Here are the hematology questions arranged in a more orderly manner for easier revision,

grouped by topic where possible:

I. Red Blood Cell Disorders (Anemia, Hemolysis, Sickle Cell, Thalassemia, Iron
Deficiency, Megaloblastic Anemia, etc.)
1.​ The plasma level of the following substance Is likely to be elevated in a hemolyzed blood
sample ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Urea ▪ b. Sodium ▪ c. Magnesium ▪ d. Chloride ▪ e. Bilirubin
2.​ Laboratory features of haemolysis include ALL EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Incereased
LDH levels ▪ b. Reticulocytosis ▪ c. Raised serum bilirubin ▪ d. Sickling test ▪ e. Low
Haemopexin levels
3.​ This clinical finding is associated with haemolytic disease ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Kidney stones
▪ b. Gastrointestinal parasites ▪ c. Hypertension ▪ d. Gallstones ▪ e. Stomach ulcers
4.​ Splenic infarction, aplastic crisis and vaso-occlusion are most common in individuals with
◦ Select one: ▪ a. Haemoglobin C disease ▪ b. Haemoglobin E disease ▪ c. Thalassaemia ▪
d. Sickle cell disease ▪ e. Sickle cell trait
5.​ Definitive diagnosis of sickle cell anaemia is based on: [29] a. Presence of sickle cells in
the peripheral blood film b. Elevated reticulocyte count c. Positive sickling test d. Reduced
haemoglobin solubility e. Haemoglobin electrophoresis.
6.​ A relatively common cause of haemolytic anemia in Kenya includes ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Sickle cell anaemia ▪ b. Thalassaemia ▪ c. Hereditary spherocytosis ▪ d. Haemoglobin C
disease ▪ e. Pyruvate-kinase deficiency
7.​ Hypochromic red cells may characterize all EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Sideroblastic
anaemia ▪ b. Vitamin E deficiency ▪ c. Iron deficiency ▪ d. Thalassaemia ▪ e. Lead
poisoning
8.​ Microcytosis is NOT associated with the following ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Pyridoxine deficiency ▪
b. Anaemia of chronic disease ▪ c. Hypothyroidism ▪ d. Thalassaemia ▪ e. Iron deficiency
9.​ Microcytosis is not a feature of the following conditions ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Target cell
disease ▪ b. Iron deficiency anaemia ▪ c. Sideroblastic anaemia ▪ d. Thalassemia ▪ e. Lead
poisoning
10.​Microcytes are features of the following conditions EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Sideroblastic anaemia ▪ b. Lead poisoning. ▪ c. Iron deficiency anaemia. ▪ d.
Thalassaemia. ▪ e. Megaloblastic anaemia.
11.​Blood film features of Iron deficiency does NOT inchide ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Microcytes ▪ b.
Anisopoikilocytosis ▪ c. Target cells ▪ d. Pencil shaped RBC ▪ e. Increased central pallor of
the red cells
12.​The following results would be expected in Iron deficiency except: ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Decreased Ferritin ▪ b. Decreased serum iron. ▪ c. Increased TIBC. ▪ d. Decreased
transferrin saturation. ▪ e. Increased plasma transferrin.
13.​The following results would be expected in Iron deficiency except: [10] a. Decreased
plasma iron b. Increased plasma transferrin c. Decreased Total Ion Binding Capacity
(TIBC). d. Decreased Ferritin e. Decreased transferrin saturation
14.​Blood film features of tron deficiency does NOT inchide ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Microcytes ▪ b.
Anisopoikilocytosis ▪ c. Target cells ▪ d. Pencil shaped RBC ▪ e. Increased central pallor of
the red cells
15.​The following laboratory feature is associated with haemolytic anemia: [9] a. Reduced
unconjugated serum bilirubin b. Reduced lactate dehydrogenase c. Reduced urine
urobilinogen d. Reduced reticulocyte count e. Reduced serum haptoglobulin
16.​Laboratory findings in intravascular haemolysis include ALL EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Haemoglobinuria ▪ b. Raised serum bilirubin ▪ c. Reduced serum haptoglobin ▪ d.
