from their regular jobs, but they allow in-depth questioning and follow-up
questions.

Observations-
Observations can be done while letting the observing person know that he is being observed
or without letting him know. Observations can also be made in natural settings as well as in
artificially created environment.

Published Printed Sources

There are varieties of published printed sources. Their credibility depends on many factors.
For example, on the writer, publishing company and time and date when published. New
sources are preferred and old sources should be avoided as new technology and researches
bring new facts into light.
Books
Books are available today on any topic that you want to research. The uses of books start
before even you have selected the topic. After selection of topics books provide insight on
how much work has already been done on the same topic and you can prepare your
literature review. Books are secondary source but most authentic one in secondary sources.

Journals/periodicals
Journals and periodicals are becoming more important as far as data collection is
concerned. The reason is that journals provide up-to-date information which at times books
cannot and secondly, journals can give information on the very specific topic on which you
are researching rather talking about more general topics.

Magazines/Newspapers

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Magazines are also effective but not very reliable. Newspaper, on the other hand, is more
reliable and in some cases, the information can only be obtained from newspapers as in the
case of some political studies.

Published Electronic Sources

As internet is becoming more advance, fast and reachable to the masses; it has been seen
that much information that is not available in printed form is available on internet. In the
past the credibility of internet was questionable but today it is not.
The reasons that in the past journals and books were seldom published on internet but
today almost every journal and book is available online. Some are free and for others you
have to pay the price.

E-journals: e-journals are more commonly available than printed journals. Latest journals
are difficult to retrieve without a subscription but if your university has an e-library you can
view any journal, print it and those that are not available you can make an order for them.
General Websites; Generally, websites do not contain very reliable information so their
content should be checked for the reliability before quoting from them.

Weblogs: Weblogs are also becoming common. They are actually diaries written by
different people. These diaries are as reliable to use as personal written diaries.

Classification of Data
Data classification is the process of organizing data into categories for its most effective
and efficient use. Classification is the way of arranging the data in different classes in order
to give a definite form and a coherent structure to the data collected, facilitating their use in
the most systematic and effective manner. It is the process of grouping the statistical data
under various understandable homogeneous groups for the purpose of convenient
interpretation.
There are three different approaches are the industry standard for data classification:
• Content-based classification
• Context-based classification
• User-based classification

Objectives of classification of data:

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• To group heterogeneous data under the homogeneous group of common

characteristics;
• To facility similarity of the various group;
• To facilitate effective comparison;
• To present complex, haphazard and scattered dates in a concise, logical,
homogeneous, and intelligible form;
• To maintain clarity and simplicity of complex data;
• To identify independent and dependent variables and establish their relationship;
• To establish a cohesive nature for the diverse data for effective and logical analysis;
• To make logical and effective quantification

A good classification should have the characteristics of clarity, homogeneity, and equality of
scale, purposefulness, accuracy, stability, flexibility, and unambiguity.

Quantitative and Qualitative Data

Quantitative data are anything that can be expressed as a number, or quantified. Examples
of quantitative data are scores on achievement tests, the number of hours of study, or
weight of a subject. These data may be represented by ordinal, interval or ratio scales and
lend themselves to most statistical manipulation.
Qualitative data cannot be expressed as a number. Data that represent nominal scales such
as gender, social economic status, religious preference are usually considered to be
qualitative data.

Tricks to Crack Data Interpretation

➢ The aim is to test not only quantitative skill but also relative, comparative and
analytical ability.
➢ The crux of the matter is to find a relationship between the two tables or graphs
before attempting the questions.
➢ Data Interpretation questions are based on information given in tables and graphs.
These questions test your ability to interpret the information presented and to select
the appropriate data for answering a question
➢ Get a general picture of the information before reading the question.

© GSIP- Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared by Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb:- 8368060636

➢ Avoid lengthy calculations generally, data interpretation questions do not require to

do extensive calculations and computations. Most questions simply require reading
the data correctly and carefully.
➢ Breakdown lengthy questions into smaller parts and eliminate impossible choices.
➢ Answer the questions asked and not what you think the questions should be.
➢ Tables are often used in reports, magazines and newspaper to present a set of
numerical facts.

© GSIP- Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Data Interpretation: Set-1
Directions for Question 1 to 3: Refer to the following Bar
Bar-chart
chart and answer the
questions that follow:

Question 1: What is the average value of the contract secured during the years
shown in the diagram?
(a) Rs. 103.48 crore
(b) Rs. 105 crore
(c) Rs. 100 crore
(d) Rs.125.2 crore
Question 2: Compared to the performance in 1985 (i.e. taking it as the base), what
can you say about the performances iin
n the years ’84, ’85, ’86, ’87, ’88
respectively, in percentage terms?
(a) 150, 100, 211, 216, 97
(b) 100, 67, 141, 144, 65
(c) 150, 100, 200, 215, 100
(d) 120, 100, 220, 230, 68
Question 3: Which is the year in which the highest percentage decline is seen in
the value of contract secured compared to the preceding year?
(a) 1985
(b) 1988
(c) 1984
(d) 1986
View Explanation
 Answer 1: a
(100.5 + 67 + 141 + 143.9 + 65)/5 = 103.48
Answer 2: a
As we see the table we see that the performance of only year i.e. 88 is less than the
year 85. Hence the percentage corresponding to 1988 should be less than 100. Thus
we see that (c) cannot be the answer.
Also (b) cannot be the answer as it shows two of tthe
he years having less than 100%.
Between options (a) and (d), the correct answer is (a). This is because the difference
between the 1985 and 1988 performance is only 2 units on 67 units. Hence percentage-
percentage
wise, it has to be 97% and not 68%.
Answer 3: b
The highest
ighest percentage decrease over the previous year is in year 1988 as in the table ,
and the performance is almost half than that of the previous year. Such a decrease is
not seen in any other year, so the right answer is b

Data Interpretation: Set-2

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 5

The table below shows the estimated cost (in Rs. Lakh) of a project of laying a
railway line between two places.

Question 1: The total expenditure is req

required
uired to be kept within Rs. 700 lakh by
cutting the expenditure on administration equally in all the years. What will be the
percentage cut for 1989?
(a) 22.6
(b) 32.6
(c) 42.5
(d) 52.6
Question 2: If the length of line to be laid each year is in proportion to the estimated cost
for material and labour, what fraction of the total length is proposed to be completed by
the third year?
(a) 0.9
(b) 0.7
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.3

Question 3: What is the approximate ratio of the total cost of materials for all the
years bear to the total labour cost?
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 8 : 1
(c) 12:1
(d) 16 : 1
Question 4: If the cost of materials rises by 5% each year from 1990 onwards, by
how much will the estimated cost rise?
(a) Rs. 11.4 lakh
(b) Rs. 16.4 lakh
(c) Rs.21.4 lakh
(d) Rs.26.4 lakh
Question 5: It is found at the end of 1990, that the entire amount estimated for the
project has been spent. If for 1991, the actual amount spent was equal to that
which was estimated, by what percent (approximately) has the actual expenditure
exceeded the estimated expenditure?
(a) 39
(b) 29
(c) 19
(d) 9
View Explanation
Answer 1: c
Total expenditure = 52.1+267.5+196.4+209.5 = 725.5 lakhs.
If it has to be kept within 700 lakhs, the expenditures has to reduce by 25.5 laks.
So the expenditure reduced each year will be (25.5/4) = 6.375 lakhs.
Hence, percentage reduce for 1989 would be = (6.375/15) × 100 = 42.5%.
 Answer 2: b
Costs of material and labor
1988 = 2.1
1989 = 95+70+15+25+25 = 230
1990 = 80+45+12+18+20 = 175
1991 = 75+60+16+21+18 = 190
Therefore proportion of these expenditures till 1990 = (2.1 + 230 + 175) / (2.1 + 230 +
175 + 190) = 0.6817.
This will also be the fraction of the total length of the line.
Answer 3: b
Total material cost = (95+80+75+70+45+60+15+12+16+25+18+21) = 532
Total labour cost = (2.1+25+20+18) = 65.1
Therefore the ratio = 532 : 65.1 = 8 : 1 (approximately)
Answer 4: b
The costs that can be taken under the head “Materials” are : Cement, steel, Bricks and
Other building materials.
The estimated cost in 1990 = 80 + 45 + 12 + 18 = 155
The estimated cost in 1991 = 75 + 60 + 16 + 21 = 172
Cost of material rises by 5%,
Cost would rise by 0.05X (155 + 172) = Rs.16.35 lakhs.
Answer 5: b
Amount spent till 1990 = Rs.725.5 lakhs
Estimated Expenditure for 1991 = 209.5 lakhs.
Hence the increase in expenditure will be 209.5 on 725.5 = 28.87%.

Data Interpretation: Set-3

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0

Directions for Question 1 to 4: The following graph shows the value of liquor
supplied by the 5 states in 1996 and the excise duty rates in each state.
Amount of liquor supplied in Tamil Nadu Distilleries A, B, C, D, E (from bottom to top) in
lakh litres.

1. What is the lowest percentage difference in the excise duty rates for any two states?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) Cannot be determined.

2. Which of the five states manufactured liquor at the lowest cost?

(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Delhi
(c) The states which has the lowest value for (wholesale price-Excise duty) per litre
(d) Cannot be determined.

3. If Excise duty is levied before the goods leave the factory (on the value of the liquor),
then which of the following choices shows distilleries in ascending order of the excise
duty paid by them for the year 1996? (Assume the total liquor in TN is supplied by only
these 5 distilleries).
(a) ECABD
(b) ADEBC
(c) DCEBA
(d) Cannot be determined.

4. If the Tamil Nadu distillery, with the least average simple annual growth in amount of
liquor supplied in the given period had shown the same rate of growth as the one which
grew fastest, what would that company’s supply have been in 1998, in lakh liters?
(a) 13
(b) 15.11
(c) 130
(d) Cannot be determined.

View Explanation
1. d
Since we don’t know the excise duty of the other states, we cannot find the answers. So
the answer of the question is option (d)

2. d
Here also the total value is given but nothing is mentioned about the amount of liquor
manufactured by states other than Tamil Nadu. So the answer for the question is option
(d)

3. c
Since Excise duty is collected on the total value of liquor produced by the 5 distilleries,
this will be in the same order as the order of the amount of the liquor produced by them
(as the excise duty rate remains constant). Hence the correct order is DCEBA.

4. b The simple average annual growth for the 5 distilleries in Tamil Nadu is as shown :
 Distillery with highest growth rate is C
Distillery with lowest growth rate is E.
E grown by 313.41% in the 2 year period
So overall its supply in 1998 would be (2.45 x 616.82 /100) = 15.11 liters.

Data Interpretation: Set-4

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0

Directions for the questions from 1 to 5: The following table gives the national
income and the population of a country for the years 1984 – 85 to 1989 – 90. For
each o the following questions choose the best alternative:

1. The increase in the per capita income compared to the previous year is lowest for the
year :
(a) 1985-86
(b) 1986-87
(c) 1987-88
(d) 1989-90

2. The per capita income is highest for the year :

(a) 1984-85
(b) 1985-86
(c) 1987-88
(d) 1989-90

3. The difference between the percentage increase in per capita income and the
percentage increase in the population compared to the previous year is highest for the
year:
(a) 1985-86
(b) 1986-87
(c) 1987-88
(d) 1988-89

4. The rate of increase in population was lowest in the year:

(a) 1985-86
(b) 1987-88
(c) 1989-90
(d) None of these

5. Increase in the per capita income compared to the previous year among the years
given below was highest for the year:
(a) 1985-86
(b) 1986-87
(c) 1987-88
(d) 1989-90

View Explanation
1. (b)
 The increase is lowest for the year 1986 – 87 = Rs. 304 .12

2. (d)
Per Capita Income=(National Income) / (Population)

Per Capita Income is highest for the yea

year 1989 – 90 = (433,500/81.5)=5319
3. (d)

Hence it is highest for the year 1988

1988-89 viz.13.65
4. (a)
From the table given for Q3, the rate of increase of population is lowest for the year
1985- 86 i.e 1.35%

5. (d)
From the table given for Q.3, the increase in per capita income compared to previous
year is highest for the year 1989
1989-90.

Data Interpretation: Set-5

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0
The graph below shows the end of the month market values of 4 sh
shares
ares for the
period from January to June. Answer the following questions based on this
graph.

Question 1: Which share showed the greatest percentage increase in market value in
any month during the entire period?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Question 2: In which month was the greatest absolute change in market value for any
share recorded?
(a) March
(b) April
(c) May
(d) June

Question 3: In which month was the greatest percentage increase in market value for
any share recorded?
(a) February
(b) March
(c) April
(d) May
Question 4: An individual wishes to sell 1 share of C and 1 share of D to buy 1 share of
A at the end of a month. At which month
month-end
end would the individual’s loss from this
decision, due to share value changes, be the most?
(a) February
(b) March
(c) April
(d) June

Question 5: An individual decides to sell 1 share of C and 1 share of D to buy 1 share of

A at the end of the month. What can be the individual’s greatest gain from this decision,
due to share value changes?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) none

View Explanation
Answer 1: d
From the table we clearly seen that highest % increase is for D in Feb. i.e 25%

Answer 2: a
The greatest absolute change in the market value is 20
i.e. In the month of March the share of A = 115 – 95 = 20

Answer 3: a
The greatest percentage change in any share was recorded for share D for the month of
February viz. 25%
 Answer 4: d

Due to share value changes the maximum loss is 10 for the month of June.
Hence the answer is (d).

Answer 5: a
From the above table again we can see that the individual’s highest gain is
i Rs.5.

Data Interpretation: Set-6

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0

Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.

Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending
them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use
test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends
send 20% of the
bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad
ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25
per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer’s en
end
d and penalty of Rs. 50
per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.

Question 1: Prakash should not test if the number of bad widgets in the lot is:
(a) less than 100
(b) more than 200
(c) between 120 & 190
(d) Cannot be found out.
Question 2: If there are 120 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash:
(a) should either use Test I or not test.
(b) should either use Test II or not test.
(c) should use Test I or Test II.
(d) should use Test I only.

Question 3: If the number of defective widgets in the lot is between 200 and 400,
Prakash:
(a) may use Test I or Test II
(b) should use Test I only.
(c) should use Test II only
(d) cannot decide.

Question 4: If Prakash is told that the lot has 160 defective widgets, he should:
(a) use Test I only
(b) use Test II only.
(c) do no testing.
(d) either use Test I or do not test.

Question 5: If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash:

(a) may use either Test I or Test II
(b) should use Test I or not use any test
(c) should use Test II or not use any test.
(d) cannot decide.

View Explanation
Answer 1: a
Total number of batches = 1000
Let p be the total number of bad widgets
Therefore the total number of good ones will be (1000 –p).
On test I his total cost will be = Rs.2 (1000) + 25 x 0.8p + 50 x 0.2p
On test 2 his total cost will be = Rs. 3(1000) + 25 x p
Now, it will be worth testing if the cost of testing is less than the cost of penalty levied on
the defective pieces. Let us check all the choices:
 Above 100 defectives cost is cheaper than the penalty.
But for 100 defectivess the cost of penalty is the same as that for testing.
Therefore we come to this conclusion that below 100 defectives, the penalty will be less
than the cost of testing and hence it is not worth testing.

Answer 2: d
If there are 120 widgets, he should go ffor test I as it is cheaper.

Answer 3: c
From the table we can say that if the number of defectives is between 200 & 400, he
should go for Test II as it is cheaper.

Answer 4: a
In case of 160 defectives he should use test I as it is cheaper.

Answer 5: a
As the cost of both the Tests is same = Rs.8000.
Prakash may use either Test I or Test II for 200 widgets

Data Interpretation: Set-7

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 1

Study the following graph and answer questions that follow. The x – axis denotes
the years from 1983 to 1991.
Question 1: The sum of food and fertilizer production has shown a constant value for
how many years?
(a) None of the years
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5

Question 2: If in 1988, the sum of the food and fertilizer production was 170 million
tonnes, the value of food production must have been (approximately, in million tones) …
(a) 90
(b) 70
(c) 100
(d) Insufficient data

Question 3: From its apparent behavior

behavior,, the food production in year 1992 can be
expected to …
(a) go up
(b) go down
(c) remain the same as previous year.
(d) nothing can be said.

Question 4: Going according to previous trends, one can say that the Fertilizer
Production has shown an anomalous b behavior in which year?
(a) 1985
(b) 1984
(c) 1991
(d) 1989

View Explanation
Since the values on the Y-axis
axis are not given, we assume arbitrary values on the Y-axis.
Y
We assume that Y-axis begins from 0 and has increments of 2 each. The table below is
tabulated on the basis of the above assumption.

Answer 1: d
From the table , between 1984 4 and 1988, the value of sum of the food and the fertilizer
is 17 which is constant for 5 years.

Answer 2: c
From the values, the production of fertilizer in 1988 is 7
And the production food is 10,
i.e. the sum of values is 17.
If the production corresponds to 170 million tones, then the food production should
correspond to 100 million tones.

Answer 3: b
There is alternate increase and decrease in the graph of food production shows an in
every 1 to 2 years. Hence by the graph of 1990 and 1991, it can be expected that the
graph will go down in 1992.
 Answer 4: d
For two consecutive years the graph for fertilizer production remains constant.
This trend in 1989 breaks as it has a value of 2 instead of 7 in this year.

Data Interpretation: Set-8

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0

Study the graph below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1: In which year is the profit per rupee of equity the highest?
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1993
(d) 1990 and 1991

Question 2: The simple annual growth rate in sales was the highest between the years?
(a) 1990 – 91
(b) 1991 – 92
(c) 1992 – 93
(d) 1990 – 92

Question 3: In which year are the sales per rupee of expenditure the lowest?
(a) 1990
 (b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993

Question 4: In which year is a sale per rupee of equity the highest?

(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1994

View Explanation

Answer 1: c
From the table It is clear that the profit per rupee of equity is highest for 1993 i.e. 0.51

Answer 2: c
The simple annual growth rate in sales is maximum for the year 1992-93 i.e. 20.75%

Answer 3: b
Sales per rupee of the expenditure are lowest for the year 1991 i.e. 1.04.

Answer 4: b
Sales per rupee of equity is highest for 1991 i.e. 11.5

Data Interpretation: Set-9

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0
Ghosh Babu has recently acquired four companies namely Arc – Net Technologies
(ANT), Babu Anta Transport (BAT), Charles Anter Tailor (CAT) and Daud Akbar
Transistors (DAT). When the results of the companies for the year 1992 – 93 were
placed before him. He found a few interesting things about them. While the profits of
CAT and DAT were the same, the sales of CAT were the same as those of BAT . Profits
of ANT were 10% of its sales, where as the profits of BAT were 20% of its sales. While
the total expenses of CAT were 5 times its profits, sales of DAT were 3 times its profits.
The total expenses of CAT were Rs. 10,00,000, the total expenses of ANT were 10%
less than those of CAT. Profits are defined as the difference between sales and total
expenses.

Question 1: Which company had the lowest sales?

(a) ANT
(b) BAT
(c) CAT
(d) DAT

Question 2: Which company had the highest total expenses?

