SBI CLERK PRELIM 2024

Directions (1-5): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which
has been denoted by a letter. For each blank, five options are given.
Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank
appropriately.

The United States is home to several influential organizations that shape

domestic and global affairs. One of the most important is the Federal
Reserve, which regulates the nation's monetary policy to ensure economic
____________(A). Another key institution is the Securities and Exchange
Commission (SEC), responsible for overseeing the ____________(B) of
financial markets and protecting investors. The Department of Homeland
Security (DHS) plays a crucial role in safeguarding the nation from various
threats, including cyberattacks and terrorism, ensuring national
____________(C). Additionally, organizations like the Environmental
Protection Agency (EPA) work towards addressing issues such as climate
change and pollution by enforcing ____________(D) regulations. Finally, the
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) continues to lead
advancements in space exploration and scientific discovery, contributing
to America's reputation for ____________(E) in technology.

Q1. Which of the following word best fits in blank (A)?

(a) indifference (b) hostility (c) turbulence (d) fragility

(e) stability

Q2. Which of the following word best fits in blank (B)?

(a) disruption (b) regulation (c) evasion (d) distortion

(e) negligence

Q3. Which of the following word best fits in blank (C)?

(a) exposure (b) vacancy (c) security (d) anxiety

(e) indecision

Q4. Which of the following word best fits in blank (D)?

(a) voluntary (b) lax (c) irrelevant (d) environmental

(e) arbitrary

Q5. Which of the following word best fits in blank (E)?

(a) stagnation (b) backwardness (c) redundancy (d) incompetence (e)

innovation

Directions (6-10): Read the sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of
the sentence. The corresponding letter of that part is the answer. If the
given sentence is grammatically and contextually correct, then choose
option “No error” as your answer response. (Ignore errors of punctuation,
if any).

Q6. Koraput’s tribal food basket (A)/ is evolve with sustainable (B)/
farming, diverse nutrition, (C)/ and a revival of indigenous crops. (D)

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q7. The cost of urban expansion includes (A)/ environmental degradation,

loss (B)/ of agriculture land, increased (C)/ infrastructure expenses, and
socio-economic displacement. (D)

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q8. Apple cider vinegar's (A)/ wellness claims often (B)/ rely in
pseudoscience, creating (C)/ a false sense of health benefits. (D)

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q9. Building resilient telecom infrastructure (A)/ ensures reliable

connectivity, (B)/ mitigates disruptions, and supports digital (C)/ growth in
an increasingly connect world. (D)

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q10. The Centre has approved (A)/ relief assistance for five (B)/ state
affected by floods, (C)/ landslides, and cyclones. (D)

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Directions (11-13): In the following question, a sentence contains a

highlighted phrase that may be grammatically incorrect. Choose the most
appropriate option from the given alternatives to replace the highlighted
phrase and correct the sentence. If the highlighted phrase is correct as it
is, then choose “No replacement required” as the correct answer.

Q11. I put off an old diary while cleaning my attic.

(a) give up (b) break down (c) take after (d) came across (e) No
replacement required

Q12. Proper financial planning, on addition of keeping us by falling into

debt, helps us achieve long term financial goals and stability.

(a) by addition in keeping us from (b) in addition for keeping us of

(c) on addition to keeping us by (d) in addition to keeping us from

(e) No replacement required

Q13. The unexpected changes in the travel itinerary made it difficult for
me to coordinate my meetings and appointments.

(a) making it difficult for me for (b) made it difficult to me to

(c) make it difficult from me to (d) make it difficult for me to

(e) No replacement required

Directions (14-16): In the following question, a sentence is given with a

blank in it. Following each sentence some words are suggested. Choose
the option reflecting the word(s) that can fit the given blank both
contextually and grammatically as your answer.

Q14. She joined the community program to ______________ a spirit of

collaboration and mutual support among the members.

(I) expel (II) foster (III) encourage

(a) Only (I) (b) Only (III) (c) Both (II) and (III) (d) Both
(I) and (II)

(e) Both (I) and (III)

Q15. Heavy traffic can ____________ the timely arrival of emergency

services.

(I) hinder (II) revive (III) delay

(a) Only (I) (b) Only (III) (c) Both (II) and (III) (d) Both
(I) and (II)

(e) Both (I) and (III)

Q16. She took every _______________ to ensure the safety of her children
before the storm arrived.

(I) ambition (II) restriction (III) precaution

(a) Only (I) (b) Only (III) (c) Both (II) and (III) (d)
Both (I) and (II)

(e) Both (I) and (III)

Directions (17-19): For the following question, a sentence is provided with

three highlighted words that may be incorrectly positioned. Choose the
correct sequence to rearrange these words, ensuring the sentence is both
grammatically and contextually correct.

Q17. revealing (A) matter physics studies (B) solids and liquids,
condensed (C) key phenomena such as superconductivity and magnetism.
(a) CBA (b) BAC (c) ACB (d) BCA (e) No
rearrangement required

Q18. A sudden wind (A) of gust (B) sent the papers (C) flying across the
room.

(a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CBA (d) BCA (e) No

rearrangement required

Q19. The little boy walked (A) his mother’s hand tightly as they clutched
(B) through the bustling (C) marketplace, his eyes wide with curiosity.

(a) CBA (b) CAB (c) ACB (d) BAC (e) No

rearrangement required

Directions (20-22): The following question contains a sentence which has

been divided into four parts which might not be in their correct order of
narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which
gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence
meaningful. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the
parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence, then
mark option " No rearrangement required " as the answer.

Q20. (A) residents, he still had to (B) although the policeman was (C) issue
them both a citation (D) friendly toward the two

(a) BDAC (b) DABC (c) BACD (d) DCBA (e) No

rearrangement required

Q21. (A) countryside, creating a (B) peaceful atmosphere. (C) the sunset
cast a mellow (D) glow over the tranquil

(a) ABDC (b) ADCB (c) CABD (d) CDAB (e) No

rearrangement required

Q22. (A) it is hard to make (B) friends if you don’t have a (C) jovial
personality that (D) exudes welcoming vibes

(a) BDCA (b) BADC (c) ADBC (d) ABDC (e) No

rearrangement required

Directions (23-30): Read the following passage and answer the given
questions.

In a quiet village nestled between rolling green hills, a father and his
daughter embarked on an ambitious journey—organic farming. Unlike the
traditional farming methods that had been followed for generations, their
approach rejected chemical fertilizers and pesticides, focusing instead on
natural compost, crop rotation, and biological pest control. Their vision
was clear: to cultivate healthier food while preserving the environment.
However, their decision was met with resistance. The villagers scoffed at
their efforts, claiming that such methods were ____________________ and
doomed to fail. "The soil needs chemicals to yield good crops," they
warned. "Your harvest will be weak, and your time will be wasted." But the
father and daughter persisted, refusing to abandon their dream. Each day,
they toiled under the sun, carefully nurturing their crops with organic
fertilizers made from decomposed leaves and cow dung. At first, progress
was slow. The seeds of their labor did not show immediate results, and
doubts percolated even in their own minds. Whispers of failure spread
through the village, reinforcing the skepticism of those who had dismissed
their efforts. Yet, they held firm, drawing strength from their shared
conviction. Months passed, and slowly, their farm transformed. The soil
became richer, earthworms flourished, and their plants grew robust
without a trace of chemical intervention. Their once skeptical neighbors
watched in astonishment as their fields produced a bountiful harvest. Over
time, the father and daughter not only proved their critics wrong but also
gained widespread recognition. Their farm became a model for
sustainable agriculture, drawing interest from environmental
organizations. They received awards for their eco-friendly initiatives, and
the same villagers who once doubted them now sought their advice. Their
story became an inspiration, proving that with persistence and faith in
one's principles, even the most rigid mindsets can change. The land they
had nurtured was not just a testament to their hard work but also a
symbol of resilience and vision.

Q23. Based on the passage, which of the following statements can be

inferred?

(I) The villagers' opposition was based on a belief in traditional farming

methods.

(II) The father and daughter had prior experience in organic farming
before they started.

(III) The farm’s transformation convinced the villagers to reconsider their

stance on organic farming.

(a) Only (I) (b) Both (I) and (II) (c) Only (III) (d)
Both (I) and (III)

(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q24. Identify the statement that is FALSE based on the passage.

(I) The father and daughter’s progress was immediate and did not face
any setbacks.
(II) The villagers were hesitant at first but quickly supported their organic
farming methods.

(III) The father and daughter relied on chemical fertilizers initially but later
switched to organic farming.

(a) Only (I) (b) Both (I) and (III) (c) Only (II) (d) Both
(II) and (III)

(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q25. What does the passage suggest about changing societal

perceptions?

(I) Immediate results are necessary for people to change their minds.

(II) Success often leads to a shift in public opinion.

(III) Hard work and persistence can challenge existing beliefs.

(a) Only (I) (b) Both (I) and (III) (c) Only (II) (d)
Both (II) and (III)

(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q26. Choose the most appropriate word to replace "persisted" in the

sentence below without changing its meaning.

(a) Conceded (b) Persevered (c) Relented (d)

Surrendered (e) Hesitated

Q27. Choose the most appropriate word to replace "percolated" in the

sentence below without changing its meaning.

(a) Dissipated (b) Spread (c) Evaporated (d) Diminished

(e) Contaminated

Q28. Choose the most appropriate word to complete the sentence

meaningfully.

(a) Revolutionary (b) Sustainable (c) Negligent (d) Impractical

(e) Promising

Q29. Identify the statement that is TRUE based on the passage.

(I) The father and daughter rejected chemical fertilizers and pesticides in
favor of organic methods.

(II) Over time, the success of their organic farm changed the villagers'
perception.

(III) The villagers immediately supported the father and daughter’s

farming efforts.
(a) Only (I) (b) Both (I) and (III) (c) Only (II) (d) Both
(I) and (II)

(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q30. What role did doubt play in the journey of the father and daughter?

(I) It was present among the villagers who strongly opposed their farming
methods.

(II) The father and daughter never had any doubts about their methods.

(III) Doubts even emerged in their own minds as progress was slow.

(a) Only (I) (b) Both (I) and (III) (c) Only (II) (d) Both (II)
and (III)

(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q31. A boat covers 120 km downstream in five hours and difference

between downstream and upstream speed is 3 km/hr. Find the ratio of the
speed of boat in still water to the speed of stream?

(a) 12 :1 (b) 15 : 2 (c) 7 : 1 (d) 15 : 1 (e)

15 : 4

Q32. B is x more than C and A is x more than B. If A = 1000. If average of

A and C is 960, then what is the value of x?

(a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 120 (d) 40 (e) 30

Q33. Six years ago, the ratio of age of A to that of B was 4 : 1. Two years
hence from present, the average age of A and B will be 33 years. Find the
present age of A (in years)?

(a) 16 (b) 42 (c) 48 (d) 46 (e) 52

Q34. Akash spends 5% of his monthly salary on rent and he lends 35% to
Vikas. Out of remaining, he spends 30% on food and remaining he saved.
If saving of Akash is Rs 25200, then find the monthly salary of Akash?

(a) 40000 Rs. (b) 30000 Rs (c) 50000 Rs. (d) 60000
Rs. (e) 75000 Rs.

Q35. A car and a bike can cover a distance of ‘d’ km in X hours and Y
hours respectively, and the ratio of X to Y is 9 : 8. If the speeds of car and
bike is 80 km/hr & 90 km/hr respectively, then find the value of ‘d’?

(a) 720 (b) 840 (c) Can’t be determined (d) 360

(e) 540
Q36. 20 men can do a work in 24 days and 24 women can do the same
work in 48 days. 20 men started the work and after 12 days all 20 men
left the work. Find how many women are required to complete the
remaining work in 8 days?

(a) 36 (b) 48 (c) 64 (d) 72 (e) 60

Q37. The sum of four consecutive even numbers and three consecutive
odd numbers is 175. If the smallest odd number is 15 more than the
smallest even number, then find the smallest even number?

(a) 18 (b) 14 (c) 20 (d) 16 (e) 22

Q38. There are two numbers X and Y, while the sum of X and Y is equal to
160% of X. If the average of X and Y is 160, then find the value of 60% of
(X-Y)?