 Haemosiderinuria ▪ e. Increased LDH levels
17.​Auto immune haemolytic anemia may be associated with all EXCEPT? ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Spherocytes in peripheral blood ▪ b. Abnormal red cell membrane structure ▪ c. Increased
reticulocyte count ▪ d. Positive direct coombs test ▪ e. Lymphoproliferative disorder
18.​A patient is suspected of having an immune mediated haemolytic anaemia. State the
laboratory test that would be helpful in confirming this suspicion ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Reticulocyte count ▪ b. Serum bilirubin ▪ c. Haemoglobin electrophoresis ▪ d. Anti-human
globulin (Coombs Test) ▪ e. Haptoglobin
19.​The morphologic classification of anaemia relies on the following red cell value/ index ◦
Select one: ▪ a. Hct/PCV ▪ b. Hb ▪ c. MCV ▪ d. Red cell count ▪ e. MCH
20.​An MCV of 105 fl may be seen in all of the following EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Haemolytic anaemia ▪ b. Pernicious anaemia ▪ c. Sideroblastic anaemia
21.​An MCV of 105 fl may be seen in all of the following EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Haemolytic anaemia ▪ b. Liver disease ▪ c. Sideroblastic anaemia ▪ d. Pernicious anaemia
▪ e. Hypothyroidism
22.​Macrocytic red cell changes may be seen in all the following EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Neonate ▪ b. Liver disease ▪ c. Folate deficiency ▪ d. Haemolysis ▪ e. Sideroblastic
anaemia
23.​Macrocytosis in the PBF (peripheral blood film) is not associated with ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Chronic aspirin ingestion ▪ b. Vitamin B12 deficiency ▪ c. Liver disease ▪ d. Infection by
Diphyllobothrium latum ▪ e. Folic acid deficiency
24.​Vitamin B12 deficiency is associated with the following finding in peripheral blood Film:
[15] a. Segmented lymphocytes b. Normocytic normochromic anemia c. Increased
platelets d. Increased reticulocyte counts e. Hypersegmented neutrophils
25.​A 52-year-old female is diagnosed with pernicious anaemia. The following laboratory
result is expected: [2] a. Reduced folate levels b. Reduced folate and B12 levels c.
Reduced Vit B12 levels d. Reduced iron leveL e. Red cell microcytosis
26.​The following test would NOT be of diagnostic value in a patient with megaloblastic
anemia: [11] a. Methylmalonic acid levels in serum b. Schilling test c. Perl’s stain of the
marrow d. Serum homocysteine levels e. Parietal cell antibody test
27.​
1.​ All of the following are causes of folate deficiency–induced megaloblastic anemia,
EXCEPT: [17] a. Decreased Intake of Folate b. Pernicious Anemia c. Poor Dietary
Intake d. Intestinal Blind-Loop Syndrome e. Pregnancy
28.​Red cell spherocytosis may be associated with: [8] a. Defective membrane cytoskeletal
proteins b. Liver disease c. Pyruvate kinase deficiency d. Reduced rate of globin chain
synthesis e. Synthesis of abnormal hemoglobin
29.​The most appropriate screening test for hereditary spherocytosis ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Osmotic fragility test ▪ b. TBC ▪ c. HB electrophoresis ▪ d. Peripheral blood film ▪ e. Bone
marrow aspirate
30.​The following haemoglobinopathy is associated with target cells ◦ Select one: ▪ a. HB J
Nyanza ▪ b. HB H ▪ c. HBE ▪ d. HBC ▪ e. HBS
31.​Preliminary test in red cell abnormality includes ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Red cell life span studies
▪ b. Sickling test ▪ c. Osmotic fragility ▪ d. Reticulocyte count ▪ e. Ferritin assays
32.​Laboratory parameter that best indicates bone marrow proliferative erythroid activity ◦
Select one: ▪ a. Red Cell Count ▪ b. Reticulocyte Count ▪ c. White Blood Cell Count ▪ d.
Peripheral nucleated red cells count ▪ e. Neutrophil Left shift
33.​Reticulocyte are generally raised in ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Multiple deficiencies ▪ b. All anaemia
 ▪ c. Iron deficiency ▪ d. Megaloblastic anaemias ▪ e. Hemolytic anaemias
34.​In a patient presenting with suspected haemolysis, the LEAST useful initial test is: [5] a.
Urinalysis b. Reticulocyte count c. Serum haptoglobulin determination d. Bone marrow
aspirate e. Serum bilirubin determination
35.​The following agents are associated with red cell haemolysis, EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Snake venoms ▪ b. Clostridial infecton ▪ c. Bartonellosis ▪ d. Hookworm infestation ▪ e.
Malaria
36.​The following disorder(s) is/are inherited ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Pyruvate kinase deficiency ▪ b.
CandD ▪ c. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria ▪ d. Haemolytic transfusion reaction ▪
e. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
37.​The iron is transported in plasma by: [12] a. Transportin b. Plasma ferritin c. Apoferritin d.
Ferroportin e. Transferrin
38.​The following is not true of Porphyrins
39.​A 26-year-old female presents with the following blood counts HB -8g/dL, RBC – 2.7 x
1012/L, MCV – 63 fl, MCH -19 pg. The following laboratory result is expected: [1] a. The
total iron binding capacity will be reduced b. Serum Vit B12 and folate levels will be low c.
Red cell folate levels will be low d. Serum B12 levels will be low e. Reticulocyte count is
likely to be reduced
40.​A test useful for differentiating anaemia of chronic disease from iron deficiency is: [2] a.
MCH b. HB electrophoresis c. TIBC d. Serum iron e. MCV
41.​Anaemias of chronic disorders are associated with the following feature: [3] a. Raised
TIBC. b. Normal or elevated serum ferritin c. Absent bone marrow iron stores. d.
Macrocytosis e. Normal serum iron.
42.​Clinical features associated with sickle cell disease include all EXCEPT: [4] a. Jaundice b.