(a) ANT
(b) BAT
(c) CAT
(d) DAT

Question 3: Which company had the lowest profits?

(a) ANT
(b) BAT
(c) CAT
(d) DAT

Question 4: Which company had the highest profits?

(a) ANT
(b) BAT
(c) CAT
(d) DAT

View Explanation
Let the profits gained by the companies CAT & DAT = x,
Let the sale of the company CAT & BAT = y
Let the sale of the company sales of ANT = z.
So we have

First the total expenses of CAT were Rs.

Rs.10 lakhs.
Therefore 5x = Rs.10 lakhs
or x = Rs.2 lakhs.
Also the difference between the total expenses of ANT and CAT = 10% = Rs.9 lakhs.
Therefore 0.9z = 9 lakhs
or z = 10 lakhs.
Since the Profit = Sales – Expenditure
And Sales = Expenditure + Profit
So ,6x
6x = 12 lakhs. Hence y = 12 lakhs.
So from the above information the table would be

Answer1: (d)
From the above table it can be seen that the company with the lowest sales is DAT i.e .
Rs.6 lakhs.

Answer 2: (c)
CAT had highest total expenses i.e. Rs. 10 lakhs.

Answer 3: (a)
ANT had lowest profits i.e. Rs. 1 lakh.

Answer 4: (b)
BAT had the highest profits i.e. Rs. 2.4 lakhs.
 Data Interpretation: Set-10
• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0

Study the graph below and answer the questions that follow.

Total Assets are defined as Net Fixed Assets + Net Current Assets + Investments

Question 1: What is the approxim

approximate
ate simple annual growth rate of Total Assets 1990
and 1993?
(a) 36%
(b) 12%
(c) 9%
(d) 27%

Question 2: In any two consecutive years, the growth rate is lowest for
(a) Net Fixed Assets.
(b) Net Current Assets.
(c) Investments.
(d) Total Assets.

Question 3: Between 1991 and 1992, the highest growth rate was seen for
(a) Net Fixed Assets
(b) Net Current Assets.
(c) Investments.
(d) Total Assets.

Question 4: The only item which has not shown a negative growth in every year
between 1990 and 1993 is
(a) Net Fixed Assets.
(b) Net Current Assets.
(c) Investments.
(d) Total Assets.

View Explanation

Answer 1: b
From the table we can see that the growth rate between 1990
1990-93
93 of of total assets =
(30-22)/22 = 36%.
But this is over a 3 year period.
Average annual growth rate = 36/3 = 12%.

Answer 2: c
The growth rate is lowest
st for investments in 1990
1990-91 i.e. 50% decrease.

Answer 3: c
The highest growth rate was seen for 1991 & 1992 i.e 100% increase.

Answer 4: d
Each and every particular thing is shown , but the decrease in the total assets is not
shown in this trend
 Data Interpretation: Set-11
• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0

A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student.
The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a
virus. Only the following could be recovered:

Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which
decided that the following facts
ts were self evident:

1. Half the students were either excellent or good.

2. 40% of the students were females.
3. One third of the male students were average.

Question 1: How many students were both female and excellent?

(a) 0
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32

Question 2: How many students are both male and good?

(a) 10
(b) 16
(c) 22
(d) 48

Question 3: Among average students, what is the ratio of male to female?

(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 3

Question 4: What proportion of female students are good?

(a) 0
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.5
(d) 1.0

Question 5: What proportion of good students are male?

(a) 0
(b) 0.73
(c) 0.4
(d) 1.0

View Explanation
1. From the table it is given that the number of females is 32 and this number is 40% of
the students. This means that the total number of students is 80 and the number of boys
is 48
2. Now in the question we are given that half the students were excellent or good,
Also, it is given that one third of the male students were average. So the number of
male average students is 16
3. (Number of average students) = (number of good students + number of excellent
students) = 40.
4. Total good students = 30
5. Therefore
fore the number of excellent students = 40 – 30 = 10.
6. Also in the question it is mentioned that 1/3rd of male students were average,
therefore total number of boys students that were good = (48 – 16 – 10) = 22.

Now from this information our graph will cchange into the following graph:

Answer 1: a
Number of students who are both female & excellent = 0.
 Answer 2: c
Number of students who are both male and good = 22.

Answer 3: d
Ratio of male to female among average students = 16/24 = 2:3.

Answer 4: b
Proportion
tion of female students who are good = (8/32) = 0.25.

Answer 5: b
Proportion of good students who are male = (22/30) = 0.73.

Data Interpretation: Set-12

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0

Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years
1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil
equivalent.

Question 1: Over 1990 – 2010, which two fuels meet more than 60 percent of the total
energy demand of both World and Asia?
(a) Petroleum & Natural Gas
(b) Petroleum & Solid Fuels
(c) Natural Gas & Solid Fuels
(d) None of the above
Question 2: Which fuel’s proportion in the total energy demand increases over the
decade 1990–2000
2000 and decreases over the decade 2000 – 2010010 for both the World and
Asia?
(a) Petroleum
(b) Natural Gas
(c) Solid Fuels
(d) Nuclear

Question 3: Which is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand will decrease
continuously over the period 1990 – 2010, in Asia?
(a) Natural Gas
(b) Solid Fuels
(c) Nuclear
(d) Hydropower

Question 4: Which is the fuel whose proportion to the total energy demand of the world
will remain constant over the period 1990 – 2010 but whose proportion will increase in
the total energy demand in Asia?
(a) Solid Fuels
(b) Nuclear
(c) Hydropower
(d) Natural Gas

View Explanation
Answer 1: b

From the table we can say that over 1990 – 2010, Solid Fuels and Petroleum combined
meet more than 60 percent of the total energy demand of both the World and Asia.

Answer 2: a
From the table the fuel whose fuel’s proportion in the total energy demand increases
 over the decade 1990–2000
2000 and decreases over the decade 2000 – 2010 for both the
World and Asia is Petroleum

Answer 3: d
This can be extracted with the help of following table:

Hence
e proportion of Hydropower goes on decreasing over the period.

Answer 4: d
This is also can be extracted with the help of following table:

Hence proportion of Natural gas remains constant over the given period.

Data Interpretation: Set-13

• Data Interpretation Sets
• Comments: 0

Question 1 to 5 are based on the graph given below:

Question 1: Which of the following salts has greatest solubility?

(a) Potassium Chlorate at 800C.
(b) Potassium Chloride at 350 C.
(c) Potassium Nitrate
rate at 390 C.
(d) Sodium Chloride at 850 C.

Question 2: Approximately, how many kg of Potassium Nitrate can be dissolved in 10

liters of water at 300C?
(a) 0.04
(b) 0.4
(c) 4
(d) 0.35

Question 3: By what % is the solubility of Potassium Chlorate in water increased as the

water is heated from 300C to 800 C?
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 250
(d) 300
Question 4: If 1 mole of Potassium Chloride weighs 0.07456 kg, approximately. How
many moles of Potassium Chloride can be dissolved in 100 liters of water at 360C?
(a) 700
(b) 650
(c) 480
(d) 540

Question 5: Which of the salts has greater change in solubility in kg / litre of water
between 150C and 250C?
(a) Potassium Chlorate
(b) Potassium Nitrate
(c) Sodium Chlorate
(d) Sodium Nitrate

View Explanation

Answer 1: C
Refer to the picture above. Hence (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 2: c
The solubility of potassium nitrate in one litter at 300C = 0.38 kg
Therefore solubility of potassium nitrate in 10 lt. would be = 3.8 kg., Approx = 4 kg.
Therefore the right answer is option (c)

Answer 3: d
The increase in % of solubility of potassium chlorate = (0.4 – 0.1) 100/0.1 = 300%.

Answer 4: d
The Solubility of potassium
otassium chloride at 36oC = 0.4 kg./lt.
Therefore in 100 lt. the amount of Potassium chloride that can be dissolved = 40 kg.
Number of moles = 40 / 0.075 = 533.
Therefore approx. 540 moles can be dissolved in 100 lt. of water at 36oC.

Answer 5: c
The solubility of sodium nitrate, potassium chloride, sodium chloride, is almost constant
 as we see the graph between 15oC &25oC,.
Therefore it is also can be seen from graph that solubility of sodium chlorate is
maximum.

Data Interpretation: Set-14

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0

In 1984 – 85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value

valu of
exports of raw materials by 100%. In 1985 – 86 the ratio of % of exports of raw material
to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4. Exports of food in 1985 – 86 exceeds
the 1984 – 85 figures by Rs. 1006 crore.

Question
1: In 1984 – 85 what percentage of total values of exports accounts for items related to
food

(a) 23%
(b) 29.2%
(c) 32%
(d) 22%

Question 2: During 1984 – 85, how much more raw material than food was exported?
(a) Rs. 2580 crore
(b) Rs. 896 crore
(c) Rs. 1986 crore
(d) Rs. 1852 crore
Question
tion 3: Value of exports of raw materials during 84 – 85 was how much percent
less than that for 85 – 86?
(a) 39
(b) 46.18
(c) 7
(d) 31.6

Question 4: The change in value of exports of manufactured articles from 1984 – 85 to

1985 – 86 is
(a) 296 crore
(b) 629 crore
(c) 2064 crore
(d) 1792 crore

View Explanation
From the data that is given we can extrapolate the following data:

Answer 1: d
The exports related to food in 85
85-86 = 0.23 x 25800 = 5934.
Therefore the exports related to food 1984
1984-95 = (5934 – 1006) = 4928.
Therefore the percentage food related exports in 84
84-85
85 = 4928/22400 = 22%.

Answer 2: b
The Value of Manufactured articles & Raw materials exports In 84
84-85,
85, = (22400 – 4928)
= Rs.17472 crore. Since Export in manufactured goods is twice that of raw materials,
Therefore the ratio of export of manufactured goods and raw materials is 2:1
Therefore export of manufactured goods = Rs.11648 crore and Raw materials =
Rs.5824 crore
Hence the difference between raw material and food = (5824 – 4928) = Rs.896 crore

Answer 3: d
The combined percentage of Manufactured articles and Raw materials in 85-86
8 = 77%
 And therefore the ratio will be 4 : 3.
Therefore the percentage of Manufactured articles export = 44%
The percentage of Raw materials export = 33%.
Therefore value of manufactured = 0.44 x 25800 = Rs.11352 crore
And the value of Raw materials = Rs.8514 crore
Therefore the percentage difference between the value of Raw materials between 84-85
84
and 85-86 = [(8514 – 5824)/8514] × 100 = 31.6%

Answer 4: a
The change in value of exports of manufactured articles from 1984 – 85 to 1985 – 86 =
(11648 – 11352)
52) = Rs.296 crore

Data Interpretation: Set-15

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0

Direction for 1 to 4: Refer

efer to the pie
pie-chart given below:
Question 1: What fraction of Ghoshbabu’s weight consists of muscular and skin protein?
(a) 1/13
(b) 1/30
(c) 1/20
(d) Cannot be determined

Question 2: Ratio of distribution of protein in muscle to the distribution of protein in skin

is
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 3 : 10
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 31/2 : 1

Question 3: What percent of Ghosh Babu’s body weight is made up of skin?

(a) 0.15
(b) 10
(c) 1.2
(d) Cannot be determined

Question 4: In terms of total body weight, the portion of material other than water and
protein is closest to
(a) 3/20
(b) 1/15
(c) 85/100
(d) 1/20

View Explanation
Answer 1: c
From the pie chart we can say that the percentage of the total protein constituted by the
skin & muscular protein is only 33 %
And the total protein in the body = 15 % of the total body weight
Therefore percentage of skin & muscular protein as a fraction of the total body weight =
33% of 15% = 5 %. = 1/20.

Answer 2: a
Ratio of distribution of protein in muscle to the distribution of protein in skin is
= 25 : 8 = 3 : 1
 Answer 3: d
Since we do not have data about the percentage of skin in Ghosh Babu’s body ,
therefore we cannot determine the answer for this question

Answer 4: a
The portion of material other than water and protein is closest to
15/100 = 3/20.

Data Interpretation: Set-16

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 1

The following table gives the sales details for text books and reference books at Primary
/ Secondary/ Higher Secondary/ Graduate Levels.

Question 1: What is the growth rate of sales of books at primary school level from 1975
to 1980?
(a) 29%
(b) 51%
(c) 63%
(d) 163%

Question 2: Which of the categories shows the lowest growth rate from 1975 to 1980?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Higher secondary
(d) Graduate Level

Question 3: Which category had the highest growth rate in the period?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Higher secondary
(d) Graduate Level

Question 4: Which of the categories had either a consi

consistent
stent growth or a consistent
decline in the period shown?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Higher secondary
(d) Graduate Level

View Explanation
Answer 1: c
Since we can see that the answer options are not too close to each other so we can
take the approximate values. So the required ratio = (68600 – 42000) 100 / 42000 =
2650 / 42 = 63%

Answer 2: c
From the table it is shown that percentage growth is least for higher secondary books
i.e. 26%.

Answer 3: b
From the given table in answer we can see that the percentage growth rate is maximum
for secondary level
evel books i.e.125%.

Answer 4: d
We can see that primary, secondary and higher secondary level books have all suffered
from some sort of a decrease at a certain point of time, and have not shown a
 consistent decline or increase. But on the other hand, all the graduate level books have
shown a consistent growth over the period.

Data Interpretation: Set-17

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Direction for 1 to 4: Analyze the table and answer the questions carefully

Question 1: What was the total number of engineering students in 1989 – 90?
(a) 28500
(b) 4400
(c) 4200
(d) 42000
Question 2: The growth rate in students of Govt. Engg. Colleges compared to that of
Private Engg. Colleges between
ween 1988 – 89 and 1989 – 90 is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) 3/2

Question 3: The total number of Engg. Students in 1991 – 92, assuming a 10%
reduction in the number over the previous year, is
(a) 5700
(b) 57000
(c) 44800
(d) none of these

Question 4: In 1990 – 91, what percent of Engg. Students were studying at IIT’s?
(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 14
(d) 12

View Explanation

Answer 1: d
From the table we can say that Total number of students in 1989
1989–90
90 = (180 + 120 + 75
+ 40) x 100 = 41500 = 42000 (approx)

Answer 2: c
Growth rate (Govt. Engg. College) = (120 – 80) / 80 = 50%
Growth rate (Private
vate Engg. College) = (180 – 120) / 120 = 50%.
Hence the growth rate is equal.

Answer 3: d
Total number of students in 1990
1990–91
91 = (250 + 130 + 100 + 80) 100 = 56000,
Hence the total number of students in 1991
1991-92 = 0.9 x 56000 = 50400.
Hence (d) is the correct
ct answer
 Answer 4: c
% of IIT students in 1990 – 91 = 80 / 570 = 1/7 = 14% (approx.)

Data Interpretation: Set-18

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Bankatlal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1
week, with an exactly opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth
fif
week he has a different pattern. When he works longer than he rests, his wage per hour
is twice what he earns per hour when he rests longer than he works. The following are
his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13:

A week consists of six days and a month consists of 4 weeks.

Question 1: If Bankatlal is paid Rs. 20 per working hour in the 1st week. What is his
salary for the 1st month?
(a) Rs.1760
(b) Rs.1440
(c) Rs.1320
(d) Rs.1680

Question
stion 2: Referring to the data given in Q.1, Bankatlal’s average monthly salary at the
end of the first four months will be
(a) Rs.1780
(b) Rs.2040
(c) Rs.1830
(d) Rs.1680
Question 3: The new manager Khushaldas stipulated that Rs.5 be deducted for every
hour
ur of rest and Rs. 25 be paid per hour starting 9th week, then what will be the change
in Bankatlal’s salary for the 3rd month? (Hourly deductions are constant for all weeks
starting 9th week)
(a) Rs.540
(b) Rs.480
(c) Rs.240
(d) Rs.120

Question 4: Using the

he data in the previous questions, what will be the total earning of
Bankatlal at the end of sixteen weeks:
(a) Rs.7320
(b) Rs.7800
(c) Rs.8400
(d) Rs.9600

View Explanation
The data given in the question can be computed as:

Answer 1: b
From the data we can say about the performance and the strategy of Bankatlal for the
1st month

Thus his total wage = (600+120+600+120) = Rs.1440

Answer 2: c
Let check the data for second third and fourth month
From the above pictures we can say about
Total wage for 1st month = Rs.1440
Total wage for 2nd month = (840+180+840+180) = Rs.2040
Total wage for 3rd month = (720+240+720+240) = Rs.1920
Total wage for 4th month = (960+96
(960+960) = Rs.1920
Total wage for the 4 months = (1440+2040+1920+1920) = 7320
Hence the average salary = 7320/4 = Rs.1830

Answer 3: d
From the extracted data above we can say about the wage for the third month:
 So now his third month wage = (780+120+780+120) = Rs.1800.
Initially he earned Rs.1920 in the third month.
Therefore change in Bankatlal’s salary for the 3rd month = (1920 – 1800) = Rs.120.

Answer 4: d
For the fourth month:

So now his total wage for the 4th month = (2400+2400

(2400+2400-240-240)
240) = Rs.4320.
Since the initial calculations are based on old schemes, the initial wages for the first two
months are:
Total wage for 1st month = Rs.1440
Total wage
age for 2nd month = Rs.2040
Calculation for the third and fourth month are as per new calculations:
Total wage for 3rd month = Rs.1800
Total wage for 4th month = Rs.4320
So total salary for the four months = (1440+2040+1800+4320) = Rs.9600

Data Interpretation: Set-19

• Data Interpretation Sets

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Direction for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is
paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and
retained
tained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves
at the beginning of 1991 were Rs. 80 lakh.
Question 1: In which year was the tax per rupee of ‘profit before tax’ lowest?
a. 1991
b. 1992
c. 1993
d. 1994

Question 2: In which year was the sales per rupee of share capital highest?
a. 1991
b. 1992
c. 1993
d. 1994

Question
ion 3: In which year the profit before tax per rupee of sales was the highest?
a. 1991
b. 1992
c. 1993
d. 1994

Question 4: In which year was the percentage addition to reserves over previous years
reserves the highest?
a. 1991
b. 1992
c. 1993
d. 1994

Question
ion 5: Amount of the reserves at the end of 1994 is
a. Rs. 935 lakh
b. Rs. 915 lakh
c. Rs. 230 lakh
d. None of these

View Explanation
Answer 1: d
As we know that (Dividends + Retained earnings) = (Profit before tax) – Tax.
Tax = (Profit before tax) – (Dividends + Retained earnings).so from the table we can say
that

Tax per rupee of ‘ profit before tax’ is lowest for 1994.

Answer 2: a

Therefore from the table we can say that the sales per rupee of the share capital is
highest for 1991.
 Answer 3:d

Hence, profit before tax per rupee of sales is highest for 1994.

Answer 4:a

Hence, we find that the highest percentage addition to reserves is in 1991.

Answer 5:a
From the above table it is clear that the amount of reserves at the end of 1994 = (535 +
400) = Rs. 935 lakh.