(a) 24 (b) 60 (c) 32 (d) 48 (e) 80

Q39. In a mixture, the ratio of milk to water is 4 : 1. in the mixture, 24

litres water is added and the difference between milk and water in final
mixture becomes 84 litres. Find the initial quantity of the mixture?

(a) 144 (b) 180 (c) 72 (d) 240 (e) 96

Q40. A man invested Rs. X at rate of 10% p.a. on compound interest for
two years and received an interest of Rs. 1008. If man invested Rs
X+1200 (on compound interest) at same rate of interest for same period
of time, then find the amount obtained by the man (in Rs.)?

(a) 5808 (b) 7260 (c) 7220 (d) 1260 (e)

None of these

Q41. The total number of boys in two schools A and B together is 800. The
ratio of total number of boys in A & B together to total number of girls in A
& B together is 40 : 11. If the ratio of total girls in A and B is 6 : 5
respectively, then find the difference between total girls in schools A and
B?

(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 15 (e) 25

respectively. If P had received 16𝟐 𝟑 % more amount, then he would

Q42. A certain amount is distributed between P and Q in the ratio of 5 : 7

receive Rs. 4200. Find the amount received by Q (in Rs.)?

(a) 3600 (b) 4080 (c) 5020 (d) 5040 (e)

4480

Q43. The sum of three numbers A, B and C is 975, and B is more than that
of A. If C is 125 more than B, then find the value of C?
(a) 200 (b) 325 (c) 400 (d) 450 (e) Can’t
be determined

Q44. In 2017, a village population is X and the population of the village is

increased by x% annually. If increase in population from 2017 to 2019 is
12000, which is 125% of 2017 population of the village, then find the
value of ‘x’?

(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 50 (d) 100 (e) Can’t be

determined

Q45. A invested Rs 6000 in a business and after 4 months, B joined him

with Rs. X more amount than A. At the end of a year, the total profit of the
business is Rs. 4400 and the profit share of A is Rs. 2400. Find the
investment of B (in Rs.)?

(a) 1500 (b) 7500 (c) 8000 (d) 7200 (e)

8400

Directions (46-50): The table given below shows the number of books read
by three people in three different libraries (P, Q and R). Read the data
carefully and answer the questions given below.

Q46. Find the ratio of number of books read by Ziyan from P and R
together number of books read by Priyan from Q and R together?

(a) 5 : 6 (b) 5 : 7 (c) 5 : 8 (d) 4 : 7 (e) 3 : 5

Q47. Find the difference between of number of books read by Riyan from P
& Q together and number of books read by Priyan from P?

(a) 48 (b) 54 (c) 64 (d) 58 (e) 68

Q48. Siyan reads 20% more books from library R which read by Ziyan from
the same library and total books read by Siyan from libraries P is 44. If the
average number of books read by Siyan from all three libraries is 48, then
find the number of books read by Siyan from library Q?

a) 48 (b) (36 (c) 20 (d) 30 (e) 40

Q49. Total books read by Riyan from P and Q together is what percent
more than total books read by Ziyan from R?’
(a) 208% (b) 200% (c) 184% (d) 202%
(e) 204%

Q50. Find the average number of books read by Ziyan from Q, Riyan from
R and Priyan from P?

(a) 88 (b) 68 (c) 78 (d) 72 (e) 64

Directions (51-55): The bar graph given below shows number of items sold
by A and B in three different years. Read the data carefully and answer
the questions given below.

Q51. If number of items sold by A in 2018 are 40% more than number of
items sold by B in 2015, then find the difference between number of items
sold by A in 2018 and number of items sold by B in 2017?

(a) 88 (b) 72 (c) 84 (d) 54 (e) 64

Q52. Find the ratio of number of items sold by A in 2016 to total items sold
by A and B together in 2015?

(a) 16 : 41 (b) 18 : 31 (c) 14 : 41 (d) 18: 41

(e) 18 : 43

Q53. If B sold each item for Rs. 40 in 2017, then find the total amount
received by B in 2017?

(a) 3840 Rs. (b) 1920 Rs. (c) 2020 Rs. (d) 1840
Rs. (e) 1960 Rs.

Q54. Total items sold by B in 2016 is what percent more or less than total
of total items sold by A in 2017?
(a) 60% (b) 40% (c) 62.5% (d) 48% (e)
37.5%

Q55. Find the difference between total items sold by B in 2015 & 2016
together and total items sold by A in 2017?

(a) 40 (b) 48 (c) 54 (d) 34 (e) 44

Directions (56-65): What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the
following question.

Q56. (27×12 + 11×20) ÷17 = 8×?

(a) 8 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 4 (e) 2

Q57. 28 ×5 +8×5 = ?% of 300

(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 45 (e) 70

Q58.

(a) 102 (b) 118 (c) 108 (d) 98 (e) 128

Q59. ? × 15 + 30% of 400 = 8×30

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 4 (e) 14

Q60. (276+122) ÷? = 84

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 21

Q61. 16× 50 + ?2 = 281×4

(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 24 (e) None of

these

Q62.

(a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 (e) 16

Q63. (204×7 + 1500 ÷ 5) ÷ 144 = ?

(a) 6 (b) 144 (c) 18 (d) 16 (e) 12

Q64. (337×5) – 115 + 60 -∛8 =?

(a) 1632 (b) 1670 (c) 1628 (d) 1630

(e) 1638

Q65.
(a) 1005 (b) 1205 (c) 1150 (d) 1105
(e) 1050

Directions (66-70): Read the given series carefully and answer the related
questions:

&7A6M$9S8G#D%3N2@5T4+3V5!Y2K

Q66. How many symbols are immediately followed by a letter?

(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e)

Four

Q67. What is the sum of the numbers which are to the left of ‘@’?

(a) 22 (b) 28 (c) 19 (d) 33 (e) 35

Q68. Which of the following element is 13th from the left end?

(a) N (b) 3 (c) D (d) % (e) @

Q69. How many letters are immediately preceded by a symbol and

immediately followed by a number?

(a) Four (b) Three (c) Two (d) One (e)

None

Q70. How many symbols are there between G and V, in the series?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e)

Five

Directions (71-75): Read the given information carefully and answer the
related questions:

In a certain code language ‘digital strong data file’ is written as ‘xo ul in

ro’ ‘secure strong internet code’ is written as 'tr in lu mr’ ‘file protect
secure backup’ is written as ‘ro ek lu km’ ‘internet digital access’ is written
as ‘mr xo em’

Q71. What is the code of ‘Secure’?

(a) in (b) tr (c) lu (d) mr (e) ro

Q72. Which of the following word is coded as ‘ro’?

(a) Protect (b) File (c) Secure (d) Strong

(e) Data

Q73. What is the code of ‘backup’?

(a) ro (b) ek (c) lu (d) km (e) Can’t be

determined
Q74. Which of the following pair is incorrect?

(a) Strong - tr (b) File - ro (c) Internet - mr (d)

Access - em (e) Data - ul

Q75. Which of the following words are coded as ‘mr ro’?

(a) Strong Access (b) Data Access (c) Digital Secure (d) Internet File
(e) Digital File

Q76. If a meaningful word is formed by using the fourth, fifth, seventh and
eight letters (from the left end) of the word “COMPONENT”, then which of
the following will be the third letter from the right end of the meaningful
word thus formed. If more than one such meaningful word is formed mark
Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your
answer?

(a) P (b) O (c) E (d) Z (e) X

Q77. How many pair of letters are in the word ‘COMPOUND’, each of which
has as many letters between them as in the English alphabet (both
forward and backward direction)?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) More
than four

Directions (78-80): Read the given information carefully and answer the
related questions:

Point A is 6m west of Point B. Point B is 10m north of Point C. Point C is 7m

west of point D. Point E is 5m south of point D. Point E is 13m east of point
F.

Q78. In which direction is point A with respect to Point F?

(a) North-west (b) South-west (c) North-east (d) North

(e) South

Q79. What is the shortest distance between Point F and point D?

(a) 11m (b) 17m (c) √225m (d) 10m (e)

√194m

Q80. What is the total distance between Point B and point E?

(a) 21m (b) 22m (c) 23m (d) 24m (e) 25m

Directions (81-85): Read the given information carefully and answer the
questions below:

Eight persons - M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T – sit around a square table but not

in same order as given. Four persons sit at corners and face inside while
rest four sit at the middle of the sides and face outside. S sits third to the
left of P. One person sits between S and M. O sits immediate right of the
one who sits second to the right of M. T faces the same direction as O but
T does not sit at the corners. N sits immediate left of R but N does not sit
opposite to T.

Q81. What is the position of Q with respect to P?

(a) Immediate right (b) Second to the left (c) Third to the
right

(d) Fourth to the left (e) Immediate left

Q82. Who among the following five persons faces the same direction as R?

(a) N (b) M (c) S (d) Q (e) T

Q83. How many persons sit between N and O, when counted from the left
of O?

(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e)

More than three

Q84. Who among the following sits opposite to M?

(a) N (b) R (c) S (d) Q (e) P

Q85. Which of the following is true? I. O and Q sits immediate left to each
other II. S sits opposite to R III. N face outside

(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) Only I and II
(e) Only II and III

Directions (86-90): Read the given information carefully and answer the
related questions:

Eight boxes are placed one above the other. Two boxes are placed
between box B and box G. Box B is placed four places above box A. Box A
and box C placed adjacent to each other but none of them is bottommost
box. Number of boxes placed above box C and below box F are same. Box
E is placed above box H and below box D.

Q86. How many boxes are placed above box E?

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five (e)

More than five

Q87. Which box is placed three boxes below box D?

(a) Box A (b) Box G (c) Box C (d) Box B

(e) Box E
Q88. Which box is placed exactly between box H and box G?

(a) Box A (b) Box C (c) Box E (d) Box F

(e) Box B

Q89. If box B is related to box D, box F is related to box G, in the similar

way box __ is related to box __ respectively.

(a) A, E (b) G, C (c) D, A (d) E, H (e) A,

H

Q90. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) Box F is placed below box D (b) Two boxes are placed between
box G and E

(c) Box H is the bottommost box (d) More than three boxes
are placed above box A (e) Box B and box C are placed
adjacent to each other

Directions (91-95): Read the given information carefully and answer the
questions below:

Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H - work on different designations

(but not necessarily in the same order as given) in a company. The
designations are – ED, GM, DGM, AM, Manager, Assistant, PO, Clerk (the
hierarchy is given in the decreasing order of seniority from ED to Clerk
respectively). B is junior to manager. Three designations are n between B
and E. F is two designations senior to E. G is just junior to D. Number of
persons junior to G is same as the number of persons senior to C. A is
senior to H.

Q91. Which of the following pair is correct?

(a) E- DGM (b) A - ED (c) G - Manager (d) H - Clerk

(e) B - PO

Q92. What is the designation of C?

(a) DGM (b) GM (c) AM (d) ED (e)

Manager

Q93. Who among the following is designated as Assistant?

(a) C (b) H (c) B (d) D (e) G

Q94. How many persons are designated between A and B?

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five (e)

Six

Q95. Who among the following is three designations junior to A?

(a) D (b) C (c) E (d) G (e) H

Directions (96-98): In the questions below, some statements are given

followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.
Read all the statements and decide which of the given conclusion logically
follows from the statements. Give answer:

Q96. Statement: Only a few apple are fruit. Some fruit are sweet. All sweet
is white.

Conclusions: I. Some sweet being apple is a possibility. II. All fruit is white.

(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Either I or II follow

(d) Neither I nor II follow (e) Both I and II follow

Q97. Statement: No book is paper. Only a few paper are notes. No notes
are flower.

Conclusions: I. Some paper are not flower. II. All book being notes is a
possibility.

(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Either I or II follow

(d) Neither I nor II follow (e) Both I and II follow

Q98. Statement: All bottle are small. Only a few small are blue. All blue
are wire.

Conclusions: I. Some blue is bottle. II. No wire is bottle.