Skull bossing c. Splenomegaly d. Bone fractures e. Chronic leg ulcers
43.​In iron deficiency anemia, the following laboratory features would be expected EXCEPT:
[6] a. Low transferrin saturation b. Raised TIBC c. Raised serum transferrin receptor d.
Increased marrow haemosiderin e. Low serum ferritin
44.​Oral manifestations of anaemia EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Thrush ▪ b. Pallor ▪ c. Glossitis
▪ d. Angular cheilosis ▪ e. Kelly-Patterson Syndrome
45.​The following statement about the pluripotent stern cell and haemopoiesis is true
II. White Blood Cell Disorders (Leukemia, Neutrophilia, Eosinophilia, Viral Infections, HIV)
1.​ Normal range lymphocyte count in a 20-year-old male ◦ Select one: ▪ a. 1-2x109/L ▪ b.
2-7.5x109/L ▪ c. 0.5-1 x109/L ▪ d. Above 5x109/L ▪ e. 1-4.5x109/L
2.​ Chromosomal abnormality associated with typical Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia(CML)
involves ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Insertion ▪ b. Translocation ▪ c. Deletion ▪ d. Inversion ▪ e.
Substitution
3.​ In classification of leukaemias Sudan Black Reactivity suggests ◦ Select one: ▪ a. ALL ▪ b.
CML ▪ c. Non-Leukaemic myeloproliferative disorder ▪ d. CLL ▪ e. AML
4.​ Likely white cell changes in viral infections EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Lymphopenia ▪ b.
Absolute eosinophilia ▪ c. Monocytosis ▪ d. Neutropenia ▪ e. Lymphocytosis
5.​ Neutrophilia is commonly associated with ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Subacute Bacterial
Endocarditis ▪ b. Viral infections ▪ c. Tissue injury ▪ d. Malaria Infection ▪ e. Autoimmune
disorders
6.​ Neutrophilia may be a feature of all the following EXCEPT? ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Acute
bacterial infections ▪ b. Chemical poisoning ▪ c. Pregnancy ▪ d. Sepsis ▪ e. Exercise
7.​ One of the following is not associated with eosinophilia ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Typhoid infection
▪ b. None of the above. ▪ c. Neoplasia ▪ d. Parasitic infections ▪ e. Allergy
 8.​ One of the following ts not associated with eosinophilia ◦ Select one: ▪ a. None of the
above. ▪ b. Parasitic infections ▪ c. Neoplasia ▪ d. Allergy ▪ e. Typhoid infection
9.​ The failure of a neutrophil to segment beyond 2 lobes is called ◦ Select one: ▪ a.
Neutrophilia ▪ b. Chediak-higashi anomaly ▪ c. May-hegglin anomaly ▪ d. Pelger-huet
anomaly ▪ e. Alder-reilly anomaly
10.​A common leucocyte change in Human immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection; ◦ Select
one: ▪ a. Lymphocytosis. ▪ b. Neutropenia ▪ c. Monocytosis ▪ d. Thrombocytopenia ▪ e.
Lymphopenia.
11.​Haematological changes in HIV infection include all the following EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪
a. Lymphopenia ▪ b. Relative eosinophilia ▪ c. Thrombocytopenia ▪ d. Normoblastaemia ▪
e. Anaemia
12.​White cell changes in infections include? ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Shift to the left ▪ b. Blastic
transformation ▪ c. Apoptosis ▪ d. Nuclear hypolobulation ▪ e. Rouleaux formation
13.​A leukamoid reaction ts associated with all EXCEPT? ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Chemical
poisoning ▪ b. Acute bacterial infections ▪ c. Chronic myeloid leukaemia ▪ d. Tuberculosis ▪
e. Myelofibrosis
14.​One of the following is commonly associated with Neutrophilia ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Whooping
cough infection ▪ b. Immediate post surgery period ▪ c. Lymphoma ▪ d. Benzene exposure
▪ e. Rickettsial infection
15.​Leukaemoid reaction is used to describe: [21] a. Abnormal neutrophil granulation b. Bone
marrow hypercellularity c. Immature white cells in peripheral blood d. Similar to acute
leukaemia e. Benign excessive increase in white cells
16.​The immediate precursor of the metamyelocyte is a ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Promyelocyte ▪ b.
Band neutrophil ▪ c. Myelocyte ▪ d. Blast ▪ e. Neutrophil
III. Hemostasis and Coagulation
1.​ Heparin therapy is monitored by ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Bleeding time ▪ b. Prothrombin time ▪ c.
Clotting time ▪ d. Thrombin time ▪ e. Activated partial thromboplastin time
2.​ Heparin therapy is monitored by ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Bleeding time ▪ b. Clotting time ▪ c.
Prothrombin time ▪ d. Activated partial thromboplastin time ▪ e. Thrombin time
3.​ Useful in the management of haemophilia A EXCEPT ◦ Select one: ▪ a. Pooled serum ▪ b.
DDVAP ▪ c.