Data Interpretation: Set-20

• Data Interpretation Sets

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Direction for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Question 1: The maximum percentage decrease in market share is
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 53.3%
d. 20%

Question 2: The city in which minimum number of products increased their market
shares in 1993-94 is
a. Mumbai
b. Delhi
c. Kolkata
d. Chennai

Question 3: The market shares of which products did not decreased between 1993-94
1993
in any city?
a. HD
b. CO
c. BN
d. None of these

Question 4: The number of products which had 100% market share in four metropolitan
cities is
a. 0
b. 1
 c. 2
d. 3

Question 5: The number of products which doubled their market shares in one or more
cities is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

View Explanation
Answer 1. b
From the table, the market share of CO in Kolkata has halved. It is the only product
which shows such a drastic decrease in any city.
Hence, percentage of this decrease = 50%.

Answer2. b
It is clear from the table that the market shares only increased by two cities Mumbai and
Kolkata, on the other hand, Chennai has 1, while Delhi has none.

Answer 3. d
The market share of HD decreased in Mumbai, Kolkata and Delhi.
The market share of HD decreased in Mumbai, Kolkata and Delhi.
The market share of CO decreased in Kolkata, Delhi and Chennai and the market share
of BN decreased in Mumbai.
So none of these is the right answer

Answer 4. a
None of the products has 100% market share.

Answer 5. b
From the given data in the table we can say that the market share is doubled by MT
only in KOLKATA in 1993-94.

Data Interpretation: Set-21

• Data Interpretation Sets
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Direction
ection for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions based on the following pie charts.

Question 1: The operating profit in 1991

1991-92 increased over that in 1990-91
91 by
a. 23%
b. 22%
c. 25%
d. 24%

Question 2: The interest burden in 1991

1991-92 was higher than that in 1990--91 by
a. 50%
b. Rs. 25 lakh
c. 90%
d. Rs. 41 lakh

Question 3: If on an average, 20% rate of interest was charged on borrowed funds, then
the total borrowed funds used by this company in the given two years amounted to
a. Rs. 221 lakh
b. Rs.195 lakh
c. Rs. 368 lakh
d. Rs. 515 lakh
Question 4: The retained profit in 1991-92, as compared to that in 1990-91 was
a. higher by 2.5%
b. higher by 1.5%
c. lower by 2.5%
d. lower by 1.5%

Question 5: The equity base of these companies remained unchanged. Then the total
dividend earning by the share holders in 1991-92 is
a. Rs. 104 lakh
b. Rs. 9 lakh
c. Rs. 12.8 lakh
d. Rs. 15.6 lakh

View Explanation
Answer 1. a
Percentage increase = (160 – 130)100/130 = 300/13 = 23%

Answer 2: b
From the pie chart we can calculate that Interest in 1990-91 = 30% of 130 = Rs. 39 lakh
Interest in 1991-92 = 40% of 160 = Rs. 64 lakh
Hence, difference = (64 – 39) = Rs. 25 lakh

Answer 3: d
From the pie chart we can say that Total interest = (30% of 130) + (40% of 160) = (39 +
64)
= Rs. 103 lakh.
If borrowed funds is charged by interest , then (20% of borrowed funds) = 103.
Hence, borrowed funds
= (5 × 103) = Rs. 515 lakh.

Answer 4: d
From the pie chart
Retained profit in 1990-91 = (25% of 130) = Rs. 32.5 lakh
Retained profit in 1991-92 = (20% of 160) = Rs. 32 lakh
Hence, percentage change in retained profit = (32.5 – 32)/ 32.5 = 1.5% lower

Answer 5: c
Total dividend in 1991-92
= (8% of 160) = Rs. 12.8 lakh.
 Data Interpretation: Set-22
• Data Interpretation Sets

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Directions for question 1 to 4: Follow the bar graph and answer the following question

Question 1. In which year was the trade deficit highest?

a. 1987-88
b. 1988-89
c. 1989-90
d. 1990-91

Question 2. In how many years was the trade deficit less than the trade deficit in the
succeeding year?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Question 3. Export earning in 1990
1990-91
91 is how many per cent of imports in 1991-92?
1991
a. 82%
b. 85%
c. 90%
d. 15%

Question 4. In the last three years the total export earnings have accounted for how
many per cent of the value of the imports?
a. 80%
b. 83%
c. 95%
d. 88%

View Explanation
By analyzing the data above, we can construct the following table:

Answer 1: b
We know that Trade deficit = Imports – Exports
 Therefore from the table we can say that TD is highest for the year 1988-89, viz. 7
billion dollars.

Answer 2: d
Again Trade deficit is less than the trade deficit in the succeeding years in 1987-88,
1989-90, 1991-92 and 1993-94.

Answer 3: c
Required percentage = 18/20 = = 90%

Answer 4: d
In last three years, Imports = (22 + 23 + 27) = 72 and Exports = (18 + 21 + 24) = 63.
Hence, the required percentage = 63/72 = 87.5 % = 88% approx.

Data Interpretation: Set-23

• Data Interpretation Sets

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Direction for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions based on the following graph.
Revenue obtained by a publishing house while selling books, magazines and journals
(Rs. in lakh).
Question 1: Which year shows the highest change in revenue obtained from journals?
a. 1989
b. 1990
c. 1991
d. 1992

Question 2: In 1992, what per cent of the total revenue came from books?
a. 45%
b. 55%
c. 35%
d. 25%

Question 3: The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at
least two categories is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Question 4: If 1993 were to show the same growth as 1992 over 1991, the revenue in
1993 must be
a. Rs. 194 lakh
b. Rs. 187 lakh
c. Rs. 172 lakh
d. Rs. 177 lakh

View Explanation
The graph given in the question can be depicted in the following table:
 Answer 1. c
The highest change in the revenue obtained from journals is (47 – 45) = 2 in 1991.

Answer 2. a
In 1992 percentage of total revenue that came from books = 79/173 = 45.6%

Answer 3. b
From the figure we can see that the revenue increased in all three categories in 1990.
In 1991 it increased for magazines and books whereas in 1992 it increased only for
magazines. So the answer is b, i.e. 2 years.

Answer 4.d
Growth rate in 1992 over 1991 = (173 – 169) / 169 = 2.36 %
If this rate were to remain same in 1993 as well, then the revenue in 1993 will be
173 x (1 + 2.36/100) = 1.77 lakhs

Data Interpretation: Set-24

• Data Interpretation Sets

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Answer the questions based on the following information.

A company produces five types of shirts — A, B, C, D and E — using cloth of three
qualities — high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities — high, medium and
low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt
Question 1: What is the total requirement of cloth?
a. 1,50,000 m
b. 2,00,000 m
c. 2,25,000 m
d. 2,50,000 m

Question 2: How many metres of low-quality cloth is consumed?

a. 22,500 m
b. 46,500 m
c. 60,000 m
d. 40,000 m

Question 3: How many metres of high quality cloth is consumed by A-type shirts?
a. 8,000 m
b. 112,000 m
c. 24,000 m
d. 30,000 m

Question 4: What is the ratio of the three qualities of dyes in high-quality cloth?
a. 2 : 3 : 5
b. 1 : 2 : 5
c. 7 : 9 : 10
d. Cannot be determined

Question 5: What is the ratio of low-quality dye used for C-type shirts to that used for D-
type shirts?
a. 3 : 2
 b. 2 : 1
c. 1 : 2
d. 2 : 3

View Explanation
Answer 1: a
Total requirement of cloth
= Total number of shirts × Cloth required per shirt
= (20 + 30 + 30 + 10 + 10) 1000 × 1.5 = 1,50,000 m.

Answer 2: b
Total low quality cloth consumed
= 1.5 (30% of 30000 + 30% of 30000 + 40% of 10000 + 90% of 10000) = 46,500 m.

Answer 3: c
Total quantity of high quality cloth consumed by A-type shirts = (80% of 20000) × 1.5 =
24,000 m.

Answer 4: d
From the given data we only know the relationship between the type of shirt and cloth
used and type of shirt and dye used. So we don’t have idea about type of cloth and dye
used.

Answer 5: b
Amount of low quality die used for C-type shirts = (40% of 30000) = 12,000 units.
Amount of low quality die consumed by D-type shirts = (60% of 10000) = 6,000 units.

Data Interpretation: Set-25

• Data Interpretation Sets

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Direction for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Question 1: The average revenue collected in the given 7 years is approximately
a. Rs. 164 lakh
b. Rs. 168 lakh
c. Rs. 171 lakh
d. Rs. 175 lakh

Question 2: The expenditure for the 7 years together form what per cent of the revenues
during the same period?
a. 75%
b. 67%
c. 62%
d. 83%

Question 3: Which year showed the greatest percentage increase in profit as compared
to the previous year?
a. 1993
b. 1994
c. 1990
d. 1992

Question 4: In which year was the growth in expenditure maximum as compared to the
previous year?
a. 1993
b. 1995
c. 1991
d. 1992
Question 5: If the profit in 1996 shows the annual rate of growth as it had shown in 1995
over the previous
ious year, then what approximately will be the profit in 1996?
a. Rs. 72 lakh
b. Rs. 82 lakh
c. Rs. 93 lakh
d. Rs. 78 lakh

View Explanation
Answer 1: b
Average will be equal to = (120 +130 +145+ 165 +185 +200 +220)/7 = 166.42
This is approximately is Rs. 168 lakh.

Answer 2:a
If we add the expenses of 7 years then it will add up to 877.
And Revenue of 7 years add up to 1165.
Hence, the required answer is ((877/1165)*100 = 75.5 % approx.

Answer 3: d
To find the answer we have to find the profit in each year.

From the above table, clearly, the answer is 1992, as in 1992 the profit is maximum, i.e.
33.33%.

Answer 4: d
The following table shows the expenditure over the previous year:
 Hence, it is maximum for 1992.

Answer 5: b
Profit in 1994 = 60. Profit in 1995 = 70. Growth percentage in profit in 1995 over 1994 =
(10/60) x 100 = 16.66%, Profit in 1996 will be (16.66% of 70) + 70 = Rs. 82 lakh.

Data Interpretation: Set-26

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0
Directions for the question 1 to 5: Answer the questions based on the following
information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.

Directions for the question 1 to 5: Answer the questions based on the following
information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.

Question 1: What is the maximum production capacity (in ‘000 tonnes) of Lipton for
coffee?
a. 2.53
b. 2.85
c. 2.24
d. 2.07

Question 2: Which company out of the four companies mentioned above has the
maximum unutilized capacity (in ‘000 tonnes)?
a. Lipton
b. Nestle
c. Brooke Bond
d. MAC

Question 3: What is the approximate total production capacity (in ‘000 tonnes) for coffee
in India?
a. 18
b. 20
c. 18.7
d. Data insufficient

Question 4: The highest price for coffee per kilogram is for

a. Nestle
b. MAC
c. Lipton
d. Data insufficient

Question 5: What percent of the total market share (by sales value) is controlled by
‘others’?
a. 60%
b. 32%
c. 67%
d. insufficient data

View Explanation
Answer 1: a
The production of Lipton is 1.64 (in ‘000 tonnes) which corresponds to 64.8% capacity.
Now the capacity for 64.8% is 1.64
So for 100% it will be = (100/64.8) x 1.64 = 2.53 approx. in 000 tones

Answer 2: d
Unutilized capacity can be represented in the following manner.
 Hence, we find that the maximum unutilized capacity is for MAC, i.e. 1,050 tones.

Answer 3: c
61.3 % ≡ 11.6
100% = 100/61.3 x11.6 =18.7 approx.

Answer 4: d
From the given data, we cann
cannot
ot say anything about the price of coffee for the
companies among others.

Answer 5: b
Total sales of all brands = (31.15 + 26.75 + 15.25 + 17.45) = Rs. 90.6 crore
Total sales value of others = 132.8 – 90.6 = Rs. 42.2 crore
Required percentage = 42.2/132.8 x 100 = 32.5 approx.

Data Interpretation: Set-27

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0

Direction for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given
schedule.
The number of people employed in each month is:

Question 1: Due to overrun in ‘design’, the design stage took 3 months, i.e. months 3, 4
and 5. The number of people working on design in the fifth month was 5. Calculate the
percentage change in the cost incurred in the fifth month. (Due to improvement in
‘coding’ technique, this stage was completed in months 6 6-8 only.)
a. 225%
b. 150%
c. 275%
d. 240%

Question 2: With reference to the above question, what is the cost incurred in the new
‘coding’ stage? (Under the new technique, 4 people work in the sixth mmonth
onth and 5 in the
eighth.)
a. Rs. 1,40,000
b. Rs. 1,50,000
c. Rs. 1,60,000
d. Rs. 1,70,000

Question 3: What is the difference in cost between the old and the new techniques?
a. Rs. 30,000
b. Rs. 60,000
c. Rs. 70,000
d. Rs. 40,000

Question 4: Under the new technique, which stage of software development is most
expensive for Mulayam Software Co.?
a. Testing
b. Specification
c. Coding
d. Design

Question 5: Which five consecutive months have the lowest average cost per man-
month under the new technique?
a. 1-5
b. 9-13
c. 11-15
d. None of these

View Explanation
Answer 1: b
Originally 4 people were scheduled for the fifth month to do coding
Therefore the cost for them (10000 × 4) = Rs. 40,000.
Now there is increase in number of men from 4 to 5 who are working on design in the
fifth month.
Therefore the cost changes and the total cost for this would be (20000 × 5) =
Rs.1,00,000.
Therefore the percentage change in the in the cost incurred in the fifth month =
{(100000 – 40000)/40000} x 100 = 150%

Answer 2: a
With the help of last question we will come to know that the coding stage is now
completed in 6th, 7th and 8th months. We also know that the number of people
employed in the 6th month is 4 and in the 8th month is 5 and by the month 7th there are
5 people employed (from previous data).
Therefore by combining all the months we find that the total cost incurred in the coding
stage = (5 + 5 + 4) × 10000 = Rs.1,40,000.
Answer 3: b
The difference in the cost will arise only because of the following months: 5, 6 and 8.
And we can compare the costs as given below

It can be clearly seen that the difference in the cost between the old and the new
technique is Rs. 60,000.

Answer 4: d
The cost incurred in various stages under the present scheme is as given below.
 Hence, the most expensive stage is Design.

Answer 5: c
From the above table it is clear that the average cost fo
forr 5 consecutive month period is
lowest for months 11 to 15.

Data Interpretation: Set-28

• Data Interpretation Sets

• Comments: 0
Direction for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two
districts, Chittoor and Khammam, Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.

Question 1: By what per cent was the total investment in the two districts more in 1996
as compared to 1995?
a. 14%
b. 21%
c. 24%
d. 18%

Question 2: The investment in electricity and thermal energy in 1995 in these two
districts formed what per cent of the total investment made in that year?
a. 41%
b. 47%
c. 52%
d. 55%

Question 3: In Khammam district, the investment in which area in 1996 showed the
highest
ghest percentage increase over the investment in that area in 1995?
a. Electricity
b. Chemical
c. Solar
d. Nuclear
Question 4: Approximately how many times was the total investment in Chittoor to the
total investment in Khammam?
a. 2.8
b. 2
c. 2.4
d. 1.7

View Explanation
Answer 1: d
Total investment in the two districts in 1995 = 2932.1+ 7081.6 ≈ 10,000.
Total investment in the two districts in 1996 = 3489.5 + 8352 ≈ 11840.
Required percentage = (11840 – 10000)/10000 = 18%(approx.)

Answer 2: b
Total investment in electricity and thermal energy in both the districts in 1995 = (815.2 +
632.4 + 2065.8 + 1232.7) = 4746.1.
Total investment made in that year = 2923.1 + 7081.6 = 10004.7 ≈ 10000
Hence required percentage = (4746.1/10000) = 47% (approx.)

Answer 3: b
Percentage increase in investment in electricity = 30/2070 = 14%
Percentage increase in investment in chemical= {(986.4 – 745.3)/745.31} x 100 =
240/745 = 32%
Percentage increase in investment in solar = (428.6/1792.1)
let’s take the approximate values = 430/1792 = 23%
And the Percentage increase in investment in nuclear = 507/1674 approximately =
(500/1670 )x 100 = 23%
Clearly percentage increase in investment in chemical is the highest

Answer 4: c
Total investment in Chittoor = 2923.1 + 3489.5 = 6412.6 ≈ 6410.
Total investment in Khammam = 7081.6 + 8352 ≈ 15430.
Required ratio = (15430/6410) = 2.4 times
Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb: -
8368060636

Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)

ICT

Common Computer Abbreviations

• AGP – Accelerated Graphic Port
• PC – Personal Computer
• EPROM – Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
• BIOS – Basic Input and Output System
• HDD – Hard Disk Drive
• PCI – Peripheral Component Interconnect
• UNIVAC – Universal Automatic Computer
• GUI – Graphic User Interface
• USB – Universal Serial Bus

• VGA – Visual Graphic Adaptor

• MAN – Metropolitan Area Network

• ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange
• WAN – Wide Area Network
• EBCDIC – Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
• LAN – Local Area Network
• EEPROM/EAPROM – Electrical Erasable/Alterable Programmable Read Only Memory
• CPU – Central Processing Unit
• OS – Operating System
• ALU – Arithmetic and Logic Unit
• DVD – Digital Versatile Disc
• CD – Compact Disk
• ROM – Read Only Memory
• VDU – Visual Display Unit
• RAM – Random Access Memory
• ICT – Information Communication Technology
• PROM – Programmable Read Only Memory
• URL – Uniform Resource Locator
• IDE – Integrated Drive Electronics
• FORTRAN – Formular Translator

© GSIP- Uttam Nagar, New Delhi

Prepared By Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL) Mb: -
8368060636

• MOS – Metaoxide Semi Conductor

• ATX – Advanced Technology Extended
• SIM – Subscriber Identification Module
• MHZ – Megahertz
• ISP – Internet Service Provider
• GHZ – Gigahertz
• DBMS – Database Management System
• SQL – Structured Query Language
• RW – Re-Writeable
• SDT – Serial Data Transmission
• CAN – Campus Area Network
• SIMMs – Single In-line Memory Module
• PAN – Personal Area Network
• DIMMs – Dual In-line Memory Module
• CMOS – Complimentary Metaoxide Semi Conductor
• ENIAC – Electronic Number Integrator and Calculator
• CMD – Command
• EDSAC – Electronic Dialog Storage Automatic Computer
• MAC – Media Access Control
• IC – Integrated Circuit

• LSIC – Large Scale Integrated Circuit

• DIR – Directory
• GIGO – Gabbage in Gabbage Out
• PHP – PHP Hypertext Preprocessor
• DOC – Document
• PDT – Parallel Data Transmission
• PDA – Personal Digital Assistant
• USSD – Unstructured Supplementary Service Data
• WWW – World Wide Web
• COBOL – Common Basic Oriented Language
• CCNP – Cisco Certified Network Professionals
• BASIC – Beginner All Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
• CEH – Certified Ethical Hacking
• TCP – Transmission Control Protocol
• CSS – Cascading Style Sheet
• CISCO – Computer Information System Company
• XXS – Cross Site Scripting
• XML – Extensible Mark-up Language
• HTML – Hypertext Markup Language
• CCNA – Cisco Certified Network Associate
• RFI – Remote File Inclusion

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• HTTP –Hypertext Transfer Protocol

• DDOS –Distribution Denial of Service
• VPN –Virtual Private Network
• SEO –Search Engine Optimization
• IP - Internet Protocol

Operating Systems and Data Storage Based

 BIOS – This is the Basic Input Output System which controls the computer, telling it what
operations to perform. These instructions are on a chip that connects to the
motherboard.
 BYTE – A byte is a storage unit for data.
 CPU – This stands for the Central Processing Unit of the computer. This is like the
computer’s brain.
 MAC – This is an abbreviation for Macintosh, which is a type of personal computer made
by the Apple Computer company.
 OS – This is the Operating System of the computer. It is the main program that runs on a
computer and begins automatically when the computer is turned on.
 PC – This is the abbreviation for personal computer. It refers to computers that are IBM
compatible.
 PDF – This represents the Portable Document Format which displays _les in a format
that is ready for the web.
 RAM – This stands for Random Access Memory which is the space inside the computer
that can be accessed at one time. If you increase the amount of RAM, then you will
increase the computer’s speed. This is because more of a particular program is able to
be loaded at one time.
 ROM – This is Read Only Memory which is the instruction for the computer and cannot
be altered.
 VGA – The Video Graphics Array is a system for displaying graphics. It was developed
by IBM.
 WYSIWYG – This initialism stands for What You See Is What You Get. It is pronounced
“wizziwig” and basically means that the printer will print what you see on your monitor.
 FTP – This is a service called File Transport Protocol which moves a _le between
computers using the Internet.
 HTML – Hyper Text Markup Language formats information so it can be transported on
the Internet.
 HTTP – Hypertext Transfer Protocol is a set of instructions for the software that controls
the movement of files on the Internet.
 IP – This stands for Internet Protocol which is the set of rules that govern the systems
connected to the Internet. IP Address is a digital code specific to each computer that is
hooked up to the Internet.
 ISP – The Internet Service Provider is the company which provides Internet service so
you can connect your computer to the Internet.