(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Either I or II follow

(d) Neither I nor II follow (e) Both I and II follow

Directions (99-100): Read the given information carefully and answer the
related questions: Six persons – P, Q, R, S, T and U – have different
weights but not necessarily in the same order as given. T is heavier than
only one person. Weight of 2nd heaviest person is 59kg. Two persons are
in between T and U. Difference between the weight of U and R is 19kg. Q
is just heavier to R but lighter to S.

Q99. How many persons are heavier to P?

(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e)

Five

Q100. What will be the possible weight of Q?

(a) 39kg (b) 48kg (c) 63kg (d) 31kg

(e) 72kg
SBI CLERK PRELIMS 2023

Directions (1-8): Read the following passage and answer the given
questions.

In a verdant village, surrounded by bamboo groves, lived an enterprising

young man named Alok. His community had long crafted bamboo
products, valued for their quality but limited in variety, primarily
traditional items like baskets and mats. Alok, however, saw potential for
more through a creative twist. Realizing the need for innovation to keep
the craft alive, Alok embarked on a journey of learning about moulding
bamboo in new ways. He explored contemporary design and new bamboo
crafting techniques, absorbing ideas that could revolutionize his village's
traditional work. He learned about sustainable methods to treat and mold
bamboo, allowing greater flexibility in design. Returning home, Alok
started experimenting. He combined the village's age-old craftsmanship
with his newly acquired knowledge, creating bamboo products that were
not only functional but also artistically modern. His creations ranged from
elegant lampshades to stylish, foldable furniture, houses and artifacts, all
from bamboo, yet unlike anything his village had seen before. The launch
of Alok's new line was a _______________. His products, blending nature
with urban aesthetics, captivated many. Orders flowed in, not just from
locals but from far beyond the village borders. This success brought
prosperity and transformation. Alok employed and trained more artisans,
infusing new life into the traditional bamboo craft with a modern twist.
The village, once known for its monotony in bamboo products, now buzzed
with innovation and creativity. Alok's story became a beacon of
inspiration, showcasing the power of embracing change while honoring
tradition. His journey illustrated how innovation, blended with heritage,
could lead to remarkable success, both for the individual and the
community.

Q1. What was the limitation of the bamboo products before Alok's
intervention?

(a) The products were too expensive, making them inaccessible.

(b) There was a lack of variety in the bamboo products.

(c) The quality of bamboo used in the products was poor, leading to issues
with durability.

(d) The production methods used were inefficient, resulting in slow

production rates.
(e) There was a limited availability of bamboo, causing a constraint in the
production capacity.

Q2. Identify the CORRECT statement about Alok's bamboo products after
his innovation.

(a) Alok's new products were primarily traditional in design, maintaining

the old aesthetic.

(b) The products were made using entirely different materials other than
bamboo.

(c) Alok's products incorporated a blend of modern design aesthetics with

traditional craftsmanship.

(d) The innovation led to a decrease in the quality of bamboo used.

(e) Alok's products were limited to the local market and did not gain
popularity elsewhere.

Q3. What was the unique aspect of Alok's new bamboo products
compared to traditional village crafts?

(a) They were less expensive and more accessible to the average
consumer

(b) They were exclusively for high-end markets and luxury clients

(c) They incorporated a creative twist with a blend of traditional

craftsmanship and modern design aesthetics

(d) They used entirely different materials other than bamboo

(e) They focused on mass production rather than individual craftsmanship

Q4. What was the outcome of Alok's new product line launch?

(a) It captivated a wide audience and brought in orders from beyond the
village.

(b) It achieved moderate success but failed to attract attention outside the
village

(c) It was met with resistance and criticism from the local community

(d) It led to Alok leaving the village to start a business in a city

(e) It was a commercial failure but respected for its artistic value

Q5. Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding the impact of

Alok's innovation on his village.
(a) Alok's innovation transformed the village into a centre of innovative
bamboo crafting.

(b) The village attracted tourists and design enthusiasts due to the
innovative approach to bamboo crafting.

(c) Alok's success led to the employment and training of more artisans in
the village.

(d) The village continued to be known only for its traditional bamboo
products and nothing else.

(e) The transformation brought about by Alok's innovation was not limited
to his business but impacted the entire village.

Q6. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the given blank.

(a) Failure (b) Challenge (c) Routine (d) Mystery (e) Triumph

Q7. Choose the word that is most similar in meaning to 'Moulding'.

(a) Shaping (b) Breaking (c) Ignoring (d) Reducing (e) Copying

Q8. Choose the word that is most similar in meaning to 'Twist'

(a) Rotate (b) Straighten (c) Bend (d) Preserve (e) Simplify

Directions (9-11): In each of the questions given below a sentence is

divided into five parts. These parts may or may not be in their correct
position. Following each question four sequences are provided. Select the
sequence of the parts which will arrange the given sentence in a
contextual meaningful way. If the parts are correct at their current
position, then choose ‘no rearrangement required’ as your answer.

Q9. (A) implied a possible absorption of the

(B) gas by an ocean or isolation by

(C) levels relative to the neighbouring planets

(D) researchers said the drop in the carbon dioxide

(E) biomass on a planetary scale

(a) DCABE (b) CAEBD (c) ACEDB (d) BEDCA (e) No rearrangement required

Q10. (A) particularly in the realm of Carnatic music

(B) hearts of music enthusiasts throughout the country,

(C) saraswati, the Hindu Goddess of learning, is always

(D) portrayed with a veena on her lap, symbolising

(E) the instrument’s unique significance in the

(a) EADCB (b) DECAB (c) CDEBA (d) BEDCA (e) No rearrangement required

Q11. (A) embracing cultural diversity in education fosters

(B) a rich learning environment, encouraging tolerance,

(C) understanding, and a global perspective

(D) among students, preparing

(E) for an interconnected world

(a) ACEBD (b) BAEDC (c) CDEAB (d) EDBCA (e) No rearrangement required

Directions (12-15): In each of the questions given below, a few phrases

are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of
phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a
meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases
from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer
choice.

Q12. COLUMN (I)

(A) Urgent action is needed to curb greenhouse gas emissions and

(B) AI transforms industries, employing advanced algorithms for tasks

(C) Sustainable development requires a holistic approach, balancing

COLUMN (II)

(D) fostering supportive environments and encouraging help-seeking.

(E) address the impacts of climate change on ecosystems and societies.

(F) on quality learning opportunities and fostering adaptability.

(a) B-F (b) A-E (c) C-D (d) A-D (e) None of these

Q13. COLUMN (I)

(A) In an increasingly interconnected world, robust

(B) Biotechnology breakthroughs in genetic engineering, personalized

medicine,

(C) Promoting diversity and inclusion in workplace is crucial for fostering

COLUMN (II)

(D) and sustainable agriculture offer transformative solutions to global

challenges
(E) protect information, secure critical infrastructure, and mitigate cyber
threats

(F) climate change and achieving a sustainable, greener future.

(a) B-F (b) A-D (c) B-D (d) C-F (e) None of these

Q14. COLUMN (I)

(A) Fashion industry's increasing focus relucting

(B) Advancements in quantum computing hold promise for solving

complex

(C) The evolution of e-commerce continues to reshape retail and

COLUMN (II)

(D) infectious diseases underscore the importance of international

collaboration

(E) speeds and connectivity, paving the way for innovations in

communication

(F) innovative approaches to meet evolving consumer preferences.

(a) A-D (b) C-E (c) A-E (d) C-F (e) None of these

Q15. COLUMN (I)

(A) The dynamics of the team changed significantly when

(B) Advances in genomic medicine contribute

(C) The pervasive influence of social media continues to

COLUMN (II)

(D) the new manager introduced innovative collaboration strategies.

(E) plans based on an individual's genetic makeup for improved outcomes.

(F) and encouraging a closed-loop system to enhance resource efficiency.

(a) B-D (b) A-D (c) B-E (d) C-E (e) None of these Directions

(16-20): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against
each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate words.

Post-COVID, office outfits have ______________ (16) a notable

transformation, blending comfort and professionalism. The traditional
business attire has given way to a more relaxed and ___________ (17) style,
with many professionals opting for smart casual or athleisure wear.
Remote work experiences have ____________ (18) a shift towards
comfortable yet polished looks, integrating elements like tailored joggers
and knit blazers. The ______________ (19) on video conferencing has led to
an increased focus on the upper half of outfits, with stylish tops and
accessories taking precedence. As the boundary between work and home
blurs, the evolving office attire _______________ (20) a balance between
comfort, functionality, and a professional aesthetic.

Q16. (a) undergone (b) brighten (c) deepen (d) wane (e) strive

Q17. (a) fragile (b) gentle (c) versatile (d) noble (e) fertile

Q18. (a) bored (b) terrified (c) excited (d) amused (e) influenced

Q19. (a) resistance (b) emphasis (c) analysis (d) crisis (e) synthesis

Q20. (a) depends (b) terminates (c) suspends (d) reflects (e) fluctuates

Directions (21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the sentence is error-
free then, choose “No error” as the answer. (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any.)

Q21. (A) Many people believes / (B) that technological advancements / (C)
can solve / (D) most of our problems.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q22. (A) She is one of those writers / (B) who has / (C) won numerous
awards / (D) for her work.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q23. (A) Either the manager or his/ (B) assistants needs to be present/ (C)
to sign off/ (D) the documents.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q24. (A) The audience was enthusiastic/ (B) and claps loudly/ (C) after the
performance/ (D) ended.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q25. (A) Me and my brother / (B) are planning to start/ (C) a new business
venture / (D) together next year.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Directions (26-30): In each of the following sentences, four words have

been highlighted which may or may not be misspelt or inappropriate in
their usage. Mark the erroneous word as the answer and if all the words
are correct in their spellings and usage, choose ‘All are correct’ as your
answer.

Q26. After a long week of work, Julia decided to wonder through the
tranquil streets of the old town, enjoying the peace and the timeless
beauty of its historic architecture.

(a) wonder (b) enjoying (c) timeless (d) architecture (e) All are correct

Q27. The magician's performance was extraordinary, leaving the audiance

in awe of his sleight of hand and illusionary tricks.

(a) extraordinary (b) audiance (c) sleight (d) illusionary (e) All are correct

Q28. The company's latest techonology breakthrough promises to

revolutionize the industry, providing solutions that were previously
unimaginable.

(a) company's (b) techonology (c) revolutionize (d) unimaginable (e) All
are correct

Q29. She decided to altar her dress to make it fit better for the upcoming
wedding.

(a) decided (b) altar (c) better (d) wedding (e) All are correct

Q30. During the meeting, the manager gave John a complement on his
excellent presentation skills.

(a) meeting (b) complement (c) excellent (d) skills (e) All are correct

Directions (31-35): The line graph given below show total number of
banquet halls registered by four (W, X, Y and Z) different event organizer
companies. Read the line graph carefully and answer the questions below.
Q31. If total number of banquet halls registered by company A is 25%
more than that of by Y, then find the average number of banquet halls
registered by A and W.

(a) 150 (b) 240 (c) 270 (d) 210 (e) 200

Q32. Out of total banquet halls registered by Y, are registered for marriage
event, of remaining hall are registered for birthday party and rest are
registered for office party. If total hall registered by X for office party is 16
more than total hall registered by Y for marriage event and the ratio of
hall registered by X for birthday party to marriage event is 3 : 7, then find
the difference between total hall registered by X for marriage event and Y
for office party.

(a) 26 (b) 14 (c) 24 (d) 10 (e) 6

Q33. Total banquet halls registered by Z is approximately what percent

less than total banquet halls registered W and X together.

(a) 57% (b) 53% (c) 37% (d) 41% (e) 47%

Q34. If total number of banquet halls registered by P is of total banquet

halls registered by Z, then find the ratio of total number of banquet halls
registered by W to that of by P.

(a) 9 : 11 (b) 12 : 11 (c) 6 : 11 (d) 8 : 11 (e) 7 : 11

Q35. Find the difference between total number of banquet halls registered
by X & Y together and total number of banquet halls registered by Z.

(a) 280 (b) 180 (c) 240 (d) 300 (e) 260
Directions (36-40): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in the
following number series.

Q36. 11, 48, 89, 132, ?, 232

(a) 177 (b) 181 (c) 169 (d) 189 (e) 179

Q37. ?, 25, 59, 110, 178, 263

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 6 (d) 5 (e) 4

Q38. 24, 49, 99, ?, 399, 799

(a) 198 (b) 200 (c) 199 (d) 197 (e) 201

Q39. 220, 236, 264, 304, 356, ?

(a) 440 (b) 480 (c) 540 (d) 420 (e) 400

Q40. 241, ?, 248, 258, 275, 301

(a) 245 (b) 243 (c) 242 (d) 247 (e) 246

Q41. The ratio of length to breadth of a rectangle is 5: 7 and the ratio of

radius of a semi-circle to breadth of the rectangle is 1: 2. If the perimeter
of the rectangle is 12 cm more than the circumference of the semi-circle,
then find the area of the rectangle.

(a) 140 cm² (b) 70 cm² (c) 48 cm² (d) 105 cm² (e) 210 cm²

Q42. P started a business by investing Rs 25000 and after five months, Q

joined the business by investing Rs X. At the end of the year, the profit
share of P is Rs 15000 out of the total profit of Rs 25500. Find the value of
X.

(a) 25000 (b) 20000 (c) 30000 (d) 15000 (e) 40000

Q43. A is 20% more efficient than B and C is 50% more efficient than A. If
the difference between the time taken by A alone and C alone to complete
a work is 20 days, then find the time taken by A, B and C together to
complete the work.

(a) 12 days (b) 30 days (c) 20 days (d) 18 days (e) 15 days

Q44. The profit received, when a man sells an article by giving discount
25% is Rs. 70. If the profit received, when the man sells the article by
giving 30% discount is Rs. 50, then find the marked price of the article.

(a) Rs. 350 (b) Rs. 400 (c) Rs. 300 (d) Rs. 250 (e) Rs. 200

Q45. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 3: 4 respectively. If

21 liters of mixture is removed and 6 liters of water is added in the
remaining mixture, then the ratio of milk to water becomes 1: 2. Find the
initial quantity of the mixture.

(a) 42 liters (b) 35 liters (c) 49 liters (d) 56 liters (e) 28 liters

Q46. A man invested certain amount in scheme A which offers simple

interest at the rate of 10% p.a. and he also invested same amount in
scheme B which offers compound interest at the rate of 20% p.a. If the
difference between the interest received from both the schemes after two
years is Rs 960, then find the amount invested.

(a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 4000 (c) Rs. 2400 (d) Rs. 4800 (e) Rs. 3200

Q47. A train cross a pole and a platform in 10 seconds and 30 seconds. If

the length of the platform is 900 meters, then find the length of the train.

(a) 500 meters (b) 550 meters (c) 350 meters (d) 400 meters (e) 450
meters

Q48. Five years ago, the ratio of the age of A to B was 2: 3 and twelve
years hence, the ratio of the age of A to B will be 27: 32. Find the sum of
the age of A and B after two years.

(a) 29 years (b) 35 years (c) 39 years (d) 27 years (e) 30 years

Q49. The ratio of the downstream to upstream speed of a boat is 10: 3. If

the boat covers 240 km downstream in 12 hours, then find the distance
covered by the boat in five hours travelling in still water.

(a) 75 km (b) 35 km (c) 30 km (d) 65 km (e) 50 km

Q50. The average of 20 number is 50. When another number X is added,

then the average is increased by 2. Find the value of 2X.

(a) 76 (b) 86 (c) 42 (d) 92 (e) 184

Directions (51-65): Find the exact value of question marks (?) in following
questions.

Q51.

(a) 45 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 30 (e) 50

Q52.
7 8 8 8 8
(a) 33 (b)35 (c)31 (d)33 (e)29
15 15 15 15 15

Q53.
(a) 703 (b) 710 (c) 700 (d) 705 (e) 706

Q54.

(a) 134 (b) 117 (c) 142 (d) 151 (e) 111

Q55.

(a) 1 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.45 (d) 0.25 (e) 1.5

Q56.

(a) 7.5 (b) 4.5 (c) 1.5 (d) 0.15 (e) 0.5

Q57.

(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 9 (e) 11

Q58.

(a) 240.1 (b) 250.1 (c) 230.1 (d) 235.1 (e) 260.1

Q59.

(a) 7 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 6 (e) 9

Q60.

(a) 36 (b) 54 (c) 48 (d) 30 (e) 42

Q61.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Q62.

(a) 456 (b) 486 (c) 426 (d) 496 (e) 482

Q63.

(a) 208 (b) 287 (c) 370 (d) 179 (e) 168

Q64.

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) - 8 (d) 12 (e) Both (b) and (c)

Q65.

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 5 (e) 9

Directions (66-68): In these questions, relationship between different
elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by
conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and
select the appropriate answer:

Q66.

(a) If only conclusion I is true. (b) If only conclusion II is true. (c) If either
conclusion I or II is true. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (e) If both
conclusions I and II are true.

Q67.

(a) If only conclusion I is true. (b) If only conclusion II is true. (c) If either
conclusion I or II is true. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (e) If both
conclusions I and II are true.

Q68.

(a) If only conclusion I is true. (b) If only conclusion II is true. (c) If either
conclusion I or II is true. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (e) If both
conclusions I and II are true.

Directions (69-71): Study the following information carefully to answer the

given questions:

Certain numbers of persons sit in a row face north. A is the only

immediate neighbour of G. One person sits between A and D. C sits 2nd to
the left of E. E sits just left of D. There are as many persons sit to the left
of F as right of A. B sits two places away from F and just left of C. I sits
between C and E.

Q69. How many persons sit in the row?

(a) Eighteen (b) Twelve (c) Eleven (d) Eight (e) None of the above

Q70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a
group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(a) A-G (b) E-D (c) C-B (d) F-E (e) I-C

Q71. Which of the following statement is true?

I. Two persons sit between B and E

II. Two persons sit to the left of B

III. The numbers of persons sit between E and A is same as between I and
F

(a) Both I and II (b) Only II (c) Both II and III (d) Only I (e) Only III

Directions (72-76): The following questions are based on the five words of
three letters given below.

JOT PAN SBE SUB TIN

Q72. In Which of the following words the gap of alphabets between 1st
and 2nd letter is same as between the 2nd letter and 3rd letter?

(a) SBE (b) PAN (c) SUB (d) JOT (e) TIN

Q73. If we add “S” in start of all the given words then how many
meaningful words are formed?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) More than three (e) None

Q74. If we arranged all the words in the alphabetical order from right to
left then which of the following word is 2nd from the left end?

(a) PAN (b) SUB (c) SBE (d) JOT (e) TIN

Q75. If the 1st and 3rd letter are interchanged in each word and arranged
the words in alphabetical order then which of the following word is 4th
from the left end?

(a) SBE (b) PAN (c) SUB (d) JOT (e) TIN

Q76. How many alphabets in between 1st letter of 2nd word and 2nd
letter of 4th word?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) More than three (e) None

Q77. In the word “FASCINATE”, how many pairs of the letters have the
same number of letters between them (both forward and backward
direction) in the word as in the alphabet?

(a) Four (b) Two (c) One (d) Three (e) More than four

Directions (78-82): Study the following information carefully to answer the

given questions:

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H graduated (but not necessarily in

the same order) either on 5th or 20th in four different months viz, January,
April, May and September. B graduated on odd date and in the month
which has 30 days. Three persons graduated between B and F. Two
persons graduated between E and F. G graduated three persons before E.
H graduated just before A. D was not graduated at last.

Q78. Who graduated on the 5th of May? (a) H (b) C (c) E (d) F (e) G Q79.
In which month did A graduate?

(a) January (b) April (c) May (d) September (e) Cannot be determined

Q80. How many persons graduated between D and H?

(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) Four

Q81. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a
group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

(a) F (b) B (c) H (d) G (e) E

Q82. Who among the following is graduate two persons before C?

(a) H (b) A (c) E (d) F (e) G

Q83. In the number ‘8493213479’, if we add 1 in the digit which is less

than 5 and subtract 1 from the digit which is more than 6. After that what
is the sum of 2nd digit from left end and 3rd digit from the right end after
rearrangement?

(a) 12 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 8 (e) 9

Directions (84-88): Read the given information carefully and answer the
questions based on it:

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T sit around a circular table facing

inside but not necessarily in the same order as given. One person sits
between M and N. Two persons sit between N and S. P and N are not
immediate neighbours to each other. T sits second to the left of P. T
neither sits opposite to M nor N. Q does not sit adjacent to S. O sits third
to the left of R.

Q84. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related
to a group, which of the following is dissimilar to others?

(a) O-Q (b) R-T (c) S-P (d) M-N (e) O-T

Q85. What is the position of M with respect to R?

(a) Immediate right (b) Second to the left (c) Fourth to the left (d)
Immediate left (e) Second to the right

Q86. Who among the following sits opposite to O?

(a) S (b) T (c) P (d) M (e) N

Q87. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) R sits opposite to M (b) Two persons sit between O and P (c) P sits
adjacent to M and R (d) No one sits between Q and T (e) Three persons sit
between N and Q

Q88. What is the position of O with respect to the one who sits third to the
right of P?

(a) Fifth to the right (b) Immediate right (c) Second to the left (d) Third to
the left (e) Second to the right

Directions (89-91): In each of the questions below, some statements are

given followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.

Q89. Statement: Some Rupee are Note. All Note are Bank. Some Bank is
Currency.

Conclusions: I. No Note is Currency. II. Some Ruppe is Currency

(a) If only conclusion I follows (b) If only conclusion II follows (c) If either
conclusion I or II follows (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows (e) If both
conclusion I and II follow

Q90. Statement: All Birds are Species. Only a few Birds are Parrots. No
Species is Animal.

Conclusions: I. Some Species can never be Parrots. II. Some Birds are not
Animal.

(a) If only conclusion I follows (b) If only conclusion II follows (c) If either
conclusion I or II follows (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows (e) If both
conclusion I and II follow

Q91. Statement: All Oil are Chemical. Only a few Carbon is Chemical. All
Carbon is Diamond.

Conclusions: I. Some Diamond being Oil is a possibility. II. All Diamond can
be Chemical.

(a) If only conclusion I follows (b) If only conclusion II follows (c) If either
conclusion I or II follows (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows (e) If both
conclusion I and II follow

Directions (92-94): Read the given information carefully and answer the
questions based on it:
Point A is 5m west of point B which is 7m north of point C. Point D is 13m
south of point E. Point F is 5m east of point E. Point H is 7m west of point
G. Point G is 5m north of point F. Point C is 5m west of point D.

Q92. What is the direction of point G with respect to Point A?

(a) East (b) North-east (c) South (d) West (e) North-west

Q93. Four of the following five are similar in a certain way and form a
group, which of the following does not belong to the group?

(a) G-F (b) A-B (c) C-D (d) E-F (e) B-C

Q94. What is the total distance from Point A to Point G?

(a) 35m (b) 33m (c) 45m (d) 40m (e) 42m

Directions (95-99): Read the given information carefully and answer the
questions based on it:

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sit in a row facing north but not

necessarily in the same order as given. Three persons sit between Q and
T. V sits just right of T who sits third from an end. One person sits between
V and P. U neither sits adjacent to Q nor at any end of the row. The
number of persons sit to the left of S is same as the number of persons sit
between U and R. Even number of persons sit between R and W. R does
not sit at any extreme end.

Q95. What is the position of W with respect to P?

(a) Third to the right (b) Immediate left (c) Second to the right (d) Fourth
to the left (e) Fourth to the right

Q96. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and belong
to a group, who among the following does not belong to the group?

(a) U (b) W (c) Q (d) T (e) V

Q97. Which of the following statement is true?

I. W sits at the left end of the row

II. S and Q are immediate neighbours of each other

III. Three persons sit to the left of U

(a) Only II (b) Only I (c) Only II and III (d) Only I and II (e) Only III

Q98. What is the position of S with respect to R?

(a) Fourth to the right (b) Second to the left (c) Third to the right (d) Fifth
to the left (e) Immediate right
Q99. How many persons sit between U and V?