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 LAN – This stands for Local Area Network which is the servers that your computer
connects to in your geographic area.
 PPP – Point-to-Point Protocol is the set of rules that allow your computer to use the
Internet protocols using a phone line and modem.
 URL – This is the Uniform Resource Locator which is a path to a certain le on the
World Wide Web.
 USB – The Universal Serial Bus is used for communications between certain devices. It
can connect keyboards, cameras, printers, mice, ash drives, and other devices. Its use
has expanded from personal computers to PDAs, smart phones, and video games, and
is used as a power cord to connect devices to a wall outlet to charge them.
 VR – Virtual Reality simulates a three-dimensional scene on the computer and has the
capability of interaction. This is widely used in gaming.
 VRML – Virtual Reality Markup Language allows the display of 3D images.

Basic of Internet

 The Internet is a worldwide telecommunications system that provides connectivity for

millions of other, smaller networks; therefore, the Internet is often referred to as a
network of networks.
 It allows computer users to communicate with each other across distance and computer
platforms (Including other ICT Based Devices such as Mobile & Other electronic
devices)
 The Internet began in 1969 as the U.S. Department of Defense’s Advanced Research
Project Agency (ARPA) for war communication
 The World Wide Web—usually called the Web for short—is a collection of different
websites you can access through the Internet.
 Internet Service Provider- an ISP offers a variety of services for a variety of prices: web
page access, email, web page hosting and so on. Most ISPs offer various internet
connection speeds for a monthly fee
 A browser is a program that allows you to interact and view the internet and contents of
the Web.
 The Web Browser, Internet Explorer, or IE is developed by Microsoft and comes pre-
installed when you buy a Windows computer.
 A browser is a free software package or mobile app that lets you view web pages,
graphics, and most online content. The most popular web browsers include Chrome,
Firefox, Internet Explorer, and Safari, but there are many others.

 Top-level domain names include:

.com - Commercial
.edu - Educational
.gov - US Government
.int - Organization

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.mil - US Military
.net - Networking Providers
.org - Non-profit Organization

 Domain name country codes include, but are not limited to:
.au - Australia
.de - Germany
.fr - France
.in - India
.uk - United Kingdom
.us - United States

 SSL- The acronym SSL stands for Secure Sockets Layer. SSL is a secure encryption
Web protocol used to make data safe when transmitted over the Internet.
 Web Hosting- A web host is a business/company that offers space, storage, and
connectivity in order to enable a website to be viewed by Internet users.
 Web Server- the Term Web server refers to a specialized computer system or dedicated
server specifically designed to host or deliver Web sites.
 Hypertext Markup Language is the programming language of WebPages. HTML
commands your web browser to display text and graphics in a specific fashion.
Beginning internet users don’t need to know HTML coding to enjoy the WebPages the
programming language delivers to browsers.
 XML is extensible Markup Language, a cousin to HTML. XML focuses on cataloging and
databasing the text content of a web page.
 XHTML is a combination of HTML and XML.
 HTTP- The client/server protocol used to exchange hypertext documents is called HTTP
(Hyper Text Transport Protocol). The main thing you need to know is that HTTP is a
language spoken between your web browser (client software) and a web server (server
software) so that they can communicate with each other and exchange files

Basic of e-Mail

 Electronic mail is a method of exchanging messages between people using electronic

devices.
 Invented by Ray Tomlinson, email first entered limited use in the 1960s and by the mid-
1970s had taken the form now recognized as email.
 Email, short for Electronic Mail, consists of messages which are sent and received using
the Internet. There are many different email services available that allow you to create
an email account and send and receive email and attachments, many of which are free.
 Today, the top three webmail providers are Yahoo!, Microsoft’s Outlook.com (previously
Hotmail), and Google’s Gmail.

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 Many people also have an email address hosted by their company, school, or
organization. These email addresses are usually for professional purposes.

 The first five lines of an E-mail message is called E-mail header. The header part
comprises of following fields:
 From
 Date
 To
 Subject
 CC
 BCC

Email Protocols: IMAP, POP3, SMTP and HTTP

E-mail Protocols are set of rules that help the client to properly transmit the information to or
from the mail server.
 POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) - This is a simple, standardized protocol that allows users
to access their mailboxes on the Internet and download messages to their computers.
The simple design of POP3 allows casual email users who have a temporary Internet
connection (dial-up access) to access emails. They can read their emails, draft new
emails or reply to emails while they are offline, and can send these emails when they
are back online.

 IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) – This is a standard protocol used for email
transfer by users. Like POP3, it also supports both online and offline modes of email
access. The email message is downloaded to the user’s machine only when a specific
request is made to read it. Users can download mails to their computers while keeping a
copy on the server. The mails on the server are the primary copy and anything changed
on the local machine is updated by what is on the serve
 SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) – As the name suggests, SMTP is a simple, text-
based protocol that works best when devices are interconnected to each other.
However, SMTP protocol can only be used to send emails. Unlike POP3 and IMAP
protocols, SMTP does not provide the functionality to the users to retrieve emails from
the server. This limits the use of SMTP to some extent. One of the main issues with
SMTP is the lack of sender email authentication. SMTP lacks security features too and
thus users get spam emails.

Basic of Audio and Video-conferencing

 When a number of participants of a meeting use telephonic instruments to communicate

with each other then it is known as audio conferencing

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 When two or more people use digital platforms communicate and collaborate with each
other to achieve a common goal effectively then it is known as a video conferencing
mode of communication or a tool of face-to-face conferencing.
 There are many online tools, incorporating a range of options from free one-to-one audio
conferencing all the way to more sophisticated and expensive tools such as Polycom
which allow multiple sites with entire classes participating using video and audio.
 Most Popular Video Conferencing Software
 Skype
 Zoom
 Cisco WebEx.
 GoToMeeting
 Zoho Cliq.
 Workplace by Facebook.

Digital Initiative in Higher Education

National Digital Library (NDL)

Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) under its National Mission on Education
through Information and Communication Technology (NMEICT) has initiated the National Digital
Library of India (NDL India) pilot project to develop a framework of virtual repository of learning
resources with a single window search facility. The Project titled “Development of National
Digital Library of India, Towards Building a National Asset” has been sanctioned to IIT,
Kharagpur under NMEICT by MHRD.

National Academic Depository:-

National Academic Depository (NAD) is an initiative of Ministry of Human Resources
Development, Govt. of India (MHRD) to facilitate digital issuance, storage, access and
verification of Academic Awards issued by Academic Institutions.
NAD is a Unique, Innovative and Progressive initiative under “Digital India” theme towards
achieving Digital enablement of the Education Records. NAD aspires to make the vision of
Digital Academic Certificates for every Indian a reality.

e-Shodh Sindhu
Based on the recommendation of an Expert Committee, the MHRD has formed e-ShodhSindhu
merging three consortia initiatives, namely UGC-INFONET Digital Library Consortium, NLIST
and INDEST-AICTE Consortium. More than 15,000 international electronic journals and e-books
are made available to all the higher educational institutions through the e shodh Sindhu
initiative. This allows access to be best education resources in the world using digital mode

Virtual Labs
Physical distances and the lack of resources make us unable to perform experiments, especially
when they involve sophisticated instruments. Also, good teachers are always a scarce resource.

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Web-based and video-based courses address the issue of teaching to some extent. Conducting
joint experiments by two participating institutions and also sharing costly resources has always
been a challenge.

e-Yantra
An MHRD initiative under NMEICT Programme, named “e-Yantra” is implemented to
incorporate Robotics into engineering education with the objective of engaging students through
exciting hands-on application of mathematics, computer science, and engineering principles.
Creation of robotic platforms has been very successfully demonstrated during Phase-I of the
project. Presently, e-Yantra has been implemented in 100 colleges.

Campus Connectivity
The National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology
(NMEICT) aims to leverage the potential of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in
teaching and learning process. The Mission also aims to provide 20 Broadband connections of
512 Kbps speed to over 25,000 colleges and 2000 polytechnics and optical ber connectivity
one Gbps to 419 universities/ university level institutions in the country which includes internet
facility.

Talk to a Teacher
Talk to a Teacher developed by IIT Bombay, is an initiative of the National Mission on Education
through ICT, funded by MHRD to provide free access to a few selected graduate and
postgraduate courses, taught at IIT Bombay by distinguished faculty members and scholars at
large.

Ask A Question
Ask A Question is a unique platform through which students from science and engineering
colleges all over India can ask questions and faculty from IIT Bombay answers them. Students
can ask questions either through an online forum or during an interactive live session.

e-Acharya
e-Acharya also called ‘Integrated e-Content Portal’ of NMEICT, is the o_cial repository of
NMEICT econtent and all content produced under NMEICT is being put at this Repository
platform at INFILIBNET Centre Gandhinagar, so to apply basic tenets of preservation for digital
content, implement standard Metadata schema of different types for the digital content and
ensure their long-term availability.

E-Kalpa
Another MHRD/ NMEICT initiative named “e-Kalpa” creating Digital-Learning Environment for
Design in India has successfully demonstrated the achievement of the following project
objectives, on completion of its phase-I:
1. Digital online content for learning Design with e-Learning programs on Design
2. Digital Design Resource Database including the craft sector

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3. Social networking for Higher Learning with collaborative Learning Space for Design
4. Design inputs for products of National Mission in Education through ICT

The Free and Open Source Software for Education (FOSSEE)

FOSSEE project sanctioned to IIT Bombay has been promoting use of open source software in
educational institutions (http://fossee.in). It does through instructional material, such as spoken
tutorials, documentation, such as textbook companions, awareness programmes, such as
conferences, training workshops, and Internships. Textbook Companion (TBC) is a collection of
code for solved examples of standard textbooks.

e-Vidwan
The ‘Information and Library Network’ (INFLIBNET) Centre took the initiative called “Vidwan:
Expert Database and National Researcher’s Network” with the financial support from NMEICT.

Objectives:-
collect academic and research profiles of scientists, faculty and research scientists working in
leading academic and R&D organizations in India and abroad;
quickly and conveniently provide information about experts to peers, prospective
collaborators, funding agencies, policy makers and research scholars in the country;
establish communication directly with the experts who possess the expertise needed by
research scholars;
identify peer reviewers for review of articles and research proposals; and
create information exchanges and networking opportunities among scientist.

Central cloud Infrastructure

Central cloud Infrastructure: The MHRD under NMEICT has awarded a project to IIT Delhi, to
set up a robust 24X7 backed Data Centre and the activities have been put up at NIC / NKN
Data Centre, and the cloud is called ‘Baadal’. The IIT Delhi cloud is hosting e-content and video
content of e-Acharya.

NIRF
launched on 29th September 2015 by MHRD, this framework intents to outlines a methodology
for ranking the institutions across our country. The Core Committee set up by MHRD arrived at
the broad level understanding and hence give overall recommendations. Then only the
methodology has been driven.

GIAN
Aimed to tap the talent of the strong academic network of the country-scientists, entrepreneurs,
at international level. To encourage their overall engagement with Higher Education Institutes in
India

UAY

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The major objectives of the UAY scheme are to promote innovation & development in IITs
addressing the issues of the manufacturing industries; to spur the innovative mindset; to
coordinate the action between the academia & industry and to strengthen the labs & the
research facilities.

IMPRINT
IMPRINT-Impacting Research Innovation & Technology. First of this kind Pan-IIT + IISc joint
initiative supported by MHRD to address the major challenges in science and engineering.
These challenges are must to fix and India must champion in that to enable and empower the
country for self-reliance and inclusive growth.

Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme of Government of India (TEQIP)

Launched by MHRD in December 2002. It was aimed to support and upscale ongoing efforts in
improving the quality of technical education in India and enhancing the existing capacities of the
technical institutions to become more dynamic, quality conscious, demand-driven, forward-
looking, effective and responsive.

RUSA
Rashtriya Uchchtar Shiksha Abhiyan. It is the Centrally Sponsored Scheme planned by the
Central Government has to implement the strategic funding, reforms, and improvements in the
Higher Education sector at the state level.

ICT and Governance

The term e-governance focuses on the use of new ICT by governments as applied to the full
range of government functions. Thus e-governance is the application of information and
communication technology for delivering government services, exchange of information,
communication, transaction, integration, various stands alone systems and services between
government and citizens, government and business as well as back office process and
interaction within the entire government frame work.
ICT acts in speeding up the flow of information and knowledge between government and citizen
and transforming the way in which government and citizen interact.

Types of Government Interaction in e-governance.

G2G: Government to Government-
 e-office project of central government for file movement across the departments

G2C: Government to Citizen

 CSC(Scheme to deliver various services to Citizen of India)
 Bharat Bill Pay(One Stop Bill payment System)
 Passport Seva Kendra
 PAN(NSDL & UTI Services)
 E-District (Various certificates/ licences, social welfare scheme, RTI, Land registration,
etc)

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 EPIC(Election Commission services)

 IRCTC
 e-Panchayat
 e-Court Mission Mode Project (MMP)
 NTA- National Testing Agency
 National Agriculture Market (eNAM)

G2B: Government to Business

 MCA- All Business relates needs & requirements for Company
 e-tender
 GST
 e-Biz Mission Mode Project
 E-Gem(Government e Marketplace )
 Government Online Procurement Portal

G2E: Government to Employee

 Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana
 The EPF-EPS model- EPFO & provident funds

National e-Government Plan(NeGP)

National e-Governance Plan(NeGP) – make all government services accessible to common
man in his locality, through common service delivery outlets and ensure efficiency, transparency
& reliability of such services at affordable cost to realize the basic needs of the common man.

Digital India
The Digital India programme is a flagship programme of the Government of India with a vision to
transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
 The focus is on being transformative – to realize IT + IT = IT
 The focus is on making technology central to enable change.
 It is an Umbrella Programme – covering many departments.

MCQ

1. Select the true statement about an operating system (OS)?

(1) An OS controls peripheral, allocates memory and organizes data into fields and records.
(2) An OS provides protection against viruses and controls peripherals.
(3) An OS controls peripheral, and allocates memory and processor time.
(4) An OS controls the processor and peripherals and allows the user to connect to the
internet
Answer: 3.

2. Which of the following is a type of malware intentionally inserted into a software system
that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met?

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(1) Worm
(2) Trojan
(3) Spyware
(4) Logic bomb
Answer: 4

3. Which of the following statements(s) is/are true in respect of wireless technology?

P: Bluetooth is a wireless technology which can be used to connect a headset to a mobile
phone.
Q: Bluetooth is a long-range wireless technology and is a low cost means of data transfer.
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) Both P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Answer: 1

4 Which of the following file format is not a video file format?

(1) .AVI
(2) .MOV
(3) .MP4
(4) JPEG
Answer: 4

5. SMTP is an acronym for:

(1) Simple Mail Transport Protocol
(2) Simple Mail Terminal Protocol
(3) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(4) Simple Mail Transition Protocol
Answer: 3

6. A computer has a main memory of 960 Kbytes. What is the exact number of bytes
contained in this memory?
(1) 960 × 8
(2) 960 × 1000
(3) 960 × 1024
(4) 960 × 1024 × 1024
Answer: 2

7. The convenient place to store contact information for quick retrieval in e-mail is:
(1) Address box
(2) Message box
(3) Address book
(4) Message book
Answer : 3

8. Why would BCC: be used in an e-mail?

(1) BCC: allows the recipient to identify all the other recipients in the list when a group email
address is used.

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(2) BCC: allows the sender to indicate who the email is for if there is more than one
recipient.
(3) BCC: allows the sender of a message to conceal the recipient entered in the BCC: field
from the other recipients.
(4) BCC: allows recipients to be visible to all other recipients of the message.
Answer: 3

9. Jatin’s laptop has an LCD screen. The acronym LCD stands for:
(1) Light Crystal Display
(2) Liquid Compact Display
(3) Light Compact Display
(4) Liquid Crystal Display
Answer: 4

10. Which of the following is an example of proprietary system software?

(1) Linux
(2) Microsoft Internet explorer
(3) Microsoft office
(4) Microsoft windows
Answer: 4

11. With respect to computers, which one of the following best describes phishing?
(1) A malicious program installed on a system that stays concealed to avoid detection.
(2) A method of bypassing normal authentication procedures over a connection to a
network.
(3) A type of unsolicited bulk email of identical messages sent to numerous recipients.
(4) An attempt to acquire sensitive information for malicious reasons, by masquerading as a
trustworthy entity.
Answer : 4

12. A computer network which is used within a building is called a:

(1) WAN (2) MAN
(3) LAN (4) SAN
Answer: 3

13. A/An ________ is a computer program that spreads by inserting copies of itself into
other executable code or documents.
(1) Operating system
(2) Computer Virus
(3) Firewall
(4) Anti-virus
Answer:2

14. Which of the following is not a/an web browser?

(1) Internet Explorer
(2) Mozilla Firefox
(3) Google Chrome
(4) Yahoo

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Answer: 4

15. One Terabyte (TB) of memory is equal to:

(1) 1024 KB
(2) 1024 × 1024 KB
(3) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 KB
(4) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 Bytes
Answer :3

16. Which one of the following processes is the main task for the computer in mapping the
geographical data?
1. Data storage
2. Data visualization
3. Data retrieving and drawing
4. Data Collection
Answer: 3.

17. In computer terminology which of following describe device drivers

1. Hardware that allows interaction between peripheral device and the operating system.
2. Software that allow the user to control the operating system
3. Software that allows interaction between peripheral device and the operating system.
4. Software that allow the user to control the operating system
Answer: 3

18. Which of the following is not true about RAM?

1. RAM is a temporary storage area
2. RAM is the same as hard disk storage
3. RAM is volatile
4. Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off
Answer: 2

19. Most World Wide Web pages contain commands in the language _______________
1. NIH
2. URL
3. HTML
4. IRC
Answer: 3

20. Which one of the following would not be considered as a form of secondary storage?
1. Floppy Disk
2. Optical Disk
3. RAM
4. Flash Drive
Answer: 3

21. What does the acronym WAN stand for?

1. Widest Area Network
2. Wild Area Network

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3. Wide Area Networking

4. Wide Area Network
Answer: 4

22. FTP is an acronym for–

1. File Transaction Protocol
2. File Truncation Protocol
3. File Translation Protocol
4. File Transfer Protocol
Answer: 4

23. Bluetooth is a type of radio wave information transmission system that is good for about
____________
1) 30 feet
2) 30 yards
3) 30 miles
4) 300 miles
Answer: 1

24. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE ?
P : ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q : Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual,
telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Answer: (2)

25. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power than
previous Laptop models. Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish
this ?
(1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse
(2) Faster Random Access Memory
(3) Blu Ray Drive
(4) Solid State Hard Drive
Answer: (4)

26. Given the following email _elds, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see
when he receives the message ?
To… [email protected]
Cc… [email protected]; [email protected]
Bcc… [email protected]; [email protected]
(1) [email protected]
(2) [email protected]; [email protected]; [email protected]
(3) [email protected]; [email protected]
(4) [email protected]; [email protected]; [email protected]; [email protected]
Answer: (2)

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27. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit
first and going down to the largest unit :
(a) Kilobyte (b) Byte (c) Megabyte
(d) Terabyte (e) Gigabyte (f) Bit
Give your answer from the following code :
(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)
(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
Correct answer is (3) i.e. bit<Byte<KB<MB<GB<TB

28. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?
P : Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
Q : Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
R : Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q only
(4) P and R only
Correct answer should be (2)

29. Which of the following domains is used for – pro_t businesses?

(1) .net
(2) .edu
(3) .com
(4) .org
Answer: (3)

30. The data storage hierarchy consists of:

(1) Bits, bytes, fields, records, files and databases
(2) Bits, bytes, records, fields, files and databases
(3) Bits, bytes, fields, files, records and databases
(4) Bytes, bits, fields, records, files and databases
Answer: (1)

31. What is the full form of USB as used in computer-related activities?

(1) Universal Security Block
(2) Universal Serial Bus
(3) United Serial Bus
(4) Ultra Security Block
Answer: (2)

32. What is the name of a web page address?

(1) Directory
(2) Protocol
(3) URL
(4) Domain

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Answer: (3)

33. Which of the following represents billion characters?

(1) Megabytes
(2) Kilobytes
(3) Gigabytes
Answer: (3)

34. Read the following two statements :

I : Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information
Technology (IT).
II : The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed as copyright. Which of the above
statement(s) is/are CORRECT ?
(1) Both I and II
(2) Neither I nor II
(3) II only
(4) I only
Answer: (2)

35. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest
speed ?
(1) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers
(2) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)
(3) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
(4) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
Answer: (2)

36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?

S1 : The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
S2 : In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
(1) S1 only
(2) S2 only
(3) Both S1 and S2
(4) Neither S1 nor S2
Answer: (2)

37. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information
in a publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged
publication is called
(1) Electronic mail
(2) Data sourcing
(3) Mail merge
(4) Spam mail
Answer: (3)

38. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for
(1) Digital Vector Disc
(2) Digital Volume Disc

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(3) Digital Versatile Disc

(4) Digital Visualization Disc
Answer: (3)

39. The statement “the study, design, development, implementation, support or

management of computer based information systems, particularly software applications and
computer Hardware” refers to
(1) Information Technology (IT)
(2) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)
(3) Information and Data Technology (IDT)
(4) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Answer: (1)

40. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent
of the decimal number 51 is given by
(1) 110011 (2) 110010 (3) 110001 (4) 110100
Answer: (1)

41. The process of copying _les to a CD-ROM is known as

(1) Burning (2) Zipping (3) Digitizing (4) Ripping
Answer: (1)

42. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once is a

(1) Worm (2) Virus (3) Threat (4) Spam
Answer: (4)

43. ________ is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.
(1) RIM (Read Initial Memory)
(2) RAM (Random Access Memory)
(3) ROM (Read Only Memory)
(4) Cache Memory
Answer: (3)

44. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in

order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys mat the computer user
selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for
(1) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(2) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
(3) American Standard Code for Information Integrity
(4) American Standard Code for Isolated Information
Answer: (1)

45. NMEICT stands for :

(1) National Mission on Education through ICT
(2) National Mission on E-govemance through ICT
(3) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(4) National Mission on E-learning through ICT
Answer: (1)

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46. Which of the following is an instant messaging application ?

(a) WhatsApp
(b) Google Talk
(c) Viber
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: (4)

47. In a Computer a byte generally consists of :

(1) 4 bits (2) 8 bits (3) 16 bits (4) 10 bits
Answer: (2)

48. Which of the following is not an input device ?

(1) Microphone (2) Keyboard (3) Joystick (4) Monitor
Answer: (4)

49. Which of the following is an open source software ?

(1) MS Word (2) Windows (3) Mozilla Firefox (4) Acrobat Reader
Answer: (3)
50. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS
Word
(1) Mail join (2) Mail copy
(3) Mail insert (4) Mail merge
Answer: (4)

51. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as :

(1) Protection (2) Detection (3) Encryption (4) Decryption
Answer: (3)

52. Which of the following is not an output device ?

(1) Printer (2) Speaker (3) Monitor (4) Keyboard
Answer: (4)

53. Which of the following represents one billion characters ?

(1) Kilobyte (2) Megabyte (3) Gigabyte (4) Terabyte
Answer: (3)

54. Which of the following is not open source software ?

(1) Internet explorer (2) Fedora Linux (3) Open office (4) Apache HTTP server
Answer: (3)

55. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25 ?
(1) 10101 (2) 01101 (3) 11001 (4) 11011
Answer: (3)

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56. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting ?

(1) Altavista (2) MAC (3) Microsoft Office (4) Google Talk
Answer: (4)

57. CSS stands for

(A) Cascading Style Sheets
(B) Collecting Style Sheets
(C) Comparative Style Sheets
(D) Comprehensive Style Sheets
Answer: (A)

58. MOOC stands for

(A) Media Online Open Course
(B) Massachusetts Open Online Course
(C) Massive Open Online Course
(D) Myrind Open Online Course
Answer: (C)

59. Binary equivalent of decimal number 35 is

(A) 100011 (B) 110001
(C) 110101 (D) 101011
Answer: (A)

60. gif. jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for _les which store
(A) audio data (B) image data (C) video data (D) text data
Answer: (B)

61. Symbols A-F are used in which one of the following ?

(A) Binary number system
(B) Decimal number system
(C) Hexadecimal number system
(D) Octal number system
Answer: (C)

62. Which one of the following is not a search engine ?

(A) Google (B) Chrome
(C) Yahoo (D) Bing
Answer: (B)

63. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by

(A) RAM (B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM (D) TCP
Answer: (B)

64. Which one of the following is not. the same as the other three ?
(A) MAC address
(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address

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(D) IP address
Answer: (D)

65. Identify the IP address from the following:

(A) 300-215 -317-3
(B) 302-215@ 417 -5
(C) 202 . 50 . 20 . 148
(D) 202-50-20-148
Answer: (C)

66. The acronym FTP stands for

(A) File Transfer Protocol
(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
Answer: (A)

67. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG (B) GIF
(C) BMP (D)GUI
Answer: (D)

68. The first web browser is

(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
Answer: (C)

69. Which of the following is a social network ?

(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter
Answer: (D)

70. Internal communication within institutions is done through

(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
Answer: (A)

71.’ ‘www’ stands for

(A) work with web
(B) word wide web
(C) world wide web
(D) worth while web

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Answer: (C)

72. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters (B) Sectors (C) Vectors (D) Head
Answer: (B)

73. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine
language is called a / an
(A) Compiler (B) Simulator (C) Translator (D) Interpreter
Answer: (D)

74. A Gigabyte is equal to

(A) 1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes
Answer: (A)

75. A Compiler is software which converts

(A). Characters to bits.
(B) High level language to machine language.
(C) Machine language to high level language
(D) Words to bits
Answer: (B)

76. Virtual memory

(A) an extremely large main memory.
(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory
(D) a type of memory used in super computers.
Answer: (C)

77. ALU stands for

(A) American Logic Unit
(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
Answer: (D)

78. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board
(D) Mother Board
Answer: (D)

79. Computer Virus is a

(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria (C) Software (D) None of these

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Answer: (C)

80. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer.
(A) TCP (B) FTP
(C) SMTP (D) POP
Answer: (D)

81. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the

(A) Phone lines
(B) LAN
(C) Internet
(D) a Server
Answer: (C)

82. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Answer: (B)

83. Which of the following is not a programming language ?

(A) Pascal
(B) Microsoft O_ce
(C) Java
(D) C++
Answer: (B)

84. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 10
Answer: (D)

85. Internet explorer is a type of

(A) Operating System
(B) Compiler
(C) Browser
(D) IP address
Answer: (C)1

86. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which

(A) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday
(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail
(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(D) One does not need any telephone lines
Answer: (C)

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87. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones ?

(A) Windows Vista
(B) Android
(C) Windows XP
(D) All of the above
Answer: (B)

88. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest
of all ?
(A) (1111)2 (B) (1111)8 (C) (1111)10 (D) (1111)16
Answer: (A)

89. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which
of the following ?
(A) Oracle (B) Compiler (C) Mat lab (D) Assembler
Answer: (B)

90. HTML is used to create

(A) machine language program
(B) high level program
(C) web page
(D) web server
Answer: (C)

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Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)

PEOPLE, DEVELOPMENT AND ENVIRONMENT

In India, Prime Minister Sh. Narendra Modi with his High-Level Steering Committee periodically
reviews and refines the National Indicator Framework (NIF) to monitor the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs).

The targets of the team are:

 To check the on-going national policies, programmes and plans and work upon the
developmental challenges.
 To monitor the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the national and state levels
and how they scientifically measure the outcomes of the policies.
 The committee also reviews the National Indicator Framework for its enhancement.
 For effective monitoring, sophisticated IT tools are used.

SDGs with 17 Goals and 169 Targets intend for the promotion of sustainable,
inclusive and equitable economic growth, creating greater opportunities for all,
reducing inequalities, raising basic standards of living, fostering equitable social
development and inclusion, promoting integrated and sustainable management of
natural resources and ecosystems.

SDG India Index scores within each Goal, leading States/UT’s can be identified under each
goal-
1. No poverty – Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry
2. Zero hunger – Goa and Delhi
3. Good health and well being – Kerala and Pondicherry
4. Quality education – Kerala
5. Gender equality – Kerala, Sikkim and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
6. Clean water and sanitation – Gujarat, Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and
Lakshadweep
7. Affordable and clean energy – Tamil Nadu and Chandigarh
8. Decent work and economic growth – Goa and Daman & Diu
9. Industry innovation and infrastructure – Manipur, Delhi and Pondicherry
10. Reduced inequality – Meghalaya, Mizoram, Telangana, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman &
Diu and Lakshadweep

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11. Sustainable cities and communities – Goa and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
12. Life on land – Assam, Chhattisgarh, Goa, Manipur, Odisha, Uttarakhand, Dadra & Nagar
Haveli and Lakshadweep
13. Peace, justice and strong institutions – Himachal Pradesh and Pondicherry

 The National Indicator Framework (NIF) helps to monitor and report on the
progress of SDGs on the national level.
 To achieve the deadline of 2030, the United Nations has introduced many
initiatives so that it could be more effective, organized and accountable.
 Human and Environment Interaction: Anthropogenic activities and their impacts
on the Environment

Renewable and non-renewable resources

Resources can be classified as renewable and non-renewable resources. Renewable resources
can be replenished by natural means like solar energy is powered by heat from the sun and
never runs out. Oxygen, water, solar energy and biomass are some examples of renewable
resources.
Whereas, non-renewable resources cannot be replenished by natural means and quickly as the
rate they are consumed like minerals and fossils fuels such as oil, coal and gas which are
produced over several of years by natural processes from decayed plants and animals.

Energy resources
Renewable and non-renewable resources play a major role in energy resources. For global
Industrialization, fossil fuels are the main energy source, but as they are non-renewable the
quantity is limited and is not sustainable for longer period. Another main cause of climatic
change is due to the burning of fossil fuels. The wood we know is a renewable source, when we
cut the trees, it will re-grow but this also causes deforestation.

Water resources
The direct use of water can be categorized into three main categories –
 Domestic use
 Agricultural use
 Industrial use

Environmental Issues
Environmental issues like
 global warming
 air pollution
 water pollution
 noise pollution
 space pollution
 heat pollution

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 acid rain
 waste disposal
 ozone layer depletion
 use of fossil energy
 greenhouse gas releases
 climatic changes, etc

The environment consists of three components.

A biotic or non-living component, which is subdivided into the three categories like,
 Lithosphere (Rocks, soil and solid air)
 The hydrosphere (water component)
 Atmosphere (gaseous envelope) which is again divided into four zones, namely:-
 Troposphere
 Stratosphere
 Ionosphere, and
 Exosphere.

Thus the three basic divisions of the physical environment may be termed as
 Lithospheric Environment
 Hydrospheric Environment
 Atmospheric Environment.

The biotic or living component consists of flora and fauna including man as an important factor.
Thus the biotic environment may be divided into
i) Plants Environment and
ii) Animals Environment.

Environmental pollution
There are several kinds of pollution, they are as follows:
 Air Pollution – Air pollution is mainly caused due to the release of toxic gases or
smokes from the industries or small factories.
 Water Pollution – As natural water resources is diminishing day by day, water has
become a scarcity. The major issues due to which water pollution are cause are the
lakes and rivers are filled with the sewage, garbage or liquid wastes from the
households, agricultural lands and factories. They contain harmful chemicals which
makes the water poisonous for the aquatic plants and animals.
 Waste disposal/garbage pollution – When there are no proper waste disposal
mechanisms, the garbage gets accumulated which cause garbage pollution. There
should be a proper waste disposal system so that it does not pollute our environment.
 Noise Pollution – Noise pollution is caused when there are excessive noises which are
disturbing others, creating physical and mental health like sleep disturbance, hearing
loss, hypertension, etc. They are mainly due to noise from the machines, transportation
systems, aircraft, trains, etc.

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The major factors of pollution are:

 Population growth – population growth has become a global problem. Population

growth is the major cause of the degradation of the environment. With the increase in
population, people require land for buildings, more minerals, more water and more
energy. The effects include uses of chemical fertilizers, insecticides, deforestation,
increased population and heavy transportation, etc.
 Urbanization – with the increase in population, people moving from villages to towns
and cities causing chaos as they face various problems like lack of water, sanitation,
houses at an affordable price, roads, public transport, traffic problems, congestions,
fresh air, as well as an unsafe social environment.
 Agricultural development – agricultural practices causes ecological and social harm in
developing countries. They pollute the environment in various ways like:
-Through chemical fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides
-Through unreasonable facilities and other irrigation processes.
-By making changes in biological communities.
 Industrialization – industrial revolution had brought drastic changes in manufacturing,
agriculture, animal husbandry and transportation among various other things. Without
proper treatment, these industries discharge wastewater into rivers causing water
pollution. Misuse of natural resources to meet the industrial demands has resulted in,
-reduction of forests due to the cutting of trees.
-digging of land for mining purposes.
-lowering of groundwater level due to excessive extraction of groundwater.
 Deforestation – forests play a vital role in India for its economy, social and cultural.
Deforestation gives problems to various issues like soil erosion, increase of residue in
the rivers, increase of floods and droughts. Growth of greenhouse effects which
destructs the atmospheric storms, etc., damage to agricultural crops due to floods and
droughts results in loss of economy. It also results in a decrease in agricultural
production, the supply of raw materials to the industries and building matters, etc.
 Electronic waste (E-waste) – electronics, telecommunications, and computerizations
are inseparable in this fast developing economy like India. But, these electronic devices
contain toxic substances and their disposal and recycling become a health issue. E-
waste is growing very fast as people changing their devices more frequently than ever
before. Each year they are just dumped or burnt. Though global initiatives have been
started in 2006 to phase out chemicals from electronic devices with the launch of the
Restriction of Hazardous Substances Directive (RoHS) in Europe.
 Thermal power plants – power plants mainly use coal for generating electricity. Energy
in the form of electricity is a basic requirement for any developmental activities and can
be generated by various methods, materials and mechanisms. The wear and tear of
plant and machinery, low thermal efficiency, choking and scaling of furnaces results to a
large amount of fly ash. Due to little land space, thermal plants cannot afford an ash
pond and they let the waste run into the nearby river or stream, choking the drainage

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system. Coal-based thermal plants pollute the atmosphere by emitting gaseous

substance like sulphur dioxide (SO2), Nitrogen oxide etc., causing acid rain, damage of
soil, vegetation and aquatic life of that region.

It is preferred that power plants should be placed more on wastelands but with the course of
time, we can find that some of the cultivable areas are covered for ash mount site. The
presence of fly ash is very harmful to the lungs as it affects the tissues of the respiratory tract
when inhaled.

 Modern productive technology – though modern technologies and techniques have

enabled the man to increase his comfort level. But, these also have created several
environmental problems affecting our forests, rivers, streams, etc. The most dangerous
is the production of toxic chemicals, synthetic materials. Disposal of plastics is also a
main issue for any developing or advanced countries. Another major which is affecting
our environment is the disposal of nuclear wastes coming out of nuclear reactor plants.

Impacts of Pollutants on Human Health

Health impacts of some specific air pollutants

 Tobacco smoke – it generates harmful chemicals and causes cancer to the smoker. It
also affects the passive smoker like burning sensation in the eyes or nose, throat
irritation, etc.
 Volatile organic compounds – they can cause irritation of the eyes, throat, nose,
headaches and nausea. They even can damage the liver and other parts of the body.
 Lead – the exposure damages the nervous system, digestive problems, cancer. It is also
dangerous to small children.
 Ozone – the exposure to this gas causes itching on the eyes, burning and watery. It also
increases respiratory disorders like asthma. It also lowers the resistance to colds and
pneumonia.
 Nitrogen oxide – this gas makes the children disposed to respiratory diseases in
winters.
 Carbon monoxide – carbon monoxide combines with hemoglobin and lessens the
required oxygen that enters our blood through lungs. This causes changes in the
function of the affected organs like the brain and cardiovascular system. It also affects
the concentration level, makes one sleepy.
 Sulphur dioxide – sulphur dioxide in the air are caused due to the increase in the
burning of fossil fuels. It causes diseases of lungs and other lung disorders like
wheezing and shortness of breath.
 Suspended particulate matter (SPM) – they consist of dust, mist, fumes and smoke.
The main components of SPM that affects the health are lead, nickel, arsenic and those
present in diesel exhaust. When we breathe these particles it affects our lungs causing
lung damage and respiratory problems.