(a) None (b) Three (c) One (d) Two (e) Four

Q100. A word-based series is given with a blank in it. Read the series
carefully and find which of the following element is suitable for the blank
in series?

CDB HIG MNL ____ WXV

(a) RST (b) QRS (c) RSQ (d) QST (e) SRQ

IBPS CLERK PRELIMS 2024

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H purchase product one after another

but not necessarily in the same order. Two persons purchase product
between D and F. One person purchase product between C and F. C
purchase after F. As many persons purchase before E as after G. Neither F
nor D is the first person to purchase a product. A purchase product three
persons before B who is third last person to purchase a product. One
person purchase product between A and E. F purchase before D.

Q1. Which one of the following is true?

(a) A purchases product immediately after C

(b) F is the fourth last person to purchase a product

(c) H is second last person to purchase a product

(d) D purchases product just after A (e) None is true

Q2. How many people purchase the product between A and H?

(a) Three (b) One (c) Two (d) Four (e) More than Four

Q3. Four of the following five pair are alike in a certain way and thus form
a group. Which among the following does not belong to that group?

(a) E and C (b) D and G (c) A and B (d) F and D (e) C and G

Q4. As many persons purchase product after D is same as many persons

purchase product between F and ____.

(a) A (b) B (c) E (d) None of these (e) G

Q5. How many people purchase the product before B?

(a) Two (b) Four (c) Three (d) Five (e) Six
Directions (6-10): In each of the questions, relationships between some
elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by
conclusions numbered I and II. Read the statements and give the answer.
Q6.

Statements: X ≥ Y > U = W, Z > U ≤ V

Conclusions: I. V > W II. W < X

(a) If only conclusion I is true (b) If only conclusion II is true

(c) If either conclusion I or II is true (d) If both conclusions I and II

are true

(e) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q7. Statements: G ≥ H = I > E ≥ F

Conclusions: I. G > F II. F = G

(a) If only conclusion I is true (b) If only conclusion II is true

(c) If either conclusion I or II is true (d) If both conclusions I and II are

true

(e) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q8. Statements: A ≤ B < C = D, F ≤ C = I

Conclusions: I. A < C II. D ≥ F

(a) If only conclusion I is true (b) If only conclusion II is

true

(c) If either conclusion I or II is true (d) If both conclusions I and

II are true

(e) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q9. Statements: L > A = N > C ≥ Q

Conclusions: I. N < L II. A ≥ Q

(a) If only conclusion I is true (b) If only conclusion II is true

(c) If either conclusion I or II is true (d) If both conclusions I and II

are true

(e) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q10. Statements: J ≥ K < L = M, O ≤ L > T

Conclusions: I. J > L II. O < M

(a) If only conclusion I is true (b) If only conclusion II is true

(c) If either conclusion I or II is true (d) If both conclusions I and II
are true

(e) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q11. If we form a four-letter meaningful word by using the fourth, sixth,

seventh and ninth letters from the left end of the word “PROMOTION”,
then which of the following will be the third letter from the left end of the
meaningful word thus formed. If more than one such word is formed mark
X as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark Y as your
answer?

(a) M (b) Y (c) N (d) T (e) X

Directions (12-16): Study the following information carefully and answer

the questions given below.

Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born in eight different

months- January, April, May, August, September, October, November and
December but not necessarily in the same order. P was born in a month
having even number of days. U was born one month before P. As many
persons were born before V is same as many persons were born after W. V
was born three months after Q. Two persons were born between R and S
who was born after R.

Q12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which among the following does not belong to that group?

(a) Q (b) R (c) U (d) T (e) W

Q13. How many persons were born between Q and S?

(a) Three (b) One (c) Two (d) Four (e) More than Four

Q14. As many persons were born before U is same as many persons were
born after _____.

(a) Q (b) R (c) P (d) T (e) S

Q15. R was born how many months before W?

(a) Seven (b) Four (c) Three (d) Five (e) Six

Q16. Which one of the following is true?

(a) Three months gap between when Q and U were born

(b) Q was not the first person to be born

(c) P was born two persons before W

(d) S was born in September (e) None is true

Q17. In the number ‘671923’, If digit is greater than 5 then 3 is subtracted
from the given digit and if digit is less than 6 than 2 is added to the digit
of the given digit, then which of the following digit are appears more than
once?

(a) Only 3 (b) Only 4 (c) Only 3 and 4 (d) Only 4 and 5 (e) None of these

Directions (18-22): Study the following alphanumeric-symbol series

carefully to answer these questions.

W2%F7#M3K&5T@1H9*L8D4P?6J

Q18. How many such digits are there in the above arrangement which are
immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a
consonant?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None (e) None of these

Q19. Find the odd one out? (a) 27% (b) P8? (c) M&3 (d) TH@ (e) *DL

Q20. If we dropped all the symbols then how many elements in between
4th letter from the left end and 3rd digit from the right end?

(a) More than five (b) Three (c) Five (d) Two (e) Four

Q21. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement which
are Immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a
number?

(a) One (b) Three (c) Two (d) Four (e) None of these

Q22. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement which
are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a
number?

(a) One (b) Two (c) None (d) Four (e) None of these

Directions (23-25): Study the following information carefully to answer

these questions.

Six persons are arranged according to their height in descending order

from left to right. B is taller than D but shorter than A who is not the tallest
among all. D is taller than E. F is taller than D but shorter than C. As many
persons are between C and F as many between F and D.

Q23. How many persons are shorter than C?

(a) Three (b) One (c) Two (d) Four (e) More than four

Q24. If the sum of the heights F and B is 76cm and sum of the heights F
and D is 65cm then what is the sum of the heights of B and D (If F is 12cm
taller than B)?
(a) 61cm (b) 53cm (c) 52cm (d) 54cm (e) 55cm

Q25. How many persons are between A and F?

(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Four (e) Three

Directions (26-29): Study the following information carefully to answer

these questions.

A Certain number of persons sit in a row facing north. R sits 2nd to the left
of J. Q sits 4th to the right of R. Four persons sit between A and S. S sits
6th to the left of U. T sits exactly between S and U. As many persons sit to
the left of K as many right of K. R sits 2nd from one of the extreme ends.
M sits 2nd to the right of U. A and U are not an immediate neighbour. K
sits 3rd to the right of A. One person sits between Q and A.

Q26. How many persons sit in the row?

(a) 23 (b) 14 (c) 18 (d) 21 (e) 19

Q27. What is the position of K with respect to T?

(a) 5th to the left (b) 3rd to the left (c) 4th to the right (d) 5th to the right
(e) Immediate left

Q28. How many persons sit between J and S?

(a) Four (b) Nine (c) Eight (d) Six (e) Seven

Q29. Which of the following is true?

I. Q sits 5th from one of the extreme ends

II. Two persons sit between S and T

III. K and Q are not an immediate neighbour

(a) Both II and III (b) Both I and II (c) Only II (d) Only III (e) All I, II and III

Q30. In the given number ‘479851326’, What is the resultant difference

between the sum of all the even digits and sum of all the odd digits?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 0

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully to answer

these questions.

Eight persons sit around a circular table facing inside the centre. E sits
2nd to the right of C. Two persons sit between E and A. F is not an
immediate neighbour of G. B sits opposite to D. G sits 2nd to the left of H.
D and H are not an immediate neighbour.

Q31. What is the position of C with respect to A?

(a) 2nd to the right (b) 5th to the left (c) 3rd to the left (d) Immediate right
(e) Immediate left

Q32. How many persons sit between D and H, when counted from the left
of H?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) None

Q33. Which of the following is true?

(a) G sits 2nd to the left of E (b) A does not face F (c) E and D are
immediate neighbours (d) G sits two persons away from B (e) None is true

Q34. Who sits immediately to the right of G?

(a) A (b) C (c) E (d) F (e) B

Q35. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of

B?

(a) D, E (b) F, A (c) C, H (d) G, H (e) C, D

Directions (36-44): Read the following passage and answer the given
questions.

In a small village nestled in the heart of the Deccan Plateau, lived a

remarkable woman named Laxmi. From a young age, she was deeply
passionate about farming, an interest that set her apart in her community.
Her journey began in her twenties when she joined a local community
called Sangam, an initiative that aimed to increase awareness about
indigenous goods and sustainable farming practices. Sangam was more
than just a community; it was a movement dedicated to preserving the
rich agricultural heritage of the region. Laxmi quickly became a prominent
member of Sangam, thanks to her vast knowledge and unwavering
commitment to the cause. She took up the cultivation of various crops
such as cereals, pulses, and oilseeds, mastering the techniques that had
been passed down through generations. But Laxmi didn’t stop at just
farming; she saw the potential for these crops to transform her village's
economy and way of life. Recognizing the need for education, Laxmi
began organizing workshops and events where she taught the villagers
the art of farming these indigenous products. She shared the benefits of
traditional agricultural practices, emphasizing their role in ensuring food
security and promoting sustainability. One of her key lessons was the
importance of storing agricultural products, a practice that could protect
the community from the uncertainties of weather and market fluctuations.
Laxmi's efforts bore fruit as more and more villagers embraced her
teachings. The community saw a significant increase in crop yields, and
the stored produce became a vital resource during lean periods. Beyond
farming, Laxmi also advocated for the use of organic methods, which not
only improved the soil health but also produced healthier, chemical-free
food for the villagers. Through her tireless work, Laxmi transformed her
village, making it a model of sustainable living and self-reliance.

Q36. Which of the following statements is incorrect based on the

information given in the passage?

(a) Laxmi was a member of a community called Sangam, which aimed to

increase awareness about indigenous goods and sustainable farming
practices.

(b) Laxmi organized workshops and events to educate villagers on the

benefits of traditional farming methods.

(c) The villagers learned to store agricultural products, which became a

vital resource during lean periods, thanks to Laxmi's teachings.

(d) Laxmi started farming of only cereals, focusing on a single crop to

ensure high yields and consistency in farming practices.

(e) Laxmi advocated for organic farming methods to improve soil health
and produce healthier, chemical free food for the villagers.

Q37. What was the primary objective of the community called Sangam
that Laxmi joined in her twenties?

(a) To promote modern farming techniques that integrate advanced

machinery and technology for increased agricultural productivity.

(b) To raise awareness about indigenous goods and sustainable farming

practices that help preserve the region's agricultural heritage.

(c) To provide financial support to farmers in the form of low-interest loans

and grants to improve their economic stability.

(d) To introduce genetically modified crops that promise higher yields and
resistance to pests and diseases.

(e) To train villagers in animal husbandry, focusing on improving livestock

care and increasing dairy production.

Q38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct based on the

information given in the passage?

I. Laxmi joined the Sangam community in her twenties to promote the use
of modern farming technologies.

II. Laxmi emphasized the importance of storing agricultural products to

protect the community from uncertainties.
III. Laxmi's efforts led to a significant increase in crop yields and the
adoption of organic farming methods in the village.

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct. (c) Only III is correct. (d) Both I
and II are correct. (e) Both II and III are correct.

Q39. Which practice did Laxmi emphasize as essential to protect the

community from the uncertainties of weather and market fluctuations?

(a) Exporting crops to other regions, which could provide a higher income
but involves risks associated with market demand and transport.

(b) Relying on monsoon rains as the primary source of water for crops,
despite the increasing unpredictability of climate patterns.

(c) Switching to cash crops that offer potentially higher immediate profits
but may compromise long-term soil fertility and food security.

(d) Using chemical fertilizers that promise quick results in boosting crop
yields but can lead to soil degradation over time.

(e) Storing agricultural products in well-maintained facilities to ensure a

stable food supply and financial security during times of scarcity or poor
harvests.

Q40. What role did Laxmi play in preserving the agricultural heritage of
her region?

(a) She documented ancient farming techniques and published them in a

local journal.

(b) She advocated for the use of indigenous crops and traditional farming
methods to maintain the region’s agricultural practices.

(c) She imported seeds from other regions to diversify the village's
agricultural output.

(d) She worked with local government to introduce subsidies for farmers
using organic methods.