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Water pollution is also harmful to human beings.

 Water is very important for survival. We need clean water for drinking, irrigation of crops
and many other purposes.
 If the water resources like the lake, river, streams are polluted and contaminated it will
affect our health. If we drink polluted water then diseases like amoebiasis, typhoid and
hookworm will affect our health.
 Water is polluted by chemicals like heavy metals, lead, pesticides and hydrocarbon
causes hormonal and reproductive problems, damages the nervous system, liver and
kidney. Exposure to mercury causes diseases like Parkinson’s, Alzheimer’s, heart
disease and death.
 If the sea beaches are polluted then diseases like rashes, hepatitis, gastroenteritis,
diarrhoea, stomach aches and vomiting will happen.
 Water pollution also affects our marine life which is one of the food sources.

Soil pollution
Soil pollution happens when the toxic chemicals, pollutants or contaminants in the soil are high
causing risk to the plants, wildlife, human beings and to the soil.
The major causes of soil pollution are:
 Use of chemicals like pesticides, herbicides, insecticides and fertilizers are the main
factors.
 The breaking of the underground storage tank
 Leakage of wastes from landfills
 Direct discharge of industrial wastes
 Harmful irrigation practices
 Improper maintenance
 Leakage from sanitary sewage, acid rain falling onto the soil
 Fuel leakage of automobiles that soak into the soil
 Soil pollution can have harmful effects on ecosystems, human beings and plants. It can
harm the water and food which are in direct contact with the polluted soil.

Noise pollution
When there is too much noise or an unpleasant sound causing a temporary disruption in the
natural balance is known as noise pollution.
The main causes of noise pollution are:
 Industrialization
 Poor urban planning
 Social events
 Transportation
 Construction activities
 Household chores
 Noise pollution causes health issues like
 Hearing problems
 Sleeping disorders

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 Cardiovascular issues
 Trouble in communicating

Radioactive pollution
Radioactive pollution happens when there is the presence of radioactive materials in the
environment caused by the emission of harmful radiations like alpha or beta particles or gamma
rays.
The main causes of radioactive pollution are:
 Nuclear accidents from nuclear energy generation plants
 The use of nuclear weapons for mass destruction
 Mining
 Spillage of radioactive chemicals
 Tests on radiation
 Cosmic rays

The major effects of radioactive pollution are:

 Genetic mutations
 Diseases like cancer
 Infertility in soils
 Cell destruction

Some of the solutions of radioactive pollution are:

 We should dispose of the radioactive wastes properly like burying the wastes.
 We should properly label the content of any radioactive content so that one can take
protective measures to handle it.
 Banning of nuclear tests
 We should think of alternative sources of energy like solar energy, hydro-electric and
wind power.
 Proper storage or container should be there for the radioactive materials so that there is
no leakage.

Light pollution
By light pollution, we understand the excessive, flashy and unwanted artificial lighting.
The cause of light pollution is mainly due to Industrialization & Modernization.
Following are the adverse effects of light pollution:
 Over-illumination causes headache, fatigue, stress and anxiety.
 Light trespass during night causes the sleeping disorder.
 Glaring on outdoor lights decreases our vision and the chances of accidents increases.

Conventional and Non-Conventional Sources of Energy

Conventional or Non-renewable Sources

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Coal and Lignite:

Coal is the major source of energy. Coal is the mainstay of India’s energy sector accounting for
over 50 per cent of primary commercial energy supply in 2010–11.
The gap between the demand and the domestic supply of coal has made it imperative to
augment domestic production both from the public sector and the private sector and to expedite
the reform process for realizing efficiency gains through increased competition in the sector
during the 12th Plan.
Lignite production was 20.44 million tons in 2005-06. According to an estimate, coal reserves in
India would last about 130 years.
Types of Coal On the basis of characteristics, heating value, carbon and volatile matter,
Coal is divided into mainly the following types:
a) Anthracite (hard coal)
 It is hard, black, lustrous, shiny and dense.
 This is the highest grade coal with calorific value of 8,250 to 8,700 kcal/kg.
 It contains 86-98% of carbon.
 Volatile matter is low being just 2-14%.

b) Bituminous (Soft coal)

 It is also high grade coal next to anthracite.
 It has a calorific value in the range of 7,500 to 8,700 kcal/kg. It contains about 46-86%
carbon.
 Volatile matter is low and can be removed by heating in the absence of air, when it gets
converted into coke. More the volatility, lower is the heating value.
 It is used for combustion, hydrogenation, gasification, blending, domestic use and
metallurgy.

C) Lignite (Brown coal)

 It is inferior quality, low grade coal.
 It has laminar (banded) structure with woody, fibrous, brownish black appearance,
resembling wood, hence the name. In Latin, Lignum means wood.
 Its calorific value is 6,150 to 7,300 kcal/kg.
 It has a moisture content of about 30-50% before exposure to air.
 Its volatile matter is about 30%. Lignite when exposed to air gets oxidized.
 Due to high moisture, rapid oxidation and low heating value, it is not economical to
transport it to distant places.
 It is burned in pit head power plants.

d) Peat
 Peat is a solid fuel with highest moisture content.
 It is not fully matured form as it is partially decomposed, so
 It is not true coal.
 Its heating value is much less and is lower than that of wood.

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 It has about 90% moisture.

 It is used as a low grade fuel.

Oil and Natural Gas:

Petroleum is derived from dead animals that lived in remote past. Natural gas has also been
produced in the Earth’s crust by similar processes and this is also a combustible fuel.
In India, efforts made by the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) and Oil India since the
late 1950s have led to the identification of a number of oil and gas deposits both offshore and
onshore. The onshore fields were mainly discovered in the Mumbai, Gujarat, Assam and
Arunachal Pradesh; and the offshore fields in the sea were notably the Mumbai High fields such
as North and South Basin and South Tapti.

Hydrogen-CNG Fuel Centre

The Renewable Energy Ministry on 7th June,2007 unveiled a Rs 25,000 crors roadmap to
promote use of hydrogen, with an estimated one million vehicles using it as fuel by 2020 and the
gas being used to fire electricity generation units for an aggregate 1,000 mw of electricity.

NON-CONVENTIONAL SOURCES OF ENERGY

The Ministry of Non-Conventional Energy Sources (MNES) created in 1992, is the nodal agency
of the Government of India for all matters relating to nonconventional/renewable energy.

Solar Energy
The Sun provides us enormous amounts of energy in the form of solar radiation-energy that
travels in small wave packets called photons, reaching the surface of the Earth from a distance
of 93 million miles. Radiation energy is released due to thermo-nuclear fusion going on
continuously in the Sun.
The solar energy reaching per square metre of the Earth’s atmosphere is called the ‘Solar
Constant’ and is equal to 1.36 KW in 12 hours.
 Conversion of solar energy into heat.
 Conversion of solar energy directly into electricity.
 Conversion of solar energy to plants, vegetable or other biological forms and application
of solar energy to convert these forms into usable forms of fuel. This may broadly be
termed as bio-energy.
 Indirect application of solar energy, such as, harnessing of winds, waves, temperature
gradients from the ocean, etc.

Wind Energy
Wind energy is the kinetic energy associated with movement of large masses of air resulting
from the differential heating of the atmosphere by the Sun. Hence, wind energy is nothing but
the converted form of solar energy. It is estimated that about 106 to 107 MW of usable power is
continuously available in the Earth’s winds.

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Wind Energy Conversion: The shaft power from the wind turbine can be utilized for a wide
variety of purposes, including electricity (AC & DC generation), direct pumping, direct
mechanical work, etc. The most common wind turbine system involves a tower mounted multi-
bladed rotor facing into the wind, rotating around a horizontal axis and turning an electrical
generator or a mechanical gearbox connected to its axis. The maximum power that can be
extracted from a wind turbine is 59.3 per cent.
Water Pumping Windmills: Small windmills with direct mechanical drive matched to a pump and
tank storage are in extensive use in many parts of the world. These hold significant potential for
pumping water irrigation, drinking needs, etc. Improved types of soil water pumping windmills
have also been developed in several countries, including India.
Wind Electric Conversion Systems: Wind energy is a high-quality form of mechanical
energy that can be converted into electrical energy with minimal energy losses. Since the rotor
of a windmill moves periodically, the output may be obtained in the form of alternating current
either by using a gearbox or fixing the rotational speed or by allowing speed variations and
transforming the generated electrical power.

Ocean Energy
The sea, which is constantly receiving solar radiations and acts as the world’s largest natural
solar collector, has potential to provide a means of utilizing renewable energy. It acts not only as
collector, but also has an enormous storage capacity. Energy from the ocean is available in
several forms such as ocean thermal energy, wave energy, tidal energy, salinity gradients,
ocean currents, ocean winds and biomass.

Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion

There exists a temperature difference of the order of 20°C between the warm surface water of
the sea and the cold deep water, and this natural temperature difference can be used to
generate energy. In one OTEC plant, the warm water from the surface with the temperature of
24 to 30°C is brought into one pipe and the cold water at the temperature of about 4 to 8°C is
brought in another pipe in the depth of about 1000 meters. These two pipes are used in
conjunction with fluid such as ammonia, propane or neon

Tidal Energy
Tides are created by the combined gravitational effect of the Earth, the Moon and the Sun.
Though the tide is the universal phenomenon of the Earth’s sea-water body, some regions are
more favorable for the establishment of such power plant for the commercial production of tidal
energy. Primary requirements for the construction of an installation having a capacity over 200
MW are
 an average tide of 5-12 meters;
 the possibility of linkage to a grid in order to accommodate the variable power output of
the tidal plant;
 Favorable geographical location and favorable socio-economic and ecological
conditions. Bulb type turbines as used in conventional hydro-electric stations have
proved to be reliable for generating power from the tides.

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In India, three potential sites have so far been identified, namely, the Gulfs of Kutch and
Cambay on the west coast in Gujarat and the Sunder bans along the east coast in West Bengal.

HYDRO ENERGY
The National Hydro-Electric Power Corporation (NHPC) was incorporated in 1975 with the
objectives to plan, promote and organize the integrated development of hydro-electric power.
NHPC Limited presently has an installation base of 5295 MW from 14 hydropower stations on
ownership basis, including projects taken up in Joint Venture.
Some important hydro-electric power projects constructed by NHPC are at Salal and Dulhasti
(both in J&K), Tanakpur (Uttarakhand), Chamera (HP), Baira Siul (HP), Chutak (J&K), Teesta
Low Dam – III (W.Bengal), Sewa – II (J&K), Teesta – V (Sikkim), Omkareshwar (MP),
Dhauliganga – I (Uttarakhand), Indira Sagar(MP), Rangit (Sikkim), Uri – I (J&K), and Loktak
(Manipur).

GEOTHERMAL ENERGY
Geothermal energy is the exploitation of heat energy of Earth within 10 km of the Earth’s upper
crust. Geothermal energy can be processed for generation of power, where the geothermal fluid
has a temperature of 130°C.
Geothermal manifestations are widespread in India in the form of 340 Hot Springs localities.
Only a few direct utilization schemes have been launched by various agencies. They are in
Puga, Chhumuthang, Manikaran and Bakreshwar. Of these, India’s most promising geothermal
field is in Puga valley in Ladakh. There are number of geothermal wells drilled in the valley.
Tattapani in Madhya Pradesh is another promising geothermal area in India.

CNG
Compressed Natural Gas or CNG is a cleaner alternative to the liquid petroleum. CNG
Is already in use in countries such as the USA, Japan, Italy, Brazil and New Zealand.
In Delhi, the Supreme Court has directed the operation of city buses exclusively on CNG fuel
mode. The government on its part launched CNG pilot project in Delhi as early as 1993.
Thanks to this project, CNG is now available in the NCR and most cities of the country.
CNG is cleaner fuel than the conventional fuel (petrol and diesel) as far as PM is concerned.
Further, CO, HC and NOX emission for CNG based car are lower because of the catalytic
converter fitted with them.

The Division of Disaster Management of Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of

India is the ministry for all matters at the Centre except the Drought. The Ministry
of Agriculture, Government of India, looks after the Drought Management. The
National Contingency Action Plan (NCAP) makes possible in relief and rescue
operations without delay.

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National Disaster Management Act 2005

The Parliament of India has passed the National Disaster Management Act in November 2005,
which brings a pattern in India’s approach to disaster management.
The Act provides for establishment of:
 National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
 State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA)
 District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA)
 Constitution of Disaster Response Fund and Disaster Mitigation Fund at National, State
and District levels Establishment of NIDM and NDRF.
 It gives penalties for obstruction, false claims, misuse etc.

Environmental Protection Act of 1986

19th November 1986, Environment Protection Act came in force in the Parliament of India in the
wake of Bhopal Tragedy. It is under Article 253 of the Indian Constitution. The Environment
Protection Act is mainly to the protection and development of the environment from the danger
of human beings, other living being, plants and property.
It mainly focuses on the prevention and development of pollution in the environment and the
causes of human health if any accident happens.

National Action Plan on Climate Change

National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) an initiative formulated by Government of
India on 30th June 2008 to deal with the future policies and programs for the climatic
improvement and adjustment. It put together the national plan on water, renewable energy,
energy efficiency agriculture, etc.
The executions of the Action plan are constituted under 8 missions that are responsible to
achieve the goals of adaptation and improvement. They are as follows:
National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) an initiative formulated by Government of
India on 30 June 2008 to deal with the future policies and programs for the climatic
improvement and adjustment. It put together the national plan on water, renewable energy,
energy efficiency agriculture, etc. The executions of the Action plan are constituted under 8
missions that are responsible to achieve the goals of adaptation and improvement. They are as
follows:
 National Solar Mission – The main objective is to use solar energy for power
generation and other uses. To promote the use of solar power, this initiative was started
in 2010.
 National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency – The main objective is to save
and promote maximum energy by developing new policies and measures. In 2009, the
Prime Minister’s Council approved it on Climate Change.
 National Mission on Sustainable Habitat – It emphasized on Energy conservation on
urban waste, management recycling which includes the production of power from waste,
development of energy efficiency in buildings and use of public transport. Prime Minister
approved this mission in 2011.

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 National Water Mission – To improve water efficiency through pricing and other
measures. The main objective of the mission is to help to preserve water, minimize
wastage and to make sure that the distributions of water are done on an equitable basis
across and within the states. Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and
Ganga Rejuvenation are the members who supported this mission.
 National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem – It aims to preserve the
biodiversity, forest conservation and other ecological problems that are causing
problems in the Himalayan region.
 National Mission for a “Green India” – Its main goal is to expand the forest and
promote “Green India” by protecting, refurbishing and enhancing the forests in India
which are diminishing. It’s taking various measures in responding to climate change by
adopting and taking different steps towards it. In 2014, Ministry of Environment and
Forests got go-ahead to work on this from the Cabinet.
 National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture – The main objective is how climatic
change affects crops and their development through various mechanisms. For example,
in areas where there are more rains, it focuses on integrated farming, use of water
efficiently, soil health management, etc. It got approval from the government in 2010.
 National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change – It aims for the
climatic changes and its impact. The mission tries to improve through research and
international collaboration. The mission is run by the Department of Science and
Technology.
International Agreements/efforts
 By international agreements, we mean treaties or contract between different countries
for different global issues like air pollution, climate change, protection of the ozone layer,
etc. International agreements have different names like treaties, pacts, protocols, acts,
etc.
 Most of the agreements are legally binding between the countries that have approved
them. Each nation has respective responsibilities under the agreements.

Montreal Protocol
The Montreal Protocol on Substance is a global agreement to protect the ozone layer by
phasing out the production of various substances that are responsible for ozone reduction. The
main objective of the Montreal Protocol was to protect the ozone layer by taking different steps
to manage the production and consumption of depleting substances (ODS) and to remove it
completely. It was agreed on 26 August 1987, and entered into force on 16 September 1989,
following the first meeting in Helsinki, May 1989.
Signed: 16 September 1987

Rio Summit
Rio Summit or The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED),
also known as the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit was the major United Nations conference which
was held on Rio from 3rd to 14th June 1992.

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The main objective of the summit was to stop the destruction of various natural resources and to
handle pollution which is affecting the planet. And the condition of the global environment and
its association between economics, science and the environment in a political context. 105
countries participated in the Earth Summit, for this development.

Convention on Biodiversity
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty with three main
objectives:-
1. Conservation of biodiversity
2. Sustainable use of biodiversity
3. Fair and equitable sharing of the benefits which occur from the genetic recourses.
This treaty was signed on 5th June 1992 and was effective from 29th December 1993. Over 196
countries participated in Rio de Janeiro.

UNFCCC – United Nation Framework Convention on Climate Change

 The UNFCCC secretariat (UN Climate Change) was established in 1992 when countries
adopted the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
 The UNFCCC entered into force on 21 March 1994. Today, it has near-universal
membership. The 197 countries that have ratified the Convention are called Parties to
the Convention.
 The convention is legally non-binding but makes provisions for the meeting called
‘protocols’ where negotiating countries can set legally binding limits.

Kyoto Protocol
The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement which was extended on the 1992 United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change like to reduce the greenhouse gas emission
based on scientific agreement.
 This Protocol was signed on 11th December 1997 and was effective from 16th February
2005 in Kyoto. Over 192 countries participated in this.
 India has ratified the second commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol known as the
Doha Amendment to the protocol

Paris Agreement
Paris Agreement is an international agreement to fight against climate change. The main
objective of this agreement was to stop global warming and the threat of dangerous climatic
changes. Over 195 countries participated in the Paris Agreement from 30th November to 11th
December 2015.
 The Paris Agreement opened for signature on 22 April 2016 – Earth Day – at UN
Headquarters in New York. It entered into force on 4 November 2016.
 Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-
industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 °C above
pre-industrial levels

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International Solar Alliance

In International Solar Alliance over 122 countries participated and the same was initiated by
India and founded in the year 2015.
 The main objective of this alliance is to increase the use of solar energy among the
International Solar Alliance member countries in a convenient, safe, affordable and
sustainable manner.
 Vision and mission of the International Solar Alliance is to provide a dedicated platform
for cooperation among solar resource-rich countries where the global community,
including bilateral and multilateral organizations, corporate, industry, and other
stakeholders, can make a positive contribution to assist and help achieve the common
goals of increasing the use of solar energy in meeting energy needs of prospective ISA
member countries in a safe, convenient, affordable, equitable and sustainable manner.
 Its major objectives include global deployment of over 1,000GW of solar generation
capacity and mobilization of investment of over US $1000 billion into solar energy by
2030.

1. The arsenic pollution in ground water in Bangladesh and parts of India is due to
(A) industrial waste
(B) thermal power plants
(C) natural sources
(D) agricultural practices

2. Among the following air pollutants which directly impacts human health as well as
climate?
(A) Soot
(B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Oxides of nitrogen
(D) Chlorofluoro carbons

3. Assertion (A): The problems of environmental sustainability are difficult to resolve.

Reason (R): Our understanding how environment works and how different human
choices affect environment is inadequate.

Choose the correct code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

4. The percentage share of electrical power from solar energy in the total electric power
generation from all renewable energy sources sought to be achieved by Indian
government by the year 2022, is
(A) ~ 57.1%

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(B) ~ 65.5%
(C) ~ 47.5%
(D) ~ 75%

5. As part of Intended Nationally Determined contributions, Indian government through

additional forest and tree cover has resolved to create an additional carbon sink (in
terms of carbon dioxide equivalent) by year 2030 to the extent of
(A) 3.5 to 4 billion tons
(B) 2.5 to 3 billion tons
(C) 1.5 to 2 billion tons
(D) 1 to 1.5 billion tons

6. Which of the following is a meteorological hazard?

(A) Avalanche
(B) Coastal erosion
(C) Landslide
(D) Blizzard

7. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?
(A) Untreated sewage
(B) Agriculture run-off
(C) Unregulated small scale industries
(D) Religious practices

8. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by

(A) 2022
(B) 2030
(C) 2040
(D) 2050

9. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
(A) 50 MW
(B) 25 MW
(C) 15 MW
(D) 10 MW

10. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.

Choose the correct code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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11. World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the
number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by
(with reference to the decade 1994-2003)
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%

12. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract
of human beings.
(A) Particulate matter
(B) Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Surface ozone
(D) Carbon monoxide

13. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?

(A) Wildfire
(B) Lightning
(C) Landslide
(D) Chemical contamination

14. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise
the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to
(A) 175 GW
(B) 200 GW
(C) 250 GW
(D) 350 GW

15. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the
correct sequence.
(A) Brazil > Russia > China > India
(B) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(C) Russia > China > Brazil > India
(D) China > Russia > Brazil > India

16. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
(a) Unvented gas stoves
(b) Wood stoves
(c) Kerosene heaters

Choose the correct code:

(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (b) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)

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17. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans ?

(A) Pesticides
(B) Mercury
(C) Lead
(D) Ozone

18. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in
checking environmental degradation.
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental
degradation is rather complex.

Choose the correct answer from the following

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

19. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum

(A) USA
(B) European Union
(C) China
(D) India

20. India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about

(A) ~ 3 PERC
(B) ~ 6 PERC
(C) ~ 10 PERC
(D) ~ 15 PERC

21. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The
ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately
(A) ~ 8
(B) ~ 16
(C) ~ 32
(D) ~ 64

22. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources

(A) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(B) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
(C) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
(D) Oil, forests and tides

23. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Fine particulate matter
(C) Ozone
(D) Chlorofluorocarbons

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24. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on
environment are
(A) Population, affluence per person, land available per person are
(B) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
(C) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
(D) Population, forest cover and land available per person

25. In terms of total CO2 emissions from a country, identity the correct sequence:
(A) U.S.A. > China > India > Russia
(B) China > U.S.A. > India > Russia
(C) China > U.S.A. > Russia > India
(D) U.S.A. > China > Russia > India

26. Match List – I and List – II and identify the correct code:
a. World Health Day i.16th September
b. World Population Day ii. 1st December
c. World Ozone Day iii. 11th July
d. World AIDS Day iv. 7th April

Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv ii i

27. Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than 2/3rd of global water
consumption?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Hydropower generation
(C) Industry
(D) Domestic and Municipal usage

28. One of the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants chlorofluorocarbons

(CFCs) in air is
(A) Cement Industry
(B) Fertiliser industry
(C) Foam industry
(D) Pesticide industry

29. The cyclone “Hudhud” hit the coast of which State?

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Gujarat

30. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?

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(A) Clean air

(B) Fresh water
(C) Fertile soil
(D) Salt

31. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy
per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon
based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is l5 x I06 kgs, the total
carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons

32. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent
times?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing

33. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is

(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents

34. 'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving

(A) eruption of large amount of material
(B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves
(D) strong wind and water waves

35. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general

agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface
temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 oC to 2 oC
(B) 2.0 oC to 3.5 oC
(C) 0.5 oC to 1.0 oC
(D) 0.25 oC to 0.5 oC

36. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence

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37. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List - II
(a) Flood (1) Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
(b) Drought (2) Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through
the rocks of the earth
(c) Earthquake (3) A vent through which molted substances come out
(d) Valcano (4) Excess rain and uneven distribution of water
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2

38. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in
the atmosphere?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide

39. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code
given below:
(i) Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
(ii) India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
(iii) The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
(iv) The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)

40. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the
code given below:
(i) Limits to Growth
ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

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41. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?

(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America

42. "Women are closer to nature than men." What kind of perspective is this?
(A) Realist
(B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist
(D) Deep ecology

43. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical
forests?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.

44. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment

interaction is one of the following:
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach

45. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector

46. ln a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Methane
(B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG
(D) CNG

47. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at
installing
(A) 20,000 MW of wind power
(B) 25,000 MW of wind power
(C) 20,000 MW of solar power
(D) 10,000 MW of solar power

48. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition?

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(A) Manas
(B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Seshachalam Hills
(D) Greater Nicobar

49. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Hydroelectric power generation
(C) Industry
(D) Urbanisation

50. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II

(Biosphere Reserve) (Area of Location)

a. Nilgiri i. Deccan Peninsula

b. Manas ii. Chhattisgarh

c. Similipal iii. Eastern Himalaya

d. Achankmar- Amarkantak iv. Western Ghat

Codes :
abcd
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii

51. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the
following does not form part of G5?
(A) Mexico
(B) Brazil
(C) China
(D) Korea

52. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-
oxide?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) USA
(D) India

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53. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%. Assuming
exponential growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world
would have increased by a factor 16?
(A) ~ 80 years
(B) ~ 40 years
(C) ~ 160 years
(D) ~ 320 years

54. The phrase “tragedy of commons” is in the context of

(A) tragic even related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D) climate change.

55. Kyoto Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy

56. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of
surface ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers

57. The smog in cities in Indian mainly consists of

(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone

58. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause
damage to humans?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods

59. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India
is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12%
(D) < 1%

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60. The phrase “tragedy of commons” is in the context of

(A) tragic even related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D) climate change.

61. Kyoto Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy

62. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of
surface ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers

63. The smog in cities in Indian mainly consists of

(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone

64. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause
damage to humans?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods

65. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India
is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12%
(D) < 1%

66. Which of the following is a source of methane?

(A) Wetlands
(B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants
(D) Cement Industry

67. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to

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(A) Lead
(B) Mercury
(C) Cadmium
(D) Zinc

68. Biomagnification means increase in the

(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(B) number of species
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass

69. Nagoya Protocol is related to

(A) Climate change
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste
(D) Biodiversity

70. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy
needs is
(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower
(D) Wind energy

ANSWER
1 C 2 A 3 A 4 A 5 B
6 D 7 A 8 B 9 D 10 A
11 B 12 C 13 D 14 D 15 C
16 D 17 A 18 A 19 A 20 B
21 C 22 A 23 D 24 C 25 B
26 B 27 A 28 C 29 A 30 D
31 W 32 D 33 C 34 A 35 A
36 C 37 A 38 C 39 D 40 C
41 A 42 B 43 A 44 D 45 B
46 B 47 C 48 D 49 A 50 D
51 D 52 C 53 A 54 C 55 C
56 A 57 B 58 D 59 C 60 C
61 C 62 A 63 B 64 D 65 C
66 A 67 B 68 A 69 D 70 C

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Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)

HIGHER EDUCATION SYSTEM

Following are the important bodies, which plays an important role in higher education
system in India.
 University Grants commission(UGC)

 all India Council for technical education(AICTE)

 Distance Education Council (DEC)

 Indian Council for Agriculture Research (lCAR)

 Bar Council of India (BCI)

 National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)

 Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)

 Medical Council of India (MCI)

 Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)

 Indian Nursing Council (INC)

 Dentist Council of India (DCl)

 Central Council of Homeopathy (CCH)

 Central Council of Indian Medicine (CCIM)

Central government is responsible to take the policies related to the higher education. It also gives
different grant to the Central universities. Whether an educational system will be deemed or not is also
decided by central government on the recommendation of the UGC. At present, there are 16 Central
universities in the country.

Type of Institutions Numbers

Central Universities 50
State Universities 404
Institution deemed to be University 126
Private Universities 340
Total 920

Structure of Indian education system

In this section we briefly discuss about the Indian education system. First, we will talk about higher
education in India. Following four society have power to give higher education.

1. University College

2. Institute of Technology 4. Open University

3.

One can get degree from education system. Following are degrees, one may acquire after school leaving.
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1. Higher Secondary School Certificate

2. Secondary School Certificate
3. Diploma
4. Bachelor³s Degree
5. Postgraduate Diploma
6. Master³s Degree

7. Master of Philosophy
8. Post-Master Degree
9. Doctorate
10. Doctor of Laws
11. Doctor of Literature
12. Doctor of Science

Ancient education system in India

From education point of view India was very rich country at ancient times too. Following system were
widely used in ancient India.

Gurukul system
Gurukul (ashram) was a type of school in India, residential in nature, with pupils living in proximity to the
teacher (guru). In a gurukul, students would reside together as equals, irrespective of their social standing,
learnt from the guru and distribute work in themselves to help the guru in his day-to-day life. At the end of
studies, pupil would be ready to offer gurudakshina (one time fees) to the guru. The gurudakshina is a
traditional gesture of acknowledgment, respect and thanks.

In India the Guru or the teacher is held in high esteem. Indeed, there is an understanding that if the
devotee were presented with the guru and God, first he would pay respect to the guru, since the guru
had been instrumental in leading him to God.

Vedic University
Nalanda is one of the great Vedic university in India. Nalanda is the name of an ancient university in Bihar,
India which was a Buddhist center of learning from 427 CE (AD) to 1197 CE (AD). It has been called as
™one of the first great universities™ in recorded history. There were universities like Taxila, Ujjain, Karachi
etc. for medicine and learning including mathematics and astronomy.
Vedic books

In compiling the vedic mantras, VED VYASA edited them into four books, the Rig-Veda, the Yajur-Veda,
the Sama-Veda, and the Atharva-Veda

The Vedas are a large body of texts originating in ancient India. Composed in Vedic Sanskrit, the text
constitutes the oldest layer of Sanskrit literature and the oldest scriptures of Hinduism.Scholars have
determined that the Rig Veda, the oldest of the four Vedas, was composed about 1500 B.C.

British and Indian Education system

Since English was increasingly being employed as the language of instruction, during 1852-1853 petitions were
sent to the British Parliament in support of both establishing and adequately funding university education in
India which resulted in the Education Dispatch of July 1854 which helped in shaping the Indian education
system . Educational reforms in the early 20th century led towards the nationalization of many universities.

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Britishers did a lot to establish good and healthy education system in India.
1. Established a Department of Public Instruction in each province of British India.
2. Established teacher-training schools for all levels of instruction.
3. Increased the number of Government colleges ,vernacular schools and high-schools .
4. The Department of Public Instruction was in place by 1855.
5. By 185k a number of universities were established modeled on the University of London.

Education of Indians had become a topic of interest among East India Company officials. The policy³s goal was

1. to advance knowledge of Indians and

2. to employ that knowledge in the East India Company

Post Independence education

India’s first education minister recommended strong central government control over education
throughout the country, with a uniform educational system and introduced right to education.

Every child between the ages of 6 to 14 years has the right to free and compulsory education. The
government schools shall provide free education to all the children. Private schools shall admit at
least 25% of the children in their schools without any fee.
The Indian government lays great emphasis on primary education up to the age of fourteen years
(referred to as Elementary Education in India.) The Indian government has also banned child
labour in order to ensure that any children do get an opportunity to nurture. Education has also
been made free for children for six to 14 years of age. The District Primary Education Programme
(DPEP) was launched in 1994 with an aim to universalize primary education in India by reforming
and vitalizing the existing primary education system

NCERT
The NCERT was established in 1961. It functions as a resource centre in the field of school education
and teacher education. Publication of school textbooks and other educational material like teachers³
guides/manuals etc. are its major functions.
NCERT is an autonomous body fully funded by the Ministry of Human Resource and Development (MHRD)

There is a common educational structure (10+2+3) followed all over the country. Its similar to the
USA but unlike to the one being followed in the UK

Vocational Education System

Vocational education is that form of instruction designed to prepare people for industrial or commercial
employment. It can be acquired either formally in trade schools, technical secondary schools, or in on-the-job
training programs or, more informally, by picking up the necessary skills on the job. is imparted through
Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) and polytechnics. Vocational study falls under the purview of MHRD. The
all india council of vocational education is responsible for planning, guiding and coordinating the
programme at the national level. State Councils for Vocational Education (SCVEs) perform similar functions

at the state
s of Statutory body and their functions

The origin of the Indian Education Department dates back to pre-Independence days when for the
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first time a separate Department was created in 1910 to look after education. However, soon after
India achieved its Independency on 15th August. 1947, a full fledged Ministry of Education was
established on 29th August 1947. The nomenclature and responsibilities of the Education
Department has undergone changes from time to time since Independence

University Grants Commission (UGC)

University Grants Commission (UGC) established by UGC Act, 1956, Ministry of HRD on the recommendation of
Ramakrishana Commision.

Statutory Mandate Coordination and determination of standards in higher education and research in
the country

Primary Function Release of grants to universities and colleges

Other Functions Recognition of Universities and colleges (including eligibility for central grants)
specification of degrees, Minimum standards of instruction, common pay scales, common facilities and
institutional accreditation through NAAC

Distance Education Council (DEC)

Distance Education Council (DEC) established by Sec. 25 of IGNOU Act, 1985, Ministry of HRD. ( Dr. D.S. Kothari
Recommendation)

Statutory Mandate Promotion, coordination and determination of standards of the open universities
and distance education systems in the country.

Primary Function Release of grants to open universities and correspondence course institutes

Other Functions Initiated assessment and accreditation activities

All India Council for Technical Education

All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) established by AICTE Act, 1987, Ministry of HRD,

Statutory Mandate Planning and coordinated development of technical education in the country

Primary Function Approval of degree and diploma programs in engineering, architecture, pharmacy and hotel
management

Other Functions Funding for institutional and faculty development, pay scales and qualifications of
teachers accreditation through NAAC

In 2016, three important initiatives were taken up by AICTE. First one was a responsibility given by
MHRD to evolve a national MOOCs platform SWAYAM. Second one is that of launching a Smart India
Hackathon-2017 challenging the young bright talented students of technical colleges to solve the 598
problems of 29 different Government departments. Third one is that of launching of an AICTE's Student
Start up Policy by Hon. President on Nov 16, during visitors conference from rashtrapati Bhavan. In
2009, the Union Minister of Education formally communicated his intentions of closing down AICTE and
related body, the UGC. This later led to reforms in the way the AICTE approves institutes, and to
establishing the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) as an independent body.

Medical Council of India (MCI)

Medical Council of India (MCI) established by MCI Act, 1953, Ministry of Health,

Statutory Mandate To establish standards in medical education and to define medical qualifications
in India and abroad

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Primary Function Registration of medical practioners and recognition of medical institutions

Other Functions Eligibility criteria for admissions¡ exam. for recognition of foreign qualifications for
practice in India.

The Council of Architecture

The Council of Architecture (COA) established by The Architects Act, 1972, Ministry of Urban Development.

Statutory Mandate Regulate profession and practice of architects and town planners in India

Primary Function Registration of architects, maintaining standards of education, recognized

qualifications and standards of practice

Other Functions Maintaining the register of architects and make recommendations with regard to
recognition and de-recognition of a qualification.

Indian Nursing Council

Indian Nursing Council (INC) established by the INC Act, 1947, Ministry of Health.

Statutory Mandate Uniform standards of training for Nurses

Primary Function Accepts qualifications awarded by universities within and outside India

Other Functions Collection and compilation of data relating to nurses, midwives, health visitors.

Rehabilitation Council of India

Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) established by RCI Act, 1992, Ministry of Social Justice

Statutory Mandate Standardize and regulate the training of personnel and professions in the field of
rehabilitation and special education.

Primary Function Recognition of institutions for physiotherapy and related fields.

Other Functions Registration of professionals, assessment and accreditations¡ promotion of barrier

free environment.

National Council For Teacher Education

National Council For Teacher Education (NCTE), NCTE Act, 1993

Statutory Mandate Planned and Coordinated development of the teacher education in the country.

Primary Function Recognition of teacher education institutions.

Other Functions Lay down norms and standards

Indian Council for Agricultural Research

Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR), Ministry of Agriculture. It is not a statutory body

Statutory Mandate Coordinate agricultural research and education

Primary Function Coordinate and fund agricultural education and research in 30 state and 1 central and
several deemed universities for agriculture.

Other Functions Accredit agriculture universities, hold joint admission tests.

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Bar Council of India

Bar Council of India (BCI) established by The Advocates Act, 1962, Ministry of Law

Statutory Mandate Lay down standards of professional conduct and standards of legal education.

Primary Function Lay down standards of professional conduct and standards of legal education.

Other Functions Listing of members of bar¡ listing of foreign universities whose qualifications are
approved in India.
There are various Educational Statutory bodies in India, these are namely:

1. All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)

2. All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE)

3. Central Council of Homeopathy (CCH)

4. Central Council of Indian Medicine (CCIM)

5. Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)

6. Central Hindi Directorate

7. Central Institute of Educational Technology (CIET)

8. Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages (CIEFL)

9. Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL)

10. Central Tibetan Schools Administration (CTSA)

11. Commisssion for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT)

12. Council of Architecture (COA)

13. Copyright Office, India

14. Distance Education Council (DEC)

15. Dentist Council of India (DCI)

16. Educational Consultants India Limited (EDCIL) 1k. Education Support in India

17. Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR)

18. Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)

19. Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS)

20. Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR)

21. Kendriya Hindi Sansthan

22. Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS)

23. Medical Council of India (MCI)

24. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

25. National Bal Bhavan

26. National Book Trust

27. National Council for Promotion of Sindhi Language (NCPSL)

28. National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

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29. National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA)

30. National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)

31. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER)

32. National Institute of Technical Teachers³ Training and Research (NITTTR)

33. National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions (NCMEI)

34. Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS)

35. National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) 3k. National Literacy Mission

36. Oversight Committee

37. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)

38. Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)

39. Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan

40. Sakshat - Education Portal, Government of India

41. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)

42. State Resource Centre for Non-Formal Education, Chennai

43. University Grants Commission (UGC)

Quality and Quality Assessment

In order to evaluate performance of an institution and bring about a measure of accountability a
mechanism of accreditation has been developed by UGC. This is an autonomous council under UGC
called National Accreditation and Assessment Council (NAAC) with a purpose to carry out periodic
assessment of universities and colleges. NAAC has evolved a methodology of assessment which
involves self-appraisal by each university/college and an assessment of the performance by an expert
committee.
Similarly, for technical education, AICTE has established its own accreditation mechanism for its
institutions through the National Board of Accreditation (NBA).
NAAC has identified the following seven criteria to serve as the basis of assessment procedures:

1. Curricular Aspects

2. Teaching-learning and Evaluation

3. Research, Consultancy and Extension

4. Infrastructure and Learning Resources

5. Student Support and Progression

6. Governance and Leadership

k. Innovative practice

Elementary Education in India

Education is important not only for development of one³s personality, but also for the sustained growth of
nation.It is the foundation on which the development of every citizen and the nation as a whole hinges.
The quality of elementary education in India has also been a major cause of worry for government

Sarva Siksha Abhiyan

The current scheme for universalization of Education for All is the SARVA SHIKSHA ABHIYAN which is
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one of the largest education initiatives in the world. After the District Primary Education Programme
(DPEP) of 1994, the govt. has now launched the ”Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan” or SSA. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
was launched in 2001 to universalize and improve the quality of elementary education in India. It has set
200k as the deadline for providing primary education in India and 2010 as the deadline for providing
useful and relevant elementary education to all children in the 6 to 14 age group.