(e) She built a museum to showcase the history of farming in her village.

Q41. What was one of the main reasons Laxmi organized events in her
village?

(a) To celebrate local festivals and strengthen the village's cultural

identity.

(b) To introduce modern agricultural technologies that could enhance crop

production.
(c) To teach the villagers about the benefits of farming indigenous
products and how these could lead to greater self-reliance.

(d) To attract investors and increase funding for the village's agricultural
projects.

(e) To establish connections with other farming communities for the

exchange of knowledge and resources.

Q42. Which of the following words has a similar meaning to "EVENTS" as

used in the passage?

(a) Meets (b) Occurrences (c) Incidents (d) Celebrations (e) Companies

Q43. What additional benefit did Laxmi promote through the use of
organic farming methods, according to the passage?

(a) Higher profits from export markets that demand organically grown
produce, thereby opening up new revenue streams for the village farmers.

(b) Lower costs due to reduced labor and the avoidance of expensive
chemical inputs, making farming more economically viable for small-scale
farmers.

(c) Faster crop growth, allowing farmers to harvest more frequently and
meet the growing demand for agricultural products in local and regional
markets.

(d) Improvement in soil health and the production of chemical-free food,

which contributes to better nutrition and long-term sustainability for the
community.

(e) Easier farming techniques that reduce the physical strain on farmers,
enabling them to manage larger plots of land with less effort and time.

Q44. Which of the following words has a similar meaning to "STORED" as

used in the passage?

(a) Collected (b) Preserved (c) Stocked (d) Gathered (e) Accumulated

Q45. Given below are four sentences, out of which one sentence is
grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which points out the
grammatically incorrect sentence. If all sentences are correct. Choose ‘All
are correct’ as your answer.

(a)After the long hike, she lay down on the grass, exhausted but content

(b) Amidst the flickering twilight, she strained to seen the distant
silhouette.
(c)The stock prices rise whenever there is positive news about the
company.

(d)As tensions rise in the negotiations, both sides are seeking a

compromise.

(e)All are correct

Q46. Given below are four sentences, out of which one sentence is
grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which points out the
grammatically incorrect sentence. If all sentences are correct. Choose ‘All
are correct’ as your answer.

(a)India is knowing for its beautiful culture and different types of crafts
and traditions.

(b)The central bank raised interest rates to combat rising inflation, hoping
to stabilize the economy.

(c) The government introduced a subsidy for renewable energy projects to

encourage investment.

(d)The absence of quality land records specifically affects the ability of

marginal farmers to gain access to credit from formal organisations.

(e)All are correct

Q47. Given below are four sentences, out of which one sentence is
grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which points out the
grammatically incorrect sentence. If all sentences are correct. Choose ‘All
are correct’ as your answer.

(a)Bamboo is a sustainable, eco-friendly and affordable alternative to

plastic, wood and even aluminum.

(b)The manifestation of ‘inclusive development of India’ can be evident

from its impact on regional development.

(c) She felt her spirits rise when she heard the good news.

(d)The availability of both surface and groundwater varying from one

region to another.

(e)All are correct

Q48. Given below are four sentences, out of which one sentence is
grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which points out the
grammatically incorrect sentence. If all sentences are correct. Choose ‘All
are correct’ as your answer.
(a) Foreign investment has significantly boosted the local economy,
creating new jobs and opportunities.

(b) Artificial intelligence is rapidly evolving, with the potential to transform

industries across the globe.

(c) Protecting endanger species is crucial for maintaining biodiversity and

ecological balance.

(d) The ancient ruins provide a glimpse into a civilization that once thrived
thousands of years ago

(e)All are correct

Directions (49-52): In each question a part is omitted which is then

replaced by a blank. Choose the word from the given options that will fit
into the blank most appropriately.

Q49. The snakes silently slide ___________ the tall grass, barely making a
sound.

(a) off (b) through (c) away (d) down (e) up

Q50. She felt a mix of excitement and nervousness while _____________

into the unknown territory for the first time.

(a) resembling (b) gauging (c) expanding (d) floating (e) venturing

Q51. He kept going ___________ his dreams, despite the many obstacles in
his path.

(a) up (b) before (c) out (d) after (e) around

Q52. The collector proudly displayed the first _____________ of the rare
comic book in a glass case.

(a) depth (b) edition (c) emphasis (d) ability (e) moment

Directions (53-57): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper

sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them.

(A) Trust in institutions and interpersonal trust are positively correlated

with economic prosperity, as they reduce transaction costs and encourage
investment.

(B) The survey also highlighted that countries with higher trust levels tend
to have better governance, which further contributes to their economic
success.

(C) A recent survey explored the relationship between trust and

prosperity, revealing a strong link between the two.
(D) Consequently, nations that foster trust within their societies often
experience greater economic growth and stability.

(E) According to the survey, trust not only enhances social cohesion but
also plays a crucial role in facilitating economic transactions.

Q53. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after

rearrangement?

(a) D (b) A (c) E (d) C (e) B

Q54. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after

rearrangement?

(a) A (b) D (c) B (d) E (e) C

Q55. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after

rearrangement?

(a) C (b) E (c) D (d) A (e) B

Q56. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after

rearrangement?

(a) B (b) E (c) D (d) C (e) A

Q57. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after

rearrangement?

(a) C (b) A (c) E (d) B (e) D

Q58. A word has been used in the sentences given below. Identify the
statement(s) where the word has been used in a contextually and
grammatically correct manner. KNEE

(I) She is so powerful that even her toughest opponents were forced to
bend their knees in submission.

(II) While playing basketball, she injured her knee when she landed
awkwardly after a jump.

(III) To make the perfect loaf of bread, you need to knee the dough until it
becomes smooth and elastic.

(a) Only (III) (b) Both (I) and (II) (c) Both (II) and (III) (d) Only (I) (e) All of
these

Directions (59-61): In each of the questions given below, a sentence is

given with four words highlighted. These four words may or may not be in
their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the
correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to
make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the
correct combination of the words that replace each other.

Q59. The paper pulled (A) into (B) the inner part of the copy machine and
had to be jammed (C) out (D) by the printer technician.

(a) A-B (b) C-D (c) A-C (d) B-D (e) No interchange required

Q60. Mrs. Griffin has enough (A) about going (B) her own school but is
worried that she wouldn’t have thought (C) students to keep it opening
(D).

(a) A-B (b) C-D (c) A-B & C-D (d) A-C & B-D (e) No interchange required

Q61. It was unfortunate that our team’s halftime (A) were raised (B) so
high during spirits (C), because we were subsequently crushed (D).

(a) A-C (b) C-B (c) A-B (d) B-D (e) No interchange required

Directions (62-65): In the following questions, a sentence is provided with

a highlighted phrase that may be incorrect. If the highlighted phrase is
incorrect, choose the option that best replaces the phrase to make the
sentence both grammatically and contextually correct.

Q62. Despite renewable energy's potential, the global economy remains

heavily reliant in fossil fuels, complicating the shift to sustainability.

(a)remain heavily reliant in (b)remained heavily reliant in

(c)remaining heavily reliant on (d)remains heavily reliant on

(e)No correction required

Q63. Digital platforms have intensified ideological divisions, leading at

concerns about social media's impact on public discourse and dialogue.

(a)who lead to concerns about (b)leading to concerns

about

(c)lead to concerns about (d)leading to concerns on

(e)No correction required

Q64. Cognitive biases often distorting our perception of reality, leading to

decisions that contradict rational thinking.

(a)often distort our perception of reality (b)often distorted our

perception of reality (c)often distorts our perception of reality
(d)often distort our perception in reality

(e)No correction required

Q65. Before I had sat in the car, the driver opened the door for me.
(a) Before I have sat (b) Before I sat in the car (c) Once I
had been sitting

(d) Before I am sitting (e) No replacement required

Directions (66-70): The graph shows the total number of orders received
by five restaurants (A, B, C , D & E). Read the line graph and answer the
following questions.

Q66. Find the average number ordered received by A, B and D.

(a) 76 (b) 72 (c) 24 (d) 66 (e) 42

Q67. The orders received by D, 25% are veg orders and rest are non- veg
orders, then find the non veg orders received by D.

(a) 80 (b) 72 (c) 84 (d) 76 (e) 92

Q68. Restaurant X received 33.37% more orders than that of A and

Restaurant Y received 12.5% more orders than E. find the total orders
received by X and Y.

(a) 195 (b) 190 (c) 194 (d) 196 (e) 192

Q69. Find the orders received by A and E together are what percent
more/less than that of B and C together.

(a) 15% (b) 66.66% (c) 33.33% (d) 20% (e) 14.28%

Q70. Find the ratio of orders received by E to orders received B and D

together.

(a) 22:39 (b) 39:22 (c) 19:14 (d) 19:16 (e) 12:13
Q71. In April 2019, a man has Rs 17500 and it is increased by 20% every
year in the starting of April. If man spends 60% of total amount in April
2021, then find total amount (in Rs.) man has at the end of April 2021?

(a) 15120 (b) 10060 (c) 9080 (d) 10080 (e) 12080

Q72. The ratio of length to breadth of a rectangle is 4 : 3 and area of the

rectangle is 300 cm square. If the breadth of rectangle decreased by 20%
and the length is increased by 10%, then find the new perimeter (in cm) of
the rectangle?

(a) 68 (b) 70 (c) 60 (d) 84 (e) 48

Q73. A and B started a business with some amount. After 9 months, A left
the business. At the end of a year, the profit share of A and B is in the
ratio of 9 : 16. Find the ratio of investment of A and B respectively?

(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 3 (e) 3 : 5

Q74. A, B and C together can do a work in 4 days, while B and C together

can do the same work in 20/3 days. Find in how many days A alone can do
60% of the work?

(a) 20 (b) 18 (c) 8 (d) 6 (e) 24

Q75. The speed of a train is 72 km/hr and it crosses a pole in 16 seconds.

If speed of the train is increased by 12 meters/second, then find the time
taken by the train to cross the same pole (in seconds)?

(a) 20 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 5 (e) 10

Q76. A man invested Rs X in scheme A at the rate of 20% p.a. for two
years on compound interest annually. Also, he invested same amount in
scheme B at rate of 30% p.a. for two years on simple interest. If the
difference between interest received from both schemes is Rs 896, then
find the value of X (in Rs.)?

(a) 6000 (b) 6400 (c) 4800 (d) 5600 (e) 3600

Q77. Cost price of two articles A and B is equal. Article A sold at profit of
20% and article B sold at loss of 30%, so overall loss of Rs 50 occurred.
For received a profit of 40%, article B should sell at what price (in Rs)?

(a) 700 (b) 840 (c) 560 (d) 420 (e) 980

Directions (78-82): Find the missing term of the given series.

Q78. 100, 101, 103, 109, 133, ?

(a) 253 (b) 216 (c) 240 (d) 200 (e) 210

Q79. 12600, 1800, 300, 60, ?, 5

(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 40 (d) 20 (e) 30

Q80. ?, 189, 176, 193, 172, 197

(a) 150 (b) 180 (c) 140 (d) 120 (e) 130

Q81. 8, 224, 249, 313, 322, ?

(a) 315 (b) 330 (c) 340 (d) 320 (e) 300

Q82. 21, ?, 135, 544, 2725, 16356

(a) 105 (b) 84 (c) 100 (d) 24 (e) 44

Q83. Seven years hence, the ratio of age of A to that of B will be 2:1. If the
ratio of age of A to that of B three years hence will be 5:2, then find the
present age (in years) of B?

(a) 12 (b) 5 (c) 9 (d) 6 (e) 8

Q84. The difference of two positive numbers is 2. If 50% of bigger number

is equal to 60% of smaller number, then find the bigger number?

(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 14 (e) 16

Q85. A vessel contains 120 liters mixture of milk and water and water is
25% of milk in the vessel. If 12 liters of water added in the vessel, then
find the ratio of water to milk in the resulting mixture?

(a) 5 : 8 (b) 8 : 3 (c) 3 : 8 (d) 1 : 5 (e) 2 : 3

Q86. The ratio of upstream speed of a boat and speed of current is 4:1. If
in downstream the boat can cover 60 km in 2.5 hours, then find out the
speed of current?

(a) 6 kmph (b) 4 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) 8 kmph (e) 3 kmph

Q87. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 150% and the

denominator of the fraction is decreased by 25%, the resultant fraction is
of 8. What is the original fraction.?

(a) 2/7 (b) 4/15 (c) 2/9 (d) 4/17 (e) 5/18

Directions (88 -100): What will come in the place of question mark (?) in
the place of question mark.

Q88.

(a) 4 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 6 (e) 10

Q89.

(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 2 (e) 4

Q90.

(a) 1.5 (b) 2.25 (c) 1.75 (d) 2 (e) 2.75

Q91.

(a) 20 (b) 45 (c) 25 (d) 50 (e) 60

Q92.

(a) 20 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 15 (e) 25

Q93. 45% of 800 + 60 – 270 = ?

(a) 90 (b) 60 (c) 120 (d) 180 (e) 150

Q94.

(a) 846 (b) 868 (c) 818 (d) 826 (e) 834

Q95.

(a) 898 (b) 972 (c) 540 (d) 1056 (e) 752

Q96. 4 of 143 ÷ 26 × 12 – 200 = ?

(a) 58 (b) 64 (c) 72 (d) 80 (e) 74

Q97.

(a) 281 (b) 300 (c) 290 (d) 315 (e) None of these

Q98.

(a) -36 (b) 36 (c) -29 (d) 29 (e) None of these

Q99. 1512 ÷36+44×32= ?

(a) 1450 (b) 1350 (c) 1150 (d) 1460 (e) None of these
Q100.
3 7 3 7
(a)11 (b)9 (c)8 (d)10 (e)
10 10 10 10
3
12
10

IBPS CLERK PRELIMS 2023

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:

Eight persons A to H were born (but not necessarily in the same order) on
two different dates i.e., 5 or 20 in four different months viz. April, May, July
and September. F was born just before H on odd date in the month having
odd days. The numbers of persons were born after F is same as the
numbers of persons were born before D. E was born just after G who was
born two persons after A. C was born before B.

Q1. The numbers of persons were born between G and H is same as the
numbers of persons were before _____.

(a) A (b) B (c) F (d) D (e) None of these

Q2. In which month was E born?

(a) April (b) May (c) July (d) September (e) Cannot be determined

Q3. How many persons were born after A?

(a) One (b) Three (c) Two (d) Four (e) Cannot be determined

Q4. Who was born in the month of May?

(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) G (e) H

Q5. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) A was born on the 20th. (b) D was born after B.

(c) G was born in July. (d) H was born after D.

(e) E was born on an odd date.

Directions (6-7): In each question below some statements are given

followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts. Give answer-

Q6. Statements: All animal are birds Only a few birds are mammal No
mammal is carnival

Conclusions: I. All birds can never be mammal

II. Some birds are not carnival

(a) If only conclusion I follows (b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or II follows (d) If neither conclusion I nor

II follows

(e) If both conclusions I and II follow

Q7. Statements: Only a few numbers are letter All symbols are letter No
letter is ruin Conclusions: I. All symbols being ruin is a possibility

II. Some numbers are not ruin

(a) If only conclusion I follows (b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or II follows (d) If neither conclusion I

nor II follows

(e) If both conclusions I and II follow

Directions (8-12): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:

Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a circular table and all

of them face towards the centre of the table but not necessarily in the
same order. E sits second to the right of F. Only two persons sit between A
and E. B faces G and sits second to the right of C. H doesn’t sit adjacent to
A.

Q8. How many persons sit between H and G when counts from the left of
H?

(a) Four (b) Two (c) One (d) Three (e) Five

Q9. Which among the following statement is true?

(a) H faces the one who sits immediate left of A (b) C sits
adjacent to D

(c) Three persons sit between B and G (d) H sits two persons
away from A
(e) None is true

Q10. If all the persons sit in alphabetical order starts from A in clockwise
direction, then the position of how many persons remains unchanged
(excluding A)?

(a) One (b) Two (c) None (d) Three (e) More than three

Q11. What is the position of D with respect to F?

(a) Fifth to the right (b) Sixth to the left (c) Third to the right (d) Second to
the left (e) Immediate left

Q12. Four of the following five are alike in certain way and thus forms a
group, then who among the following doesn’t belong to that group?

(a) A-C (b) B-G (c) D-E (d) H-F (e) B-A

Directions (13-15): Study the following information carefully and answer

the questions given below:

A is the mother of D and B. G’s daughter is married with D. F is the

brother-in-law of H. H and M are not siblings. M is the sister-in-law of B and
vice versa. F is the only brother of G who is grandmother of K.

Q13. Who is the grandfather of K?

(a) A (b) B (c) H (d) M (e) D

Q14. How is F related to M?

(a) Father (b) Uncle (c) Grandfather (d) Brother-in-law (e) None of the
above

Q15. If C is the wife of K, then how D is related to C?

(a) Father-in-law (b) Uncle (c) Grandfather (d) Brother-in-law (e) None of
the above

Directions (16-20): Study the following alphabet and symbol series

carefully and answer the questions given below:

Q16. Which among the following element is 6th to the right of the 11th
element from the right end of the given series?

(a) D (b) F (c) ϕ (d) L (e) α

Q17. If all the symbols are eliminated from the given series, then which
among the following is the 8th letter from the left end?

(a) U (b) T (c) O (d) I (e) P

Q18. How many vowels are immediately preceded by a letter and
immediately followed by a symbol in the given series?

(a) Four (b) Two (c) One (d) Three (e) Five

Q19. Four of the following five are alike in certain way in the given series
and thus forms a group, then which among the following doesn’t belong to
that group?

(a) WE! (b) %&R (c) H βO (d) ∞®L (e) ASF

Q20. How many symbols are to the right of 8th letter from the right end in
the given series?

(a) Five (b) Four (c) Three (d) Six (e) Seven

Q21. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘38172946’,
each of which has as many digits between them in the number as they
have in the number series (both forward and backward direction)?

(a) One (b) Three (c) More than four (d) Two (e) Four

Directions (22-26): Study the following information carefully and answer

the questions given below:

Seven persons go to watch movie on different days from Monday to

Sunday of the same week. At most one person goes before C. As many
persons go before C as after E. Only two persons go between E and D. G
goes two persons after A. More than two persons go between F and B. A
doesn’t go after B.

Q22. Who among the following person goes to watch movie on Thursday?

(a) E (b) A (c) C (d) F (e) D

Q23. How many persons go to watch movie between C and B?

(a) Two (b) Five (c) Three (d) Four (e) Six

Q24. On which among the following days does B go to watch movie?

(a) Sunday (b) Tuesday (c) Saturday (d) Wednesday (e) Monday

Q25. Which among the following statement is not true?

(a) C goes to watch movie at least before three persons

(b) Even number of persons go to watch movie between A and B

(c) B goes to watch movie after F (d) F goes to watch movie on

Monday

(e) All are true

Q26. If all the persons go to watch movie in alphabetical order from
Monday to Sunday, then the position of how many persons changed?

(a) One (b) Six (c) Three (d) Four (e) Five

Q27. If we form a four-letter meaningful word by using the first, second,

fourth and sixth letter from the left end of the word ‘FRANCHISE’, then
which of the following will be the fourth letter of the meaningful word thus
formed. If more than one meaningful word is formed mark Z as your
answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer?

(a) F (b) R (c) H (d) X (e) Z

Directions (28-30): Study the following information carefully and answer

the questions given below:

Six persons are arranged according to their height in descending order. Q

and P are taller than U. Only one person is shorter than T. R is taller than U
but shorter than Q. Height of R is 154cm. Difference between height of R
and P is 8cm. As many persons taller than P as shorter than U. S is shorter
than U.

Q28. Who among the following is the second shortest person?

(a) Q (b) P (c) T (d) U (e) R

Q29. How many persons are taller than U?

(a) Three (b) Two (c) One (d) Four (e) None of these

Q30. What may be the height of Q?

(a) 146cm (b) 158cm (c) 150cm (d) 152cm (e) 151cm

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer

the questions given below:

In a certain code language:

“Dream your special wish” is coded as “mr kt wc sg”

“Your willing is dream” is coded as “lg ut wc kt”

“Special dream is aim” is coded as “wc qk mr lg”

“Think wise special willing” is coded as “yl ut mr pt”

Q31. What is the code of “Wish”?

(a) mr (b) sg (c) wc (d) kt (e) Either kt or wc

Q32. The code “pt” is coded for?

(a) Wise (b) Think (c) Special (d) Either think or wise (e) Either Wise or
Special

Q33. If “think twice” is coded as “dw yl” then how is “wise towards”
coded?

(a) pt lg (b) qk pt (c) pt vx (d) lg ut (e) Can’t be determined

Q34. What is the code of “Dream wise”?

(a) wc sg (b) pt wc (c) wc yl (d) Either pt wc or wc yl (e) None of these

Q35. The code “mr qk” is coded for?

(a) aim wise (b) think dream (c) willing is (d) wish dream (e) None of these

Directions (36 - 40): In each of these questions a number series is given.

In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

Q36. 91, 164, 134, 207, 177, 245, 220

(a) 164 (b) 245 (c) 207 (d) 91 (e) 220

Q37. 1.5, 9, 51, 205, 616, 1233, 1234

(a) 616 (b) 51 (c) 1.5 (d) 1233 (e) 9

Q38. 1180, 600, 316, 172, 100, 64, 46

(a) 316 (b) 64 (c) 172 (d) 600 (e) 46

Q39. 15.5, 19, 23.5, 29, 35.5, 40, 51.5

(a) 40 (b) 15.5 (c) 19 (d) 23.5 (e) 51.5

Q40. 23, 347, 603, 799, 940, 1043, 1107

(a) 23 (b) 940 (c) 347 (d) 603 (e) 1043

Directions (41-45): The table given below shows total number of bikes
manufactured by four (A, B, C and D) different companies in two different
(2021 and 2022) years. Read the table carefully and answer the questions.
Q41. Find the ratio of total bikes manufactured by A in 2021 to total bikes
manufactured by B and C together in 2022.

(a) 5 : 21 (b) 6 : 31 (c) 6 : 29 (d) 6 : 41 (e) 6 ; 35

Q42. If 30% of total bikes manufactured by D in 2021 are brand X bikes

and remaining are brand Y bikes, then find the difference between brand X
and brand Y bikes manufactured by D in 2021.

(a) 52 (b) 65 (c) 130 (d) 78 (e) 104

Q43. If C sold each bike at Rs. 8000 in 2021 and at Rs. 9000 in 2022, then
find total revenue (in Rs.) generated by C in both the given years.

(a) 3990000 Rs. (b) 2160000 Rs. (c) 4620000 Rs. (d) 2210000 Rs. (e)
3290000 Rs.

Q44. Total bike manufactured by C in 2021 and D in 2022 together is what

percent of total bike manufactured by A and B together in 2021.

(a) 200% (b) 260% (c) 140% (d) 160% (e) 120%

Q45. If average number of bikes manufactured by C, D and E in 2021 is

290, then find total number of bikes manufactured by E in 2021.

(a) 370 (b) 270 (c) 470 (d) 310 (e) 350

Q46. The length of a rectangle is 12 cm and the side of a square is 14 cm

less than the sum of the length and breadth of the rectangle. If the
perimeter of the rectangle is 16 cm more than the perimeter of the
square, then find the breadth of the rectangle.

(a) 6 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 4 cm (e) 5 cm

Q47. The average weight of a group of five people is 85 kg. If a new

person joined the group and the average weight decreased by 5 kg, then
find the weight of the new person.

(a) 45 kg (b) 58 kg (c) 61 kg (d) 42 kg (e) 55 kg

Q48. A alone can complete a work in 40 days. A and B together can

complete one-fourth of the work in 3 days. If A started the work alone and,
after 8 days, B joined, then find the number of days taken by A and B
together to complete the remaining work.