Every child between the ages of 6 to 14 years has the right to free and compulsory education. The
government schools shall provide free education to all the children. Private schools shall admit at
least 25% of the children in their schools without any fee.

Education in Urban and Rural areas

Despite all the efforts of the government, universalization of education in India remains a distant dream.
While the literacy rate is 72.99% according to 2011 census, the female literacy rate is 64.64% & Male
literacy rate 80.89%. While 84.11.0% urban people are literate, 67.77% of the rural population is
literate.

School education
Schooling system in India is a two tire system. First 10 years is a general study followed by two years of
senior secondary education. The primary education system is also two tire system. The first five years is
the primary stage and the coming next three years is upper primary stage or middle school.

Secondary education system

Secondary education can be instrumental in shaping and directing a child for his bright future. Secondary
education serves as a link between primary and higher education. A child³s future depends a lot on type of
education the child receives. Significant feature of India³s secondary school system is the emphasis on
inclusion of the disadvantaged sections of the society. Another feature of India³s secondary school
system is its emphasis on profession based vocational training to help students attain skills for finding
a vocation of his/her choosing.
The Secondary education is supported by the following organizations under the administrative
control of the Union Department of Education: Some of the institutes are:

∙ National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

∙ Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
∙ National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)

The National Policy on Education (NPE), 1986, has provided for environment awareness, science and
technology education, and introduction of traditional elements such as yoga into the Indian secondary
school system
NCEÆT

NCERT is an autonomous body fully funded by the Ministry of Human Resource and Development
(MHRD). The NCERT was established in 1961. It functions as a resource centre in the field of school
education and teacher education. Publication of school textbooks and other educational material
like teachers guides/manuals etc. are its major functions. It aims at making environmental education
an integral part of curriculum in school education.

Central board of secondary education

The CBSE was set up by a special resolution of the Government of India in 1929 at Ajmer with a view to
play a useful role in the field of Secondary Education and to raise its standard.
The Main functions of the board are: to conduct Class X and XII examinations and grant certificates,
to prescribe courses of instructions, prescribe conditions for examinations, and to affiliate institutions for
the purpose of examinations. The CBSE also conducts all India entrance examinations at the under
graduate level for pre- medical/pre-dental, engineering and architecture courses.

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CBSE mews

The CBSE has constantly been engaged in process of curriculum design, in-service teacher
empowerment programmes and development of textual material.

CBSE has introduced CONTINUOUS AND COMPREHENSIVE EVALUATION (CCE) at the

secondary level. The scheme of CCE discourages mechanical testing. It envisages employment of variety of
tools and techniques for assessment in informal and formal settings which are more interesting, relevant
and meaningful and involve learners for greater participation and learning.
It is a system of school based assessment that covers all aspects of student³s development. It
emphasizes two fold objectives. Continuity in evaluation and assessment of broad based learning. CCE
will cover the scholastic and co scholastic areas of school education.

National policy of education

In our national perception, Education refines sensitivities and perceptions that contribute to national
cohesion, a scientific temper and independence of mind and spirit - thus furthering the goals of socialism,
secularism and democracy enshrined in our Constitution. The government is committed to providing
education through main- stream schools for children with disabilities. The need for inclusive education
arises precisely because it is now well understood that most children with disabilities can, with motivation
and effort on the part of teaching institutions, become an integral part of those institutions. There is a
common educational structure(10+2+3) followed all over the country.

Education level Years

Pre primary (FOR 1 YEAR)
Primary (GRADE 1-5)
Middle (GRADE 6-8)
Secondary (GRADE 9-10)
Senior Secondary (GRADE11-12)

Fashion Technology
India which has always been a centre for the textile and garment trade. Now the fashion industry has
become so specialized that it encompasses a vast field of studies in design, concept management,
design production management, quality control, planning, fabric design, printing, fashion accessory
design, fashion merchandising, textile science, colour mixing, marketing and so on. National Institute of
Fashion Technology was set up in 1986 under the aegis of the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India.
It has emerged as the premier Institute of Design, Management and Technology, developing
professionals for taking up leadership positions in fashion business in the emerging global scenario.

The online projects encourage our students to collaborate, cooperate and communicate with the
students all over the world. This use of cyber space has led to the globalization of education.

University grants commission

The University Grants Commission (UGC) of India is a statutory body set up by the Indian Union
government in 1956, and is charged with coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of
higher education. It provides recognition to universities in India, and disburses funds to such recognized
universities and colleges. Its headquarters is in New Delhi, and six regional centers in Pune, Bhopal,
Kolkata, Hyderabad, Guwahati and Bangalore.

1. encourages contact between students and faculty,

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2. develops reciprocity and cooperation among students,

3. encourages active learning,
4. gives prompt feedback,
5. emphasizes time on task,
6. communicates high expectations, and
7. Respects diverse talents and ways of learning

A Central University or a Union University in India is established by Act of Parliament and are under
the purview of the Department of Higher Education in the Union Human Resource Development
Ministry. In general, universities in India are recognized by the University Grants Commission (UGC),
which draws its power from the University Grants Commission Act, 1956. The types of universities
controlled by the UGC include:

State universities are run by the state government of each of the states and territories of India, and are
usually established by a local legislative assembly act.

Deemed university or Deemed-to-be-University, is a status of autonomy granted by the Department of

Higher Education on the advice of the UGC, under Section 3 of UGC Act, 1956.

Private universities are approved by the UGC. They can grant degrees but they are not allowed to
have off-campus affiliated colleges.

Funding Agency
Government or Non-Government organization providing monetary grant for research. Following are
the major funding agencies in India

1. University Grants Commission ( UGC), New Delhi. www.ugc.ac.in

2. Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR), New Delhi www.icssr.org

3. Department of Science and Technology (DST) New Delhi . www.dst.gov.in

4. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), New Delhi. www.csir.res.in

5. Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)¡ BRNS. www.barc.ernet.in

6. Department of Biotechnology ( DBT), New Delhi. www.dbtindia.nic.in

7. Department of Non Conventional Energy Sources ( DNES), New Delhi. www.mnre.gov.in

8. Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO). www.drdo.nic.in

9. Indian Council of Agricultural Research. www.icar.org.in

10. Ministry of Environment & Forest. www.envfor.nic.in/funding

Apart from the above universities, other institutions are granted the permission to autonomously award
degrees. These institutes do not affiliate colleges and are not officially called “universities” but
“autonomous organizations” or “autonomous institutes”. They fall under the administrative control of the
Department of Higher Education. These organizations include the Indian Institutes of Technology, the
National Institutes of Technology, the Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research, the Indian
Institutes of Engineering Science and Technology, the Indian Institutes of Management (though these
award diplomas, not degrees), the National Law Schools, the All India Institute of Medical Sciences, and
other autonomous institutes.

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National Testing Agency (NTA)

National Testing Agency (NTA) is an Indian government agency that has been approved by the Union
Council of Ministers and established in November 2017 to conduct entrance examinations for higher
educational institutions. The government appointed Vineet Joshi as the first Director-General of the agency.
NTA is responsible for conducting the Joint Entrance Examination – Main (JEE Main), National Eligibility
cum Entrance Test-Undergraduate (NEET UG), National Eligibility Test (NET), Common Management
Admission Test (CMAT) and Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT).

Constitutional provisions about education

Section Nature Description

15 Right Prohibition of discrimination.
21/A Right Free and compulsory education for 6-14 years kids
30/1 Right Minority educational institutions.
51h Duty Develop scientific temper, humanism, spirit of inquiry and reform
51A(K) Duty Parent/guardian provide education to their 6-14 years kids.
45 DPSP State shall give early childhood care and education for all kids up
to 6 year.
46 DPSP State to look after Educational and economic interests of SC,
ST,OBC.

1. SC=15% 2. ST=7.5% 3. OBC=27%

These % apply to central (not state) educational institutions. In

state educational Institutes, reservation depends on population.
E.g. Punjab has no ST reservation. Tamilnadu only 1% ST
reservation..
86th Amendment
1. 86th Constitutional amendment 2002
2. It inserts 21/A= kids have right to education.
3. It inserts 51A(k)=adults have duty to provide education to their
kids.

.
93rd Amendment
1. 93rd Constitutional amendment act 2005
2. It amended art 15 (Fundamental Right) to provide reservation
for SC,ST and OBC in private institutions. (including self-
financed but excluding minority educational institutions.)
3. it nullified Supreme court's judgment in other case that State
cannot impose reservation on private aided institutions.

MCQ
1. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after :
(a) The United States of America
(b) Australia
(c) China
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(d) United Kingdom (U.K.)

Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (c) only
Answer: 2

2. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph.D programme in :

(1) State and Central Universities
(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs
(3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities
(4) IITs and IISc
Answer: 3

3. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting ?

(a) It is a separate budget addressing the speci c needs of women.
(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.
(c) It is an accounting exercise.
(d) It is another budgeting innovation.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (b) and (d) only
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only
Answer: 1

4. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India ?

(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants
(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules
(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens
(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
Answer: 1

5. Which of the following are the goals of higher education in India ?

(a) Access
(b) Equity
(c) Quality and Excellence
(d) Relevance
(e) Value based education
(f) Compulsory and free education
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (e) only
(2) (a), (b), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: 3

6. Which of the following has been ranked the best college in the country (2017) as per the National Institutional
Ranking Framework (NIRF) ?
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(1) Miranda House, Delhi

(2) St. Stephen’s College, Delhi
(3) Fergusson College, Pune
(4) Maharaja’s College, Mysore
Answer: 1

7. Which of the following universities has received the Visitor’s Award for the best Central University in India in
Feb. 2017 ?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru University
(2) Banaras Hindu University
(3) Tezpur University
(4) University of Hyderabad
Answer: 1

8. Who among the following can be removed by the President without Parliament’s resolution ?
(1) Judge of a High Court
(2) Governor of a State
(3) Chief Election Commissioner
(4) Comptroller and Auditor – General
Answer: 2

9. Which of the following come(s) within the ambit of the term ‘corruption’ ?
(a) Misuse of official position
(b) Deviation from rules, laws and norms
(c) Non-action when action is required
(d) Harm to public good
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 4

10. Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education ?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commoditization of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3

11. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities ?
(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
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(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2

12. The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on

(1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
(2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.
(3) Concern for human values.
(4) Religious and moral practices and instructions
Answer: 3

13. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2

14. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the
President’s Rule in a State ?
(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) andü (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (b) and (c)
Answer: 1

15. Instead of holding the o_ce during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office
during good behaviour ?
(a) Governor of a State (b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court (d) Administrator of a Union Territory
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2

16. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning
relationships ? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.
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(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.

(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.
Codes :
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: 2

17. Which of the following core values among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC
(National Assessment and Accreditation Council) ?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (b),(c)and(d)
(2) (a),(b)and(c)
(3) (a),(c)and(d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2

18. The best way for providing value education is through?

(1) discussions on scriptural texts
(2) lectures/discourses on values
(3) seminars / symposia on values
(4) mentoring / reflective sessions on values
Answer: 4

19. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
1) The Supreme Court of India
(2) The High Court
(3) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(4) The President of India
Answer: 1

20. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct ?
(a) The President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a),(b),(c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (c) 4) (c)only
Answer: 4

21. Which of the following are the fundamental duties ?

(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education/to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given:
(1) (a),(b)and(c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a),(c)and(d)
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(4) (a), (b),(c) and (d)

Answer: 1

22. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a)and(d)
(2) (b)and(d)
(3) (c)and(d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3

23. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive
dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items
Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set ~ II comprising basic requirements for promoting
them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code:
Set-I Set-II
(Levels of Cognitive interchange) (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive Interchange)
a. Memory level i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point.
b. Understanding level ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.
c. Reflective level iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information.
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.
Codes:
abc
(1) ii iv i
(2) iii iv ii
(3) ii i iv
(4) i ii ii
Answer: 3

24. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning
systems ? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below :
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Student’s language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.
Codes:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) (ii),(iii),(iv)and(v)
(4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: 2

25. Which of the following are the objectives of Kashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhivan (RUSA) ?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) lo ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
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(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer : 2

26. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are :
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer : 2

27. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First – past – the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b); (c) and (d)
Answer : 1

28. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in :

(1) the Union List 2) the State List
(3) the Concurrent List (4) the Residuary Powers
Answer: 3

29. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is :

(1) 4 years
(2) 5 years
(3) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(4) not fixed
Answer : 4

30. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Rajasthan (3) Tamil Nadu (4) West Bengal
Answer : 1

31. The session of the parliament is summoned by :

(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer : 1

32. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on :

(1) 21st April2) 24th April (3) 21st June (4) 7th July
Answer : 1

33. The South Asia University is situated in the city of :

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(1) Colombo (2) Dhaka(3) New Delhi (4) Kathmandu

Answer : 3

34. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims ?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer : 2

35. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:
(1) 8 percent (2) 12 percent (3) 19 percent (4) 23 percent
Answer : 3

36. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was :
(1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43
Answer : 4

37. The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identi_ed by the UGC in the year 2014 are in the
State / Union territory of
(A) Bihar B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Delhi
Answer : B

38. Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant degrees under the UGC Act, 1956 ?
1. A university established by an Act of Parliament.
2. A university established by an Act of Legislature.
3. A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.
4. An institution which is a deemed to be university.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 1.2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : A

39. Which of the following are the tools of good governance ?

1. Social Audit
2. Separation of Powers 3. Citizen’s Charter
4. Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1,3 and 4 (B) 2. 3 and 4
(C) l and 4 (D) 1,2. 3 and 4
Answer : D

40. Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in

(A) Right to Freedom
(B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty (C) Right to Equality
(D) Right against Exploitation
Answer : B

41. Which of the following organizations deals with capacity building Educational Planning ?
(A) NCERT
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(B) UGC
(C) NAAC
(D) NUEPA
Answer : A

42. Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha ?
1. Summoning
2. Adjournment – sine die
3. Prorogation
4. Dissolution
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1.2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1,2, 3 and 4
Answer : C

43. The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 4 months
(D) 100 days
Answer : B

44. Which of the following are Central Universities ?

1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1,2 and 4
Answer : A

45. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by TamilNadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes:
(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) i and iv
Answer : D

46. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(B)Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary
Answer : B
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47. Education as a subject of legislation gures in the

(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
Answer : C

48. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage honest o cers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer : A

49. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University
Answer : B

50. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of
Management of the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 4
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1,2 and3
(D) 1,2, 3 and 4
Answer : C

51. The e-content generation for under–graduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human
Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer-B

52. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Answer : A

53. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council?
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1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) l and 3 (B) l and 2
(C) l,2 and 4 (D) 2,3 and 4
Answer : A

54. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D)Writ Jurisdiction
Answer : C

55. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : D

56. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of
India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer : C

57. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267
constituencies in 18 States?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
Answer : A

58. In which of the following categories the enrollment of students in higher in 2010 – 11 was beyond the
percentage Of seats reserved ?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Woman students
Answer : A
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59. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956~by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities
Answer : D

60. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II)
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong;
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer : C

61. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to _le frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer : A

62. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) 1,2and3 (B) 1,3and4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
Answer : D

63. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Answer : C

64. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index ?

(A) Literacy Rate
(B) Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio
(D) Life Expectancy
Answer : C

65. India has the highest number of students in colleges after

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(A) U.K. (B) U.S.A. (C) Australia (D) Canada

Answer : B

66. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India ?
1. The President appoints a person, who is quali ed to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of
India.
2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) l and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only
Answer : A

67. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting
with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ?
1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim
3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
(C) l and 2 (D) 1,2 and 3
Answer : C

68. Which of the following can be done under conditions of nancial emergency ?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) l and2 (D) 2 and 3
Answer : D

69. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I List -II
(a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals
(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer : A

70. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at

(A) Dharmshala
(B) Shimla
(C) Solan
(D) Chandigarh
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Answer : B

71. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.
(A) 04
(B) 05
(C) 06
(D) 08
Answer : A

72. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar ?
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer : D

73. Who among the following created the o ce of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe
Answer : A

74. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include

1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scienti c temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2
Answer : B

75. The President of India takes oath

(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country
Answer : D

76. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is

(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values
Answer : A

77. Indicate the number of Regional O_ces of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10 (B) 07(C) 08 (D) 09
Answer : B

78. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of

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(A) The President of India

(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Answer : D

79. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Commissions and Committees) (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (iv) 1953
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer : B

80. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments
Answer : C

81. The members of Gram Sabha are

(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
Answer : D

82. The first Open University in India was set up in the State
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Delhi (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
Answer : A

83. Most of the Universities in India are funded by

(A) the Central Government
(B) the State Governments
(C) the University Grants Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals
Answer : C

84. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in
India?
(A) NCTE (B) MCI (C) AICTE (D) CSIR
Answer : C

85. Consider the following statements : Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
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(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.

Answer : D

86. The President of India is

(A) the Head of State
(B) the Head of Government
(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
(D) None of the above
Answer : A

87. Who among the following holds o ce during the pleasure of the President of India?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Governor of a State
Answer : D

88. India’s rst Defence University is in the State of

(A) Haryana B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab
Answer : A

89. Most of the Universities in India

(A) conduct teaching and research only
(B) a liate colleges and conduct examinations
(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
(D) promote research only
Answer : C

90. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body ?

(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Planning Commission
Answer : D

91. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Answer : B

92. Which one of the following statements re ects the republic character of Indian democracy ?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D)Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Answer : D

93. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India ?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Advocate-General
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Answer : B
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94. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of
National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a
progressive decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution
concerned.
Answer : B

95. Which option is not correct ?

(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall under 64th entry of
Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th
Constitutional Amendment
Answer : A

96. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India ?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008
Answer : A

97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Articles of the Constitution) (Institutions)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer : B

98. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give a_liation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the
permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council.
Answer : C

99. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Answer : B
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100. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer : C

101. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric ?

(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion
Answer : D

102. The Parliament in India is composed of

(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer : C

103. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by
System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment
in higher education
Answer : B

104. Assertion 6. (A) : The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of
teachers.
Reason (R) : University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer : A

105. The Kothari Commission’s report was entitled on :

(A) Education and National Development
(B) Learning to be adventure
(C) Diversi_cation of Education
(D) Education and socialization in democracy
Answer : A

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