(a) 5.4 days (b) 4.8 days (c) 9.6 days (d) 8.1 days (e) 7.2 days

Q49. ‘A’ started a business with an investment of Rs.8000 and after six
months, ‘B’ joined with an investment of Rs. X. If at the end of the year,
the profit share of ‘B’ is Rs.21000 out of a total profit of Rs.49000, then
find the value of X.
(a) 12000 (b) 10000 (c) 14000 (d) 8000 (e) 16000

Q50. A shopkeeper marked an article 40% above its cost price and
allowed a discount of 20%. Had he marked the article 50% above its cost
price and allowed a discount of 12%, the selling price would have been Rs.
90 more than the earlier selling price. Find 130% of the cost price.

(a) 495 (b) 585 (c) 675 (d) 885 (e) 395

Q51. A boat covers 54 km distance in upstream in nine hours and the

same boat covers 60 km distance in downstream in five hours. Find the
ratio of speed of boat in still water to speed of stream.

(a) 4 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 3 (e) 5 : 1

Q52. ‘x’ years hence, the ratio of age of A to that of B will be 7 : 5. ‘x+4’
years hence the ratio of age of A to that of B will be 4 : 3. If present age of
A is 26 years, then find the present age of B.

(a) 21 years (b) 12 years (c) 15 years (d) 18 years (e) 19 years

Q53. A man invested Rs. 4000 at rate of R% p.a. for three years on simple
interest and he received Rs. 1800 as interest. If the man invested Rs.
5000 at rate of (R-5) % p.a. on compound interest for two years, then find
the interest received by the man.

(a) 750 Rs. (b) 2200 Rs. (c) 1612.5 Rs. (d) 1050 Rs. (e) 512.5 Rs.

Q54. The ratio of the speeds of a train and a man is 6 : 1 respectively. The
length of the train is 780 m and crosses a pole in 1 minute 5 seconds. In
how much time will the man cross the 240 m long platform?

(a) 120 seconds (b) 60 seconds (c) 90 seconds (d) 180 seconds (e) 150
seconds

Q55. In a vessel water is 40% of the milk. When 28 litres of mixture are
taken out from the vessel and 10 litres of water is added in the remaining
mixture, then quantity of water becomes 60% of the milk. Find the initial
quantity of milk?

(a) 70 litres (b) 21 litres (c) 14 litres (d) 35 litres (e) 49 litres

Directions (56-70): What will come in place of (?) question mark in the
following questions.

Q56.

(a) 516 (b) 816 (c) 616 (d) 716 (e) 916

Q57.
(a) 100 (b) 300 (c) 600 (d) 150 (e) 160

Q58.

(a) 35 (b) 30 (c) 48 (d) 40 (e) 50

Q59.

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5 (e) 6

Q60.

(a) 95 (b) 85 (c) 105 (d) 75 (e) 65

Q61.

(a) 182.4 (b) 184.4 (c) 186.4 (d) 188.4 (e) 192.4

Q62.

(a) 78 (b) 72 (c) 84 (d) 80 (e) 79

Q63.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Q64.

(a) 895 (b) 885 (c) 865 (d) 875 (e) 855

Q65.

(a) 24 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 22 (e) 20

Q66.

(a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 39 (d) 27 (e) 29

Q67.

(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 25 (d) 35 (e) 40

Q68.

(a) 110 (b) 105 (c) 100 (d) 120 (e) 125
Q69.

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1 (e) 9

Q70.

(a) 1062 (b) 1042 (c) 1072 (d) 1052 (e) 1082

Directions (71-79): Read the given passage and answer the following
questions. Some parts have been highlighted to aid in answering the
questions.

Ato was a young man who lived in a small village in the mountains. The
village had been suffering from an ancient salt deficiency for generations.
The soil was so poor that it couldn't produce crops, and the people were
forced to eat tasteless food. They were also weak and sickly, and many of
them died young. The man was determined to find a way to help his
people. He travelled far and wide, seeking out knowledge about salt and
how to produce it. He met with wise men and scholars, and he studied
ancient texts. He even travelled to distant lands, where he learned about
the salt mines of other cultures. After many years, Ato finally returned to
his village with the knowledge he had sought. He told the people of his
village about salt and how it could help them. He also told them about the
salt mines he had seen in other lands. The people were sceptical at first.
They had never heard of salt before, and they didn't believe that it could
help them. But the man was patient and persistent. He taught the people
how to grow crops that required salt, and he showed them how to build a
salt mine. It took many years, but eventually the people of the village
were able to overcome their salt deficiency. They were able to grow
healthy crops, and they were no longer weak and sickly. Ato was hailed as
a hero, and he is still remembered today as the man who saved his
village.

Q71. What was the main problem faced by the village in the mountains?

(a) Lack of water for irrigation, which led to poor crop yields and food
scarcity.

(b) Soil with excessive nutrients, causing imbalances in plant growth and
quality.

(c) Ancient salt deficiency that had plagued the village for generations,
affecting both crops and health.

(d) Overpopulation, putting a strain on available resources and causing

malnutrition.
(e) Excessive rainfall, leading to soil erosion and difficulty in cultivation.

Q72. How did Ato attempt to solve the village's problem?

(a) By building a dam for water supply to enhance agricultural

productivity.

(b) By importing crops from other villages to address food shortages.

(c) By teaching the villagers to mine for gold as an alternative source of

wealth.

(d) By seeking knowledge about salt and its production to combat the salt
deficiency issue.

(e) By introducing advanced medical treatments to improve the villagers'

health.

Q73. How did the villagers initially react to Ato's knowledge about salt?

(a) They were excited and immediately started implementing his ideas to
alleviate their struggles.

(b) They were sceptical and didn't believe salt could be a solution to their
long-standing problem.

(c) They welcomed him as a hero without any doubts, grateful for his
efforts.

(d) They ignored his advice and continued with their traditional practices,
resistant to change.

(e) They thought he was a magician and feared the potential

consequences of his knowledge.

Q74. What did Ato teach the villagers to do in order to improve their
situation?

(a) How to build better houses using local materials and techniques.

(b) How to mine for precious stones to bring in additional income for the
village.

(c) How to grow crops that required salt, thus addressing the salt
deficiency issue.

(d) How to perform ancient rituals for good luck and improved agricultural
outcomes.

(e) How to raise livestock in the mountains to diversify their food sources.

Q75. How did the village change after implementing Ato's knowledge?
(a) The people became weaker and sicker due to the increased salt
consumption.

(b) The villagers started fighting over the salt resources, causing conflicts.

(c) The village experienced a shortage of water, hampering agricultural

activities.

(d) The soil became more fertile, and crops grew well, leading to better
health and food security.

(e) The villagers decided to move to a different location to escape their

salt-related issues.

Q76. Why is Ato remembered in his village?

(a) For introducing new religious practices that brought unity to the
villagers.

(b) For discovering a hidden treasure that greatly enriched the village.

(c) For teaching them advanced medical treatments that improved their
well-being.

(d) For finding a way to address their salt deficiency, leading to improved
living conditions.

(e) For leading the village's defence against invaders and ensuring their
safety.

Q77. Choose the most appropriate synonym for the word “persistent” as is
highlighted in the passage.

(a) Temporary (b) Fleeting (c) Resolute (d) Uncertain (e) Random

Q78. Which of the following words is most similar to the word “overcome”
as it is used in the passage?

(a) Surrender (b) Complicate (c) Maintain (d) Retreat (e) Conquer

Q79. Choose the most appropriate antonym for the word “sceptical” as is
highlighted in the passage.

(a) Cautious (b) Trusting (c) Doubtful (d) Hesitant (e) Apprehensive

Directions (80-84): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper

sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them.

(A) Embracing these goals is essential to build a more equitable, resilient,

and harmonious world for current and future generations.
(B) These goals, established by the United Nations, encompass a range of
interconnected targets, from ending hunger and promoting health and
education to fostering gender equality and clean energy access.

(C) The 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) serve as a

comprehensive blueprint for global prosperity, focusing on eradicating
poverty, protecting the planet, and ensuring a better future for all.

(D) The SDGs strive to tackle pressing challenges such as climate change,
inequality, and social injustice, aiming to create inclusive and sustainable
societies by 2030.

(E) By uniting nations, organizations, and individuals in a collective effort,

the SDGs envision a world where economic growth is balanced with
environmental conservation, social equity, and responsible consumption.

Q80. Which of the following should be the third sentence after

rearrangement?

(a) D (b) A (c) B (d) E (e) C

Q81. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after

rearrangement?

(a) A (b) D (c) B (d) E (e) C

Q82. Which of the following should be the second sentence after

rearrangement?

(a) C (b) E (c) D (d) A (e) B

Q83. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after

rearrangement?

(a) B (b) E (c) D (d) C (e) A

Q84. Which of the following should be the first sentence after

rearrangement?

(a) C (b) A (c) E (d) B (e) D

Directions (85-89): In each of the questions given below four words are
given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct
position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct
combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the
sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct
combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is
correct as it is then select option (e) as your choice.

Q85. A large house (A) of wire will be needed to run (B) the cable (C) line
from one end of the spool (D) to the other.
(a) A-D (b) A-D & B-C (c) B-C (d) A-C & B-D (e) No interchange required

Q86. The GST Council needs (A) to meet (B) more often (C) and turn (D) its
to-do list into a must-do list expeditiously.

(a) A-C (b) C-D (c) A-D (d) B-D (e) No interchange required

Q87. A grand (A) procession streets (B) through the rolled (C) of the
festive (D) city.

(a) A-C & B-D (b) B-C (c) A-D & B-C (d) A-D (e) No interchange required

Q88. As the boy walked (A) into his favorite teacher’s classroom, he
realized (B) that it was a class (C) to have his best friend in the same perk
(D) with him.

(a) A-C & B-D (b) B-C (c) A-B & C-D (d) C-D (e) no replacement required

Q89. Unravelling (A) the fishing (B) line wrapped (C) tightly around the
spool, the fisherman prepared (D) to cast his pole.

(a) A-D (b) C-B (c) B-D (d) A-B (e) No interchange required

Directions (90-90): Each of the following questions give a sentence which

has been divided into four parts which might not be in their correct order
of narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which
gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence
meaningful. You must choose the option which gives the correct sequence
of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence or
the correct sequence doesn't match with any of the given sequence, mark
option (e). i.e., " No rearrangement required " as your answer.

Q90. the leaves, plants release the (A)/ moved from the roots to (B)/ once
water is (C)/ excess liquid in the form of vapor (D).

(a) ADCB (b) CBAD (c) DBCA (d) BADC (e) No arrangement required

Directions (91-95): In each question a part is omitted which is then

replaced by a blank. Choose the word from the given options that will fit
into the blank most appropriately.

Q91. I was going out when the telephone__________________.

(a) was ringing (b) rang (c) ringing (d) rings (e) had rang

Q92. She used to _________________ after him wherever he went.

(a) following (b) follow through (c) follow up (d) follow (e) followed

Q93. The artist's unique style and creative vision _________________ a sense
of wonder and awe among viewers.
(a) evoked (b) suppressed (c) restricted (d) defied (e) weakened

Q94. The musician's soulful performance and heartfelt lyrics

_________________ a deep emotional connection with the audience.

(a) severed (b) forged (c) ramify (d) disrupted (e) disenchanted

Q95. The sudden economic downturn _________________ a wave of

uncertainty among investors and business owners.

(a) ignited (b) alleviated (c) fortified (d) depleted (e) fostered

Directions (96-100): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of
the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’,
the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

Q96. In the pond, the (A)/ small guppy flapped (B)/ his tailfin back and
forth (C)/ to swim next to the bigger fish.(D)

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error

Q97. Since the police has not (A)/ given a statement yet, the (B)/ reporter
can only make a (C)/ conjecture about the crisis (D).

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error

Q98. An oculist is a (A)/ medical professional who (B)/ specializes in

diseases associated (C)/ for the eyes (D).

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error

Q99. The investor sold all (A)/ of his stocks after having (B)/ a premonition
about (C)/ the market crashes (D).

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error

Q100. If logical minds do not (A)/ prevail, a major war will (B)/ break out
between the two (C)/ largest gangs in the city (D).

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error